NETWORK AND SYSTEM EXPERT MCQ:

1. What are characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol?

A. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.

C. It converges quickly.

D. It uses cost to determine the best route.

E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.

F. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.

2. Which parameter(s) are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Reliability.

B. Bandwidth.

C. Delay.

D. MTU.

E. Load.

3. Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes?

A. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

B. Successor routes are flagged as 'active' in the routing table.

C. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.

D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

E. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

4: What is the default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco
OSPF router?

A. 4

B. unlimited

C. 1

D. 16
E. 2

F. 8

5. Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic
protocol is also being used?

A. static route is always better then same dynamic route

B. cost

C. weight

D. administrative distance

E. bandwidth

F. metric

6. Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A. a backup route, stored in the topology table

B. a backup route, stored in the routing table

C. a primary route, stored in the topology table

D. a primary route, stored in the routing table

7. What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router?

A. Physically secure the interface.

B. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.

C. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

D. Administratively shut down the interface.

E. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.

8. Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask or masklen in routing updates.

B. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.

C. IGRP and OSPF are classfull routing protocols. D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and
summarize routes by default.

E. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.

9. What are drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol?

A. The large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

B. The high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network

C. The high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm

D. The sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets

E. The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality

10. Which are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?

A. Route summarization is computed automatically in the Edge router.

B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.

C. Routing tables changes automatically to topology changes.

D. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.

G. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table by hand.

11. What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to maintain and build it's topology
database?

A. SAP messages sent by neighbor routers

B. LSAs from other routers

C. hello packets

D. routing tables received from other link-state routers

E. TTL from multi-hop designated routers

F. beacons received on point-to-point links

12. Which is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?

A. SLIP

B. PPP

C. ADSL

D. dot1q

E. ISL

F. HDLC

G. Frame Relay

H. X.25

13. What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.

B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.

C. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

D. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.

14. What are characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point sub-interfaces?

A. They create split-horizon issues.

B. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.

C. They emulate leased lines.

D. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.

E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

15. Which statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP are true?

A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.

B. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.

C. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.

D. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

E. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.

F. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.

16: What is the purpose of Inverse ARP (Frame Relay)?

A. to map a known DLCI to an IP address

B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address

C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address

D. to map a known IP address to a MAC address

E. to map a known SPID to a MAC address

F. to map a known IP address to a SPID

17. What is the advantage of using a multi-point interface instead of point-to-point sub-interfaces when
configuring a Frame Relay hub in a hub-and-spoke topology?

A. A multi-point interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point sub-interface

configurations.

B. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multi-point interface provide greater addressing
flexibility over point-to-point configurations.

C. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.

D. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.

18. Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide
secure end-to-end communications?

A. RSA

B. PP2P

C. L2TP

D. IPsec

19. At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 5

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 3
E. Layer 2

20. What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?

A. Disable Inverse ARP

B. Develop multipoint subinterfaces

C. Configure point-to-point sub-interfaces.

D. Create a full-mesh topology

E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

21. What are reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might
implement a VPN solution instead of physical point-to-point links?

A. reduced latency

B. reduced cost

C. scalability

D. increased security

E. better throughput

F. broadband incompatibility

22. Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation supports asynchronous and synchronous circuits and has
builtin security mechanisms?

A. X.25

B. PPP

C. HDLC

D. VPN

E. Frame Relay

23. Which Frame Relay encapsulation type is supported by Cisco routers?

A. RFC

B. IETF

C. Q.933 Annex A

D. ANSI Annex D
24. In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.

B. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

C. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.

D. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.

25. Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

A. It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.

B. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

C. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.

D. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.

26. Which of the following extensions identifies a video file?

A. .msi

B. .tar

C. .img

D. .mp4

27. Which of the following file formats contain other files within them?

A. tiff

B. dmg

C. png

D. mp3

E. iso

F. flac

28. Which of the following is performed during WiFi setup on a mobile device?

A. Configuring Bluetooth pairing settings

B. Configuring email settings

C. Configuring screen lock settings

D. Configuring SSID settings

29. Which of the following is a reason that a user might upgrade a video card driver? (Select TWO).

A. To decrease the screen resolution

B. To access monitor standby mode

C. To fix an error message

D. To use additional features

E. To adjust the brightness/contrast

30. When trying to activate the operating system, a user receives a notice that the software is not
genuine. Which of the following security threats has occurred?

A. Social engineering

B. Phishing

C. Virus attack

D. License theft

31. A user wants to purchase a CAD application that requires 8GB of RAM to operate. Which of the
following operating system types is required?

A. 8-bit

B. 16-bit

C. 32-bit

D. 64-bit

32. Which of the following operating systems is MOST likely to be found on a desktop where its primary
functions include professional video and audio editing?

A. Chrome OS

B. Windows 7 Home

C. Mac OSX

D. IOS

33. Which of the following is MOST likely required during installation in order to legally install software?

A. Automatic updates
B. Service level agreement

C. License key

D. Antivirus software

34. Which of the following alternative technologies allows a computer to run multiple operating systems
without partitioning the hard drive?

A. Web applications

B. Dual boot

C. Telepresence

D. Virtualization

35. Which of the following software types allows for the creation of a single file composed of multiple
subfiles, while at the same time reducing the overall size of the combined elements?

A. Database

B. Document sharing

C. Compression

D. Maintenance

36. Which of the following is a common characteristic of open source software?

A. Update cycles are dictated by the manufacturer

B. Modifications to core functionalities are made by the manufacturer

C. Can only run on certain manufacturer processors

D. Can be fully modified by the user

37. A user learns of an operating system vulnerability that would allow a hacker to access the computer.
The user would like to keep the operating system up to date to prevent such vulnerabilities from
occurring. Which of the following should the user configure?

A. Additional OS features

B. Automatic updates

C. Software firewall

D. Anti-malware software
38. Which of the following technologies allows people to communicate all over the world inexpensively?

A. Virtualization

B. SSID

C. Kinetics

D. VoIP

39. Which of the following is a requirement to connect a smartphone to a wireless network?

A. SSID

B. SATA

C. SMTP

D. gzip

40. An employee, Joe, forgot his laptop at the airport. Joe is worried about unauthorized access. Which
of the following BEST protects against data theft in this instance?

A. Security software

B. Full disk encryption

C. Cable lock

D. Username and password

E. Patching the OS and third party software

41. You are the network administrator for your organization. You have a reference computer that runs
Windows Server 2016. You need to create and deploy an image of the Windows Server 2016 computer.
You create an answer file named answer.xml. You have to make sure that the installation applies the
answer file after you deploy the image. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.ICD.exe /append answer.xml/check

B.ICD.exe /mount answer.xml/verify

C.Sysprep.exe/reboot/audit/unattend:answer.xml

D.Sysprep.exe/generalize/oobe/unattend:answer.xml

42. You have a Windows Server 2016 Windows Image (WIM) that is mounted. You need to display
information about the image. What should you do?

A.Run DISM and specify the /get-ImageInfo parameter.

B.Run Driverquery.exe and use the /si parameter.

C.From Device Manager, view all hidden drivers.

D.From Windows Explorer, open the mount folder.

43. You are a network technician for your company, and you need to deploy Windows Server 2016 to
multiple computers. You want to automate the installation of Windows Server 2016 so that no user
interaction is required during the installation process. Which of the following utilities could you use?

A.Windows SIM

B.Image Capture Wizard

C.System Preparation Tool

D.WDSUTIL

44. You are a network technician for your company, and you need to deploy Windows Server 2016 to
multiple computers. You want to automate the installation of Windows Server 2016 so that no user
interaction is required during the installation process. Which of the following utilities could you use?

A.Windows SIM

B.Image Capture Wizard

C.System Preparation Tool

D.WDSUTIL

45. What is the default TCP port for iSCSI?

A.3260

B.1433

C.21

D.3389

46. You need to ensure that VM1 and VM2 can communicate with each other only. The solution must
prevent VM1 and VM2 from communicating with Server1. Which cmdlet should you use?

A.Set-NetNeighbor

B.Remove-VMSwitchTeamMember

C.Set-VMSwitch

D.Enable-VMSwitchExtension
47. Which of the following applications would be better suited on a failover cluster instead of a network
load-balanced cluster?

A.SQL Server

B.Website

C.Exchange Mailbox Server

D.VPN services

48. What are the minimum CPU requirements for running Hyper-V on a machine? (Choose all that
apply.)

A.An x64-based processor (Intel or AMD).

B.Hardware Data Execution Protection (DEP) must be enabled.

C.Hardware-assisted virtualization must be enabled.

D.The processor must at least have a dual core.

49. Which of the following actions should be performed against an NLB cluster node if maintenance
needs to be performed while not terminating current connections?

A.Evict

B.Trust anchor

C.Drainstop

D.Stop

50. You are the administrator for a large organization that wants to implement site-aware clustering.
What two PowerShell commands would you use to help you set up site-aware clustering?

A.(Get-Cluster).CrossSiteDelay = <value>

B.(Get-Cluster).CrossSiteThreshold = <value>

C.(Add-Cluster).CrossSiteDelay = <value>

D.(Add-Cluster).CrossSiteThreshold = <value>