1.

Mask ventilation is difficult in

A) 1: 30 cases
B) 1:20 cases
C) 1:50 cases
D) 1:25 cases
E) 1:55 cases
2. Difficulty in intubation occur in emergency patient
A) 1:50 cases
B) 1:120 cases
C) 1:150 cases
D) 1:300 cases
E) 1:200 cases
3. The following of causes of difficult airway except
A) Arthritis of neck/jaw/larynx.
B) Cervical and craniofacial deformity
C) breath holding
D) Pregnancy
E) Abdominal cramps
4. The patient is asked to hold head erect, facing directly to the front, then he is asked
to extend the head maximally and the examiner estimates the angle traversed by the
occlusal surface of upper teeth this is called.
A) Atlanto-occipital movement
B) Warning sign of DELIKAN
C) Subluxation of the mandible
D) Savva test
E) Mandibular protrusion test
5. In Atlanto-occipital movement the patient with grade ll occur in which degree
A) >35 degrees
B) 22-34 degrees
C) 12–21 degrees
D) <12 degrees
E) 30-35 degrees
6. In Warning sign of DELIKAN if the finger under the chin is seen to be higher than the
finger under the inferior occipital prominence then what did you predict
A) Sever difficulty with intubation
B) Minimum difficulty with intubation
C) No chance of intubation
D) No difficulty with intubation
E) Both A and C
7. A positive "prayer sign" can be seen mostly in
A) Diabetic patients
B) Patient with CVS disease
C) Kyphosis
 D) Immunological disease
E) Traumatic patient
8. In mandibular protrusion test when the lower incisors can be brought edge to edge
with upper incisors it represents which class
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
E) Class E
9. The normal value of INTER-INCISOR GAP is
A) 3 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 3.5 cm
E) > 5 cm
10. Distance from the upper border of the manubrium to the tip of mentum, neck fully
extended, mouth closed is called
A) SAVVA test
B) Sternomental distance
C) Thyromental Distance
D) PATIL’S test
E) Both A and B
11. A patient with grade 3 according to CORMACK – LEHANE Grading at direct
laryngoscopy have the following characteristics
A) Full exposure of glottis (anterior + posterior commissure)
B) Anterior commissure not visualized
C) Epiglottis only
D) No glottis structure visible.
E) None of them
12. The Wilson’s risk score consists of the following
A) Weight
B) Head and neck movement
C) Jaw movement
D) Buck teeth
E) All of the above
13. If the Wilson’s risk score of a patient came with us 5 or less it means
A) Easy laryngoscopy
B) Difficulty in laryngoscopy
C) Require surgical airway
D) Difficulty in supraglottic airway placement
E) Access issue
14. The abbreviation of LEMON trial used for airway assessment include all of the
following except
 A) Look
B) Obstruction
C) Nutritional status
D) Evaluate 3-3-2
E) Mallampati
15. To predict difficult placement of supraglottic devices which score is used
A) BANG
B) RODS
C) SAVVA test
D) Warning sign of DELIKAN
E) Magboul’s 4 M’s
16. Secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy is most commonly seen?
A) 6 hours after surgery
B) 24 hours after surgery
C) 6 days after surgery
D) 14 days after surgery
E) 10 days after surgery
17. A 5-year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery, he had
running nose, temperature 37.5°C and dry cough. Which of the following should be
the most appropriate decision for surgery?
A) Surgery should be cancelled
B) Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma
C) Should get X-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
D) Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be put on antibiotics
E) Not sure what to do
18. Excision of lymphoid tissue form Oropharynx is called
A) Tonsillectomy
B) Adenoidectomy
C) Adenotonsillectomy
D) Laryngectomy
E) Polypectomy
19. Best position for tonsillectomy is
A) Left lateral position
B) Hyperextended position
C) Rose position
D) Trendelenburg position
E) Reverse Trendelenburg position
20. Contraindications of Tonsillectomy are all except
A) Children under 3 years of age.
B) Overt of sub mucous cleft palate
C) Bleeding disorders
D) At the time of epidemic of polio
E) Tonsils requiring biopsy to define tissue pathology
21. During laser us in ENT surgeries the following precautions are made, except
a. ETT cuff filled with saline
b. Add methylene blue with saline in ETT cuff
c. Use Nitrous oxide
d. Laser intensity and duration kept limited
22. In airway assessment, atlanto-occipital extension of 12-210 will represent
a. Grade II difficult intubation
b. Grade II easy intubation
c. Grade III easy intubation
d. Grade III difficult intubation
e. Grade IV difficult intubation
23. SAVVA test for airway assessment represents
a. Hyomental distance
b. Stern omental distance
c. Thyromental distance
d. Atlanta occipital distance
24. If spontaneous ventilation is used via an ETT which of the following is preferred for
intubation
a. Mivacurium
b. Sux
c. Acuron
d. Rocuronium
25. If electrocautery is used during surgical dissection, the possible lowered FiO2 to
reduce risk of fire is
a. 50 to 60%
b. 40% or less
c. 30% or less
d. 50% or less
26. Moffett solution consist the following except
a. 2ml coacain
b. 2ml MgSO4
c. 2ml sodium bicarbonate
d. 1 ml adrenaline
27. Quinsy represents
a. Post tonsillar abscess
b. Common abscess
c. Peri tonsillar abscess
d. Post tonsillectomy infection
28. Negative pressure pulmonary edema develops due to
a. severe bronchospasm
b. Acute airway obstruction
c. Sever laryngospasm
d. Cardiogenic causes
29. In negative pressure pulmonary edema the patient have the following except
a. Tachypnea
b. dyspnea
c. no sputum production
d. pulmonary rales
30. The negative intrathoracic pressure cause
a. hydrostatic pressure to increase
b. hydrostatic pressure to decrease
c. oncotic pressure increased
d. enhances fluid movement into the pulmonary circulation
31. During radical neck dissection, manipulation of the carotid sinuses and stellate
ganglion causes the following except
a. bradycardia
b. wide swing in B.P.
c. arrhythmias
d. tachycardia
32. Bilateral neck dissection may result in postoperative…
a. hypotension, increased hypoxic drive
b. low hypoxic drive and HTN
c. low hypoxic drive and hypotension
d. high hypoxic drive and HTN
33. Low hypoxic drive and HTN during bilateral neck dissection is due to
a. infiltration into carotid sheath
b. vagus stimulation
c. infiltration to carotid bodies
d. denervation of both carotid bodies and carotid sinuses
34. Among the following one branch of vagus nerve is more at risk to injury during
thyroid surgery
a. superior laryngeal nerve
b. recurrent laryngeal nerve
c. external laryngeal nerve
d. internal laryngeal nerve
35. Patients with history of chronic ear problems like otitis media may, on rare
occasions, experience tympanic membrane graft rupture/hearing loss, if
intraoperatively…
a. isoflurane is used
b. desflurane is used
c. halothane is used
d. N2O is used
e. Sevoflurane is used
36. Discontinuation of Nitrous oxide after graft placement will cause graft detachment
because of
a. Positive pressure in whole ear
 b. Negative pressure in eternal ear
c. Negative pressure in middle ear
d. Positive pressure in middle ear
37. If Nitrous oxide is being used during tympanic membrane graft placement surgeries,
when is the nitrous oxide discontinued to avoid dislodgement of graft
a. 5 - 10 min before surgery
b. 5 - 10 min after graft placement
c. 15 – 30 min before graft placement
d. 5 min before graft placement
38. To minimize blood loss during ear surgeries all following techniques are utilized
except
a. Awake extubation
b. Mild 150 head elevation
c. Topical epinephrine (1:50,000 – 1:200,000)
d. Moderate controlled hypotension
39. Intra operative paralysis with NMBs is not used unless requested by surgeon during
ear surgeries because
a. To preserve auricular nerve
b. Preserve auricular branch of vagus
c. Preserve fascial nerve
d. Preserve greater auricular nerve
40. The commonest post-operative ear surgery complications are the following except
a. Hematoma
b. Ear infection
c. High salivation
d. Vertigo
e. PONV
41. A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had
running nose, temperature 37.5ºC and dry cough. Which of the following should be
the most appropriate decision for surgery?
A. Surgery should be cancelled
B. can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma
C. Should get x-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
D. Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic

42. Indication for tonsillectomy including

A. Recurrent quins
B. acute tonsillitis
C. Cogan syndrome
D. Adult obstructive sleep apnea
E. Debulking of an arbor stage 3 lymphoma
43. The followings are possible of complication of total laryngectomy

A. Pharyngeal stenosis
B. Chronic sinusitis
C. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Sensorineural hearing loss
E. Voice changes

44. For a patient suffering from voice loss following a total laryngectomy the following
method communication are available
A. Eye contact
B. Sign languag
C. Trachea esophageal fistula
D. Gastro esophageal speech
E. Artificial voice change
45. Secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy is most commonly seen?
A. 6 hours after surgery
B. 72 hours after surgery
C. 6 days after surgery
D. 14 days after surgery
E. 24 hours after surgery
46. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the
following conditions except:
A. In a difficult intubation
B. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C. In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery
D. ln a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity
47. All the following are predictors of difficult intubation EXCEPT:
A. TMD <6cm
B. mallampatti classification class IV
C. Prominent C1 spinous process
D. Mouth opening <3cm
E. Prominent maxillary canines
48. Anesthesia of choice for rigid bronchoscopy
A) GA with intubation
B) topical
C) GA with high frequency ventilation
D) apnea technique
49. THE BEST INDICATION OF A DIFFICULT INTUBATION IN MORBID OBESITY
A: MALLAMPATTI SCORE
B: NECK CIRCUMFERENCE
C: LIMITED NECK MOVEMENT
 D: TMJ
50. INCREASED ALVEOLAR –ARTERIAL OXYGEN GRADIENT CAN BE CAUSED BY
A: ENDOTRACHEAL INTUBATION
B: DECREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT
C: 2nd GAS EFFECT
D: ATELECTASIS
51. LIGNOCAINE SPARY TO THE CORD REDUCE LARYNGOSPASM BY
A. : BLOCKING PARASYMPATHATIC AFFERENT RECEPTOR
B: PARALYSING THE SMOOTH MUSCLE
C: BLOCK THE SYMPATHETIC RESPONE
D: BOTH A AND B
52. FOR A DIFFICULT INTUBATION USING A GUM ELASTIC BOUGIE TO ACHIEVE
THE LEAST RESISTANCE TO ENTRY OF ETT
A: LEAVE LARYNGOSCOPE AS IN AND DO A 1 BY 4 TURN CLOCKWISE WITH
THE ETT
B: LEAVE LARYNGOSCOPE AS IN AND DO A 1 BY 4 TURN ANTICLOCKWISE
WITH THE ETT
C: TAKE LARYNGOSCOPE OUT AND DO A 1 BY 4 TURN CLOCKWISE
D: TAKE LARYNGOSCOPE OUT AND DO A 1 BY 4 TURN ANTICLOCKWISE
53. ALL THE FOLLOWING ARE PREDICTORS OF DIFFICULT INTUBATION EXCEPT
A: INTER –INCISOR DISTANCE <3cm
B: PROMINENT C1 SPINOUS PROCESS
C: TMD <6cm
D: SAMSOON CLASSIFICATION CLASS IV
54. Absolute contraindication of tonsillectomy is:
A. Age below 04 years.
B. Age above 60 years.
C. Cleft palate.
D. Acute infection and bleeding disorder.
E. Fibrosed tonsils.
55. Peritonsillar abscess is also known as:
a. Retropharyngeal abscess
b. Tonsillar abscess
c. Quinsy
d. Thornwaldt’s abscess
56. Most common complication of Tracheostomy is:
a. Stenosis
b. Infection
c. Pneumonia
d. Respiratory failure
57. normal inspiratory and expiratory ratio during bronchoscopy
a) 1:2
b) 1:4
c) 4:1
 d) 2:1
e) 1:5
58. Regarding OBESE Formula all of the following are true except.
a) Obese BMI
b) Beared
c) Elderly
d) Snorer
e) Enlarge trachea
59. All of the following are indication of surgical airway except
a) CICV
b) Craniofascial abnormality
c) Upper airway obstruction
d) Restricted neck moment
e) Neck scaring
60. normal clotting time(CT) is.
a) 2 mint
b) 3--5 mint
c) 1---3 mint
d) 5----8 mint
e) 4---7 mint
61. advantages of the rose position include all of the following except
a) Easy intubation
b) Difficult intubation
c) Decrease aspiration chances
d) Easy layrengoscopy
e) Provide distance to surgeon
62. Indication of inhilational indution except
A. children
B. OSA
C. UAO
D. Epistaxis
E. Uncoperative patient
63. which of the following is contraindicated in marengoplasty.
a) N2o
b) Isoflurane
c) Halothane
d) Midazolam
e) Benzodizepine
64. Visible part of the ear is called
a) Basilar membrane
b) External ear or Ear pinna
c) Eardrum
d) Tympanum
65. The delicate membrane at the end of the External Auditory Meatus is called
a) Ear Drum or Tympanum
b) Malleus
 c) Stapes
d) Incus
66. Treatment of choice for glue ear is
a) Myringotomy with cold knife
b) Myringotomy with diode laser
c) Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion
d) Conservative treatment with analgesics & antibiotics

67. Nasal intubation is contraindicated in

A) tonsillectomy
B) Adenoidectomy
C) thyroidectomy
D) Neurosurgery
68. in adults, trachea starts at the level of which vertebrae?
A) C2
B) C4
C) C6
D) T1
69. Nasal floor is formed by
A) lacrimal bone
B) Ethmoid bone
C) palatine bone
D) vomer bone
70. which of the following statements are true regarding the children having post
tonsillectomy bleeding, except
A) treat as an emergency
B) consider patient as full stomach
C) consider hypovolemia
D) don't apply Sallick's maneuver