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Answer Keys - Afternoon PDF
Answer Keys - Afternoon PDF
In
a
comparison
of
portfolios
with
negative
Sharpe
ratios,
we
cannot
generally
interpret
the
larger
Sharpe
ratio
to
mean
better
risk-‐adjusted
performance.
Hence,
either
the
28 C
evaluation
period
needs
to
be
increased
so
that
one
or
more
of
the
Sharpe
ratios
become
positive,
or
a
different
performance
evaluation
metric
should
be
used.
Investment
C
is
most
appropriate.
This
is
because
it
has
a
positive,
relatively
high
Sharpe
ratio
and
the
lowest
target
semi-‐deviation.
Since
Brook
needs
to
cover
the
cash
outflow
29 C with
his
portfolio’s
returns,
a
target
return
needs
to
be
specified.
The
portfolio
with
the
lowest
target
semi-‐deviation
will
have
the
least
risk
of
falling
short
of
Brook’s
cash
flow
needs
(target
return).
Since
the
client
is
highly
risk-‐averse
as
is
apparent
from
his
current
asset
allocation
and
his
averseness
to
portfolio
volatility,
a
positively
skewed
30 C distribution
with
thinner
tails
(less
extreme
values)
would
be
most
appropriate.
This
is
given
by
Company
C,
which
has
a
platykurtic,
positively
skewed
distribution
of
returns.
In
candlestick
chart,
when
stock’s
high
price
is
same
as
low
price
and
opening
and
closing
31 A price
is
same,
it
creates
a
cross
pattern
and
is
referred
to
as
‘doji’
(used
in
Japanese
terminology).
The
data
that
Harper
has
gathered
is
nominal
data.
The
mode
is
the
only
measure
of
32 B
central
tendency
that
can
be
used
with
nominal
data.
The
question
describes
the
emergence
of
an
inflationary
gap.
In
such
a
scenario,
fixed-‐
33 B income
securities
would
decline
in
value
as
interest
rates
rise,
so
exposure
to
them
should
be
decreased.
When
TR
=
TC
and
MR
>
MC,
the
firm
is
operating
at
lower
breakeven
point.
34 C
The
firm
should
increase
quantity
to
enter
profit
territory.
An
increase
in
the
price
of
petrol
will
pivot
the
budget
constraint
downward
(as
petrol
35 B plots
on
the
vertical
axis).
Hence,
the
budget
constraint
would
become
less
steep
meaning
that
the
slope
will
decrease.
The
distance
equals
the
AFC.
As
quantity
produced
increases,
the
average
fixed
cost
starts
36 B
decreasing
because
it
spreads
over
a
greater
number
of
units.
An
increase
in
human
capital
will
shift
the
SRAS
rightward,
and
it
will
also
shift
the
LRAS
37 B
rightward.
38 C Slope:
-‐3.5/2.5
=
-‐1.4
Under
imperfect
competition
(downward
sloping
demand
curves),
the
breakeven
point
39 C occurs
when
TR
equals
TC.
However
profit
maximization
does
not
necessarily
occur
when
MR
equals
MC
(it
may
occur
at
a
point
where
MR
is
greater
than
MC).
MRSIC
=
1.25/1.55
=
0.806.
Since
the
consumer’s
MRS
is
smaller,
he
should
Economics % 40 B
spend
a
little
more
on
cake
and
a
little
less
on
ice
cream.
For
a
range
of
output
levels,
size
does
not
matter,
so
the
slope
of
the
long-‐run
41 A supply
curve
is
zero
or
constant.
For
levels
above
that,
size
matters,
so
the
LRATC
curve
decreases
as
output
increases
(meaning
that
slope
decreases).
Option
A
is
correct.
During
the
boom
phase,
the
riskiest
assets
will
often
have
substantial
price
increases.
Option
B
is
incorrect
as
safe
assets
such
as
government
bonds
that
are
normally
highly
42 A priced
during
recessions
may
have
lower
prices
and
thus
higher
yields
during
the
boom
phase.
Option
C
is
incorrect
as
investors
may
try
to
buy
shares
of
exporting
companies,
as
a
result
of
restrictive
economic
policy
or
during
slowdowns
within
the
country.
The
optimal
indifference
curve
would
shift
leftward.
The
new
point
of
tangency
of
the
indifference
curve
and
the
POF
would
indicate
a
rise
in
the
consumption
of
designer
shirts
43 B
and
a
fall
in
the
consumption
of
t-‐shirts.
This
is
because
as
income
rises,
consumption
of
normal
goods
increase
(dress
shirts)
and
of
inferior
goods
decreases.
Nominal
GDP
=
550,000+145,300+15,500+190,678+30,000+320,666-‐
44 A
312,865+500
=
€939,779
billion.
Options
A
and
C
are
correct
however
option
B
is
incorrect.
Gross
profit
margin
is
not
a
45 B
liquidity
measure
but
a
performance/profitability
measure.
Increase
in
market
interest
rates
would
decrease
the
fair
value
of
the
firm’s
debt.
But
fair
46 C value
is
not
reported
in
financial
statements,
and
hence,
will
not
affect
a
firm’s
CFF
(it
is
not
a
cash
inflow).
ROE
will
only
increase
if
borrowing
costs
exceed
the
marginal
rate
earned
on
47 C
investing
in
the
business.
48 A The
firm
has
no
accounts
receivables,
so
the
cash
ratio
and
the
quick
ratio
would
be
equal.
Under
U.S.
GAAP,
only
those
items
that
are
unusual
and
infrequent
can
be
49 B
recognized
as
extraordinary.
Only
Option
B
fits
this
criteria.
50 C Operating
profit:
405,000-‐85,200-‐75,000-‐45,500=
63,800/405,000
=
15.75%
Diluted
EPS:
51 A
$2,750,000/1,050,000+500,000
(additional
shares
if
converted)
=
$1.77
Solvency
Ratios:
Firm
A:
$15.796/$9.876
=
1.60
52 A
Firm
B:
$22.90/$15.66
=
1.46
Both
companies
have
leverage
ratios
that
are
low,
so
their
solvency
positions
are
strong.
Interest
costs
decreased
by
0.30
whereas
tax
costs
decreased
by
0.20.
53 A ROE:
2010:
3.078%(1.80)=
5.54%
2011:
10.56%(2.50)
=
26.41%
Although
ROE
increased
by
20.87%,
most
of
the
increase
was
because
of
an
increase
in
ROA.
Net
profit
margin
contributed
the
most
to
the
increase
in
ROA.
Supplementary
schedules
provide
additional
information
and
details
regarding
assets
and
54 B liabilities
of
a
company
e.g.
information
regarding
natural
resources,
overview
of
specific
business
lines,
or
the
segmentation
of
business
or
other
line
items.
55 C 89,250+45,000+22,000/45,000
=
3.47
75,000
(45)
=
$3,375,000
(if
options
exercised)
3,375,000/65
=
51,923
shares
could
be
repurchased
56 A
Incremental
shares
issued
is
75,000-‐51,923
=
23,077
Financial
Reporting
and
Analysis %
Diluted
EPS:
25,000,000/
(150,000,000+23,077)
=
$0.167
Operating
activities
include
cash
receipts
and
payments
related
to
dealing
57 B securities
or
trading
securities,
even
if
they
are
not
part
of
the
company’s
primary
business
activity.
A
P/BV
ratio
of
1
means
that
a
company’s
expected
future
returns
are
exactly
58 A equal
to
the
returns
required
by
the
market.
Hence,
investors
would
earn
a
normal
profit
only.
Under
U.S.
GAAP,
the
completed
contract
method
is
used
when
the
outcome
59 B cannot
be
measured
reliably.
However,
even
under
this
method,
if
a
loss
is
expected
on
a
contract,
it
is
reported
immediately.
When
the
income
tax
expense
in
the
income
statement
is
greater
than
current
60 C
income
tax
liability,
the
difference
will
increase
a
firm’s
deferred
tax
liabilities.
Indirect
borrowing
using
accounts
payable
is
not
considered
a
financing
61 A
activity—such
borrowing
is
classified
as
an
operating
activity.
FIFO
will
result
in
the
highest
inventory
values
and
lowest
cost
of
sales
values.
Thus
it
will
62 A
result
in
the
lowest
inventory
turnover.
In
year
1:
4/9
=
44.44%
of
the
costs
have
been
spend
so
44.44%(15)
=
$6,666,666.67
of
revenue
will
be
recognized.
63 A In
year
2:
total
cost
spent
will
equal
7.5/9
=
83.33%
so
total
revenue
recognized:
0.8333(15)
=
$12,500,000.
Since
it
has
already
recognized
$6,666,666.67,
in
year
2
it
will
recognize
12,500,000-‐6,666,666.67
=
$5,833,333
Under
IFRS,
interest
paid
can
be
reported
either
as
an
operating
activity
or
a
64 C financing
activity.
Interest
received
can
be
reported
as
an
operating
activity
or
an
investing
activity.
For
an
issuing
company
interest
expense
reported
for
the
bonds
in
the
financial
statements
65 B
is
based
on
effective
interest
rates
i.e.
the
market
rate
at
the
time
of
issuance.
Inventory
turnover
2012:
180,000/(70,000+50,000)
=
1.5
Inventory
turnover
2013:
45,000/66,000
=
0.682
Since
this
is
quarterly,
we
must
annualize
66 A
by
multiplying
by
4:
4
(0.682)
=
2.73
Hence,
the
ratio
improved.
If
a
firm
capitalizes,
assets
would
appear
higher
(because
the
capitalized
amount
is
added
67 A
to
assets)
but
debt
would
remain
the
same,
so
leverage
would
appear
lower.
Under
U.S.
GAAP,
inventory
is
reported
at
lower
of
cost
or
market.
Market
value
is
current
market
value
but
with
upper
and
lower
limits:
it
cannot
exceed
NRV
and
cannot
be
lower
68 B than
NRV
less
a
normal
profit
margin.
Therefore,
the
lower
limit
is
$80,000-‐(15%
of
80,000)
=
$68,000
Hence,
$68,000
is
the
lower
limit
for
market
value.
Hence
lower
of
cost
or
market
is:
$60,000.
The
farther
unit
sales
are
from
the
breakeven
point
for
high-‐leverage
companies,
the
69 C
greater
the
magnifying
effect
of
leverage.
1.35/(1+[(1-‐0.4)(1.20)]
=
0.785
70 C Levered
beta
for
private
company:
0.785[1+(1-‐0.33)(0.75)]
=
1.179
Cost
of
equity:
3.5+
1.179(5.6)
=
10.105%
Breakeven
analysis
of
firms
with
low
business
cycle
sensitivity
and
low
operating
and
71 C
financial
leverage,
and
lower
intangibles
is
relatively
less
important.
DOL@200,000
units
=
200,000(250-‐65)/200,000(250-‐65)-‐10,000,000
=
1.37037
72 C Units
sold
have
changed
by
10%
so
operating
income
will
change
by
1.37037
(10%)
=
13.7037%
Major
drags
on
liquidity
include:
•
Uncollected
receivables
•
Tight
credit
•
Obsolete
inventory
73 A
Corporate
Finance % Major
pulls
on
liquidity
include:
•
Making
payments
early
•
Reduced
credit
limits
•
Limits
on
short-‐term
lines
of
credit
•
Low
liquidity
positions
Management
has
more
opportunity
to
manage
and
control
operating
risk
than
sales
risk.
74 A DFL
is
also
most
often
the
choice
of
upper
management.
Hence,
sales
risk
is
least
likely
to
be
controlled
by
a
firm’s
management.
Companies
with
high
operating
leverage
have
less
flexibility
in
making
changes,
and
bankruptcy
protection
does
little
to
help
reduce
operating
costs.
However,
companies
with
75 B
high
financial
leverage
can
use
bankruptcy
laws
and
protection
to
change
their
capital
structure
and
emerge
as
ongoing
concerns.
On
a
staggered
basis,
only
a
portion
of
board
members
is
re-‐elected
every
year.
A
staggered
board
can
be
used
by
management
as
an
anti-‐takeover
instrument.
However
76 C staggered
board
facilitates
better
continuity
of
board
expertise.
An
annually
elected
board
may
provide
more
flexibility
to
nominate
new
board
members
to
meet
changes
in
the
marketplace,
if
needed,
than
a
staggered
board.
ETF’s
trade
very
close
to
their
underlying
NAV.
Open-‐ended
mutual
funds
also
77 C have
market
prices
close
to
the
underlying
NAV.
Close
ended
funds,
however,
most
often
trade
at
discounts
or
premiums
to
NAV.
Sum
after
the
split:
65.12+42(after
split)+8.50+11.99
=
127.61
78 B
127.61/45
=
2.835778
According
to
statistical
approaches
companies
are
grouped
into
industries
based
on
79 C
historical
correlations
of
their
securities’
returns.
Relative
to
the
other
options,
direct
real
estate
has
the
smallest
correlation
with
the
80 A returns
to
stocks
and
bonds.
REITs
and
shares
in
companies
that
own
real
estate
have
returns
that
are
similar
to
the
returns
of
the
overall
stock
market.
Francisco
is
an
investor.
He
is
trying
to
generate
wealth
by
investing
extra
income
in
81 A attractive
securities.
There
is
no
indication
of
the
use
of
superior
information
by
Francisco
to
profit
from
price
changes.
Rationally
investors
should
be
risk
averse
therefore
in
most
financial
models,
the
82 A
assumption
is
that
the
investors
are
risk
averse.
Firm’s
intrinsic
value
using
Gordon
Growth
Model
(GGM):
Vo
=
[
D0
(1
+
g)
]/
(r-‐g)
=
2.5(1+9.4%)
/
(15%
-‐
9.4%)=
$48.84
83 A $22.24
is
the
amount
that
the
dividend
growth
assumption
added
to
the
intrinsic
value
estimate,
as
calculated
below:
Equity
Investments % $48.84
–
𝟗($2.5/9.4%)𝟓
=
$22.24
The
futures
market
would
provide
greatest
liquidity
in
addition
to
minimal
credit
risk.
Also,
84 B Anderson
does
not
have
the
facilities
to
hold
most
commodities,
so
the
spot
market
is
not
suitable.
Elaine
is
trying
to
use
superior
information
to
generate
abnormal
returns.
Transparent
financial
and
economic
disclosures
do
not
necessarily
help
informed
trades
85 C
profit
because
they
are
competing
with
each
other.
The
most
profitable
are
those
that
have
unique
insights
into
future
values.
Price-‐weighted
indices
are
not
rebalanced.
For
market-‐cap
indices,
rebalancing
is
less
of
a
86 A concern
because
the
indices
largely
rebalance
themselves.
Hence,
rebalancing
is
most
important
for
equal-‐weighted
indices.
Both
options
A
and
B
are
time
series
anomalies
while
option
C
is
not
a
time
series
anomaly.
87 C
Proceeds
on
sale:
$7,000
Payoff
loan:
-‐$2,500
(50%
borrowed)
Margin
interest
paid:
-‐$150
(@
6%)
88 A Dividends
received:
$50
Sales
commission
paid:
-‐$5
Remaining
equity:
$4,395
Return
on
investment:
4,395-‐2505/2,505
=
75.45%
The
buyer
of
a
credit-‐linked
note
effectively
insures
the
credit
risk
of
the
89 C underlying
reference
security.
A
CDS
also
captures
many
of
the
essential
features
of
insurance.
A
credit
spread
option
behaves
more
like
a
call
option.
90 C A
forward
transaction
that
starts
with
a
nonzero
value
is
called
an
off-‐market
forward.
Derivatives
markets
provide
greater
liquidity
as
smaller
amount
of
capital
is
required
to
trade
derivatives.
Transaction
costs
of
derivatives
are
typically
low
compared
to
the
value
of
91 C underlying.
With
derivatives
it
is
nearly
as
easy
to
take
short
position
as
to
take
a
long
position.
In
case
of
underlying,
its
almost
always
much
more
difficult
to
go
short
than
to
go
Derivative
Instruments
% long.
Derivative
Instruments
%
Hammond
wants
to
hedge
the
risk
of
the
company’s
oil
production
234
days
from
now.
The
time-‐horizon
does
not
coincide
with
the
standardized
time
horizons
of
futures
contracts.
Also,
since
he
wants
near
perfect
hedging,
a
customized
contract
that
considers
92 C
all
his
concerns
would
be
most
appropriate.
This
can
be
achieved
using
a
forward
contract.
Options
require
a
premium
to
be
paid
and
Hammond
wants
minimal
upfront
investment.
A
swap
is
closest
to
a
series
of
forwards
expiring
at
a
set
of
dates
coinciding
with
the
swap
93 B
payment
dates.
The
higher
the
exercise
price
of
a
call
option,
the
lower
the
price
of
the
option
and
the
94 B lower
the
premium
received
by
the
seller
of
the
call
but
the
greater
the
opportunity
to
gain
on
the
upside.
Fixed-‐income
securities
are
far
more
diverse
than
equity
securities.
The
other
two
options
95 A
are
correct.
The
bond
with
the
highest
coupon
rate
and
lowest
maturity
will
have
the
lowest
interest
96 B
rate
risk.
This
is
Bond
B.
97 A (1+0.03556/2)4
×
(1+x)2
=
(1+
0.03786/2)6
x
=
0.021234
×
2
=
4.24678%
For
the
same
time
to
maturity
and
yield
to
maturity,
the
Macaulay
duration
for
a
zero
coupon
bond
tends
to
be
higher
than
for
a
low
coupon
bond
trading
at
a
discount.
98 C
Similarly
a
low-‐coupon
bond
trading
at
a
discount
has
a
higher
duration
than
a
high
coupon
bond
trading
at
a
premium.
The
sinking
fund
arrangement
on
a
term
maturity
structure
accomplishes
the
same
goal
as
99 C the
serial
maturity
structure—both
resulted
in
a
portion
of
the
bond
issue
being
paid
off
each
year.
For
a
fully
amortized
bond,
the
annual
payment,
which
includes
both
the
coupon
payment
100 A
and
the
principal
repayment,
is
constant.
Yield
on
the
corporate
bond:
4.92%
(using
financial
calculator)
101 C Yield
on
the
T-‐note
with
same
maturity:
2.725%
G-‐Spread:
4.92%-‐2.725%
=
2.195%
From
the
dealer’s
perspective,
this
is
a
reverse
repurchase
transaction
(borrowing
102 C securities
and
lending
cash).
The
coupon
will
belong
to
the
owner,
that
is,
the
borrower
of
Fixed
Income
Investments % cash
or
the
lender
of
the
securities.
Floating
rate
securities
have
little
interest
rate
risk.
However,
they
are
subject
to
credit
risk,
103 A and
changing
market
conditions
can
result
in
a
significant
downgrade
of
such
securities.
As
a
result,
they
may
deviate
considerably
from
par
value.
Option
cost:
ABC:
13-‐9
=
4%
104 B DEF:
11-‐8.5
=
2.5%
GHI:
15-‐9.5
=
5.5%
DEF
has
the
lowest
option
cost
so
it
is
the
most
undervalued
relative
to
others.
For
security
A:
PV
=
100
×
(1-‐180/360
×0.0678)
=
96.61
To
get
the
BEY:
(365/180)
×
(100-‐96.61/96.61)
=
0.071154
For
security
B:
105 C
FV
=
100
+
(100
×
180/360
×
0.0702)
FV
=
103.51
BEY:
(365/180)
×
(103.51-‐100/100)
=
0.071175
The
yields
are
almost
equivalent.
The
lender
of
cash
accounts
for
credit
risk
by
lending
less
than
the
collateral’s
market
106 B
value.
This
difference
is
called
the
repo
margin.
A
trade
sale
has
the
advantage
of
fast
execution,
higher
confidentiality
and
no
lock-‐up
107 A periods.
So
it
is
suitable
for
investment
A.
An
IPO
has
the
potential
for
the
highest
price
so
it
is
appropriate
for
investment
B.
The
quantitative
directional
strategy
takes
long
and
short
positions,
however,
the
fund
108 B typically
varies
levels
of
net
long
or
short
exposure,
depending
upon
the
anticipated
direction
of
the
market.
The
other
two
have
a
zero
beta
exposure.
25%(200)
=
$50
million
Alternative
Investments % 250
million
(2%)
=
$5
million
109 B (250-‐200-‐7-‐5)
(20%)
=
$7.6
million
incentive
fee
Total
fees:
$12.6
million
Return:
250-‐200-‐12.6/200
=
18.7%
110 B The
activist
hedge
fund
operates
in
the
public
market
only,
unlike
private
equity.
111 B Commodities
include
grains,
metals
and
crude
oil.
Activist
is
an
event
driven
strategy
that
focuses
on
the
purchase
of
sufficient
112 A
equity
to
influence
a
company’s
policies
or
direction.
The
execution
step
includes
asset
allocation,
security
analysis
and
portfolio
construction.
113 B
The
feedback
step
includes
portfolio
monitoring
and
rebalancing
and
performance
measurement
and
reporting.
114 A Specific
return:
0.08
-‐
(0.02
+
0.66
×
0.05)
=
2.7%
An
investor
should
choose
the
portfolio
that
lies
at
the
point
where
his
highest
indifference
115 C curve
is
tangent
to
the
capital
allocation
line.
This
will
define
his
optimal
portfolio.
An
insurance
company’s
risk
tolerance
is
typically
quite
low
and
the
time
horizon
is
short.
Hence,
a
large
proportion
of
stocks
and
alternative
investments
would
not
be
appropriate.
116 B
Foundations
have
a
very
long
time
horizon,
and
risk
tolerance
is
typically
high.
For
a
newly
offered
DB
plan,
risk
tolerance
would
be
high
and
time
horizon
would
be
long.
Option
C
is
correct.
Delta
captures
only
small
changes
in
the
value
of
the
Porfolio
Management % underlying
whereas
large
changes
are
captured
by
gamma.
Option
A
is
incorrect.
Gamma
is
considered
a
second
order
risk
because
it
reflects
the
risk
117 C
of
changes
in
delta.
Option
B
is
incorrect.
The
sensitivity
to
changes
in
the
volatility
of
the
underlying
is
reflected
in
a
measure
called
vega.
An
insurance
policy
has
a
negative
beta.
Option
C
will
have
a
very
low
beta
and
option
A
118 B
will
have
a
zero
beta.
Slope:
25%-‐5%/37%
=
0.54054
Standard
deviation
is
calculated
using
the
following
CAL
equation:
119 A
0.15
=
0.05+0.540541(SD)
SD
=
18.49998%
or
18.5%.
Utility
from
risky
investment:
0.12-‐0.5(4)(0.15)2
=
0.075
120 B To
get
the
same
utility,
the
risk
free
return
must
be
7.5%(because
the
second
term
disappears).
Since
the
risk-‐free
return
is
only
5.0%,
the
risky
investment
is
better.