Engineering Service Examination

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING-1993
PAPER-I
1. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is
more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose
ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of
correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.

1. For a real fluid moving with uniform velocity, the pressure

(a) Depends upon depth and orientation
(b) is independent of depth but depends upon orientation
(c) is independent of orientation but depends upon depth
(d) is independent of both depth and orientation
Sol. (d) In case of a real fluid moving with uniform velocity. the velocity head and pressure head are
dependent on each other and their total sum remains constaJt. The pressure is thus independent
of.both depth and orientation, but in case of fluids under static condition, the pressure would
depend on depth.
2. The vertical component of force on a curved surface submerged in a static liquid is eqaul to the
(a) mass of the liquid above the curved surface
(b) weight of the liquid above the curved surface
(c) product of pressure at e.G. multiplied by the area of the curved surface
(d) product of pressure at e.G. multiplied by the projected area of the curved surface
Sol. (b) The correct choice is (b) since the vertical component of force on a curved surface submerged
in a static liquid is the weight of the liquid above the curved surface.
3. In the situation shown in the given figure, the lengthBC is 3 m and M is the mid-point of BC. The
hydrostatic force on BC measured per unit width (width being perpendicular to the plane of the paper)
with 'g' being the acceleration due to gravity, will be
(a) 16500 g N/m passing through M
(b) 16500 g N/m passing through a point between M and C
(c) 14250 g N/m passing through M
(d) 14250 g N/m passing through a point between M and C
 --------
1
'C~~_~-;~~ 4m

::~-~~~
-
~;-~~
1 - - - - - - 60

Sol. The correct choice is (d)

Fig. 2
The hydrostatic force on BC = ~ Fv 2 + FH 2
where Fv = vertical component
= weight over area BC

=(4 +;.5) x 3;: x 103 g (for unit width)

= 4·75 x 1· 5 x 1· 732 X 103 g

= 12.34 X 103 g N/m

FH = Projected area of Be, i.e. BD x depth upon centre of BD x 103 g

= 1· 5 x 4·75 X 103 g (for unit width)
3
=7·125xl0 g
3
= 10 g~12. 342 + 7.1252
=14250 gN/m
This resultant acts at centre of pressure, i.e., at "32 of BD or between M and C.
 %l1-)
835

4. Two pipe lines at different pressures, PA and PH' each carrying the same liquid of specific gravity Sl'
are connected to a U-tube with a liquid of specific gravity S2 resulting in the level differences hJ' h
2
and h3 as shown in the figure. The difference in pressure head between points A and B in terms of
head of water is

f
hz

J
1
h
1

1 S2
S,

Fig. 3
(a) hlS2 + h2S, + h3S, (b) hIS, + h2S2 - h3S,
(c) h S - h2S 2 - h3'S (d) hIS, + h2S2 + h3S,
I'

Sol. (d) Considering the datum at XX in Fig. 4, the net pressure on left side is PA - hIS,
(the pressure due to inverted portion being equal)

f
hz
-l

Fig. 4
and net pressure on right side = PH + h3S, + h2S2
PA - PH= hI S, + h2 S2 + h3 S,
Thus choice (d) is correct.

5. If the governing equation for a flow field is given by

->
V 2 l/J = 0 and the velocity is given by
V = Vl/J, then
Sol. (a) Relationship V x V =0 is correct.
6. Decrease in temperature, in general, results in
(a) an increase in viscosities of both gases and liquids
(b) a decrease in the viscosities of both liquids and gases
(c) an increase in the viscosity of liquids and a decrease in that of gases
(d) a decrease in the viscosity of liquids and an increase in that of gases
Sol. The viscosity of water with increase in temperature decreases and that of air increases

0·001793 ]
For water, 11, = [ 1+ 0.033681 + 0.00022112

and for air ~I = 0.00000 1702 [l + 0.003291 + 0.00000712]

Thus for decrease in temperature, the viscosity of liquid will increase, and in gases it will
decrease.
Thus (c) is the correct choice.
7. Which of the following equations are forms of continuity equations?
(V is the velocity and 'Vis volume)

3. Jpv.dA+~
,
J
'I
ptN =0

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes :
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and4
SOI.~ Equations 1 and 2 are correct.
8. Consider the following assumptions:
1. Steady flow. 2. Inviscid flow.
3. Flow along a stream line. 4. Conservative force field.
For Bernoulli's equation to be valid between any two points in a flow field, besides incompressible
flow and irrotational flow, the assumptions required would include
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4
Sol. (a) The assumptions of steady flow and inviscid flow hold.
9. A pipe friction test shows that, over the range of speeds used for the rest, the non-dimensional friction
factor 't varies inversely with Reynolds Number. From this, one can conclude that the
(a) fluid must be compressible (b) fluid must be ideal
(c) pipe must be smooth (d) flow must be laminar

Sol. (c) The non-dimensional friction factor 'f is found to be function of Reynolds number. Thus
whatever be the fluid or type of flow, as long as Reyonlds number is same, friction factor, 'f is
also constant. Thus 'f is not function of (a), (b) or (d). However all such experiments are
conducted on smooth pipe so that we are concerned with fluid friction in flow.
Further Reynold's number accounts for flow conditions and not pipe friction. Thus (c) is the
correct choice.
10. Chezy's formula is given by (m, i, C and V are, respectively, the hydraulic mean depth, slope of the
channel, Chezy's constant and average velocity of flow)

(a) V = i.JmC (b) V = c-Jiffl

(c) V = m.JiC (d) V = .JmiC

Sol. (b) According to Chezy's formula V = c-Jiffl

and thus (b) is the answer and all other choices are given to confuse.
11. In a rough turbulent flow in a pipe, the friction factor would depend upon
(a) velocity of flow (b) pipe diameter
(c) type of fluid flowing (d) pipe condition and pipe diameter

Log f
••
I

Turbulent
flow
(smoo1h pipe)

- Log Re
Fig. 5
Sol. (d) Fig. 5 shows a plot of log (friction factor 'f) and log (Reynolds number 'Re'). It would be
seen that for smooth turbulent flow,fvaries inversely as Re.
But in case cf rough pipes, behaviour changes depending on value of relative smoothness r/k
(radius/average diameter of sand particles)
Thus friction factor f for rough turbulent\flow in a pipe depends upon pipe condition and
pipe diameter.

64 .
Friction factor for laminar flow f = Re' i.e. it is independent of the relative nmghness ot pipe.

However in the turbulent flow, the friCtion factor, as observed from several experiments, is a
function of the relative roughness, i.e. the pipe condition and pipe diameter. Thus (d) is the
correct choice.
 The differential manometer connected to a Pitot static tube used for measuring fluid velocity gives
(a) static pressure (b) total pressure
(c) dynamic pressure (d) difference between total pressure and dynamic pressure.
(c) Fig. 6 shows a pitot static tube used for measuring fluid'verocity in a pipe and connected through
points A and B to a differential manometer.
Pilot static tube

v2
Point A measures velocity head 2g + static pressure, whereas point B senses static pressure.

In actual practice point B is within the tube and not separate on the pipe. Thus manometer reads

only dynamic pressure (;:)

13.\ The speed of the air emerging from the blades of a running table fan is intenqed to be measured as a
function of time. The point of measurement is very close to the blade and the time period of the speed
fluctuation is four times the time taken by the blade to complete one revolution. The appropriate method
of measurement would involve the use of \ '
(a) a Pitot tube (b) a hot wire anemometer
(c) high speed photography (d) a Schlieren system
Sol. A Pitot tube is used for measuring speed in closed duct or pipe. Hot wire anemometer is used
for measuring average speed over a period of time and will not respond to fast changes as in
question. High speed photography may by useful to measure blade speed but not of air.Thus
the only choice left is (d). .

(Note: Many times answ~r may be found"by eliminating other alternatives).

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I Listll
(Discharge measuring device) (Characteristic feature)

A. Rotameter '1. Vena contracta

B. Vepturimeter 2. End contraction
C. Orificemeter 3. Tapering tube
 ~3Cl)
839

Codes: A B
(a) 1 2
(b) 3 4
(c) 5 4
(d) 3 5
 C..;;)
C)fJ.J 840 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND A:"SWERS

17. The frictional head loss through a straight pipe (h) can be expressed as hi = 4flv
2gD

for both laminar and turbulent flows. For a lamffiar flow, 'f is given by (Re is the Reynolds Number
based on pipe diameter)
(a) 24IRe (b) 32/Re
(c) 64/Re (d) 128/Re

64
The correct choice is f = Re

18. The laminar boundary layer thickness in zero-pressure-gradient flow over a flat plate along the
x-direction varies as (x is u'1edistance from the leading edge)
1n
(a) rl12 (b) x
(c) xl12 (d) x
Sol. (c) The thickness of turbulent boundary layer varies as x"/5 while the thickness of laminar boundary
layer varies as xll2• Thus correct choice is (c). ~
19. In the region of the boundary layer nearest to the wall where vorticity is not equal to zero, the viscous
forces are
(a) of the samt: order of magnitude as the inertial forces
(b) more than inertial forces
(c) less than inertial forces
(d) negligible
Sol. (c) The correct choice is as per statement at (c).
5
20. Drag on cylinders and spheres decreases when the Reynolds number is in the region of 2 x 10 since
(a) flow separation occurs due to transition to turbulence
(b) flow separation is delayed due to onset of turbulence
(c) flow separation is advanced due to transition to turbulence
(d) flow reattachment occurs
Sol. (d) In the region of 2 x 105 (Reynolds number), the boundary layer on the cylinders and sphere
begins to become unstable and thus boundary layer is said to reattach and the seperation point
moves back along the cylinder. Due to flow reattachment, a pressure recovery takes place over
the back side and thus the drag force decreases.
21. Match the common observations in List I with the explanations in List II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

A. 1. Vortex flow
Singing of telephone wires
2. Drag
B. Velocity profile in a pipe is initially parabolic
and then flattens
3. Vortex shedding
C. Formation of cyclones
Shape of a rotameter tube 4. Turbulence
D.
5. Compressibility
 ~CJJ
841

Sol. (c) A. The singing of telephone wires occurs due to vortex shedding phenomenon.
B. The velocity profile in a pipe is initially parabolic (laminar flow condition) and then flattens
due to turbulent flow.
C. Formation of cyclone occurs due to vortex flow.
D. Shape of a rotameter tube (taper shape) is given considering the phenomenon of drag.
Thus the choices for A, B, C and D are 3, 4, I and 2 and the correct answer is (c).
22. In turbomachinery, the relevant parameters are volume flow rate, density, viscosity, bulk modulus,
pressure difference, power consumption, rotational speed and a characteristic dimension. According
to Buckingham pi (1t) theorem, the number of independent non-dimensional groups for this case is
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
(tl) In this case, the number of physical quantities given are n = 8. Number of fundamental
dimensions m 3. =
According to Buckingham 1t theorem, number of independent non-dimensional groups =
n-m=8-3=5
Thus (c) is the correct choice.
23. List I gives 4 dimensionless numbers and List II gives the types of forces which are one of the
constitutents describing the numbers. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
ListI List n
A. Euler number 1. Pressure force
B. Froude number 2. Gravity force
C. Mach number 3. Viscous force
D. Webber number 4. Surface tension
5. Elastic force
Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 5
(b) 3 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 5 4
Sol. (tl) Euler number is concerned with pressure force and this chocie is available for A in code (d)
only. If one is confident, then there is no need to look for items B, C and D. However a cross
check will show that Froude number is concerned with gravity force, Mach number with elastic
force, and Weber number with surface tension. Hence the answer is (d) only.
 c').-J
q" 842 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
,

24. The realisation of velocity potential in fluid flow indicates that the
(a) flow must be irrotational
(b) circulation around any closed curve must have a finite val1Je
(c) flow is rotational and satisfies the continuity equation
(d) vorticity must be non-zero
Sol. (a) The realisation of velocity potential in fluid flow indicates that the flow must be irrotational.
25. Both free vortex and forced vortex can be expressed mathematically as functions of tang~ntial velocity
V at the corresponding radius r. Free vortex and forced vortex are definable through V and r as

(a) V = r x const. Vr= canst.

(b) V x r = canst. =
V2 r x canst.
(c) V x r = canst. V= r x canst.
(d) V2x r = canst. V = r x canst.
Sol. (b) Free vortex can be expressed mathematically as Vx r = constant and the forced rotex as
VZ = r x constant.
Thus correct choice is (b).
26. The degree of reaction of a turbomachine is defined as the ratio of the
(a) static pressure change in the rotor to that in the stator
(b) static pressure change in the rotor to that in the stage
(c) static pressure change in the stator to that in the rotor
(d) total pressure change in the rotor to that in the stage.
Sol. (b) The degree of reaction of a turbomachine is defined as the ratio of the static pressure change in
the rotor to that in the stage.
27. Chances of occurrence of cavitation are high if the
(a) local pressure becomes very high
(b) local temperature becomes low
(c) Thoma cavitation parameter exceeds a certain limit
(d) local pressure falls below the vapour pressure
Sol. (d) Chances of occurrence of cavitation are high whenever the local pressure falls below the vapour
pressure when the water bubbles are formed and these on rupture cause cavitation.
28. The specific speed of a hydraulic pump is the speed of geometrically similar pump working against a
unit head and
(a) ..delivering unit quantity of water (b) consuming unit power
(c) having unit velocity of flow (d) having unit radial velocity
Sol. (a) The specific speed of a hydraulic pump is the speed of a geometrically similar pump working
against a unit head and delivering unit quantity of water.

(It may be noted that specific speed of hydraulic pump = N -fl )

1!
 ~?>Cn
843

29. In the statement, "in a reaction turbine installation, the head of water is decreased and the rpm is also
decreased at a certain condition of working. The effect of each of these changes will be to X power

deli vered due to decrease in head and to Y power delivered due to decrease in rpm", N
H
{f! X and Y
stand respectively for

(a) decrease and increase (b) increase and increase

(c) decrease and decrease (d) increase and decrease

Sol. (a) We have to find the effect of decrease of head and decrease of speed on power developed.
3
For hydraulic reaction turbines, p ex: H2
Thus decrease of head would result in decrease of power delivered.

1 1
The speed N ex: Tn or P ex -2
",P N
Thus decrease in speed will result in increase of power.
Thus (a) is the right choice.

The following twelve items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion A' and the otru;/
labelled the 'Reason R'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the assertion
A and the Reason R are indiVidually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion. Select you; answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer
sheet accordingly.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the currect explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but~ is true

30. Assertion A : A perfect gas is one that satisfies the equation of state and whose specific heats are
constant.

Reason R : TIle enthalpy and internal energy of a peifect gas are functions of temperature only.
Sol. (b) For pertect gas, both the assertion A and reasun R are true. However R
is not the explanation
for A. A provides definition of perfect gas. R provides further relationship for enthalpy and
internal energy but can't be reason for definition of perfect gas.
Hence correct choice is (If).

31. Assertion A : Air standard efficiency of thermodynamic cycles is higher than actual efficiency of
engines.
Reason R : Air is not a perfect gas.

Sol. (c) It is true that air standard efficiency of thermodynamic cycles is higher than efficiency of
engines.Thus assertion A is true. However reason R is false because air can be considered as
perfect gas.Thus correct choice is (c).
32. Assertion A: Iso-octane has been chosen as the reference for S.1. engine fuels and has been assigned
a value of octane number 100.
~~c.S)
844 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Reason R : Among the fuels, iso-octane ensures the highest compression ratio at which an S.I. engine
can be operated without knocking.
Sol. (a) Both assertion and reason given are true. Also the reason R is the correct explanation of the
assertion. Thus correct choice is (a).
33. Assertion A : The thrust of a turboprop engine increases with the increase in flight speed.
Reason R : With the increase in flight speed, there is an increase in the pressure and density of the
air at the compression inlet due to the ram effect.
Sol (tl) The thrust of turboprop engine is proportional to ~ - Va
(~= velocity of jet relative to engine and Va = velocity of approach of air)

Further propulsive efficiency 1] = -V 2

P .
---1..+1
Va

.. with increase in Va' 1]p increases but thrust decreases. Thus assertion A is false.
However reason R is true. Thus correct choice is (d).
34. Assertion A: Liquid oxygen-liquid hydrogen propellant system has a higher specific impulse relative
to the liquid oxygen-hydrocarbon system.
Reason R : Hydrogen has a higher burning velocity than hydrocarbons.
Sol. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and also R provides correct explanation for A. Thus choice
(a) is correct.

35. Assertion A : Excess air in the case of natural draught system is more when compared to artificial
draught system in a boiler.
Reason R : To ensure complete combustion of a fuel, a quantity of air in excess of the theoretical
minimum is supplied.
Sol. (tl) Assertion A is not true because excess air is controlled by forced draft fan. However reason R
is true. Thus (d) is the correct choice.
36. Assertion A: The isothermal efficiency of a reciprocating compressor becomes 100% if perfect cooling
of the fluid during compression is attained.
Reason R : Work done in a reciprocating compressor is less if the process of compression is isothermal
rather than polytropic.
Sol. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and·R prbvidescorrect explanation for A. Thus (a) is the
correct choice.
37. Assertion A : In turbomachines, stalling is a local phenomenon while surging affects the whole
machine.
Reason R : Stalling occurs when flow breaks away from the blades while surging causes complete
breakdown of the flow.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides satisfactory explanation for A. Thus (a) is the right choice.
38. Assertion A: The driving motor of a fan with backward curved blades cannot be overloaded whatever
be the flow rate.
 Reason R :-The power curve of fan with backward curved blades increases to a maximum at about
70% of the maximum flow rate and then falls.
Sol. (a) Both A & R are true.
39. Assertion A : The rate of condensation over a rusty surface is less than that over a polished surface.
Reason R : The polished surface promotes dropwise condensation (\'hich does not wet the surface.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides satisfactory explanation for A. Thus (a) is the right choice.
40. Assertion A : In remote places, the use of absorption refigeration system plant is more advantageous
when compared to vapour compression plant.
Reason R : The absorption system can use relatively low temperature heat as energy source.
Sol. (e) Assertion A is correct but reason is not true. The correct reason should have been that no
electricity is required for operation of absorption refrigeration system plant.
41. Assertion A : When a circular cylinder is placed normal to the direction of flow, drag force is
essentially a function of the Reynolds number of the flow.
Reason R : As Reynolds Number is about 100 and above, eddies formed break away from either
side in periodic fashion, forming a meandering street called the Karman Vortex street.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides a correct explanation of A.Thus (a) is the right choice.
42. Consider the following statements:
The definition of
1. temperature is due to Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics.
2. entropy is due to First Law of Thermodynamics.
3. internal energy is due to Second Law of Thermodynamics.
4. reversibility is due to Kelvin-Planck's ~atement.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(e) 1 alone is correct (d) 2 alone is correct
Sol. (e) Out of 4 definitions given, only first definition is correct and balance three are wrong.
Thus (e) is the right choice.
43. Given:
p = pressure,
T = Temperature,
v = specific volume,
which one of the following can be considered as property of a system?

(a) J p dv (b) J v dp

(e) J (d; + p:v) (d) J (d; _ v.;p)

Sol. (d) P v
is a function of and both are connected by a line path on p and v coordinates. Thus fpdv
and fvdp are not exact differentials and thus not properties.
 If X and Yare two properties of a system, then dx and dy are exact differentials. If the differential

is of the form Mdx + Ndy, then the test for exactness is [ a;;1 = [ a;: 1
Now applying
dT VdP)
above test for J( T - T

[
J(lIT)]
Jp
=[J(-VIT)]
aT
= (a(-RI P))
T p aT p
0=0

Thus [d; - p;VJ is exact and may be written as ds, where s is a point function and hence a
property

For
J(dT-+--
Tv'
PdV) [a(~T)l~[a(~Vl ~(a(R;:v'l
R
0=2
v
'.
This differential is not exact and hence is not a pomt functlOn and hence J(dTT + _v-
PdV). IS not
a point function and hence not a property.
Thus (c) is the correct answer.

Which one of the following systems can be considered to be containing a pure substance?

02 : N2 proportions differ in the gas and liquid

phase in equilibrium

Air + Fuel
vapour No
Reaction

-Combustion
products
Air + Fuel Flame
vapour

Gaseous
combustion
products
 9~(J)
847

Sol. (a) Air and liquid air can be considered to be containing a pure substance, because air is also
considered to be a perfect gas. All other mixtures are not pure substances.
45. Consider the following statements about critical point of water:
1. The latent heat is zero.
2. The liquid is denser than its vapour.
3. Stearn generators can operate above this point.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Sol. (tl) At critical point, the latent heat in zero and steam generators can operate above this point as in
the case of once through boilers.
The density of liquid and its vapour is however same and thus statement 2 is wrong.Thus correct
choice is (d).

46. Match List I with List IT and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Cycle operating between
fixed temperature limits)
A. Carnot cycle 1. Efficiency depends upon cut-off ratio and compression ratio
B. Brayton cycle 2. Efficiency depends upon volume compression ratio
C. Otto cycle 3. Efficiency depends only upon pressure ratio
'D. Diesel cycle 4. Efficiency depends only upon temperature limits
5. Efficiency depends upon specific heats of the working substance

Ii-12
In tbe case of Carnot cycle; 11 = -'--=- and thus depends only upon temperature limits.Thus
Ii

1
For Brayto~ cycle, 11 = 1---,:::r-
(rp)-r
i.e. efficiency depends upon only pressure ratio and thus for B, correct choice is 3. These two
alone provide correct choice as (c). However it may be noted that efficiency of Otto cycle
depends on volumes compression ratio and the efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon cut off
ratio and compression ratio i.e. C matches 2 and D matches]. Accordingly (c) which matches
all the above four is the right answer.
 One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and Tz K, and another reversible heat engine
operates between TzK and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the
temperature Tz must be equal to
(a) 1000 (b) 1200
(c) 1400 (d) 800
(tl) Two reversible heat engines operate between limits of

1600K and T2
T2 and 400K

Both have the same heat input and output,

Ii - T2 is same for both 1600-12 _12 -400

Ii 1600 12

48. A heat engine using lake water at l20e as source and the surrounding atmosphere at 2°e as sink
executes 1080 cycles per min. If the amount of heat drawn per cycle is 57 J, then the output of the
engine will be
(a) 66W (b) 56W
(c) 46 W (d) 36 W
Sol. (tl) Here T] = 273 + 12 = 285°K
Tz = 273 + 2 = 275°K.
1080
Heat drawn per cycle = 57J and no. of cycles per mt. = 1080 = 60 = 18 cycles/sec.

Ii -T2 285-275 10 work work

1J=~= 285 =-28-5 =--
heat input 57
lOx57
work done per cycle = ---
285
and 570
work done per sec. = - x 18 J/s = 36
285
Thus (d) is the correct answer.
49. A regenerative steam cycle renders
(a) increased work output per unit mass of steam
(b) decreased work output per unit mass of steam
(c) increased thermal efficiency
(d) decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency.

Sol. (tl) In regenerative steam cycle. a part of steam is extracted from turbine and utilised to heat up
condensate. In this way some work is lost per unit mass of steam corresponding to steam
extracted out, but its heat is not wasted to cooling water but conserved within the cycle thus
increasing thermal efficiency. Accordingly (d) is the correct answer.
50. Which one of the following diagrams represents Otto cycle on temperature (I)-entropy (s) plane?
 9~!)
849

t ~~r~K7'
:0: T LY4 3

cGonSfom
volume . 3
2
4
1

Fig. 9
Sol. (c) Otto cycle involves two iSentropics and two constant volume proce9Sos.
Thus (c) is the tight diagram,

51.
the constant maximum pressure ind heat input, the atr standard efficiency of gas power cycles is in
flor order

(a) Diesel cycle, dual cycle, Otto cycle (b) Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, dual cycle
(c) Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle (d) Diesel. cycle, Otto cyCle, dual cycle
SoL (a) Fig. 10 shows the variation of thermal
efficiency of r.hree cycles with variation
in compression ratio.
"Ibus for same heat input and same max.
pressure it will be seen that the order of 4
effiCiency is diesel, dual, Otto. I
i.e. (a) provides right 8l1swer. 'it

Comprf ssiol"t rallo __

Fig. 10
52. The use of regenerator in a gas turbine cycle
(a) increases efficiency but has no effect on output
(b) increases output but has no effect on efficiency
(c) increases both effiCiency and output
(d) increases efficiency but decreases output
(a) The addition of regenerator in gas turbine reduces the heat required from external source but
work output remains same and efficiency increases. Thus (a) is the correct choice.
Volumetric analysis of sample of dry products -of combustion gave the following results:
CO2 = 10% Co =
1%
02 = 8% N2 = 81%
Their proportions by weight will be
(a) 440: 28 : 256 : 2268 (b) 22 : 14 : 256 : 1134
(c) 440: 14 : 28 : 2268 (d) 22 : 28 : 14 : 1134

(a) Conversion from vol\lIlletric to gravimetric is done as below:

gas % volume Mol. Proportional
weight weight
(1) (1) x (2)
CO2 10 440
CO I 28
02 8 256
N2 81 2268
Their proportion by weight are as per (a).
The minimum weight of air required per kg of fuel for complete combustion of a fuel is given by

(a) 1l.6C+34.8(H- ~)+4.35S (b) 1l.6C+34.8(H+ ~)+4'35S

(c) 1l.6C+34.8( H- ~)+4'35S (d) 1l.6C+34.8( H+ ~)+4'35S

(a) Oxygen required for C. H2• Sand 02 in tuel respectively is

~C+8II2 +S-02
3

or ~C+8( H2 - ~2 )+S

minimum air required per kg of fuel = 1: [~C + 8( H2 - ~2 ) + S]

= 11.6C+34.8( H2 - ~2 )+4. 35S.

55. Match List I with List 11and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List n
A. Pre-combustion chamber 1. Compression swirl
B. Turbulent chamber 2. Masked inlet valve
C. Open combustion chamber 3. Spark ignition
D. F-head combustion chamber 4. Combustion induced swirl
5. M-chamber

Sol. (a) The correct choice is A-4, B-5, C-3, 0-2.

56. Consider the following statements comparing I.C. engines and gas turbines:
1. Gas turbines are simple, compact and light in weight.
2. Complete expansion of working substance IS possible in I.C. engines and not in gas turbines.
3. There is flexibility in the design of different components of gas turbines as different proceses
take place in different co~ponents.
4. Even low grade fuels can be burnt in gas turbines.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2,3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Sol. (a) Low grade fuel can't be burnt in gas turbine since it leads to poor life of turbine blades, etc.
First three statements are correct.
57. Which of the following factors increase detonation in the SI engine?
1. Increased spark advance.
2. Increased speed.
3. Increased air-fuel ratio beyond stoichiometric strength.
4. Increased compression ratio.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:

W1~3 W2~4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Sol. (d) Detonation in the S.1. engines is increased by increasing spark advance and increased
compression. The increased speed and lean mixtures do not have much influence. Thus 1 and 4
are correct statements and (d) is the right choice.
58. Which one of the following curves is a proper representation of pressure differential (y-axis) vs velocity
of air (x-axis) at the throat of a carburettor ?
 '\l
C1' C y 852

i/
6P/

Fig. 10
Sol. (c) The relationship between I:iP & v is M' <>< y2 which is represented by curve (c).
59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I Ltit n
(Elements of a complete carburettor) (Rich-mixture requirement)

A. Idling system 1. To compensate for dilution of charge

B. Economiser 2. For cold starting

C. Acceleration pump 3. For meeting maximum power range of

operation

Choke 4. For meeting rapid opening of throttle

D.
Codes : A C D

(a) 1 3 4
(b) 4 2
(c) 2 4 1
(d) 4 2 3
Sol. (b) The idling system is used to compensate for dilution of charge, economiser is for meeting
maximum power range of operation, acceleration pump for meeting rapid opening of throttle
valve, and choke is used for cold starting.
Thus (b) is the right code.
60. Match List I with List IT and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List n
(S.l. Engine problem) (Clulracteristic offuel responsible
for the problem)
A. Cold starting 1. Front end volatility
B. Carburettor icing 2. Mid-range volatility
C. Crankcase dilution 3. Tail end volatility
Sol. (a) Code (a) provides correct matching.
61. Besides mean effective pressure, the data needed for determining the indicated power (\f an engine
would include
(a) piston diameter, length of stroke and calorific value of fuel
(b) piston diameter, specific fuel consumption and calorific value of fuel
(c) piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation
(d) specific fuel consumption, speed of rotation and torque
Sol. (c) Indicated power is con~erned with PaLAN, i.e. mean effectiv~ pressure, length of stroke, piston
diameters and speed of rotation.
Thus (c) is the right choice .
. 62. For a typical automobile-C.I. engine, for concUtions of increasing engme speed match List I with List
II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Performance parameter) (Tendency, qualitativetY)
A. Power output 1. Increasing and then deaeaslng,
B. Torque 2. Decreasing andthelJ increasing
C. Brake specific fuel consumption 3. Increasing throughout the range
4. Decreasing throughout the range

Codes : A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 4

(d) 3 1 2
Sol. (tI) Code (d) provides the correct matching.
63. Consider the following statements:
I. The performance of an S.I. engine can be improved by increasing the compression ratio.
II. Fuels of higher octane number can be employed at higher compression ratio.

Of these !\tatements
(a) both I and II are true (br both I and II are false
(c) I is true but II is false (t!Y I is false but II is true
Sol. (tI) TIle performance of S.1. engine can't be improved by increasing the compression ratio because
of preignition and detonation.
Since biih octane number tends to suppress detonation, t6 some extent fuels of higher octane
C:)?yC~1
854 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

number will be helpful at higher compression tatio.

Thus (d) is the best answer.

64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Name of Propellant) (Type of propellant)
A. Nitric acid 1. Fuel
B. Hydrogen 2. Monopropellant
C. Fuming nitric acid-hydrazine 3. Oxidizer
D. Methyl nitratemethyl alcohol 4. Compounded liquid monopropellant
5. Hypergolic propellant
Codes: ABC D
(a) 2 1 4 5
(b) 1 2 5 4
(c) 3 1 5 4
(d) 3 1 4 5
Sol. (c) Code (c) provides the correct choice.

65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Fast Reactor 1. Breeding
B. Sodium Cooled Reactor 2. Graphite
C. Pressurized Water Reactor 3. Magnetic Pump
D. Gas-cooled Reactor 4. Natural uranium
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
Sol. (a) The correct code is (a) since fast reactor is related with breeding, magnetic pump is needed for
sodium cooled reactor, mainly natural uranium (with some enriched uranium) is used in
pressurised water reactor, and graphite is moderator for gas cooled reactor.
66. The energy released in the fission of one U-235 nucleus is approximately
(a) 100 MeV (b) 200 MeV
(c) 300MeV (d) 400MeV

Sol. (b) The energy released in the fission of one U-235 nucleus is approximately 200 MeV.
67. Which one of the following modes of heat transfer would take place predominantly, from boiler furnace
to water wall ?
 (a) Convection (b) Conduction
(c) Radiation (d) Conduction and convection

Sol. (c) In boiler, the energy from flame is transmitted mainly by radiation to water wall and radiant
super heater.
68. Consider the following statements:
Blowdown is necessary on boilers, because
1. the boiler water level is lowered rapidly in case it accidentally rises too high.
2. the precipitated sediment or sludge is removed while the boiler is in service.
3. the concentration of suspended solids in the boiler is controlled.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 3 alone is correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Sol (b) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

69. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 19 cm and a stroke of 30 cm has a cut-off
of 0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly
(a) 1.05 (b) 2.85
(c) 6.65 (d) 10.05

The expansion ratio = _1_ = _1_ = 2.85

cutoff 0·35
70. Once through boiler is named as such because
(a) flue gas passes only in one direction (b) there is no recirculation of water
(c) air is sent through the same direction (d) steam is sent out only in one direction

Sol. (b) Once through boiler is named as such because there is no recirculation of water as in case of
natural or forced circulation boiler.
71. In steam turbine terminology, diaphragm refers to
(a) separating wall between rotors carrying nozzles
(b) the ring of guide blades between rotors
(c) a partition between low and high pressure dies
(d) the flange connecting the turbine exit to the condenser
Sol. (a) Diaphragm in steam turbines is a separating wall between rotors carrying nozzles,
72. A three-stage Rateau turbine is designed in such a manner that the ftrst two stages develop equal
power with identical velocity diagram while the third one develops more power with higher blade
speed. In such a multistage tmbine, the blade ring diameter
(a) is the same for all the three stages
(b) gradually increases from the ftrst to the third stage
(c) of the third stage is greater than that of the ftrst two stages
(d) of the third stage is less than that of the ftrst two stages
<i?C\r~56 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Sol. (h) In multistage steam turbines, the pressure drops in each stage and specific vohlme increases.
To haltdle higher specific volume of steam, the blade size and accordingly the blade ring diameter
has to gradually increase from the first to the third stage.
73. In a De Laval nozzle expQdlng superheated steam from lObar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at tbe minimum
cross-sectioll will be
(a) 3.3 bar (b) 5.46 bar

(c) 8.2 bar (d) 9.9 bar

Tl

The isentropic index for superheated steam is 1.3 and throat pressure P2 = PI (_2_)-;:1
n+l
1·3

= 10(_2_)Q.3 = 1O(~)4'33
1·3+1 2·3
= 10 x 0.869433 = lOx 0·546 = 5·46 bar

74. The effect of friction on flow of steam through a nozzle is to

(a) decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness ai the exit
(b) increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
(c) decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of the steam
(d) increase the exit temperature, without any effect on the mass flow rate

Sol. (c) The effect of friction of flow of steam through a nozzle is to decrease the mass flow rate and to
decrease the wetness of the steam.
75. A single-stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 120cm runs at 3000rpm. If the blade speed ratio
is 0.42. then, the inlet velocity of steam will be
(a) 79 mls (b) 188m1s
(c) 450 mls (d) 900 mls

blade speed
Blade speed ratio = velocity of steam at entry

Vb = rcDN = 1t' xl· 2 x 3000 mls.

60 60

. 1t' xl· 2 x 50
Inlet velOCIty of steam = ----- - 450mls
0·42
76. In an ideal impulse turbine, the
(a) absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
(b) relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
(c) axial, velocity at the inlet is equal to that at the outlet
(d) whirl velocity at the inlet is equal to that at the outlet
Sol. (b) For an ideal impulse turbine, relative velocity at inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at
the outlet.
 ~Cl)
857

77. For a Parsons' reaction turbine, if (Xl and u2 are fixed blade angles at inlet and exit respectively and
~l and ~2 are the moving blade angles at entrance and exit respectively, then

(a) u1 = (12 and ~l = ~2 (b) u1 = ~1 and (l2 = ~2

(c) 0.1 < ~l and (12 > ~2 (d) 0.1= ~2 and ~l =u 2

Sol. (tl) For a Parson's reaction turbine, fixed blade inlet angle (Xl:;; moving blade angle at exit and
fixed blade exit angle ~ :;;moving blade angle at inlet.
78. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-thirds of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed
blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6

(c) 0.66 (d) 1.66

M (moving blade)
Degree of reaction = M (moving blade) + ~h (fixed blade)

2 2
'3 ~h( fixed blade) - 2 3
= 2 = ~ = - x - :;; 0.4
- ~h(fixed blade) 1- 3 5
3 3
79. Efficiency of nozzle governed turbine is affected mainly by losses due to
(aj partial admission (b) throttling

(c) interstage pressure drop (d) condensation in last stages

Sol. (a) Efficiency of nozzle governed turbine is affected mainly by losses due to partial admission
because nozzle governing is accomplished by covering some of the nozzles and permitting entry
through partial of the nozzles.
80. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Stage efficiency _ actual enthalpy drop

isentropic enthalpy drop

' work delivered

(b) N ozz 1e e ffilclency - ---------
isentropic enthalpy drop

(c) Diagram efficiency _ work delivered by blades

isentropic enthalpy drop

(d) Blade efficiency _ work done on moving blades

actual enthalpy drop

· ffi . actual enthalpy drop

Th e correct matc hi ng is stage e lclency = -----~- .....•..
-
isentropic enthalpy drop

81. Consider the following statements :

1. Reciprocating compressors are best suited for high pressure and low volume capacity.
2. The effect of clearance volume on power consumption is negligible for the same volume of
discharge.
 ,..c>-}
q;;
858

3. While the compressor is idling, the delivery valve is kept open by the control circuit.
4. Intercooling of air between the stages of compression helps to minimise losses.
Of these statements
(a) I and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 3 alone is correct

Sol. (b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct and thus choice is (b).
82. The inlet and exit velocity diagrams of a turbomachine rotor are shown in the given figure. The
turbomachine is

v~

L/v r2

Uz
(b)

Fig. 11
(a) an axial compressor with backward curved blades
(b) a radial compressor with backward curved blades
(c) a radial compressor with forward curved blades
(d) an axial compressor with forward curved blades

Sol. (c) From inlet and outlet diagrams it will be seen the blade velocity u2 > ul' from which it is clear
=
that it is radial compressor. For axial compressor, u2 u,. Further in outlet velocity triangle,
velocity Vr2 is in the direction of u2 which means blades are forward curved. In case of backward
curved blades the direction of Vr2 will be opposite to that of u2' i.e. angle between Vr2 & u2 will
be acute.
83. A multistage compressor is to be designed for a given flow rate and pressure ratio. If the compressor
consists of axial flow stages followed by centrifugal instead of only axial flow stages, then the
(a) overall diameter would be decreased
(b) overall diameter would be increased
(c) axial length of the compressor would be increased
(d) axial length of the compressor would be decreased
Sol. (b) In case of axial flow stages, diameter will be less and same but in case of centrifugal compressor,
the flow is radial at outlet and thus overall diameter will increase.
84. In air-craft gas turbines, the axial flow compressor is preferred because
(a) of high pressure rise (b) it is stall free

(c) of low frontal area (d) of higher thrust

Sol. (c) Axial flow compressor is preferred in aircraft gas turbines because of requirement of low frontal
area.
 ~3Cl/
859

85. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade angle is a function of
(a) blade camber (b) space-chord ratio

(c) both blade camber and space-chord ratio (d) blade camber and incidence angle
Sol. (c) (c) is the correct choice.

86. If the velocity of propagation of small disturbances in air at 27°e is 330 mis, then at a temperature of
54°e, its speed would be

(b) 330 x .J2m/s

(d) 330 x ~327

- m/s
300
Sol. (d) Velocity of propagation of small disturbance is proportional to ";T,

:. new velocity of propagation will be 330 x r327 mJs

~300
87. For one-dimensional isentropic flow in a diverging passage, if the initial static pressure is PI and the
initial Mach number is M( (M! < 1), then for the downstream flow
(a) M2<MI;PI<PI (b) M2<MI;P2>PI
(c) M2 > MI ; P2 > PI (d) M2 > MI ; P2 < PI
Sol. (a) For down stream flow, M2 < MJ' and P2 < PI for diverging section and subsonic flow conditions.
88. Which of the following diagrams correctly depict the behaviour of compressible fluid flow in the
given geometries ?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Y, _Y2

M/~
Yz> VI

~
V, __ V2

Codes :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

Sol. (c) Parts 2 and 3 of Fig. 12 represent correct behaviour of compressible fluid flow.
Thus code (c) is correct.
 The given figure represents a schematic view of the arrangement of a supersonic wind tunnel section.
A normal shock can exist withoot affecting the test conditions.

~
(0
I
~ 0) ® I
I
I I
I

I I I
I I
I 5uperson"lc
- I test sectj on
I
~---- I
Supersonic
nozzle diffu6er I
,i
cb cb
I I

0 8 ®
Fig. 13
(a) between sections 4 and 5 (b) at section 4
(c) between sections 4 and 3 (d) between sections 1 aDd 2

(d) A normal shock can exist between 1 and 2 without affecting the test conditions, as it can be
swallowed through the second throat by makiJlg it larger than the first.
The tlmrst of a jet propulsion power unit CaDbe increased by
(a) injecting water into the compressor
(b) burning fuel after gas turbine
(c) injecting ammonia into the combusition chamber
(d) all of the above
Sol. (a) The throst of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by injecting water into the compressor.
91. In a gas turbine cycle with two stages of reheating, working between maximum pressure PJ and
minimum pres.W'e P 4' the optimum reheat pressures would be

(a) (~p.t3 and (l1P.)213 (b) (112P4)'/3 and (llP/)1I3

(c) ...[if P4 and 1l..,JP; (d) (l1P4)1/2 and (l1P4)2/3

(a) For single stage optimum reheat pressure is -IJl. Pz and for 2-stages of reheating, the optimum

reheat pressures would be ~l1P. and ~(l1P4)2

Intercooling in gas turbines
(a) decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
(b) increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
(c) decreases both net ouput and thermal efficiency
(d) increases both net output and thermal efficiency

(b) lntercooling in gas turbine is used to compress air in two stages with intercooling. With
intercooling the work to be done on compressor decreases and thus net output of turbine
increases. However more heat has to be added in combustion chamber which results in decrease
in tbezmaI efficiency.
 <j3(I)
861

93. A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity O.7W/mK. For the same
heat loss and temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth of conductivity
0.14 W/rnK and thickness
(a) 0.05 m (b) 0.1 m
(c) 0.2 m (tf) 0.5 m
. M
(b) For thlck place homogeneous wall, heat loss == kA ax

(
= 0·7xAx- f:.t) = (0·14xAx-At)
O· S red brick Ax diatomite

Ax=.2i±XO·5
0·7
=0·2xO·5=0·lm
94. Upto the critical radius of insulation
(a') added insulation will increase heat loss
(b~ added insulation will decrease heat loss
(c) convection heat loss will be less than conduction heat loss
(tf) heat flux will decrease
Sol. (b) Upto the critical radius of insulation, the added insulation will decrease heat loss and will have
no effect beyond that.
95. Match List t with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
L~tI L~tn
(Dimensionless quantity) (Application)
A. Stanton number 1. Natutal convection for ideal gases
B. Grashof nutnber 2. Mass transfer
C. Peclet number 3. Forced convection
D. Schmidt number 4. Forced convection for small Prandtl number
Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(tf) 2 1 3 4
Sol. (b) The correct mathcing for various dimensionless quantites is provided by code (b)

96. A designer chooses the values of fluid flow ranges and specific heats in such a manner that the heat
capacities of the two fluids are equal. Ahot fluid enters the counterflow heat exchanger at 100°C and
leaves at 60°C. The cold fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40 C. The mean temperature difference
b

between the two fluids is temperature difference between the two fluids is :
 (a) (100 +60 + 40)/3°C
(c) 40°C

(d) Mean temperature difference

= temperature of hot fluid at exit - temperature of cold fluid at entry
= 60° - 40° = 20°C.
For infinite parallel planes with emissivities ~\ and £2' the interchange factor for radiation from surface
1 to surface 2 is given by

1 1
(b) ~+ £z

(c) £1 + £2 (d) £1£Z

(a) For infinite parallel planes with emissivities £1 and £2' the interchange factor or effective
1
."
emlSSIvlty lClent = - 11+ - - 1
coe ffl'
£z £z
£I£Z

£1 +£Z -£I£Z

A thin flat plate 2m by 2m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings is 25°C.
Solar radiation is falling on one side of the phte at the rate of 500 W/m2. The temperature of the
plate will remain constant at 30°C, if the convective heat transfer coefficient (in W/m20C) is
(a) 25 (b) SO
(c) 100 (d) 200
Sol. (a) Heat transfer by convection Q = MAt

Q=500W/m2 x area = 500 x 2 x 2W

z
500W/m x 2x2 = h x2 x2 x (30- 25)

99. Given the following data,

inside heat transfer coefficient = 25 W/m2°K
outside heat transfer coefficient = 25 W/m2°K
thermal conductivity of bricks (15 cm thick) = 0.15 W/mK,
the overall heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2K) will be closer to the
(a) inverse of heat transfer coefficient
(b) heat transfer coefficient
(c) thermal conductivity of bricks
(d) heat transfer coefficient based on the thermal conductivity of the bricks alone

Sol. (4) Overall coefficient of heat transfer U W/m2 OKis expressfd as

 'jX:I)
863

1 1 Ax 1
_=_+--t-
U ~ k ho
1 0 ·15 1
=-+-+-
25 0 ·15 25
2 2 27
=-=1=1-=-
25 25 25

so U = ~~ which is closer to the heat transfer coefflcient based on the bricks alone.

100. A heat exchanger with heat transfer surface area A and overall heat transfer co-efflcient U handles
two fluids of heat capacities C and Cmin• The parameter NTU (number of transfer units) used in the
max

analysis of heat exchanger is specified as

U
(a) ACmin (b) AC mm.
U

For evaporators and condensers, for the given conditions, the logarithmic mean temperature difference

(LMTD) for parallel flow is

(a) equal to that for counterflow (b) greater than that for counterflow
(c) smaller than that for counterflow (d) very much smaller than that for counterflow

(e) The LMID for paralled flow is smaller than for counterflow.
Sol.
E-NTU method is particularly useful in thermal design of heat exchangers when
101.
(a) the outlet temperature of the fluid streams is not known as a priori
(b) outlet temperature of the fluid streams is known as a priori
(c) the outlet temperature of the hot fluid streams is known but that of the cold fluid streams is not

known as a priori
(d) inlet temperatures of the fluid streams are known as a priori

Sol. (a) (a) is the correct choice.

The burnout heat flux in the nucleate boiling regime is a function of which of the following properties?
103.
1. Heat of evaporation 2. Temperature difference.
3. Density of vapour. 4. Density of liquid.

5. Vapour-liquid surface tension.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:
(b) 1,2,3 and 5
(a) 1,2,4 and 5
(d) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
 (a) Density of vapour affects the film boiling and does not have much role during nucleate boiling.
Factors 1,2,4 and 5 come into picture for burnout heat flux in the nucleate boiling regime.
A composite slab has two layers of different materials with thermal conductivity Kj and K2• If each
layer had the same thickness, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab would be

Kj+K2
The equivalent thermal conductivity of slab = K K
j 2

105. Thermal boundary layer is a region where

(a) inertia terms are of the same order of magnitude as convection terms
(b) convection terms are of the same order of magnitude as dissipation terms
(c) convection terms are of the same order of magnitude as conduction terms
(d) dissipation is negligible

Sol. (b) Statement at (b) provides correct choice.

106. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if (Pr = Prandtl Number, Nu =
NusseltNumber)
w-P = t
1 (b) Pt> 1
(c) P, < 1 (d) Pr = Nu
Sol. elL Thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if Pr = Nu.
107. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5.lf it works as a refrigerator taking
1 kW of work input, the refrigerating effect will be
(a) 1 kW (b) 2 kW
(c) 2 kW (d) 4 kW

heat rejected
COP heat pump = work done

or heat rejected = 5 x work done

Also heat rejected = refrigeration effect + work input
or 5 x work input - work input = refrigeration effect
or 4 x work input = refrigeration effect
or refrigeration effect = 4 x 1kW
= 4kW
108. A refrigerating system operating on reversed Brayton refrigeration cycle is used for maintaining 250K.
If the temperature at the end of constant pressure cooling is 300 K and rise in the temperature of air
in the refrigerator is 50 K, then the net work of compression will be (assume air as the working
substance with cp 1kJ per kg per°C)
 <i?>Ct)
865

(a) 250 kJ/kg (b) 200 kJ/kg

(c) 50kJ/kg (d) 25kJ/kg
Sol. (tf) Fig. 13 shows the reversed Brayton refngeration cycle.
Various values are shown.
Net work of compression = (h2 - h) - (h3 - h4)

T2 T3
-=-
1i T4

300
~ = 200 x250=375

Net work = (375 - 250) - (300 - 200) = 25

Net work = 25 x Cp-= 25 kJ/kg
2

---
Turbine

Refrig~rCltor
Fig. 13
109. In a vapour compression refrigeration plant, the refrigerant leaves the evaporator at 195 kJ/kg and
the condenser at 65 kJ/kg. For every kg of refrigerant the plant can supply per second, a cooling load
~ 2
(a) 70 kW (b) 100 kW
(c) 130 kW (d) 160 kW

Sol. (c) h] = 195 kJ/kg.

h] = 65 kJ/kg.
Since there is no heat transfer in throttling,
h] = h.,
Refrigeration effect = h] - h4
I
110. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft prime consideration is that the

(a) system has high C.O.P.

(b) H.P.lton is low
(c) weight of refrigerant circulated in the system is low
(d) weight of the refrigeration equipment is low·
C1,c).-l66 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Sol. (d) (d) is the correct choice.

111. A valve which maintains a constant degree of superheat at th~ end of the evaporator coil, is called
(a) automatic expansion valve
(b) high side float valve
(c) thermostatic expansion valve
(d) low side float valve

Sol. (c) (c) is the correct choice.

112. Which 'of the following statements are true for Ammonia as a refrigerant?
1. It has higher compressor discharge temperature compared to fluorocarbons.
2. It is toxic to mucous membranes.
3.. It requires larger displacement per TR compared to fluorocarbons.
4. It reacts willi copper and its alloys.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
COdes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) I,2and3
(c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4
Sol. (c) Statements 1,2 and 4 are correct.
113. Consider the following statements:
In chemical dehumidification process
1. dew point temperature decreases.
3. dry bulb temperature increases.
Of these statements
(a) 1,2and3arecorrect (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
Sol. (b) Statements 1 and 2 are correct because dry bulb temperature remains constant in dehu-
midification process.

114. Moist air is a mixtue of dry air and water vapour. Hence three independent intrinsic thermodynamic
properties are required to fix its thermodynamic state. While using psychrometric chart, however, only
two thermodynamic properties are needed since, psychrometric chart
(a) is an approximation to actual properties
(b) assumes that both water vapour and dry air behave like perfect gases
(c) is drawn for actual properties of water vapour and dry air
(d) is drawn for a fixed pressure

Sol. (d) The psychrometric chart is drawn for a fixed pressure (standard atmospheric pressure) and thus
only two thermodynamic properties are needed to fix thermodynamic state.
115. In a saturat~ air-water vapour mixture, the
(a) dry bulb temperature is higher than the wet bulb temperature
(b) dew point temperature is lower than the wet bulb temperature
(c) dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperatures are tne same
(d) dry bulb temperature is higher than the dew point temperature
 93(1)
867

Sol. (c) In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperatures are
the same.
116. Effective temperature is that temperature of saturated air which gives the same degree uf comfort as
the air at given
(a) DBT, WBT and incidental solar radiation
(b) WBT, incidential solar radiation and air flow rate
(c) DBT, sol-air temperature and air flow rate
(d) DBT, WBT and air flow rate

Sol. (tl) CtlOice (d) is correct.

117. A human body feels, comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human body is ittjual
to the
(a) heat dissipated to the surroundings
(b) heat stored in the human body
(c) sum of (a) and (b)
(d) difference of (a) and (b)

Sol. (a) Choice (a) is correct.

lta. In the case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by (BPF = Bypass factpf)
(a) BPF-l (b) I-BPF
1
(c) BPF (d) 1 + BPF

Sol. (b) Coil efficiency in the sensible cooling is = 1 - BP F

119. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the dry bulb temperatute of
entering air, then the air is
(a) heated and dehumidified (b) heated and humidified
(c) cooled and humidified (d) cooled and. dehumidified

Sol. (b) Choice (b) is correct.

120. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/sec and the latent heat added is 20 kJ/
sec. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6
(c) 0.67 (d) 1.5

Sensible heat factor = sensible heat

sensible heat + latent heat
30 =2=0.6
30+ 20 5