Anesthesia for ENT

1. Laser is useful modality for surgery, which laser is most widely used in medical practice?
a. Argon
b. CO2
c. Ruby
d. Nd: YAG
2. CO2 laser acts by its absorption in
a. Water
b. Blood
c. Fat
d. Melanin in pigment layer
3. CSF Rhinorrhea is common in fracture of
a. Temporal bone
b. Nasal bone
c. Cribriform plate
d. Temporosphenoid
4. Nasal intubation is indicated in
a. Tonsillectomy
b. Adenoidectomy
c. Thyroidectomy
d. Neurosurgery
5. The causes of stridor shortly after birth is
a. Laryngotracheomalacia
b. Laryngeal cyst
c. Enlarged tonsils
d. Carcinoma larynx
6. Which of the following types of Endotracheal tube (ett) is preferred during laser surgery in ENT
practice?
a. PVC ETT
b. Red Rubber ETT
c. ETT wrapped with reflective metallic tape
d. Tube coated with methylene blue dye
7. Which of the following statement are true regarding the children having post tonsillectomy
bleeding, except
a. Treat as an emergency
b. Consider patient as full stomach
c. Consider Hypovolemia
d. Don’t apply Salick’s maneuver
8. All of the following are common pediatric airway emergencies, except?
a. Treat as an emergency
b. Consider patient as full stomach
c. Consider hypovolemia
d. Don’t apply Sallick’s maneuver
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9. All of the following are common pediatric airway emergencies, except
a. Epiglottitis
b. Laryngotracheobronchitis
c. Sinusitis
d. Foreign body aspiration
10. Foreign body aspiration is characterized by history of all of the following, except
a. Coughing
b. Choking
c. Vomiting
d. Cyanosis
11. After tonsillectomy patient should be kept in a specified position, called
a. Sim’s position
b. Prone position
c. Lawn chair position
d. Post-tonsillectomy position
12. Hyoid bone is closely associated with
a. Bronchogenic cyst
b. Thyroglossal cyst
c. Bronchial cyst
d. Cystic hygromas
13. All of the following are complications of Tracheostomy, except
a. Increased in dead space
b. Surgical hygroma
c. Blockade of tracheotomy tube
d. Difficult decannulation
14. Which of the following is not a part of lymphoid tissue of the waldeyer’s?
a. Faucial tonsils
b. Lingual tonsils
c. Adenoids
d. Sub-mental lymph node
15. Balance of the body is maintained by the co ordination of all the following, except
a. Vestibular System
b. Cochlear System
c. Visual System
d. Proprioceptive system
16. Function of the nose is/are
a. Air conditioning of inspired air
b. Adding resonance to the voice
c. Filtering of inspired air
d. All of the above
17. X-ray finding in chronic maxillary sinusitis is
a. Destruction of the maxillary sinus
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b. Haziness of maxillary sinus
c. Expansion of maxillary sinus
d. None of above
18. In adults, trachea starts at the level of
a. C2
b. C4
c. C6
d. T1
19. Nasal floor is formed by
a. Lacrimal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Palatine bone
d. Vomer bone
20. Contraindication of flexible bronchoscopy is
a. Severe kyphoscolosis
b. Impacted foreign body removal
c. Conformation of ETT tube position
d. Airway management in trismus
21. A 90 years old patient complains of epistaxis, the etiology could be following except
a. Angiofiberoma
b. Trauma
c. Malignancy
d. Hypertension
22. A 10 year old boy had bleeding per nose, the etiology could be all of the following except
a. Nasal crust
b. Accident
c. Angiofibroma
d. Nasal polyp
23. Usually all of the following signs and symptoms are observed in patients with strider, least
common one is
a. Respiratory rate
b. Crepitations
c. Cyanosis
d. Nasal fiaring
24. All of the following sinuses open in the middle meatus, expect
a. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
b. Posterior ethmoidal sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Frontal sinus
25. Ideal level to form tracheal stoma is around the
a. First tracheal ring
b. Third tracheal ring
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c. Fifth tracheal ring
d. None of the above
26. All of the following are late complications of Tracheostomy except
a. Tracheal srenosis
b. Tracheomalacia
c. Difficult decannulation
d. Tracheoesophageal fistula
27. In a patient having hoarseness of voice, vocal cords can be visualized by all of the following
except
a. Indirect lyrngoscopy
b. Wide opening of mouth and tongue protrusion
c. Direct lyrngoscopy
d. Flexible fibroscopy
28. By per oral approach all of the following nerves can be blocked, except
a. Glossophryngeal nerve
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Mental nerve
29. All of the following are congenital causes of stridor, except
a. Sub glottis stenosis
b. Lyrngeal web
c. Lyrngeal papilomatosis
d. Tracheomalacia
30. Intubation granuloma occurs at which site of lyrnx?
a. Anterior commisure
b. Junction of Anterior 1/3 and posterior 2/3
c. Posterior 1/3 and anterior 2/3
d. Supraglottic region
31. For premedication which of the following drugs should be avoided/contraindicated in a patient
having significant degree of upper airway obstruction?
a. Anti-cholinergic
b. Benzodiazepine
c. Bronchodilator
d. Corticosteroid
32. Which of the following conditions require an immediate surgical intervention?
a. Quincy tonsils
b. Foreign body esophageous
c. AC polyps
d. Sinusitis
33. Kartagener’s syndrome includes all of the following except
a. Dextrocardia
b. Bronchiectasis
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c. Laryngeal polyp
d. Sinusitis
34. Indirect lyrngoscopy was pioneered by
a. A teacher of singing
b. A physician
c. An otolyrngologist
d. A neurosurgeon
35. All of the following procedures are commonly performed on pediatric patients, except
a. Myringotomy
b. Adenoidectomy
c. Rigid bronchoscopy
d. Lyrngectomy
36. For removal of lower second molar teeth, which of the following nerve should be blocked?
a. Mental nerve
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Infraorbital nerve
d. Lingual nerve
37. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding monitored anesthesia care
a. Monitoring of vitals when surgery is done under local anesthesia
b. Includes administration of sedatives, analgesics, antiemetic, b blockers, oxygen when
needed
c. No need of anesthesiologist’s presence
d. Preanesthetic examination and evaluation
38. All of the following factors lead to the lodgment of foreign body more commonly into right side
of the lung, except
a. Right lung is shorter and wider than lift
b. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than left
c. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body into right
d. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
39. Most common permanent airway injury occurring during tracheal intubation is
a. Lip injury
b. Dental injury
c. Lyrngeal Trauma
d. Tonsillar fossa injury
40. Rigid laryngoscopy can be performed by using
a. Straight blade
b. Curved blade
c. Suspension Laryngoscope
d. All of them
41. Name of the curved blade used in direct laryngoscopy is
a. Macintosh
b. Miller
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c. Polio
d. Stanford
42. According to international standards organization, size of laryngoscope for neonate is:
a. 00
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
43. In Curved blade technique, tip of the blade is advanced upto
a. Epiglottis
b. Vallecula
c. Under the epiglottis
d. None of these
44. Three types of bronchoscopes are used for flexible laryngoscopy, which type of lyrngoscope has
no suction pump
a. Standard bronchoscope
b. Ultrathin Bronchoscope
c. Small Bronchoscope
d. Nasopharyngoscope
45. the standard flexible bronchoscope and the nasopharyngoscope are used to evaluate
a. Laryngomalacia
b. Vocal cord Paralysis
c. Abscess formed
d. A and B
46. Radical Neck dissection is performed for
a. Cervical Lymphatic metastasis
b. Adenoids
c. Tonsils
d. All of them
47. For neck dissection, size of tumor should be at least
a. 3 cm
b. 3-6 cm
c. <6 cm
d. >6 cm
48. Tube positioning for Radical Neck dissection should be
a. North facing
b. South facing
c. Any of above
d. No ETT
49. Surgical manipulation of the carotid sinus can produce
a. Fall in CO2
b. Bradycardia
c. Fall in Spo2
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d. Hypothermia
50. Ventilation technique for Microlyrngoscopy is
a. Jet ventilation
b. Close Ventilation
c. TIVA
d. All of them
51. Close ventilation means
a. Laser safe ETT
b. Metallic ETT
c. No tubing, puffs of anesthetic gasses
d. None of above
52. Sizes for microlayrngialtube
a. 4.0 and 5.0
b. 3.0 and 5.0
c. 5.0 and 5.7
d. 5.0 and 6.5
e. 4.0 to 6.0
53. Ideal gent for TIVA in ENT surgery is
a. Propofol
b. Thiopental
c. Ketamine
d. Morphine
54. Side effects of Jet ventilation include
a. V/Q mismatch
b. Barotrauma
c. High end tidal Co2
d. None
55. Most common surgical procedures carried out in children
a. adenotonsillectomy
b. Head and neck dissection
c. Paritoidectomy
d. All of above
56. Tonsils appear in which year of age?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. After 12 years
57. Safe premedication dose of oral midazolam in children
a. 0.5mg/kg
b. 0.7mg/kg
c. 1mg/kg
d. 1-2mg/kg
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58. For tonisloadenectomy, most common anesthetic gas used after Sevoflurane is
a. Methoxyflurane
b. Isoflurane
c. Desflorane
d. Nitrous oxide
59. Special Consideration for infection in ENT due to Prions ingestion
a. HIV
b. Cruzafelt Jackob
c. Ear infections
d. None
60. Which muscle relaxant has the shortest duration of action?
a. Mivacurium
b. Atracurium
c. Rapacurium
d. vacuronium
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1B 11 B 21 D 31 A 41 A 51 A
2A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 B 52 E
3C 13 D 23 B 33 A 43 B 53 A
4A 14 B 24 B 34 D 44 B 54 B
5A 15 B 25 D 35 B 45 D 55 A
6C 16 B 26 B 36 C 46 A 56 A
7D 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 D 57 A
8C 18 C 28 C 38 B 48 A 58 B
9C 19 B 29 B 39 B 49 B 59 B
10 D 20 A 30 B 40 D 50 D 60 A