MCQs in GEAS 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
THERMODYNAMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek words meaning
_________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter
2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine
3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object because of the
difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow
4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a substance changes
from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat
5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion
6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in response to a
temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion
7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.

a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy
8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or removed to
change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat
9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure
10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature
11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases possible for that
particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram
12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy
13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of
water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie
14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass
15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy
16. Convert the change of temperature from 20˚C to 30˚C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K
17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the “useful” work obtainable from a closed
thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy
18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the temperature varies
from -15˚C in winter to 41˚C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m
19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of house. How large a
gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the temperature can change by 55˚C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in
20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is at right
angles to the sun’s rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J
21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the “useful” or process-initiating work
obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy
22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work
23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the equilibrium
vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure
24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no intermediate
liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation
25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation
26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase
27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times
28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from 4˚C to 0˚C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above
29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated
31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.

a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer
32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.
a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody
33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission
34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules.

a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume
35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity
36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection
37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process used to reach
that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process
38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular change in
state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle
39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection
40. A closed system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
41. Open system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256
43. When a solid melts,

a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.
44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35˚C to 55˚C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4
45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object
46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals
47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature. Which of the
following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete
48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled, the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter
51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the molecules
in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
d. Lenz’ Law
53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process
54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________ process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work
55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100˚C, the entropy of water
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system
57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction
58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol
59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate receiver vents and
open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam
60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam
61. What device measures infrared radiation below?

a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos
62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease
63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1 F˚ from
63 ˚F to 64 ˚F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU
64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure
65. Thermos was invented by _________.

a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar
66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.
a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic
67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________ respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp
68. The statement “heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body” is governed by
_________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics
69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler to a hotter
body
a. Carnot’s statement
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement
70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space
71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.

a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2
72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons
73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure
74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at every point in
the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricelli’s law
b. Barometric law
c. Newton’s Second law
d. Pascal’s law
75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law?

a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure
76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb
77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density
78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by _________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelista’s Law
c. Torricelli’s Theorem
d. Bernoulli’s Equation
79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called _________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution
80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon centigrade
and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to produce
saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point
82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to its initial
state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle
83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties
84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic process
where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process
85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R’ Elli Cycle
86. Twenty grams of ice at 0˚C melts to water at 0˚C. How much does the entropy of the 20g change in this
process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action – reaction
d. conservation of energy
88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in internal
energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J
89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is heated and
expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 kPa. Find the work done
on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ
90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180˚C and exhausts directly into the air at
100˚C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %
91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion
92. Who coined the term latent heat?

a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black
93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?

a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion
94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0 Kelvin it is
impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics
95. One calorie is equal to _________.

a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h
96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place according to the
relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle
97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the system remain
constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow
98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is the
_________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle
99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine the pressure at
this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa
100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
CHEMISTRY
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their individual
relative masses.
A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope
B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions
B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of reaction is
A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg
C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting
C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume
B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer
B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:
A. The law of conservation of mass
B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between
atoms is greater than 2.0
A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between
atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is the charge on the
Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4
D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is called:
A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs
B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called
A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. In precise
form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
A. the law of conservation of mass
B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one of the elements
in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass
C. The law of multiple proportion
D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:
A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by mass. This is
known as:
A. the law of constant composition

B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons.
A. 10 amu
B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum
B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy
B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an “identification tag” for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity
C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called “Proust’s Law” is now known as
A. The law of multiple proportion
B. The law of definite proportion
C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times
B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks
C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind
D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called
A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group
B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period
B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half
B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram
C. electron dot diagram
D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to their group
number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p” orbital?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration
A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4 C. Group 6
B. Group 5 D. Group 7
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want
A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount
2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and the
dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.
A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock
3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal
advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value
4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a difference in
value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain
5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that one supplier’s
actions significantly affect prices and supply.
A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition
6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods substitute.
A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.
A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value
8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price
level.
A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation
9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to
increase profit and block new comers from the industry.
A. Cartel
B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors
10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.
A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition
11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly
12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price
level.
A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation
13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.
A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds
14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds
15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.
A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port
16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate
A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value
17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many sellers.
A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly
18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in one business
market or commodity.
A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly
19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the
payment.
A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity
20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even
21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved.
A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost
22. An obligation with no condition attach is called
A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private
23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.
A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost
24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.
A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost
25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.
A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value
26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has been charged
to depreciation.
A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value
27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all materials that
go into production is called
A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost
28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called
A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest
29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is
A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost
30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date and
pay a certain sum periodically.
A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral
31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.
A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value
32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.
A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update
33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other material which will
be sold.
A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability
34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by the injured party
to recover damages.
A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam
35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time
A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation
36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that will be
purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably.
A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury
37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.
A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods
38. It is sometimes called the second hand value
A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value
39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.
A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation
40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.
A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership
41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one person.
A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
C. Corporation
D. Joint venture
42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.
A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict
43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility
44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is
nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel
45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available
after the required necessities have been obtained.
A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies
46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment
47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.
A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook
48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.
A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life
49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region.
A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise
50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.
A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT
1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an
organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision
2. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate
worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club
3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except
A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education
4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and
codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a
finished physical term.
A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development
6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested
for workability.
A. Research
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes
responsibility for the product.
A. Research
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel
or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs,
especially those that require technical expertise.
A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales
10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization
requiring his services.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any
of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions,
public or private.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting
12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher
of engineering courses.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting
13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing
specific tasks.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting
14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving
15. The first step in Decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity
16. The last step in decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results
17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation
18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation
19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best
strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision
20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies
for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated
resources.
23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.
24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with
available resources.
25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.
26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing
activities related to particular marketing strategy.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans
27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms
and by product family.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs,
and recommends a direction for financial activities.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity
and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan
30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly
concerned with these planes.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle
and top management.
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring
situations or function.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules
34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules
35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules
36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be
repeated.
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement
38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a
program.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish
objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as
engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key
activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.
44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a
certain type of product or customer.
45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.
46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and
to a project or group manager.
47. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority
48. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
D. Head authority
49. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the
personnel are in the organization.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
D. Head authority
50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee
51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee
52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains,
and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.
A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing
53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the
organization.
A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals.
A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who
are best suited to serve the company may be selected.
A. Forecasting
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on
the job.
A. Forecasting
C. Selection
D. Training
58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the
company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-workers.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards
59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards
60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which
is given as a reward for competence and ambition.
A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the
organization.
A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is
used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a
higher position.
A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.
A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion
64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.
A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language
65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the
organization.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the
organizations objectives.
B. Emotive Function
D. Control Function
67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are
affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.
B. Emotive Function
D. Control Function
68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal
69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch,
clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal
70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification
71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex
72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:
A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory

B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarin’s Theory
73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors
necessary to reach organizational goals.
A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding
74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the
organization. This describes:
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as:
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with
the former.
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:
A. A high level of personal drive

B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy
79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and
determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future.
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection
80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence.
A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are
made.

D. Feedback control
82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order that
evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

D. Feedback control
83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways.
A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation
84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and
effectively.
A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning
85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing
86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it
generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities.
A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing
87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each
operation in the production process takes.
A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating
88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material
acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.
A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales
93. The four P’s of marketing are the following except:
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity
94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or
service.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their
customers.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and
behavior.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or
persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of
a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above
2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.
A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1
A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity
5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.
A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar
6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is used.
A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum
7. It is sometimes called the vector product.
A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector
8. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The cross product is commutative.

B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.
9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the ________.
A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action
10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.
A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional
11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.
A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.
A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force
13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.
A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation
14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components about P.
A. Cavalieri’s Theorem
B. Pascal’s Theorem
C. Varignon’s Theorem
D. Torricelli’s Theorem
15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.
A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion
16. A couple is composed of two forces that are
A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action
17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?
A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.
18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle θ, the component of weight (w) parallel to incline is
__________.
A. w sinθ
B. w cosθ
C. w tanθ
D. w cotθ
19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to
A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf
22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is called
A. ground reflected force

B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force
23. The gravity in the moon is about
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point called
A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure
25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?
A. mass of the load

B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above
26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is called
A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C
27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted by the force
___________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero
28. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero.

B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above
29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when acting in given
directions.
A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces
30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell
31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.
A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics
32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?
A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.
A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction
34. Given µ = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if pulled with a
force of 3 N.
A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.
36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform accelerations are
often referred to as
A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above
37. “Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate of
change of its linear momentum”. This is known as Newton’s ___________ of motion.
A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law
38. It is also known as quantity of motion.
A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely fills the space
it occupies.
A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum
40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be made.
A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number
41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles of the moving
continuum body.
A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative
42. Material derivative is also known as __________.
A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above
43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed configuration is called
the ________.
A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field
44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.
A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field
45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.
A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics
46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.
A. Particle Image Velocimetry

B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry
47. A fluid at rest has no
A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress
48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.
A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity
49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the external pressure
and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.
A. Navier – Stokes Equations

B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations
50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow
A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid
51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?
A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint
52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then
A. no forces are acting on the object.

B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above
53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.
A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force
54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10° and 15 N at 100° is
A.18 N at 246°
B. 18 N at 66°
C. 25 N at -114°
D. 25 N at 66°
55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act
A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct
56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will
A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry
57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also be called moment
of inertia.
A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal axis to another
parallel axis.
A. moment of axis theorem

B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C
59. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero

B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above
60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is
A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2
61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is
A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2
62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is distributed
about the reference axis.
A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area
63. It is the material’s ability to resist twisting
A. mass moment of inertia

B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area
64. “Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the object”. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoulli’s Principle
B. Torricelli’s Principle
C. Archimedes’ Principle
D. Pascal’s Principle
65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or partially immersed.
A. Archimedes’ force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction
66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of weight 3 N. Determine
the tension in the string.
A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N
67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.
A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
68. It is the rate of change of velocity
A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse
69. Impulse is equal to ________.
A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are known as
__________.
A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions
71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the momentum change
of the object?
A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s
72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the magnitude of the
impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?
A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s
73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.
A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration
74. The SI unit for angular velocity is
A. degrees per second

B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second
D. radians per second
75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula
A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity
76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called
A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque
77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system can be known
at once.
A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohr’s uncertainty principle
78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is
A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2
79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for determining the
internal forces and reactions on that structure.
A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate
80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant acceleration without
having a known time interval.
A. Bernoulli’s equation
B. Torricelli’s equation
C. Newton’s equation
D. Cavendish’s equation
81. Torricelli’s equation of motion is
A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as
82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?
A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
84. Tangential acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic force manifest.
A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce
86. The value of Gforce is equal to
A. 1.211 x 1041 N
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N
87. The gravitational force constant has the units
A. m3 kg-1 s-2
B. N kg-1 s-2
C. m2 kg-1 s-2
D. N kg-1 m-1
88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is
A. 1.02 x 1057 N
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N
C. 1.02 x 10-67 N
D. 1.02 x 1067 N
89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is
A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2
B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2
90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022 kg, determine the acceleration due to
gravity on the moon.
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat surface.
A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above
92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?
A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as
A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant
94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is
A. 0.0002 – 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3
95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is
A. 0.0002 – 0.0010
B. 0.1 – 0.2
C. 0.01 – 0.015
D. 0.05 – 0.06
96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.
A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient
97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.
A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics
98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N).
A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N
99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.
A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12
100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi – 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j – 3k.
Determine the component Ux.
A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67
PHYSICS
1. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure, the potential
energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the same value.” The concept is
known as
A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles
B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascal’s theorem
D. Hydraulic theorem
2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of the system.
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy
C. Total kinetic energy
D. Total momentum
3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite directions are
superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero
B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced
D. constructive interference always results to zero
4. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude of each charge
and inversely as the square of the distance between them.”
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
B. Newton’s Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulomb’s Law
5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per square meter.
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance
C. Luminous Intensity
D. Radiance
6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as

A. Pascal’s Principle
B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
D. Archimedes Principle
7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is

A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion
D. solid fusion
8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure

A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value
9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly 1500 oC?
A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is

A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively, which of the following
equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid?
A. Q = -mif
B. Q = -miv
C. Q = mif
D. Q = miv
12. Which of the following is true? The density of water

A. Is maximum at 4oC
B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. Is minimum at 4oC
D. Increases with temperature
13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its

A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true
14. Cohesion is the attraction between like

A. atom
B. element
C. compound
D. molecule
15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:

A. the increase in temperature due to induction
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one degree Celsius
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead
16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will

A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases
D. Any of the above is possible
18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves
B. The heat waves
C. The shock waves
D. The Beta rays
21. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
22. Sound waves in air are

A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
C. transverse
D. stationary
23. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
A. Less than 20 Hz
B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
D. All of these
24. The loudness of sound depends upon its

A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. All of the above
25. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called

A. Supersonic sound
B. Intrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound
26. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. vaporization
27. Water starts boiling when

A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
28. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC
C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
29. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
A. mass
B. specific mass
C. density
D. temperature
30. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without rise in its
temperature is called its
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent
31. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat was
A. Joule
B. Boltzmann
C. Faraday
D. Kelvin
32. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is due to the
difference in of water and sand.
A. density
B. specific heat
C. depth
D. thermal conductivity
33. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called

A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer
D. hydrometer
34. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,

A. the potential energy of molecules increases
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
35. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is

A. independent of its pressure P
B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
D. proportional to T
36. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same reading?
A. -38oC
B. -40oC
C. -42oC
D. -50oC
37. A mercury thermometer is constructed at

A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure
38. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be

A. 100oC
B. Less than 100oC
C. More than 100oC
D. May be any of the above
39. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
A. convection of heat
B. conduction of heat
C. radiation of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat
40. The density of water is

A. same at all temperature
B. maximum at 4oC
C. minimum at 4oC
D. maximum at 0oC
41. When a substance is heated, its
A. molecules move more slowly
B. molecules move more rapidly
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases
42. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these
43. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
A. 0oC
B. -273oC
C. -39oC
D. -143oC
44. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from left is called a
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Standing wave
D. None of these
45. When waves go from one place to another they transport

A. Energy and matter
B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only
46. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in

A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude
47. Echo is formed as a result of

A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
48. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the same
frequency and loudness is called
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel
49. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?

A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
D. waves on vibrating string
50. A Decibel is a
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as “statics of deformable _______ bodies”.
A. elastic
B. rigid
C. compressible
D. thermal
2. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force

A. Pascal’s Law
B. Hooke’s Law
C. Young’s Theorem
D. Farrell’s Law
3. The modulus of elasticity is also known as

A. Young’s modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Hooke’s ratio
D. Yield strength
4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of rupture
A. malleable
B. brittle
C. conductible
D. ductile
5. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture

A. brittle
B. malleable
C. ductile
D. conductible
6. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a linear function
of strain.
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
7. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is no permanent
or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed
A. elastic limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
8. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
9. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of rupture is
called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
10. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress is known as
A. elastic limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
11. The maximum ordinate to the curve

A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. tensile strength
D. both B and C are correct
12. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction
A. Pascal’s Number
B. Factor of Safety
C. Young’s Modulus
D. Poisson’s ratio
13. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
14. Defined as the ratio of the Young’s modulus to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
15. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body
A. heterogeneous material
B. multistate material
C. homogenous material
D. monostate material
16. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
17. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
18. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
19. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the

A. Convection
B. Dilatation
C. Expansion
D. Mutation
20. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or form
A. Young’s modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Shear modulus
21. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body
A. Kelvin stress
B. Thermal stress
C. Hydraulic stress
D. Humid stress
22. The typical Young’s modulus of steel is
A. 145-170 GPa
B. 195-210 GPa
C. 225-240 GPa
D. 275-310 Gpa
23. Poisson’s ratio of glass

A. 0.16
B. 0.19
C. 0.23
D. 0.27
24. The yield strength of pure aluminum is

A. 7-11 MPa
B. 7-11 GPa
C. 2-5 MPa
D. 2-5 Gpa
25. One Newton per square meter is one

A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Pascal
D. Kelvin
26. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area

A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. less than
D. greater than
27. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as
A. Shearing stress
B. Tangential stress
C. Torsion
D. Simple stress
28. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which they act
A. perpendicular
B. parallel
C. angled
D. skew
29. Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?

A. Circumferential stress
B. Hoop stress
C. Girth stress
D. All of the above
30. The maximum safe stress a material can carry

A. Optimum stress
B. Working stress
C. Differential stress
D. Partial stress
31. It is the change in shape and/or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a displacement between an
initial and a deformed configuration
A. Deformation
B. Distortion
C. Deflection
D. Dilation
32. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body in which forces
are being applied.
A. Elasticity
B. Dislocation
C. Stress
D. Strain
33. Engineering strain is also known as

A. Hooke strain
B. Cauchy strain
C. Couch strain
D. Pascal strain
34. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the Poisson’s
ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
35. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the Poisson’s
ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
36. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in the other
direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
37. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when stretched in the other
direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
38. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.

A. Torsion
B. Radial distortion
C. Circumferential shear
D. Centrifugal force
39. The angle of twist is measured in

A. Mils
B. Gradians
C. Radians
D. Degrees
40. It is the rotational force down a shaft

A. Pressure
B. Torque
C. Torsion
D. Tangential load
41. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural length when
unloaded
A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Spiral
D. Beam
42. The form of deformation of a spring is

A. Twisting
B. Volume expansion
C. Elongation
D. None of the above
43. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
A. 333.33 MPa
B. 70.74 MPa
C. 435.34 MPa
D. 43.30 Mpa
44. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum axial load can it
handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
A. 4973.59 N
B. 4932.43 N
C. 4901.53 N
D. 4892.43 N
45. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate stress is 140
MPa
A. 2.43 mm
B. 4.24 mm
C. 6.34 mm
D. 7.69 mm
46. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is 3mm, what should
the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.53 mm
C. 7.41 mm
D. 5.34 mm
47. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140
MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.
A. 104 mm
B. 113 mm
C. 134 mm
D. 153 mm
48. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile force without exceeding its
ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should the diameter be?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.32 mm
C. 3.39 mm
D. 1.24 mm
49. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are secured by two
bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?
A. 4.23 MPa
B. 3.21 MPa
C. 2.26 MPa
D. 1.28 Mpa
50. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately. What pulling
force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175 MPa?
A. 434 kN
B. 242 kN
C. 495 kN
D. 272 kN
51. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate punching stress
is 200 MPa?
A. 15.53 kN
B. 17.45 kN
C. 14.43 kN
D. 12.57 kN
52. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If the compressive
stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum thickness of plate from which a hole,
100 mm in diameter can be punched.
A. 33.3 mm
B. 17.9 mm
C. 13.4 mm
D. 26.9 mm
53. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30 MPa. If the thickness
is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 Mpa
54. What is the tangential stress in question 51?

A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
55. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum thickness allowed if
its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure?
A. 2.06 mm
B. 4.12 mm
C. 6.24 mm
D. 8.75 mm
56. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a bolt 8 mm in
diameter?
A. 453.32 MPa
B. 321.43 MPa
C. 431.43 MPa
D. 208.33 Mpa
57. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of 17oC? Use α = 11.7
x 10-6 / Co.
A. 1.34 mm
B. 13.44 mm
C. 134.44 mm
D. 1.34 m
58. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a tensile load of 26
kN. Use E=200 GPa
A. 293.34 mm
B. 67.34 mm
C. 275.87 mm
D. 69.34 mm
59. At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24 kN. At what
temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use α = 13.8 x 10-6 / Co and E = 180
GPa.
A. 115 oC
B. 217 oC
C. 245 oC
D. 287 oC
60. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could be expected if
it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.
A. 75.023 m
B. 75.104 m
C. 75.184 m
D. 75.245 m
61. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on its lower end,
what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3.
A. 46.78 mm
B. 45.34 mm
C. 48.33 mm
D. 52.23 mm
62. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting the weight of the
wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140 MPa and the total elongation is
not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.
A. 4.26 mm
B. 3.12 mm
C. 5.05 mm
D. 2.46 mm
63. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is suspended vertically from
one end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of steel is 5120 kg/m 3 and E=200
GPa, find the total elongation of the rod.
A. 33.45 mm
B. 54.33 mm
C. 53.44 mm
D. 35.33 mm
64. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a rotational force of
27 N-m?
A. 434.31 MPa
B. 542.46 MPa
C. 255.44 MPa
D. 636.62 Mpa
65. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa only?
A. 13.57 N-m
B. 15.34 N-m
C. 18.34 N-m
D. 23.43 N-m
66. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8 mm in radius if it
subjected to torque of 95 N-m?
A. 56.34o
B. 35.62o
C. 92.32o
D. 43.53o
67. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?
A. 8.342 kN-m
B. 3.532 kN-m
C. 7.453 kN-m
D. 5.305 kN-m
68. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum allowable power
transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?
A. 3.43 kW
B. 5.23 kW
C. 1.53 kW
D. 2.89 kW
69. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted through two
complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35 GPa.
A. 6280 mm
B. 3420 mm
C. 1280 mm
D. 1658 mm
70. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4 o. Using G=83 GPa, compute
the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.
A. 1.21 MW
B. 1.67 MW
C. 3.21 MW
D. 1.26 MW
71. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the shearing stress if
there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.
A. 325.32 MPa
B. 231.54 MPa
C. 432.43 MPa
D. 154.67 Mpa
72. Solve question 69 using the exact formula.

A. 238.29 MPa
B. 431.32 MPa
C. 365.35 MPa
D. 153.64 Mpa
73. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The wire diameter is 6
mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.
A. 64.35 mm
B. 42.43 mm
C. 26.02 mm
D. 16.65 mm
74. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming cylinder 150 mm in
diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation of 132 mm without exceeding a
shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.
A. 15.43 turns
B. 13.83 turns
C. 18.24 turns
D. 12.36 turns
75. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20-mm
diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2kN. Use the exact
formula.
A. 120.6 MPa
B. 117.9 MPa
C. 132.4 Mpa
D. 126.9 MPa
ENGINEERING MATERIALS
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit without
being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together is
known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called

A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called

A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is called
A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity
9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is

A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another object
is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal radiation
D. Thermal convection
16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the crystals
different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
C. radioluminescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is

A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called

A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible to the
flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity
LAWS & ETHICS
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.

A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property, independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of justice may compel
their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience, they are not legally
demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something

B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the obligation or
known as the creditor or oblige
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or known as the
debtor or obligor
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.

A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except

A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific date for its
fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.

A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the fulfillment of the
condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
D. Resolutory Condition
17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
18. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as soon as
possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the remedy of “B” is to go to
court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.

A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.

A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.

A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.

A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of the piano or the
refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a
part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is sufficient, determined
by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt, and each one
of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the creditors may demand
compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.

A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this is called
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.

A. Joint obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice to be delivered by
Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00. Another three sacks of rice to be
delivered by Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity

A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality

A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division

A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.

A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
38. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They agree in writing
that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date, “A” shall pay “B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A”
fails to make the delivery. “B” could demand the payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could
not compel “A” to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal
clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except

A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.

A. Joint obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.

A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts in their
concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the parties as in
the case of mutual set off of accounts.
B. Voluntary compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the defendant as
against the claim of the plaintiff.
B. Total compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different amounts and a
balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and compensation
extinguishes the obligations entirely.
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.

A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
52. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into another contract whereby
instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. This illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to the rights of
the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or modification of
principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to
give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law unless there is
an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such as conditions,
terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon the terms of
the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in agreement upon the
object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the amount. This
refers to what stage of the contract
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount P2,000.00 as
purchase price and the latter receives it.
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.

A. Express contract
66. A contract that has already been performed.

A. Express contract
67. A contract that has not yet performed.

A. Express contract
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.

A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
C. Real contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or gratuitous
deposit.
C. Real contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.

C. Real contract
72. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B” whereby the latter agreed
to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
73. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the latter agrees
to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed and distributed
to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial bed. Pedro, however walked
out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
75. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise whatever in the
Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
76. The following are requisites of contracts except

A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
77. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
78. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for which the
remuneration is given.
C. Onerous Contract
79. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking or promise of
either of the contracting parties.
C. Onerous Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to express or
confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?

A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual mistake, fraud,
inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons, such as
creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust
or inadequate.
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely, consent, object and
cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.

86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to another without
the consent of the latter.
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation, recompense,
or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a
contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical expenses, lost wages and
the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety, besmirched reputation,
wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar injury.
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a violation of some legal
right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be awarded to determine the right.
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.

B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
93. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by the judgment of
a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton,
reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants, mariners and
business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the civilized countries of the
world.
A. Law of merchants
B. Law of businessmen
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules.

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

40. A closed system is also known as _________.

41. Open system is also known as _________.

43. When a solid melts,

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

65. Thermos was invented by _________.

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law?

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

92. Who coined the term latent heat?

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?

95. One calorie is equal to _________.

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is

6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called

D. Froth flotation process

7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?

8. A device used to measure density.

A. The law of conservation of mass

B. The law of constant composition

C. The law of multiple proportions

D. The law of chemical reaction

A. the law of conservation of mass

B. the law of definite proportion

C. the law of multiple proportion

D. law of conservation of energy

A. The law of constant composition

B. The law of conservation of mass

C. The law of multiple proportion

D. The law of conservation of energy

20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?

21. The SI unit of temperature is

A. the law of constant composition

C. the law of multiple proportion

D. law of conservation of energy

24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. The law of multiple proportion

B. The law of definite proportion

C. The law of conservation of mass

D. The law of compounds

33. The forces that hold atoms together are called

35. A positive ion is called

36. A negative ion is called

37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called

C. is increased to four times