SEPTEMBER 2019 RECALLS

1. Concerning history of psychotropics

A. Amitryptiline was the first antidepressant discovered

B. Meprobamoate was the first tranquilizer discovered

C. The first set of antidepressants were produced from observations of antituberculous drugs

D Antipsychotic drugs are “syndromally” non-specific hence they produce antipsychotic action regardless
of diagnosis

2. The following are true of rational use of drugs except that

A. patients receive medications appropriate to their clinical needs,

B. Patints receive doses that meet their individual requirements

C. Patients receive drugs for an adequate period of time

D. Patients are only prescribed drugs that are available in the pharmacy

3. Errors due to pescribing factors include all except

A. Inco

B. Overprescribing

C. Extravagant prescribing

D. Incorrect labelling

4. All are true of Clozapine except

A. enhanced efficacy on positive symptoms

B. enhanced efficacy on negative symptoms

C. similar neurological (extrapyramidal) tolerability as typical antipsychotics

D. A dibenzodiazepine
5. Which of these is true

A.Compliance is a passive-aggressive process of following prescriber's instruction

B.

D. Compliance implies a passive role from the patient followinginstructions of the prescriber.

6. Which is true of placebo effects

A. Have been reported for psychotropic drugs

B. Are objective when response occurs immediately after placebo is given

C.. Are always subjective

D.

7. Placebo may be in form of

A. Sugar pills

B. Lithium

C. Clozapine

C.

D.

8. Which is true of treatment guidelines

A. Especially important in the elderly and children

B. Important for correct diagnosis

C.

9. Which is the best definition of pharmacokinetics

A. Action of drug on target receptors

B. Parmacokinetics describes the relationship between administration of the drug,distribution,and

concentration in tissues
C. Is the study of drug development

10. Which best defines pharmacodynamics

A. Action of drug on target receptors

B. Parmacokinetics describes the relationship between administration of the drug,distribution,and

concentration in tissues

C. Is the study of drug development

11. One is false about plasma levels of drug

A.Specific concentration of drug in the plasma can be measured with accuracy

B. Drug oncentration in target tissue can be measured with accuracy

C. Response depends on concentration at the site of action

12. One is true

B. Lithium has a High therapeutic index and so requires close serum monitoring

C. Therapeutic window is the difference between minimum effective dose and maximum safe dose

D. Therapeutic window is the ratio of maximum safe dose to minimum effective dose

13. Choose the false option

A. Lithium toxicity is increased by increased sodium diuresis

B. Lithium

14. Choose the false option

A. Common sites of drug receptors are the cytoplasm, mitochondria and cell membrane

B.Receptors in the cytoplasm bind hormones and ligands

C.
15. Example of structural protein receptor

A. Tubulin

B. Na-K ATpase

C. Acetylcholinesterases

D.

16. Kd stands for

A. Affinity constant

B. Equilibrium dissociation constant

C. Disequilibrium constant

D. Dissociation constant

17. Which of these information cannot be gotten from a dose response curve

A. Potency

B. Affinity

C. Emax

D.

18. Which is a functio of limbic system

A. Sleep

B. Behaviour

C. Coordination

D.

19. Which is true of the caudate

A. Is an egg shaped structure

B. Tail continues as amygdala

C. Related to lateral ventricle

D. Bounded by thalamus, lentiform nucleus and hypothalamus

20. Caudate nuclues is divided into how many regions

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

21. Subthalamic lesion is implicated in

A. Hemiballism

B. Huntington disease

C. Parkinson disease

D. Tic disrder

22. Pars compacts degenerates in

A. Hemiballism

B. Huntington disease

C. Parkinsonism

D. Tourette disorder

23. Striatum is formed by

A. Putamen and globus pallidus

B. Putamen and caudate nucleus

C. Subthalamus and putamen

24.. Which of these is derived from the diencephalon

A. Subthalamic nucleus

B. Caudate

C. Putamen

D. Substantial nigra

25. What is the major recipient of inputs into the basal ganglia?

A. Striatum

B. Globus pallidus

C.substsntia nigra

D. Subtahalmic nucleus

26.most of the basal ganglia output come from

A. Globus pallidus and substantia nigra

B. Caudate nucleus

C. Putamen

D. Subthalamic nucleus

27. White matter of the brain are divided into ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5
28. Fibres connecting same area in opposite hemispheres are called

A.Commisural tracts

B. Association tracts

C. Projection tracts

D. Connecting tracts

28. Fibres connecting different areas in the same hemisphere are called

A. Association tracts

B. Projection tracts

C. Commissural tracts

D. Connecting tracts

29. Tracts connecting the cortex with other area in the CNS

A. Association tracts

B. Projection tracts

C. Commissural tracts

D. Connecting tracts

30. The largest commisursl tract is

A. Corpus callosum

B. Internal capsule

C. Medial lemniscus

D. Arcuate fasciculus
31. Internal capsule

A. Lies between thalamus, caudate nucleus and lentiform nucleus

B.

32. Internal capsule is divided into how many parts

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

33. Motor speech area is known as

A. Broca's area

B. Wernicke's area

C. Precentral gryrus

D. Postcentral gyrus

34. Primary somatosensory area is known as

A. Broca's area

B. Wernicke's area

C. Precenteal gyrus

D. Post central gyrus

35. Primary motor area is known as

A. Broca's area
B. Wernicke's area

C. Precenteal gyrus

D. Post central gyrus

36. Pain tolerance is defined as

A. The maximum intensity of experimental pain that an individual human or animal will tolerate

B. The point at which stimulation of nociceptor is of sufficient magnitude to be perceived as pain which
is same for man and animal

C.

37. Neuropathic pain is

A. activation of nociceptic system by noxious stimulus

B. primary lesion or disease in the somatosensory nervous system

C. activation and sensitisation of the nociceptive pain pathway by mediators released at site of tissue
damage

38. Acute pain is defined as pain of

A. 3 to 6 hours

B. 3 to 6 days

C. 3 to 6 weeks

D. 3 to 6 months

39. Which is true of afferent pain fibres

A. A alpha, touch, myelinated,80-120m/s

B. Delta, myeinated, 5-40m/s

C. Beta, 4590m/s

40. Neuromodulator in descending moduation system of pain

A. Substance P

B. Nor epinephrine

C.Acetylcholine

41. Cognitive intervention in pain management

A. Body scanning

B. Humor

C. Operant conditioning

D. Biofeedback

42. Sources of dissonance include all except

A. Informational inconsistency

B. Disconfirmed expectations

C. Predecision dissonance

D. Postdecision dissonance

43. If glucose is the only source if energy to a cell and hexokinase is suddenly inhibited, which of the
following will result?

A. Cell will yield ATP via Krebs cycle

B Glucose will undergo fermentation

C. Glucose will yield ATP via Electron transport system??

D. There will be no energy production by the cell

44. In Glycolysis, one molecule of gluocse yields

A. Two pyruvate and four ATP

B. Two pyruvate and two ATP

C. Two pyruvate and one ATP

D. One pyruvate and one ATP

45. Glycolysis yields

A. Two pyruvate and two net ATP

B. Two pyruvate and four net ATP

C. One pyruvate and one net ATP

46. The greatest source of energy from glucose metabolism comes from

A. Glycolysis

B. TCA cycle

C. Reduced NADH and FADH2

D. Oxidized NAD+ and FAD+

47. Which is true of Glycolysis

A. Also called

B. Fructose 6 phosphate is converted to 1,6bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase

C.

48. During hypoglycemia cells generate ATP using

A. Mannose

B. Sucrose

C. Beta-hydroxybutyrate
D. Fructose

49. One is true regarding brain energy metabolism

A. Sucrose is the obligatory energy substrate for the brain

B. Energy consumption is equal on gray and white matter

C.

50. Under anaerobic conditions glucose yields

A. Lactate

B. AcetylCoA

C.

51. Restriction enzymes

A. Are exonucleases

B. Are known as palindromes

C. Recognize short DNA sequences

D.

52. Difference between behavioural genetics and epigenetics is

A. Environmental influence

B. DNA methylation

C.

53. Which of these is a mitochondrial disorder

A. Kearn-Sayre disease

B. Niemanm Pick

C. Zullweger syndrome

54. Whic is an inborn error of organic acid metabolism

A. Alkpatonuira

B. Phenylketonuria

C.

55. The term inborn error of metabikosm was coined by

A. Archibald Garrold

B. Watson

C. Bateson

56. Which of these techniques uses DNA

A. Southern blot

B. Northern blot

C. Western blot

55. About DNA structure

A. Purines and pyrimidine face each other

B. Double helix with one strand being exactly same as the opposite strand

C.

56. DNA contains

A Nitogenous base

B. Ribose sugar

C. Phsophatase

57. Which is false

A. Down's syndrome results from trisomy in chromosome 21

B. Edward's syndrome results from micro deletion in chromosome 18

C.Patau's syndrome is due to trisomy I'm chromosome 13

D
58. True of Heritability

A. Proportion of observed variance attributable to genetics

B.

59. Candidate genes

A. Genes of neurobiology interest

B. Not gotten from cloned genes

C.

60. Which is true

A. Identical twins have same genetic information while fraternal have half the same

B. Fraternal twins have the same genetic information while identical have half the same

62. The mainstay in management of inborn errors of amino acid metabolism is:

A. Protein dietary restriction

B. Dietary supplementation

C. Treatment of symptoms and complications

63. Behavioural genetics

A. Behaviour is largely determined by genes

B. Behaviour is fully determined by genes only

C. Environmental influences make members of the same family more different rather than similar

D.

64. True of Endophenotype

A. State dependent

B. Heritable

C.
65. Which of these is true?

A.mRNA carries genetic information from the cytoplasm to the nucleus

B. tRNA is located in the nucleus

C. rRNA directs protein synthesis

66. Under the elaboration likelihood pathway, persuasio after giving much thought to th occurs through

A. Peripheral route

B. Central route

C. Heuristic route

67. One is true

A. Sociolog uses scientific methods

B. Sociology use historical and scientific methods

68. Which is true

A. Psychiatry is a purey clinical discipline

B. Psychiatry is a humanistic discipline

C. Psychiatry is both humanistic and clinical

D.

69. Which is true of Thomas Lambo

A. Lambo's thesis was on psychological aspects of mental illness among Yoruba people

B. Lambo's thesis was on anthropological aspects of mental illness among Yoruba people

C. Lambo's thesis was on

70. Dr in Chicken Republic with colleague when Consultant entered. He tried introducing his Consultant
to his friend but he couldn't remember the Consultant's name despite being sure he knew it. This is an
example of?

A. Flashbulb memory
B. Tip of tongue phenomenon

71. Intial storage of information from an instant to several seconds is called?

A. Echoic

B. Iconic

C short term memory

D. Sensory memory

72. Peter realized he could only remember the latter part of his lecture

A. Primacy effect

B.Recency effect

C.

Frequency effect

73. Which is a method of assessment of memory

A. Digit time test

B. Letter-number sequencing

C.

74. The two extremes of personality in Eysenck's model are:

A. Extraversion and neuroticism

B. Extraversion and psychoticism

C. Neuroticism and Psychoticism

75. Which is a component of MMPI

A. Conscientiousness

B. Hypomania
C. Mania

D. Schizophrenia

76. Which is true

A. Objective tests make individual look into self and may cause shame and embarrassment

B.

C.

77. Which is a non subset test of WAIS for children?

A. Arithmetic

B. Draw a person

C. Picture arrangement

D.

78. Which of these is not captured under WAIS for adults

A. Emotional intelligence

79.Factors affecting intelligence except

A. Socioeconomic factor

B. Environment

C. Genetics

D. Culture and parenting style

80. Fixation in oral stage can be manifested as

A. Nail biting

81. Stored memores which can easily be brought to the conscious are found in the

A. Unconscious

B. Conscious
C. Pre-conscious

82. A persn who Satisfies the demands of the of without hurting the ego is said to have

A. Good ego

B. Healthy personality

C. Stable ego

D.

83. Which of these is a parametric test (appeared 2 or 3x)

A. Pearson correlation

B. Spearman correlation

C. Mann Whitney U test

D. Friedman

85. Which of these is a measure of central tendency (also appeared 2 or 3x)

A. Mode

B. Inter quartile range

C. Range

D. Standard deviation

86. Which is not a measure of dispersion

A. Range

B. Interwuartile range

C. 50th percentile

D. Root mean squared

87. What test is appropriate for establishing relationship between examination scores and severity of
depression (mild, moderate and severe)
A. ANOVA

B. Chi Square

C.

88.. About regression ???

A. Linear - Straight relationship between variables

B. Logistic - Categorical variables with the outcome as probability that the case belongs to one group
rather than the other

C. Poisson - To study waiting times or time between rare events

D. Cox proportional hazards model - used in survival analysis to evaluate time until a certain event eg
death

89. Characteristics of a normal distribution

A. Bimodal

B. Asymptotic

C. Mode is greater than mean

D. Asymmetrical

90. About the confidence interval

A. Preferred to the p value

B.

D. Large studies have smaller sample size

91. A P value of 0.01 means (also appeared 2x)

A. The probability of an observed difference occuring by chance is 1 in 100

B. The probability of an observed difference occuring by chance is 10 in 100

C. The probability of an observed difference occuring by chance is 1 in 10

92. Scores for correlation range from

A. -1 to +1

B. 0 to 1

C. -1 to 0

93. Wrongly rejecting a true null hypothesis is known as

A. Beta error

B. Type II error

C. Type I error

94. True receptors differ from other sites in tissues that can bind hormones by their ability for

A. Signal transduction

B.

95. A low K1 and high K-1 indicates

A. Low affinity

B. High affinity

C. High potency

D. High efficacy

96. Antagonist drugs

A. Have more than 0% but less than 100% efficacy

B. Inhibit the effects of the agonist

C. Bind to receptor and cause effect

97. One is true of competitive agonists

A. Reduces affinity of agonists and shift the dose response curve to the right

B. Reduces affinity of agonists and shift the dose response curve to the left

C. Affects both potency and efficacy of agonist

98. One is true of the Blood brain barrier

A. Completely covers the brain

???B. Does not allow amino acids to pass readily but substances like L-dopa ams L-tryptophan are
transported across it by an active transporter

C. Drugs cannot enter the BBB against their concentration gradient

D. Movement of drugs is unidirectional

99. About drug biotransformation one is false

A. Always results in activation of drug

B. Sites include hepatic microsomes and kidney

100. Steady state is attained when

A. Rate of clearance equals rate of administration

B. Rate of absorption equals elimination rate

101.Factors affecting absorption of drugs include all except

A. Size

B. Charge

C. Rate of blood flow

D. Plasma protein binding

102. Cytochrome P450

A. Family of enzymes

B.

103. Important parameters for assessing bioavailability include all except

A. Time Peak concentration

B. Peak plasma concentration

C. Area under the curve

D. ??minimum effective concentration

104. One is true concerning vitamins

A. Water soluble vitamins are A, D, E, K

B. Fat soluble vitamins bind to fat and are stored in the body

C. Minerals are organic substances

D.

105. One of these is a function of Vitamin D

A. Protects hippocampal neurones

B. Synthesis of serotonin and adrenaline

C. Wound healing

106. One of these is true

A. Vitamin B2 is needed for synthesis of essential flavoprotein coenzymes for synthesis of L-methylfolate
B. Vitamin B2 is needed for proper function of Vitamin B5

C.

D.

107. Impaired myelination in childhood is due to deficiency of

A. B12

B. B6

C. B2

108. Tryptophan is needed for synthesis of

A. Vitamim B3

B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin B6

109. Defective RBC production is due to deficiency of B12 and

A. Folate

B. Vitamin B6

C. Vitamin D

110. Excess of folate masks deficiency of

A. B12

B. B6

C. B3

111. Which vitamins deficiency i common in geriatrics and associated with depression?

A. B12
B. B9

C. B6

112. In the theory of planned behavior, intention towards behaviour is determined by all except

A. individual’s attitude toward behavior,

B. subjective norms

C. perceived control

D. ?

113. Reflexes are carried to the Central nervous system by the

A. Sensory neuron

B. Interneuron

C. Effector

D. Motor neuron

114. Nerve roots forKnee jerk

A. L2,L3

B. SI, S2

C. C8, T1

D. C6, C7

115. Auditory reflex is also called

A. Attenuation reflex

B.
116. Which of these is a primitive reflex

A. Neck reflex

B. Spinal reflex

C. Cremasteric reflex

D. Abdominal reflex

117. Reflex important for survival

A. Rooting

B. Labyrinthine

C. Sucking

118. Which of these is correct about grading of reflexes

A. Sustained clonus 5

B. Hyperactive with clonus 3

C. No response 1

119. Polysomnography consists of the following except

A. EEG

B. EMG+ECG

C. EOG

D. Penile tumescence

120. When information on noxious stimulus gets to CNS, the total neural activities prior to cognitive
processes that takes place in identification of a sensation as pain is....

A. Transmission

B. Transduction
C. Modulation

D. Norciception

121. Which of these is not a part of limbic system

A. Primary olfactory area

B. Hippocampus

C. Amygdala

D.

122. Functions of iimbic system except

A. Emotion

B. Motivation

C. Sleep

D. Memory

123. Not involved in history of limbic system

A. Heinrich Bucy

B. Paul Kluver

C. Paul Broca

D. Ego Moniz

124. Component of triune brain

A. R-complex brain

B.

125. Which is false of the hippocampus

A. Can be damaged by meningoencephalitis

B. Damage leads to anterograde and retrograde amnesia

C.

126. Which of these is the master regulator centre

A. Hypotahalmus

B. Thalamus

C. Limbic system

127. Kuiver-Bucy syndrome includes one of the following

A. Flaccidity

B. Frontal lobe involvement

C. Misdirected sexual behaviour

D. Hypoorality

128. Which is true of Amygdala

A. Almond shaped

B.

129. Which of these is not directly related to the hypothalamo-pituitary axis

A. FSH

B. TSH

C. ACTH
D. Serotonin

130. Inner hair cells function in

A. Hearing

B. Modulation

C. Balance

131. Outer hair cells function in

A.Modulation

B. Hearing

C. Balance

132. Which of these is rightly paired

A. Pen torch - reflexes

B. Colour - Snellen chart

C. Visual acuity - confrontation

D. Field - ophthalmoscope

133. The most consistent neural pathological feature of Parkinson's disease is

A. Degeneration of pars compacts

B. Degeneration of pars reticulata

C.

134. Which is correct of the visual pathway

A. Retina -tract - lateral geniculate body - optic chiasma -optic radiation

B. Retina - optic radiation - optic nerve - optic tract - optic chiasma

C. Retina - optic nerve - optic chiasma - optic tract - lateral genkculate body -optic radiations

D. Retina-optic nerve - optic tract - optic chiasma- lateral geniculate body-optic radiations

135. Lesion in optic tract leads to

A. Bitemporal hemoanopia

B. Homonymous hemianopia

C. Heteronymous homoanopia

136. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of

A. Vertebral artery

B. Basilar artery

C. Posterior cerebral artery

D. Internal carotid artery

137. Hitting the middle of the ear with a tining fork is done in

A. Weber's test

B. Rhine's test

138. All are interoceptors except

A. Plasma oxygen

B. Plasma CO2

C. Electrolyte in plasma

D. Sense of balance
138. Which is true of the auditory pathway

A. At the end of the middle ear is the tympanic membrane

B. The outer ear contains sound in electrical form

C. The organ of Corti transforms mechanical waves to electrical energy in the inner eae

D. The middle ESR reflctts and magnifies sound waves

139. The following are projection fibres except

A. Arcuate faciculus

B. Optic radiations

C. Medial lemniscus

D. Spinocortical tract.

140.