RAC MCQ’s Level 1 and 2

For SSC JE
85.
In aircraft, air refrigeration cycle is used because of

(a) High heat transfer rate

(b) Lower temperature at high-altitude

(c) Higher coefficient of performance

(d) Low unit weight per tonne of refrigeration

86.
In an electrolux refrigerator

(a) Ammonia is evaporated in hydrogen

(b) Hydrogen is evaporated in ammonia

(c) Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen

(d) Ammonia is absorbed in water

87.
An ideal refrigerating machine works between the temperature
limits of 45 degree C and - 8 degree C. The power required per
ton of refrigeration is

(a) 0.8 KW

(b) 1 KW

(c) 1.2 KW

(d) .7 KW
88.
In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling
turbine outlet is equal to

(a) Evaporator pressure

(b) Compressor inlet pressure

(c) Cabin pressure

(d)Ambient pressure
89.
Hydrogen is essential in an electrolux refrigeration system because

(a) It helps in maintaining a low partial pressure for the evaporating ammonia

(b) It acts as a catalyst in the evaporator

(c) The cooled hydrogen leaving the heat exchanger cools the refrigerant entering the
evaporator

(d) The reaction between hydrogen and ammonia is endothermic in evaporator and
exothermic in absorber
90.
Two reversible refrigerators are arranged in series and their
COP’s are 5 and 6 respectively. The COP of composite
refrigeration system would be

(a) 4.5

(b) 3.5

(c) 2.5

(d) 1.5
91.
A carnot heat pump works between temperature limits of 277
degree C and 27 degree C. Its COP is

(a) 1.108

(b) 1.2

(c) 2.2

(d) 9.26
92.
One ton refrigeration is equivalent to

(a) 3.5 KW

(b) 4 KW

(c) 4.5 KW

(d) 7 KW
93.
Waste heat can effectively used in which one of the following
refrigeration system?

(a) Air refrigeration cycle

(b) Vortex refrigeration system

(c) Vapour compression cycle

(d) Vapour absorption cycle

94.
The refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators working heat
from solar collectors is mixture of water and

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Lithium bromide

(c) Sulphur dioxide

(d) Freon 12
 95.
Air refrigeration cycle is used in

(a) Domestic refrigerators

(b) Air-conditioning
(c) Gas liquefaction
(d) Commercial refrigerators
96.
In a vapour compression cycle a good refrigerant should have a

(a) Low critical pressure

(b) Condenser pressure close to critical pressure

(c) Large latent heat of evaporation at evaporator pressure

(d) Large latent heat of vaporization at condenser pressure

97.
In milk chilling plants, the usual secondary refrigerant is

(a) Glycol

(b) Ammonia solution

(c) Sodium silicate

(d) Brine
98.
The flash chamber in a single stage simple vapour compression
cycle

(a) Has no effect on refrigerating effect

(b) Increases the work of compression

(c) Decreases the refrigerating effect

(d) Increases the refrigerating effect

99.
The discharge pressure of the compressor in the refrigeration
system goes up due to the

(a) Undercharge of the refrigerant

(b) Large size of the condenser

(c) Formation of scale in the condenser

(d) Lower volumetric efficiency of the compressor

100.
The COP of an ideal refrigerator of capacity 2.5 T is 5. The power
of the motor required to run the plant is

(a) 1.55 KW

(b) 1.35 KW

(c) 1.75 KW

(d) 1.15 KW
101.
Which of the following refrigeration system is most suitable for
solar cooling?

(a) Ejector refrigeration system

(b) Vapour absorption system

(c) Vortex tube refrigeration system

(d) Desiccant refrigeration system

102.
The most suitable pair of refrigerant and absorbent combination
for solar refrigeration is

(a) R22 and dimethylformamide

(b) Ammonia and water

(c) Ammonia and sodium thiocyanide

(d) Water and lithium bromide

103.
Ammonia used as refrigerant is non-corrosive to

(a) Copper and Copper Alloys

(b) Iron and Steel

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of (a) and (b)

104.
In conventional refrigerants what is the element responsible for
ozone depletion?

(a) Chlorine

(b) Carbon

(c) Fluorine

(d) Hydrogen
105.
In an refrigeration plant, if condenser temperature increases,
the power input to the compressor will

(a) Decreases

(b) Increases

(c) Remains same

(d) Can not say

106.
In vapour compression refrigeration system, at entrance to
which component the working fluid is superheated vapour?

(a) Compressor

(b) Evaporator

(c) Condenser

(d) Expansion valve

107.
Lowest COP is vapour

(a) Absorption cycle

(b) Compression cycle with wet compression

(c) Compression cycle with dry compression

(d) Compression cycle with superheated vapour

108.
Which of the following expansion processes taking place in a
vapour compression cycle?

(a) Adiabatic process with constant enthalpy

(b) Adiabatic process with work transfer

(c) Polytropic process with change in temperature

(d) Isentropic process with change in enthalpy

109.
What is an azeotrope?

(a) An eco-friendly refrigerant

(b) A non-halogenic refrigerant

(c) A refrigerant dissolved in alcohol

(d) A mixture of refrigerants without phase separation

110.
Which is the most suitable type of air refrigeration system for
supersonic planes with Mach Number 3 or above?

(a) Boot-Strap evaporative

(b) Regenerative

(c) Simple evaporator

(d) Boot-Strap
111.
In a vapour absorption refrigeration, heat is rejected in

(a) Absorber only

(b) Condenser only

(c) Generator only

(d) Condenser and absorber

112.
A Bell-Coleman air refrigeration cycle works as a reversed

(a) Diesel cycle

(b) Brayton cycle

(c) Otto cycle

(d) Stirling cycle

113.
The leakage in a freon based refrigeration system can be
detected by using a/an

(a) Halide torch

(b) Blue litmus paper

(c) Sulphur torch

(d)Oxyacelylene torch
114.
In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the high pressure
liquid from the condenser/receiver is cooled below its saturation
temperature to

(a) Reduce the net refrigerating effect

(b) Reduce the net work per cycle

(c) Increase the net refrigerating effect

(d) Reduce the pressure on the high pressure side

115.
When burnt out hermetic compressor is replaced by a new one,
it is desirable to include in the system a large drier-cum strainer
also. This is to be placed in

(a) Hot gas line

(b) Discharge line

(c) Liquid line

(d) Suction line

116.
For large or more than 200 tons air conditioning applications,
which one of the following types of compressors is
recommended?

(a) Rotating

(b) Centrifugal

(c) Screw

(d) Reciprocating
117.
For air conditioning above 300 tons, which of the following
system would normally be preferred?

(a) Ammonia reciprocating compressor

(b) Centrifugal chiller

(c) Hermetic compressor

(d) Absorption refrigeration system

118.
When the discharge pressure is too high in refrigeration system,
high pressure control is installed to

(a) Stop the compressor

(b) Stop the cooling fan

(c) Regulate the flow of cooling water

(d) Stop water circulating pump

119.
Which type of valve is generally used in reciprocating refrigerant
compressors?

(a) Plate valve

(b) Puppet valve

(c) Throttle valve

(d) Mushroom valve

120.
In the expansion valve of the refrigerator, the following property
remains constant

(a) Internal energy

(b)Enthalpy

(c) PV

(d) Entropy
121.
For small installations of refrigeration systems (up to 35 KW),
which type of condenser is used?

(a) Air cooled type

(b) Double tube type

(c) Shell and coil type

(d) Shell and tube type

Shell and tube type- 2 to 1000 tons
Air cooled type- upto 5 tons
Double tube type- 10 tons
Shell and coil type- upto 50 tons
122.
The choice of a refrigerant depends upon:

(1) Types of compressor(screw, centrifugal, reciprocating)

(2) Refrigerating capacity

(3) Service required (AC, Cold storage or food freezing)

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only

123.
Which of the following is not an essential component of any
refrigeration system, where refrigeration effect is produced by
vapourisation of refrigerant?

(a) Evaporator

(b) Condenser

(c) Compressor

(d) Expansion device

124.
Which one of the following is responsible for the operation of a
thermostatic expansion valve?

(a) Degree of subcooling in evaporator

(b) Pressure changes in evaporator

(c) Temperature changes in evaporator

(d) Degree of superheat in evaporator

125.
The sensing bulb of the thermostatic expansion valve is located
at the

(a) Exit of condenser

(b) Inlet of condenser

(c) Exit of evaporator

(d) Inlet of evaporator

126.
In a domestic refrigerator periodic defrosting is required
because frosting

(a) Partially blocks refrigerant flow

(b) Causes corrosion of materials

(c) Reduces heat extraction

(d) Over cools food stuff

127.
In gas cycle refrigeration system, an expander replaces the
throttle valve of a vapour compression system, because

(a) It reduces the irreversibility in the system

(b) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander

(c) Pressure drop obtained is not adequate

(d) Drop in temp. by throttling the gas is very small

128.
When a refrigerator system is started from ambient conditions.
Evaporator temperature decreases from ambient temperature
to design value. Period is known as a pull-down period. Power
requirement of compressor during pull down

(a) Increases continuously (b) Decreases continuously

(c) Remains constant (d) Increases and then decreases

129.
What is hunting of thermostatic expansion valve?

(a) A variation of evaporator load with degree of superheat

(b) This is not used in connection with expansion valve

(c) Alternate over-feeding and starving of refrigerant flow in

evaporator

(d) A variation of evaporator load with degree of superheat

130.
Consider the following statements regarding refrigerants

(1) Refrigerant NH3 is used in reciprocating compressors

(2) Refrigerant R- 11 is used in reciprocating compressors

(3) Refrigerant CO2 is used in reciprocating compressors

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

131.
Consider the following functions-

(1) Minimizing friction

(2) Sealing the gas between suction and discharge ports

(3) To dampen noise generated by moving parts

(4) As a coolant to transfer heat from the crankcase to compressor shell

Which of the above functions do lubricants in refrigeration systems perform?

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

132.
In a psychrometric chart relative humidity lines are-

(a) Horizontal and uniformly spaced

(b) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

(c) Inclined and straight but non-uniformly spaced

(d) Curved
133.
The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature of an air sample will be equal when:

(1) Air is fully saturated

(2) Dew point temperature is reached

(3) Partial pressure of vapour equals the total pressure

(4) Humidity ratio is 100%

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

134.
Specific humidity is defined as mass of

(a) Dry air contained per kg of air vapour mixture

(b) Water vapour contained per kg of air vapour mixture

(c) Water vapour contained in air vapour mixture per kg of dry air

(d) None of these

135.
Comfort conditions in air conditioning system are defined by

(a) 27 degree C DBT and 75% RH

(b) 20 degree C DBT and 60% RH

(c) 25 degree C DBT and 100 % RH

(d) 22 degree C DBT and 60% RH

136.
Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) During heating and dehumidification process DBT increases

(b) During cooling and dehumidification process DBT increases

(c) During cooling and dehumidification process, humidity ratio increases

(d) During heating and humidification process humidity ratio decreases

137.
The heat load from the occupants in air conditioning load calculation is a
source of

(a) Latent heat only

(b) Sensible heat only

(c) Both

(d) None of these

138.
Wet bulb depression is zero, when relative humidity is equal to

(a) Zero

(b) 30%

(c) 50%

(d) 100%
139.
On a psychrometric chart, what does a vertical downward line represent?

(a) Humidification

(b) Dehumidification

(c) Adiabatic saturation

(d) Sensible cooling

140.
During sensible cooling process, specific humidity

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains constant

(d) Unpredicted
141.
The saturation temperature of water vapour at its partial pressure is equal to

(a) DBT

(b) DPT (Dew Point Temperature)

(c) WBT

(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature

142.
In winter air-conditioning, the process is

(a) Heating, humidification and cooling

(b) Heating, humidification and heating

(c) Cooling, dehumidification and heating

(d) Heating, dehumidification and heating

143.
When air is adiabatically saturated, the temperature attained is the

(a) Wet bulb temperature

(b) Dew point temperature

(c) Dry bulb temperature

(d) Apparatus dew point temperature

144.
In a psychrometric chart, which of the following statement(s) is/are
CORRECT?

(a) It provides plots for moist air conditioning

(b) It is seldom used for air conditioning design

(c) It can not determine DBT and WBT

(d) It is used to determine properties of refrigerants

145.
Air at 25 degree C DBT and 80% RH is passed over a cooling coil whose
surface temperature is 10 degree C which is below DPT of the air. If the air
temperature coming out of the cooling oil is 15 degree C, then the bypass
factor of the cooling coil is

(a) 0.46

(b) 0.33

(c) 0.87

(d) 0.67
146.
In an adiabatic saturation process of air

(a) Enthalpy remains constant

(b) Temperature remains constant

(c) Absolute humidity remains constant

(d) Relative humidity remains constant

147.
For a given DBT, as the relative humidity decreases, the WBT will

(a) Same

(b) Decreases

(c) Increases

(d) Depend on other factors

148.
In an air-conditioning plant, air enters the cooling coil at 27 degree C. The coil
surface temperature is 5 degree C. If by-pass factor of the unit is 0.4, the air
will leave the coil at

(a) 11.2 Degree C

(b) 5.6 Degree C

(c) 7.8 Degree C

(d) 9.2 Degree C

149.
Air is passed through a cooling coil at a temperature of - 5 degree C. If the
temperature of air drops from 25 degree C to 10 degree C, the bypass factor
of the coil is

(a) 1

(b) 0.7

(c) 0.5

(d) 0.2
150.
When moist air passes through a bed of silica gel, the

(a) DBT of air decreases

(b) DBT of air increases

(c) Specific humidity of air increases

(d) It undergoes adiabatic saturation

151.
During sensible cooling of moist air, its relative humidity

(a) Increases

(b) Does to change

(c) Decreases

(d) Affects specific humidity

152.
The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

(a) does not depend on season

(b) same in winter and summer

(c) Lower in winter than that in summer

(d) Lower in summer than that in winter

153.
At 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature is

(a) Equal to ambient temperature

(b) Less than dew point temperature

(c) Same as dew point temperature

(d) More than dew points temperature

154.
The expression 0.622 Pv/(Pt - Pv) is used to determine

(a) Degree of saturation

(b) Specific humidity

(c) Partial pressure

(d) Relative humidity

155.
Consider the following statements for sensible heating. In this process

(1) WBT increases

(2) Relative humidity decreases

(3) Vapour pressure remains constant

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

156.
A desert cooler having a cooling efficiency of 70% reduces the temperature of
atmospheric air from 37 degree C to 30 degree C. The wet bulb temperature
of the air is

(a) 24 degree C

(b) 26 degree C

(c) 25 degree C

(d) 27 degree C
157.
What is the saturation temperature at the partial pressure of water vapour in
the air-water vapour mixture called?

(a) Saturation temperature

(b) Dew point temperature

(c) Dry bulb temperature

(d) Wet bulb temperature

158.
On psychrometric chart, the constant wet bulb temperature lines coincide
with

(a) Constant volume lines

(b) Constant dew point temperature lines

(c) Constant enthalpy lines

(d) Constant relative humidity lines

159.
Consider the following statements

Air washer can work as

(1) Humidifier only

(2) Dehumidifier only

(3) Filter only

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

160.
Effective temperature depends on DBT and

(a) WBT only

(b) Specific humidity

(c) Relative humidity

(d) WBT and air motion

161.
If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb
temperature increases, its dew point temperature

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains the same

(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity

162.
In a sensible heating or cooling process

(a) DBT remains constant

(b) WBT remains constant

(c) Humidity ratio remains constant

(d) Relative humidity remains constant

163.
When unsaturated air is adiabatically saturated, which of the following
properties decrease?

1. DBT, 2. WBT, 3. Relative humidity, 4. Specific humidity

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

164.
Consider the following statements

In a psychrometric chart

(1) Vertical lines indicate WBT

(2) Horizontal lines indicate relative humidity

(3) Sensible heating or cooling is represented by an inclined line

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

165.
On which factor(s), does the heat lost by the human body in the process of
radiation depend?

(a) Relative humidity and air motion

(b) Temperature and relative humidity

(c) Temperature and air motion

(d) Temperature only

166.
If the volume of moist air with 50% relative humidity is isothermally reduced
to half its original volume, then relative humidity of moist air becomes

(a) 100%

(b) 80%

(c) 60%

(d) 25%
167.
The performance of an evaporation condenser largely depends on

(a) DBT of air

(b) WBT of air

(c) Hot water temperature

(d) Air conditioned room temperature

168.
Atmospheric air at 35 degree C and 60% relative humidity can be bought to
20 degree C and 60% relative humidity by

(a) Sensible cooling process

(b) Adiabatic saturation process

(c) Cooling and humidification

(d) Cooling and dehumidification

169.
In summer, air may be cooled and dehumidified by spraying chilled water to
air in the form of mist. The minimum temperature to which air may be cooled
is the-

(a) Wet bulb temperature

(b) Adiabatic saturation temperature

(c) Apparatus dew point

(d) Dry bulb temperature

170.
The humidity ratio of atmospheric air at 28 degree C DBT and 760 mm of hg is
0.016 Kg of vapour per kg of dry air. What is the partial pressure of water
vapour(KN/m^2)?

(a) 10

(b) 7.5

(c) 5

(d) 2.5
171.
In a sample of moist air at standard atmospheric pressure of 101.325 KPa and
26 degree C the partial pressure of water vapour is 1.344 KPa. If the
saturation pressure of water vapour is 3.36 KPa at 26 degree C, then what are
the humidity ratio and relative humidity of moist air sample?

(a) ).01344 and 1.32%

(b) 0.00836 and 1.32%

(c) 0.00836 and 40%

(d) .01344 and 40%

172.
When unsaturated air undergoes adiabatic saturation, which of the following
properties decrease(s)?

(1) Relative humidity, (2) Specific humidity, (3) DBT, (4) WBT

(a) 4 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
DBT- Decreases, RH and Specific Humidity
Increases and WBT remains constant.
173.
In air-water vapour mixture, the partial pressure of water vapour corresponds
to the saturation temperature called

(a) Dew point temperature

(b) Wet bulb temperature

(c) Dry bulb temperature

(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature

174.
In sensible cooling of moist air, its physical properties vary as follows

(1) WBT decreases, (2) DPT remains constant, (3) RH increases

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer Keys
(85). d (91). C (97). D (103). B (109). d (115). C (121).d

(86). D (92). A (98). A (104). A (110). B (116). B (122).b

(87). D (93). D (99). C (105). B (111). D (117). B (123). c

(88). C (94).b (100). C (106). C (112). B (118). A (124).d

(89). A (95). C (101). B (107). A (113). A (119).a (125).c

(90). C (96).c (102). B (108). A (114). C (120).b (126).c

Answer Keys
(127). D (133). C 139.b 145.b 151. A 157. B 163. A 169. c

(128). D (134). C 140.c 146.a 152. C 158. B 164. C 170. d

(129). C (135). D 141.b 147.c 153. C 159. D 165. D 171. c

(130). B (136). D 142.b 148.c. 154.b 160.d 166. A 172. b

(131). D (137). C 143.a 149. C 155.a 161. C 167. A 173. a

(132). D (138).d 144. A 150. B 156.d 162.c 168. D 174. c

RAC MCQ’s
Level- 2
 76.
List- 1 List- 2

A. Liquid to suction heat exchanger 1. Vapour absorption refrigeration

B. Constant volume heat addition 2. Otto cycle

C. Normal shock 3. Vapour compression refrigeration

D. Ammonia water 4. Diesel cycle

5. Converging Nozzle

6. Converging and diverging nozzle

77.
Clearance volume of a reciprocating compressor
is 100 ml and volume of the cylinder at bottom
dead centre (BDC) is 1 litre. Clearance ratio of
the compressor is-
(A) 1/9 (B) 1/11 (C) 1/10 (D) 1/1.1
78.
A heat engine having an efficiency of 70% is used to drive a
refrigerator having a coefficient of performance of 5. The
energy absorbed from low temperature reservoir by the
refrigerator for each kJ of energy absorbed from high
temperature source by the engine is

(A) 0.14 kJ (B) 0.71 kJ (C) 3.5 kJ (D) 7.1 kJ

79.
An industrial heat pump operates between the temperatures
of 27 °C and 13 °C. The rates of heat addition and heat
rejection are 750 W and 1000 W, respectively. The COP for
the heat pump is

(A) 7.5 (B) 6.5 (C) 4.0 (D) 3.0

80.
A vapor absorption refrigeration system is a heat pump with
three thermal reservoirs as shown in the figure. A
refrigeration effect of 100W is required at 250 K when the
heat source available is at 400 K. Heat rejection occurs at 300
K. the minimum value of heat required (in W) is

(A) 167 (B) 100

(C) 80 (D) 20
81.
A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator maintains a
temperature of −5°C. The ambient air
temperature is 35°C. The heat gained by the
refrigerator at a continuous rate is 2.5 kJ/s. The
power (in watt) required to pump this heat out
continuously is _______
82.
The COP of a Carnot heat pump operating
between 6 °C and 37 °C is ___________
83.
The thermodynamic cycle shown in figure (T-s
diagram) indicates

(A) reversed Carnot cycle (B) reversed Brayton cycle

(C) vapor compression cycle (D) vapor absorption cycle

84.
Round the clock cooling of an apartment having
a load of 300 MJ/day requires and air
conditioning plant of capacity about
(a) 100 tons (b) 10 tons
(c) 5 tons (d) 1 ton