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NMAT REVIEW 2018 5. Mendel crossed peas having round green seeds with
GENETICS MODULE B
1. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder in
which blood fails to clot properly due to gene mutations. A
person with hemophilia may experience easy bruising and
sudden bleeding. The pedigree diagram below shows the
inheritance of hemophilia.
What could be the possible genotypes and phenotypes of
the parents?
a. XY (normal male) and XXh (female carrier)
b. XhY (hemophilic male) and XX (normal female)
c. XhY (hemophilic male) and XhXh (hemophilic female)
d. XhY (hemophilic male) and XXh (female carrier)
2. Cleft chin in humans is inherited as a simple recessive
trait. Determine the genotypes of the parents who have
five children, four normal and one with cleft chin.
a. Heterozygous mother and heterozygous father
b. Homozygous mother and heterozygous father
c. Heterozygous mother and homozygous father
d. Homozygous mother and homozygous father
3. A woman heterozygous for polydactyly (extra fingers
and toes), a dominant trait, is married to a normal man.
What is the probability of producing an offspring that has
extra fingers or toes?
a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25%
4. In Coleus, some plants have shallowly crenated edges
and others have deeply incised leaves. A cross is made
between homozygous deep and shallow individuals. The
shallow trait is dominant. What is the genotype of the F2
generation?
a. All heterozygous shallow
b. All homozygous shallow
c. 3 shallowly crenated : 1 deeply crenated
d. 1 homozygous shallow : 2 heterozygous shallow : 1
homozygous deep
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peas having wrinkled yellow seeds. All F1 plants had seeds
that were round and yellow. Predict the genotype of the
offspring resulting from a testcross of the F1 plants. Note:
Yellow is dominant over green; round is dominant over
wrinkled.
a. Rryy, rrYy, and rryy
b. RRYy, RrYy, rrYy, and rryy
c. RrYy, Rryy, rrYy, and rryy
d. RrYy, Rryy, and rrYy
6. In peas, a gene for tall plants (T) is dominant over its
allele for short plants (t). The gene for smooth peas (S) is
dominant over its allele for wrinkled peas (s). The genes
are not linked. Calculate the phenotypic ratio for the
results of a cross between TtSs x TtSs.
a. 9 short and smooth : 3 tall and wrinkled : 3 tall and
smooth : 1 short and wrinkled
b. 9 tall and wrinkled : 3 tall and smooth : 3 short and
smooth : 1 short and wrinkled
c. 9 tall and smooth : 3 tall and wrinkled : 3 short and
smooth : 1 short and wrinkled
d. 9 short and wrinkled : 3 short and smooth : 3 tall and
smooth : 1 tall and wrinkled
7. How many phenotypic classes are produced by a
dihybrid test-cross where one parent is heterozygous for
both pairs of genes?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
8. It has long been known in the field of human genetics
that wavy hair is the expression of a heterozygous
genotype in which the allele for straight hair is paired with
the allele for curly hair. Lucinda Lovelee married Larry
Legg. Both have wavy hair. What is the probability that
their offspring, the littlest Legg, will have wavy hair?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 66%
9. A woman with blood type IAIi and a man with blood
genotype IBIi have two children, both type AB. What is the
probability that a third child will be blood type AB?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 66%
10. Morty has type B blood. His wife Jessica is unsure of
her blood type. If their first child, Morty Jr., is type A,
their second offspring, Rick, is AB and the twins, Beth and
Summer, are B. Determine the genotypes of Morty and
Jessica?
a. Morty is IBIi and Jessica is IAIB
b. Morty is IBIB and Jessica is IAIi
c. Morty is IBIB and Jessica is either IAIA or IAIi
d. Morty is IBIi and Jessica is either IAIB or IAIi
11. Albinism in corn plants is caused by a recessive lethal
gene that results in death before maturity. What will the
adult phenotypic ratio be for the F1 generation of
heterozygous parents?
a. 3 Normal : 1 Albino
b. 2 Normal : 2 Albino
c. All are normal
d. No offspring will reach adulthood
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12. Huntington's chorea is a dominant lethal in humans.
The disease does not appear until later in life, so that
afflicted individuals may already have produced children.
What is the F1 phenotypic ratio of parents who are
homozygous dominant and heterozygous?
a. All are normal
b. All have Huntington’s chorea
c. 50% of the children have Huntington’s chorea
d. Cannot be determined
13. Red-green color blindness is inherited as a X-linked
recessive. If a color-blind woman marries a man who has
normal vision, what would be the expected phenotypes of
their children with reference to this character?
a. All have normal vision
b. All boys are color blind while all girls have normal vision
c. All girls are color blind while all boys have normal vision
d. All are color blind
14. Suppose that gene b is sex-linked, recessive, and
embryonic lethal. A man marries a woman who is
heterozygous for this gene. If this couple had many
normal children, what would be the predicted sex ratio of
these children?
a. 2 female : 1 male c. 1 female : 2 male
b. 1 female : 1 male d. 3 female : 2 male
15. In rabbits, a series of multiple alleles controls coat
color in the following way: C is dominant to all other
alleles and causes full color. The chinchilla phenotype is
due to the cch allele, which is dominant to all alleles other
than C. The ch allele, dominant only to ca (albino), results
in the Himalayan coat color. Thus, the order of dominance
is C > cch > ch > ca. A cross has been made between two
rabbits with a coat color of chinchilla with the genotype
cchca and Himalayan with the genotype chca. Predict the
phenotypic ratio of the F1 generation.
a. 1 chinchilla : 1 Himalayan
b. 2 chinchilla : 1 Himalayan : 1 albino
c. 1 chinchilla : 2 Himalayan : 1 albino
d. 3 chinchilla: 1 Himalayan
19. What is the major difference between messenger RNA
molecules and the transfer RNA molecules?
a. Messenger RNA molecules contains ribose while transfer
RNA molecules contains deoxyribose
b. Messenger RNA molecules carry coded information to
the ribosomes while transfer RNA molecules carry amino
acids to the ribosomes
c. Messenger RNA molecules contain thymine while
transfer RNA molecules contain uracil
d. Messenger RNA molecules function when they are
double-stranded while transfer RNA molecules function
when they are single-stranded.
20. A DNA strand with a sequence of 5’-ATGCCGGAT-3’
was used to synthesize new protein molecules. It
underwent transcription and produced an mRNA strand
that will proceed to translation. What is the nucleotide
sequence of the complementary mRNA strand of the DNA
strand?
a. 5’-ATGCCGGAT-3’
b. 5’-TACGGCCTA-3’
c. 5’-UACGGCCUA-3’
d. 5’-AUGCCGGAU-3’
21. What is the nucleotide sequence of the
complementary tRNA strand of the DNA strand found in
number 20?
a. 5’-ATGCCGGAT-3’
b. 5’-TACGGCCTA-3’
c. 3’-UACGGCCUA-5’
d. 3’-AUGCCGGAU-5’
22. The mRNA sequence CGUUUACACCGUCAC codes for
how many amino acids?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 3 d. more than 6
For numbers 23 to 25, refer to the figure below.

16. Replication of DNA:

a. Takes place in a “conservative” manner
b. Takes place in a “dispersive” manner
c. Takes place in a “semi-conservative” manner
d. Usually involves one origin of replication per
chromosome in eukaryotes

17. Given the following single strand of DNA sequence

- 5’-GAATTG-3’ – what is the sequence of the opposite
strand?
a. 5’-CAATTC-3’ c. 5’-CTTAAG-3’
b. 5’-CTTAAC-3’ d. 5’-GAATTG-3’

18. If a DNA stand has a nitrogenous base sequence of

AATGC, what is its complimentary RNA strand?
a. AAUGC b. CGUAA c. UUACG d. TTACG 23. Shown here is a hypothetical viral mRNA sequence:
5’-AUGCAUACCUAUGAGACCCUUGGA-3’
How many different polypeptide sequences can be
produced?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8

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24. What is the polypeptide sequence produced by the 7. Below the neurocoel is a structure called the notochord
mRNA sequence found in number 23? which helps support the development of the embryo.
a. histidine – threonine – tyrosine – glutamic acid – What is the fate of the notochord in adult organisms?
threonine – leucine – glycine a. Spinal cord
b. methionine – histidine – threonine – glutamic acid – b. Spinal column
leucine – serine c. Becomes part of the dorsal musculature
c. glutamine – histidine – arginine – leucine – valine – d. Degenerates
alanine
d. alanine – tyrosine – tryptophan – glycine – serine – 8. The segmented blocks of tissue that develop on each
proline side of the notochord are called the
a. Neural tube c. Adrenal medulla
25. Predict the amino acid sequence produced during b. Somites d. Rubella
translation by the short hypothetical mRNA sequence:
5’-AUGCCGGAUUAUUGA-3’ 9. There are three primordial germ layers found in
a. methionine – proline – aspartic acid – tyrosine – stop embryos, namely, ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
b. proline – aspartic acid – tyrosine Each germ layer gives rise to distinct organs and parts in
c. methionine – alanine – proline – glutamic acid an animal’s body. Which of the following was derived from
d. serine – glutamic acid – cysteine the mesoderm?
I. Skeletal muscles
DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY II. Lungs
III. Lining of the stomach
IV. Cranium
1. During internal fertilization, the sperm cell fuses with
V. Cornea
the egg cell in the fallopian tube. From there, the a. I and III c. III and V
developing zygote will implant itself in the uterus. The
b. II and IV d. I only
zygote will undergo extensive mitotic divisions in order to
give rise to a multicellular organism. How many sets of cell
For numbers 10 and 11, match the following animals with
division are there between the zygote stage and the eight-
the correct egg classifications.
cell embryonic stage?
a. Micolecithal c. Megalecithal
a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
b. Mesolecithal d. Isolecithal
2. As the embryo increases in cell number, it also exhibits
B 10. Rana sp.
different cell movements, namely invagination, involution,
C 11. Sus scrofa domestica
and epiboly. These cell movements give rise to different
structures in the embryo. What do you call the embryonic
12. Strictly speaking, “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”
stage wherein the first embryonic cavity appears?
means
a. Morula c. Gastrula
a. embryonic stages of an animal resemble adult ancestors
b. Blastula d. Neurula
b. adults of an animal resemble embryonic stages of its
ancestors
3. The second embryonic cavity gives rise to the future
c. adult animals resemble adult ancestors
gastrointestinal tract of the organism. Which of the d. embryonic stages of an animal resemble embryonic
following cavities refers to the second embryonic cavity?
stages of its ancestors
a. Blastocoel c. Neurocoel
b. Archenteron d. Coelom
13. Which of the following is a feature in fetal
development?
4. Which of the following is not associated with the site of
I. Ductus arteriosus
invagination during gastrulation?
II. Foramen ovale
a. Dorsal lip c. All of the following
III. Fetal haemoglobin with a higher affinity for
b. Blastopore d. None of the following
oxygen than adult haemoglobin
a. I only
5. During neurulation, the neural tube is formed after the
b. II only
_________ stage.
c. I and III only
a. Neural plate c. Neural fold
d. All of the following
b. Neural crest d. Neural thickening
14. A female animal that forms eggs, hatches in the body,
6. The first truly vertebrate phase of development is
and then younglings are born alive is known as what type
marked by the formation of the
of offspring production?
a. Archenteron c. Neural crest
a. Oviparous c. Ovoviviparous
b. Coccyx d. Primitive streak
b. Viviparous d. Marsupials

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15. Which is likely to happen if the amphibian zygote is For numbers 23 to 25, pair the following plant embryonic
experimentally manipulated so that the first cleavage structures with its fate in an adult plant.
plane misses the gray crescent instead of bisecting it? a. Cotyledon c. Epicotyl
a. There will be 2 undifferentiated ball of cells b. Hypocotyl d. Radicle
b. 2 normal tadpoles will develop
c. 2 abnormal tadpoles will develop C 23. Embryonic structure that eventually develops into
d. Only the blastomere that gets the grey crescent will the leaves of the plant
develop into normal tadpole D 24. Embryonic structure that eventually develops into
the main root of the plant
16. An amphibian embryo, a band of cells called the B 25. Embryonic structure that eventually becomes part of
neural crest… the plant stem
a. Rolls up to form the neural tube
b. Develops into the main section of the brain
c. Produces amoeboid cells that migrate to form teeth,
skull bones, and other structures in the embryo
d. Induces the formation of the embryo

17. Which embryonic membrane is closest to the shell in a

bird egg?
a. Allantois c. Amnion
b. Chorion d. Yolk Sac

18. What is the function of the chorion in terrestrial

vertebrate embryos?
a. To keep the embryo moist
b. To exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide with the
environment
c. To absorb nutrients stored in yolk
d. To store nitrogenous waste

19. In macrolecithal eggs, normal cleavage is not possible

because of the presence of a dense, concentrated yolk
mass. Instead of a distinct mass of blastomeres, a
__________ is found in the egg.
a. Primitive streak c. Area pellucida
b. Area opaca d. Hensen’s node

20. Which of the following is true for fraternal twins?

a. They are derived from a single egg cell
b. There can only be one gender, either both male and
both female
c. They are derived from a single sperm cell
d. None of the following

21. Which is the best statement regarding the role of the

embryo in hormone production?
a. The embryo breaks down proteins in the endospermal
cells to produce auxins
b. The embryo converts tryptophan into indoleacetic acid
c. The embryo releases gibberellin which triggers the
synthesis of enzymes that break down the endosperm
d. The embryo produces enzymes which break down
the endosperm cells

22. Growth pattern in pollen tube is similar to that of

fungal hyphae or root hairs in exhibiting
a. Oscillated elongation of tube
b. Tip-oriented growth
c. Multiple-oriented growth
d. Predetermined path of growth

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