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PART-I

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

Direction (1-7) : In each of the following questions, funsZ”k ¼1 ls 7½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, x,
select the related letter/word/number from the given fodYiksa esa ls lEcfU/kr v{kj@”kCn@la[;k dks
alternatives : pqfu,A

1. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ? 1. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ?


(A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV (A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV
(C) LQEBO (D) LRECO (C) LQEBO (D) LRECO

2. Manipuri : Manipur : : Kathakali : ? 2. ef.kiwjh % ef.kiwj % % dFkdyh % \


(A) Karnataka (B) Tamilnadu (A) dukZVd (B) rfeyukMq
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh (C) dsjy (D) vkU/kz izns”k

3. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ? 3. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ?
(A) 425 (B) 420 (A) 425 (B) 420
(C) 525 (D) 505 (C) 525 (D) 505

4. Teacher : Student : : Pontiff : ? 4. f”k{kd % Nk= % % fc”ki % \


(A) Disciple (B) Follower (A) f”k’; (B) vuq;k;h
(C) Priest (D) Deity (C) iqtkjh (D) nsork

5. Book : Read : : Picture : ? 5. fdrkc % i<+uk % % fp= % \


(A) Library (B) Buy (A) iqLrdky; (B) [kjhnuk
(C) See (D) Listen (C) ns[kuk (D) lquuk

6. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :? 6. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :?


(A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF (A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF
(C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH (C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH

7. Swimming : River : : Hiking : ? 7. rSjuk % unh % % p<+kbZ %\


(A) Mountain (B) Road (A) ioZr (B) lM+d
(C) Pond (D) Sea (C) rkykc (D) leqnz

Direction (8-15) : In each of the following question, find funsZ”k ¼8 ls 15½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa fn, x, fodYiksa
the odd word/letters/number pair from the given esa ls fo’ke la[;k@ v{kj@la[;k ;qXe pqfu,A
alternatives :
8. 8.
(A) 1000 (B) 625 (A) 1000 (B) 625
(C) 64 (D) 512 (C) 64 (D) 512

9. 9.
(A) 10 (B) 24 (A) 10 (B) 24
(C) 64 (D) 120 (C) 64 (D) 120

1550 3 SET-A
10. 10.
(A) CP (B) FR (A) CP (B) FR
(C) DQ (D) BO (C) DQ (D) BO

11. 11.
(A) Publisher (B) Author (A) izdk”kd (B) ys[kd
(C) Novelist (D) Poet (C) miU;kldkj (D) dfo

12. 12.
(A) WTQN (B) NKHE (A) WTQN (B) NKHE
(C) MIDA (D) KHEB (C) MIDA (D) KHEB

13. 13.
(A) King : Queen (B) Prince : Princess (A) jktk % jkuh (B) jktdqekj % jktdqekjh
(C) Witch : Vampire (D) Hero : Heroine (C) Mk;u % fi”kkp (D) vfHkusrk % vfHkus=h

14. 14.
(A) Radish (B) Carrot (A) ewyh (B) xktj
(C) Potato (D) Beetroot (C) vkyq (D) pqdanj

15. 15.
(A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54 (A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54
(C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286 (C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286

Directions (16-17) : Arrange the following words funsZ”k ¼16 ls 17½ % fuEufyf[kr “kCnksa dks vaxzsth
according to the English dictionary : “kCndks”k ds vuqlkj ltkos %

16. 1. Voyage 2. Voice 16. 1. Voyage 2. Voice


3. Vocation 4. Volume 3. Vocation 4. Volume
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1 (A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

17. 1. Beet 2. Beer 17. ^1. Beet 2. Beer


3. Being 4. Been 3. Being 4. Been
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

Directions (18-25) : In the following questions a series funsZ”k ¼18 ls 25½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa vuqØe fn;k
is given with one item missing choose the correct x;k gS] ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa
alternative from the given ones that will complete ls og lgh fodYi pqfu, tks vuqØe dks iwjk djsA
the series :

18. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ? 18. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ?
(A) OTK (B) NSD (A) OTK (B) NSD
(C) JPE (D) TOE (C) JPE (D) TOE

1550 4 SET-A
19. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739 19. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739
(A) 722 (B) 522 (A) 722 (B) 522
(C) 622 (D) 632 (C) 622 (D) 632

20. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49 20. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49


(A) 34 (B) 45 (A) 34 (B) 45
(C) 52 (D) 64 (C) 52 (D) 64

21. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? . 21. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? .


(A) DEF (B) DFH (A) DEF (B) DFH
(C) DEH (D) DFE (C) DEH (D) DFE

22. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162 22. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162
(A) 42 (B) 32 (A) 42 (B) 32
(C) 52 (D) 62 (C) 52 (D) 62

23. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? . 23. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? .


(A) 33 (B) 34 (A) 33 (B) 34
(C) 27 (D) 30 (C) 27 (D) 30

24. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? . 24. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? .
(A) WUY (B) VTY (A) WUY (B) VTY
(C) VUZ (D) WUZ (C) VUZ (D) WUZ

25. 12, 26, 54, ? . 25. 12, 26, 54, ? .


(A) 223 (B) 110 (A) 223 (B) 110
(C) 220 (D) 108 (C) 220 (D) 108

26. If A = 1 , BAD = 7, then HAT = ? 26. ;fn A = 1 , BAD = 7 gks rks HAT = ?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 29 (D) 19 (C) 29 (D) 19

27. If B = 4, D = 8 and C = 6, then DOG = ? 27. ;fn B = 4, D = 8 rFkk C = 6, gks rks DOG = ?
(A) 46 (B) 52 (A) 46 (B) 52
(C) 56 (D) 60 (C) 56 (D) 60

28. If D = 2 and F = 3, then BAG = ? 28. ;fn D = 2 rFkk F = 3, gks rks BAG = ?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

29. If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABIT is coded as 29. fdlh dwV Hkk’kk esa FAITH dks 82731, HABIT dks
12573 and HEALTH is coded as 192431, how 12573 rFkk HEALTH dks fy[kk tk, rks] 192431
can BELIEF be coded as ? dks mlh dwV Hkk’kk esa BELIEF dks D;k fy[kk
(A) 594598 (B) 594789 tk,xk\
(C) 594978 (D) 594798 (A) 594598 (B) 594789
(C) 594978 (D) 594798
1550 5 SET-A
30. If NATIONAL can be written as LNAANTOI, 30. ;fn fdlh dw V Hkk’kk es a NATIONAL dks
how can DOMESTIC be written? LNAANTOI fy[kk tk, rks mlh dwV Hkk’kk es
(A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE DOMESTIC dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD (A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD

31. In a class Sohan’s rank is 17th from the top and 31. ,d d{kk esa lksgu dk Øe Åij ls 17 ok¡ rFkk uhps
28th from the bottom. How many students are there ls 29 ok¡ gSA rks d{kk esa dqy fdrus Nk= gS\
in the class ? (A) 45 (B) 40
(A) 45 (B) 40 (C) 44 (D) 41
(C) 44 (D) 41

32. Varun said, “That boy is the grandson of my 32. o:.k us dgk fd ^^ og yM+dk esjs ekrk ds ifr dk
Mother’s husband. I have no brother and sister,” iksrk gS esjk dksbZ HkkbZ rFkk cgu ugh gS^^ crk;s og
How is the boy related with Varun? yM+dk o:.k ls dSls lEcfU/kr gS\
(A) Uncle (B) Son (A) pkpk (B) csVk
(C) Nephew (D) Cousin (C) Hkrhtk (D) ppsjk HkkbZ

33. Which of the following can not be formed by word 33. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk MERCHANDISE “kCn ls
MERCHANDISE : ugha cuk;k tk ldrk gS \
(A) MECH (B) DICE (A) MECH (B) DICE
(C) CHARM (D) CHANGE (C) CHARM (D) CHANGE

34. Out of 1865 people, 660 can speak English and 34. 1865 yksxksa esa ls] 660 vxazsth cksy ldrs gS] 1305
1305 can speak Marathi. But 120 person cannot ejkBh cksy ldrs gS] 120 yksx dksbZ Hkk’kk ugha cksy
speak either language. Then how many can speak ldrs gS] rks fdrus yksx nksuksa Hkk’kk cksy ldrs gS\
both languages : (A) 220 (B) 120
(A) 220 (B) 120 (C) 1085 (D) 440
(C) 1085 (D) 440

35. From the given alternative select the word which 35. fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, fodYi esa ls ml “kCn dks
can be formed using the letters given in the word. pqfu, tks ABOMINABLE ds v{kjksa ls cuk;k tk
ABOMINABLE : ldrk gS\
(A) BOWEL (B) METAL (A) BOWEL (B) METAL
(C) BLAND (D) BANAL (C) BLAND (D) BANAL

Directions (36-37) : In the following questions some funs”k ¼36 ls 37½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa dqN lehdj.k
equation are solved on the basis of a certain dk gy dqN [kkl i)fr ls fd;k x;k gS mlh
system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved i)fr ls gy ugha fd;s x, lehdj.k dk mÙkj nsaA
equation on that basis :

36. If 228 = 12 and 337 = 16, then 569 = ? 36. ;fn 228 = 12 rFkk 337 = 16, rks 569 = ?
(A) 39 (B) 20 (A) 39 (B) 20
(C) 29 (D) 36 (C) 29 (D) 36

1550 6 SET-A
37. If 3 X 7 X 8 = 837 37. ;fn 3 X 7 X 8 = 837
2 X 4 X 5 = 524, then 4 X 3 X 7 = ? 2 X 4 X 5 = 524, rc 4 X 3 X 7 = ?
(A) 743 (B) 734 (A) 743 (B) 734
(C) 84 (D) 214 (C) 84 (D) 214

Directions (38-40) : In the following questions, select funs”k ¼38 ls 40½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”ukas esa fn, x,
the missing number from given response : fodYiksa esa ls yqIr laa[;k Kkr djsA

38. 12 6 8 38. 12 6 8
4 4 9 4 4 9
3 7 4 3 7 4
51 31 ? 51 31 ?
(A) 21 (B) 42 (A) 21 (B) 42
(C) 76 (D) 86 (C) 76 (D) 86

39. 3 18 6 39. 3 18 6
5 ? 4 5 ? 4
8 40 5 8 40 5
(A) 40 (B) 22 (A) 40 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 20 (C) 24 (D) 20

40. 8 2 6 40. 8 2 6
2 4 ? 2 4 ?
5 6 8 5 6 8
80 48 240 80 48 240
(A) 4 (B) 10 (A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 20 (C) 5 (D) 20

41. Indicate which figure will best represent the 41. fuEukafdr fp= esa dkSu&lk fpfM+;k] dkSvk rFkk
relationship among Birds, Crows, Eagles : bZxy ds chp lEcU/k dks iznf”kZr djrk gS%

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

42. Neela is now three times as old as her daughter 42. uhyk viuh csVh yhyk ls rhu xq.kk cqM+h gS] 10 o’kZ
Leela. Ten years back, Neela was five times as old igys uhyk] yhyk ls ik¡p xquh cM+h FkhA rks yhyk dh
as Leela. The age of Leela is : vk;q gSA
(A) 15 (B) 25 (A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20 (C) 30 (D) 20

1550 7 SET-A
Direction (43 - 47) : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting funs”k ¼43 ls 47½ % P, Q, R, S, T, U, V vkSj W ,d o`r
round the circle and are facing the centre ds pkjksa vksj dsUnz dh vksj eq[k djds cSBs gSA
(i) P is second to the right of T who is the (i) P, T nk¡;s ls nwljk gS tks fd R vkSj V dk
neighbour of R and V iM+kslh gSA
(ii) S is not the neighbour of P (ii) S, P iM+kslh ugha gSA
(iii) V is the neighbour of U (iii) V, U dk iM+kslh gSA
(iv) Q is not between S and W. W is not between (iv) Q, S rFkk W ds chp esa ugha gS W, Q rFkk S
Q and S ds chp esa ugha gSA

43. Which two of the following are not neighbours : 43. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe ,d nwljs ds iM+kslh
(A) UV (B) TR ugha gS\
(C) PW (D) SW (A) UV (B) TR
(C) PW (D) SW

44. Who is the neighbour of W ? 44. W dk iM+kslh dkSu gS \


(A) U (B) V (A) U (B) V
(C) R (D) S (C) R (D) S

45. Who is the second right of R? 45. R ls nk¡;s nwljk dkSu gS\
(A) Q (B) W (A) Q (B) W
(C) S (D) V (C) S (D) V

46. Who is in the middle of S and V ? 46. S rFkk V ds chp esa dkSu gS \
(A) U (B) R (A) U (B) R
(C) P (D) Q (C) P (D) Q

47. Who is second to the left of U ? 47. U ds ck¡;s nwljk dkSu gS \


(A) W (B) Q (A) W (B) Q
(C) P (D) R (C) P (D) R

48. In half hour, the minute hand of clock will rotate 48. vk/ks ?kaVs esa feuV dh lqbZ fdrus fMxzh ls /kqe
through the angle of : tk,sxh\
(A) 75° (B) 60° (A) 75° (B) 60°
(C) 120° (D) 180° (C) 120° (D) 180°

49. Meera was born on 22nd March 1982. On what 49. ehjk dk tUe 22 ekpZ 1982 dks gqvk FkkA rks crkos
day of the week was she 14 years 7 months and 8 fd lIrkg ds dkSu lk fnu og 14 o’kZ 7 eghuk vkSj
days of age? 8 fnu dh Fkh\
(A) Tuesday (B) Sunday (A) eaxyokj (B) jfookj
(C) Monday (D) Saturday (C) lkseokj (D) “kfuokj

50. If 1st October falls on Sunday. What day of the 50. ;fn 1 vDVwcj dks jfookj gksrk gS] rks 1 uoEcj dks
week will fall on 1st November ? lIrkg dk dkSu lk fnu jgsxk\
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (A) eaxyokj (B) cq/kokj
(C) Sunday (D) Monday (C) jfookj (D) lkseokj

1550 8 SET-A
PART-II

GENERAL AWARENESS & PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE


51. Which state government has recently declared 50% 51. gky gh esa fdl jkT; ljdkj us U;kf;d lsok esa
reservation in judicial services for OBCs, SCs, STs vU; fiNM+k oxZ] vuqlwfpr tkfr] vuqlwfpr tu
and EBCs? tkfr rFkk vkfFkZd :i ls fiNM+s oxZ ds fy, 50%
(A) Odisha (B) Madhya Pradesh vkj{k.k ykxw fd;k gS %&
(C) Bihar (D) Assam (A) vks f M’kk (B) e/; iz ns’k
(C) fcgkj (D) vle

52. Garampani sanctuary is located at 52. xjeikuh vHk;kj.; dgak fLFkr gS %&
(A) Junagarh, Gujarat (A) tqukx<+ ¼xq tjkr½
(B) Diphu, Assam (B) nhQw ¼vle½
(C) Kohima, Nagaland (C) dksf gek ¼ukxkyS aM ½
(D) Gangtok, Sikkim (D) xax Vksd ¼flfDde½

53. Coral reefs in India can be found in 53. Hkkjr esa ewaxs dh pV~Vkusa dgak ik;h tk ldrh gSa %&
(A) the coast of Orissa (A) vksfMlk ds rV
(B) Waltair (B) okYVs ; j
(C) Rameshwaram (C) jkes’ oje~
(D) Trivandrum (D) f=os U nz e

54. Film and TV Institute of India is located at 54. Hkkjrh; fQYe o Vs y hfotu la L Fkku dga k fLFkr gS % &
(A) Pune (Maharashtra) (A) iq .ks ¼egkjk”Vª½
(B) Rajkot (Gujarat) (B) jktdksV ¼xq t jkr½
(C) Pimpri (Maharashtra) (C) ihai jh ¼egkjk”Vª ½
(D) Perambur (Tamilnadu) (D) isj kEcwj ¼rfeyukMq ½

55. Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to 55. fdldks gVkus ds fy, m|ksxksa esa xq:Rokd”kZ.k psEcj
remove dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) SO2 (A) lYQj MkbvkDlkbZ M
(B) NO 2 (B) ukbVª k st u MkbvkDlkbZ M
(C) Suspended particulate matter (C) fuyafcr d.k ekeyksa esa
(D) CO 2 (D) dkcZ u MkbvkDlkbZ M

56. What is scoring pattern prescribed in ARCF for 56. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa bUlkl jkbQy Qk;fjax ds fy,
trained soldier firing with INSAS Rifle? fu/kZkfjr vkadyu esa] izkIrkdksa dk dkSu lk fofoj.k
(A) Marksman-74,1stClass-60 & Std Shot-46 lgh gS \
(B) Marksman-86,1stClass-72 & Std Shot-58. (A) ekDZ leS u&74]QLV Dykl&60 rFkk LVS .MZ M
(C) Marksman-98,1stClass-79 & Std Shot-65. ‘kkW V &46
(D) Marksman-106,1stClass-87 & Std Shot-73. (B) ekDZ leS u&86]QLV Dykl&72 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &58
(C) ekDZ leSu&98] QLV Dykl&79 rFkk LVS .MZM
‘kkW V &65
(D) ekDZ leS u&106]QLV Dykl&87 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &73
1550 9 SET-A
57. How many total firing practs (including day & night) 57. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa VªUs M lksYtj ds fy, 9 ,e-,e-
are there in ARCF for trained soldier firing from dkjckbZ u ls dq y ¼jkr&fnu feykdj½ Qk;fja x
9MM Carbine? izSfDVl j[kh x;h gS %&
(A) 08 (B) 07 (A) 0 8 (B) 0 7
(C) 06 (D) 05 (C) 0 6 (D) 0 5

58. How many types of sights are being used in X-95 58. X-95 jkbQy esa fdrus izdkj dh lkbZVl bLrseky
rifle? dh tkrh gS?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 5 (C) 2 (D) 5

59. After how many paces hand will come down in the 59. Ckk, ;k nkfgus ds lY;wV esa fdrus dne ds ckn
Salute of Left or Right? gkFk uhps vk,axs \
(A) 4 (B) 6 (A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7 (C) 5 (D) 7

60. What is the life of peak cap for SOs? 60. vf/kuLFk vf/kdkjh ds fy, ih&dS i dk ykbZ Q
(A) 06 years (B) 02 years fdruk gS\
(C) 03 years (D) 04 years ¼A½ 06 o”kZ ¼B½ 02 o”kZ
¼C½ 03 o”kZ ¼D½ 04 o”kZ

61. When is Kit classification carried out? 61. fdV DykflfQds’ku dc fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) At the time of pension ¼A½ isU’ku tkus ij
(B) At the time of tfr ¼B½ LFkkukUrj.k tkus ij
(C) Loss of any item ¼C½ O;fDrxr fdV ystj xqe gksus ij
(D) None of them ¼D½ buesa ls dksbZ ughA

62. For Dog Squad, how many weeks of trg are there 62. Mk~Wx LDokM ds fy, Mk~Wx ,ao gSaMyj dk izf’k{k.k
for Dog and its handler fdrus LkIrkg dk gSA
(A) 24 (B) 36 (A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 46 (C) 40 (D) 46

63. What is the area of jurisdiction of RAF unit? 63. vkj0,0,Q cVk0 dk dk;Z {kS= fdruk gS\
(A) 250 Km (B) 350 Km ¼A½ 250 fd eh (B) 350 fd eh
(C) 300 Km (D) 325 Km (C) 300 fd eh (D) 325 fd eh

64. How many type of grenades are being fired by 64. UBGL ds }kjk fdrus izdkj ds xzsuMs Qk;j fd;s
UBGL tkrs gS\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7 (C) 4 (D) 7

65. How many types of wire obstacle are there? 65. ok;j vkCLVSdy dh fdLesa crkvks\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

1550 10 SET-A
66. In which CRPF Form leave, leave/duty certificate 66. NqVVh@fM;wVh ij tkus dk izek.k i+= fdl dsfjiq
is issued? QkeZ esa rS;kj fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) CRP 18 (B) CRP 24 (A) dsf jiq 18 (B) dsf jiq 24
(C) CRP 20 (D) CRP 28 (C) dsf jiq 20 (D) dsf jiq 28

67. How many times GPF subscription can be increased/ 67. Hkfo’; fuf/k ls Hkfo”; fuf/k dVksrh esa ,d o’kZ esa
decreased in a year. fdrus ckj c<k;h@?kVk;h tk ldrh gS\
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/1 (A) 1/3 (B) 2/1
(C) 2/2 (D) 2/4 (C) 2/2 (D) 2/4

68. No members of the force will visit married lines 68. dksbZ cy dk lnL; fookfgr ykbZu esa fuEu esa fdl
except than those who have been allotted a quarter ds vuqefr ls Hkze.k dj ldrk gS \
without permission of (A) mi dek.MsV (,Me)
(A) DC (Adm) (B) dek.Ms V
(B) Comdt. (C) lq csnkj estj
(C) Subedar Major. (D) mi fujh{kd ¼gkbZ f tu ,.M lsf uVs”ku½
(D) SI(Hygeine & Sanitation)

69. DA is admissible for absence from HQ for not less 69. vU; M~;fw V ds fy, de&ls de fuEufyf[kr le;
than ds fy, eq[ ;ky; ls vuqifLFkr jgus gsr q nSf ud
(A) 6 hrs (B) 9 hrs HkRrk ns; gksxk A
(C) 8 hrs (D) 10 hrs (A) 6 ?kaVs (B) 9 ?kaVs
(C) 8 ?kaVs (D) 10 ?kaVs

70. Within what distance no person is allowed to do 70. fdruh nwjh ij ernku dsUnz ds Hkhrj vkSj pkjksa vksj
any canvassing in and around the polling station fdlh ny fo”ks ’ k ds i{k es a leFkZ u eka x us dh
(A) 200 Yards (B) 100 Yards vuqefr ugha nh tkrh gS \
(C) 150 Yards (D) 250 Yards (A) 200 xt (B) 100 xt
(C) 150 xt (D) 250 xt

71. Response time of RAF to Law and Order situation 71. fdlh LFkku ij dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;k gsrq
within the same station when it is on call, is vkj0,0,Q0 }kjk dkjZokbZ djus dk le;]tc bls
(A) 30 minutes for move of all Coys. cqyk;k tkrk gS \
(B) 45 minutes for move of all Coys. (A) lHkh dEiuh dk 30 feuV esa lapkyu
(C) 60 minute for move of all Coys. (B) lHkh dEiuh dk 45 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) 15 minutes of move of all Coys. (C) lHkh dEiuh dk 60 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) lHkh dEiuh dk 15 feuV esa lapkyu

72. Vehicle to Vehicle distance in convoy movement 72. dkfQyk lapkyu esa okgu dh okgu ls nwjh igkM+h
should be ……….. Meter in hilly and ……… meter {ks= esa ------------------ vkSj lery {ks= esa -------- gksuh
in plain area. pkfg,A
(A) 20 to 30 meter, 300 to 500 meter (A) 20 ls 30 ehVj] 300 ls 500 ehVj
(B) 50 to 100 meter, 100 to 200 meter (B) 50 ls 100 ehVj] 100 ls 200 ehVj
(C) 500 to 01 Km, 01 Km to 02 Km (C) 500 ls 01 fdeh0] 01 fdeh0 ls 02 fdeh0
(D) 01 to 02 Km, 04 Km to 05 Km. (D) 01 ls 02 fdeh0] 04 fdeh0 ls 05 fdeh0

1550 11 SET-A
73. CRPF sponsored two players of J&K got 73. dsf jiq c y us tEew& d’ehj ds 02 f[kykfM+; ksa dks
opportunity to play which game at the International varjjk”Vªh; Lrj ij fdl [ksy esa ekSdk ,oa çk;ksftr
level fd;k x;k \
(A) Badminton (B) Football (A) cS M feaV u (B) Qq V c‚y
(C) Cricket (D) Boxing (C) fØds V (D) eq D ds c kth

74. Shuttle run test measures – 74. ‘kV~y ju ijh{k.k dk ekin.M gS%&
(A) Explosive strength (A) foLQks V d etcwr h
(B) Speed endurance (B) xfr lgu’khyrk
(C) Agility (C) Qw r hZ
(D) Speed (D) xfr

75. Fatigue comes during training due to – 75. izf’k{k.k ds nkSjku Fkdku ds dkj.k gSa%&
(A) Lactic acid (B) Adrenal (A) yS fDVd vEy (B) xqnZs lac/a kh
(C) CO 2 (D) PH factor. (C) dkcZ u Mk;vkWD lkbZ M (D) ih-,p- ?kVd

76. How many Numbers of Trained solder Table Cord 76. VªsuaM lksYtj Vscy dkWMZ fdrus izdkj ds gS%a &
are there- (A) 5 (B) 7
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
(C) 8 (D) 9

77. Which of following terms denotes the “Toughening 77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ‘kkjhfjd etcwrh dk izeq[k
of body” as its major objectives- ?kVd gSa%&
(A) Play (B) Drill (A) [ks y uk (B) Mª h y
(C) WT (D) PT (C) MCY;w - Vh- (D) ih-Vh-

78. Sri Guru Gobind Singh was 78. xq: xksfoan flag Fks %&
(A) The 10th Guru of the Sikhs (A) flD[kksa ds nlosa xq:
(B) Founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the (B) 1699 esa flD[ksa ds vkarfjd ifj”kn [kkylk ds
Sikhs in 1699 la L Fkkid
(C) Author of Dasam Granth (C) nle xzaFk ds jpf;rk
(D) All the above (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh

79. Who has been awarded ‘Scroll of Honor’ by 79. dS lysl ysu &nsu dks c<+k ok nsu s ds fy, Hkkjr
Government of India to promote cashless ljdkj us fdls ßLdzkWy vkWQ vkWujÞ iznku fd;k
transactions? gS % &
(A) Manish Jadon (B) Khusbu Gupta (A) euh”k tknksu (B) [kq ’kcq xq I rk
(C) Surbhi Kapoor (D) Gaurav Goya (C) lq j Hkh diq j (D) xkS j o xks; k

80. What is the sequence of sitting position of Lathi 80. xkMh ls ekpZ djrs le; ykBh ikVhZ ds cSBus dk
party while marching from vehicle? dz e crk,A
(A) Middle (B) Last (A) chp esa (B) vkf[kj esa
(C) First (D) Anywhere (C) igys (D) dgh Hkha

1550 12 SET-A
81. Revision petition can be made against the 81. iqujh{k.k ;kfpdk fdrus fnuks ds le;&lhek ds
punishment of departmental enquiry within…days? Hkhrj esa dh tk ldrh gS \
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days (A) 15 fnuksa esa (B) 30 fnuksa esa
(C) 45 days (D) 60 days (C) 45 fnuksa esa (D) 60 fnuksa esa

82. An orderly room register is maintained in CRPF in 82. ds0fj0iq0cy esa vnZyh d{k iaftdk dk fdl iaftdk
form No.? la[;k esa j[k&j[kko fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) Form No. 16 (B) Form No. 46 (A) QkW eZ la0 &16 (B) QkW eZ la0 &46
(C) Form No. 08 (D) Form No. 15 A (C) QkW eZ la0 &08 (D) QkWeZ la0&15 ,

83. MR claim can be preferred in how many days from 83. mipkj dh lekfIr ls fdrus fnuksa esa fpfdRlk
the completion of treatment? izfriwfrZ nkok dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gS\
(A) 01 month (B) 03 months (A) 01 eghuk (B) 03 eghus
(C) 45 days (D) None of the above (C) 45 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

84. As per latest orders the Firefighting practice in duty 84. uohure izko/kkuksa ds vuqlkj Qk;j QkbfVax ikVhZ
Bn be carried out once in? dk vH;kl fM;wVh CkVkfy;u esa fdrus fnuksa ij
(A) 07 Days (B) Monthly gks u h pkfg,\
(C) 15 Days (D) None the above (A) 07 fnu (B) ekfld
(C) 15 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

85. Ecology deals with 85. ifjfLFkfrdh lac) gS %&


(A) Birds (A) i{kh
(B) Cell formation (B) dksf ’kdk xBu
(C) Relation between organisms and their (C) thoksa vkSj okrkoj.k ds chp laca/k
environment (D) mRrdks a
(D) Tissues

86. The ozone layer restricts 86. vkstksu ijr D;k lhafer djrh gSa %&
(A) Visible light (A) n` ’; iz d k’k
(B) Infrared radiation (B) vojDr fofdj.k
(C) X-rays and gamma rays (C) ,Dl&js vkSj xkek fdj.kksa
(D) Ultraviolet radiation (D) ijkcS ax uh fofdj.k

87. Filaria is caused by 87. Qkbysfj;k fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS %&


(A) Bacteria (B) Mosquito (A) cS f DVª ; k (B) ePNj
(C) Protozoa (D) Virus (C) iz k s V ks t ks v k (D) okbjl

88. Newly raised CRPF Mahila Bn inducted in LWE 88. dsfjiqcy esa ,aVh uDly v‚ijs’ku ds fy, okeiaFkh
Area for Anti Naxal operation. mxzokn {ks= esa ,d ubZ efgyk cVkfy;u dks ‘kkfey
(A) 88 (B) 135 fd;k gS]a og gS&
(C) 232 (D) 233 (A) 88 cVkfy;u (B) 135 cVkfy;u
(C) 232 cVkfy;u (D) 233 cVkfy;u

1550 13 SET-A
89. Which CRPF Training Institution awarded with 89. dsf jiq c y ds fdl çf’k{k.k dsU nz ftls loks Z R re
Home minister Cup for best Training Centre for jax:V çf’k{k.k ds fy, x`g ea=h di }kjk lEekfur
recruits. fd;k x;k gS&
(A) RTC Neemach (B) RTC Rajgir (A) vkjVhlh uhep (B) vkjVhlh jktxhj
(C) RTC Amethi (D) CIAT Silchar (C) vkjVhlh vesB h (D) lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- flypj

90. Latest CIAT School of CRPF established at which 90. ds f jiq c y es a uohure lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- Ldw y fdl
place. txg LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS\
(A) Latur (B) Chittoor (A) ykrw j (B) fpÙkw j
(C) Belgam (D) Bijapur (C) csy xkW a o (D) chtkiq j

91. Which Central Team of CRPF won the Gold medal 91. dsfjiqcy ds bfrgkl esa dsfjiqcy ds fdl dsaæh;
in AIPDM-2016 for the first time in the history of [ksy ny us igyh ckj ,-vkbZ-ih-Mh-,e-&2016 esa
CRPF? Lo.kZ ind thrk gS\
(A) Volleyball (B) Basketball (A) okW y hckW y (B) ckLds V c‚y
(C) Hockey (D) Rowing (C) g‚dh (D) jks b a x A

92. 7th National Conference of Women in Police was 92. 7 oha jk”Vªh; efgyk iqfyl lEesyu dsfjiqcy esa
organized the first time in CRPF, the venue was :- iz F ke ckj fdl LFky ij vk;ksf tr fd;k x;k
(A) ISA M/Abu Fkk\
(B) Vigyan Bhawan Delhi (A) vkaalqv- ekmaV vkcw
(C) CRPF Dte. General, New Delhi (B) foKku Hkou fnYyh
(D) CRPF Academy Kadarpur (C) ds f jiq c y egkfuns ’ kky;
(D) dsf jiq cy vdkneh dknjiq j

93. Name of CRPF Commandant who is martyred on 93. lhvkjih,Q dekaMsaV tks 15 vxLr 2016 Jhuxj
15 Aug’2016 in Srinagar? esa ‘kghn gqvk dk uke gS A
(A) Pravin Kumar (A) iz o h.k dq ekj
(B) Pramod Kumar (B) izeksn dq ekj
(C) Pravesh Chand (C) izos’k pan
(D) Piyush Chand (D) ih;w”k pan

94. Which of the following activities measures dynamic 94. xfr’khy ‘kfä dk izeq[k ekin.M gSa%&
strength – (A) [kM+k dwnuk
(A) Vertical jump (B) NksVh nkS M+
(B) Short distance run (C) QkjoMZ jksYk
(C) Forward roll (D) jLlk Pk<+u k
(D) Rope climbing

95. What does BMI measures – 95. BMI dk ekin.M gSa%&


(A) Flexibility (B) Muscles weight (A) yphykiu (B) ekal is’kh otu
(C) Body fat (D) Strength (C) ’kkjhfjd olk (D) etcw r h

1550 14 SET-A
96. Which Standing order is applicable for Annual 96. ds0fj0iq0cy esa okf”kZd pkWanekjh oxhZdj.k Qk;fjax
Range classification firing instructions in CRPF? ls lacaf/kr fn’kk&funsZ’k fdl LFkkbZ vkns’k esa gS \
(A) S O- 06/2008 (A) LFkkbZ vk0 06@2008
(B) S O- 09/2011 (B) LFkkbZ vk0 09@2011
(C) S O- 10/2012 (C) LFkkbZ vk0 10@2012
(D) S O- 01/201 (D) LFkkbZ vk0 01@2016

97. Mistake occurred because of Trigger operation is 97. fVªxj vkWijs’ku ls gksus okyh xyrh dgykrh gS \
called? (A) fQ~ y ap (B) tdZ
(A) Flinch (B) Jerk (C) c d (D) mi;qDr lHkh
(C) Buck (D) All of these

98. Which exercise is beneficial to rectify the mistake 98. Qk;jj }kjk lkbV ,ykbuesUV dh xyrh dks nwj
of sight alignment by a firer? djus ds fy, dkSu lh ,DljlkbZt dh t:jr gS \
(A) Aiming box exercise (A) ,feax ckW D l ,DljlkbZ t
(B) Aiming corrector exercise (B) ,feax djsD Vj ,DljlkbZ t
(C) Breathing control exercise (C) fcz f nax dUVªk sy ,DljlkbZ t
(D) Tin disc exercise (D) Vhu fMLd ,DljlkbZt

99. Which drill is adopted by CRPF on firing range? 99. ds- fj-iq -cy }kjk Qk;fjax jsast ij dkSu lh fMªy
(A) Company drill viukbZ tkrh gS \
(B) Discipline drill (A) dEiuh fMªy
(C) A to G drill (B) vuq ’kklu fMªy
(D) Fire arm safety drill (C) A ls G fMªy
(D) Qk;j vkeZ lqj{kk fMªy

100. When to zero the weapon? 100. oSiu dks thjks dc fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) When the weapon newly issued (A) tc u;k oSiu tkjh fd;k tkrk gS
(B) After handing/taking over of weapon on (B) VªkalQj ij oSiu dks nsus o ysus ds ckn
transfer (C) izeq[k ejEer ds ckn
(C) After major repair (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh
(D) All of these

1550 15 SET-A
PART-III
NUMERICAL ABILITY

101. The unit digit in the product 101. (284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ds xq.kuQy dk bZdkbZ
(284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ? vad gS%
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

102. What is the unit dight of (795-358) x 511 ? 102. (795-358) x 511 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 0 (B) 4 (A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 6 (D) 7

103. What is the unit digit of (2157) 754? 103. (2157) 754 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 3 (B) 6 (A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 9 (C) 7 (D) 9

104. If (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, then x = ? 104. ;fn (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, gks rks] x = ?


(A) 140 (B) 240 (A) 140 (B) 240
(C) 360 (D) 280 (C) 360 (D) 280

105. If the product 4864 X 9 x 2 is divisible by 12, the 105. ;fn 4864 X 9 x 2 dk xq.kuQy 12 ls foHkkftr gks]
value of x is : rks x dk eku gS%
(A) 2 (B) 1 (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

106. If x and y are odd numbers, then which of the 106. ;fn x rFkk y fo’ke la[;k,¡ gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa
following is even? dkSu le gS\
(A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1 (A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1
(C) xy +2 (D) xy (C) xy +2 (D) xy

107. The largest 5-digit number exactly divisible by 91 107. ik¡p vadks dh lcls cM+h la[;k tks dh 91 ls iw.kZr%
is: foHkkftr gks %
(A) 99981 (B) 99999 (A) 99981 (B) 99999
(C) 99918 (D) 99971 (C) 99918 (D) 99971

108. What least number must be subtracted from 13602, 108. 13602 esa ls og lcls NksVh la[;k dkSu&lh ?kVk;h
so that the remainder is divisible by 87? tk; fd “ks’kQy 87 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks tk;\
(A) 29 (B) 31 (A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 37 (C) 30 (D) 37

109. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ? 109. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ?


(A) 1536 (B) 1540 (A) 1536 (B) 1540
(C) 1150 (D) 1140 (C) 1150 (D) 1140

1550 16 SET-A
110. How many natural numbers are there between 17 110. 17 rFkk 100 ds chp dqy fdrus izkÑr la[;k gS tks
and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6 ? fd 6 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks \
(A) 12 (B) 13 (A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15 (C) 14 (D) 15

111. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. 111. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 3 % 4 gS] ;fn mudk e0 l0
is 8, their L.C.M. is : 8 gS rks mudk y0 l0 D;k gksxk\
(A) 96 (B) 108 (A) 96 (B) 108
(C) 48 (D) 64 (C) 48 (D) 64

4 3 4 9 4 3 4 9
112. The L.C.M. of , , , is : 112. , , rFkk dk y0 l0 gS %
3 5 7 13 3 5 7 13
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
36 1365 36 1365
12 12
(C) 36 (D) (C) 36 (D)
448 448

113. 0.517  0.00517 = ? 113. 0.517  0.00517 = ?


(A) 1 (B) 10 (A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) None of these (C) 100 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

1 1
114. is equal to : 114. dk eku gS%
0.02 0.02
(A) 100 (B) 50 (A) 100 (B) 50
2 1 2 1
(C) (D) (C) (D)
50 20 50 20

0.009 0.009
115. If = 0.001, then x = ? 115. ;fn = 0.001, gks rks x = ?
x x
(A) 90 (B) 9 (A) 90 (B) 9
1 1
(C) 0.9 (D) (C) 0.9 (D)
90 90

116. The value of 0.47 is : 116. 0.47 dk eku cjkcj gS %


47 47 47 47
(A) (B) (A) (B)
10 99 10 99
43 47 43 47
(C) (D) (C) (D)
90 9 90 9

1550 17 SET-A
ba ba
117. If 1.5 a = 0.04 b, then value of   is : 117. ;fn 1.5 a = 0.04 b, gks] rks   dk eku gS%
ba ba
73 7 .3 73 7 .3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
77 77 77 77
730 7 .3 730 7 .3
(C) (D) (C) (D)
77 777 77 777

(0.6) 4  (0.5) 4 (0.6) 4  (0.5) 4


118.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
is equal to : 118.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
dk eku cjkcj gS %
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.11 (A) 0.1 (B) 0.11
(C) 1.1 (D) 11 (C) 1.1 (D) 11

P 6 P2  Q2 P 6 P2  Q2

119. If Q 5 , find the value of 2 : 
119. ;fn Q 5 ] gks rks 2 dk eku fudkys %
P  Q2 P  Q2
51 61 51 61
(A) (B) (A) (B)
11 11 11 11
49 49
(C) (D) 8 (C) (D) 8
11 11

2a 2a
120. If =1, then find the value of a ? 120. ;fn =1] gks rks a dk eku fudkys\
1 1
1 1
a a
1 1
1 a 1 a
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
2 4 2 4
2 2
(C) (D) 0 (C) (D) 0
3 3

P P 3 P P 3
121. If  =1, then find the value of P? 121. ;fn  =1] gks rks] P dk eku fudkys\a
4 6 4 6
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 0 (C) 6 (D) 0

1 1 1 1 1 1
122. If   =4, then a = ? 122. ;fn   =4] gks rks a = ?
3 2 a 3 2 a
5 6 5 6
(A) (B) (A) (B)
18 19 18 19
18 24 18 24
(C) (D) (C) (D)
5 11 5 11

1550 18 SET-A
a 4  4 2b  a  a 4  4 2b  a 
123. If  , then value of    is : 123. ;fn  , gks rks    dk eku gS%
b 5  7 2b  a  b 5  7 2b  a 

1 1
(A) 1 (B) 1 (A) 1 (B) 1
7 7
3 3
(C) 2 (D) (C) 2 (D)
7 7

a a a a
124. If  =4, then find the value of a ? 124. ;fn  =4, gks rks a dk eku fudkys \
5 6 5 6
(A) 120 (B) 100 (A) 120 (B) 100
5 2 5 2
(C) (D) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3

1 1
125. of a tanker holds 135 litres of water. What part 125. VSadj ds Hkkx esa 135 yhVj ikuh jgrk gSA ;fn
4 4
of tanker is full if it cantains 300 litres of water? VSadj esa 300 yhVj ikuh Hkjk tk; rks VSadj dk
fdruk Hkkx Hkjsxk\
5 1
(A) (B) 5 1
9 2 (A) (B)
9 2
2 9
(C) (D) 2 9
3 5 (C) (D)
3 5

126. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they lost. 126. ,d fØdsV Vhe thrrk eSp gkjrk gs mlls 3 eSp
If a win gives them 2 points and loss (-1) point, T;knk thrrk gS] ;fn thrus ij mls 2 vad rFkk
how many matches, in all, have they played if their gkjus ij (-1) vad feyrk gS] rks crk;sa fd 25 vad
score is 25? izkIr djus ds fy, mlus fdruk eSp [ksyk gksxk\
(A) 19 (B) 41 (A) 19 (B) 41
(C) 20 (D) 42 (C) 20 (D) 42

127. If a = 1+ 127. ;fn a = 1+ 2 rFkk b= 1- 2 , gks rks (a +b ) dk


2 2
2 and b= 1- 2 , find the value of
(a2+b2) : eku fudkys %
(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

128. If x =5, then what is the value of 10 x x3  x 2 128. ;fn x =5] gks rks] 10 x x3  x 2 dk eku D;k gS\

(A) 250 (B) 200 5 (A) 250 (B) 200 5

(C) 100 5 (D) 500 (C) 100 5 (D) 500

1550 19 SET-A
0.0196 0.0196
129. If = 0.2, then x = ? 129. ;fn = 0.2, gks] rks] x = ?
x x
(A) 0.49 (B) 4.9 (A) 0.49 (B) 4.9
(C) 0.049 (D) 0.07 (C) 0.049 (D) 0.07

130. If 3x = 3y = 3z and x + y + z = 27 29 , then 130. ;fn 3x = 3y = 3z rFkk x + y + z = 27 29 gks rks]

x 2  y 2  z 2 is : x2  y 2  z2 ?
(A) 87 (B) 84 (A) 87 (B) 84
(C) 2 29 (D) 4 29 (C) 2 29 (D) 4 29

131. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 131. 549160 esa ls og NksVh lh NksVh dkSu lh la[;k
549160 in order to make a perfect square? ?kVk;h tk, rkfd og iw.kZ oxZ cu tk;s%
(A) 79 (B) 81 (A) 79 (B) 81
(C) 80 (D) 1 (C) 80 (D) 1

132. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 132. ik¡p yxkrkj le la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 26 gS] rks muesa
26. Find the smallest of them? ls lcls NksVh la[;k Kkr djsaA
(A) 20 (B) 22 (A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 28 (C) 24 (D) 28

133. The average of 11 numbers is 60. If the average of 133. 11 la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 60 gSA ;fn izFke 6 dk
first six numbers is 58 and that of last six is 63, find vkSlr 58 rFkk vfUre 6 dk vkSlr 63 gks rks] NBh
the sixth number : la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 60 (B) 66 (A) 60 (B) 66
(C) 72 (D) 78 (C) 72 (D) 78

134. The average age of 36 persons in a group is 14 134. fdlh lewg ds 36 yksxksa dk vkSlr vk;q 14 o’kZ gS
years. When an extra person’s age is included to it, lewg esa ,d vfrfjDr vkneh vkus ds ckn vkSlr 1
the average increases by one. What is the extra ls c<+ tkrh gSA rks mls vfrfjDr vkneh dh vk;q
person’s age in years? o’kZ esa D;k gS\
(A) 41 (B) 47 (A) 41 (B) 47
(C) 49 (D) 51 (C) 49 (D) 51

135. A driver travels to a place 150 km away at an 135. ,d pkyd 150 fdeh dh nwjh 50 fdeh@?kaVk dh
average speed of 50 km/hr and return at vkSlr pky ls rS; djrk gS rFkk 30 fdeh@?kaVk dh
30 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey vkSlr pky ls og okil vk tkrk gsA rks mlds
in km/hr is : lEiw.kZ ;k=k dh vkSlr pky fudkys%
(A) 33.5 km/hr (B) 37.5 km/hr (A) 33-5 fdeh@?kaVk (B) 37-5 fdeh@?kaVk
(C) 35 km/hr (D) 37 km/hr (C) 35 fdeh@?kaVk (D) 37 fdeh@?kaVk

1550 20 SET-A
136. 50 is divided into two parts such that the sum of 136. 50 dks nks Hkkxksa esa bl izdkj ck¡Vk tkrk gS fd mlds
1 1
their reciprocals is , find largest part? O;qRØe dk ;ksxQy gS] rks cM+k Hkkx crkos\
8 8
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

137. Present ages of Mohan and Sohan are in the ratio 137. eksgu rFkk lksgu dh oÙkZeku vk;q dk vuqikr
of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio 5 % 4 gSA rhu o’kZ ds ckn muds vk;q dk vuqikr
of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What 11 % 9 gks tk,xkA rks eksgu dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k
is Mohan’s present age in years ? gS\
(A) 30 (B) 24 (A) 30 (B) 24
(C) 27 (D) 40 (C) 27 (D) 40

138. Sushil’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 138. 15 o’kZ okn lq”khy dh vk;q mlds 5 o’kZ igys dh
years back. What is the present age of Sushil? vk;q dh 5 xq.kk gks tk,xh lq”khy dh oÙkZeku vk;q
(A) 15 (B) 20 D;k gS\
(C) 10 (D) 25 (A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25

139. The Sum of ages of a father and his son is 45 years. 139. firk rFkk iq= dh vk;q dk ;ksxQy dk 45 o’kZ gS]
Five years ago, the product of their ages was 34. 5 o’kZ igys nksuksa ds vk;q dk xq.kuQy 34 gS rks iq=
The age of the son is : dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 6 years (B) 7 years (A) 6 o’kZ (B) 7 o’kZ
(C) 8 years (D) 9 years (C) 8 o’kZ (D) 9 o’kZ

140. In 10 years, x will be twice as old as y was 10 140. 10 o’kksZ esa x dh vk;q y ds 10 o’kZ ds igys dh vk;’q
years ago. If x is now 9 years older than y the dh nwxquk gks tk,xh] ;fn oÙkZeku esa x, y ls 9 o’kZ
present age of y is : cM+k gS rks y dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 39 years (B) 29 years (A) 39 o’kZ (B) 29 o’kZ
(C) 19 years (D) 21 years (C) 19 o’kZ (D) 21 o’kZ

3 6 3 6
6 6
141. What is the value of 3 7 : 141. 3 7 dk eku D;k gS\
6 X 6 6 X 6
1 1
(A) 6 (B) (A) 6 (B)
6 6
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 1 (D) 0

3X(81) 4 3X(81) 4
142. If n 5 =27, then n =? 142. ;fn n 5 =27, gks rks n =?
9 X3 X(27) 3 9 X3 X(27) 3
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
3 2 3 2
1 1
(C) 0 (D) (C) 0 (D)
4 4
1550 21 SET-A
143. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than 4
four-fifth of that number. What is the number? 143. fdlh la[;k dks 65 izfr”kr ml la[;k ds Hkkx
5
(A) 120 (B) 160 ls 21 de gS] rks la[;k D;k gS\
(C) 140 (D) 180 (A) 120 (B) 160
(C) 140 (D) 180

144. 15% of 600 + 45 % of 280 = ? 144. 600 dk 15% $ 280 dk 45 % = ?


(A) 216 (B) 236 (A) 216 (B) 236
(C) 126 (D) 246 (C) 126 (D) 246

3 4 3 4
145. Raman reads
8
of a book on one day and of
5 145. jeu 1 fnu esa Hkkx fdrkc i<+rk gS] “ks’k dk
8 5
the remainder on another day. If there are 30 pages Hkkx nwljs fnu i<+rk gS] ;fn vc 30 i`’B ugha i<+k
unread now., how many pages did the book gqvk cpk gS rks fdrkc esa dqy fdrus i`’B Fks%
contain ? (A) 200 (B) 240
(A) 200 (B) 240 (C) 80 (D) 120
(C) 80 (D) 120

146. A seller purchased a washing machine for 146. ,d foØsrk ,d okf”kax e”khu dks :0 7]660 esa
Rs. 7, 660. After allowing a discount of 12% on its [kjhnrk gSA mlds vafdr ewY; ij 12% NwV nsus ds
marked price, he still gains 10% . Find the marked ckn Hkh 10% ykHk dekrk gSA rks e”khu dk vafdr
price of washing machine : ewY; D;k gS\
(A) Rs. 9575 (B) Rs. 9675 (A) 9575 :0 (B) 9675 :0
(C) Rs. 8246 (D) Rs. 9755 (C) 8246 :0 (D) 9755 :0

147. A man purchared an article and sold it to be B at a 147. A vkneh ,d oLrq [kjhn dj 25% ykHk ij B dks
profit of 25% and B sold it to C at a loss of 10% csp nsrk gS] B, C dks 10% gkfu ij csp nsrk gS] C dks
and C paid Rs. 675 for it. For how much did A blds fy, 675 :i;k nsuk iM+rk gSA rks crk;sa fd A
purchase it : bls fdrus esa [kjhnk Fkk\
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 550 (A) 500 :0 (B) 550 :0
(C) Rs. 600 (D) Rs. 650 (C) 600 :0 (D) 650 :0

148. Two trains start from a certain place on two 148. nks Vsªu lekukUrj VSªd ij ,d gh fn”kk esa ,d gh
parallel tracks in the same direction. The speed of fcUnq ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gSA Vsªu dh xfr 45
the trains are 45 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. fdeh@?kaVk rFkk 40 fdeh@?kaVk Øe”k% gSA rks 45
The distance between two trains after 45 minutes feuV ds ckn nksuksa jsyxkM+h dh chp dh nwjh D;k
will be : gksxh\
(A) 3 km 750 m (B) 3 km 550 m (A) 3 fdeh 750 eh (B) 3 fdeh 550 eh
(C) 2 km 750 m (D) 2 km 550 m (C) 2 fdeh 750 eh (D) 2 fdeh 550 eh

1 3 1 1 1
149. If x  =3, the value of x  3 is : 149. ;fn x 
3
=3, gks rks] x  dk eku gS%
x x x x3
(A) 30 (B) 36 (A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 34 (D) 40 (C) 34 (D) 40

150. The area of equilateral triangle is 4 3 square 150. leckgq f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy 4 3 oxZehVj gS] rks
metre. Its perimeter is : bldk ifjeki gS%
(A) 14 metre (B) 12 metre (A) 14 ehVj (B) 12 ehVj
(C) 6 3 metre (D) 12 3 metre (C) 6 3 ehVj (D) 12 3 ehVj
1550 22 SET-A
PART-IV
HINDI
funsZ”k ¼151 ls 155½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, 159. n;kuUn
(A) xq.k lfU/k (B) nh?kZ lfU/k
x, “kCn ds lekukFkhZ “kCn dk p;u mlds uhps fn,
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) ;.k lfU/k
x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%

160. uhjksx
151. ifjos”k
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k
(A) O;ogkj (B) vk¡xu
(C) xq.k lfU/k (D) folxZ lfU/k
(C) okrkoj.k (D) vkpj.k

152. Nksg
funsZ”k ¼161 ls 165½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa nh xbZ
(A) fojkx (B) fojg
iafDr;ksa ds jpf;rk ds pkj lEHkfor uke fn, x,
(C) eerk (D) Nwuk
gSA mi;qDr jpf;rk ds uke dk p;u dhft,%

161. lf[k os eq>ls dg dj tkrsA


153. uSlfxZd
(A) vKs; (B) eSfFkyh”kj.k xqIr
(A) izkÑfrd (B) dfYir
(C) t;”kadj izlkn (D) gfjvkS/k
(C) Ñf=e (D) iqjkru

162. dud&dud rs lkSxquh ekndrk vf/kdk;A


154. O;Fkk
(A) {kksHk (B) ihM+k
;g [kk, ckSjkb uj] ok ik, ckSjk,AA
(A) rqylhnkl (B) fcgkjh
(C) d’V (D) nq%[k
(C) ds”konkl (D) fo;ksxh gfj

155. ifjey
163. esjh Hko&ok/kk gjkS jk/kk&ukxfj lksbZA
(A) lq[k (B) loksZÙke xU/k
(C) foenZu (D) lgokl
tk ru dh >kbZ ijS L;ke gfjr&nqfr gksbZAA
(A) Xoky (B) ds”konkl
(C) jl[kku (D) fcgkjh yky
funsZ”k ¼156 ls 160½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn,
x, “kCn esa iz;qDr lfU/k ds izdkj dk p;u mlds
164. izHkqth rqe panu ge ikuhA
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%
tkdh vax&vax ckl lekuhAA
(A) jSnkl (B) eywdnkl
156. uk;d
(C) xq:ukud (D) dchjnkl
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) xq.k lfU/k
(C) o`f) lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k
165. izxfrokn mi;ksfxrkokn dk nqljk uke gSA
(A) jkefoykl “kekZ
157. Hkw’k.k
(B) ize
s pUn
(A) folxZ lfU/k (B) ;.k lfU/k
(C) uUnnqykjs oktis;h
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k
(D) lqfe=kuUnu iar

158. ;”kksnk
(A) Loj lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k
(C) folxZ lfU/k (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
1550 23 SET-A
166. LFkk;h Hkkoksa dh la[;k dqy fdruh gS \ funsZ”k ¼176 ls 180½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd “kCn ds fy,
(A) ukS (B) nl mlds uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls mi;qDr lekl
(C) X;kjg (D) ckjg N¡fV,%

167. jl ds fdrus vax gksrs gSa\ 176. jkekuqt


(A) nks (B) pkj (A) rRiq:’k (B) nU)
(C) ik¡p (D) N% (C) deZ/kkj; (D) cgqczhfg

168. loZJ’s B jl fdls ekuk tkrk gS\ 177. lifjokj


(A) jkSnz jl (B) J`axkj jl (A) vO;;hHkko (B) rRiq:’k
(C) d:.k jl (D) ohj jl (C) f)xq (D) cgqczhfg

169. dfo fcgkjh eq[;r% fdl jl ds dfo gSa\ 178. jkr&fnu


(A) d:.k (B) HkfDr (A) f)xq (B) rRiq:’k
(C) J`axkj (D) ohj (C) )U) (D) deZ/kkj;

170. NUn dk loZizFke mYys[k dgk¡ feyrk gS\ 179. ouokl


(A) _Xosn (B) mifu’kn (A) vO;;hHkko (B) deZ/kkj;
(C) lkeosn (D) ;tqoZn
s (C) rRiq:’k (D) }U)

171. NUn eq[; :i ls fdrus izdkj ds gksrs gS\ 180. pkSjkgk


(A) nks (B) rhu (A) cgqczhfg (B) rRiq:’k
(C) pkj (D) N% (C) vO;;hHkko (D) f)xq

172. fdl NUn dk izFke o vfUre “kCn ,d&lk gksrk funsZ”k ¼181 ls 185½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd pkj fodYiksa
gS\ ls csesy ¼vlaxr½ “kCn dks fpafgRr dhft,A
(A) nksgk (B) jksyk
(C) lksjBk (D) dq.Mfy;k 181.
(A) “kkjhfjd (B) nSfgd
173. NIi; fdl izdkj dk NUn gSa\ (C) ekufld (D) vkf/k
(A) fo’ke (B) le
(C) v)Zle (D) ekf=d 182.
(A) pksV (B) t[e
174. nksgk fdl izdkj dk NUn gS\ (C) [kwu (D) ihM+k
(A) le~ (B) fo’ke
(C) v)Zle (D) bueas ls dksbZ ugha 183.
(A) izfr;ksfxrk (B) Hkkstu
175. fuEufyf[kr esa ekf=d le NUn dk dkSu&lk mnkgj.k (C) f[kykM+h (D) nkSM+
gS\
(A) nksgk (B) lksjBk
(C) pkSikbZ (D) ;s lHkh
1550 24 SET-A
184. funsZ”k ¼190 ls 195½ % uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz”u esa dkys
(A) ;qorh (B) ckfydk Nis “kCn ds pkj lEHkkfor rkRi;Z fn, x, gSaA lgh
(C) nqfgrk (D) uo;qod fodYi pqfu,A

185. 190. yS k fdd


(A) jks’k (B) dksi (A) idM+ fy;k x;k
(C) ve’kZ (D) v”kksd (B) ykSdh ls cuk
(C) ,d leku fn[kus okyk
funsZ”k ¼186 ls 189½ % fuEu esa ls ljy okD; dk p;u (D) tks bl yksd dh ckr gks
dhft,%
191. Ñik
186. (A) nq%[k esa lgkuqHkfr
(A) mlus dgk fd dk;kZy; cUn gks x;kA (B) nhu O;fDr dh lgk;rk
(B) lqcg gqbZ vkSj og vk x;kA (C) iSls ls enn
(C) jkgqy /khjs&/khjs fy[krk gSA (D) fdlh ds fy, dksbZ dk;Z djuk
(D) tks cM+s gSa] mUgas lEeku nksA
192. la d ks p
187. (A) fdlh dk;Z dks djus esa “keZ
(A) og T;ksa gh vk,] esjs ikl Hkst nsukA (B) vuqfpr dk;Z djus esa fgpfdpkgV
(B) fuf/k VkbZi djuk lh[k pqdh] vc og “kkVZ (C) cqjs deksZ ij nq%[k
gS.M lh[k jgh gSA (D) vkRefo”okl dk u gksuk
(C) fot; dks cksyksa fd QkSju pyk vk,A
(D) ;FkklaHko ;g dk;Z “kke rd iwjk dj nks 193. fujis { k
(A) ftls dqN Hkh Kku u gks
188. (B) tks fdlh dh lqurk u gks
(A) mldks bruh ftEesnkfj;k¡ er nks fd og mUgsa (C) ftldk dksbZ i{k u gks
fuHkk u ldsA (D) ftldks fdlh ckr dh dkeuk u gks
(B) mUgha yksxksa ls feyuk pkfg, ftuls ln~O;ogkj
dh f”k{kk feysA 194. vi<+
(C) dksbZ ugha tkurk fd dy D;k gksxkA (A) tks i<+us ;ksX; u gks
(D) n;k ls c<+dj dksbZ Hkko ugha gSA (B) tks i<+k u x;k gks
(C) ftldk i<+uk euk gks
189. (D) tks i<+k&fy[kk u gks
(A) fo|k ls c<+dj dksbZ /ku ugha gSA
(B) ns”k esa fodkl dk;ksZ dh izxfr /kheh jgh gS 195. “kL=
D;ksafd ljdkj ds ikl /ku ugha FkkA (A) tks gfFk;kj nwj ls Qad
s k tk,
(C) cM+kas dks pkfg, fd cPpksa ds izfr vius O;ogkj (B) ftl gfFk;kj dks gkFk esa ysdj yM+k tk,
dks fu;af=r j[ksA (C) tks gfFk;kj vpwd gks
(D) ;fn lQyrk pkgrs gks rks ifjJe djuk gh (D) tks gfFk;kj ea= i<+dj iz;ksx esa fy;k tk,
iMs+xk

1550 25 SET-A
funsZ”k ¼196 ls 200½ % uhps dqN yksdksfDr;k¡ nh xbZ gSaA 198. ------------------- ds va/ks dks gjk gh gjk utj vkrk gS
izR;sd yksdksfDr esa tks mi;qDr “kCn NwV x;k gS] (A) cpiu (B) lkou
mlds fjDr LFkku ds fy, p;u dhft,% (C) ckr (D) vk¡[k

196. dj---------------------- rks gks Hkyk 199. cUnj D;k tkus -------------- dk Lokn
(A) lsok (B) Hkyk (A) feBkbZ (B) vnjd
(C) cyk (D) cqjk (C) I;kt (D) thjs

197. Hkxoku ds ?kj ---------------------gS] va/kjs ugha 200. va/kksa esa ------------------------------------- jktk
(A) nhid (B) izlkn (A) yaxM+k (B) ywyk
(C) nsj (D) ewfrZ (C) dkuk (D) igyoku

*************************************************************************************

1550 26 SET-A
PART-IV
ENGLISH

Direction (151-155 ) : Fill in the blanks with the


appropriate word, choosing it from options given : 158.
(A) People dewlling in remote areas
151. I found it difficult to cope ............. mathematics at (B) suffer a lot because of
the advanced level : (C) in accessibility to hospitals
(A) with (B) of (D) No error
(C) for (D) up
159.
152. He was congratulated ..................... receiving his (A) It is interesting that
degree : (B) floating docks and even
(A) on (B) for (C) ships can be made of concreat
(C) by (D) of (D) No error

153. Some people quarrel ............ very trivial matters : 160.


(A) over (B) in (A) Make a list of foods that contain
(C) for (D) by (B) harmful
(C) chemicals
154. “May I know to ...... I am speaking.” (D) No error
(A) whom (B) who
(C) how (D) where
Direction (161-165) : In the following questions, choose
the word from four alternatives which is most nearly
155. Bear............... me as I explain the matter more fully:
(A) in (B) of opposite in meaning to the given word :
(C) with (D) for
161. Spiritual
Direction (156 -160) : In each sentence below (A) Earthly (B) Superior
four words have been printed in separate parts (C) Material (D) Disccord
which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
these parts may be mis spelt or an error in the 162. Harmony
context of the sentence the letter of that part is your (A) Agreement (B) Melody
answer. If there is no error, your answer is (D). i.e. (C) Confusion (D) Discord
No error.
163. Compulsion
156. (A) Constraint (B) Choice
(A) Collect newspaper and magazine having
(C) Freedom (D) Spontaneity
articles on oil
(B) pullution and
164. Waste
(C) discuss them.
(D) No error (A) Gain (B) Profit
(C) Nourish (D) Loss
157.
(A) We can demonstrate the 165. Successor
(B) phenomenon of evaporation and (A) Follower (B) Prodecessor
(C) condensation (C) Guide (D) Professor
(D) No error

1550 27 SET-A
Direction (166-170) : In the following questions. Out of 174. The production of raw silk :
four alternatives, choose the one which best (A) Sericulture (B) Seroculture
expresses the meaning of the given word as your (C) Sariculture (D) Syrumculture
answer:
175. The conference takes place once in three years?
166. Honest (A) Tetraenning (B) Triennial
(A) Authentic (B) Upright
(C) Treennial (D) Thriennial
(C) Direct (D) Actual

Direction (176-180) : In the following questions, groups


167. Vocation
of four words are given. In each group one word is
(A) Examination (B) Seminar
(C) Occupation (D) Holiday correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word :

168. Ingenuous 176.


(A) Innocent (B) Artful (A) Variety (B) Anxdety
(C) Cunning (D) Clever (C) Gaitey (D) Sodety

169. Innocuous 177.


(A) Careless (B) Harmless (A) Coersion (B) Precision
(C) Insufficient (D) Irresponssible (C) Negociation (D) Explation

170. Insolent 178.


(A) Disrespectful (B) Insoluble (A) Harrassment (B) Commitment
(C) depreciating (D) the sole of a shoe (C) Breevement (D) Temparament

Direction (171-175) : In the following questions, out of 179.


the four alternatives, choose the one which can be (A) Inefable (B) Inaecesible
substituted for the given words/sentence (C) Infallible (D) Invinsieble

171. A person who readily believes others : 180.


(A) Expact (B) Impact
(A) Credible (B) Credulous
(C) Exite (D) Imped
(C) Sensitive (D) Sensible
Direction (181-185) : In each of the questions, arrange
172. The political leader has an evil reputation. He is not the jumbled letter or phrases to make a meaningful
trusted : sentence :
(A) is notorious (B) is malicious
(C) is magnanimous (D) is dubious 181. P. each year
Q. two to five adults
173. A person who helps even a stranger in difficulty : R. get gold
(A) Samaritan (B) Altruist S. on an average
(C) Philanthropist (D) Beneficiary (A) PSQR (B) PRSQ
(C) SRQP (D) RSQP

1550 28 SET-A
182. P. can be dangerous 187. This telephone number is not existing:
Q. the indiscriminate (A) has not existed (B) has not been existing
R. without medical supervision (C) does not exist (D) no improvement
S. and critical use of any drug
(A) PQRS (B) PRQS 188. The businessman is respectively connected :
(C) QSRP (D) SPQR (A) respectfully (B) respectably
(C) receptively (D) no improvement
183. P. destroyed careers
Q. many 189. I met him in the way :
R. has resulted in (A) on the way (B) at the way
S. drug addiction (C) during the way (D) no improvement
(A) PQSR (B) PRQS
190. The boy said that he has read the book :
(C) SRQP (D) SPQR
(A) he has already read
(B) he had read
184. P. by making swallowing difficutt (C) he has finished to read
Q. a sore throat (D) no improvement
R. daily life
S. interferes with Direction (191-195) : Read the passage carefully and
(A) QSRP (B) QPRS choose the best answer to each question out of the
(C) PRQS (D) PQRS four alternatives :

185. P. America’s Passage


Q. in 1961 The advent of electric power was, in a way,
R. war launched comparable to the successful development and
S. first manned aircrafts application of nuclear power in 20th century. In fact,
(A) PRQS (B) PQSR the historical roots of electricity extend far back into
(C) QSRP (D) PSRQ antiquity. Many men had a hand both in acquring
basic knowledge about the invisible form of power
Direction (186-190) : In the following questions, a
and in developing the ways adopted for practical
sentence/ part of sentence is printed underlined.
purpose. One of the vital keys that helped to
Below four alternatives are given to the underlined
unlock the doors leading to the production of
part of the sentence as (A), (B) and (C) which may
electricity was the discovery, in 1831, of the
improve the sentence. Choose the correct
principle of electromagnetic induction. This
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your
discovery was made simultaneously by michael
answer is (D):
faraday in England and Joshef Henry in the United
States. From it came the generator, sometimes also
186. The student’s interest was raised by an article he
called dynamo but several decades of development
had read :
had to follow before the first practical dynamos or
(A) quickened (B) multiplied
generator came into existance in early 1870 :
(C) increased (D) no improvement

1550 29 SET-A
191. According to the author : Direction (196-200) : In the following passage some of
(A) Michael Faraday and Joseph Henry the words have been left out. After reading
revolutionized electricity in the USA carefully fill in the blanks with the help of given
(B) Nuclear power and electricity were alternatives :
discovered in the 20th centery
(C) The discovery of the principle of Passage
electromagnetic induction was not an ‘CRY-child relief and you’ 196 an organization that
important discovery 197 started by seven such 198 and it has been
(D) The advent of electric power is equivalent to working 199 1979 to change the lives of 200
the application of nuclear power in 20th children all over India.
century
196.
192. Michael Faraday and Josheph Henry discovered : (A) was (B) is
(A) the application of nuclear power (C) are (D) being
(B) the genertor
(C) the dynamo 197.
(D) the principle of electromagnetic induction (A) has (B) being
(C) was (D) been
193. Another word for ‘advent’ is .................. :
(A) discovery (B) arrival 198.
(C) invention (D) constitution (A) friends (B) men
(C) people (D) individuals
194. The generator was also known as the ........... :
(A) inductor (B) dynamo 199.
(C) inventor (D) conductor (A) since (B) during
(C) for (D) untill
195. Give a synonym for “antiquity”.
(A) Ancient (B) Antipathy 200.
(C) Modern (D) Uniqueness (A) underprivileged (B) privileged
(C) hopeless (D) denuded

*************************************************************************************

1550 30 SET-A
jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 31 SET-A
jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 32 SET-A
PART-I
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

Directions (1-8) : In the following questions a series is funsZ”k ¼1 ls 8½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa vuqØe fn;k x;k
given with one item missing choose the correct al- gS] ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls
ternative from the given ones that will complete og lgh fodYi pqfu, tks vuqØe dks iwjk djsA
the series :

1. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ? 1. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ?


(A) OTK (B) NSD (A) OTK (B) NSD
(C) JPE (D) TOE (C) JPE (D) TOE
2. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739 2. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739
(A) 722 (B) 522 (A) 722 (B) 522
(C) 622 (D) 632 (C) 622 (D) 632

3. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49 3. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49


(A) 34 (B) 45 (A) 34 (B) 45
(C) 52 (D) 64 (C) 52 (D) 64

4. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? . 4. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? .


(A) DEF (B) DFH (A) DEF (B) DFH
(C) DEH (D) DFE (C) DEH (D) DFE

5. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162 5. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162


(A) 42 (B) 32 (A) 42 (B) 32
(C) 52 (D) 62 (C) 52 (D) 62

6. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? . 6. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? .
(A) 33 (B) 34 (A) 33 (B) 34
(C) 27 (D) 30 (C) 27 (D) 30

7. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? . 7. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? .


(A) WUY (B) VTY (A) WUY (B) VTY
(C) VUZ (D) WUZ (C) VUZ (D) WUZ

8. 12, 26, 54, ? . 8. 12, 26, 54, ? .


(A) 223 (B) 110 (A) 223 (B) 110
(C) 220 (D) 108 (C) 220 (D) 108

9. If A = 1 , BAD = 7, then HAT = ? 9. ;fn A = 1 , BAD = 7 gks rks HAT = ?


(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 29 (D) 19 (C) 29 (D) 19

10. If B = 4, D = 8 and C = 6, then DOG = ? 10. ;fn B = 4, D = 8 rFkk C = 6, gks rks DOG = ?
(A) 46 (B) 52 (A) 46 (B) 52
(C) 56 (D) 60 (C) 56 (D) 60
1550 3 SET-B
11. If D = 2 and F = 3, then BAG = ? 11. ;fn D = 2 rFkk F = 3, gks rks BAG = ?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

12. If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABIT is coded as 12. fdlh dwV Hkk’kk esa FAITH dks 82731, HABIT dks
12573 and HEALTH is coded as 192431, how 12573 rFkk HEALTH dks fy[kk tk, rks] 192431
can BELIEF be coded as ? dks mlh dwV Hkk’kk esa BELIEF dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(A) 594598 (B) 594789 (A) 594598 (B) 594789
(C) 594978 (D) 594798 (C) 594978 (D) 594798

13. If NATIONAL can be written as LNAANTOI, 13. ;fn fdlh dw V Hkk’kk es a NATIONAL dks
how can DOMESTIC be written? LNAANTOI fy[kk tk, rks mlh dwV Hkk’kk es
(A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE DOMESTIC dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD (A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD

14. In a class Sohan’s rank is 17th from the top and 14. ,d d{kk esa lksgu dk Øe Åij ls 17 ok¡ rFkk uhps
28th from the bottom. How many students are there ls 29 ok¡ gSA rks d{kk esa dqy fdrus Nk= gS\
in the class ? (A) 45 (B) 40
(A) 45 (B) 40 (C) 44 (D) 41
(C) 44 (D) 41

15. Varun said, “That boy is the grandson of my 15. o:.k us dgk fd ^^ og yM+dk esjs ekrk ds ifr dk
Mother’s husband. I have no brother and sister,” iksrk gS esjk dksbZ HkkbZ rFkk cgu ugh gS^^ crk;s og
How is the boy related with Varun? yM+dk o:.k ls dSls lEcfU/kr gS\
(A) Uncle (B) Son (A) pkpk (B) csVk
(C) Nephew (D) Cousin (C) Hkrhtk (D) ppsjk HkkbZ

16. Which of the following can not be formed by word 16. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk MERCHANDISE “kCn ls
MERCHANDISE : ugha cuk;k tk ldrk gS \
(A) MECH (B) DICE (A) MECH (B) DICE
(C) CHARM (D) CHANGE (C) CHARM (D) CHANGE

17. Out of 1865 people, 660 can speak English and 17. 1865 yksxksa esa ls] 660 vxazsth cksy ldrs gS] 1305
1305 can speak Marathi. But 120 person cannot ejkBh cksy ldrs gS] 120 yksx dksbZ Hkk’kk ugha cksy
speak either language. Then how many can speak ldrs gS] rks fdrus yksx nksuksa Hkk’kk cksy ldrs gS\
both languages : (A) 220 (B) 120
(A) 220 (B) 120 (C) 1085 (D) 440
(C) 1085 (D) 440

18. From the given alternative select the word which 18. fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, fodYi esa ls ml “kCn dks
can be formed using the letters given in the word. pqfu, tks ABOMINABLE ds v{kjksa ls cuk;k tk
ABOMINABLE : ldrk gS\
(A) BOWEL (B) METAL (A) BOWEL (B) METAL
(C) BLAND (D) BANAL (C) BLAND (D) BANAL

1550 4 SET-B
Directions (19-20) : In the following questions some funs”k ¼19 ls 20½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa dqN lehdj.k
equation are solved on the basis of a certain dk gy dqN [kkl i)fr ls fd;k x;k gS mlh
system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved i)fr ls gy ugha fd;s x, lehdj.k dk mÙkj nsaA
equation on that basis :

19. If 228 = 12 and 337 = 16, then 569 = ? 19. ;fn 228 = 12 rFkk 337 = 16, rks 569 = ?
(A) 39 (B) 20 (A) 39 (B) 20
(C) 29 (D) 36 (C) 29 (D) 36

20. If 3 X 7 X 8 = 837 20. ;fn 3 X 7 X 8 = 837


2 X 4 X 5 = 524, then 4 X 3 X 7 = ? 2 X 4 X 5 = 524, rc 4 X 3 X 7 = ?
(A) 743 (B) 734 (A) 743 (B) 734
(C) 84 (D) 214 (C) 84 (D) 214

Directions (21-23) : In the following questions, select funs”k ¼21 ls 23½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”ukas esa fn, x,
the missing number from given response : fodYiksa esa ls yqIr laa[;k Kkr djsA

21. 12 6 8 21. 12 6 8
4 4 9 4 4 9
3 7 4 3 7 4
51 31 ? 51 31 ?
(A) 21 (B) 42 (A) 21 (B) 42
(C) 76 (D) 86 (C) 76 (D) 86

22. 3 18 6 22. 3 18 6
5 ? 4 5 ? 4
8 40 5 8 40 5
(A) 40 (B) 22 (A) 40 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 20 (C) 24 (D) 20

23. 8 2 6 23. 8 2 6
2 4 ? 2 4 ?
5 6 8 5 6 8
80 48 240 80 48 240
(A) 4 (B) 10 (A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 20 (C) 5 (D) 20

24. Indicate which figure will best represent the 24. fuEukafdr fp= esa dkSu&lk fpfM+;k] dkSvk rFkk
relationship among Birds, Crows, Eagles : bZxy ds chp lEcU/k dks iznf”kZr djrk gS%

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

1550 5 SET-B
25. Neela is now three times as old as her daughter 25. uhyk viuh csVh yhyk ls rhu xq.kk cqM+h gS] 10 o’kZ
Leela. Ten years back, Neela was five times as old igys uhyk] yhyk ls ik¡p xquh cM+h FkhA rks yhyk dh
as Leela. The age of Leela is : vk;q gSA
(A) 15 (B) 25 (A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20 (C) 30 (D) 20

Direction (26 - 30) : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting funs”k ¼26 ls 30½ % P, Q, R, S, T, U, V vkSj W ,d o`r
round the circle and are facing the centre ds pkjksa vksj dsUnz dh vksj eq[k djds cSBs gSA
(i) P is second to the right of T who is the (i) P, T nk¡;s ls nwljk gS tks fd R vkSj V dk
neighbour of R and V iM+kslh gSA
(ii) S is not the neighbour of P (ii) S, P iM+kslh ugha gSA
(iii) V is the neighbour of U (iii) V, U dk iM+kslh gSA
(iv) Q is not between S and W. W is not between (iv) Q, S rFkk W ds chp esa ugha gS W, Q rFkk S
Q and S ds chp esa ugha gSA

26. Which two of the following are not neighbours : 26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe ,d nwljs ds iM+kslh
(A) UV (B) TR ugha gS\
(C) PW (D) SW (A) UV (B) TR
(C) PW (D) SW

27. Who is the neighbour of W ? 27. W dk iM+kslh dkSu gS \


(A) U (B) V (A) U (B) V
(C) R (D) S (C) R (D) S

28. Who is the second right of R? 28. R ls nk¡;s nwljk dkSu gS\
(A) Q (B) W (A) Q (B) W
(C) S (D) V (C) S (D) V

29. Who is in the middle of S and V ? 29. S rFkk V ds chp esa dkSu gS \
(A) U (B) R (A) U (B) R
(C) P (D) Q (C) P (D) Q

30. Who is second to the left of U ? 30. U ds ck¡;s nwljk dkSu gS \


(A) W (B) Q (A) W (B) Q
(C) P (D) R (C) P (D) R

31. In half hour, the minute hand of clock will rotate 31. vk/ks ?kaVs esa feuV dh lqbZ fdruh fMxzh ls /kqe
through the angle of : tk,sxh\
(A) 75° (B) 60° (A) 75° (B) 60°
(C) 120° (D) 180° (C) 120° (D) 180°

32. Meera was born on 22nd March 1982. On what 32. ehjk dk tUe 22 ekpZ 1982 dks gqvk FkkA rks crkos
day of the week was she 14 years 7 months and 8 fd lIrkg ds dkSu lk fnu og 14 o’kZ 7 eghuk vkSj
days of age? 8 fnu dh Fkh\
(A) Tuesday (B) Sunday (A) eaxyokj (B) jfookj
(C) Monday (D) Saturday (C) lkseokj (D) “kfuokj
1550 6 SET-B
33. If 1st October falls on Sunday. What day of the 33. ;fn 1 vDVwcj dks jfookj gksrk gS] rks 1 uoEcj dks
week will fall on 1st November ? lIrkg dk dkSu lk fnu jgsxk\
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (A) eaxyokj (B) cq/kokj
(C) Sunday (D) Monday (C) jfookj (D) lkseokj

Direction (34-40) : In each of the following questions, funsZ”k ¼34 ls 40½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, x,
select the related letter/word/number from the given fodYiksa esa ls lEcfU/kr v{kj@”kCn@la[;k dks
alternatives : pqfu,A

34. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ? 34. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ?


(A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV (A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV
(C) LQEBO (D) LRECO (C) LQEBO (D) LRECO

35. Manipuri : Manipur : : Kathakali : ? 35. ef.kiwjh % ef.kiwj % % dFkdyh % \


(A) Karnataka (B) Tamilnadu (A) dukZVd (B) rfeyukMq
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh (C) dsjy (D) vkU/kz izns”k

36. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ? 36. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ?


(A) 425 (B) 420 (A) 425 (B) 420
(C) 525 (D) 505 (C) 525 (D) 505

37. Teacher : Student : : Pontiff : ? 37. f”k{kd % Nk= % % fc”ki % \


(A) Disciple (B) Follower (A) f”k’; (B) vuq;k;h
(C) Priest (D) Deity (C) iqtkjh (D) nsork

38. Book : Read : : Picture : ? 38. fdrkc % i<+uk % % fp= % \


(A) Library (B) Buy (A) iqLrdky; (B) [kjhnuk
(C) See (D) Listen (C) ns[kuk (D) lquuk

39. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :? 39. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :?
(A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF (A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF
(C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH (C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH

40. Swimming : River : : Hiking : ? 40. rSjuk % unh % % p<+kbZ %\


(A) Mountain (B) Road (A) ioZr (B) lM+d
(C) Pond (D) Sea (C) rkykc (D) leqnz

Direction (41-48) : In each of the following question, funsZ”k ¼41 ls 48½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa fn, x,
find the odd word/letters/number pair from the fodYiksa esa ls fo’ke la[;k@ v{kj@la[;k ;qXe
given alternatives : pqfu,A

41. 41.
(A) 1000 (B) 625 (A) 1000 (B) 625
(C) 64 (D) 512 (C) 64 (D) 512

1550 7 SET-B
42. 42.
(A) 10 (B) 24 (A) 10 (B) 24
(C) 64 (D) 120 (C) 64 (D) 120

43. 43.
(A) CP (B) FR (A) CP (B) FR
(C) DQ (D) BO (C) DQ (D) BO

44. 44.
(A) Publisher (B) Author (A) izdk”kd (B) ys[kd
(C) Novelist (D) Poet (C) miU;kldkj (D) dfo

45. 45.
(A) WTQN (B) NKHE (A) WTQN (B) NKHE
(C) MIDA (D) KHEB (C) MIDA (D) KHEB

46. 46.
(A) King : Queen (B) Prince : Princess (A) jktk % jkuh (B) jktdqekj % jktdqekjh
(C) Witch : Vampire (D) Hero : Heroine (C) Mk;u % fi”kkp (D) vfHkusrk % vfHkus=h

47. 47.
(A) Radish (B) Carrot (A) ewyh (B) xktj
(C) Potato (D) Beetroot (C) vkyq (D) pqdanj

48. 48.
(A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54 (A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54
(C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286 (C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286

Directions (49-50) : Arrange the following words funsZ”k ¼49 ls 50½ % fuEufyf[kr “kCnksa dks vaxzsth
according to the English dictionary : “kCndks”k ds vuqlkj ltkos %

49. 1. Voyage 2. Voice 49. 1. Voyage 2. Voice


3. Vocation 4. Volume 3. Vocation 4. Volume
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1 (A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

50. 1. Beet 2. Beer 50. ^1. Beet 2. Beer


3. Being 4. Been 3. Being 4. Been
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

1550 8 SET-B
PART-II

GENERAL AWARENESS & PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE


51. No members of the force will visit married lines 51. dksbZ cy dk lnL; fookfgr ykbZu esa fuEu esa fdl
except than those who have been allotted a quarter ds vuqefr ls Hkze.k dj ldrk gS \
without permission of (A) mi dek.MsV (,Me)
(A) DC (Adm) (B) dek.Ms V
(B) Comdt. (C) lq csnkj estj
(C) Subedar Major. (D) mi fujh{kd ¼gkbZ f tu ,.M lsf uVs”ku½
(D) SI (Hygeine & Sanitation)

52. DA is admissible for absence from HQ for not less 52. vU; M~;wfV ds fy, de&ls de fuEufyf[kr le;
than ds fy, eq[ ;ky; ls vuqi fLFkr jgus gsrq nS fud
(A) 10 hrs (B) 8 hrs HkRrk ns; gksxk A
(C) 9 hrs (D) 6 hrs (A) 10 ?kaVs (B) 8 ?kaVs
(C) 9 ?kaVs (D) 6 ?kaVs

53. Within what distance no person is allowed to do 53. fdruh nwjh ij ernku dsUnz ds Hkhrj vkSj pkjksa vksj
any canvassing in and around the polling station fdlh ny fo”ks’k ds i{k esa leFkZu ekaxus dh vuqefr
(A) 200 Yards (B) 100 Yards ugha nh tkrh gS \
(C) 150 Yards (D) 250 Yards (A) 200 xt (B) 100 xt
(C) 150 xt (D) 250 xt

54. Response time of RAF to Law and Order situation 54. fdlh LFkku ij dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;kgsrq
within the same station when it is on call, is vkj0,0,Q0 }kjk dkjZokbZ djus dk le;]tc bls
(A) 30 minutes for move of all Coys. cqyk;k tkrk gS \
(B) 45 minutes for move of all Coys. (A) lHkh dEiuh dk 30 feuV esa lapkyu
(C) 60 minute for move of all Coys. (B) lHkh dEiuh dk 45 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) 15 minutes of move of all Coys. (C) lHkh dEiuh dk 60 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) lHkh dEiuh dk 15 feuV esa lapkyu

55. Vehicle to Vehicle distance in convoy movement 55. dkfQyk lapkyu esa okgu dh okgu ls nwjh igkM+h
should be ……….. Meter in hilly and ……… {ks= esa ----------------- vkSj lery {ks= esa ------------ gksuh
meter in plain area. pkfg,A
(A) 20 to 30 meter, 300 to 500 meter (A) 20 ls 30 ehVj] 300 ls 500 ehVj
(B) 50 to 100 meter, 100 to 200 meter (B) 50 ls 100 ehVj] 100 ls 200 ehVj
(C) 500 to 01 Km, 01 Km to 02 Km (C) 500 ls 01 fdeh0] 01 fdeh0 ls 02 fdeh0
(D) 01 to 02 Km, 04 Km to 05 Km. (D) 01 ls 02 fdeh0] 04 fdeh0 ls 05 fdeh0

56. Which state government has recently declared 50% 56. gky gh esa fdl jkT; ljdkj us U;kf;d lsok esa
reservation in judicial services for OBCs, SCs, STs vU; fiNM+k oxZ] vuq lwfpr tkfr] vuqlwf pr tu
and EBCs? tkfr rFkk vkfFkZd :i ls fiNM+s oxZ ds fy, 50%
(A) Odisha (B) Madhya Pradesh vkj{k.k ykxw fd;k gS %&
(C) Bihar (D) Assam (A) vks f M’kk (B) e/; iz ns’k
(C) fcgkj (D) vle

1550 9 SET-B
57. Garampani sanctuary is located at 57. xjeikuh vHk;kj.; dgak fLFkr gS %&
(A) Junagarh, Gujarat (A) tqukx<+ ¼xq tjkr½
(B) Diphu, Assam (B) nhQw ¼vle½
(C) Kohima, Nagaland (C) dksf gek ¼ukxkyS aM ½
(D) Gangtok, Sikkim (D) xax Vksd ¼flfDde½

58. Coral reefs in India can be found in 58. Hkkjr esa ewaxs dh pV~Vkusa dgak ik;h tk ldrh gSa %&
(A) the coast of Orissa (A) vksfMlk ds rV
(B) Waltair (B) okYVs ; j
(C) Rameshwaram (C) jkes’ oje~
(D) Trivandrum (D) f=os U nz e

59. Film and TV Institute of India is located at 59. Hkkjrh; fQYe o Vsyhfotu laLFkku dgak fLFkr
(A) Pune (Maharashtra) gS % &
(B Rajkot (Gujarat) (A) iq .ks ¼egkjk”Vª½
(C) Pimpri (Maharashtra) (B) jktdksV ¼xq t jkr½
(D) Perambur (Tamilnadu) (C) ihai jh ¼egkjk”Vª ½
(D) isj kEcwj ¼rfeyukMq ½

60. Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to 60. fdldks gVkus ds fy, m|ks x ks a es a xq : Rokd”kZ . k
remove psEcj dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) SO2 (A) lYQj MkbvkDlkbZ M
(B) NO 2 (B) ukbVª k st u MkbvkDlkbZ M
(C) Suspended particulate matter (C) fuyafcr d.k ekeyksa esa
(D) CO 2 (D) dkcZ u MkbvkDlkbZ M

61. What is scoring pattern prescribed in ARCF for 61. okf”kZ d pkan ekjh esa bUlkl jkbQy Qk;fja x ds
trained soldier firing with INSAS Rifle? fy, fu/kZkfjr vkadyu esa] izkIrkdksa dk dkSu lk
(A) Marksman-74,1stClass-60 & Std fofoj.k lgh gS \
Shot-46 (A) ekDZ leS u&74]QLV Dykl&60 rFkk LVS .MZ M
(B) Marksman-86,1stClass-72 & Std ‘kkW V &46
Shot-58. (B) ekDZ leS u&86]QLV Dykl&72 rFkk LVS .MZ M
(C) Marksman-98,1stClass-79 & Std ‘kkW V &58
Shot-65. (C) ekDZ leSu&98] QLV Dykl&79 rFkk LVS .MZM
(D) Marksman-106,1stClass-87 & Std ‘kkW V &65
Shot-73. (D) ekDZ leS u&106]QLV Dykl&87 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &73

62. How many total firing practs (including day & night) 62. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa VªUs M lksYtj ds fy, 9 ,e-,e-
are there in ARCF for trained soldier firing from dkjckbZ u ls dq y ¼jkr&fnu feykdj½ Qk;fja x
9MM Carbine? izSfDVl j[kh x;h gS %&
(A) 05 (B) 06 (A) 0 5 (B) 0 6
(C) 07 (D) 08 (C) 0 7 (D) 0 8

1550 10 SET-B
63. How many types of sights are being used in X-95 63. X-95 jkbQy esa fdrus izdkj dh lkbZVl bLrseky
rifle? dh tkrh gS?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 5 (C) 2 (D) 5

64. After how many paces hand will come down in the 64. Ckk, ;k nkfgus ds lY;wV esa fdrus dne ds ckn
Salute of Left or Right? gkFk uhps vk,axs \
(A) 4 (B) 6 (A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7 (C) 5 (D) 7

65. What is the life of peak cap for SOs? 65. vf/kuLFk vf/kdkjh ds fy, ih&dS i dk ykbZ Q
(A) 06 years (B) 02 years fdruk gS\
(C) 03 years (D) 04 years ¼A½ 06 o”kZ ¼B½ 02 o”kZ
¼C½ 03 o”kZ ¼D½ 04 o”kZ

66. When is Kit classification carried out? 66. fdV DykflfQds’ku dc fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) At the time of pension ¼A½ isU’ku tkus ij
(B) At the time of tfr ¼B½ LFkkukUrj.k tkus ij
(C) Loss of any item ¼C½ O;fDrxr fdV ystj xqe gksus ij
(D) None of them ¼D½ buesa ls dksbZ ughA

67. For Dog Squad, how many weeks of trg are there 67. Mk~Wx LDokM ds fy, Mk~Wx ,ao gSaMyj dk izf’k{k.k
for Dog and its handler fdrus LkIrkg dk gSA
(A) 24 (B) 36 (A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 46 (C) 40 (D) 46

68. What is the area of jurisdiction of RAF unit? 68. vkj0,0,Q cVk0 dk dk;Z {kS= fdruk gS\
(A) 250 Km (B) 350 Km ¼A½ 250 fd eh (B) 350 fd eh
(C) 300 Km (D) 325 Km (C) 300 fd eh (D) 325 fd eh

69. CRPF sponsored two players of J&K got 69. ds f jiq c y us tEew& d’ehj ds 02 f[kykfM+ ; ks a dks
opportunity to play which game at the International varjjk”Vªh; Lrj ij fdl [ksy esa ekSdk ,oa çk;ksftr
level fd;k x;k \
(A) Badminton (B) Football (A) cS M feaV u (B) Qq V c‚y
(C) Cricket (D) Boxing (C) fØds V (D) eq D ds c kth

70. Shuttle run test measures – 70. ‘kV~y ju ijh{k.k dk ekin.M gS%&
(A) Explosive strength (A) foLQks V d etcwr h
(B) Speed endurance (B) xfr lgu’khyrk
(C) Agility (C) Qw r hZ
(D) Speed (D) xfr

71. Fatigue comes during training due to– 71. izf’k{k.k ds nkSjku Fkdku ds dkj.k gSa%&
(A) Lactic acid (B) Adrenal (A) yS fDVd vEy (B) xqnZs lac/a kh
(C) CO 2 (D) PH factor. (C) dkcZ u Mk;vkWD lkbZ M (D) ih-,p- ?kVd

1550 11 SET-B
72. How many Numbers of Trained solder Table Cord 72. VsªuaM lksYtj Vscy dkWMZ fdrus izdkj ds gS%a &
are there- (A) 9 (B) 8
(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6
(C) 7 (D) 6

73. MR claim can be preferred in how many days from 73. mipkj dh lekfIr ls fdrus fnuksa esa fpfdRlk
the completion of treatment? izfriwfrZ nkok dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gS\
(A) 01 month (B) 03 months (A) 01 eghuk (B) 03 eghus
(C) 45 days (D) None of the above (C) 45 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

74. As per latest orders the Firefighting practice in duty 74. uohure izko/kkuksa ds vuqlkj Qk;j QkbfVax ikVhZ
Bn be carried out once in? dk vH;kl fM;wVh CkVkfy;u esa fdrus fnuksa ij
(A) 07 Days (B) Monthly gks u h pkfg,\
(C) 15 Days (D) None the above (A) 07 fnu (B) ekfld
(C) 15 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
75. Ecology deals with
(A) Birds 75. ifjfLFkfrdh lac) gS %&
(B) Cell formation (A) i{kh
(C) Relation between organisms and (B) dksf ’kdk xBu
their environment (C) thoksa vkSj okrkoj.k ds chp laca/k
(D) Tissues (D) mRrdks a

76. The ozone layer restricts 76. vkstksu ijr D;k lhafer djrh gSa %&
(A) Visible light (A) n` ’; iz d k’k
(B) Infrared radiation (B) vojDr fofdj.k
(C) X-rays and gamma rays (C) ,Dl&js vkSj xkek fdj.kksa
(D) Ultraviolet radiation (D) ijkcS ax uh fofdj.k

77. Filaria is caused by 77. Qkbysfj;k fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS %&


(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (A) cS f DVª ; k (B) okbjl
(C) Protozoa (D) Mosquito (C) iz k s V ks t ks v k (D) ePNj

78. Newly raised CRPF Mahila Bn inducted in LWE 78. dsfjiqcy esa ,aVh uDly v‚ijs’ku ds fy, okeiaFkh
Area for Anti Naxal operation. mxz o kn {ks = es a ,d ubZ efgyk cVkfy;u dks
(A) 88 (B) 135 ‘kkfey fd;k gSa] og gS&
(C) 232 (D) 233 (A) 88 cVkfy;u (B) 135 cVkfy;u
(C) 232 cVkfy;u (D) 233 cVkfy;u

79. Which CRPF Training Institution awarded with 79. dsf jiq c y ds fdl çf’k{k.k dsU nz ftls loksZ R re
Home minister Cup for best Training Centre for jax:V çf’k{k.k ds fy, x`g ea=h di }kjk lEekfur
recruits. fd;k x;k gS&
(A) RTC Neemach (A) vkjVhlh uhep
(B) RTC Rajgir (B) vkjVhlh jktxhj
(C) RTC Amethi (C) vkjVhlh vesB h
(D) CIAT Silchar (D) lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- flypj

1550 12 SET-B
80. Latest CIAT School of CRPF established at which 80. ds f jiq c y es a uohure lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- Ldw y fdl
place. txg LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS\
(A) Latur (B) Chittoor (A) ykrw j (B) fpÙkw j
(C) Belgam (D) Bijapur (C) csy xkW a o (D) chtkiq j

81. Which Central Team of CRPF won the Gold medal 81. dsfjiqcy ds bfrgkl esa dsfjiqcy ds fdl dsaæh;
in AIPDM-2016 for the first time in the history of [ksy ny us igyh ckj ,-vkbZ-ih-Mh-,e-&2016 esa
CRPF? Lo.kZ ind thrk gS\
(A) Volleyball (B) Basketball (A) okW y hckW y (B) ckLds V c‚y
(C) Hockey (D) Rowing (C) g‚dh (D) jks b a x A

82. 7th National Conference of Women in Police was 82. 7 oha jk”Vªh; efgyk iqfyl lEesyu dsfjiqcy esa
organized the first time in CRPF, the venue was :- izFke ckj fdl LFky ij vk;ksftr fd;k x;k Fkk\
(A) ISA M/Abu (A) vkaalqv- ekmaV vkcw
(B) Vigyan Bhawan Delhi (B) foKku Hkou fnYyh
(C) CRPF Dte. General, New Delhi (C) ds f jiq c y egkfuns ’ kky;
(D) CRPF Academy Kadarpur (D) dsf jiq cy vdkneh dknjiq j

83. Name of CRPF Commandant who is martyred on 83. lhvkjih,Q dekaMsaV tks 15 vxLr 2016 Jhuxj
15 Aug’2016 in Srinagar? esa ‘kghn gqvk dk uke gS A
(A) Pravin Kumar (A) iz o h.k dq ekj
(B) Pramod Kumar (B) izeksn dq ekj
(C) Pravesh Chand (C) izos’k pan
(D) Piyush Chand (D) ih;w”k pan

84. Which of the following activities measures dynamic 84. xfr’khy ‘kfä dk izeq[k ekin.M gSa%&
strength – (A) jLlk Pk<+u k
(A) Rope climbing (B) NksVh nkS M+
(B) Short distance run (C) QkjoMZ jksYk
(C) Forward roll (D) [kM+k dwnuk
(D) Vertical jump

85. What does BMI measures – 85. BMI dk ekin.M gSa%&


(A) Flexibility (B) Muscles weight (A) yphykiu (B) ekal is’ kh otu
(C) Body fat (D) Strength (C) ’kkjhfjd olk (D) etcw r h

86. Which Standing order is applicable for Annual 86. ds0fj0iq0cy esa okf”kZd pkWanekjh oxhZdj.k Qk;fjax
Range classification firing instructions in CRPF? ls lacaf/kr fn’kk&funsZ’k fdl LFkkbZ vkns’k esa gS \
(A) S O- 06/2008 (A) LFkkbZ vk0 06@2008
(B) S O- 09/2011 (B) LFkkbZ vk0 09@2011
(C) S O- 10/2012 (C) LFkkbZ vk0 10@2012
(D) S O- 01/201 (D) LFkkbZ vk0 01@2016

1550 13 SET-B
87. Mistake occurred because of Trigger operation is 87. fVªxj vkWijs’ku ls gksus okyh xyrh dgykrh gS \
called? (A) fQ~ y ap (B) tdZ
(A) Flinch (B) Jerk (C) c d (D) mi;qDr lHkh
(C) Buck (D) All of these

88. Which exercise is beneficial to rectify the mistake 88. Qk;jj }kjk lkbV ,ykbuesUV dh xyrh dks nwj
of sight alignment by a firer? djus ds fy, dkSu lh ,DljlkbZt dh t:jr gS \
(A) Aiming box exercise (A) ,feax ckW D l ,DljlkbZ t
(B) Aiming corrector exercise (B) ,feax djsD Vj ,DljlkbZ t
(C) Breathing control exercise (C) fcz f nax dUVªk sy ,DljlkbZ t
(D) Tin disc exercise (D) Vhu fMLd ,DljlkbZt

89 Which drill is adopted by CRPF on firing range? 89. ds- fj-iq - cy }kjk Qk;fjax jsast ij dkS u lh fMª y
(A) Company drill viukbZ tkrh gS \
(B) Discipline drill (A) dEiuh fMªy
(C) A to G drill (B) vuq ’kklu fMªy
(D) Fire arm safety drill (C) A ls G fMªy
(D) Qk;j vkeZ lqj{kk fMªy

90. When to zero the weapon? 90. oSiu dks thjks dc fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) When the weapon newly issued (A) tc u;k oSiu tkjh fd;k tkrk gS
(B) After handing/taking over of (B) VªkalQj ij oSiu dks nsus o ysus ds ckn
weapon on transfer (C) izeq[k ejEer ds ckn
(C) After major repair (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh
(D) All of these

91. How many type of grenades are being fired by 91. UBGL ds }kjk fdrus izdkj ds xzsuMs Qk;j fd;s
UBGL tkrs gS\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7 (C) 4 (D) 7

92. How many types of wire obstacle are there? 92. ok;j vkCLVSdy dh fdLesa crkvks\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

93. In which CRPF Form leave, leave/duty certificate 93. NqVVh@fM;wVh ij tkus dk izek.k i+= fdl dsfjiq
is issued? QkeZ esa rS;kj fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) CRP 18 (B) CRP 24 (A) dsf jiq 18 (B) dsf jiq 24
(C) CRP 20 (D) CRP 28 (C) dsf jiq 20 (D) dsf jiq 28

94. How many times GPF subscription can be increased/ 94. Hkfo’; fuf/k ls Hkfo”; fuf/k dVksrh esa ,d o’kZ esa
decreased in a year. fdrus ckj c<k;h@?kVk;h tk ldrh gS\
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/1 (A) 1/3 (B) 2/1
(C) 2/2 (D) 2/4 (C) 2/2 (D) 2/4

1550 14 SET-B
95. Which of following terms denotes the “Toughening 95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ‘kkjhfjd etcwrh dk izeq[k
of body” as its major objectives- ?kVd gSa%&
(A) PT (B) Drill (A) ih-Vh- (B) Mª h y
(C) WT (D) Play (C) MCY;w - Vh- (D) [ks y uk

96. Sri Guru Gobind Singh was 96. xq: xksfoan flag Fks %&
(A) The 10th Guru of the Sikhs (A) flD[kksa ds nlosa xq:
(B) Founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the (B) 1699 esa flD[ksa ds vkarfjd ifj”kn [kkylk ds
Sikhs in 1699 la L Fkkid
(C) Author of Dasam Granth (C) nle xzaFk ds jpf;rk
(D) All the above (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh

97. Who has been awarded ‘Scroll of Honor’ by 97. dS lysl ysu &nsu dks c<+k ok nsu s ds fy, Hkkjr
Government of India to promote cashless ljdkj us fdls ßLdzkWy vkWQ vkWujÞ iznku fd;k
transactions? gS % &
(A) Manish Jadon (A) euh”k tknksu
(B) Khusbu Gupta (B) [kq ’kcq xq I rk
(C) Surbhi Kapoor (C) lq j Hkh diq j
(D) Gaurav Goya (D) xkS j o xks; k

98. What is the sequence of sitting position of Lathi 98. xkMh ls ekpZ djrs le; ykBh ikVhZ ds cSBus dk
party while marching from vehicle? dz e crk,A
(A) Middle (B) Last (A) chp esa (B) vkf[kj esa
(C) First (D) Anywhere (C) igys (D) dgh Hkha

99. Revision petition can be made against the 99. iqujh{k.k ;kfpdk fdrus fnuks ds le;&lhek ds
punishment of departmental enquiry within…days? Hkhrj esa dh tk ldrh gS \
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days (A) 15 fnuksa esa (B) 30 fnuksa esa
(C) 45 days (D) 60 days (C) 45 fnuksa esa (D) 60 fnuksa esa

100. An orderly room register is maintained in CRPF in 100. ds0fj0iq0cy esa vnZyh d{k iaftdk dk fdl iaftdk
form No.? la[;k esa j[k&j[kko fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) Form No. 16 (B) Form No. 46 (A) QkW eZ la0 &16 (B) QkW eZ la0 &46
(C) Form No. 08 (D) Form No. 15 A (C) QkW eZ la0 &08 (D) QkWeZ la0&15 ,

1550 15 SET-B
PART-III
NUMERICAL ABILITY

101. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. 101. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 3 % 4 gS] ;fn mudk e0 l0
is 8, their L.C.M. is : 8 gS rks mudk y0 l0 D;k gksxk\
(A) 96 (B) 108 (A) 96 (B) 108
(C) 48 (D) 64 (C) 48 (D) 64

4 3 4 9 4 3 4 9
102. The L.C.M. of , , , is : 102. , , rFkk dk y0 l0 gS %
3 5 7 13 3 5 7 13
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
36 1365 36 1365
12 12
(C) 36 (D) (C) 36 (D)
448 448

103. 0.517  0.00517 = ? 103. 0.517  0.00517 = ?


(A) 1 (B) 10 (A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) None of these (C) 100 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

1 1
104. is equal to : 104. dk eku gS%
0.02 0.02
(A) 100 (B) 50 (A) 100 (B) 50
2 1 2 1
(C) (D) (C) (D)
50 20 50 20

0.009 0.009
105. If = 0.001, then x = ? 105. ;fn = 0.001, gks rks x = ?
x x
(A) 90 (B) 9 (A) 90 (B) 9
1 1
(C) 0.9 (D) (C) 0.9 (D)
90 90

106. The value of 0.47 is : 106. 0.47 dk eku cjkcj gS %


47 47 47 47
(A) (B) (A) (B)
10 99 10 99
43 47 43 47
(C) (D) (C) (D)
90 9 90 9

ba ba
107. If 1.5 a = 0.04 b, then value of   is : 107. ;fn 1.5 a = 0.04 b, gks] rks   dk eku gS%
ba ba
73 7 .3 73 7 .3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
77 77 77 77
730 7 .3 730 7 .3
(C) (D) (C) (D)
77 777 77 777
1550 16 SET-B
(0.6) 4  (0.5) 4 (0.6) 4  (0.5) 4
108. is equal to : 108. dk eku cjkcj gS %
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2 (0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.11 (A) 0.1 (B) 0.11
(C) 1.1 (D) 11 (C) 1.1 (D) 11

P 6 P2  Q2 P 6 P2  Q2

109. If Q 5 , find the value of 2 : 
P  Q2 109. ;fn Q 5 ] gks rks 2 dk eku fudkys %
P  Q2
51 61 51 61
(A) (B) (A) (B)
11 11 11 11
49 49
(C) (D) 8 (C) (D) 8
11 11

2a 2a
110. If =1, then find the value of a ? 110. ;fn =1] gks rks a dk eku fudkys\
1 1
1 1
a a
1 1
1 a 1 a
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
2 4 2 4
2 2
(C) (D) 0 (C) (D) 0
3 3

P P 3 P P 3
111. If  =1, then find the value of P? 111. ;fn  =1] gks rks] P dk eku fudkys\a
4 6 4 6
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 0 (C) 6 (D) 0

1 1 1 1 1 1
112. If   =4, then a = ? 112. ;fn   =4] gks rks a = ?
3 2 a 3 2 a
5 6 5 6
(A) (B) (A) (B)
18 19 18 19
18 24 18 24
(C) (D) (C) (D)
5 11 5 11

a 4  4 2b  a  a 4  4 2b  a 
113. If  , then value of    is : 113. ;fn  , gks rks    dk eku gS%
b 5  7 2b  a  b 5  7 2b  a 
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 1 (A) 1 (B) 1
7 7
3 3
(C) 2 (D) (C) 2 (D)
7 7

1550 17 SET-B
a a a a
114. If  =4, then find the value of a ? 114. ;fn  =4, gks rks a dk eku fudkys \
5 6 5 6
(A) 120 (B) 100 (A) 120 (B) 100
5 2 5 2
(C) (D) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3

1 1
115. of a tanker holds 135 litres of water. What part 115. VSadj ds Hkkx esa 135 yhVj ikuh jgrk gSA ;fn
4 4
of tanker is full if it cantains 300 litres of water? VSd
a j esa 300 yhVj ikuh Hkjk tk; rks VSd
a j dk fdruk
5 1 Hkkx Hkjsxk\
(A) (B)
9 2 5 1
(A) (B)
2 9 9 2
(C) (D)
3 5 2 9
(C) (D)
3 5

116. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they lost. 116. ,d fØdsV Vhe thrrk eSp gkjrk gs mlls 3 eSp
If a win gives them 2 points and loss (-1) point, T;knk thrrk gS] ;fn thrus ij mls 2 vad rFkk
how many matches, in all, have they played if their gkjus ij (-1) vad feyrk gS] rks crk;sa fd 25 vad
score is 25? izkIr djus ds fy, mlus fdruk eSp [ksyk gksxk\
(A) 19 (B) 41 (A) 19 (B) 41
(C) 20 (D) 42 (C) 20 (D) 42

117. If a = 1+ 2 and b= 1- 2 , find the value of 117. ;fn a = 1+ 2 rFkk b= 1- 2 , gks rks (a +b ) dk
2 2

(a2+b2) : eku fudkys %


(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

118. If x =5, then what is the value of 10 x x3  x 2 118. ;fn x =5] gks rks] 10 x x3  x 2 dk eku D;k gS\
(A) 250 (B) 200 5 (A) 250 (B) 200 5
(C) 100 5 (D) 500 (C) 100 5 (D) 500

0.0196 0.0196
119. If = 0.2, then x = ? 119. ;fn = 0.2, gks] rks] x = ?
x x
(A) 0.49 (B) 4.9 (A) 0.49 (B) 4.9
(C) 0.049 (D) 0.07 (C) 0.049 (D) 0.07

120. If 3x = 3y = 3z and x + y + z = 27 29 , then 120. ;fn 3x = 3y = 3z rFkk x + y + z = 27 29 gks rks]

x 2  y 2  z 2 is : x2  y 2  z2 ?
(A) 87 (B) 84 (A) 87 (B) 84
(C) 2 29 (D) 4 29 (C) 2 29 (D) 4 29

1550 18 SET-B
121. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 121. 549160 esa ls og NksVh lh NksVh dkSu lh la[;k
549160 in order to make a perfect square? ?kVk;h tk, rkfd og iw.kZ oxZ cu tk;s%
(A) 79 (B) 81 (A) 79 (B) 81
(C) 80 (D) 1 (C) 80 (D) 1

122. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 122. ik¡p yxkrkj le la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 26 gS] rks muesa
26. Find the smallest of them? ls lcls NksVh la[;k Kkr djsaA
(A) 20 (B) 22 (A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 28 (C) 24 (D) 28

123. The average of 11 numbers is 60. If the average of 123. 11 la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 60 gSA ;fn izFke 6 dk
first six numbers is 58 and that of last six is 63, find vkSlr 58 rFkk vfUre 6 dk vkSlr 63 gks rks] NBh
the sixth number : la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 60 (B) 66 (A) 60 (B) 66
(C) 72 (D) 78 (C) 72 (D) 78

124. The average age of 36 persons in a group is 14 124. fdlh lewg ds 36 yksxksa dk vkSlr vk;q 14 o’kZ gS
years. When an extra person’s age is included to it, lewg esa ,d vfrfjDr vkneh vkus ds ckn vkSlr 1
the average increases by one. What is the extra ls c<+ tkrh gSA rks mls vfrfjDr vkneh dh vk;q
person’s age in years? o’kZ esa D;k gS\
(A) 41 (B) 47 (A) 41 (B) 47
(C) 49 (D) 51 (C) 49 (D) 51

125. A driver travels to a place 150 km away at an 125. ,d pkyd 150 fdeh dh nwjh 50 fdeh@?kaVk dh
average speed of 50 km/hr and return at vkSlr pky ls rS; djrk gS rFkk 30 fdeh@?kaVk dh
30 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey vkSlr pky ls og okil vk tkrk gsA rks mlds
in km/hr is : lEiw.kZ ;k=k dh vkSlr pky fudkys%
(A) 33.5 km/hr (B) 37.5 km/hr (A) 33-5 fdeh@?kaVk (B) 37-5 fdeh@?kaVk
(C) 35 km/hr (D) 37 km/hr (C) 35 fdeh@?kaVk (D) 37 fdeh@?kaVk

126. 50 is divided into two parts such that the sum of 126. 50 dks nks Hkkxksa esa bl izdkj ck¡Vk tkrk gS fd mlds
1 1
their reciprocals is , find largest part? O;qRØe dk ;ksxQy gS] rks cM+k Hkkx crkos\
8 8
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

127. Present ages of Mohan and Sohan are in the ratio 127. eksgu rFkk lksgu dh oÙkZeku vk;q dk vuqikr
of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio 5 % 4 gSA rhu o’kZ ds ckn muds vk;q dk vuqikr
of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What 11 % 9 gks tk,xkA rks eksgu dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k
is Mohan’s present age in years ? gS\
(A) 30 (B) 24 (A) 30 (B) 24
(C) 27 (D) 40 (C) 27 (D) 40

1550 19 SET-B
128. Sushil’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 128. 15 o’kZ okn lq”khy dh vk;q mlds 5 o’kZ igys dh
years back. What is the present age of Sushil? vk;q dh 5 xq.kk gks tk,xh lq”khy dh oÙkZeku vk;q
(A) 15 (B) 20 D;k gS\
(C) 10 (D) 25 (A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25

129. The Sum of ages of a father and his son is 45 years. 129. firk rFkk iq= dh vk;q dk ;ksxQy dk 45 o’kZ gS] 5
Five years ago, the product of their ages was 34. o’kZ igys nksuksa ds vk;q dk xq.kuQy 34 gS rks iq=
The age of the son is : dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 6 years (B) 7 years (A) 6 o’kZ (B) 7 o’kZ
(C) 8 years (D) 9 years (C) 8 o’kZ (D) 9 o’kZ

130. In 10 years, x will be twice as old as y was 10 130. 10 o’kksZ esa x dh vk;q y ds 10 o’kZ ds igys dh vk;’q
years ago. If x is now 9 years older than y the dh nwxquk gks tk,xh] ;fn oÙkZeku esa x, y ls 9 o’kZ
present age of y is : cM+k gS rks y dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 39 years (B) 29 years (A) 39 o’kZ (B) 29 o’kZ
(C) 19 years (D) 21 years (C) 19 o’kZ (D) 21 o’kZ

3 6 3 6
6 6
131. What is the value of 3 7 : 131. 3 7 dk eku D;k gS\
6 X 6 6 X 6
1 1
(A) 6 (B) (A) 6 (B)
6 6
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 1 (D) 0

3X(81) 4 3X(81) 4
132. If n 5 =27, then n =? 132. ;fn n 5 =27, gks rks n =?
9 X3 X(27) 3 9 X3 X(27) 3
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
3 2 3 2
1 1
(C) 0 (D) (C) 0 (D)
4 4
4
133. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than 133. fdlh la[;k dks 65 izfr”kr ml la[;k ds Hkkx
5
four-fifth of that number. What is the number?
ls 21 de gS] rks la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 120 (B) 160
(A) 120 (B) 160
(C) 140 (D) 180
(C) 140 (D) 180

134. 600 dk 15% $ 280 dk 45 % = ?


134. 15% of 600 + 45 % of 280 = ?
(A) 216 (B) 236
(A) 216 (B) 236
(C) 126 (D) 246
(C) 126 (D) 246

1550 20 SET-B
3 4 3 4
135. Raman reads of a book on one day and of 135. jeu 1 fnu esa Hkkx fdrkc i<+rk gS] “ks’k dk
8 5 8 5
the remainder on another day. If there are 30 pages Hkkx nwljs fnu i<+rk gS] ;fn vc 30 i`’B ugha i<+k
unread now., how many pages did the book gqvk cpk gS rks fdrkc esa dqy fdrus i`’B Fks%
contain ? (A) 200 (B) 240
(A) 200 (B) 240 (C) 80 (D) 120
(C) 80 (D) 120

136. A seller purchased a washing machine for 136. ,d foØsrk ,d okf”kax e”khu dks :0 7]660 esa
Rs. 7, 660. After allowing a discount of 12% on its [kjhnrk gSA mlds vafdr ewY; ij 12% NwV nsus
marked price, he still gains 10% . Find the marked ds ckn Hkh 10% ykHk dekrk gSA rks e”khu dk
price of washing machine : vafdr ewY; D;k gS\
(A) Rs. 9575 (B) Rs. 9675 (A) 9575 :0 (B) 9675 :0
(C) Rs. 8246 (D) Rs. 9755 (C) 8246 :0 (D) 9755 :0

137. A man purchared an article and sold it to be B at a 137. A vkneh ,d oLrq [kjhn dj 25% ykHk ij B dks
profit of 25% and B sold it to C at a loss of 10% csp nsrk gS] B, C dks 10% gkfu ij csp nsrk gS] C
and C paid Rs. 675 for it. For how much did A dks blds fy, 675 :i;k nsuk iM+rk gSA rks crk;sa
purchase it : fd A bls fdrus esa [kjhnk Fkk\
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 550 (A) 500 :0 (B) 550 :0
(C) Rs. 600 (D) Rs. 650 (C) 600 :0 (D) 650 :0

138. Two trains start from a certain place on two 138. nks Vsªu lekukUrj VSªd ij ,d gh fn”kk esa ,d gh
parallel tracks in the same direction. The speed of fcUnq ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gSA Vsªu dh xfr 45
the trains are 45 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. fdeh@?kaVk rFkk 40 fdeh@?kaVk Øe”k% gSA rks 45
The distance between two trains after 45 minutes feuV ds ckn nksuksa jsyxkM+h dh chp dh nwjh D;k
will be : gksxh\
(A) 3 km 750 m (B) 3 km 550 m (A) 3 fdeh 750 eh (B) 3 fdeh 550 eh
(C) 2 km 750 m (D) 2 km 550 m (C) 2 fdeh 750 eh (D) 2 fdeh 550 eh

1 3 1 1 3 1
139. If x  =3, the value of x  3 is : 139. ;fn x  =3, gks rks] x  dk eku gS%
x x x x3
(A) 30 (B) 36 (A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 34 (D) 40 (C) 34 (D) 40

140. The area of equilateral triangle is 4 3 square metre. 140. leckgq f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy 4 3 oxZehVj gS] rks
Its perimeter is : bldk ifjeki gS%
(A) 14 metre (A) 14 ehVj
(B) 12 metre (B) 12 ehVj
(C) 6 3 metre (C) 6 3 ehVj
(D) 12 3 metre (D) 12 3 ehVj

1550 21 SET-B
141. The unit digit in the product 141. (284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ds xq.kuQy dk bZdkbZ
(284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ? vad gS%
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

142. What is the unit dight of (795-358) x 511 ? 142. (795-358) x 511 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 0 (B) 4 (A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 6 (D) 7

143. What is the unit digit of (2157) 754? 143. (2157) 754 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 3 (B) 6 (A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 9 (C) 7 (D) 9

144. If (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, then x = ? 144. ;fn (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, gks rks] x = ?


(A) 140 (B) 240 (A) 140 (B) 240
(C) 360 (D) 280 (C) 360 (D) 280

145. If the product 4864 X 9 x 2 is divisible by 12, the 145. ;fn 4864 X 9 x 2 dk xq.kuQy 12 ls foHkkftr gks]
value of x is : rks x dk eku gS%
(A) 2 (B) 1 (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

146. If x and y are odd numbers, then which of the 146. ;fn x rFkk y fo’ke la[;k,¡ gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa
following is even? dkSu le gS\
(A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1 (A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1
(C) xy +2 (D) xy (C) xy +2 (D) xy

147. The largest 5-digit number exactly divisible by 91 147. ik¡p vadks dh lcls cM+h la[;k tks dh 91 ls iw.kZr%
is: foHkkftr gks %
(A) 99981 (B) 99999 (A) 99981 (B) 99999
(C) 99918 (D) 99971 (C) 99918 (D) 99971

148. What least number must be subtracted from 148. 13602 esa ls og lcls NksVh la[;k dkSu&lh ?kVk;h
13602, so that the remainder is divisible by 87? tk; fd “ks’kQy 87 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks tk;\
(A) 29 (B) 31 (A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 37 (C) 30 (D) 37

149. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ? 149. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ?


(A) 1536 (B) 1540 (A) 1536 (B) 1540
(C) 1150 (D) 1140 (C) 1150 (D) 1140

150. How many natural numbers are there between 17 150. 17 rFkk 100 ds chp dqy fdrus izkÑr la[;k gS tks
and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6 ? fd 6 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks \
(A) 12 (B) 13 (A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15 (C) 14 (D) 15

1550 22 SET-B
PART-IV
HINDI
159. ouokl
151. NUn eq[; :i ls fdrus izdkj ds gksrs gS\
(A) vO;;hHkko (B) deZ/kkj;
(A) nks (B) rhu
(C) rRiq:’k (D) }U)
(C) pkj (D) N%

160. pkSjkgk
152. fdl NUn dk izFke o vfUre “kCn ,d&lk gksrk
(A) cgqczhfg (B) rRiq:’k
gS\
(C) vO;;hHkko (D) f)xq
(A) nksgk (B) jksyk
(C) lksjBk (D) dq.Mfy;k
funsZ”k ¼161 ls 165½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd pkj fodYiksa
153. NIi; fdl izdkj dk NUn gSa\
ls csesy ¼vlaxr½ “kCn dks fpafgRr dhft,A
(A) fo’ke (B) le
161.
(C) v)Zle (D) ekf=d
(A) “kkjhfjd (B) nSfgd
(C) ekufld (D) vkf/k
154. nksgk fdl izdkj dk NUn gS\
(A) le~ (B) fo’ke
162.
(C) v)Zle (D) bueas ls dksbZ ugha
(A) pksV (B) t[e
(C) [kwu (D) ihM+k
155. fuEufyf[kr esa ekf=d le NUn dk dkSu&lk mnkgj.k
gS\
163.
(A) nksgk (B) lksjBk
(A) izfr;ksfxrk (B) Hkkstu
(C) pkSikbZ (D) ;s lHkh
(C) f[kykM+h (D) nkSM+

funsZ”k ¼156 ls 160½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd “kCn ds fy,


164.
mlds uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls mi;qDr lekl
(A) ;qorh (B) ckfydk
N¡fV,%
(C) nqfgrk (D) uo;qod

156. jkekuqt
165.
(A) rRiq:’k (B) nU)
(A) jks’k (B) dksi
(C) deZ/kkj; (D) cgqczhfg
(C) ve’kZ (D) v”kksd

157. lifjokj
(A) vO;;hHkko (B) rRiq:’k
funsZ”k ¼166 ls 169½ % fuEu esa ls ljy okD; dk p;u
(C) f)xq (D) cgqczhfg
dhft,%

166.
158. jkr&fnu
(A) f)xq (B) rRiq:’k
(A) mlus dgk fd dk;kZy; cUn gks x;kA
(C) )U) (D) deZ/kkj;
(B) lqcg gqbZ vkSj og vk x;kA
(C) jkgqy /khjs&/khjs fy[krk gSA
(D) tks cM+s gSa] mUgas lEeku nksA
1550 23 SET-B
167. 172. la d ks p
(A) og T;ksa gh vk,] esjs ikl Hkst nsukA (A) fdlh dk;Z dks djus esa “keZ
(B) fuf/k VkbZi djuk lh[k pqdh] vc og “kkVZ (B) vuqfpr dk;Z djus esa fgpfdpkgV
gS.M lh[k jgh gSA (C) cqjs deksZ ij nq%[k
(C) fot; dks cksyksa fd QkSju pyk vk,A (D) vkRefo”okl dk u gksuk
(D) ;FkklaHko ;g dk;Z “kke rd iwjk dj nks
173. fujis { k
168. (A) ftls dqN Hkh Kku u gks
(A) mldks bruh ftEesnkfj;k¡ er nks fd og mUgsa (B) tks fdlh dh lqurk u gks
fuHkk u ldsA (C) ftldk dksbZ i{k u gks
(B) mUgha yksxksa ls feyuk pkfg, ftuls ln~O;ogkj (D) ftldks fdlh ckr dh dkeuk u gks
dh f”k{kk feysA
(C) dksbZ ugha tkurk fd dy D;k gksxkA 174. vi<+
(D) n;k ls c<+dj dksbZ Hkko ugha gSA (A) tks i<+us ;ksX; u gks
(B) tks i<+k u x;k gks
169. (C) ftldk i<+uk euk gks
(A) fo|k ls c<+dj dksbZ /ku ugha gSA (D) tks i<+k&fy[kk u gks
(B) ns”k esa fodkl dk;ksZ dh izxfr /kheh jgh gS
D;ksafd ljdkj ds ikl /ku ugha FkkA 175. “kL=
(C) cM+ksa dks pkfg, fd cPpksa ds izfr vius O;ogkj (A) tks gfFk;kj nwj ls Qad
s k tk,
dks fu;af=r j[ksA (B) ftl gfFk;kj dks gkFk esa ysdj yM+k tk,
(D) ;fn lQyrk pkgrs gks rks ifjJe djuk gh (C) tks gfFk;kj vpwd gks
iMs+xk (D) tks gfFk;kj ea= i<+dj iz;ksx esa fy;k tk,

funsZ”k ¼170 ls 175½ % uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz”u esa dkys funsZ”k ¼176 ls 180½ % uhps dqN yksdksfDr;k¡ nh xbZ gSaA
Nis “kCn ds pkj lEHkkfor rkRi;Z fn, x, gSaA lgh izR;sd yksdksfDr esa tks mi;qDr “kCn NwV x;k gS]
fodYi pqfu,A mlds fjDr LFkku ds fy, p;u dhft,%

170. yS k fdd 176. dj---------------------- rks gks Hkyk


(A) idM+ fy;k x;k (A) lsok (B) Hkyk
(B) ykSdh ls cuk (C) cyk (D) cqjk
(C) ,d leku fn[kus okyk
(D) tks bl yksd dh ckr gks 177. Hkxoku ds ?kj ---------------------gS] va/kjs ugha
(A) nhid (B) izlkn
171. Ñik (C) nsj (D) ewfrZ
(A) nq%[k esa lgkuqHkfr
(B) nhu O;fDr dh lgk;rk 178. ------------------- ds va/ks dks gjk gh gjk utj vkrk gS
(C) iSls ls enn (A) cpiu (B) lkou
(D) fdlh ds fy, dksbZ dk;Z djuk (C) ckr (D) vk¡[k

1550 24 SET-B
179. cUnj D;k tkus -------------- dk Lokn 187. Hkw’k.k
(A) feBkbZ (B) vnjd (A) folxZ lfU/k (B) ;.k lfU/k
(C) I;kt (D) thjs (C) O;atu lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k

180. va/kksa esa ------------------------------------- jktk 188. ;”kksnk


(A) yaxM+k (B) ywyk (A) Loj lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k
(C) dkuk (D) igyoku (C) folxZ lfU/k (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
189. n;kuUn
funsZ”k ¼181 ls 185½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, (A) xq.k lfU/k (B) nh?kZ lfU/k
x, “kCn ds lekukFkhZ “kCn dk p;u mlds uhps (C) O;atu lfU/k (D) ;.k lfU/k
fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%
190. uhjksx
181. ifjos”k (A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k
(A) O;ogkj (B) vk¡xu (C) xq.k lfU/k (D) folxZ lfU/k
(C) okrkoj.k (D) vkpj.k
funsZ”k ¼191 ls 195½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa nh xbZ
182. Nksg iafDr;ksa ds jpf;rk ds pkj lEHkfor uke fn, x, gSA
(A) fojkx (B) fojg mi;qDr jpf;rk ds uke dk p;u dhft,%
(C) eerk (D) Nwuk
191. lf[k os eq>ls dg dj tkrsA
183. uSlfxZd (A) vKs; (B) eSfFkyh”kj.k xqIr
(A) izkÑfrd (B) dfYir (C) t;”kadj izlkn (D) gfjvkS/k
(C) Ñf=e (D) iqjkru
192. dud&dud rs lkSxquh ekndrk vf/kdk;A
184. O;Fkk ;g [kk, ckSjkb uj] ok ik, ckSjk,AA
(A) {kksHk (B) ihM+k (A) rqylhnkl (B) fcgkjh
(C) d’V (D) nq%[k (C) ds”konkl (D) fo;ksxh gfj

185. ifjey 193. esjh Hko&ok/kk gjkS jk/kk&ukxfj lksbZA


(A) lq[k (B) loksZÙke xU/k tk ru dh >kbZ ijS L;ke gfjr&nqfr gksbZAA
(C) foenZu (D) lgokl (A) Xoky (B) ds”konkl
(C) jl[kku (D) fcgkjh yky
funsZ”k ¼186 ls 190½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn,
x, “kCn esa iz;qDr lfU/k ds izdkj dk p;u mlds 194. izHkqth rqe panu ge ikuhA
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,% tkdh vax&vax ckl lekuhAA
(A) jSnkl (B) eywdnkl
186. uk;d (C) xq:ukud (D) dchjnkl
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) xq.k lfU/k
(C) o`f) lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k

1550 25 SET-B
195. izxfrokn mi;ksfxrkokn dk nqljk uke gSA 198. loZJ’s B jl fdls ekuk tkrk gS\
(A) jkefoykl “kekZ (A) jkSnz jl (B) J`axkj jl
(B) ize
s pUn (C) d:.k jl (D) ohj jl
(C) uUnnqykjs oktis;h
(D) lqfe=kuUnu iar 199. dfo fcgkjh eq[;r% fdl jl ds dfo gSa\
(A) d:.k (B) HkfDr
196. LFkk;h Hkkoksa dh la[;k dqy fdruh gS \ (C) J`axkj (D) ohj
(A) ukS (B) nl
(C) X;kjg (D) ckjg 200. NUn dk loZizFke mYys[k dgk¡ feyrk gS\
(A) _Xosn (B) mifu’kn
197. jl ds fdrus vax gksrs gSa\ (C) lkeosn (D) ;tqoZn
s
(A) nks (B) pkj
(C) ik¡p (D) N%

*************************************************************************************

1550 26 SET-B
PART-IV
ENGLISH
Direction (151-155) : In the following questions, choose 160. Insolent
the word from four alternatives which is most nearly (A) Disrespectful (B) Insoluble
opposite in meaning to the given word : (C) depreciating (D) the sole of a shoe

151. Spiritual Direction (161-165) : In the following questions, out of


(A) Earthly (B) Superior the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
(C) Material (D) Disccord substituted for the given words/sentence

152. Harmony
161. A person who readily believes others :
(A) Agreement (B) Melody
(A) Credible (B) Credulous
(C) Confusion (D) Discord
(C) Sensitive (D) Sensible
153. Compulsion
(A) Constraint (B) Choice 162. The political leader has an evil reputation. He is not
(C) Freedom (D) Spontaneity trusted :
(A) is notorious (B) is malicious
154. Waste (C) is magnanimous (D) is dubious
(A) Gain (B) Profit
(C) Nourish (D) Loss 163. A person who helps even a stranger in difficulty :
(A) Samaritan (B) Altruist
155. Successor (C) Philanthropist (D) Beneficiary
(A) Follower (B) Prodecessor
(C) Guide (D) Professor 164. The production of raw silk :
(A) Sericulture (B) Seroculture
Direction (156-160) : In the following questions. Out of (C) Sariculture (D) Syrumculture
four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word as your
165. The conference takes place once in three years?
answer:
(A) Tetraenning (B) Triennial
(C) Treennial (D) Thriennial
156. Honest
(A) Authentic (B) Upright
(C) Direct (D) Actual Direction (166-170) : In the following questions, groups
of four words are given. In each group one word is
157. Vocation correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word :
(A) Examination (B) Seminar
(C) Occupation (D) Holiday 166.
(A) Variety (B) Anxdety
158. Ingenuous (C) Gaitey (D) Sodety
(A) Innocent (B) Artful
(C) Cunning (D) Clever 167.
(A) Coersion (B) Precision
159. Innocuous (C) Negociation (D) Explation
(A) Careless (B) Harmless
(C) Insufficient (D) Irresponssible
1550 27 SET-B
168. 175. P. America’s
(A) Harrassment (B) Commitment Q. in 1961
(C) Breevement (D) Temparament R. war launched
S. first manned aircrafts
169. (A) PRQS (B) PQSR
(A) Inefable (B) Inaecesible (C) QSRP (D) PSRQ
(C) Infallible (D) Invinsieble
Direction (176-180) : In the following questions, a
170.
sentence/ part of sentence is printed underlined.
(A) Expact (B) Impact
(C) Exite (D) Imped Below four alternatives are given to the underlined
part of the sentence as (A), (B) and (C) which may
Direction (171-175) : In each of the questions, arrange improve the sentence. Choose the correct
the jumbled letter or phrases to make a meaningful alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your
sentence : answer is (D):

171. P. each year 176. The student’s interest was raised by an article he
Q. two to five adults had read :
R. get gold (A) quickened (B) multiplied
S. on an average (C) increased (D) no improvement
(A) PSQR (B) PRSQ
(C) SRQP (D) RSQP 177. This telephone number is not existing:
(A) has not existed (B) has not been existing
172. P. can be dangerous (C) does not exist (D) no improvement
Q. the indiscriminate
R. without medical supervision 178. The businessman is respectively connected :
S. and critical use of any drug (A) respectfully (B) respectably
(A) PQRS (B) PRQS (C) receptively (D) no improvement
(C) QSRP (D) SPQR
179. I met him in the way :
(A) on the way (B) at the way
173. P. destroyed careers
(C) during the way (D) no improvement
Q. many
R. has resulted in 180. The boy said that he has read the book :
S. drug addiction (A) he has already read
(A) PQSR (B) PRQS (B) he had read
(C) SRQP (D) SPQR (C) he has finished to read
(D) no improvement
174. P. by making swallowing difficutt
Q. a sore throat Direction (181-185) : Read the passage carefully and
R. daily life choose the best answer to each question out of the
S. interferes with four alternatives :
(A) QSRP (B) QPRS Passage
(C) PRQS (D) PQRS The advent of electric power was, in a way,
comparable to the successful development and
1550 28 SET-B
application of nuclear power in 20th century. In 185. Give a synonym for “antiquity”.
fact, the historical roots of electricity extend far back (A) Ancient (B) Antipathy
into antiquity. Many men had a hand both in acquring (C) Modern (D) Uniqueness
basic knowledge about the invisible form of power
and in developing the ways adopted for practical Direction (186-190) : In the following passage some of
purpose. One of the vital keys that helped to the words have been left out. After reading
unlock the doors leading to the production of carefully fill in the blanks with the help of given
electricity was the discovery, in 1831, of the alternatives :
principle of electromagnetic induction. This
discovery was made simultaneously by michael Passage
faraday in England and Joshef Henry in the United ‘CRY-child relief and you’ 196 an organization that
States. From it came the generator, sometimes also 197 started by seven such 198 and it has been
called dynamo but several decades of development working 199 1979 to change the lives of 200
had to follow before the first practical dynamos or children all over India.
generator came into existance in early 1870 :
186.
(A) was (B) is
181. According to the author : (C) are (D) being
(A) Michael Faraday and Joseph Henry
revolutionized electricity in the USA 187.
(B) Nuclear power and electricity were (A) has (B) being
discovered in the 20th centery (C) was (D) been
(C) The discovery of the principle of
electromagnetic induction was not an 188.
important discovery (A) friends (B) men
(D) The advent of electric power is equivalent to (C) people (D) individuals
the application of nuclear power in 20th
century 189.
(A) since (B) during
182. Michael Faraday and Josheph Henry discovered : (C) for (D) untill
(A) the application of nuclear power
(B) the genertor 190.
(C) the dynamo (A) underprivileged (B) privileged
(D) the principle of electromagnetic induction (C) hopeless (D) denuded

183. Another word for ‘advent’ is .................. : Direction (191-195 ) : Fill in the blanks with the
(A) discovery (B) arrival appropriate word, choosing it from options given :
(C) invention (D) constitution
191. I found it difficult to cope ............. mathematics at
the advanced level :
184. The generator was also known as the ........... :
(A) with (B) of
(A) inductor (B) dynamo (C) for (D) up
(C) inventor (D) conductor

1550 29 SET-B
192. He was congratulated ..................... receiving his 197.
degree : (A) We can demonstrate the
(A) on (B) for (B) phenomenon of evaporation and
(C) by (D) of (C) condensation
(D) No error
193. Some people quarrel ............ very trivial matters :
(A) over (B) in 198.
(C) for (D) by (A) People dewlling in remote areas
(B) suffer a lot because of
194. “May I know to ...... I am speaking.” (C) in accessibility to hospitals
(A) whom (B) who (D) No error
(C) how (D) where
199.
195. Bear............... me as I explain the matter more fully: (A) It is interesting that
(A) in (B) of (B) floating docks and even
(C) with (D) for (C) ships can be made of concreat
(D) No error
Direction (196 -200) : In each sentence below
four words have been printed in separate parts 200.
which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of (A) Make a list of foods that contain
these parts may be mis spelt or an error in the (B) harmful
context of the sentence the letter of that part is your (C) chemicals
answer. If there is no error, your answer is (D). i.e.
(D) No error
No error.

196.
(A) Collect newspaper and magazine having
articles on oil
(B) pullution and
(C) discuss them.
(D) No error

*************************************************************************************

1550 30 SET-B
jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 31 SET-B
jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 32 SET-B
PART-I
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

1. In a class Sohan’s rank is 17th from the top and 1. ,d d{kk esa lksgu dk Øe Åij ls 17 ok¡ rFkk uhps
28th from the bottom. How many students are there ls 29 ok¡ gSA rks d{kk esa dqy fdrus Nk= gS\
in the class ? (A) 45 (B) 40
(A) 45 (B) 40 (C) 44 (D) 41
(C) 44 (D) 41

2. Varun said, “That boy is the grandson of my 2. o:.k us dgk fd ^^ og yM+dk esjs ekrk ds ifr dk
Mother’s husband. I have no brother and sister,” iksrk gS esjk dksbZ HkkbZ rFkk cgu ugh gS^^ crk;s og
How is the boy related with Varun? yM+dk o:.k ls dSls lEcfU/kr gS\
(A) Uncle (B) Son (A) pkpk (B) csVk
(C) Nephew (D) Cousin (C) Hkrhtk (D) ppsjk HkkbZ

3. Which of the following can not be formed by word 3. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk MERCHANDISE “kCn ls
MERCHANDISE : ugha cuk;k tk ldrk gS \
(A) MECH (B) DICE (A) MECH (B) DICE
(C) CHARM (D) CHANGE (C) CHARM (D) CHANGE

4. Out of 1865 people, 660 can speak English and 4. 1865 yksxksa esa ls] 660 vxazsth cksy ldrs gS] 1305
1305 can speak Marathi. But 120 person cannot ejkBh cksy ldrs gS] 120 yksx dksbZ Hkk’kk ugha cksy
speak either language. Then how many can speak ldrs gS] rks fdrus yksx nksuksa Hkk’kk cksy ldrs gS\
both languages : (A) 220 (B) 120
(A) 220 (B) 120 (C) 1085 (D) 440
(C) 1085 (D) 440

5. From the given alternative select the word which 5. fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, fodYi esa ls ml “kCn dks
can be formed using the letters given in the word. pqfu, tks ABOMINABLE ds v{kjksa ls cuk;k tk
ABOMINABLE : ldrk gS\
(A) BOWEL (B) METAL (A) BOWEL (B) METAL
(C) BLAND (D) BANAL (C) BLAND (D) BANAL

Directions (6-7) : In the following questions some funs”k ¼6 ls 7½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa dqN lehdj.k dk
equation are solved on the basis of a certain gy dqN [kkl i)fr ls fd;k x;k gS mlh i)fr ls
system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved gy ugha fd;s x, lehdj.k dk mÙkj nsaA
equation on that basis :

6. If 228 = 12 and 337 = 16, then 569 = ? 6. ;fn 228 = 12 rFkk 337 = 16, rks 569 = ?
(A) 39 (B) 20 (A) 39 (B) 20
(C) 29 (D) 36 (C) 29 (D) 36

7. If 3 X 7 X 8 = 837 7. ;fn 3 X 7 X 8 = 837


2 X 4 X 5 = 524, then 4 X 3 X 7 = ? 2 X 4 X 5 = 524, rc 4 X 3 X 7 = ?
(A) 743 (B) 734 (A) 743 (B) 734
(C) 84 (D) 214 (C) 84 (D) 214
1550 3 SET-C
Directions (8-10) : In the following questions, select the funs”k ¼8 ls 10½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”ukas esa fn, x, fodYiksa
missing number from given response : esa ls yqIr laa[;k Kkr djsA

8. 12 6 8 8. 12 6 8
4 4 9 4 4 9
3 7 4 3 7 4
51 31 ? 51 31 ?
(A) 21 (B) 42 (A) 21 (B) 42
(C) 76 (D) 86 (C) 76 (D) 86

9. 3 18 6 9. 3 18 6
5 ? 4 5 ? 4
8 40 5 8 40 5
(A) 40 (B) 22 (A) 40 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 20 (C) 24 (D) 20

10. 8 2 6 10. 8 2 6
2 4 ? 2 4 ?
5 6 8 5 6 8
80 48 240 80 48 240
(A) 4 (B) 10 (A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 20 (C) 5 (D) 20

11. Indicate which figure will best represent the 11. fuEukafdr fp= esa dkSu&lk fpfM+;k] dkSvk rFkk
relationship among Birds, Crows, Eagles : bZxy ds chp lEcU/k dks iznf”kZr djrk gS%

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

12. Neela is now three times as old as her daughter 12. uhyk viuh csVh yhyk ls rhu xq.kk cqM+h gS] 10 o’kZ
Leela. Ten years back, Neela was five times as old igys uhyk] yhyk ls ik¡p xquh cM+h FkhA rks yhyk dh
as Leela. The age of Leela is : vk;q gSA
(A) 15 (B) 25 (A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20 (C) 30 (D) 20

1550 4 SET-C
Direction (13 - 17) : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting funsZ”k ¼13 ls 17½ % P, Q, R, S, T, U, V vkSj W ,d
round the circle and are facing the centre o`r ds pkjksa vksj dsUnz dh vksj eq[k djds cSBs gSA
(i) P is second to the right of T who is the (i) P, T nk¡;s ls nwljk gS tks fd R vkSj V dk
neighbour of R and V iM+kslh gSA
(ii) S is not the neighbour of P (ii) S, P iM+kslh ugha gSA
(iii) V is the neighbour of U (iii) V, U dk iM+kslh gSA
(iv) Q is not between S and W. W is not between (iv) Q, S rFkk W ds chp esa ugha gS W, Q rFkk S
Q and S ds chp esa ugha gSA

13. Which two of the following are not neighbours : 13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe ,d nwljs ds iM+kslh
(A) UV (B) TR ugha gS\
(C) PW (D) SW (A) UV (B) TR
(C) PW (D) SW

14. Who is the neighbour of W ? 14. W dk iM+kslh dkSu gS \


(A) U (B) V (A) U (B) V
(C) R (D) S (C) R (D) S

15. Who is the second right of R? 15. R ls nk¡;s nwljk dkSu gS\
(A) Q (B) W (A) Q (B) W
(C) S (D) V (C) S (D) V

16. Who is in the middle of S and V ? 16. S rFkk V ds chp esa dkSu gS \
(A) U (B) R (A) U (B) R
(C) P (D) Q (C) P (D) Q

17. Who is second to the left of U ? 17. U ds ck¡;s nwljk dkSu gS \


(A) W (B) Q (A) W (B) Q
(C) P (D) R (C) P (D) R

18. In half hour, the minute hand of clock will rotate 18. vk/ks ?kaVs esa feuV dh lqbZ fdrus fMxzh ls /kqe
through the angle of : tk,sxh\
(A) 75° (B) 60° (A) 75° (B) 60°
(C) 120° (D) 180° (C) 120° (D) 180°

19. Meera was born on 22nd March 1982. On what 19. ehjk dk tUe 22 ekpZ 1982 dks gqvk FkkA rks crkos
day of the week was she 14 years 7 months and 8 fd lIrkg ds dkSu lk fnu og 14 o’kZ 7 eghuk vkSj
days of age? 8 fnu dh Fkh\
(A) Tuesday (B) Sunday (A) eaxyokj (B) jfookj
(C) Monday (D) Saturday (C) lkseokj (D) “kfuokj

20. If 1st October falls on Sunday. What day of the 20. ;fn 1 vDVwcj dks jfookj gksrk gS] rks 1 uoEcj dks
week will fall on 1st November ? lIrkg dk dkSu lk fnu jgsxk\
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (A) eaxyokj (B) cq/kokj
(C) Sunday (D) Monday (C) jfookj (D) lkseokj

1550 5 SET-C
Direction (21-27) : In each of the following questions, funsZ”k ¼21 ls 27½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, x,
select the related letter/word/number from the given fodYiksa esa ls lEcfU/kr v{kj@”kCn@la[;k dks
alternatives : pqfu,A

21. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ? 21. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ?


(A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV (A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV
(C) LQEBO (D) LRECO (C) LQEBO (D) LRECO

22. Manipuri : Manipur : : Kathakali : ? 22. ef.kiwjh % ef.kiwj % % dFkdyh % \


(A) Karnataka (B) Tamilnadu (A) dukZVd (B) rfeyukMq
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh (C) dsjy (D) vkU/kz izns”k

23. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ? 23. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ?


(A) 425 (B) 420 (A) 425 (B) 420
(C) 525 (D) 505 (C) 525 (D) 505

24. Teacher : Student : : Pontiff : ? 24. f”k{kd % Nk= % % fc”ki % \


(A) Disciple (B) Follower (A) f”k’; (B) vuq;k;h
(C) Priest (D) Deity (C) iqtkjh (D) nsork

25. Book : Read : : Picture : ? 25. fdrkc % i<+uk % % fp= % \


(A) Library (B) Buy (A) iqLrdky; (B) [kjhnuk
(C) See (D) Listen (C) ns[kuk (D) lquuk

26. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :? 26. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :?
(A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF (A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF
(C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH (C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH

27. Swimming : River : : Hiking : ? 27. rSjuk % unh % % p<+kbZ %\


(A) Mountain (B) Road (A) ioZr (B) lM+d
(C) Pond (D) Sea (C) rkykc (D) leqnz

Direction (28-35) : In each of the following question, funsZ”k ¼28 ls 35½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa fn, x,
find the odd word/letters/number pair from the fodYiksa esa ls fo’ke la[;k@ v{kj@la[;k ;qXe
given alternatives : pqfu,A

28. 28.
(A) 1000 (B) 625 (A) 1000 (B) 625
(C) 64 (D) 512 (C) 64 (D) 512

29. 29.
(A) 10 (B) 24 (A) 10 (B) 24
(C) 64 (D) 120 (C) 64 (D) 120

1550 6 SET-C
30. 30.
(A) CP (B) FR (A) CP (B) FR
(C) DQ (D) BO (C) DQ (D) BO

31. 31.
(A) Publisher (B) Author (A) izdk”kd (B) ys[kd
(C) Novelist (D) Poet (C) miU;kldkj (D) dfo

32. 32.
(A) WTQN (B) NKHE (A) WTQN (B) NKHE
(C) MIDA (D) KHEB (C) MIDA (D) KHEB

33. 33.
(A) King : Queen (B) Prince : Princess (A) jktk % jkuh (B) jktdqekj % jktdqekjh
(C) Witch : Vampire (D) Hero : Heroine (C) Mk;u % fi”kkp (D) vfHkusrk % vfHkus=h

34. 34.
(A) Radish (B) Carrot (A) ewyh (B) xktj
(C) Potato (D) Beetroot (C) vkyq (D) pqdanj

35. 35.
(A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54 (A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54
(C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286 (C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286

Directions (36-37) : Arrange the following words funsZ”k ¼36 ls 37½ % fuEufyf[kr “kCnksa dks vaxzsth
according to the English dictionary : “kCndks”k ds vuqlkj ltkos %

36. 1. Voyage 2. Voice 36. 1. Voyage 2. Voice


3. Vocation 4. Volume 3. Vocation 4. Volume
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1 (A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

37. 1. Beet 2. Beer 37. ^1. Beet 2. Beer


3. Being 4. Been 3. Being 4. Been
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

Directions (38-45) : In the following questions a series funsZ”k ¼38 ls 45½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa vuqØe fn;k
is given with one item missing choose the correct x;k gS] ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa
alternative from the given ones that will complete ls og lgh fodYi pqfu, tks vuqØe dks iwjk djsA
the series :

38. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ? 38. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ?
(A) OTK (B) NSD (A) OTK (B) NSD
(C) JPE (D) TOE (C) JPE (D) TOE

1550 7 SET-C
39. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739 39. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739
(A) 722 (B) 522 (A) 722 (B) 522
(C) 622 (D) 632 (C) 622 (D) 632

40. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49 40. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49


(A) 34 (B) 45 (A) 34 (B) 45
(C) 52 (D) 64 (C) 52 (D) 64

41. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? . 41. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? .


(A) DEF (B) DFH (A) DEF (B) DFH
(C) DEH (D) DFE (C) DEH (D) DFE

42. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162 42. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162
(A) 42 (B) 32 (A) 42 (B) 32
(C) 52 (D) 62 (C) 52 (D) 62

43. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? . 43. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? .


(A) 33 (B) 34 (A) 33 (B) 34
(C) 27 (D) 30 (C) 27 (D) 30

44. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? . 44. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? .
(A) WUY (B) VTY (A) WUY (B) VTY
(C) VUZ (D) WUZ (C) VUZ (D) WUZ

45. 12, 26, 54, ? . 45. 12, 26, 54, ? .


(A) 223 (B) 110 (A) 223 (B) 110
(C) 220 (D) 108 (C) 220 (D) 108

46. If A = 1 , BAD = 7, then HAT = ? 46. ;fn A = 1 , BAD = 7 gks rkss HAT = ?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 29 (D) 19 (C) 29 (D) 19

47. If B = 4, D = 8 and C = 6, then DOG = ? 47. ;fn B = 4, D = 8 rFkk C = 6, gks rks DOG = ?
(A) 46 (B) 52 (A) 46 (B) 52
(C) 56 (D) 60 (C) 56 (D) 60

48. If D = 2 and F = 3, then BAG = ? 48. ;fn D = 2 rFkk F = 3, gks rks BAG = ?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

49. If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABIT is coded as 49. fdlh dwV Hkk’kk esa FAITH dks 82731, HABIT dks
12573 and HEALTH is coded as 192431, how 12573 rFkk HEALTH dks fy[kk tk, rks] 192431
can BELIEF be coded as ? dks mlh dwV Hkk’kk esa BELIEF dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(A) 594598 (B) 594789 (A) 594598 (B) 594789
(C) 594978 (D) 594798 (C) 594978 (D) 594798

50. If NATIONAL can be written as LNAANTOI, 50. ;fn fdlh dw V Hkk’kk es a NATIONAL dks
how can DOMESTIC be written? LNAANTOI fy[kk tk, rks mlh dwV Hkk’kk es
(A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE DOMESTIC dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD (A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD

1550 8 SET-C
PART-II
GENERAL AWARENESS & PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

51. Coral reefs in India can be found in 51. Hkkjr esa ewaxs dh pV~Vkusa dgak ik;h tk ldrh gSa %&
(A) the coast of Orissa (A) vksfMlk ds rV
(B) Waltair (B) okYVs ; j
(C) Rameshwaram (C) jkes’ oje~
(D) Trivandrum (D) f=os U nz e

52. Film and TV Institute of India is located at 52. Hkkjrh; fQYe o Vsy hfotu la LFkku dgak fLFkr
(A) Pune (Maharashtra) gS % &
(B) Rajkot (Gujarat) (A) iq .ks ¼egkjk”Vª½
(C) Pimpri (Maharashtra) (B) jktdksV ¼xq t jkr½
(D) Perambur (Tamilnadu) (C) ihai jh ¼egkjk”Vª ½
(D) isj kEcwj ¼rfeyukMq ½

53. Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to 53. fdldks gVkus ds fy, m|ks x ks a es a xq : Rokd”kZ . k
remove psEcj dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) SO2 (A) lYQj MkbvkDlkbZ M
(B) NO 2 (B) ukbVª k st u MkbvkDlkbZ M
(C) Suspended particulate matter (C) fuyafcr d.k ekeyksa esa
(D) CO 2 (D) dkcZ u MkbvkDlkbZ M

54. What is scoring pattern prescribed in ARCF for 54. okf”kZ d pka n ekjh es a bUlkl jkbQy Qk;fja x ds
trained soldier firing with INSAS Rifle? fy, fu/kZkfjr vkadyu esa] izkIrkdksa dk dkSu lk
(A) Marksman-74,1stClass-60 & Std Shot-46 fofoj.k lgh gS \
(B) Marksman-86,1stClass-72 & Std Shot-58. (A) ekDZ leS u&74]QLV Dykl&60 rFkk LVS .MZ M
(C) Marksman-98,1stClass-79 & Std Shot-65. ‘kkW V &46
(D) Marksman-106,1stClass-87 & Std Shot-73. (B) ekDZ leS u&86]QLV Dykl&72 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &58
(C) ekDZ leSu&98] QLV Dykl&79 rFkk LVS .MZM
‘kkW V &65
(D) ekDZ leS u&106]QLV Dykl&87 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &73

55. How many total firing practs (including day & night) 55. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa VªsUM lksYtj ds fy, 9 ,e-,e-
are there in ARCF for trained soldier firing from dkjckbZ u ls dq y ¼jkr&fnu feykdj½ Qk;fja x
9MM Carbine? izSfDVl j[kh x;h gS %&
(A) 05 (B) 06 (A) 0 5 (B) 0 6
(C) 07 (D) 08 (C) 0 7 (D) 0 8

56. How many types of sights are being used in X-95 56. X-95 jkbQy esa fdrus izdkj dh lkbZVl bLrseky
rifle? dh tkrh gS?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 5 (C) 2 (D) 5

1550 9 SET-C
57. After how many paces hand will come down in 57. Ckk, ;k nkfgus ds lY;wV esa fdrus dne ds ckn
the Salute of Left or Right? gkFk uhps vk,axs \
(A) 4 (B) 6 (A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7 (C) 5 (D) 7

58. What is the life of peak cap for SOs? 58. vf/kuLFk vf/k0 ds fy, ih&dSi dk ykbZQ fdruk
(A) 02 years (B) 2.5 years gS \
(C) 03 years (D) 3.5 years ¼A½ 02 o”kZ ¼B½ 2.5 o”kZ
¼C½ 03 o”kZ ¼D½ 3.5 o”kZ

59. When is Kit classification carried out? 59. fdV DykflfQds’ku dc fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) At the time of pension ¼A½ isU’ku tkus ij
(B) At the time of tfr ¼B½ LFkkukUrj.k tkus ij
(C) Loss of any item ¼C½ O;fDrxr fdV ystj xqe gksus ij
(D) None of them ¼D½ buesa ls dksbZ ughA

60. For Dog Squad, how many weeks of trg are there 60. Mk~Wx LDokM ds fy, Mk~Wx ,ao gSaMyj dk izf’k{k.k
for Dog and its handler fdrus LkIrkg dk gSA
(A) 24 (B) 36 (A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 46 (C) 40 (D) 46

61. What is the area of jurisdiction of RAF unit? 61. vkj0,0,Q cVk0 dk dk;Z {kS= fdruk gS\
(A) 250 Km (B) 350 Km ¼A½ 250 fd eh (B) 350 fd eh
(C) 300 Km (D) 325 Km (C) 300 fd eh (D) 325 fd eh

62. CRPF sponsored two players of J&K got 62. dsf jiq c y us tEew& d’ehj ds 02 f[kykfM+; ksa dks
opportunity to play which game at the International varjjk”Vªh; Lrj ij fdl [ksy esa ekSdk ,oa çk;ksftr
level fd;k x;k \
(A) Badminton (B) Football (A) cS M feaV u (B) Qq V c‚y
(C) Cricket (D) Boxing (C) fØds V (D) eq D ds c kth

63. Shuttle run test measures – 63. ‘kV~y ju ijh{k.k dk ekin.M gS%&
(A) Explosive strength (A) foLQks V d etcwr h
(B) Speed endurance (B) xfr lgu’khyrk
(C) Agility (C) Qw r hZ
(D) Speed (D) xfr

64. Fatigue comes during training due to – 64. izf’k{k.k ds nkSjku Fkdku ds dkj.k gSa%&
(A) Lactic acid (B) Adrenal (A) yS fDVd vEy (B) xq nsZ laca/ kh
(C) CO2 (D) PH factor. (C) dkcZu Mk;vkWDlkbZM (D) ih-,p- ?kVd

65. How many Numbers of Trained solder Table Cord 65. VsªuaM lksYtj Vscy dkWMZ fdrus izdkj ds gS%a &
are there- (A) 9 (B) 8
(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6
(C) 7 (D) 6

1550 10 SET-C
66. MR claim can be preferred in how many days from 66. mipkj dh lekfIr ls fdrus fnuksa es a fpfdRlk
the completion of treatment? izfriwfrZ nkok dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gS\
(A) 01 month (B) 03 months (A) 01 eghuk (B) 03 eghus
(C) 45 days (D) None of the above (C) 45 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

67. As per latest orders the Firefighting practice in duty 67. uohure izko/kkuksa ds vuqlkj Qk;j QkbfVax ikVhZ
Bn be carried out once in? dk vH;kl fM;wV h CkVkfy;u esa fdrus fnuksa ij
(A) 07 Days (B) 15 Days gks u h pkfg,\
(C) Monthly (D) None the above (A) 07 fnu (B) 15 fnu
(C) ekfld (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

68. Ecology deals with 68. ifjfLFkfrdh lac) gS %&


(A) Birds (A) i{kh
(B) Cell formation (B) dksf ’kdk xBu
(C) Relation between organisms and their (C) thoksa vkSj okrkoj.k ds chp laca/k
environment (D) mRrdks a
(D) Tissues

69. The ozone layer restricts 69. vkstksu ijr D;k lhafer djrh gSa %&
(A) Visible light (A) n` ’; iz d k’k
(B) Infrared radiation (B) vojDr fofdj.k
(C) X-rays and gamma rays (C) ,Dl&js vkSj xkek fdj.kksa
(D) Ultraviolet radiation (D) ijkcS ax uh fofdj.k

70. Filaria is caused by 70. Qkbysfj;k fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS %&


(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (A) cS f DVª ; k (B) okbjl
(C) Protozoa (D) Mosquito (C) iz k s V ks t ks v k (D) ePNj

71. Newly raised CRPF Mahila Bn inducted in LWE 71. dsfjiqcy esa ,aVh uDly v‚ijs’ku ds fy, okeiaFkh
Area for Anti Naxal operation. mxzokn {ks= esa ,d ubZ efgyk cVkfy;u dks ‘kkfey
(A) 88 (B) 135 fd;k gS]a og gS&
(C) 232 (D) 233 (A) 88 cVkfy;u (B) 135 cVkfy;u
(C) 232 cVkfy;u (D) 233 cVkfy;u

72. Which CRPF Training Institution awarded with 72. ds f jiq c y ds fdl çf’k{k.k ds U nz ftls loksZ R re
Home minister Cup for best Training Centre for jax:V çf’k{k.k ds fy, x`g ea=h di }kjk lEekfur
recruits. fd;k x;k gS&
(A) RTC Neemach (B) RTC Rajgir (A) vkjVhlh uhep (B) vkjVhlh jktxhj
(C) RTC Amethi (D) CIAT Silchar (C) vkjVhlh vesB h (D) lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- flypj

73. How many types of wire obstacle are there? 73. ok;j vkCLVSdy dh fdLesa crkvks\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

1550 11 SET-C
74. In which CRPF Form leave, leave/duty certificate 74. NqVVh@fM;wVh ij tkus dk izek.k i+= fdl dsfjiq
is issued? QkeZ esa rS;kj fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) CRP 18 (B) CRP 24 (A) dsf jiq 18 (B) dsf jiq 24
(C) CRP 20 (D) CRP 28 (C) dsf jiq 20 (D) dsf jiq 28

75. How many times GPF subscription can be 75. Hkfo’; fuf/k ls Hkfo”; fuf/k dVksrh esa ,d o’kZ esa
increased/decreased in a year. fdrus ckj c<k;h@?kVk;h tk ldrh gS\
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/1 (A) 1/3 (B) 2/1
(C) 2/2 (D) 2/4 (C) 2/2 (D) 2/4

76. Which of following terms denotes the “Toughening 76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ‘kkjhfjd etcwrh dk izeq[k
of body” as its major objectives- ?kVd gSa%&
(A) PT (B) Drill (A) ih-Vh- (B) Mª h y
(C) WT (D) Play (C) MCY;w-Vh- (D) [ks y uk

77. Sri Guru Gobind Singh was 77. xq: xksfoan flag Fks %&
(A) The 10th Guru of the Sikhs (A) flD[kksa ds nlosa xq:
(B) Founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the (B) 1699 esa flD[ksa ds vkarfjd ifj”kn [kkylk
Sikhs in 1699 ds laLFkkid
(C) Author of Dasam Granth (C) nle xzaFk ds jpf;rk
(D) All the above (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh

78. What does BMI measures – 78. BMI dk ekin.M gSa%&


(A) Flexibility (B) Muscles weight (A) yphykiu (B) ekal is’kh otu
(C) Body fat (D) Strength (C) ’kkjhfjd olk (D) etcw r h

79. Which Standing order is applicable for Annual 79. ds0fj0iq0cy esa okf”kZd pkWanekjh oxhZdj.k Qk;fjax
Range classification firing instructions in CRPF? ls lacaf/kr fn’kk&funsZ’k fdl LFkkbZ vkns’k esa gS \
(A) S O- 06/2008 (A) LFkkbZ vk0 06@2008
(B) S O- 09/2011 (B) LFkkbZ vk0 09@2011
(C) S O- 10/2012 (C) LFkkbZ vk0 10@2012
(D) S O- 01/201 (D) LFkkbZ vk0 01@2016

80. Mistake occurred because of Trigger operation is 80. fVªxj vkWijs’ku ls gksus okyh xyrh dgykrh gS \
called? (A) fQ~ y ap (B) tdZ
(A) Flinch (B) Jerk (C) c d (D) mi;qDr lHkh
(C) Buck (D) All of these

81. Which exercise is beneficial to rectify the mistake 81. Qk;jj }kjk lkbV ,ykbuesUV dh xyrh dks nwj
of sight alignment by a firer? djus ds fy, dkSu lh ,DljlkbZt dh t:jr gS \
(A) Aiming box exercise (A) ,feax ckW D l ,DljlkbZ t
(B) Aiming corrector exercise (B) ,feax djsD Vj ,DljlkbZ t
(C) Breathing control exercise (C) fcz f nax dUVªk sy ,DljlkbZ t
(D) Tin disc exercise (D) Vhu fMLd ,DljlkbZt

1550 12 SET-C
82. Which drill is adopted by CRPF on firing range? 82. ds-fj-iq-cy }kjk Qk;fjax jsast ij dkSu lh fMªy
(A) Company drill (B) A to G drill viukbZ tkrh gS \
(C) Discipline drill (D) Fire arm safety drill (A) dEiuh fMªy (B) A ls G fMªy
(C) vuq ’kklu fMªy (D) Qk;j vkeZ lqj{kk fMªy

83. When to zero the weapon? 83. oSiu dks thjks dc fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) When the weapon newly issued (A) tc u;k oSiu tkjh fd;k tkrk gS
(B) After handing/taking over of weapon on (B) VªkalQj ij oSiu dks nsus o ysus ds ckn
transfer (C) izeq[k ejEer ds ckn
(C) After major repair (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh
(D) All of these

84. How many type of grenades are being fired by 84. UBGL ds }kjk fdrus izdkj ds xzsuMs Qk;j fd;s
UBGL tkrs gS\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7 (C) 4 (D) 7

85. Latest CIAT School of CRPF established at which 85. ds f jiq c y es a uohure lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- Ldw y fdl
place. txg LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS\
(A) Latur (B) Chittoor (A) ykrw j (B) fpÙkw j
(C) Belgam (D) Bijapur (C) csy xkW a o (D) chtkiq j

86. Which Central Team of CRPF won the Gold medal 86. dsfjiqcy ds bfrgkl esa dsfjiqcy ds fdl dsaæh;
in AIPDM-2016 for the first time in the history of [ksy ny us igyh ckj ,-vkbZ-ih-Mh-,e-&2016 esa
CRPF? Lo.kZ ind thrk gS\
(A) Volleyball (B) Basketball (A) okW y hckW y (B) ckLds V c‚y
(C) Hockey (D) Rowing (C) g‚dh (D) jks b a x A

87. 7th National Conference of Women in Police was 87. 7 oha jk”Vªh; efgyk iqfyl lEesyu dsfjiqcy esa
organized the first time in CRPF, the venue was :- iz F ke ckj fdl LFky ij vk;ksf tr fd;k x;k
(A) ISA M/Abu Fkk\
(B) Vigyan Bhawan Delhi (A) vkaalqv- ekmaV vkcw
(C) CRPF Dte. General, New Delhi (B) foKku Hkou fnYyh
(D) CRPF Academy Kadarpur (C) ds f jiq c y egkfuns ’ kky;
(D) dsf jiq cy vdkneh dknjiq j

88. Name of CRPF Commandant who is martyred on 88. lhvkjih,Q dekaMsaV tks 15 vxLr 2016 Jhuxj
15 Aug’2016 in Srinagar? esa ‘kghn gqvk dk uke gS A
(A) Pravin Kumar (A) iz o h.k dq ekj
(B) Pramod Kumar (B) izeksn dq ekj
(C) Pravesh Chand (C) izos’k pan
(D) Piyush Chand (D) ih;w”k pan

1550 13 SET-C
89. Which of the following activities measures dynamic 89. xfr’khy ‘kfä dk izeq[k ekin.M gSa%&
strength – (A) jLlk Pk<+u k
(A) Rope climbing (B) NksVh nkSM
(B) Short distance run +(C) QkjoMZ jksY k
(C) Forward roll (D) [kM+k dwnuk
(D) Vertical jump

90. Who has been awarded ‘Scroll of Honor’ by 90. dSlysl ysu&nsu dks c<+k ok nsus ds fy, Hkkjr
Government of India to promote cashless ljdkj us fdls ßLdzkWy vkWQ vkWujÞ iznku fd;k
transactions? gS % &
(A) Manish Jadon (B) Khusbu Gupta (A) euh”k tknksu (B) [kq ’kcq xq I rk
(C) Surbhi Kapoor (D) Gaurav Goya (C) lq j Hkh diq j (D) xkS j o xks; k

91. What is the sequence of sitting position of Lathi 91. xkMh ls ekpZ djrs le; ykBh ikVhZ ds cSBus dk
party while marching from vehicle? dz e crk,A
(A) Middle (B) Last (A) chp esa (B) vkf[kj esa
(C) First (D) Anywhere (C) igys (D) dgh Hkha

92. Revision petition can be made against the 92. iqujh{k.k ;kfpdk fdrus fnuks ds le;&lhek ds
punishment of departmental enquiry within…days? Hkhrj esa dh tk ldrh gS \
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days (A) 15 fnuksa esa (B) 30 fnuksa esa
(C) 45 days (D) 60 days (C) 45 fnuksa esa (D) 60 fnuksa esa

93. An orderly room register is maintained in CRPF in 93. ds0fj0iq0cy esa vnZyh d{k iaftdk dk fdl iaftdk
form No.? la[;k esa j[k&j[kko fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) Form No. 08 (B) Form No. 46 (A) QkW eZ la0 &08 (B) QkW eZ la0 &46
(C) Form No. 16 (D) Form No. 15 A (C) QkW eZ la0 &18 (D) QkWeZ la0&15 ,

94. No members of the force will visit married lines 94. dksb Z cy dk lnL; fookfgr ykbZu esa fuEu esa
except than those who have been allotted a quarter fdl ds vuqefr ls Hkze.k dj ldrk gS \
without permission of (A) lq csnkj estj
(A) Subedar Major. (B) dek.Ms V
(B) Comdt. (C) mi dek.MsV (,Me)
(C) DC (Adm) (D) mi fujh{kd ¼gkbZ f tu ,.M lsf uVs”ku½
(D) SI (Hygeine & Sanitation)

95. DA is admissible for absence from HQ for not less 95. vU; M~;fw V ds fy, de&ls de fuEufyf[kr le;
than ds fy, eq[;ky; ls vuqifLFkr jgus gsrq nSfud
(A) 10 hrs (B) 8 hrs HkRrk ns; gksxk A
(C) 9 hrs (D) 6 hrs (A) 10 ?kaVs (B) 8 ?kaVs
(C) 9 ?kaVs (D) 6 ?kaVs

1550 14 SET-C
96. Within what distance no person is allowed to do 96. fdruh nwjh ij ernku dsUnz ds Hkhrj vkSj pkjksa
any canvassing in and around the polling station vksj fdlh ny fo”ks’k ds i{k esa leFkZu ekaxus dh
(A) 200 Yards (B) 100 Yards vuqefr ugha nh tkrh gS \
(C) 150 Yards (D) 250 Yards (A) 200 xt (B) 100 xt
(C) 150 xt (D) 250 xt

97. Response time of RAF to Law and Order situation 97. fdlh LFkku ij dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;kgsrq
within the same station when it is on call, is vkj0,0,Q0 }kjk dkjZokbZ djus dk le;]tc bls
(A) 30 minutes for move of all Coys. cqyk;k tkrk gS \
(B) 45 minutes for move of all Coys. (A) lHkh dEiuh dk 30 feuV esa lapkyu
(C) 60 minute for move of all Coys. (B) lHkh dEiuh dk 45 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) 15 minutes of move of all Coys. (C) lHkh dEiuh dk 60 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) lHkh dEiuh dk 15 feuV esa lapkyu

98. Vehicle to Vehicle distance in convoy movement 98. dkfQyk lapkyu esa okgu dh okgu ls nwjh igkM+h
should be ……….. Meter in hilly and ……… {ks= esa ------------------- vkS j lery {ks= esa ------------
meter in plain area. gksu h pkfg,A
(A) 20 to 30 meter, 300 to 500 meter (A) 20 ls 30 ehVj] 300 ls 500 ehVj
(B) 50 to 100 meter, 100 to 200 meter (B) 50 ls 100 ehVj] 100 ls 200 ehVj
(C) 500 to 01 Km, 01 Km to 02 Km (C) 500 ls 01 fdeh0] 01 fdeh0 ls 02 fdeh0
(D) 01 to 02 Km, 04 Km to 05 Km. (D) 01 ls 02 fdeh0] 04 fdeh0 ls 05 fdeh0

99. Which state government has recently declared 50% 99. gky gh esa fdl jkT; ljdkj us U;kf;d lsok esa
reservation in judicial services for OBCs, SCs, STs vU; fiNM+k oxZ] vuqlwfpr tkfr] vuqlwfpr tu
and EBCs? tkfr rFkk vkfFkZd :i ls fiNM+s oxZ ds fy, 50%
(A) Odisha (B) Madhya Pradesh vkj{k.k ykxw fd;k gS %&
(C) Bihar (D) Assam (A) vks f M’kk (B) e/; iz ns’k
(C) fcgkj (D) vle

100. Garampani sanctuary is located at 100. xjeikuh vHk;kj.; dgak fLFkr gS %&
(A) Junagarh, Gujarat (A) tqukx<+ ¼xq tjkr½
(B) Diphu, Assam (B) nhQw ¼vle½
(C) Kohima, Nagaland (C) dksf gek ¼ukxkyS aM ½
(D) Gangtok, Sikkim (D) xax Vksd ¼flfDde½

1550 15 SET-C
PART-III
NUMERICAL ABILITY

P P 3 P P 3
101. If  =1, then find the value of P? 101. ;fn  =1] gks rks] P dk eku fudkys\a
4 6 4 6
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 0 (C) 6 (D) 0

1 1 1 1 1 1
102. If   =4, then a = ? 102. ;fn   =4] gks rks a = ?
3 2 a 3 2 a
5 6 5 6
(A) (B) (A) (B)
18 19 18 19
18 24 18 24
(C) (D) (C) (D)
5 11 5 11

a 4  4 2b  a  a 4  4 2b  a 
103. If  , then value of    is : 103. ;fn  , gks rks    dk eku gS%
b 5  7 2b  a  b 5  7 2b  a 
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 1 (A) 1 (B) 1
7 7
3 3
(C) 2 (D) (C) 2 (D)
7 7

a a a a
104. If  =4, then find the value of a ? 104. ;fn  =4, gks rks a dk eku fudkys \
5 6 5 6
(A) 120 (B) 100 (A) 120 (B) 100
5 2 5 2
(C) (D) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3

1 1
105. of a tanker holds 135 litres of water. What part 105. VSadj ds Hkkx esa 135 yhVj ikuh jgrk gSA ;fn
4 4
of tanker is full if it cantains 300 litres of water? VSadj esa 300 yhVj ikuh Hkjk tk; rks VSadj dk
5 1 fdruk Hkkx Hkjsxk\
(A) (B)
9 2 5 1
(A) (B)
2 9 9 2
(C) (D)
3 5 2 9
(C) (D)
3 5

1550 16 SET-C
106. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they lost. 106. ,d fØdsV Vhe thrrk eSp gkjrk gs mlls 3 eSp
If a win gives them 2 points and loss (-1) point, T;knk thrrk gS] ;fn thrus ij mls 2 vad rFkk
how many matches, in all, have they played if their gkjus ij (-1) vad feyrk gS] rks crk;sa fd 25 vad
score is 25? izkIr djus ds fy, mlus fdruk eSp [ksyk gksxk\
(A) 19 (B) 41 (A) 19 (B) 41
(C) 20 (D) 42 (C) 20 (D) 42

107. If a = 1+ 2 and b= 1- 2 , find the value of 107. ;fn a = 1+ 2 rFkk b= 1- 2 , gks rks (a +b )
2 2

2 2
(a +b ) : dk eku fudkys %
(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

108. If x =5, then what is the value of 10 x x3  x 2 108. ;fn x =5] gks rks] 10 x x3  x 2 dk eku D;k gS\
(A) 250 (B) 200 5 (A) 250 (B) 200 5
(C) 100 5 (D) 500 (C) 100 5 (D) 500

0.0196 0.0196
109. If = 0.2, then x = ? 109. ;fn = 0.2, gks] rks] x = ?
x x
(A) 0.49 (B) 4.9 (A) 0.49 (B) 4.9
(C) 0.049 (D) 0.07 (C) 0.049 (D) 0.07

110. If 3x = 3y = 3z and x + y + z = 27 29 , then 110. ;fn 3x = 3y = 3z rFkk x + y + z = 27 29 gks rks]


x 2  y 2  z 2 is : x2  y 2  z 2 ?
(A) 87 (B) 84 (A) 87 (B) 84
(C) 2 29 (D) 4 29 (C) 2 29 (D) 4 29

111. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 111. 549160 esa ls og NksVh lh NksVh dkSu lh la[;k
549160 in order to make a perfect square? ?kVk;h tk, rkfd og iw.kZ oxZ cu tk;s%
(A) 79 (B) 81 (A) 79 (B) 81
(C) 80 (D) 1 (C) 80 (D) 1

112. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 112. ik¡p yxkrkj le la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 26 gS] rks
26. Find the smallest of them? muesa ls lcls NksVh la[;k Kkr djsaA
(A) 20 (B) 22 (A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 28 (C) 24 (D) 28

113. The average of 11 numbers is 60. If the average 113. 11 la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 60 gSA ;fn izFke 6 dk
of first six numbers is 58 and that of last six is 63, vkSlr 58 rFkk vfUre 6 dk vkSlr 63 gks rks] NBh
find the sixth number : la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 60 (B) 66 (A) 60 (B) 66
(C) 72 (D) 78 (C) 72 (D) 78

1550 17 SET-C
114. The average age of 36 persons in a group is 14 114. fdlh lewg ds 36 yksxksa dk vkSlr vk;q 14 o’kZ gS
years. When an extra person’s age is included to it, lewg esa ,d vfrfjDr vkneh vkus ds ckn vkSlr 1
the average increases by one. What is the extra ls c<+ tkrh gSA rks mls vfrfjDr vkneh dh vk;q o’kZ
person’s age in years? esa D;k gS\
(A) 41 (B) 47 (A) 41 (B) 47
(C) 49 (D) 51 (C) 49 (D) 51

115. A driver travels to a place 150 km away at an 115. ,d pkyd 150 fdeh dh nwjh 50 fdeh@?kaVk dh
average speed of 50 km/hr and return at vkSlr pky ls rS; djrk gS rFkk 30 fdeh@?kaVk dh
30 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey vkSlr pky ls og okil vk tkrk gsA rks mlds
in km/hr is : lEiw.kZ ;k=k dh vkSlr pky fudkys%
(A) 33.5 km/hr (B) 37.5 km/hr (A) 33-5 fdeh@?kaVk (B) 37-5 fdeh@?kaVk
(C) 35 km/hr (D) 37 km/hr (C) 35 fdeh@?kaVk (D) 37 fdeh@?kaVk

116. 50 is divided into two parts such that the sum of 116. 50 dks nks Hkkxksa esa bl izdkj ck¡Vk tkrk gS fd mlds
1 1
their reciprocals is , find largest part? O;qRØe dk ;ksxQy gS] rks cM+k Hkkx crkos\
8 8
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

117. Present ages of Mohan and Sohan are in the ratio 117. eksgu rFkk lksgu dh oÙkZeku vk;q dk vuqikr
of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio 5 % 4 gSA rhu o’kZ ds ckn muds vk;q dk vuqikr
of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What 11 % 9 gks tk,xkA rks eksgu dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
is Mohan’s present age in years ? (A) 30 (B) 24
(A) 30 (B) 24 (C) 27 (D) 40
(C) 27 (D) 40

118. Sushil’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 118. 15 o’kZ okn lq”khy dh vk;q mlds 5 o’kZ igys dh
years back. What is the present age of Sushil? vk;q dh 5 xq.kk gks tk,xh lq”khy dh oÙkZeku vk;q
(A) 15 (B) 20 D;k gS\
(C) 10 (D) 25 (A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25

119. The Sum of ages of a father and his son is 45 years. 119. firk rFkk iq= dh vk;q dk ;ksxQy dk 45 o’kZ gS] 5
Five years ago, the product of their ages was 34. o’kZ igys nksuksa ds vk;q dk xq.kuQy 34 gS rks iq= dk
The age of the son is : oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 6 years (B) 7 years (A) 6 o’kZ (B) 7 o’kZ
(C) 8 years (D) 9 years (C) 8 o’kZ (D) 9 o’kZ

120. In 10 years, x will be twice as old as y was 10 120. 10 o’kksZ esa x dh vk;q y ds 10 o’kZ ds igys dh vk;’q
years ago. If x is now 9 years older than y the dh nwxuq k gks tk,xh] ;fn oÙkZeku esa x, y ls 9 o’kZ cM+k
present age of y is : gS rks y dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 39 years (B) 29 years (A) 39 o’kZ (B) 29 o’kZ
(C) 19 years (D) 21 years (C) 19 o’kZ (D) 21 o’kZ

1550 18 SET-C
6 3 6
3 6
6 121. dk eku D;k gS\
121. What is the value of 7 : 3 7
6 X 6
3 6 X 6
1 1
(A) 6 (B) (A) 6 (B)
6 6
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 1 (D) 0

3X(81) 4 3X(81) 4
122. If n 5 =27, then n =? 122. ;fn n 5 =27, gks rks n =?
9 X3 X(27) 3 9 X3 X(27) 3

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
3 2 3 2
1 1
(C) 0 (D) (C) 0 (D)
4 4

123. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than 4


123. fdlh la[;k dks 65 izfr”kr ml la[;k ds Hkkx
four-fifth of that number. What is the number? 5
(A) 120 (B) 160 ls 21 de gS] rks la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 120 (B) 160
(C) 140 (D) 180
(C) 140 (D) 180

124. 600 dk 15% $ 280 dk 45 % = ?


124. 15% of 600 + 45 % of 280 = ?
(A) 216 (B) 236
(A) 216 (B) 236
(C) 126 (D) 246
(C) 126 (D) 246

3 4 3 4
125. Raman reads of a book on one day and of 125. jeu 1 fnu esa Hkkx fdrkc i<+rk gS] “ks’k dk
8 5 8 5
the remainder on another day. If there are 30 pages Hkkx nwljs fnu i<+rk gS] ;fn vc 30 i`’B ugha i<+k
unread now., how many pages did the book gqvk cpk gS rks fdrkc esa dqy fdrus i`’B Fks%
contain ? (A) 200 (B) 240
(A) 200 (B) 240 (C) 80 (D) 120
(C) 80 (D) 120

126. A seller purchased a washing machine for 126. ,d foØsrk ,d okf”kax e”khu dks :0 7]660 esa
Rs. 7, 660. After allowing a discount of 12% on its [kjhnrk gSA mlds vafdr ewY; ij 12% NwV nsus ds
marked price, he still gains 10% . Find the marked ckn Hkh 10% ykHk dekrk gSA rks e”khu dk vafdr
price of washing machine : ewY; D;k gS\
(A) Rs. 9575 (B) Rs. 9675 (A) 9575 :0 (B) 9675 :0
(C) Rs. 8246 (D) Rs. 9755 (C) 8246 :0 (D) 9755 :0

127. A man purchared an article and sold it to be B at a 127. A vkneh ,d oLrq [kjhn dj 25% ykHk ij B dks
profit of 25% and B sold it to C at a loss of 10% csp nsrk gS] B, C dks 10% gkfu ij csp nsrk gS] C
and C paid Rs. 675 for it. For how much did A dks blds fy, 675 :i;k nsuk iM+rk gSA rks crk;sa
purchase it : fd A bls fdrus esa [kjhnk Fkk\
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 550 (A) 500 :0 (B) 550 :0
(C) Rs. 600 (D) Rs. 650 (C) 600 :0 (D) 650 :0
1550 19 SET-C
128. Two trains start from a certain place on two 128. nks Vsªu lekukUrj VSªd ij ,d gh fn”kk esa ,d gh
parallel tracks in the same direction. The speed of fcUnq ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gSA Vsªu dh xfr 45
the trains are 45 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. fdeh@?kaVk rFkk 40 fdeh@?kaVk Øe”k% gSA rks 45
The distance between two trains after 45 minutes feuV ds ckn nksuksa jsyxkM+h dh chp dh nwjh D;k
will be : gksxh\
(A) 3 km 750 m (B) 3 km 550 m (A) 3 fdeh 750 eh (B) 3 fdeh 550 eh
(C) 2 km 750 m (D) 2 km 550 m (C) 2 fdeh 750 eh (D) 2 fdeh 550 eh

1 1 1 3 1
129. If x 
3
=3, the value of x  3 is : 129. ;fn x  =3, gks rks] x  dk eku gS%
x x x x3
(A) 30 (B) 36 (A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 34 (D) 40 (C) 34 (D) 40

130. The area of equilateral triangle is 4 3 square metre. 130. leckgq f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy 4 3 oxZehVj gS] rks
Its perimeter is : bldk ifjeki gS%
(A) 14 metre (A) 14 ehVj
(B) 12 metre (B) 12 ehVj
(C) 6 3 metre (C) 6 3 ehVj
(D) 12 3 metre (D) 12 3 ehVj

131. The unit digit in the product 131. (284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ds xq.kuQy dk bZdkbZ
(284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ? vad gS%
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

132. What is the unit dight of (795-358) x 511 ? 132. (795-358) x 511 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 0 (B) 4 (A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 6 (D) 7

133. What is the unit digit of (2157) 754? 133. (2157) 754 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 3 (B) 6 (A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 9 (C) 7 (D) 9

134. If (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, then x = ? 134. ;fn (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, gks rks] x = ?


(A) 140 (B) 240 (A) 140 (B) 240
(C) 360 (D) 280 (C) 360 (D) 280

135. If the product 4864 X 9 x 2 is divisible by 12, the 135. ;fn 4864 X 9 x 2 dk xq.kuQy 12 ls foHkkftr gks]
value of x is : rks x dk eku gS%
(A) 2 (B) 1 (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

1550 20 SET-C
136. If x and y are odd numbers, then which of the 136. ;fn x rFkk y fo’ke la[;k,¡ gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa
following is even? dkSu le gS\
(A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1 (A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1
(C) xy +2 (D) xy (C) xy +2 (D) xy

137. The largest 5-digit number exactly divisible by 91 137. ik¡p vadks dh lcls cM+h la[;k tks dh 91 ls iw.kZr%
is: foHkkftr gks %
(A) 99981 (B) 99999 (A) 99981 (B) 99999
(C) 99918 (D) 99971 (C) 99918 (D) 99971

138. What least number must be subtracted from 13602, 138. 13602 esa ls og lcls NksVh la[;k dkSu&lh ?kVk;h
so that the remainder is divisible by 87? tk; fd “ks’kQy 87 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks tk;\
(A) 29 (B) 31 (A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 37 (C) 30 (D) 37

139. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ? 139. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ?


(A) 1536 (B) 1540 (A) 1536 (B) 1540
(C) 1150 (D) 1140 (C) 1150 (D) 1140

140. How many natural numbers are there between 17 140. 17 rFkk 100 ds chp dqy fdrus izkÑr la[;k gS tks
and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6 ? fd 6 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks \
(A) 12 (B) 13 (A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15 (C) 14 (D) 15

141. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. 141. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 3 % 4 gS] ;fn mudk e0 l0
is 8, their L.C.M. is : 8 gS rks mudk y0 l0 D;k gksxk\
(A) 96 (B) 108 (A) 96 (B) 108
(C) 48 (D) 64 (C) 48 (D) 64

4 3 4 9 4 3 4 9
142. The L.C.M. of , , , is : 142. , , rFkk dk y0 l0 gS %
3 5 7 13 3 5 7 13
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
36 1365 36 1365
12 12
(C) 36 (D) (C) 36 (D)
448 448

143. 0.517  0.00517 = ? 143. 0.517  0.00517 = ?


(A) 1 (B) 10 (A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) None of these (C) 100 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

1 1
144.
0.02
is equal to : 144. dk eku gS%
0.02
(A) 100 (B) 50 (A) 100 (B) 50
2 1 2 1
(C) (D) (C) (D)
50 20 50 20
1550 21 SET-C
0.009 0.009
145. If = 0.001, then x = ? 145. ;fn = 0.001, gks rks x = ?
x x
(A) 90 (B) 9 (A) 90 (B) 9
1 1
(C) 0.9 (D) (C) 0.9 (D)
90 90

146. The value of 0.47 is : 146. 0.47 dk eku cjkcj gS %

47 47 47 47
(A) (B) (A) (B)
10 99 10 99
43 47 43 47
(C) (D) (C) (D)
90 9 90 9

ba ba
147. If 1.5 a = 0.04 b, then value of   is : 147. ;fn 1.5 a = 0.04 b, gks] rks   dk eku gS%
ba ba
73 7 .3 73 7 .3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
77 77 77 77
730 7 .3 730 7 .3
(C) (D) (C) (D)
77 777 77 777

(0.6) 4  (0.5) 4 (0.6) 4  (0.5) 4


148. is equal to : 148.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
dk eku cjkcj gS %
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.11 (A) 0.1 (B) 0.11
(C) 1.1 (D) 11 (C) 1.1 (D) 11

P 6 P2  Q2 P 6 P2  Q2
149. If Q  5 , find the value of 2 : 
149. ;fn Q 5 ] gks rks 2 dk eku fudkys %
P  Q2 P  Q2

51 61 51 61
(A) (B) (A) (B)
11 11 11 11
49 49
(C) (D) 8 (C) (D) 8
11 11

2a 2a
150. If =1, then find the value of a ? 150. ;fn =1] gks rks a dk eku fudkys\
1 1
1 1
a a
1 1
1 a 1 a

3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
2 4 2 4
2 2
(C) (D) 0 (C) (D) 0
3 3

1550 22 SET-C
PART-IV
HINDI

158.
funsZ”k ¼151 ls 155½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd pkj fodYiksa
ls csesy ¼vlaxr½ “kCn dks fpafgRr dhft,A (A )mldks bruh ftEesnkfj;k¡ er nks fd og mUgsa
fuHkk u ldsA
(B) mUgha yksxksa ls feyuk pkfg, ftuls ln~O;ogkj
151.
(A) “kkjhfjd (B) nSfgd
dh f”k{kk feysA
(C) dksbZ ugha tkurk fd dy D;k gksxkA
(C) ekufld (D) vkf/k
(D) n;k ls c<+dj dksbZ Hkko ugha gSA

152.
159.
(A) pksV (B) t[e
(A) fo|k ls c<+dj dksbZ /ku ugha gSA
(C) [kwu (D) ihM+k
(B) ns”k esa fodkl dk;ksZ dh izxfr /kheh jgh gS

153.
D;ksafd ljdkj ds ikl /ku ugha FkkA
(C) cM+ksa dks pkfg, fd cPpksa ds izfr vius O;ogkj
(A) izfr;ksfxrk (B) Hkkstu
(C) f[kykM+h (D) nkSM+
dks fu;af=r j[ksA
(D) ;fn lQyrk pkgrs gks rks ifjJe djuk gh

154.
iMs+xk
(A) ;qorh (B) ckfydk
(C) nqfgrk (D) uo;qod
funsZ”k ¼160 ls 165½ % uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz”u esa dkys
Nis “kCn ds pkj lEHkkfor rkRi;Z fn, x, gSaA lgh
155.
fodYi pqfu,A
(A) jks’k (B) dksi
160. yS k fdd
(C) ve’kZ (D) v”kksd
(A) idM+ fy;k x;k
(B) ykSdh ls cuk
funsZ”k ¼156 ls 159½ % fuEu esa ls ljy okD; dk p;u
(C) ,d leku fn[kus okyk
dhft,%
(D) tks bl yksd dh ckr gks

156.
161. Ñik
(A) mlus dgk fd dk;kZy; cUn gks x;kA
(A) nq%[k esa lgkuqHkfr
(B) lqcg gqbZ vkSj og vk x;kA
(B) nhu O;fDr dh lgk;rk
(C) jkgqy /khjs&/khjs fy[krk gSA
(C) iSls ls enn
(D) tks cM+s gSa] mUgas lEeku nksA
(D) fdlh ds fy, dksbZ dk;Z djuk

157.
162. la d ks p
(A) og T;ksa gh vk,] esjs ikl Hkst nsukA
(B) fuf/k VkbZi djuk lh[k pqdh] vc og “kkVZ
(A) fdlh dk;Z dks djus esa “keZ
gS.M lh[k jgh gSA (B) vuqfpr dk;Z djus esa fgpfdpkgV
(C) fot; dks cksyksa fd QkSju pyk vk,A
(C) cqjs deksZ ij nq%[k
(D) ;FkklaHko ;g dk;Z “kke rd iwjk dj nks
(D) vkRefo”okl dk u gksuk
1550 23 SET-C
163. fujis { k funsZ”k ¼171 ls 175½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn,
(A) ftls dqN Hkh Kku u gks x, “kCn ds lekukFkhZ “kCn dk p;u mlds uhps fn,
(B) tks fdlh dh lqurk u gks x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%
(C) ftldk dksbZ i{k u gks
(D) ftldks fdlh ckr dh dkeuk u gks 171. ifjos”k
(A) O;ogkj (B) vk¡xu
164. vi<+ (C) okrkoj.k (D) vkpj.k
(A) tks i<+us ;ksX; u gks
(B) tks i<+k u x;k gks 172. Nksg
(C) ftldk i<+uk euk gks (A) fojkx (B) fojg
(D) tks i<+k&fy[kk u gks (C) eerk (D) Nwuk

165. “kL= 173. uSlfxZd


(A) tks gfFk;kj nwj ls Qad
s k tk, (A) izkÑfrd (B) dfYir
(B) ftl gfFk;kj dks gkFk esa ysdj yM+k tk, (C) Ñf=e (D) iqjkru
(C) tks gfFk;kj vpwd gks
(D) tks gfFk;kj ea= i<+dj iz;ksx esa fy;k tk, 174. O;Fkk
(A) {kksHk (B) ihM+k
funsZ”k ¼166 ls 170½ % uhps dqN yksdksfDr;k¡ nh xbZ gSaA (C) d’V (D) nq%[k
izR;sd yksdksfDr esa tks mi;qDr “kCn NwV x;k gS]
mlds fjDr LFkku ds fy, p;u dhft,% 175. ifjey
(A) lq[k (B) loksZÙke xU/k
166. dj---------------------- rks gks Hkyk (C) foenZu (D) lgokl
(A) lsok (B) Hkyk
(C) cyk (D) cqjk funsZ”k ¼176 ls 180½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn,
x, “kCn esa iz;qDr lfU/k ds izdkj dk p;u mlds
167. Hkxoku ds ?kj ---------------------gS] va/kjs ugha uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%
(A) nhid (B) izlkn
(C) nsj (D) ewfrZ 176. uk;d
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) xq.k lfU/k
168. ------------------- ds va/ks dks gjk gh gjk utj vkrk gS (C) o`f) lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k
(A) cpiu (B) lkou
(C) ckr (D) vk¡[k 177. Hkw’k.k
(A) folxZ lfU/k (B) ;.k lfU/k
169. cUnj D;k tkus -------------- dk Lokn (C) O;atu lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k
(A) feBkbZ (B) vnjd
(C) I;kt (D) thjs 178. ;”kksnk
(A) Loj lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k
170. va/kksa esa ------------------------------------- jktk (C) folxZ lfU/k (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(A) yaxM+k (B) ywyk
(C) dkuk (D) igyoku
1550 24 SET-C
179. n;kuUn 187. jl ds fdrus vax gksrs gSa\
(A) xq.k lfU/k (B) nh?kZ lfU/k (A) nks (B) pkj
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) ;.k lfU/k (C) ik¡p (D) N%

180. uhjksx 188. loZJ’s B jl fdls ekuk tkrk gS\


(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k (A) jkSnz jl (B) J`axkj jl
(C) xq.k lfU/k (D) folxZ lfU/k (C) d:.k jl (D) ohj jl

funsZ”k ¼181 ls 185½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa nh 189. dfo fcgkjh eq[;r% fdl jl ds dfo gSa\
xbZ iafDr;ksa ds jpf;rk ds pkj lEHkfor uke fn, (A) d:.k (B) HkfDr
x, gSA mi;qDr jpf;rk ds uke dk p;u dhft,% (C) J`axkj (D) ohj

181. lf[k os eq>ls dg dj tkrsA 190. NUn dk loZizFke mYys[k dgk¡ feyrk gS\
(A) vKs; (B) eSfFkyh”kj.k xqIr (A) _Xosn (B) mifu’kn
(C) t;”kadj izlkn (D) gfjvkS/k (C) lkeosn (D) ;tqoZn
s

182. dud&dud rs lkSxquh ekndrk vf/kdk;A 191. NUn eq[; :i ls fdrus izdkj ds gksrs gS\
;g [kk, ckSjkb uj] ok ik, ckSjk,AA (A) nks (B) rhu
(A) rqylhnkl (B) fcgkjh (C) pkj (D) N%
(C) ds”konkl (D) fo;ksxh gfj
192. fdl NUn dk izFke o vfUre “kCn ,d&lk gksrk gS\
183. esjh Hko&ok/kk gjkS jk/kk&ukxfj lksbZA (A) nksgk (B) jksyk
tk ru dh >kbZ ijS L;ke gfjr&nqfr gksbZAA (C) lksjBk (D) dq.Mfy;k
(A) Xoky (B) ds”konkl
(C) jl[kku (D) fcgkjh yky 193. NIi; fdl izdkj dk NUn gSa\
(A) fo’ke (B) le
184. izHkqth rqe panu ge ikuhA (C) v)Zle (D) ekf=d
tkdh vax&vax ckl lekuhAA
(A) jSnkl (B) eywdnkl 194. nksgk fdl izdkj dk NUn gS\
(C) xq:ukud (D) dchjnkl (A) le~ (B) fo’ke
(C) v)Zle (D) bueas ls dksbZ ugha
185. izxfrokn mi;ksfxrkokn dk nqljk uke gSA
(A) jkefoykl “kekZ 195. fuEufyf[kr esa ekf=d le NUn dk dkSu&lk mnkgj.k
(B) ize
s pUn gS\
(C) uUnnqykjs oktis;h (A) nksgk (B) lksjBk
(D) lqfe=kuUnu iar (C) pkSikbZ (D) ;s lHkh

186. LFkk;h Hkkoksa dh la[;k dqy fdruh gS \


(A) ukS (B) nl
(C) X;kjg (D) ckjg

1550 25 SET-C
funsZ”k ¼196 ls 200½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd “kCn ds fy, 198. jkr&fnu
mlds uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls mi;qDr lekl (A) f)xq (B) rRiq:’k
N¡fV,% (C) )U) (D) deZ/kkj;

196. jkekuqt 199. ouokl


(A) rRiq:’k (B) nU) (A) vO;;hHkko (B) deZ/kkj;
(C) deZ/kkj; (D) cgqczhfg (C) rRiq:’k (D) }U)

197. lifjokj 200. pkSjkgk


(A) vO;;hHkko (B) rRiq:’k (A) cgqczhfg (B) rRiq:’k
(C) f)xq (D) cgqczhfg (C) vO;;hHkko (D) f)xq

*************************************************************************************

1550 26 SET-C
PART-IV
ENGLISH

Direction (151-155) : In the following questions, out of 159.


the four alternatives, choose the one which can be (A) Inefable (B) Inaecesible
(C) Infallible (D) Invinsieble
substituted for the given words/sentence
160.
151. A person who readily believes others : (A) Expact (B) Impact
(A) Credible (B) Credulous (C) Exite (D) Imped
(C) Sensitive (D) Sensible
Direction (161-165) : In each of the questions, arrange
152. The political leader has an evil reputation. He is not the jumbled letter or phrases to make a meaningful
trusted : sentence :
(A) is notorious (B) is malicious
(C) is magnanimous (D) is dubious 161. P. each year
Q. two to five adults
153. A person who helps even a stranger in difficulty : R. get gold
(A) Samaritan (B) Altruist S. on an average
(C) Philanthropist (D) Beneficiary (A) PSQR (B) PRSQ
(C) SRQP (D) RSQP
154. The production of raw silk :
(A) Sericulture (B) Seroculture 162. P. can be dangerous
(C) Sariculture (D) Syrumculture Q. the indiscriminate
R. without medical supervision
155. The conference takes place once in three years? S. and critical use of any drug
(A) Tetraenning (B) Triennial (A) PQRS (B) PRQS
(C) Treennial (D) Thriennial (C) QSRP (D) SPQR

Direction (156-160) : In the following questions, groups 163. P. destroyed careers


of four words are given. In each group one word is Q. many
correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word : R. has resulted in
S. drug addiction
156. (A) PQSR (B) PRQS
(A) Variety (B) Anxdety (C) SRQP (D) SPQR
(C) Gaitey (D) Sodety
164. P. by making swallowing difficutt
157. Q. a sore throat
(A) Coersion (B) Precision R. daily life
(C) Negociation (D) Explation S. interferes with
(A) QSRP (B) QPRS
158. (C) PRQS (D) PQRS
(A) Harrassment (B) Commitment
(C) Breevement (D) Temparament
1550 27 SET-C
165. P. America’s application of nuclear power in 20th century. In fact,
Q. in 1961 the historical roots of electricity extend far back into
R. war launched antiquity. Many men had a hand both in acquring
S. first manned aircrafts basic knowledge about the invisible form of power
(A) PRQS (B) PQSR and in developing the ways adopted for practical
(C) QSRP (D) PSRQ purpose. One of the vital keys that helped to
unlock the doors leading to the production of
Direction (166-170) : In the following questions, a electricity was the discovery, in 1831, of the
sentence/ part of sentence is printed underlined. principle of electromagnetic induction. This
Below four alternatives are given to the underlined discovery was made simultaneously by michael
part of the sentence as (A), (B) and (C) which may faraday in England and Joshef Henry in the United
improve the sentence. Choose the correct States. From it came the generator, sometimes also
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your called dynamo but several decades of development
answer is (D): had to follow before the first practical dynamos or
generator came into existance in early 1870 :
166. The student’s interest was raised by an article he
had read : 171. According to the author :
(A) quickened (B) multiplied (A) Michael Faraday and Joseph Henry
(C) increased (D) no improvement revolutionized electricity in the USA
(B) Nuclear power and electricity were
167. This telephone number is not existing: discovered in the 20th centery
(A) has not existed (B) has not been existing (C) The discovery of the principle of
(C) does not exist (D) no improvement electromagnetic induction was not an
important discovery
168. The businessman is respectively connected : (D) The advent of electric power is equivalent to
(A) respectfully (B) respectably the application of nuclear power in 20th
(C) receptively (D) no improvement century

169. I met him in the way : 172. Michael Faraday and Josheph Henry discovered :
(A) on the way (B) at the way (A) the application of nuclear power
(C) during the way (D) no improvement
(B) the genertor
(C) the dynamo
170. The boy said that he has read the book :
(A) he has already read (D) the principle of electromagnetic induction
(B) he had read
(C) he has finished to read 173. Another word for ‘advent’ is .................. :
(D) no improvement (A) discovery (B) arrival
(C) invention (D) constitution
Direction (171-175) : Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the 174. The generator was also known as the ........... :
four alternatives : (A) inductor (B) dynamo
Passage (C) inventor (D) conductor
The advent of electric power was, in a way,
comparable to the successful development and
1550 28 SET-C
175. Give a synonym for “antiquity”. 182. He was congratulated ..................... receiving his
(A) Ancient (B) Antipathy degree :
(C) Modern (D) Uniqueness (A) on (B) for
(C) by (D) of
Direction (176-180) : In the following passage some of
183. Some people quarrel ............ very trivial matters :
the words have been left out. After reading (A) over (B) in
carefully fill in the blanks with the help of given (C) for (D) by
alternatives :
184. “May I know to ...... I am speaking.”
Passage (A) whom (B) who
‘CRY-child relief and you’ 196 an organization that (C) how (D) where
197 started by seven such 198 and it has been
185. Bear............... me as I explain the matter more fully:
working 199 1979 to change the lives of 200 (A) in (B) of
children all over India. (C) with (D) for

176. Direction (186 -190) : In each sentence below


(A) was (B) is four words have been printed in separate parts which
(C) are (D) being are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these
parts may be mis spelt or an error in the
context of the sentence the letter of that part is your
177.
answer. If there is no error, your answer is (D). i.e.
(A) has (B) being No error.
(C) was (D) been
186.
178. (A) Collect newspaper and magazine having
(A) friends (B) men articles on oil
(C) people (D) individuals (B) pullution and
(C) discuss them.
(D) No error
179.
(A) since (B) during 187.
(C) for (D) untill (A) We can demonstrate the
(B) phenomenon of evaporation and
180. (C) condensation
(A) underprivileged (B) privileged (D) No error
(C) hopeless (D) denuded
188.
(A) People dewlling in remote areas
Direction (181-185 ) : Fill in the blanks with the (B) suffer a lot because of
appropriate word, choosing it from options given : (C) in accessibility to hospitals
(D) No error
181. I found it difficult to cope ............. mathematics at
the advanced level :
189.
(A) with (B) of
(A) It is interesting that
(C) for (D) up
(B) floating docks and even
(C) ships can be made of concreat
(D) No error
1550 29 SET-C
190. Direction (196-200) : In the following questions. Out of
(A) Make a list of foods that contain four alternatives, choose the one which best
(B) harmful expresses the meaning of the given word as your
(C) chemicals answer:
(D) No error
196. Honest
Direction (191-195) : In the following questions, choose (A) Authentic (B) Upright
the word from four alternatives which is most nearly (C) Direct (D) Actual
opposite in meaning to the given word :
197. Vocation
191. Spiritual (A) Examination (B) Seminar
(A) Earthly (B) Superior (C) Occupation (D) Holiday
(C) Material (D) Disccord
198. Ingenuous
192. Harmony (A) Innocent (B) Artful
(A) Agreement (B) Melody (C) Cunning (D) Clever
(C) Confusion (D) Discord
199. Innocuous
193. Compulsion (A) Careless (B) Harmless
(A) Constraint (B) Choice (C) Insufficient (D) Irresponssible
(C) Freedom (D) Spontaneity
200. Insolent
194. Waste (A) Disrespectful (B) Insoluble
(A) Gain (B) Profit (C) depreciating (D) the sole of a shoe
(C) Nourish (D) Loss

195. Successor
(A) Follower (B) Prodecessor
(C) Guide (D) Professor

*************************************************************************************

1550 30 SET-C
jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 31 SET-C
jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 32 SET-C
PART-I
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

1. Indicate which figure will best represent the 1. fuEukafdr fp= esa dkSu&lk fpfM+;k] dkSvk rFkk
relationship among Birds, Crows, Eagles : bZxy ds chp lEcU/k dks iznf”kZr djrk gS%

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

2. Neela is now three times as old as her daughter 2. uhyk viuh csVh yhyk ls rhu xq.kk cqM+h gS] 10 o’kZ
Leela. Ten years back, Neela was five times as old igys uhyk] yhyk ls ik¡p xquh cM+h FkhA rks yhyk dh
as Leela. The age of Leela is : vk;q gSA
(A) 15 (B) 25 (A) 15 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20 (C) 30 (D) 20

Direction (3 - 7) : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sitting funs”k ¼3 ls 7½ % P, Q, R, S, T, U, V vkSj W ,d o`r


round the circle and are facing the centre ds pkjksa vksj dsUnz dh vksj eq[k djds cSBs gSA
(i) P is second to the right of T who is the (i) P, T nk¡;s ls nwljk gS tks fd R vkSj V dk
neighbour of R and V iM+kslh gSA
(ii) S is not the neighbour of P (ii) S, P iM+kslh ugha gSA
(iii) V is the neighbour of U (iii) V, U dk iM+kslh gSA
(iv) Q is not between S and W. W is not between (iv) Q, S rFkk W ds chp esa ugha gS W, Q rFkk S
Q and S ds chp esa ugha gSA

3. Which two of the following are not neighbours : 3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;qXe ,d nwljs ds iM+kslh
(A) UV (B) TR ugha gS\
(C) PW (D) SW (A) UV (B) TR
(C) PW (D) SW

4. Who is the neighbour of W ? 4. W dk iM+kslh dkSu gS \


(A) U (B) V (A) U (B) V
(C) R (D) S (C) R (D) S

5. Who is the second right of R? 5. R ls nk¡;s nwljk dkSu gS\


(A) Q (B) W (A) Q (B) W
(C) S (D) V (C) S (D) V

6. Who is in the middle of S and V ? 6. S rFkk V ds chp esa dkSu gS \


(A) U (B) R (A) U (B) R
(C) P (D) Q (C) P (D) Q
1550 3 SET-D
7. Who is second to the left of U ? 7. U ds ck¡;s nwljk dkSu gS \
(A) W (B) Q (A) W (B) Q
(C) P (D) R (C) P (D) R

8. In half hour, the minute hand of clock will rotate 8. vk/ks ?kaVs esa feuV dh lqbZ fdrus fMxzh ls /kqe
through the angle of : tk,sxh\
(A) 75° (B) 60° (A) 75° (B) 60°
(C) 120° (D) 180° (C) 120° (D) 180°

9. Meera was born on 22nd March 1982. On what 9. ehjk dk tUe 22 ekpZ 1982 dks gqvk FkkA rks crkos
day of the week was she 14 years 7 months and 8 fd lIrkg ds dkSu lk fnu og 14 o’kZ 7 eghuk vkSj
days of age? 8 fnu dh Fkh\
(A) Tuesday (B) Sunday (A) eaxyokj (B) jfookj
(C) Monday (D) Saturday (C) lkseokj (D) “kfuokj

10. If 1st October falls on Sunday. What day of the 10. ;fn 1 vDVwcj dks jfookj gksrk gS] rks 1 uoEcj dks
week will fall on 1st November ? lIrkg dk dkSu lk fnu jgsxk\
(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (A) eaxyokj (B) cq/kokj
(C) Sunday (D) Monday (C) jfookj (D) lkseokj

Direction (11-17) : In each of the following questions, funsZ”k ¼11 ls 17½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, x,
select the related letter/word/number from the given fodYiksa esa ls lEcfU/kr v{kj@”kCn@la[;k dks
alternatives : pqfu,A

11. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ? 11. DEVIL : ABSFI : : OTHER : ?


(A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV (A) MRFCP (B) RWKHV
(C) LQEBO (D) LRECO (C) LQEBO (D) LRECO

12. Manipuri : Manipur : : Kathakali : ? 12. ef.kiwjh % ef.kiwj % % dFkdyh % \


(A) Karnataka (B) Tamilnadu (A) dukZVd (B) rfeyukMq
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh (C) dsjy (D) vkU/kz izns”k

13. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ? 13. 24 : 60 : : 210 : ?


(A) 425 (B) 420 (A) 425 (B) 420
(C) 525 (D) 505 (C) 525 (D) 505

14. Teacher : Student : : Pontiff : ? 14. f”k{kd % Nk= % % fc”ki % \


(A) Disciple (B) Follower (A) f”k’; (B) vuq;k;h
(C) Priest (D) Deity (C) iqtkjh (D) nsork

15. Book : Read : : Picture : ? 15. fdrkc % i<+uk % % fp= % \


(A) Library (B) Buy (A) iqLrdky; (B) [kjhnuk
(C) See (D) Listen (C) ns[kuk (D) lquuk

1550 4 SET-D
16. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :? 16. ETHNICITY : YTIC INHTE : : HOPEFUL :?
(A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF (A) FULEPOH (B) HOPELUF
(C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH (C) LUFHOPE (D) LUFEPOH

17. Swimming : River : : Hiking : ? 17. rSjuk % unh % % p<+kbZ %\


(A) Mountain (B) Road (A) ioZr (B) lM+d
(C) Pond (D) Sea (C) rkykc (D) leqnz

Direction (18-25) : In each of the following question, funsZ”k ¼18 ls 25½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa fn, x,
find the odd word/letters/number pair from the fodYiksa esa ls fo’ke la[;k@ v{kj@la[;k ;qXe
given alternatives : pqfu,A

18. 18.
(A) 1000 (B) 625 (A) 1000 (B) 625
(C) 64 (D) 512 (C) 64 (D) 512

19. 19.
(A) 10 (B) 24 (A) 10 (B) 24
(C) 64 (D) 120 (C) 64 (D) 120

20. 20.
(A) CP (B) FR (A) CP (B) FR
(C) DQ (D) BO (C) DQ (D) BO

21. 21.
(A) Publisher (B) Author (A) izdk”kd (B) ys[kd
(C) Novelist (D) Poet (C) miU;kldkj (D) dfo

22. 22.
(A) WTQN (B) NKHE (A) WTQN (B) NKHE
(C) MIDA (D) KHEB (C) MIDA (D) KHEB

23. 23.
(A) King : Queen (B) Prince : Princess (A) jktk % jkuh (B) jktdqekj % jktdqekjh
(C) Witch : Vampire (D) Hero : Heroine (C) Mk;u % fi”kkp (D) vfHkusrk % vfHkus=h

24. 24.
(A) Radish (B) Carrot (A) ewyh (B) xktj
(C) Potato (D) Beetroot (C) vkyq (D) pqdanj

25. 25.
(A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54 (A) 124 - 164 (B) 14 - 54
(C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286 (C) 212 - 252 (D) 256 - 286

1550 5 SET-D
Directions (26-27) : Arrange the following words funsZ”k ¼26 ls 27½ % fuEufyf[kr “kCnksa dks vaxzsth
according to the English dictionary : “kCndks”k ds vuqlkj ltkos %

26. 1. Voyage 2. Voice 26. 1. Voyage 2. Voice


3. Vocation 4. Volume 3. Vocation 4. Volume
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1 (A) 2, 4, 3, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

27. 1. Beet 2. Beer 27. ^1. Beet 2. Beer


3. Being 4. Been 3. Being 4. Been
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1

Directions (28-35) : In the following questions a series funsZ”k ¼28 ls 35½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa vuqØe fn;k
is given with one item missing choose the correct x;k gS] ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa
alternative from the given ones that will complete ls og lgh fodYi pqfu, tks vuqØe dks iwjk djsA
the series :

28. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ? 28. FLA, GMB, HNC, IOD, ?
(A) OTK (B) NSD (A) OTK (B) NSD
(C) JPE (D) TOE (C) JPE (D) TOE
29. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739 29. 135, 226, 353, ? , 739
(A) 722 (B) 522 (A) 722 (B) 522
(C) 622 (D) 632 (C) 622 (D) 632

30. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49 30. 4, 7, 13, 22, ? , 49


(A) 34 (B) 45 (A) 34 (B) 45
(C) 52 (D) 64 (C) 52 (D) 64

31. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? . 31. ACE, BDF, CEG, ? .


(A) DEF (B) DFH (A) DEF (B) DFH
(C) DEH (D) DFE (C) DEH (D) DFE

32. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162 32. 7, 12, 22, ? , 82, 162
(A) 42 (B) 32 (A) 42 (B) 32
(C) 52 (D) 62 (C) 52 (D) 62

33. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? . 33. 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ? .


(A) 33 (B) 34 (A) 33 (B) 34
(C) 27 (D) 30 (C) 27 (D) 30

34. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? . 34. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ? .
(A) WUY (B) VTY (A) WUY (B) VTY
(C) VUZ (D) WUZ (C) VUZ (D) WUZ

1550 6 SET-D
35. 12, 26, 54, ? . 35. 12, 26, 54, ? .
(A) 223 (B) 110 (A) 223 (B) 110
(C) 220 (D) 108 (C) 220 (D) 108

36. If A = 1 , BAD = 7, then HAT = ? 36. ;fn A = 1 , BAD = 7 gks rks HAT = ?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 29 (D) 19 (C) 29 (D) 19

37. If B = 4, D = 8 and C = 6, then DOG = ? 37. ;fn B = 4, D = 8 rFkk C = 6, gks rks DOG = ?
(A) 46 (B) 52 (A) 46 (B) 52
(C) 56 (D) 60 (C) 56 (D) 60

38. If D = 2 and F = 3, then BAG = ? 38. ;fn D = 2 rFkk F = 3, gks rks BAG = ?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

39. If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABIT is coded as 39. fdlh dwV Hkk’kk esa FAITH dks 82731, HABIT dks
12573 and HEALTH is coded as 192431, how 12573 rFkk HEALTH dks fy[kk tk, rks] 192431
can BELIEF be coded as ? dks mlh dwV Hkk’kk esa BELIEF dks D;k fy[kk
(A) 594598 (B) 594789 tk,xk\
(C) 594978 (D) 594798 (A) 594598 (B) 594789
(C) 594978 (D) 594798

40. If NATIONAL can be written as LNAANTOI, 40. ;fn fdlh dw V Hkk’kk es a NATIONAL dks
how can DOMESTIC be written? LNAANTOI fy[kk tk, rks mlh dwV Hkk’kk es
(A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE DOMESTIC dks D;k fy[kk tk,xk\
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD (A) CDIOMTES (B) CDIOTMSE
(C) CTSIMODE (D) CSITEMOD

41. In a class Sohan’s rank is 17th from the top and 41. ,d d{kk esa lksgu dk Øe Åij ls 17 ok¡ rFkk uhps
28th from the bottom. How many students are there ls 29 ok¡ gSA rks d{kk esa dqy fdrus Nk= gS\
in the class ? (A) 45 (B) 40
(A) 45 (B) 40 (C) 44 (D) 41
(C) 44 (D) 41

42. Varun said, “That boy is the grandson of my 42. o:.k us dgk fd ^^ og yM+dk esjs ekrk ds ifr dk
Mother’s husband. I have no brother and sister,” iksrk gS esjk dksbZ HkkbZ rFkk cgu ugh gS^^ crk;s og
How is the boy related with Varun? yM+dk o:.k ls dSls lEcfU/kr gS\
(A) Uncle (B) Son (A) pkpk (B) csVk
(C) Nephew (D) Cousin (C) Hkrhtk (D) ppsjk HkkbZ

43. Which of the following can not be formed by word 43. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk MERCHANDISE “kCn ls
MERCHANDISE : ugha cuk;k tk ldrk gS \
(A) MECH (B) DICE (A) MECH (B) DICE
(C) CHARM (D) CHANGE (C) CHARM (D) CHANGE

1550 7 SET-D
44. Out of 1865 people, 660 can speak English and 44. 1865 yksxksa esa ls] 660 vxazsth cksy ldrs gS] 1305
1305 can speak Marathi. But 120 person cannot ejkBh cksy ldrs gS] 120 yksx dksbZ Hkk’kk ugha cksy
speak either language. Then how many can speak ldrs gS] rks fdrus yksx nksuksa Hkk’kk cksy ldrs gS\
both languages : (A) 220 (B) 120
(A) 220 (B) 120 (C) 1085 (D) 440
(C) 1085 (D) 440

45. From the given alternative select the word which 45. fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, fodYi esa ls ml “kCn dks
can be formed using the letters given in the word. pqfu, tks ABOMINABLE ds v{kjksa ls cuk;k tk
ABOMINABLE : ldrk gS\
(A) BOWEL (B) METAL (A) BOWEL (B) METAL
(C) BLAND (D) BANAL (C) BLAND (D) BANAL

Directions (46-47) : In the following questions some funs”k ¼46 ls 47½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa esa dqN lehdj.k
equation are solved on the basis of a certain dk gy dqN [kkl i)fr ls fd;k x;k gS mlh
system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved i)fr ls gy ugha fd;s x, lehdj.k dk mÙkj nsaA
equation on that basis :

46. If 228 = 12 and 337 = 16, then 569 = ? 46. ;fn 228 = 12 rFkk 337 = 16, rks 569 = ?
(A) 39 (B) 20 (A) 39 (B) 20
(C) 29 (D) 36 (C) 29 (D) 36

47. If 3 X 7 X 8 = 837 47. ;fn 3 X 7 X 8 = 837


2 X 4 X 5 = 524, then 4 X 3 X 7 = ? 2 X 4 X 5 = 524, rc 4 X 3 X 7 = ?
(A) 743 (B) 734 (A) 743 (B) 734
(C) 84 (D) 214 (C) 84 (D) 214

Directions (48-50) : In the following questions, select funs”k ¼48 ls 50½ % fuEufyf[kr iz”ukas esa fn, x,
the missing number from given response : fodYiksa esa ls yqIr laa[;k Kkr djsA
48. 12 6 8 48. 12 6 8
4 4 9 4 4 9
3 7 4 3 7 4
51 31 ? 51 31 ?
(A) 21 (B) 42 (A) 21 (B) 42
(C) 76 (D) 86 (C) 76 (D) 86

49. 3 18 6 49. 3 18 6
5 ? 4 5 ? 4
8 40 5 8 40 5
(A) 40 (B) 22 (A) 40 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 20 (C) 24 (D) 20

50. 8 2 6 50. 8 2 6
2 4 ? 2 4 ?
5 6 8 5 6 8
80 48 240 80 48 240
(A) 4 (B) 10 (A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 5 (D) 20 (C) 5 (D) 20

1550 8 SET-D
PART-II
GENERAL AWARENESS & PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

51. How many types of wire obstacle are there? 51. ok;j vkCLVSdy dh fdLesa crkvks\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

52. In which CRPF Form leave, leave/duty certificate 52. NqVVh@fM;wVh ij tkus dk izek.k i+= fdl dsfjiq
is issued? QkeZ esa rS;kj fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) CRP 18 (B) CRP 24 (A) dsf jiq 18 (B) dsf jiq 24
(C) CRP 20 (D) CRP 28 (C) dsf jiq 20 (D) dsf jiq 28

53. How many times GPF subscription can be 53. Hkfo’; fuf/k ls Hkfo”; fuf/k dVksrh esa ,d o’kZ esa
increased/decreased in a year. fdrus ckj c<k;h@?kVk;h tk ldrh gS\
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/1 (A) 1/3 (B) 2/1
(C) 2/2 (D) 2/4 (C) 2/2 (D) 2/4

54. Which of following terms denotes the “Toughening 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ‘kkjhfjd etcwrh dk izeq[k
of body” as its major objectives- ?kVd gSa%&
(A) Play (B) Drill (A) [ks y uk (B) Mª h y
(C) WT (D) PT (C) MCY;w - Vh- (D) ih-Vh-

55. Sri Guru Gobind Singh was 55. xq: xksfoan flag Fks %&
(A) The 10th Guru of the Sikhs (A) flD[kksa ds nlosa xq:
(B) Founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the (B) 1699 esa flD[ksa ds vkarfjd ifj”kn [kkylk ds
Sikhs in 1699 la L Fkkid
(C) Author of Dasam Granth (C) nle xzaFk ds jpf;rk
(D) All the above (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh

56. Who has been awarded ‘Scroll of Honor’ by 56. dS l ysl ysu &nsu dks c<+ k ok nsu s ds fy, Hkkjr
Government of India to promote cashless ljdkj us fdls ßLdzkWy vkWQ vkWujÞ iznku fd;k
transactions? gS % &
(A) Manish Jadon (B) Khusbu Gupta (A) euh”k tknksu (B) [kq ’kcq xq I rk
(C) Surbhi Kapoor (D) Gaurav Goya (C) lq j Hkh diq j (D) xkS j o xks; k

57. What is the sequence of sitting position of Lathi 57. xkMh ls ekpZ djrs le; ykBh ikVhZ ds cSBus dk
party while marching from vehicle? dz e crk,A
(A) Middle (B) Last (A) chp esa (B) vkf[kj esa
(C) First (D) Anywhere (C) igys (D) dgh Hkha

58. Revision petition can be made against the 58. iqu jh{k.k ;kfpdk fdrus fnuks ds le;&lhek ds
punishment of departmental enquiry within…days? Hkhrj esa dh tk ldrh gS \
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days (A) 15 fnuksa esa (B) 30 fnuksa esa
(C) 45 days (D) 60 days (C) 45 fnuksa esa (D) 60 fnuksa esa

1550 9 SET-D
59. An orderly room register is maintained in CRPF 59. ds0fj0iq0cy esa vnZyh d{k iaftdk dk fdl iaftdk
in form No.? la[;k esa j[k&j[kko fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) Form No. 16 (B) Form No. 46 (A) QkW eZ la0 &16 (B) QkWeZ la0&46
(C) Form No. 08 (D) Form No. 15 A (C) QkW eZ la0 &08 (D) QkWeZ la0&15 ,

60. No members of the force will visit married lines 60. dksbZ cy dk lnL; fookfgr ykbZu esa fuEu esa fdl
except than those who have been allotted a quarter ds vuqefr ls Hkze.k dj ldrk gS \
without permission of (A) mi dek.MsV (,Me)
(A) DC (Adm) (B) dek.Ms V
(B) Comdt. (C) lq csnkj estj
(C) Subedar Major. (D) mi fujh{kd ¼gkbZ f tu ,.M lsf uVs”ku½
(D) SI (Hygeine & Sanitation)

61. Shuttle run test measures – 61. ‘kV~y ju ijh{k.k dk ekin.M gS%&
(A) Explosive strength (A) foLQks V d etcwr h
(B) Speed endurance (B) xfr lgu’khyrk
(C) Agility (C) Qw r hZ
(D) Speed (D) xfr

62. Fatigue comes during training due to – 62. izf’k{k.k ds nkSjku Fkdku ds dkj.k gSa%&
(A) Lactic acid (B) Adrenal (A) yS fDVd vEy (B) xq nsZ laca/ kh
(C) CO 2 (D) PH factor. (C) dkcZ u Mk;vkW D lkbZ M (D) ih-,p- ?kVd

63. How many Numbers of Trained solder Table Cord 63. VsªuaM lksYtj Vscy dkWMZ fdrus izdkj ds gS%a &
are there- (A) 5 (B) 7
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
(C) 8 (D) 9

64. MR claim can be preferred in how many days from 64. mipkj dh lekfIr ls fdrus fnuksa es a fpfdRlk
the completion of treatment? izfriwfrZ nkok dks ojh;rk nh tkrh gS\
(A) 01 month (B) 03 months (A) 01 eghuk (B) 03 eghus
(C) 45 days (D) None of the above (C) 45 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

65. As per latest orders the Firefighting practice in duty 65. uohure izko/kkuksa ds vuqlkj Qk;j QkbfVax ikVhZ
Bn be carried out once in? dk vH;kl fM;wV h CkVkfy;u esa fdrus fnuksa ij
(A) 07 Days (B) Monthly gks u h pkfg,\
(C) 15 Days (D) None the above (A) 07 fnu (B) ekfld
(C) 15 fnu (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

66. Ecology deals with 66. ifjfLFkfrdh lac) gS %&


(A) Birds (A) i{kh
(B) Cell formation (B) dksf ’kdk xBu
(C) Relation between organisms and their (C) thoksa vkSj okrkoj.k ds chp laca/k
environment (D) mRrdks a
(D) Tissues

1550 10 SET-D
67. How many total firing practs (including day & night) 67. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa VªUs M lksYtj ds fy, 9 ,e-,e-
are there in ARCF for trained soldier firing from dkjckbZ u ls dq y ¼jkr&fnu feykdj½ Qk;fja x
9MM Carbine? izSfDVl j[kh x;h gS %&
(A) 08 (B) 07 (A) 08 (B) 0 7
(C) 06 (D) 05 (C) 06 (D) 05

68. How many types of sights are being used in X-95 68. X-95 jkbQy esa fdrus izdkj dh lkbZVl bLrseky
rifle? dh tkrh gS?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 5 (C) 2 (D) 5

69. After how many paces hand will come down in the 69. Ckk, ;k nkfgus ds lY;wV esa fdrus dne ds ckn
Salute of Left or Right? gkFk uhps vk,axs \
(A) 4 (B) 6 (A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7 (C) 5 (D) 7

70. The ozone layer restricts 70. vkstksu ijr D;k lhafer djrh gSa %&
(A) Visible light (A) n` ’; iz d k’k
(B) Infrared radiation (B) vojDr fofdj.k
(C) X-rays and gamma rays (C) ,Dl&js vkSj xkek fdj.kksa
(D) Ultraviolet radiation (D) ijkcS ax uh fofdj.k

71. Filaria is caused by 71. Qkbysfj;k fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS %&


(A) Bacteria (B) Mosquito (A) cS f DVª ; k (B) ePNj
(C) Protozoa (D) Virus (C) iz k s V ks t ks v k (D) okbjl

72. Newly raised CRPF Mahila Bn inducted in LWE 72. dsfjiqcy esa ,aVh uDly v‚ijs’ku ds fy, okeiaFkh
Area for Anti Naxal operation. mxzokn {ks= esa ,d ubZ efgyk cVkfy;u dks ‘kkfey
(A) 88 (B) 135 fd;k gS]a og gS&
(C) 232 (D) 233 (A) 88 cVkfy;u (B) 135 cVkfy;u
(C) 232 cVkfy;u (D) 233 cVkfy;u

73. Which CRPF Training Institution awarded with 73. ds f jiq c y ds fdl çf’k{k.k dsU nz ftls loks Z R re
Home minister Cup for best Training Centre for jax:V çf’k{k.k ds fy, x`g ea=h di }kjk lEekfur
recruits. fd;k x;k gS&
(A) RTC Neemach (B) RTC Rajgir (A) vkjVhlh uhep (B) vkjVhlh jktxhj
(C) RTC Amethi (D) CIAT Silchar (C) vkjVhlh vesB h (D) lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- flypj

74. Latest CIAT School of CRPF established at which 74. ds f jiq c y es a uohure lh-vkbZ - ,-Vh- Ldw y fdl
place. txg LFkkfir fd;k x;k gS\
(A) Latur (B) Chittoor (A) ykrw j (B) fpÙkw j
(C) Belgam (D) Bijapur (C) csy xkW a o (D) chtkiq j

1550 11 SET-D
75. Which Central Team of CRPF won the Gold medal 75. dsfjiqcy ds bfrgkl esa dsfjiqcy ds fdl dsaæh;
in AIPDM-2016 for the first time in the history of [ksy ny us igyh ckj ,-vkbZ-ih-Mh-,e-&2016 esa
CRPF? Lo.kZ ind thrk gS\
(A) Volleyball (B) Basketball (A) okW y hckW y (B) ckLds V c‚y
(C) Hockey (D) Rowing (C) g‚dh (D) jks b a x A

76. 7th National Conference of Women in Police was 76. 7 oha jk”Vªh; efgyk iqf yl lEesyu dsfjiqcy esa
organized the first time in CRPF, the venue was :- izFke ckj fdl LFky ij vk;ksftr fd;k x;k Fkk\
(A) ISA M/Abu (A) vkaalqv- ekmaV vkcw
(B) Vigyan Bhawan Delhi (B) foKku Hkou fnYyh
(C) CRPF Dte. General, New Delhi (C) ds f jiq c y egkfuns ’ kky;
(D) CRPF Academy Kadarpur (D) dsf jiq cy vdkneh dknjiq j

77. Name of CRPF Commandant who is martyred 77. lhvkjih,Q dekaMsaV tks 15 vxLr 2016 Jhuxj
on 15 Aug’2016 in Srinagar? esa ‘kghn gqvk dk uke gS A
(A) Pravin Kumar (A) iz o h.k dq ekj
(B) Pramod Kumar (B) izeksn dq ekj
(C) Pravesh Chand (C) izos’k pan
(D) Piyush Chand (D) ih;w”k pan

78. Which of the following activities measures dynamic 78. xfr’khy ‘kfä dk izeq[k ekin.M gSa%&
strength – (A) [kM+k dwnuk
(A) Vertical jump (B) NksVh nkS M+
(B) Short distance run (C) QkjoMZ jksYk
(C) Forward roll (D) jLlk Pk<+uk
(D) Rope climbing

79. What does BMI measures – 79. BMI dk ekin.M gSa%&


(A) Flexibility (B) Muscles weight (A) yphykiu (B) ekal is’ kh otu
(C) Body fat (D) Strength (C) ’kkjhfjd olk (D) etcw r h

80. Which Standing order is applicable for Annual 80. ds0fj0iq0cy esa okf”kZd pkWanekjh oxhZdj.k Qk;fjax
Range classification firing instructions in CRPF? ls lacaf/kr fn’kk&funsZ’k fdl LFkkbZ vkns’k esa gS \
(A) S O- 06/2008 (A) LFkkbZ vk0 06@2008
(B) S O- 09/2011 (B) LFkkbZ vk0 09@2011
(C) S O- 10/2012 (C) LFkkbZ vk0 10@2012
(D) S O- 01/201 (D) LFkkbZ vk0 01@2016

81. Mistake occurred because of Trigger operation 81. fVªxj vkWijs’ku ls gksus okyh xyrh dgykrh gS \
is called? (A) fQ~ y ap (B) tdZ
(A) Flinch (B) Jerk (C) c d (D) mi;qDr lHkh
(C) Buck (D) All of these

1550 12 SET-D
82. CRPF sponsored two players of J&K got 82. dsf jiq c y us tEew& d’ehj ds 02 f[kykfM+; ksa dks
opportunity to play which game at the International varjjk”Vªh; Lrj ij fdl [ksy esa ekSdk ,oa çk;ksftr
level fd;k x;k \
(A) Badminton (B) Football (A) cS M feaV u (B) Qq V c‚y
(C) Cricket (D) Boxing (C) fØds V (D) eq D ds c kth

83. Which exercise is beneficial to rectify the mistake 83. Qk;jj }kjk lkbV ,ykbuesUV dh xyrh dks nwj
of sight alignment by a firer? djus ds fy, dkSu lh ,DljlkbZt dh t:jr gS \
(A) Aiming box exercise (A) ,feax ckW D l ,DljlkbZ t
(B) Aiming corrector exercise (B) ,feax djsD Vj ,DljlkbZ t
(C) Breathing control exercise (C) fcz f nax dUVªk sy ,DljlkbZ t
(D) Tin disc exercise (D) Vhu fMLd ,DljlkbZt

84. Which drill is adopted by CRPF on firing range? 84. ds- fj-iq- cy }kjk Qk;fjax jsast ij dkS u lh fMªy
(A) Company drill (B) Discipline drill viukbZ tkrh gS \
(C) A to G drill (D) Fire arm safety drill (A) dEiuh fMªy (B) vuq ’kklu fMªy
(C) A ls G fMªy (D) Qk;j vkeZ lqj{kk fMªy

85. When to zero the weapon? 85. oSiu dks thjks dc fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) When the weapon newly issued (A) tc u;k oSiu tkjh fd;k tkrk gS
(B) After handing/taking over of weapon on (B) VªkalQj ij oSiu dks nsus o ysus ds ckn
transfer (C) izeq[k ejEer ds ckn
(C) After major repair (D) mi;q Z D r lHkh
(D) All of these

86. How many type of grenades are being fired by 86. UBGL ds }kjk fdrus izdkj ds xzsuMs Qk;j fd;s
UBGL tkrs gS\
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 7 (C) 4 (D) 7

87. Coral reefs in India can be found in 87. Hkkjr esa ewaxs dh pV~Vkusa dgak ik;h tk ldrh gSa %&
(A) the coast of Orissa (A) vksfMlk ds rV
(B) Waltair (B) okYVs ; j
(C) Rameshwaram (C) jkes’ oje~
(D) Trivandrum (D) f=os U nz e

88. Film and TV Institute of India is located at 88. Hkkjrh; fQYe o Vsy hfotu laLFkku dga k fLFkr
(A) Pune (Maharashtra) gS % &
(B) Rajkot (Gujarat) (A) iq .ks ¼egkjk”Vª½
(C) Pimpri (Maharashtra) (B) jktdksV ¼xq t jkr½
(D) Perambur (Tamilnadu) (C) ihai jh ¼egkjk”Vª ½
(D) isj kEcwj ¼rfeyukMq ½

1550 13 SET-D
89. Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to 89. fdldks gVkus ds fy, m|ks x ks a es a xq : Rokd”kZ . k
remove psEcj dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \
(A) SO2 (A) lYQj MkbvkDlkbZ M
(B) NO 2 (B) ukbVª k st u MkbvkDlkbZ M
(C) Suspended particulate matter (C) fuyafcr d.k ekeyksa esa
(D) CO 2 (D) dkcZ u MkbvkDlkbZ M

90. What is scoring pattern prescribed in ARCF for 90. okf”kZd pkanekjh esa bUlkl jkbQy Qk;fjax ds fy,
trained soldier firing with INSAS Rifle? fu/kZkfjr vkadyu esa] izkIrkdksa dk dkSu lk fofoj.k
(A) Marksman-74,1stClass-60 & Std Shot-46 lgh gS \
(B) Marksman-86,1stClass-72 & Std Shot-58. (A) ekDZ leS u&74]QLV Dykl&60 rFkk LVS .MZ M
(C) Marksman-98,1stClass-79 & Std Shot-65. ‘kkW V &46
(D) Marksman-106,1stClass-87 & Std Shot-73. (B) ekDZ leS u&86]QLV Dykl&72 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &58
(C) ekDZ leSu&98] QLV Dykl&79 rFkk LVS .MZM
‘kkW V &65
(D) ekDZ leS u&106]QLV Dykl&87 rFkk LVS .MZ M
‘kkW V &73

91. What is the life of peak cap for SOs? 91. vf/kuLFk vf/kdkjh ds fy, ih&dS i dk ykbZ Q
(A) 06 years (B) 02 years fdruk gS\
(C) 03 years (D) 04 years ¼A½ 06 o”kZ ¼B½ 02 o”kZ
¼C½ 03 o”kZ ¼D½ 04 o”kZ

92. DA is admissible for absence from HQ for not less 92. vU; M~;fw V ds fy, de&ls de fuEufyf[kr le;
than ds fy, eq[;ky; ls vuqifLFkr jgus gsrq nSfud
(A) 6 hrs (B) 9 hrs HkRrk ns; gksxk A
(C) 8 hrs (D) 10 hrs (A) 6 ?kaVs (B) 9 ?kaVs
(C) 8 ?kaVs (D) 10 ?kaVs

93. Within what distance no person is allowed to do 93. fdruh nwjh ij ernku dsUnz ds Hkhrj vkSj pkjksa vksj
any canvassing in and around the polling station fdlh ny fo”ks ’ k ds i{k es a leFkZ u eka x us dh
(A) 200 Yards (B) 100 Yards vuqefr ugha nh tkrh gS \
(C) 150 Yards (D) 250 Yards (A) 200 xt (B) 100 xt
(C) 150 xt (D) 250 xt

94. Response time of RAF to Law and Order situation 94. fdlh LFkku ij dkuwu ,oa O;oLFkk dh leL;k gsrq
within the same station when it is on call, is vkj0,0,Q0 }kjk dkjZokbZ djus dk le;]tc bls
(A) 30 minutes for move of all Coys. cqyk;k tkrk gS \
(B) 45 minutes for move of all Coys. (A) lHkh dEiuh dk 30 feuV esa lapkyu
(C) 60 minute for move of all Coys. (B) lHkh dEiuh dk 45 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) 15 minutes of move of all Coys. (C) lHkh dEiuh dk 60 feuV esa lapkyu
(D) lHkh dEiuh dk 15 feuV esa lapkyu

1550 14 SET-D
95. Vehicle to Vehicle distance in convoy movement 95. dkfQyk lapkyu esa okgu dh okgu ls nwjh igkM+h
should be ……….. Meter in hilly and ……… {ks = es a ------------------- vkS j lery {ks= esa ----------
meter in plain area. gksu h pkfg,A
(A) 20 to 30 meter, 300 to 500 meter (A) 20 ls 30 ehVj] 300 ls 500 ehVj
(B) 50 to 100 meter, 100 to 200 meter (B) 50 ls 100 ehVj] 100 ls 200 ehVj
(C) 500 to 01 Km, 01 Km to 02 Km (C) 500 ls 01 fdeh0] 01 fdeh0 ls 02 fdeh0
(D) 01 to 02 Km, 04 Km to 05 Km. (D) 01 ls 02 fdeh0] 04 fdeh0 ls 05 fdeh0

96. Which state government has recently declared 50% 96. gky gh esa fdl jkT; ljdkj us U;kf;d lsok esa
reservation in judicial services for OBCs, SCs, STs vU; fiNM+k oxZ] vuqlwfpr tkfr] vuqlwfpr tu
and EBCs? tkfr rFkk vkfFkZd :i ls fiNM+s oxZ ds fy, 50%
(A) Odisha (B) Madhya Pradesh vkj{k.k ykxw fd;k gS %&
(C) Bihar (D) Assam (A) vks f M’kk (B) e/; iz ns’k
(C) fcgkj (D) vle

97. Garampani sanctuary is located at 97. xjeikuh vHk;kj.; dgak fLFkr gS %&
(A) Junagarh, Gujarat (A) tqukx<+ ¼xq tjkr½
(B) Diphu, Assam (B) nhQw ¼vle½
(C) Kohima, Nagaland (C) dksf gek ¼ukxkyS aM ½
(D) Gangtok, Sikkim (D) xax Vksd ¼flfDde½

98. When is Kit classification carried out? 98. fdV DykflfQds’ku dc fd;k tkrk gS\
(A) At the time of pension ¼A½ isU’ku tkus ij
(B) At the time of tfr ¼B½ LFkkukUrj.k tkus ij
(C) Loss of any item ¼C½ O;fDrxr fdV ystj xqe gksus ij
(D) None of them ¼D½ buesa ls dksbZ ughA

99. For Dog Squad, how many weeks of trg are there 99. Mk~Wx LDokM ds fy, Mk~Wx ,ao gSaMyj dk izf’k{k.k
for Dog and its handler fdrus LkIrkg dk gSA
(A) 24 (B) 36 (A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 46 (C) 40 (D) 46

100. What is the area of jurisdiction of RAF unit? 100. vkj0,0,Q cVk0 dk dk;Z {kS= fdruk gS\
(A) 250 Km (B) 350 Km ¼A½ 250 fd eh (B) 350 fd eh
(C) 300 Km (D) 325 Km (C) 300 fd eh (D) 325 fd eh

1550 15 SET-D
PART-III
NUMERICAL ABILITY

101. What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 101. 549160 esa ls og NksVh lh NksVh dkSu lh la[;k
549160 in order to make a perfect square? ?kVk;h tk, rkfd og iw.kZ oxZ cu tk;s%
(A) 79 (B) 81 (A) 79 (B) 81
(C) 80 (D) 1 (C) 80 (D) 1

102. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 102. ik¡p yxkrkj le la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 26 gS] rks muesa
26. Find the smallest of them? ls lcls NksVh la[;k Kkr djsaA
(A) 20 (B) 22 (A) 20 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 28 (C) 24 (D) 28

103. The average of 11 numbers is 60. If the average of 103. 11 la[;kvksa dk vkSlr 60 gSA ;fn izFke 6 dk
first six numbers is 58 and that of last six is 63, find vkSlr 58 rFkk vfUre 6 dk vkSlr 63 gks rks] NBh
the sixth number : la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 60 (B) 66 (A) 60 (B) 66
(C) 72 (D) 78 (C) 72 (D) 78

104. The average age of 36 persons in a group is 14 104. fdlh lewg ds 36 yksxksa dk vkSlr vk;q 14 o’kZ gS
years. When an extra person’s age is included to it, lewg esa ,d vfrfjDr vkneh vkus ds ckn vkSlr 1
the average increases by one. What is the extra ls c<+ tkrh gSA rks mls vfrfjDr vkneh dh vk;q
person’s age in years? o’kZ esa D;k gS\
(A) 41 (B) 47 (A) 41 (B) 47
(C) 49 (D) 51 (C) 49 (D) 51

105. A driver travels to a place 150 km away at an 105. ,d pkyd 150 fdeh dh nwjh 50 fdeh@?kaVk dh
average speed of 50 km/hr and return at vkSlr pky ls rS; djrk gS rFkk 30 fdeh@?kaVk dh
30 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey vkSlr pky ls og okil vk tkrk gsA rks mlds
in km/hr is : lEiw.kZ ;k=k dh vkSlr pky fudkys%
(A) 33.5 km/hr (B) 37.5 km/hr (A) 33-5 fdeh@?kaVk (B) 37-5 fdeh@?kaVk
(C) 35 km/hr (D) 37 km/hr (C) 35 fdeh@?kaVk (D) 37 fdeh@?kaVk

106. 50 is divided into two parts such that the sum of 106. 50 dks nks Hkkxksa esa bl izdkj ck¡Vk tkrk gS fd mlds
1 1
their reciprocals is , find largest part? O;qRØe dk ;ksxQy gS] rks cM+k Hkkx crkos\
8 8
(A) 10 (B) 20 (A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

107. Present ages of Mohan and Sohan are in the ratio 107. eksgu rFkk lksgu dh oÙkZeku vk;q dk vuqikr
of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of 5 % 4 gSA rhu o’kZ ds ckn muds vk;q dk vuqikr
their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is 11 % 9 gks tk,xkA rks eksgu dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k
Mohan’s present age in years ? gS\
(A) 30 (B) 24 (A) 30 (B) 24
(C) 27 (D) 40 (C) 27 (D) 40

1550 16 SET-D
108. Sushil’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 108. 15 o’kZ okn lq”khy dh vk;q mlds 5 o’kZ igys dh
5 years back. What is the present age of Sushil? vk;q dh 5 xq.kk gks tk,xh lq”khy dh oÙkZeku vk;q
(A) 15 (B) 20 D;k gS\
(C) 10 (D) 25 (A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 10 (D) 25

109. The Sum of ages of a father and his son is 45 years. 109. firk rFkk iq= dh vk;q dk ;ksxQy dk 45 o’kZ gS]
Five years ago, the product of their ages was 34. 5 o’kZ igys nksuksa ds vk;q dk xq.kuQy 34 gS rks iq=
The age of the son is : dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 6 years (B) 7 years (A) 6 o’kZ (B) 7 o’kZ
(C) 8 years (D) 9 years (C) 8 o’kZ (D) 9 o’kZ

110. In 10 years, x will be twice as old as y was 10 110. 10 o’kksZ esa x dh vk;q y ds 10 o’kZ ds igys dh vk;’q
years ago. If x is now 9 years older than y the dh nwxquk gks tk,xh] ;fn oÙkZeku esa x, y ls 9 o’kZ
present age of y is : cM+k gS rks y dk oÙkZeku vk;q D;k gS\
(A) 39 years (B) 29 years (A) 39 o’kZ (B) 29 o’kZ
(C) 19 years (D) 21 years (C) 19 o’kZ (D) 21 o’kZ

3 6 6
6 3
111. What is the value of : 6
3 7 111. 7 dk eku D;k gS\
6 X 6 6 X 6
3

1 1
(A) 6 (B) (A) 6 (B)
6 6
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 1 (D) 0

3X(81) 4 3X(81) 4
112. If n 5 =27, then n =? 112. ;fn n 5 =27, gks rks n =?
9 X3 X(27) 3 9 X3 X(27) 3
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
3 2 3 2
1 1
(C) 0 (D) (C) 0 (D)
4 4
4
113. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than 113. fdlh la[;k dks 65 izfr”kr ml la[;k ds Hkkx
5
four-fifth of that number. What is the number?
ls 21 de gS] rks la[;k D;k gS\
(A) 120 (B) 160
(A) 120 (B) 160
(C) 140 (D) 180
(C) 140 (D) 180
114. 15% of 600 + 45 % of 280 = ?
114. 600 dk 15% $ 280 dk 45 % = ?
(A) 216 (B) 236
(A) 216 (B) 236
(C) 126 (D) 246
(C) 126 (D) 246

1550 17 SET-D
3 4 3 4
115. Raman reads of a book on one day and of 115. jeu 1 fnu esa Hkkx fdrkc i<+rk gS] “ks’k dk
8 5 8 5
the remainder on another day. If there are 30 pages Hkkx nwljs fnu i<+rk gS] ;fn vc 30 i`’B ugha i<+k
unread now., how many pages did the book gqvk cpk gS rks fdrkc esa dqy fdrus i`’B Fks%
contain ? (A) 200 (B) 240
(A) 200 (B) 240 (C) 80 (D) 120
(C) 80 (D) 120

116. A seller purchased a washing machine for 116. ,d foØsrk ,d okf”kax e”khu dks :0 7]660 esa
Rs. 7, 660. After allowing a discount of 12% on its [kjhnrk gSA mlds vafdr ewY; ij 12% NwV nsus ds
marked price, he still gains 10% . Find the marked ckn Hkh 10% ykHk dekrk gSA rks e”khu dk vafdr
price of washing machine : ewY; D;k gS\
(A) Rs. 9575 (B) Rs. 9675 (A) 9575 :0 (B) 9675 :0
(C) Rs. 8246 (D) Rs. 9755 (C) 8246 :0 (D) 9755 :0

117. A man purchared an article and sold it to be B at a 117. A vkneh ,d oLrq [kjhn dj 25% ykHk ij B dks csp
profit of 25% and B sold it to C at a loss of 10% nsrk gS] B, C dks 10% gkfu ij csp nsrk gS] C dks
and C paid Rs. 675 for it. For how much did A blds fy, 675 :i;k nsuk iM+rk gSA rks crk;sa fd A
purchase it : bls fdrus esa [kjhnk Fkk\
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 550 (A) 500 :0 (B) 550 :0
(C) Rs. 600 (D) Rs. 650 (C) 600 :0 (D) 650 :0

118. Two trains start from a certain place on two 118. nks Vsªu lekukUrj VSªd ij ,d gh fn”kk esa ,d gh
parallel tracks in the same direction. The speed of fcUnq ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gSA Vsªu dh xfr 45
the trains are 45 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. fdeh@?kaVk rFkk 40 fdeh@?kaVk Øe”k% gSA rks 45
The distance between two trains after 45 minutes feuV ds ckn nksuksa jsyxkM+h dh chp dh nwjh D;k
will be : gksxh\
(A) 3 km 750 m (B) 3 km 550 m (A) 3 fdeh 750 eh (B) 3 fdeh 550 eh
(C) 2 km 750 m (D) 2 km 550 m (C) 2 fdeh 750 eh (D) 2 fdeh 550 eh

1 3 1 1 3 1
119. If x  =3, the value of x  3 is : 119. ;fn x  =3, gks rks] x  dk eku gS%
x x x x3
(A) 30 (B) 36 (A) 30 (B) 36
(C) 34 (D) 40 (C) 34 (D) 40

120. The area of equilateral triangle is 4 3 square metre. 120. leckgq f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy 4 3 oxZehVj gS] rks
Its perimeter is : bldk ifjeki gS%
(A) 14 metre (A) 14 ehVj
(B) 12 metre (B) 12 ehVj
(C) 6 3 metre (C) 6 3 ehVj
(D) 12 3 metre (D) 12 3 ehVj

1550 18 SET-D
121. The unit digit in the product 121. (284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ds xq.kuQy dk bZdkbZ
(284 x 618 x 717 x 563) ? vad gS%
(A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5 (C) 4 (D) 5

122. What is the unit dight of (795-358) x 511 ? 122. (795-358) x 511 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 0 (B) 4 (A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7 (C) 6 (D) 7

123. What is the unit digit of (2157) 754? 123. (2157) 754 dk bZdkbZ vad D;k gksxk\
(A) 3 (B) 6 (A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 9 (C) 7 (D) 9

124. If (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, then x = ? 124. ;fn (64)2-(36)2 = 10 X x, gks rks] x = ?


(A) 140 (B) 240 (A) 140 (B) 240
(C) 360 (D) 280 (C) 360 (D) 280

125. If the product 4864 X 9 x 2 is divisible by 12, the 125. ;fn 4864 X 9 x 2 dk xq.kuQy 12 ls foHkkftr gks]
value of x is : rks x dk eku gS%
(A) 2 (B) 1 (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

126. If x and y are odd numbers, then which of the 126. ;fn x rFkk y fo’ke la[;k,¡ gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa
following is even? dkSu le gS\
(A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1 (A) x + y +1 (B) xy + 1
(C) xy +2 (D) xy (C) xy +2 (D) xy

127. The largest 5-digit number exactly divisible by 91 127. ik¡p vadks dh lcls cM+h la[;k tks dh 91 ls iw.kZr%
is: foHkkftr gks %
(A) 99981 (B) 99999 (A) 99981 (B) 99999
(C) 99918 (D) 99971 (C) 99918 (D) 99971

128. What least number must be subtracted from 13602, 128. 13602 esa ls og lcls NksVh la[;k dkSu&lh ?kVk;h
so that the remainder is divisible by 87? tk; fd “ks’kQy 87 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks tk;\
(A) 29 (B) 31 (A) 29 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 37 (C) 30 (D) 37

129. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ? 129. (42 + 62 + 82 + ......... + 202) = ?


(A) 1536 (B) 1540 (A) 1536 (B) 1540
(C) 1150 (D) 1140 (C) 1150 (D) 1140

130. How many natural numbers are there between 17 130. 17 rFkk 100 ds chp dqy fdrus izkÑr la[;k gS tks
and 100 which are exactly divisible by 6 ? fd 6 ls iw.kZr% foHkkftr gks \
(A) 12 (B) 13 (A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15 (C) 14 (D) 15

1550 19 SET-D
131. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. 131. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 3 % 4 gS] ;fn mudk e0 l0
is 8, their L.C.M. is : 8 gS rks mudk y0 l0 D;k gksxk\
(A) 96 (B) 108 (A) 96 (B) 108
(C) 48 (D) 64 (C) 48 (D) 64

4 3 4 9 4 3 4 9
132. The L.C.M. of , , , is : 132. , , rFkk dk y0 l0 gS %
3 5 7 13 3 5 7 13
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (A) (B)
36 1365 36 1365
12 12
(C) 36 (D) (C) 36 (D)
448 448

133. 0.517  0.00517 = ? 133. 0.517  0.00517 = ?


(A) 1 (B) 10 (A) 1 (B) 10
(C) 100 (D) None of these (C) 100 (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

1 1
134. is equal to : 134. dk eku gS%
0.02 0.02
(A) 100 (B) 50 (A) 100 (B) 50
2 1 2 1
(C) (D) (C) (D)
50 20 50 20

0.009 0.009
135. If = 0.001, then x = ? 135. ;fn = 0.001, gks rks x = ?
x x
(A) 90 (B) 9 (A) 90 (B) 9
1 1
(C) 0.9 (D) (C) 0.9 (D)
90 90

136. The value of 0.47 is : 136. 0.47 dk eku cjkcj gS %

47 47 47 47
(A) (B) (A) (B)
10 99 10 99
43 47 43 47
(C) (D) (C) (D)
90 9 90 9

ba ba
137. If 1.5 a = 0.04 b, then value of   is : 137. ;fn 1.5 a = 0.04 b, gks] rks   dk eku gS%
ba ba
73 7 .3 73 7 .3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
77 77 77 77
730 7.3 730 7 .3
(C) (D) (C) (D)
77 777 77 777

1550 20 SET-D
(0.6) 4  (0.5) 4 (0.6) 4  (0.5) 4
138.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
is equal to : 138.
(0.6) 2  (0.5) 2
dk eku cjkcj gS %
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.11 (A) 0.1 (B) 0.11
(C) 1.1 (D) 11 (C) 1.1 (D) 11

P 6 P2  Q2 P 6 P2  Q2

139. If Q 5 , find the value of 2 : 
139. ;fn Q 5 ] gks rks 2 dk eku fudkys %
P  Q2 P  Q2
51 61 51 61
(A) (B) (A) (B)
11 11 11 11
49 49
(C) (D) 8 (C) (D) 8
11 11

2a 2a
140. If =1, then find the value of a ? 140. ;fn =1] gks rks a dk eku fudkys\
1 1
1 1
a a
1 1
1 a 1 a
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (A) (B)
2 4 2 4
2 2
(C) (D) 0 (C) (D) 0
3 3

P P 3 P P 3
141. If  =1, then find the value of P? 141. ;fn  =1] gks rks] P dk eku fudkys\a
4 6 4 6
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 0 (C) 6 (D) 0

1 1 1 1 1 1
142. If   =4, then a = ? 142. ;fn   =4] gks rks a = ?
3 2 a 3 2 a
5 6 5 6
(A) (B) (A) (B)
18 19 18 19
18 24 18 24
(C) (D) (C) (D)
5 11 5 11

a 4  4 2b  a  a 4  4 2b  a 
143. If  , then value of    is : 143. ;fn  , gks rks    dk eku gS%
b 5  7 2b  a  b 5  7 2b  a 
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 1 (A) 1 (B) 1
7 7
3 3
(C) 2 (D) (C) 2 (D)
7 7

1550 21 SET-D
a a a a
144. If  =4, then find the value of a ? 144. ;fn  =4, gks rks a dk eku fudkys \
5 6 5 6
(A) 120 (B) 100 (A) 120 (B) 100
5 2 5 2
(C) (D) (C) (D)
6 3 6 3

1 1
145. of a tanker holds 135 litres of water. What part 145. VSadj ds Hkkx esa 135 yhVj ikuh jgrk gSA ;fn
4 4
of tanker is full if it cantains 300 litres of water? VSadj esa 300 yhVj ikuh Hkjk tk; rks VSadj dk
5 1
fdruk Hkkx Hkjsxk\
(A) (B) 5 1
9 2
(A) (B)
9 2
2 9
(C) (D) 2 9
3 5
(C) (D)
3 5

146. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they lost. 146. ,d fØdsV Vhe thrrk eSp gkjrk gs mlls 3 eSp
If a win gives them 2 points and loss (-1) point, T;knk thrrk gS] ;fn thrus ij mls 2 vad rFkk
how many matches, in all, have they played if their gkjus ij (-1) vad feyrk gS] rks crk;sa fd 25 vad
score is 25? izkIr djus ds fy, mlus fdruk eSp [ksyk gksxk\
(A) 19 (B) 41 (A) 19 (B) 41
(C) 20 (D) 42 (C) 20 (D) 42

147. If a = 1+ 2 and b= 1- 2 , find the value of 147. ;fn a = 1+ 2 rFkk b= 1- 2 , gks rks (a +b ) dk
2 2

(a2+b2) : eku fudkys %


(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6 (C) 5 (D) 6

148. If x =5, then what is the value of 10 x x3  x 2 148. ;fn x =5] gks rks] 10 x x3  x 2 dk eku D;k gS\

(A) 250 (B) 200 5 (A) 250 (B) 200 5


(C) 100 5 (D) 500 (C) 100 5 (D) 500

0.0196 0.0196
149. If = 0.2, then x = ? 149. ;fn = 0.2, gks] rks] x = ?
x x
(A) 0.49 (B) 4.9 (A) 0.49 (B) 4.9
(C) 0.049 (D) 0.07 (C) 0.049 (D) 0.07

150. If 3x = 3y = 3z and x + y + z = 27 29 , then 150. ;fn 3x = 3y = 3z rFkk x + y + z = 27 29 gks rks]

x 2  y 2  z 2 is : x2  y 2  z2 ?
(A) 87 (B) 84 (A) 87 (B) 84
(C) 2 29 (D) 4 29 (C) 2 29 (D) 4 29

1550 22 SET-D
PART-IV
HINDI

funsZ”k ¼151 ls 156½ % uhps fn, x, izR;sd iz”u esa dkys funsZ”k ¼157 ls 161½ % uhps dqN yksdksfDr;k¡ nh xbZ gSaA
Nis “kCn ds pkj lEHkkfor rkRi;Z fn, x, gSaA lgh izR;sd yksdksfDr esa tks mi;qDr “kCn NwV x;k gS]
fodYi pqfu,A mlds fjDr LFkku ds fy, p;u dhft,%

157. dj---------------------- rks gks Hkyk


151. yS k fdd
(A) lsok (B) Hkyk
(A) idM+ fy;k x;k
(C) cyk (D) cqjk
(B) ykSdh ls cuk
(C) ,d leku fn[kus okyk
158. Hkxoku ds ?kj ---------------------gS] va/kjs ugha
(D) tks bl yksd dh ckr gks
(A) nhid (B) izlkn
(C) nsj (D) ewfrZ
152. Ñik
(A) nq%[k esa lgkuqHkfr
159. ------------------- ds va/ks dks gjk gh gjk utj vkrk gS
(B) nhu O;fDr dh lgk;rk
(A) cpiu (B) lkou
(C) iSls ls enn
(C) ckr (D) vk¡[k
(D) fdlh ds fy, dksbZ dk;Z djuk

160. cUnj D;k tkus -------------- dk Lokn


153. la d ks p
(A) feBkbZ (B) vnjd
(A) fdlh dk;Z dks djus esa “keZ
(C) I;kt (D) thjs
(B) vuqfpr dk;Z djus esa fgpfdpkgV
(C) cqjs deksZ ij nq%[k
161. va/kksa esa ------------------------------------- jktk
(D) vkRefo”okl dk u gksuk
(A) yaxM+k (B) ywyk
(C) dkuk (D) igyoku
154. fujis { k
(A) ftls dqN Hkh Kku u gks
(B) tks fdlh dh lqurk u gks
funsZ”k ¼162 ls 166½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn,
(C) ftldk dksbZ i{k u gks
x, “kCn ds lekukFkhZ “kCn dk p;u mlds uhps fn,
(D) ftldks fdlh ckr dh dkeuk u gks
x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,%

162. ifjos”k
155. vi<+
(A) O;ogkj (B) vk¡xu
(A) tks i<+us ;ksX; u gks
(C) okrkoj.k (D) vkpj.k
(B) tks i<+k u x;k gks
(C) ftldk i<+uk euk gks
163. Nksg
(D) tks i<+k&fy[kk u gks
(A) fojkx (B) fojg
(C) eerk (D) Nwuk
156. “kL=
(A) tks gfFk;kj nwj ls Qad
s k tk,
164. uSlfxZd
(B) ftl gfFk;kj dks gkFk esa ysdj yM+k tk,
(A) izkÑfrd (B) dfYir
(C) tks gfFk;kj vpwd gks
(C) Ñf=e (D) iqjkru
(D) tks gfFk;kj ea= i<+dj iz;ksx esa fy;k tk,
1550 23 SET-D
165. O;Fkk 173. dud&dud rs lkSxquh ekndrk vf/kdk;A
(A) {kksHk (B) ihM+k ;g [kk, ckSjkb uj] ok ik, ckSjk,AA
(C) d’V (D) nq%[k (A) rqylhnkl (B) fcgkjh
(C) ds”konkl (D) fo;ksxh gfj
166. ifjey
(A) lq[k (B) loksZÙke xU/k 174. esjh Hko&ok/kk gjkS jk/kk&ukxfj lksbZA
(C) foenZu (D) lgokl tk ru dh >kbZ ijS L;ke gfjr&nqfr gksbZAA
(A) Xoky (B) ds”konkl
funsZ”k ¼167 ls 171½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa fn, (C) jl[kku (D) fcgkjh yky
x, “kCn esa iz;qDr lfU/k ds izdkj dk p;u mlds
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dhft,% 175. izHkqth rqe panu ge ikuhA
tkdh vax&vax ckl lekuhAA
167. uk;d (A) jSnkl (B) eywdnkl
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) xq.k lfU/k (C) xq:ukud (D) dchjnkl
(C) o`f) lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k
176. izxfrokn mi;ksfxrkokn dk nqljk uke gSA
168. Hkw’k.k (A) jkefoykl “kekZ
(A) folxZ lfU/k (B) ;.k lfU/k (B) ize
s pUn
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) v;kfn lfU/k (C) uUnnqykjs oktis;h
(D) lqfe=kuUnu iar
169. ;”kksnk
(A) Loj lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k 177. LFkk;h Hkkoksa dh la[;k dqy fdruh gS \
(C) folxZ lfU/k (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (A) ukS (B) nl
(C) X;kjg (D) ckjg
170. n;kuUn
(A) xq.k lfU/k (B) nh?kZ lfU/k 178. jl ds fdrus vax gksrs gSa\
(C) O;atu lfU/k (D) ;.k lfU/k (A) nks (B) pkj
(C) ik¡p (D) N%
171. uhjksx
(A) nh?kZ lfU/k (B) O;atu lfU/k 179. loZJ’s B jl fdls ekuk tkrk gS\
(C) xq.k lfU/k (D) folxZ lfU/k (A) jkSnz jl (B) J`axkj jl
(C) d:.k jl (D) ohj jl
funsZ”k ¼172 ls 176½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz”u esa nh
xbZ iafDr;ksa ds jpf;rk ds pkj lEHkfor uke fn, 180. dfo fcgkjh eq[;r% fdl jl ds dfo gSa\
x, gSA mi;qDr jpf;rk ds uke dk p;u dhft,% (A) d:.k (B) HkfDr
(C) J`axkj (D) ohj
172. lf[k os eq>ls dg dj tkrsA
(A) vKs; (B) eSfFkyh”kj.k xqIr 181. NUn dk loZizFke mYys[k dgk¡ feyrk gS\
(C) t;”kadj izlkn (D) gfjvkS/k (A) _Xosn (B) mifu’kn
(C) lkeosn (D) ;tqoZn
s

1550 24 SET-D
182. NUn eq[; :i ls fdrus izdkj ds gksrs gS\ 191. pkSjkgk
(A) nks (B) rhu (A) cgqczhfg (B) rRiq:’k
(C) pkj (D) N% (C) vO;;hHkko (D) f)xq

183. fdl NUn dk izFke o vfUre “kCn ,d&lk gksrk funsZ”k ¼192 ls 196½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd pkj fodYiksa
gS\ ls csesy ¼vlaxr½ “kCn dks fpafgRr dhft,A
(A) nksgk (B) jksyk
(C) lksjBk (D) dq.Mfy;k 192.
(A) “kkjhfjd (B) nSfgd
184. NIi; fdl izdkj dk NUn gSa\ (C) ekufld (D) vkf/k
(A) fo’ke (B) le
(C) v)Zle (D) ekf=d 193.
(A) pksV (B) t[e
185. nksgk fdl izdkj dk NUn gS\ (C) [kwu (D) ihM+k
(A) le~ (B) fo’ke
(C) v)Zle (D) bueas ls dksbZ ugha 194.
(A) izfr;ksfxrk (B) Hkkstu
186. fuEufyf[kr esa ekf=d le NUn dk dkSu&lk (C) f[kykM+h (D) nkSM+
mnkgj.k gS\
(A) nksgk (B) lksjBk 195.
(C) pkSikbZ (D) ;s lHkh (A) ;qorh (B) ckfydk
(C) nqfgrk (D) uo;qod
funsZ”k ¼187 ls 191½ % fuEufyf[kr izR;sd “kCn ds fy,
mlds uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls mi;qDr lekl 196.
N¡fV,% (A) jks’k (B) dksi
(C) ve’kZ (D) v”kksd
187. jkekuqt
(A) rRiq:’k (B) nU) funsZ”k ¼197 ls 200½ % fuEu esa ls ljy okD; dk p;u
(C) deZ/kkj; (D) cgqczhfg dhft,%

188. lifjokj 197.


(A) vO;;hHkko (B) rRiq:’k (A) mlus dgk fd dk;kZy; cUn gks x;kA
(C) f)xq (D) cgqczhfg (B) lqcg gqbZ vkSj og vk x;kA
(C) jkgqy /khjs&/khjs fy[krk gSA
189. jkr&fnu (D) tks cM+s gSa] mUgas lEeku nksA
(A) f)xq (B) rRiq:’k
(C) )U) (D) deZ/kkj;

190. ouokl
(A) vO;;hHkko (B) deZ/kkj;
(C) rRiq:’k (D) }U)
1550 25 SET-D
198. 200.
(A) og T;ksa gh vk,] esjs ikl Hkst nsukA (A) fo|k ls c<+dj dksbZ /ku ugha gSA
(B) fuf/k VkbZi djuk lh[k pqdh] vc og “kkVZ (B) ns”k esa fodkl dk;ksZ dh izxfr /kheh jgh gS
gS.M lh[k jgh gSA D;ksafd ljdkj ds ikl /ku ugha FkkA
(C) fot; dks cksyksa fd QkSju pyk vk,A (C) cM+ksa dks pkfg, fd cPpksa ds izfr vius O;ogkj
(D) ;FkklaHko ;g dk;Z “kke rd iwjk dj nks dks fu;af=r j[ksA
(D) ;fn lQyrk pkgrs gks rks ifjJe djuk gh
199. iMs+xk
(A) mldks bruh ftEesnkfj;k¡ er nks fd og mUgsa
fuHkk u ldsA
(B) mUgha yksxksa ls feyuk pkfg, ftuls ln~O;ogkj
dh f”k{kk feysA
(C) dksbZ ugha tkurk fd dy D;k gksxkA
(D) n;k ls c<+dj dksbZ Hkko ugha gSA
*************************************************************************************

1550 26 SET-D
PART-IV
ENGLISH
Direction (151-155) : In each of the questions, arrange Direction (156-160) : In the following questions, a
the jumbled letter or phrases to make a meaningful sentence/ part of sentence is printed underlined.
sentence : Below four alternatives are given to the underlined
part of the sentence as (A), (B) and (C) which may
151. P. each year improve the sentence. Choose the correct
Q. two to five adults alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your
R. get gold answer is (D):
S. on an average
(A) PSQR (B) PRSQ 156. The student’s interest was raised by an article he
(C) SRQP (D) RSQP had read :
(A) quickened (B) multiplied
152. P. can be dangerous (C) increased (D) no improvement
Q. the indiscriminate
R. without medical supervision 157. This telephone number is not existing:
S. and critical use of any drug (A) has not existed (B) has not been existing
(A) PQRS (B) PRQS (C) does not exist (D) no improvement
(C) QSRP (D) SPQR
158. The businessman is respectively connected :
153. P. destroyed careers (A) respectfully (B) respectably
Q. many (C) receptively (D) no improvement
R. has resulted in
S. drug addiction 159. I met him in the way :
(A) PQSR (B) PRQS (A) on the way (B) at the way
(C) during the way (D) no improvement
(C) SRQP (D) SPQR

160. The boy said that he has read the book :


154. P. by making swallowing difficutt (A) he has already read
Q. a sore throat (B) he had read
R. daily life (C) he has finished to read
S. interferes with (D) no improvement
(A) QSRP (B) QPRS
(C) PRQS (D) PQRS Direction (161-165) : Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the
155. P. America’s four alternatives :
Q. in 1961
R. war launched Passage
S. first manned aircrafts The advent of electric power was, in a way,
(A) PRQS (B) PQSR comparable to the successful development and
(C) QSRP (D) PSRQ application of nuclear power in 20th century. In fact,
the historical roots of electricity extend far back into
antiquity. Many men had a hand both in acquring
basic knowledge about the invisible form of power
1550 27 SET-D
and in developing the ways adopted for practical Direction (166-170) : In the following passage some of
purpose. One of the vital keys that helped to the words have been left out. After reading
unlock the doors leading to the production of carefully fill in the blanks with the help of given
electricity was the discovery, in 1831, of the alternatives :
principle of electromagnetic induction. This
discovery was made simultaneously by michael Passage
faraday in England and Joshef Henry in the United ‘CRY-child relief and you’ 196 an organization that
States. From it came the generator, sometimes also 197 started by seven such 198 and it has been
called dynamo but several decades of development working 199 1979 to change the lives of 200
had to follow before the first practical dynamos or children all over India.
generator came into existance in early 1870 :
166.
161. According to the author : (A) was (B) is
(A) Michael Faraday and Joseph Henry (C) are (D) being
revolutionized electricity in the USA
(B) Nuclear power and electricity were 167.
discovered in the 20th centery (A) has (B) being
(C) The discovery of the principle of (C) was (D) been
electromagnetic induction was not an
important discovery 168.
(D) The advent of electric power is equivalent to (A) friends (B) men
the application of nuclear power in 20th (C) people (D) individuals
century
169.
162. Michael Faraday and Josheph Henry discovered : (A) since (B) during
(A) the application of nuclear power (C) for (D) untill
(B) the genertor
(C) the dynamo 170.
(D) the principle of electromagnetic induction (A) underprivileged (B) privileged
(C) hopeless (D) denuded
163. Another word for ‘advent’ is .................. :
(A) discovery (B) arrival Direction (171-175 ) : Fill in the blanks with the
(C) invention (D) constitution appropriate word, choosing it from options given :

171. I found it difficult to cope ............. mathematics at


164. The generator was also known as the ........... :
the advanced level :
(A) inductor (B) dynamo (A) with (B) of
(C) inventor (D) conductor (C) for (D) up

165. Give a synonym for “antiquity”. 172. He was congratulated ..................... receiving his
(A) Ancient (B) Antipathy degree :
(C) Modern (D) Uniqueness (A) on (B) for
(C) by (D) of

1550 28 SET-D
173. Some people quarrel ............ very trivial matters : 180.
(A) over (B) in (A) Make a list of foods that contain
(C) for (D) by (B) harmful
(C) chemicals
174. “May I know to ...... I am speaking.” (D) No error
(A) whom (B) who
(C) how (D) where Direction (181-185) : In the following questions, choose
the word from four alternatives which is most nearly
175. Bear............... me as I explain the matter more fully:
opposite in meaning to the given word :
(A) in (B) of
(C) with (D) for
181. Spiritual
Direction (176 -180) : In each sentence below (A) Earthly (B) Superior
four words have been printed in separate parts (C) Material (D) Disccord
which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of
these parts may be mis spelt or an error in the 182. Harmony
context of the sentence the letter of that part is your (A) Agreement (B) Melody
answer. If there is no error, your answer is (D). i.e. (C) Confusion (D) Discord
No error.
183. Compulsion
176. (A) Constraint (B) Choice
(A) Collect newspaper and magazine having (C) Freedom (D) Spontaneity
articles on oil
(B) pullution and
184. Waste
(C) discuss them.
(A) Gain (B) Profit
(D) No error
(C) Nourish (D) Loss
177.
(A) We can demonstrate the 185. Successor
(B) phenomenon of evaporation and (A) Follower (B) Prodecessor
(C) condensation (C) Guide (D) Professor
(D) No error
Direction (186-190) : In the following questions. Out of
four alternatives, choose the one which best
178. expresses the meaning of the given word as your
(A) People dewlling in remote areas answer:
(B) suffer a lot because of
(C) in accessibility to hospitals 186. Honest
(D) No error (A) Authentic (B) Upright
(C) Direct (D) Actual
179.
(A) It is interesting that
187. Vocation
(B) floating docks and even
(A) Examination (B) Seminar
(C) ships can be made of concreat
(C) Occupation (D) Holiday
(D) No error

188. Ingenuous
(A) Innocent (B) Artful
(C) Cunning (D) Clever
1550 29 SET-D
189. Innocuous 195. The conference takes place once in three years?
(A) Careless (B) Harmless (A) Tetraenning (B) Triennial
(C) Insufficient (D) Irresponssible (C) Treennial (D) Thriennial

190. Insolent Direction (196-200) : In the following questions, groups


(A) Disrespectful (B) Insoluble of four words are given. In each group one word is
(C) depreciating (D) the sole of a shoe correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word :

Direction (191-195) : In the following questions, out of 196.


the four alternatives, choose the one which can be (A) Variety (B) Anxdety
substituted for the given words/sentence (C) Gaitey (D) Sodety

191. A person who readily believes others : 197.


(A) Credible (B) Credulous (A) Coersion (B) Precision
(C) Sensitive (D) Sensible (C) Negociation (D) Explation

192. The political leader has an evil reputation. He is not 198.


trusted : (A) Harrassment (B) Commitment
(A) is notorious (B) is malicious (C) Breevement (D) Temparament
(C) is magnanimous (D) is dubious
199.
193. A person who helps even a stranger in difficulty : (A) Inefable (B) Inaecesible
(A) Samaritan (B) Altruist (C) Infallible (D) Invinsieble
(C) Philanthropist (D) Beneficiary
200.
(A) Expact (B) Impact
194. The production of raw silk :
(C) Exite (D) Imped
(A) Sericulture (B) Seroculture
(C) Sariculture (D) Syrumculture

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jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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jQdk;Z ds fy, txg /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1550 32 SET-D

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