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231sec1 5
231sec1 5
231sec1 5
1 X 1
= xn ; for jxj < 1: (1)
1 ¡ x n=0
We call the power series the power series representation (or expansion) for
the function
1
f (x) = about x = 0:
1¡x
It is very important to recognize that though the function f (x) = (1 ¡ x)¡1
is de…ned for all x 6= 1; the representation holds only for jxj < 1: In general,
if a function f (x) can be represented by a power series as
X
1
f (x) = cn (x ¡ a)n
n=0
Note that for the same function f (x) ; its Taylor series expansion about
x = b;
X
1
f (x) = dn (x ¡ b)n
n=0
1
x
(b) g (x) = ; a = 0;
x+2
1
(c) h (x) = ; a = 1:
2x + 3
Solution: (a) We shall use (1) by …rst rewriting the function as follows:
1 1 y=¡x2 1 X 1
2
= = = yn ; for jyj < 1:
1+x 1 ¡ (¡x2 ) 1¡y n=0
2
= (¡1)n x2n ; for jxj < 1:
1+x n=0
(b) Write
µ ¶ µ ¶
x 1 1
g (x) = =x =x (2)
x+2 2+x 2 (1 + x=2)
x 1 x 1
= ¢ = ¢ :
2 1 + x=2 2 1 ¡ (¡x=2)
We now use (1) to derive
1 y=¡x=2 1 X 1
= = yn
1 ¡ (¡x=2) 1¡y n=0
1 ³
X x ´n X (¡1)n n
1
= ¡ = x ; for jyj < 1:
n=0
2 n=0
2n
Substituting this into (2), we obtain
x X (¡1)n n
1
x x 1
= ¢ = x
x+2 2 1 ¡ (¡x=2) 2 n=0 2n
X
1
(¡1)n
= xn+1 ; for jyj < 1:
n=0
2n+1
2
Now since ¯x¯
¯ ¯
jyj = ¯ ¯ < 1 () jxj < 2;
2
we conclude
x X (¡1)n
1
= n+1
xn+1 ; for jxj < 2:
x + 2 n=0 2
(c) For
1
h (x) = ; a = 1;
2x + 3
we need to rewrite the denominator in terms of (x ¡ 1)as follows:
1 1 1
= =
2x + 3 2 [(x ¡ 1) + 1] + 3 2 (x ¡ 1) + 5
1 1 1
= =
5 [1 + 2 (x ¡ 1) =5] 5 1 + 2 (x ¡ 1) =5
y=¡2(x¡1)=5 1 1 1 X1
= = yn (for jyj < 1):
51¡y 5 n=0
2 (x ¡ 1)
We then substitute y = ¡ back to obtain
5
1X n
1
1
h (x) = = y
2x + 3 5 n=0
1 µ ¶n ¯ ¯
1X 2 (x ¡ 1) ¯ 2 (x ¡ 1) ¯
= ¡ (for jyj = ¯¯ ¯ < 1)
¯
5 n=0 5 5
µ ¶n
1X
1
n 2
= (¡1) (x ¡ 1)n
5 n=0 5
X
1
(¡1)n 2n 5
= (x ¡ 1)n ; for jx ¡ 1j < :
n=0
5n+1 2
3
Solution: (a) Di¤erentiate
1 X 1
= xn ; for jxj < 1;
1 ¡ x n=0
we obtain
µ ¶0 X
1 X
1
1 1 n 0
f= = = (x ) = nxn¡1 :
(1 ¡ x)2 1¡x n=0 n=1
1 X 1
= xn ; for jxj < 1;
1 ¡ x n=0
we obtain Z µZ ¶
1 X 1 X1
xn+1
n
dx = x dx = + C:
1¡x n=0 n=0
n + 1
So Z
1 X1
xn+1
ln (1 ¡ x) = ¡ dx = ¡ ¡ C:
1¡x n=0
n+1
To determine the constant, we insert x = 0 into both sides:
"1 #
X xn+1
0 = ln (1 ¡ 0) = ¡ ¡ C = ¡C:
n=0
n+1
x=0
(c) Note
d 1
h0 = arctan x = :
dx 1 + x2
So Z
1
h (x) = arctan x = dx:
1 + x2
4
From Example 5.1 (a), we know
1 X 1
2
= (¡1)n x2n :
1+x n=0
Thus
Z X 1 Z X1
1 (¡1)n 2n+1
arctan x = 2
dx = (¡1)n 2n
x dx = x + C:
1+x n=0 n=0
2n + 1
f (a) = c0 :
X
1
0
f (x) = cn n (x ¡ a)n¡1 = c1 +c2 ¢2 (x ¡ a)+c3 ¢3 (x ¡ a)2 +c4 ¢4 (x ¡ a)3 +:::
n=1
(4)
Setting x = a; we have
f 0 (a) = c1 :
We repeat the same process again and again: take derivative again on (4)
X
1
f 00 (x) = cn n (n ¡ 1) (x ¡ a)n¡2 = c2 ¢2¢1+c3 ¢3¢2 (x ¡ a)+c4 ¢4¢3 (x ¡ a)2 +:::
n=2
(5)
5
and set x = a to obtain
f 00 (a)
f 00 (a) = c2 ¢ 2 ¢ 1 =) c2 = ;
2!
take derivative again on (5)
X
1
f (3)
(x) = cn n (n ¡ 1) (n ¡ 2) (x ¡ a)n¡3 = c3 3¢2¢1+c4 4¢3¢2 (x ¡ a)+c5 5¢4¢3 (x ¡ a)2 +:::
n=3
f (n) (a)
cn = ; n = 0; 1; 2; :::
n!
here we adopt the convention that 0! = 1: All above process can be carried
on as long as any number of order of derivative at x = a exists, i.e., f (x)
must be a smooth function near a: Then, we have Taylor series expansion
formula
X1
f (n) (a)
f (x) = (x ¡ a)n : (Taylor Series)
n=0
n!
When a = 0; it becomes
X
1
f (n) (0)
f (x) = xn ; (Maclaurin Series)
n=0
n!
f 0 = ex ; f 00 = ex ; :::; f (n) = ex :
Thus
f (n) (0) 1
cn = = ;
n! n!
6
X
1
f (n) (0) X1
1 n
x n
e = x = x : (Maclaurin Series For ex )
n=0
n! n=0
n!
This is one of the most useful Taylor series, and must be memorized.
(b) We o¤er two methods to solve this problem. First is the direct method
by using formula for Maclaurin Series. To this end, we compute derivatives
g 0 = bx ln b
g 00 = (bx )0 ln b = (bx ln b) ln b = bx (ln b)2 ;
:::
g (n) = bx (ln b)n :
So
X
1
g (n) (0) X
1
(ln b)n
x n
b = x = xn :
n=0
n! n=0
n!
Another method is to use Taylor series for ex above. Write
x y=x ln b
X1
1 n X 1
1 X1
(ln b)n n
bx = eln(b ) = e(x ln b) = ey = y = (x ln b)n = x :
n=0
n! n=0
n! n=0
n!
f = sin x =) f (0) = 0;
f 0 = cos x =) f 0 (0) = 1;
f" = ¡ sin x =) f" (0) = 0;
f (3) = ¡ cos x =) f (3) (0) = ¡1
f (4) = sin x =) f (4) (0) = 0;
and that this cyclic pattern repeats every 4 times di¤erentiations. In partic-
ular, we see that when n is even, i.e., n = 2m; f (n) (0) = 0: When n is odd,
7
i.e., n = 2m + 1, f (n) (0) equals 1 and ¡1 alternating. Thus,
X
1
f (n) (0)
sin x = xn
n=0
n!
X
1
f (n) (0) n
= x
n=0
n!
n=odd
X1
f (2m+1)
(0) 2m+1
= x
m=0
(2m + 1)!
X1
(¡1)m 2m+1
= x (Maclaurin Series for cos x)
m=0
(2m + 1)!
x3 x5 x7
= x¡ + ¡ + ::::
3! 5! 7!
(b) Maclaurin series for cos x may be derived analogously. Another simple
way to …nd Maclaurin series for cos x is to use the above Maclaurin series for
sin x: We know that cos x = (sin x)0 : So
à 1 !0
X (¡1)m
cos x = x2m+1
m=0
(2m + 1)!
X1
(¡1)m
= (2m + 1) x2m
m=0
(2m + 1)!
X1
(¡1)m 2m
= x (Maclaruin Series for cos x)
m=0
(2m)!
x2 x4 x6
=1¡ + ¡ + ::::
2! 4! 6!
8
Solution: (a) Set y = 2x; and use Maclaurin Series for sin x to get
Therefore,
Z X1 Z
¡x2 (¡1)n 2n
e dx = x
n=0
n!
X
1
(¡1)n
= x2n+1 + C:
n=0
n! (2n + 1)
9
to get
x2 x3 ¡ ¢
ex ¡ 1 ¡ x ¡ = + O x4
2 3!
and consequently
x2
ex ¡ 1 ¡ x ¡ 4
2 = 1 + O (x ) = 1 + O (x) :
x3 3! x3 6
So
x2
ex ¡ 1 ¡ x ¡
lim 2 = 1:
x!0 x3 6
Taylor Polynomials.
Consider Taylor series expansion
X
1
f (n) (a)
f (x) = (x ¡ a)n
n=0
n!
X
1
f (k) (a)
T1 (x) = (x ¡ a)k = f (a) + f 0 (a) (x ¡ a)
k!
k=0
X
2
f (k) (a) f" (a)
T2 (x) = (x ¡ a)k = f (a) + f 0 (a) (x ¡ a) + (x ¡ a)2
k=0
k! 2!
10
Example 5.6. Find T3 (x) about x = 0 for
(a) ex sin x;
(b) tan x:
Solution. (a) Using Maclaurin expansions, we have
Ã1 !Ã !
X xn X (¡1)n x2n+1
ex sin x =
n! (2n + 1)!
µ n=0 n=0
¶µ ¶
x2 x3 x3
= 1+x+ + + ::: x¡ + :::
2 3! 3!
µ ¶
x3 x2 ¡ ¢
= x¡ + x (x) + (x) + O x4
3! 2
x 3 ¡ ¢
= x + x2 + + O x4 ;
3
where
¡ ¢
O x4 indicates the sum of all terms being equal or higher order than x4 :
So
x3
T 3 = x + x2 + :
3
11
(b) Solution 1.
P (¡1)n x2n+1
n=0
sin x (2n + 1)!
tan x = =
cos x P (¡1)n x2n
n=0
(2n)!
µ ¶
x3
x¡ + O (x5 )
3!
= µ ¶
x2
1¡ + O (x4 )
2!
µ ¶
x3
x¡ + O (x5 )
3! x2 ¡ ¢
= (y = + O x4 )
1¡y 2!
µ ¶
x 3 ¡ ¢ ¡ ¢
= x¡ + O x5 1 + y + y2 + :::
3!
µ ¶µ ¶
x3 ¡ 5¢ x2 ¡ 4¢
= x¡ +O x 1+ +O x
3! 2!
µ ¶ µ 2¶
x3 x ¡ ¢
= x¡ +x + O x4
3! 2!
x 3 ¡ ¢
=x+ + O x4 :
3
So
x3
T3 = x + :
3
Solution 2: We use formula
X
3
f (k) (0)
T3 (x) = xk :
k=0
k!
Now
tan 0 = 0;
(tan x)0 = sec2 x; (tan x)0 jx=0 = 1
(tan x)00 = 2 tan x sec2 x; (tan x)00 jx=0 = 0
¡ ¢0
(tan x)000 = 2 (tan x)0 sec2 x + 2 tan x sec2 x
(tan x)000 jx=0 = 2 (tan x)0 jx=0 = 2:
12
So
X
3
f (k) (0) 2 3 x3
k
T3 (x) = x =x+ x =x+ :
k! 3! 3
k=0
13
5. *Use the …rst 3 terms of a power series to approximate the de…nite
integral: Z 0:4
¡ ¢
ln 1 + x2 dx:
0
14