Geas Complete Naka PDF

CHEMISTRY
1 A branch of chemistry that deals with the chemistry of carbon and living things.
Correct Answer :
Organic Chemistry
Details
2 A branch of chemistry that deals with the structure and interaction between inorganic
compounds, which are any compounds that are not based in carbon-hydrogen bonds.
Correct Answer :
Inorganic Chemistry
Details
3 Defined as dealing with the relations between the physical properties of substances and their
chemical formations along with their changes.
Correct Answer :
Physical Chemistry Details
4 A branch of chemistry concerned with the chemical reactions that occur inside living organisms.
Correct Answer :
Biochemistry
Details
5 A branch of chemistry involved with studying the properties of materials or developing tools to
analyze materials.
Correct Answer :
Analytical Chemistry
Details
6 It is the chemistry associated with soil, air, and water and of human impact on natural systems.
Correct Answer :
Environmental Chemistry
Details
7 It a branch of chemistry that involves the study of chemical reactions in a solution at the
interface between an ionic conductor and an electrical conductor.
Correct Answer :
Electrochemistry Details
8 A branch of chemistry associated with nuclear reactions and isotopes.
Correct Answer :
Nuclear Chemistry
Details
9 It is a study of chemical composition and chemical processes associated with the Earth and
other planets.
Correct Answer :
Geochemistry Details
10 A branch of chemistry concerned with interactions between light and matter.
Correct Answer :
Photochemistry
Details
It is the study of thermal effects of chemical reactions and the thermal energy exchange
between processes.
Correct Answer :
Thermochemistry
Details
2 _________ is anything that occupies space and has a mass. It is composed of tiny particles
called atoms.
Correct Answer :
Matter Details
3 __________ has atoms or molecules that are closely packed. It has definite volume and shape.
Correct Answer :
Solid
Details
4 __________ has no definite volume or shape. It has particles that are comparatively separated.
Correct Answer :
Gas
Details
5 __________ has particles whose packing is between that of solid and gas. It has definite volume
but no specific shape.
Correct Answer :
Liquid
Details
6 It is said to be the fifth state of matter.
Correct Answer :
Bose-Einstein Condensate
Details
7 _________ is an ionized gas that exist at temperatures starting at several thousand degrees
Celsius. It occurs naturally in the form of stars and lightning.
Correct Answer :
Plasma
Details
8 It was discovered by Sir William Crookes in 1879 but its name was coined by Irving Langmuir in
1928.
Correct Answer :
Plasma
Details
9 A phase change in which a solid is converted to liquid.
Correct Answer :
Melting
Details
10 A phase change in which a gas is converted to liquid.
Correct Answer :
Condensation
Details
A phase change in which a liquid is converted to gas.
Correct Answer :
Vaporization
Details
2 A phase change in which a liquid is converted to solid.
Correct Answer :
Freezing
Details
3 A phase change in which a gas is converted to solid.
Correct Answer :
Deposition
Details
4 A phase change in which a plasma is converted to gas.
Correct Answer :
Deionization
Details
5 A phase change in which a solid is converted to gas.
Correct Answer :
Sublimation
Details
6 A phase change in which a gas is converted to plasma.
Correct Answer :
Ionization Details
7 __________ are properties that lead to changes in the identity and composition of a substance.
Correct Answer :
Chemical Properties Details
8 __________ are properties that are independent on the size of the sample involved.
Correct Answer :
Intensive Properties
Details
9 __________ are properties which can be measured without changing the identity and
composition of a substance.
Correct Answer :
Physical Properties
Details
10 ___________ refer to the qualities/attributes that distinguish one sample of matter from
another.
Correct Answer :
Properties of Matter
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Milk turns sour. This is a ___________.
Correct Answer :
Chemical Change
Details
2 HCl being a strong acid is a __________.
Correct Answer :
Chemical Property
Details
3 Wood sawed in two is ____________.
Correct Answer :
Physical Change
Details
4 Copper Sulfate (CuSO4) is dissolved in water
Correct Answer :
Chemical Change
Details
5 Aluminum Phosphate has a density of 2.566 g/cm3.
Correct Answer :
Physical Property
Details
6 Which of the following are examples of matter?
Correct Answer :
All of these choices
Details
7 Dicing a potato is a:
Correct Answer :
Physical Change
Details
8 The formation of gas bubbles is a sign of what type of change?
Correct Answer :
Chemical Change
Details
9 The mass of lead is a __________ property.
Correct Answer :
Physical Property
Details
10 _________ change results in one or more substances of entirely different composition from the
original substances.
Correct Answer :
Chemical
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 _________ is any material consists of only one component with definite physical and chemical
properties and a definite composition.
Correct Answer :
Pure Substance
Details
2 A chemical substance that is made up of a unique kind of atoms and hence it cannot be broken
down into simpler substance.
Correct Answer :
Element
Details
3 A pure chemical substance consisting of two or more different elements that can be separated
into simpler substances by chemical means.
Correct Answer :
Compound
Details
4 _________ consist of two or more different substances are mixed together but not combined
chemically. It can be either homogeneous or heterogeneous.
Correct Answer :
Mixture Details
5 __________ mixture is a mixture that is uniform in appearance and has only one phase.
Correct Answer :
Homogeneous
Details
6 Mercury is a __________.
Correct Answer :
Element
Details
7 Table salt is a _________.
Correct Answer :
Compound
Details
8 What type of mixture is air?
Correct Answer :
Heterogeneous
Details
9 Carbon Dioxide is a __________.
Correct Answer :
Compound
Details
10 What type of mixture is coffee?
Correct Answer :
Homogeneous
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is a homogeneous mixture composed of only one phase. They have particle sizes at the
molecule or ion level.
Correct Answer :
Solution
Details
2 It is a heterogeneous fluid containing solid particles that are sufficiently large for sedimentation.
Correct Answer :
Suspension
Details
3 It consist of microscopic particles dispersed in a solvent. Its particles are larger than the size of a
molecule but smaller than particles that can be seen with naked eye.
Correct Answer :
Colloid
Details
4 A common method of classifying colloids is based on the phase of the dispersed substance and
what phase it is dispersed in. Which of the following is considered as a colloid?
Correct Answer :
Details
5 _________ is a colloidal suspension with solid particles in a liquid.
Correct Answer :
Sol
Details
6 _________ is a colloid with liquid particles in a liquid.
Correct Answer :
Emulsion Details
7 _________ is a colloid formed when many gas particles are trapped in a liquid or solid.
Correct Answer :
Foam
Details
8 _________ is a colloid that contains small particles of liquid or solid dispersed in a gas.
Correct Answer :
Aerosol Details
9 When a solid dispersing medium is mixed with a solid dispersing material a ________ is formed.
Correct Answer :
Solid Sol Details
10 When a liquid dispersing medium is mixed with a gas dispersing material a foam is formed.
Which of the following is a foam?
Correct Answer :
Whipped cream
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is used to separate an insoluble solid from a liquid through a filter. This can be used in
separating sand from water.
Correct Answer :
Filtration
Details
2 It is used to separate soluble solid from a liquid. This can be used in separating salt from water.
Correct Answer :
Evaporation
Details
3 It used to separate gaseous mixtures of different boiling points. This can be used to separate
water from ink.
Correct Answer :
Distillation
Details
4 It is used to separate water vapor from carbon dioxide in dry ice. It is sometimes called ¡®freeze
drying¡¯.
Correct Answer :
Sublimation
Details
5 It used to separate water gaseous mixtures containing at least one gas with a much higher
boiling point than the others. This can be used to separate water vapor from air.
Correct Answer :
Condensation
Details
6 It is used to separate more difficult homogeneous mixtures like in separating dyes in inks or
chlorophyll in plants.
Correct Answer :
Chromatography
Details
7 It is used in separating heterogeneous mixtures with phases with different densities. The dense
components sink and the lighter ones float.
Correct Answer :
Floatation
Details
8 It used in separating gaseous mixtures containing gases with different molecular weights. Gases
with faster molecules flow through tiny pinholes faster than gases with slow molecules.
Correct Answer :
Effusion
Details
9 It is used to separate heavier and lighter components of a mixture by wind or blowing air. This
can be used to separate grains from chaffs of straws.
Correct Answer :
Winnowing
Details
10 It is used in separating gold from its ore.
Correct Answer :
Amalgamation
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 ________ are the basic building blocks of matter.
Correct Answer :
Atom
Details
2 A proton has a charge of:

Correct Answer :
+1.6x10-19 C
Details
3 An electron has a charge of:
Correct Answer :
-1.6x10-19 C
Details
4 A neutron has a charge of:
Correct Answer :
None of these choices
Details
5 The unit mass of proton in kilogram is:
Correct Answer :
1.6726x10-27
Details
6 The unit mass of an electron in kilogram is:
Correct Answer :
9.1094x10-31
Details
7 Proton was discovered by:
Correct Answer :
Ernest Rutherford
Details
8 Electron was discovered by:
Correct Answer :
Joseph John Thomson
Details
9 Neutron was discovered by:
Correct Answer :
James Chadwick
Details
10 One Dalton (Da) is equal to:
Correct Answer :
1.660538782x10-27 kg
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The number of protons in the nucleus on an atom is called:
Correct Answer :
Atomic Number
Details
2 The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is called:
Correct Answer :
Mass Number
Details
3 The average weight of an element, calculated using the relative abundance of naturally
occurring isotopes.
Correct Answer :
Atomic Weight Details
4 Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.
Correct Answer :
Isotopes Details
5 Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different number of protons.
Correct Answer :
Isotones Details
6 Atoms with the same number mass number but different atomic number.
Correct Answer :
Isobars
Details
7 This atomic model is also known as the ¡®Billiard Ball Model¡¯.
Correct Answer :
John Dalton¡¯s Model
Details
8 Also called the ¡®Raisin Bread Model¡¯ or Plum pudding Model.
Correct Answer :
J.J. Thomson¡¯s Model

Details
9 According to this atomic model, most of the mass of the atom was contained in the central
region of the atom, the positive nucleus surrounded by negative electrons.
Correct Answer :
Ernest Rutherford¡¯s Model
Details
10 Also known as the ¡®Planetary Model of Atom¡¯.
Correct Answer :
Niels Bohr¡¯s Model
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 There are three fundamental chemical laws. Which of the following is not part of these laws?
Correct Answer :
Law of Inertia
Details
2 It states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed.
Correct Answer :
Conservation of Mass
Details
3 This law states that a given compound always contains exactly the same proportion of elements
by mass.
Correct Answer :
Law of Definite Proportions
Details
4 When elements A and B form a series of compounds, the ratio of masses of B that combine (in
different compounds) with 1 gram of A can be reduced to small whole numbers. This is
according to what fundamental chemical law?
Correct Answer :
Law of Multiple Proportions
Details
5 Quantum number is a number that occurs in the theoretical expression for the value of some
quantized property of a subatomic particle, atom, or molecule and can only have certain
integral or halfintegral values. Which of the following is not a quantum number?
Correct Answer :
Orientation Quantum Number
Details
6 This quantum number determines the main energy level occupied by an electron. It can have
integer values of 1, 2, 3, up to n.
Correct Answer :
Principal Quantum Number
Details
7 This quantum number describes the shape of orbital and is an indication of the angular
momentum of the electron. It has integer values from 0 to n ¨C 1, for each individual n.
Correct Answer :
Azimuthal Quantum Number
Details
8 This quantum number indicates the orientation of the orbital. It has integer values from -1 and
+1, including zero.
Correct Answer :
Magnetic Quantum Number
Details
9 This quantum number takes into account the spinning of the electron around its own axis. The
values are -1/2 for counter-clockwise and +1/2 for clockwise.
Correct Answer :
Spin Quantum Number
Details
10 ¡°No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers.¡± This statement is
also known as:
Correct Answer :
Pauli¡¯s Exclusion Principle
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 ¡°Electrons fill the orbital starting at the lowest possible energy states before filling higher
states. This is used to determine the electron configuration of an atom, molecule or ion.¡± This
statement is also known as:
Correct Answer :
Aufbau Principle
Details
2 ¡°It is impossible to know simultaneously both the momentum and position of a particle with
certainty." This statement is also known as:
Correct Answer :
Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
Details
3 ¡°Every orbital in a subshell is singly occupied with one electron before any one orbital is doubly
occupied.¡± This statement is also known as:
Correct Answer :
Hund¡¯s Rule
Details
4 What are the first seven permitted values for n?
Correct Answer :
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 Details
5 What values of •6½1 are permitted for an electron with principal quantum number n = 3?
Correct Answer :
0, 1, and 2 Details
6 What values are permitted for ml for an electron in which the •6½1 value is 2?
Correct Answer :
•6Ó12,•6Ó11, 0, 1, and 2. Details
7 What values are permitted for ms for an electron in which n = 2, l = 1, and ml = 0?
Correct Answer :
•6Ó11/2 and +1/2
Details
8 The use of quantum numbers is to specify electron¡¯s.

Correct Answer :
position
Details
9 Azimuthal quantum number actually represents.
Correct Answer :
subshells
Details
10 Letter s for azimuthal quantum number stands for:
Correct Answer :
sharp
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
Correct Answer :
Aufbau Principle
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Hund¡¯s Rule
Details
Correct Answer :
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 Details
Correct Answer :
0, 1, and 2 Details
Correct Answer :
•6Ó12,•6Ó11, 0, 1, and 2. Details
Correct Answer :
•6Ó11/2 and +1/2
Details
Correct Answer :
position
Details
Correct Answer :
subshells
Details
Correct Answer :
sharp
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
Correct Answer :
Law of Inertia
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
by mass.
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
+1, including zero.
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Spin Quantum Number
Details
also known as:
Correct Answer :
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 ________ are the basic building blocks of matter.
Correct Answer :
Atom
Details
2 A proton has a charge of:
Correct Answer :
+1.6x10-19 C
Details
3 An electron has a charge of:

Correct Answer :
-1.6x10-19 C
Details
4 A neutron has a charge of:
Correct Answer :
Details
5 The unit mass of proton in kilogram is:
Correct Answer :
1.6726x10-27
Details
6 The unit mass of an electron in kilogram is:
Correct Answer :
9.1094x10-31
Details
7 Proton was discovered by:
Correct Answer :
Ernest Rutherford
Details
8 Electron was discovered by:
Correct Answer :
Joseph John Thomson
Details
9 Neutron was discovered by:
Correct Answer :
James Chadwick
Details
10 One Dalton (Da) is equal to:
Correct Answer :
1.660538782x10-27 kg
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The number of protons in the nucleus on an atom is called:
Correct Answer :
Atomic Number
Details
2 The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is called:
Correct Answer :
Mass Number
Details
occurring isotopes.
Correct Answer :
Atomic Weight
Details
4 Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.
Correct Answer :
Isotopes Details
5 Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different number of protons.
Correct Answer :
Isotones Details
6 Atoms with the same number mass number but different atomic number.
Correct Answer :
Isobars
Details
7 This atomic model is also known as the ¡®Billiard Ball Model¡¯.
Correct Answer :
John Dalton¡¯s Model
Details
8 Also called the ¡®Raisin Bread Model¡¯ or Plum pudding Model.
Correct Answer :
J.J. Thomson¡¯s Model
Details
9 According to this atomic model, most of the mass of the atom was contained in the central
region of the atom, the positive nucleus surrounded by negative electrons.
Correct Answer :
Ernest Rutherford¡¯s Model
Details
10 Also known as the ¡®Planetary Model of Atom¡¯.
Correct Answer :
Niels Bohr¡¯s Model
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
Correct Answer :
Law of Inertia
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
by mass.
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
+1, including zero.
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Spin Quantum Number
Details
also known as:
Correct Answer :
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
Correct Answer :
Aufbau Principle
Details
Correct Answer :
Details
Correct Answer :
Hund¡¯s Rule
Details
Correct Answer :
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 Details
Correct Answer :
0, 1, and 2 Details
Correct Answer :
•6Ó12,•6Ó11, 0, 1, and 2. Details
Correct Answer :
•6Ó11/2 and +1/2
Details
Correct Answer :
position
Details
Correct Answer :
subshells
Details

Correct Answer :
sharp
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 ¡°When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic number, elements with
similar properties appear at periodic intervals.¡± This statement is known as _________.
Correct Answer :
The Periodic Law
Details
2 _______ is a horizontal row in the periodic table that provides the number of the last main
energy level. It is also called as series.
Correct Answer :
Period
Details
3 _________ is the arrangement of electrons of an atom. It is concerned with the way electrons
are distributed in the orbitals of the given system.
Correct Answer :
Electron Configuration
Details
4 ________ is a vertical column of elements in the periodic table that provides the number of
valence electrons. It is called as family.
Correct Answer :
Group
Details
5 _______ is half of the distance between centers of two atoms that are touching each other.
Correct Answer :
Atomic Radius
Details
6 It is the ability of an atom to attract electron.
Correct Answer :
Electronegativity Details
7 _________ describes the ability of an atom to accept an electron.
Correct Answer :
Electron Affinity
Details
8 It is the energy needed to remove an electron from an atom.
Correct Answer :
Ionization Energy
Details
9 It describes how easily an atom can lose an electron.
Correct Answer :
Metallic Character
Details
10 As you go down a group, the atomic radius generally.

Correct Answer :
Increases
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 As you go down a group, the electronegativity generally.
Correct Answer :
Decreases Details
2 As you go from left to right across a period, the electronegativity generally.
Correct Answer :
Increases
Details
3 As you go down a group, the atomic radius generally.
Correct Answer :
Increases
Details
4 As you go from left to right across a period, the atomic radius generally.
Correct Answer :
Decreases
Details
5 As you go down a group, the electron affinity generally.
Correct Answer :
Decreases Details
6 As you go from left to right across a period, the electron affinity generally.
Correct Answer :
Increases
Details
7 As you go down a group, the ionization energy generally.
Correct Answer :
Decreases Details
8 As you go from left to right across a period, the first ionization energy generally.
Correct Answer :
Increases
Details
9 As you go down a group, the ionization energy generally.
Correct Answer :
Decreases
Details
10 As you go from left to right across a period, the metallic character generally.
Correct Answer :
Decreases
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 _________ is the smallest particle of a substance that retains the chemical and physical
properties of the substance and is composed of two or more atoms.
Correct Answer :
Molecule
Details
2 _______ is an atom or group of atoms that has acquired a net electric charge by gaining or
losing one or more electrons.
Correct Answer :
Ion
Details
3 Who are the two chemists credited for the discovery of the periodic law?
Correct Answer :
Julius Lothar Meyer and Demitri Ivanovich Mendeleev
Details
4 Elements in Group IA in the periodic table are ______.
Correct Answer :
Alkali Metals
Details
5 Elements in Group IIA in the periodic table are _____.
Correct Answer :
Alkaline Earth Metals
Details
6 The boron group is what group in the periodic table?

Correct Answer :
Group III A
Details
7 What group in the periodic table is the carbon group?
Correct Answer :
Group IV A
Details
8 What group in the periodic table is the nitrogen group?
Correct Answer :
Group V A
Details
9 The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?
Correct Answer :
Group VI A
Details
10 Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?
Correct Answer :
Group VII A
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The elements, germanium and silicon, which are commonly used for semiconductors belongs
what group of elements?
Correct Answer :
Carbon Group
Details
2 What group in the periodic table are the noble gases?
Correct Answer :
Group VIII A
Details
3 Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?
Correct Answer :
Antimony
Details
4 What is the atomic number for oxygen?
Correct Answer :
Details
5 What is the atomic number of germanium?
Correct Answer :
32
Details
6 What is the atomic number of carbon?
Correct Answer :
Details
7 Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?

Correct Answer :
Beryllium
Details
8 Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?
Correct Answer :
Helium
Details
9 What is the most abundant element in terms of the number of atoms?
Correct Answer :
Oxygen
Details
10 What is the most abundant element in the human body?
Correct Answer :
Oxygen
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is the second most abundant element in the human body?
Correct Answer :
Carbon
Details
2 Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

Correct Answer :
Magnesium
Details
3 Caustic soda is used in making soap, textiles and paper. What is another term for caustic soda?
Correct Answer :
Sodium hydroxide
Details
4 What is used for the manufacture of explosives and fireworks?
Correct Answer :
Potassium chlorate
Details
5 All alkaline metals will tarnish in air except ________.
Correct Answer :
Beryllium
Details
6 What alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its ability to allow x-rays to pass
through with minimum absorption?
Correct Answer :
Beryllium
Details
7 What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a corrosion-resistant
material?
Correct Answer :
Zinc
Details
8 What element is used as electric power source for pacemaker¡¯s artifact hearts?
Correct Answer :
Promethium
Details
9 What element is commonly used in making lasers?
Correct Answer :
Neodymium
Details
10 What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?
Correct Answer :
Carbon
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is the number of electrons an atom can donate, accept or share with other atoms to form a
compound.
Correct Answer :
Oxidation State
Details
2 __________ are composed of two elements. It can be metal and a nonmetal or nonmetal and
another nonmetal.
Correct Answer :
Binary Compounds
Details
3 __________ are composed of two or more elements, usually polyatomic ion and an element. In
naming them, the positive comes first followed by the negative.
Correct Answer :
Ternary Compounds
Details
4 Chemical formula of Zinc Hydroxide is:
Correct Answer :
Zn(OH)2
Details
5 Valency of Carbon (C) is:
Correct Answer :
Details
6 All are ionic compounds except:
Correct Answer :
NO2
Details
7 Molecular weight of propane (C3H8) is:
Correct Answer :
44.095g/mol
Details
8 Chemical formula of silver bromide is:
Correct Answer :
AgBr
Details
9 All are covalent compounds except:
Correct Answer :
HNO3
Details
10 Empirical formula is the:
Correct Answer : simplest
formula
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Relative molecular mass of Na2CO3 is:
Correct Answer :
106
Details
2 Formula of Ammonium Sulfate is:
Correct Answer :
(NH4)2SO4
Details
3 Formula of copper carbonate is:
Correct Answer :
CuCO3
Details
4 Substance is treated both as a radical and an element. It is:
Correct Answer :
hydrogen
Details
5 Valency or oxidation state of hydroxide ion (OH) is:
Correct Answer :
-1
Details
6 Formula of carbonic acid is:
Correct Answer :
H2CO3
Details
7 To balance Al(OH)3 + HNO3 ¡ú Al(NO3)3 + H2O, the coefficient inserted to HNO3 molecules will
be:
Correct Answer :
Details
8 Formula of Calcium Hydrogen Carbonate is:

Correct Answer :
Ca(HCO3)2
Details
9 If an acid reacts with a carbonate, product will always include.
Correct Answer : all
of these choices
Details
10 Relative formula mass of ammonium sulphate (NH4)2SO4 is:
Correct Answer :
132.14g/mol
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Formula of Hydrogen Carbonate ion is:
Correct Answer :
HCO3
Details
2 Chemical formula of calcium nitrate is:
Correct Answer :
Ca(NO3)2
Details
3 Formula of Aluminum Sulphate indicates that:

Correct Answer :
for two ions of Al, 3 ions of sulphate are required
Details
4 A water molecule will always contain.
Correct Answer :
11.11% of Hydrogen and 88.89% of oxygen
Details
5 Chemical formula of aluminum oxide is
Correct Answer :
Al2O3
Details
6 Molar mass of potassium hydrogen carbonate KHCO3 is:
Correct Answer :
100.115g/mol
Details
occurring isotopes.
Correct Answer :
Atomic Weight
Details
8 It is the sum of the masses of all atoms in a given formula.
Correct Answer :
Molar Mass / Formula Mass

Details
9 The chemical formula that indicates the relative proportions of the elements in a molecule is
called:
Correct Answer :
Empirical Formula
Details
10 The chemical formula that shows the actual number and kinds of atoms in a molecule is called
Correct Answer :
Molecular Formula
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 ___________ are forces of attraction that hold the atoms together. The bonds between atoms
give molecules different properties.
Correct Answer :
Chemical Bond Details
2 _________ is the number of chemical bonds between a pair of atoms.
Correct Answer :
Bond order Details
3 _________ is the average distance between nuclei of two bonded atoms in a molecule.
Correct Answer :
Bond length Details

4 ________ is the amount of energy needed in the formation and breaking of a bond.
Correct Answer :
Bond energy
Details
5 _________ is formed when one atom accepts or donates one or more of its valence electrons to
another atom.
Correct Answer :
Ionic Bond Details
6 ________ is formed when two atoms share valence electrons between them.
Correct Answer :
Covalent Bond Details
7 In this type of bonding, force of attraction that exists within elemental metals.
Correct Answer :
Metallic Bonding
A type of covalent bonding where in unequal sharing of electrons occur.
Polar Covalent Bond
Details
9 A type of covalent bonding where in equal sharing of electrons occur.
Correct Answer :
Non-Polar Covalent Bond
Details
10 A type of covalent bonding where in the pair of electrons shared between atoms is donated by
only one atom.
Correct Answer :
Coordinate Covalent Bond
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 _________ is shorthand representation of a chemical reaction using chemical formulas

indicating the products and reactants.
Correct Answer :
Chemical Equation
Details
2 __________ is chemical process in which substances are transformed into another substance
with different properties.
Correct Answer :
Chemical Reaction
Details
3 __________ is the substance participating in a chemical reaction, especially a directly reacting

substance present at the start of the reaction.
Correct Answer :
Reactant
Details
4 ________ is the new substance formed because of the reaction.
Correct Answer :
Product
Details
5 ________ is the substance that stimulates chemical reaction without being consumed in the
reaction.
Correct Answer :
Catalyst
Details
6 _________ refers to the reduction-oxidation reaction.
Correct Answer :
Redox Reaction Details
7 A process in which a chemical substance loses electrons or takes on oxygen.
Correct Answer :
Oxidation
A process in which a chemical substance gains electrons or gives off oxygen.

Reduction Details
9 A chemical substance that gives up oxygen or takes on electrons from another substance.
Correct Answer :
Oxidizing Agent Details
10 A chemical substance that takes on oxygen or gives up electrons to another substance.
Correct Answer :
Reducing Agent
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A type of chemical reaction wherein two or more reactants combine to form a more complex
product.
Correct Answer :
Direct Combination
Details
2 A type of chemical reaction that involves the breakdown of a single reactant into two or more
simpler products.
Correct Answer :
Decomposition
Details
3 A type of chemical reaction wherein one element is displaced from a compound by another
element.
Correct Answer :
Single Displacement
Details
4 A type of chemical reaction wherein two elements in different compounds replaces each other
to form entirely differently compounds.
Correct Answer :
Double Displacement Details
5 This symbol is used as shorthand information in a chemical reaction to indicate evolution of gas.
Correct Answer :
¡ü
Details
6 This symbol is used as shorthand information in a chemical reaction to indicate formation of

precipitate.
Correct Answer :
¡ý
Details
7 This symbol is used as shorthand information in a chemical reaction to indicate the application
of heat in the reaction.
Correct Answer :
¡ú
An Oxidation number can be:
Details
9 In process of oxidation, 20% of iron and steel is destroyed.
Correct Answer :
rusting Details
10 To determine that a substance is oxidized or reduced other factor to consider is:
Correct Answer : both electron transfer and changes in
oxidation number
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A number which is assigned to each atom or ion in a compound which explains its degree of
oxidation is called:
Correct Answer :
both oxidation number and oxidation state
Details
2 System which suggested Roman numbers to name compounds is called as:
Correct Answer :
Stock Nomenclature
Details
3 Metals always bears.
Correct Answer :
positive oxidation number
Details
4 N2O, NO, NO2 are all nitrogen's.
Correct Answer :
oxides
Details
5 Loss of oxygen from an element is simple.
Correct Answer :
reduction
Details
6 When a single atom provides both electrons which are needed for completion of covalent bond
lead to.
Correct Answer : co-ordinate
bond
Details
7 Metals lose electrons from their lattice to become.
Correct Answer :
positive ions Details
8 Complete transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to different atom forms.
Correct Answer :
ionic bonds
Details
9 Pairs of outer shell electrons not used in bonding are called as:
Correct Answer :
lone pairs Details
10 Energy which is required to break 1 mol of a given bond is called:
Correct Answer : bond
energy
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 ________ is homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, which may be solids, liquids,
gases, or a combination of these.
Correct Answer :
Solution
Details
2 __________ describes the maximum amount of a substance that can be dissolved in a given
amount of solvent.
Correct Answer :
Solubility
Details
3 _______ is the substance being dissolved in another substance, usually the component of a
solution in the lesser amount.
Correct Answer :
Solute
Details
4 _________ is the substance in which another substance is dissolved, forming a solution.
Correct Answer :
Solvent Details
5 __________ is the measure of how much of a given substance is mixed with another substance.
Correct Answer :
Concentration Details
6 __________ is the process of adding solvent to a solution to achieve the desired concentration.
Correct Answer :
Dilution Details
7 _________ is the number of moles of a substance to the total number of moles of the solution.
Correct Answer :
Mole fraction Details
8 It is expressed in gram equivalent weight of solute per liter of solution.
Correct Answer :
Normality
Details
9 It is the molecular weight in grams per liter of solution.

Correct Answer :
Formality
Details
10 _________ is the number of moles of solute per liter of solution.
Correct Answer :
Molarity
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 _________ is the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent.
Correct Answer :
Molarity
Details
2 The ratio of the volume of solute to the volume of solution in percent is called
Correct Answer :
Percent of Volume Details
3 Any substance that increases hydronium ion concentration when dissolved in water is called:
Correct Answer :
Arrhenius acid
Details
4 Any substance that donated hydrogen ion [proton] is called:
Correct Answer :
Bronsted-Lowry acid
Details
5 Any substance that accepts lone pair electrons is called:
Correct Answer :
Lewis Acid
Details
6 Which of the following is not a property of an acid.
Correct Answer :
Acids turn red litmus paper to blue
Details
7 _________ are composed of hydrogen and a nonmetallic element forming acid.
Correct Answer :
Binary Acids
Details
8 _________ are composed if hydrogen, a nonmetal, and oxygen.
Correct Answer :
Ternary Acids Details
9 Any substance that increases the concentration of hydroxide ions when added to water is called:
Correct Answer :
Arrhenius base
Details
10 Any substance that accepts hydrogen ion [proton] is called:
Correct Answer :
Bronsted-Lowry base
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Any species that donate lone pair of electrons is called:
Correct Answer :
Lewis Base
Details
2 Which of the following is not a property of a base?
Correct Answer :
Bases have pH between 0 to 7
Details
3 __________ is the measure of acidity of basicity of a solution.
Correct Answer :
pH level
Details
4 pH stands for:
Correct Answer : both power of hydrogen and
potential of hydrogen
Details
5 Which two species are acting as an acid and a conjugate acid in the following reaction? HOCl +
OH- <===> H2O + ClO-

Correct Answer :
HOCl and H2O
Details
6 According to the Arrhenius theory on acids and bases, a base is a substance that dissolves in
water to produce.
Correct Answer :
OH- ions Details
7 Which of the following household items has a pH of 4.5?
Correct Answer :
Fizzy orange drink
Details
8 The Arrhenius Theory of acids and bases was replaced due to its shortcomings. Which one of the
following was one of these shortcomings?
Correct Answer :
Water is not always necessary in acid-base reactions.
Details
9 Which one of the following gases is produced when calcium reacts with sulfuric acid?
Correct Answer :
Hydrogen Details
10 The Bronsted-Lowry Theory of acids and bases is defined in terms of:
Correct Answer :
protons
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Which of the following ions do all acids have in common?
Correct Answer :
H+
Details
2 An acid dissociates in water to produce hydrogen ions was first proposed by which chemist?
Correct Answer :
Svente Arrhenius Details
3 Which one of the following will make an alkaline solution when added to water?
Correct Answer : sodium
hydroxide
Details
4 Vitamin C is necessary in our diets for healthy skin. Which one of the following acid is contained
in vitamin C?
Correct Answer : ascorbic
acid
Details
5 If an acid is split on the laboratory bench, which of the following substances should be added to
it in order to neutralize it?
Correct Answer :
chalk
Details
6 What are the products of the acid-base reaction?
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium hydroxide --->? +?
Correct Answer :
Magnesium chloride and water.
Details
7 The hydronium ion (H3O+ may be formed when an acid reacts with water. Which one of the
following structures best represents the structure of the hydronium ion?
Correct Answer :
Figure
Details
8 Choose the weakest acid from the following list of acids.
Correct Answer :
HCOOH
Details
9 Which of the following reactions takes place when a metal carbonate reacts with an acid?
Correct Answer : metal carbonate ---> salt + water
+ carbon dioxide
Details
10 A neutralization reaction between an acid and a base may be represented by which of the
following equations?
Correct Answer :
OH- + H+ ---> H2O
Details
PHYSICS
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 If the radius of the earth were to shrink and its mass were to remain the same, the acceleration
due to gravity on the surface of the earth with?
Correct Answer :increase
Details
2 Gravitational force is responsible for?
Correct Answer :For the motion of planets around the Sun.
Details
3 The force of gravity on a body varies slightly from place to place on the earth for two reason. (i)
shape of earth and (ii)?
Correct Answer :the rotation of the earth
Details
4 ‘g’ decrease with?
Correct Answer :altitude
Details
5 Newton apply Huygens’s formula to calculate?
Correct Answer :Centripetal acceleration of the moon.
Details
6 The Universal law of gravitation must apply to?

Correct Answer :Any pair of bodies.
Details
7 The distance from the center of earth to the center of the moon’ is called as?
Correct Answer :Orbital radius of the moon.
Details
8 The weight of an object in a satellite orbiting around the earth is?
Correct Answer :Zero
Details
9 The acceleration of the moon is because of the?
Correct Answer :Gravitational force exerted on the moon by the earth.
Details
10 In order to derive the law of gravitation, Newton assume that the moon’s orbit is?
Correct Answer :Circular
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The equation for the mass of earth is?
Correct Answer :M = R²g/G
Details
2 At the surface of earth an object falling freely experiences an acceleration of?
Correct Answer :9.8 ms-2
Details
3 The radius of earth is?
Correct Answer :RE = 6.38 X 106 m
Details
4 The magnitude of the weight is expressed in the units of?
Correct Answer :Force (Newton)

Details
5 In 1666, Newton concluded that the force which caused an apple to fall to the ground and the
force that kept the moon in its orbit around the earth is the?
Correct Answer :Universal force called as “Gravitation”.
Details
6 The motion of falling bodies towards earth is due to the?
Correct Answer :Gravitational force.
Details
7 The weight of a body in a frame of reference is equal and opposite to the force required to
prevent it?
Correct Answer :from accelerating from rest in that frame of reference.
Details
8 “G” is a universal gravitational constant and its value is?
Correct Answer :G = 6.673 x 10-11N-m2/Kg
Details
9 Newton made the hypothesis?
Correct Answer :That everybody in the universe exerts a gravitational force on every other body.
Details
10 The force exerted on body A by body B is always directed towards body B, and acts?
Correct Answer :along the line joining their centers.
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 If acceleration due to gravity on earth is 10 m/s2 then, the acceleration due to gravity on moon
is ________.
Correct Answer :1.66 m/s2
Details
2 The second equation of motion for a freely falling body starting from rest is _______.
Correct Answer :h = 1/2 gt2
Details
3 The acceleration due to gravity of a body moving against gravity is:
Correct Answer :-9.8 m/s2
Details
4 A feather and a coin released simultaneously from the same height do not reach the ground at
the same time because of the _______.
Correct Answer :resistance of the air
Details
5 The weight of an object of mass 10 kg on earth is_______.
Correct Answer :98 N
Details
6 The weight of an object of mass 15 kg at the center of the earth is _____.
Correct Answer :zero
Details
7 Mass remains ______ throughout the universe.
Correct Answer :constant
Details
8 How much would a man, whose mass is 60 kg, weigh on the moon?
Correct Answer :98 N
Details
9 What is the mass of an object whose weight on earth is 196 N?
Correct Answer :20 kg
Details
10 The upward force acting on an object submerged in a liquid is ______.
Correct Answer :buoyant force
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure variations?
Correct Answer :Sound
Details
2 What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system and frequency equal to one of its
natural frequencies of oscillation?
Correct Answer :Resonance
Details
3 What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed
exceeds that of sound?
Correct Answer :Shock wave
Details
4 What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its
source and an observer?
Correct Answer :Doppler effect
Details
5 What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate back and forth in the direction in
which the waves travel?
Correct Answer :Longitudinal waves
Details
6 Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _________.
Correct Answer :20 Hz
Details
7 Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are above __________.
Correct Answer :20,000 Hz
Details
8 What occur when the individual particles of a medium vibrate from side to side perpendicular to
the direction in which the waves travel?
Correct Answer :Transverse waves

Details
9 “When two or more waves of the same mature travel just a given point at the same time, the
amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves”. This statement is known as
________.
Correct Answer :Principle of superposition
Details
10 What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude greater than that of either of
the original waves?
Correct Answer :Constructive interference
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What occurs when the resulting composite wave has amplitude less than that of either of the
original waves?
Correct Answer :Destructive interference
Details
2 The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per unit cross-sectional area is called
________.
Correct Answer :intensity
Details
3 At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the ear of humans.
Correct Answer :1 W/m2
Details
4 For a 1 kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a minimum intensity of ______ W/m2?
Correct Answer :10-12
Details
5 How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible?
Correct Answer :0
Details
6 The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound is called the _________.
Correct Answer :Mach number
Details
7 What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?
Correct Answer :120 dB
Details
8 What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?
Correct Answer :1
Details
9 What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in W/m2?
Correct Answer :10-12
Details
10 What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?
Correct Answer :Intensity
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends on the energy in the sound wave?
Correct Answer :Loudness
Details
2 How can loudness of sound be increased?
Correct Answer :All of these choices.
Details
3 Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency of sound vibrations?
Correct Answer :Pitch
Details
4 The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist?
Correct Answer :Christian Johann Doppler
Details
5 When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is high, he is referring to _________.
Correct Answer :the number of sound waves you are sending out per second
Details
6 At what intensity level will a noise be considered pollutant in the environment?
Correct Answer :Above 120 dB
Details
7 The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s for every 1ºC increase in temperature?
Correct Answer :0.6
Details
8 Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?
Correct Answer :Because water has greater bulk modulus than air.
Details
9 What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and frequency of a wave are both reduced to
one-half?
Correct Answer :It will remain the same.
Details
10 Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Correct Answer :A high-frequency sound has high pitch.
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?
Correct Answer :Illumination
Details
2 What refers to the brightness of a light source?
Correct Answer :Luminous intensity
Details
3 What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle?
Correct Answer :1 candela
Details
4 What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a small pool of platinum at its melting
point?
Correct Answer :Candela
Details
5 What refers to the total amount of visible light given off by a light source?
Correct Answer :Luminous flux
Details
6 Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each square meter of a sphere 1 meter in
radius at whose center is a ________ light source that radiates equally well in all directions.
Correct Answer :1.0 candela
Details
7 What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela source?
Correct Answer :4π lm
Details
8 What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light source per watt of power input?
Correct Answer :Luminous efficiency
Details
9 What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light
when it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?
Correct Answer :Phosphor
Details
10 What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular
medium?
Correct Answer :Index of refraction
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 “The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the
speeds of light in the two media”. This statement is known as ________.
Correct Answer :Snell’s law
Details
2 Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to another is deflected at the surface
between the two media. What is this phenomenon called?
Correct Answer :Refraction
Details
3 What refers to the effect when a beam containing more than one frequency is split into a
corresponding number of different beams when it is refracted?
Correct Answer :Dispersion
Details
4 What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the prism?
Correct Answer :Spectrum
Details
5 What is the index of refraction of air?
Correct Answer :1.0003
Details
6 What is the index of refraction of water?

Details
7 What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the edges of obstacles in their paths?
Correct Answer :Diffraction
Details
8 What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a spectrum through the interference of
light that is diffracted?
Correct Answer :Diffraction grating
Details
9 The emission of electrons from a metal surface when light shines on it is called _______.
Correct Answer :Photoelectric effect
Details
10 What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves emitted when fast electrons impinge on
matter?
Correct Answer :X-rays
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What device is used for producing a narrow, monochromatic, coherent beam of light?
Correct Answer :Laser
Details
2 What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by an excited substance?
Correct Answer :Excited spectrum
Details
3 What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance when white light is
passed through it?
Correct Answer :Emission spectrum
Details
4 What does LASER stands for?
Correct Answer :Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Details
5 What is the velocity of light in meters per second?
Correct Answer :3 x 108
Details
6 Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic waves have the same nature and that they
travel at the same speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, reflection and interference?
Correct Answer :Hertz
Details
7 Which of the following has the smallest wavelength band?
Correct Answer :Indigo
Details
8 What color has the longest wavelength?
Correct Answer :Red
Details
9 What color has the shortest wavelength?
Correct Answer :Violet
Details
10 What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves shorter than the visible violet wave but
longer than the Roentgen ray?
Correct Answer :
Ultraviolet light
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible light?
Correct Answer :350 – 700
Details
2 When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees
and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the most?
Correct Answer :Violet
Details
3 When the white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees
and are dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bends the least?
Correct Answer :Red
Details
4 The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _______.
Correct Answer :refraction
Details
5 What refers to the defect in lenses which causes unequal refraction of the different colors?
Correct Answer :Chromatic aberration
Details
6 What property of a light wave is determined by its wavelength?
Correct Answer :Color
Details
7 What is diffraction?
Correct Answer :It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
Details
8 What is dispersion?
Correct Answer :It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
Details
9 What are primary colors?

Correct Answer :Colors which when combined produce white light
Details
10 What refers to the property of some media to transmit light wave in a diffused matter to make
objects behind them undistinguishable?
Correct Answer :Translucent
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles.
Correct Answer :Tyndall Effect
Details
2 Brightness is the same as __________.
Correct Answer :luminous emittance
Details
3 The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit area of the source.
Correct Answer :luminous emittance
Details
4 What is a monochromatic light?
Correct Answer :Light with only one color and one wavelength
Details
5 What is a three-dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of coherent light?
Correct Answer :Hologram
Details
6 In opaque material,
Correct Answer :the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
Details
7 In translucent material,
Correct Answer :light is partially absorbed
Details
8 In transparent material,
Correct Answer :light is able to pass through
Details
9 The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is known as ________.
Correct Answer :relative index of refraction
Details
10 What refers to two colors which combine to form white light?
Correct Answer :Complementary colors
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is a three-dimensional image of an object illuminated by a broad band of coherent light?
Correct Answer :Hologram
Details
2 In opaque material,
Correct Answer :the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer and converted to heat
Details
3 In translucent material,
Correct Answer :light is partially absorbed
Details
4 In transparent material,
Correct Answer :light is able to pass through
Details
5 The “f” number of the lens is the ratio of the:
Correct Answer :focal length of the lens to the effective aperture

Details
6 What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as though it originated at a single virtual focal
point?
Correct Answer :Divergent lens
Details
7 What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real focal point?
Correct Answer :Convergent lens
Details
8 Which one best describes the meniscus lens?
Correct Answer :It has one concave surface and one convex surface.
Details
9 In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image height to the object height?
Correct Answer :Linear magnification
Details
10 What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
Correct Answer :Focal length
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 If the linear magnification of an optical system is less than one, it means that:
Correct Answer :the image is smaller than the object
Details
2 A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an image on a light-sensitive photographic film?
Details
3 One of the common defects of vision is _______ commonly known as nearsightedness.
Correct Answer :myopia

Details
4 One of the common defects of vision is ______ commonly known as farsightedness.
Correct Answer :hyperopia
Details
5 What lens is commonly used to correct nearsightedness?
Correct Answer :Divergent lens
Details
6 What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?
Details
7 What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having different curvatures in different planes?
Correct Answer :Astigmatism
Details
8 In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angles subtended at the eye by the image
and the angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
Correct Answer :Angular magnification
Details
9 What type of mirror that curves inward its center and converges parallel light to a single real
focal point?
Correct Answer :Concave mirror
Details
10 What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as though
the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
Correct Answer :Convex mirror
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Which of the following statements accurately describes an image formed by a thin converging
lens?
Correct Answer :The image is always larger than the object within the radius.
Details
2 Which of the following statements best describes the image produced by a concave lens?
Correct Answer :Virtual, upright, and reduced image
Details
3 Which of the following statements accurately describes the sign conventions used for the thin
lens equation?
Correct Answer :While the magnitude of the magnification indicates whether an image is enlarged or
reduced, the signage indicates whether it is inverted or upright.
Details
4 A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm in front of a screen. At what distance

that the object be placed so that its image appears on the screen?
Correct Answer :43.5 cm
Details
5 During an experiment, a thin-lens system in its initial state produces a real, inverted, and
enlarged image and in its final state produces a virtual, upright, and enlarged image. Which of the
following statements best elucidates on what kind of change occurred for the thin-lens system?
Correct Answer :The object is moved from a point outside the focal length to a point within the focal
length of a convex lens.
Details
6 What is the height of the image of an apple (h = 12 cm) sitting 2 meters away that is projected
onto your retina if the focal length of the retina is 20 millimeters?
Details
7 A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm. When an object is 20 cm from the lens, a
real image is formed 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?
Correct Answer :12 cm
Details
8 A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm. When an object is 30 cm from the lens, a
real image is formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute the refractive index of the lens material.
Details
9 A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an index of refraction 1.53. Find the radius
of the convex surface.
Details
10 Which of the following statements best describes the schematic of the astronomical telescope
below?
Correct Answer :The eyepiece acts like a simple magnifier for the image produced by the objective by
producing a virtual, inverted, and enlarged image at infinity.
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What famous scientist came up with the Theory of Relativity?
Correct Answer :Albert Einstein
Details
2 What two principles make up the theory of special relativity?
Correct Answer :Principle of relativity and the principle of the speed of light
Details
3 According to the Theory of Relativity, the speed of light in a vacuum is ______ for all observers?
Correct Answer :The same
Details
4 Before the Theory of Relativity, what did scientists call the reference point for all motion?
Correct Answer :Ether
Details
5 The Theory of Relativity was important in developing the atomic bomb.
Correct Answer :This statement is true and thus, it is valid.
Details
6 In the equation E = mc2, what does 'm' stand for?
Correct Answer :Mass
Details
7 In the equation E = mc2, what does 'c' stand for?
Correct Answer :Speed of light
Details
8 If the mass of an object changes, what will also change?
Correct Answer :Energy
Details
9 The faster an object is moving in relation to an observer, the ______ it will appear to an
observer.
Correct Answer :Shorter
Details
10 The faster a space ship is flying the shorter it will appear to people on board the ship.
Correct Answer :This statement is not true and thus, it is invalid.
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Postulate 1 of the theory of relativity states that, “the law of physics are all the same in all
inertia frames of reference, thus all motion is relative. Velocities of object can only be given relative to
some other objects and it is impossible to determine the absolute velocity of the object.” What is the
title of this postulate?
Correct Answer :Principle of Relativity
Details
2 Postulate 2 of the theory of relativity states that, “the accurately measured speed of light in
vacuum has the same value for all observers, independent of the motion of the source of motion of the
observer.” What is the title of this postulate?
Correct Answer :Principle of Constancy of Speed of Light
Details
3 According to the theory of relativity, ___________ is a difference in the elapsed time measured
by two observers, either due to a velocity difference relative to each other, or by being differently
situated relative to a gravitational field.
Correct Answer :Time dilation
Details
4 _____________ is the phenomenon that a moving object's length is measured to be shorter

than its proper length, which is the length as measured in the object's own rest frame.
Correct Answer :Length Contraction
Details
5 For objects moving near light speed, effective mass m increases from the rest mass mo. This is
also known as:
Correct Answer :Relativistic Mass
Details
6 At relativistic speeds, momentum p increases correspondingly with mass. This is known as:
Correct Answer :Relativistic Momentum
Details
7 What is the momentum of an electron travelling at a speed 0.985c? The rest mass of the
electron is 9.11x10-31 kg.
Correct Answer :1.56x10-21kg∙m/s
Details
8 An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long when at rest. He passed by in uniform
motion with the speed of 0.5 c. While the observer is watching the spaceship, a time of 2 s elapses on a
clock on board the ship, what is the length of the moving spaceship?
Correct Answer :87 m
Details
9 The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards earth and then exactly 1 min. later (as
measured by the clock on the spacecraft), sends a second pulse. An observer on earth sees the second
pulse arrive 4 minutes after the first. What is the velocity of the spacecraft relative to the earth?
Correct Answer :0.968c
Details
10 What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-19 J and mass
of electron is 9.11 x 10^-31 kg.
Correct Answer :0.512 MeV
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Alpha (α) particles are helium (He) nucleus with a charge of:
Correct Answer :2e
Details
2 When two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, process is said to be:
Correct Answer :nuclear fusion
Details
3 Elements which emit natural radioactivity are known as:
Correct Answer :radioactive elements
Details
4 Gamma (γ) radiation are fast moving.
Correct Answer :photons
Details
5 Radiations present in atmosphere due to different radioactive substances are called:
Correct Answer :background radiations
Details
6 In SI base units, 1 Bq is equal to:
Correct Answer :1 disintegration per second
Details
7 Beta particles are stream of high energy.
Correct Answer :electrons
Details
8 During natural radioactivity unstable nucleus disintegrates to become more.
Correct Answer :stable
Details
9 Radioactivity is confined almost entirely to the elements __ to __ in the periodic table.
Correct Answer :83, 106
Details
10 Which of the following rays are emitted during radioactivity?
Correct Answer :All of these choices
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The difference in the mass of the resultant nucleus and the sum of the masses of two parent
nuclear particle is known as:
Correct Answer :mass defect
Details
2 When the nuclei of U235 is splitted into approximately two equal nuclei, the amount of energy
released per nucleon is:
Correct Answer :0.9 MeV
Details
3 An atom with even number of protons:
i. is more stable
ii. possesses higher binding energy per nucleon
iii. is fissionable with slow neutrons
Which of the following is/are true?
Correct Answer :i & ii
Details
4 As per radioactive decay law, the small amount of disintegration of the isotope in a small period
is equal to:
Correct Answer :–λN
Details
5 The International system of units (SI) of radioactivity activity is:
Correct Answer :Becquerel
Details
6 In alpha decay (α-decay) proton number of parent nuclide.
Correct Answer :decreases by 2
Details
7 Times a proton is heavier than an electron is:
Correct Answer :1836
Details
8 In fission, mass of products is:
Correct Answer :less than original nucleus
Details
9 Phenomenon in which radiations split matter in to ions is called:
Correct Answer :ionization

Details
10 Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is:
Correct Answer :tracer
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Cosmic radiation consists of:
Correct Answer :all of these choices
Details
2 Temperature at center of sun is:
Correct Answer :20 million kelvin
Details
3 Beta particles are stream of high energy.
Correct Answer :electrons
Details
4 Greatest ionization power is possessed by:
Correct Answer :alpha particles
Details
5 Mass of neutron and proton is:
Correct Answer :equal
Details
6 Lifetime of unstable nuclei is:
Correct Answer :Unlimited
Details
7 Radioisotope for treating cancer tumors and cells is:
Correct Answer :cobalt-60

Details
8 Simplest atom with single proton is of:
Correct Answer :hydrogen
Details
9 Safe level of radiation exposure per year is:
Correct Answer :5.0 rem
Details
10 Gamma (γ) radiation are fast moving.
Correct Answer :photons
Details
Questions
1 What is the standard unit of mass?

Correct Answer :
Kilogram
2 What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second?
Correct Answer :
Meter
3 What is the SI unit of work?

Correct Answer :
Joule
4 What is the SI unit of power?

Correct Answer :
Watt
5 What is the SI unit of temperature?

Correct Answer :
Kelvin
6 What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

Correct Answer :
Candela
7 What is the unit of relative intensity?

Correct Answer :
Unit less
8 What is the SI unit of pressure?

Correct Answer :
Pa
9 Which one is equivalent of the unit “Pascal’?

Correct Answer :
N/m2
10 The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many Pascal?

Correct Answer :
100,000
1 What is the SI unit of intensity?

Correct Answer :
watt/m2
2 What is the unit of potential difference?

Correct Answer :
Volt
3 Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?

Correct Answer :
joule/coulomb
4 One electron volt is equivalent to _______ joules.

Correct Answer :
1.6 x 10-19
5 What is the unit of capacitance?

Correct Answer :
Farad
6 Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “farad”?

Correct Answer :
coulomb/volt
7 What is the unit of electric current?

Correct Answer :
Ampere
8 Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “ampere”?

Correct Answer :
coulomb/second
9 What is the unit of resistance?

Correct Answer :
Ohm
10 Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?

Correct Answer :
volt/ampere
1 What is the unit of luminous intensity?

Correct Answer :
Candela
2 What is the unit of luminous flux?

Correct Answer :
Lumen
3 Which of the following is equivalent to the unit “candela”?

Correct Answer :
lumen/steradian
4 What is the unit of luminous efficiency?

Correct Answer :
lumen/watt
5 What is the unit of illumination?

Correct Answer :
Lux
6 Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?

Correct Answer :
lumen/m2
7 Foot-candle is equivalent to which combination of units?

Correct Answer :
lumen/ft2
8 How many dynes are there in one newton?

Correct Answer :
100,000
9 What is an elemental unit of energy?

Correct Answer :
Quantum
10 What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate of one foot per second when acted on
by a force of one pound?
Correct Answer :
Slug
1 The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _______.
Correct Answer :
micrometer
2 The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.

Correct Answer :
nanometer
3 The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of _______.

Correct Answer :
milligram
4 Which one is equivalent to the unit ‘joule’?

Correct Answer :
Newton-meter
5 Which one is equivalent to the unit “watt”?

Correct Answer :
Newton-meter per second
6 One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

Correct Answer :
746
7 The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.

Correct Answer :
work or energy
8 The “kilowatt-hour” is a unit of _______.

Correct Answer :
work or energy
9 The English unit “slug” is a unit of _______.
Correct Answer :
mass
10 How is sound intensity measured?

Correct Answer :
In decibels
1 Which is NOT a vector quantity?

Correct Answer :
Time
2 What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?

Correct Answer :
Unit vector
3 What is the purpose of a unit vector?

Correct Answer :
To describe the direction in space
4 What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors?

Correct Answer :
Dot product
5 What is another term for vector product of two vectors?

Correct Answer :
Cross product
6 When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero, the
total linear momentum of the system __________.
Correct Answer :
remains constant
7 What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector quantity
and whose direction is that of the quantity?
Correct Answer :
Vector
8 What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities involved in the
motion of a body?
Correct Answer :
Vector diagram
9 What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a unit or
physical quantities that have magnitudes only?
Correct Answer :
Scalar quantities
10 What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?

Correct Answer :
Vector quantities
1 “The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle’s kinetic energy.”
This statement is known as _________.
Correct Answer :
Work-energy theorem
2 The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do in the process of being
brought to rest.
Correct Answer :
Kinetic Energy
3 Work is defined as the product of:

Correct Answer :
Force and displacement
4 What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?

Correct Answer :
Power
5 What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?

Correct Answer :
Kinetic energy
6 What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?

Correct Answer :
Rest energy
7 What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?

Correct Answer :
Potential energy
8 Work done = Force x _______.

Correct Answer :
distance
9 1 joule = 1 _______.
Correct Answer :
Nm
10 A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 1m. Its kinetic energy as it touches the ground is
_______.
Correct Answer :
19.6 J
1 The unit of power is _______.

Correct Answer :
joule per second
2 3730 watts = ______h.p.

Correct Answer :
5
3 A coolie carries a load of 500 N to a distance of 100 m. The work done by him is:
Correct Answer :
0
4 The P.E. of a body at a certain height is 200 J. The kinetic energy possessed by it when it just
touches the surface of the earth is:
Correct Answer :
> P.E.
5 Power is a measure of the _______.

Correct Answer :
rate of change of energy
6 Two objects of masses 1 x 10-3 kg and 4 x 10-3 kg have equal momentum. What is the ratio of
their kinetic energies?
Correct Answer :
4:1
7 A 40 newton object is released from a height of 10 m. Just before it hits the ground, its kinetic
energy, in joules is _______.
Correct Answer :
400
8 If the speed of an object is doubled then its kinetic energy is _______.

Correct Answer :
quadrupled
9 1.5 kW = ______ watts.

Correct Answer :
1500
10 A man of mass 50 kg jumps to a height of 1 m. His potential energy at the highest point is (g = 10
m/s2).
Correct Answer :
500 J
1 The type of energy possessed by a simple pendulum, when it is at the mean position is:
Correct Answer :
kinetic energy
2 An iron sphere of mass 30 kg has the same diameter as an aluminum sphere whose mass is 10.5
kg. The spheres are dropped simultaneously from a cliff. When they are 10 m from the ground, they
have the same _______.
Correct Answer :
acceleration
3 A 1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 1 joule when its speed is:

Correct Answer :
1.4 m/s
4 If air resistance is negligible, the sum total of potential and kinetic energies of a freely falling
body _______.
Correct Answer :
remains the same
5 In two minutes the energy dissipated by a lamp is 3000 joule. Find the power of the lamp.
Correct Answer :
25 watts
6 An object of mass 1 kg has potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a
height of _______.
Correct Answer :
0.102 m
7 A block is pulled by a constant force of 40 Newton. If the work done by the force on the block is
680 joule what is the displacement of the block?
Correct Answer :
17 meters
8 A block displacement cause of a force in a horizontal surface is 13 meter and the work done by
the force on the block is 15.6 joule. Find the magnitude of the force.
Correct Answer :
1.2 Newton
9 A body moves through a displacement of 4 m while a force F of 12 Newton acts on it. What is
the work done by the force on the body?
Correct Answer :
48 joules
10 A boy of 450 N of weight climbs a wood steps with a length of 3 m. The boy takes 6 seconds to
get the end of the steps. What is the power done by the boy on this activity?
Correct Answer :
225 watts
1 It is the ratio of the output force exerted by the machine on the load to the input force exerted
by the operator in the machine.
Correct Answer :
Actual Mechanical Advantage
2 It is the ratio of the distance through which the input force acts to the distance through which
the output forces acts.
Correct Answer :
Ideal Mechanical Advantage
3 It is the ratio of the machine’s output work to its input work.

Correct Answer :
Efficiency
4 ________ is a type of vibratory motion in which the acceleration is proportional to the

displacement and always directed toward the equilibrium position.
Correct Answer :
Simple Harmonic Motion
5 The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of its
equilibrium position is called the _________ of the motion.
Correct Answer :
amplitude
6 What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?

Correct Answer :
Frequency
7 The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its amplitude.

Correct Answer :
independent of
8 What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts on a body in
the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with the magnitude of the
restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
Correct Answer :
Simple harmonic motion
9 In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?

Correct Answer :
Friction
10 The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck without producing a
reaction force on its pivot.
Correct Answer :
center of oscillation
1 Another term is used for vibration called:

Correct Answer :
oscillation
2 In SHM of a simple pendulum, component of weight which is directed towards mean position is:
Correct Answer :
mg sinθ
3 In Hooke's Law, F = -k x, constant k is called the:

Correct Answer :
spring constant
4 Number of vibrations of a body in one sec is called:

Correct Answer :
frequency
5 To and from oscillatory motion in which acceleration of body is directly proportional to

displacement of body from mean position and is always directed towards mean position is known as:
Correct Answer :
simple harmonic motion
6 Time taken by simple pendulum to complete one cycle is called its:

Correct Answer :
time period
7 One complete round trip of a vibrating body about its mean position is called one:
Correct Answer :
vibration
8 Time period of simple pendulum 1 m long at a location where g=10ms^-2 will be:
Correct Answer :
1.99 s
9 Velocity of simple harmonic motion at mean position is always:

Correct Answer :
maximum
10 If spring is stiff, then value of k is:

Correct Answer :
large
1 Velocity of bob in SHM becomes zero at:

Correct Answer :
extreme position
2 Kinetic energy of mass attached to spring at extreme position is:

Correct Answer :
zero
3 At which point(s) in its cycle is the tangential (linear) acceleration of a pendulum the
greatest? At which point(s) is its tangential acceleration zero?
Correct Answer :
zero at equilibrium point, maximum at endpoints
4 In which direction is the pendulum bob accelerating when it is moving toward an

endpoint?
Correct Answer :
equilibrium point
5 In which direction is a mass on a spring accelerating when it is moving toward the

equilibrium point?
Correct Answer :
equilibrium point
6 Maximum displacement from mean position of a body performing simple harmonic mean
is called:
Correct Answer :
amplitude
7 If a simple pendulum is 1.0 m long and force of gravity acting on it is 10.0 ms-2, then its
period and frequency are: Correct Answer :
1.99s and 0.50Hz
8 Potential energy of mass attached to spring at extreme position is:

Correct Answer :
maximum
9 Time period T of simple harmonic motion of a mass m attached to a spring is given by:
Correct Answer :
T = 2π √(m/k)
10 At which point(s) in its cycle is the speed of a mass on a spring the greatest? At which point(s) is
its speed zero?
Correct Answer :
maximum at equilibrium point, zero at endpoints
1 “If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will
remain in motion at constant velocity”. This statement is the _______.
Correct Answer :
First law of motion
2 “The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of the
object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration”. This statement is the _______.
Correct Answer :
Second law of motion
3 “When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a force
of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction”. This statement is the _____.
Correct Answer :
Third law of motion
4 What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an object?
Correct Answer :
Weight
5 How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?

Correct Answer :
14.6
6 What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contracting
surfaces?
Correct Answer :
Friction
7 What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion
between them?
Correct Answer :
static friction
8 What is the maximum value of the static friction?

Correct Answer :
Starting friction
9 What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?

Correct Answer :
Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
10 What is another term for kinetic friction?

Correct Answer :
Sliding friction
1 For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and
coefficient of kinetic friction?
Correct Answer :
Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
2 Force that produces an acceleration of 1 ms−2 in a body of mass of 1 kg is called:

Correct Answer :
one newton
3 Acceleration that is produced by a 15N force in a mass of 8 kg will be equal to:

Correct Answer :
1.87 ms−2
4 When a net force act on a body, it produces acceleration in body in direction of net force
which is directly proportional to net force acting on body and inversely proportional to its mass.
This statement is called:
Correct Answer :
newton's 2nd law of motion
5 Mass of a body (m) into acceleration (a) is equal to:

Correct Answer :
force
6 Rate of falling object in vacuum is:
Correct Answer :
independent of mass
7 Acceleration due to gravity on moon is:

Correct Answer :
1.6 ms−2
8 According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, any two particles of finite mass attract one
another with a force which is:
Correct Answer :
Directly proportional to product of their masses and inversely proportional to square of their distance
apart
9 Point where entire weight of an object acts is:

Correct Answer :
center of gravity
10 Another name for force of gravity acting on an object is:

Correct Answer :
weight
1 SI unit of gravitational constant is __________.

Correct Answer :
N m2kg-2
2 What is the value of gravitational constant?

Correct Answer :
6.6734x10-11N m2/kg2
3 If the distance between two bodies is doubled, the force of attraction F between them will be
_______.
Correct Answer :
1/4 F
4 The force of gravitation between two bodies in the universe does not depend on.
Correct Answer :
the sum of their masses
5 Name the fundamental force which holds the planets in their orbits around the sun.
Correct Answer :
Gravitational force of attraction
6 When an object is thrown up, the force of gravity _________.

Correct Answer :
is opposite to the direction of motion
7 What is the final velocity of a body moving against gravity when it attains the maximum height?
Correct Answer :
Zero
8 A stone is dropped from a cliff. Its speed after it has fallen 100 m is:
Correct Answer :
44.2 m/s
9 A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum height of 150 m. Its initial speed was:
Correct Answer :
54.22 m/s
10 The acceleration due to gravity is zero at ______.

Correct Answer :
the center of the earth
MECHANICS
1 A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

Correct Answer :
scalar
2 A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.
Correct Answer :
vectors
3 The product of a scalar and a vector is a:
Correct Answer :
vector
4 It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1.
Correct Answer :
unit vector
5 It is sometimes called the scalar product.
Correct Answer :
dot product
6 To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is used.
Correct Answer :
vector product
7 It is sometimes called the vector product.
Correct Answer :
cross product
8 Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer :
The cross product is commutative
9 When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the
________.
Correct Answer :
line of action
10 A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.
Correct Answer :
concurrent
1 A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.
Correct Answer :
coplanar or two-dimensional
2 _________ is one whose action is not confined to or associated with a unique line in space.
Correct Answer :
Free Vector
3 _________ is one in which a unique line in space must be maintained along the quantity acts.
Correct Answer :
Sliding Vector
4 _________ is one in which a unique point of application is specified and therefore the vector
occupies a particular position in space.
Correct Answer :
Fixed Vector
5 What is the angle between two vectors A and B if A = 4i – 12j + 6k and B = 24i – 8j + 6k?
Correct Answer :
51.22 degrees
6 Given the 3-dimensional vectors: A = i (xy) + j (2yz) + k (3zx), B = i (yz) + j (2zx) + k (3xy).
Determine the magnitude of the vector sum |A + B| at coordinates (3,2,1).
Correct Answer :
29.88
7 What is the cross product A x B of the vectors, A = i + 4j + 6k and B = 2i + 3j + 5k?
Correct Answer :
2i + 7j – 5k
8 Given the 3-dimensional vectors: A = i(xy) + j(2yz) + k(3zx) and B = i(yz) + j(2zx) + k(3xy).
Determine the scalar product at the point (1,2,3).
Correct Answer :
138
9 Assume the three force vectors intersect at a single point.
F1 = 4i + 2j + 5k
F2 = –2i + 7j – 3k
F3 = 2i – j + 6k
What is the magnitude of the resultant force vector, R?
Correct Answer :
13.86
10 _______ are forces that act on the same line of action.
Correct Answer :
Collinear forces
1 _______ are forces lying on the same plane.
Correct Answer :
Coplanar forces
2 _______ are forces whose line of action pass through a common point.
Correct Answer :
Concurrent forces
3 _______ are forces that are of the same angle to one another.
Correct Answer :
Parallel forces
4 _______ is a pair of parallel forces of the same magnitude but opposite in direction.
Correct Answer :
Couple
5 _______ or _______ is a measure of the effectiveness of the force in producing rotation about
an axis.
Correct Answer :
Torque, moment
6 _______ is the force with which gravity pull upon the object.
Correct Answer :
Weight
7 _______ is the point at which the entire weight of the object is concentrated.
Correct Answer :
Center of gravity
8 _______ is a condition in which the resultant of all forces acting on a body is zero.
Correct Answer :
Equilibrium
9 _______ is the condition of a body at rest and remains at rest under the action of concurrent
forces.
Correct Answer :
Static Equilibrium
10 ______ is the condition of a body in motion with constant motion.
Correct Answer :
Translational Equilibrium
1 What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary rigid body?
Correct Answer :
Statics
2 What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion
under the action of forces?
Correct Answer :
Dynamics
3 What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion
without reference to the force that causes the motion?
Correct Answer :
Kinematics
4 What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?
Correct Answer :
Internal force
5 What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and parallel forces?
Correct Answer :
Couple
6 What is a concurrent force system?
Correct Answer :
All forces act at the same point.
7 When will a three-force member be considered in equilibrium?
Correct Answer :
When they are concurrent or parallel.
8 What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by
forces acting on it?
Correct Answer :
Engineering Mechanics
9 “The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal to
the moment of the resultant force about the same point”. This statement is known as ____.
Correct Answer :
Varignon’s theorem
10 “Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant which can be
obtained by drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides equal to the given forces”. This
statement is known as _____.
Correct Answer :
Parallelogram Law
1 “The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force acting at a
given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and direction, but acting at a
different point provided that the two forces have the same line of action”. This statement is known as
______.
Correct Answer :
Principle of Transmissibility
2 “If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides of a
triangle taken in order that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite order”. This statement
is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Triangle Law of Forces
3 “If a number of concurrent forces acting simultaneously on a particle, are represented in
magnitude and direction by the sides of polygon taken in order, then the resultant of this system of
forces is represented by the closing side of the polygon in the opposite in the opposite order”. This
statement is known as _____.
Correct Answer :
Polygon Law
4 What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces which are perpendicular to each
other? The two forces are 20 units and 30 units respectively.
Correct Answer :
36
5 A rope is stretched between two rigid walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load of 100 lbs was
placed that caused it to sag 5 feet. Compute the approximate tension in the rope.
Correct Answer :
206 lbs
6 What is the effective component applied on the box that is being pulled by a 30 N force inclined
at 30 degrees with horizontal?
Correct Answer :
25.98 N
7 A post is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 100 N on the top of the post. If the angle
between the wire and the ground is 60 degrees, what is the horizontal component of the force
supporting the pole?
Correct Answer :
50.0 N
8 The resultant of two forces in a plane is 400 N at 120 degrees. If one of the forces is 200 lbs at
20 degrees what is the other force?
Correct Answer :
477.27 N at 144.38 degrees
9 Determine the resultant of the following forces: A = 600 N at 40 degrees, B = 800 N at 160
degrees and C = 200 N at 300 degrees.
Correct Answer :
522.68 N, 111.57 degrees
10 A collar, which may slide on a vertical rod is subjected three forces. Force A is 1200 N vertically
upward, Force B is 800 N at an angle of 60 degrees from the vertical and a force F which is vertically
downward to the right. Find the direction of F if its magnitude is 2400 N and the resultant is horizontal.
Correct Answer :
41.61 degrees
1 Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer :
The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
2 When two surface come into contact, forces are applied by each other surface on the other.
Correct Answer :
friction force
3 The frictional forces that can result between two surfaces slide relative to each other.
Correct Answer :
static friction
4 The frictional forces that can result when two surfaces are sliding to each other is proportional
to the normal force applied on the surface.
Correct Answer :
kinetic friction
5 Refers to the state just before surfaces start to slip.
Correct Answer :
pending motion
6 A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft. apart. The
load is 500 lbs. per horizontal foot including the weight of the cable. The sag of the cable is 30 ft.
Calculate the total length of the cable.
Correct Answer :
504.84 ft.
7 A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 100m apart. The
load is 50N per meter horizontal length including the weight of the cable. The sag of the cable is 6m.
Calculate the total length of the cable.
Correct Answer :
100.97 m
8 A cable 45.5 m long is carrying a uniformly distributed load along its span. If the cable is strung
between two posts at the same level, 40 m apart, compute the smallest value that the cable may sag.
Correct Answer :
8.62 m
9 The light cable supports a mass of 12 kg per meter of horizontal length and is suspended
between the two points on the same level 300 m apart. If the sag is 60 m, find the total length of the
cable.
Correct Answer :
335 m
10 What tension must be applied at the ends of an aluminum cable supporting a load of 0.5 kg per
horizontal meter in a span of 100 m if the sag is to be limited to 1.25 m?
Correct Answer :
500.62 kg
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Calculate the allowable spacing of the two towers to carry a flexible wire cable weighing 0.03 kg
per horizontal meter if the maximum tension at the lowest point is not to exceed 1150 kg at sag of 0.50
m.
Correct Answer :
390 m
2 A cable 600 m long weighing 1500 N per meter has tension of 750 kN at each end. Compute the
maximum sag of the cable.
Correct Answer :
100 m
3 A cable 600 m long weighing 1500 N per meter has tension of 750 kN at each end. Compute the
distance between the support.
Correct Answer :
554.52 m
4 Starting from rest, an elevator weighing 9.6 kN attains an upward velocity of 5 m/s in 4 seconds
with a uniform acceleration. Find the tension in the supporting cable.
Correct Answer :
10.823 kN
5 A horizontal force of 140 N is needed to pull a 60 kg box across the horizontal floor at constant
speed. What is the coefficient of friction between the floor and the box?
Correct Answer :
0.238
6 It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.
Correct Answer :
sliding friction
7 A block passes from the edge of a table with a velocity of 5m/s. It slides off the edge of the table
which is 5 m high and strikes the floor 3 m from the edge of the table. What is the coefficient of friction
between the block and the table?
Correct Answer :
0.21
8 Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction.
Correct Answer :
The statement is correct
9 The coefficient of static friction is:
Correct Answer :
Equal to the tangent of the angle of friction
10 Which of the following kinetic friction is smaller?
Correct Answer :
Rolling friction
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A cubical block rests on an inclined plane of μ = 1/√3, determine the angle of inclination when
the block just slides down the inclined plane.
Correct Answer :
30°
2 A mass of 4kg rests on a horizontal plane. The plane is gradually inclined until at an angle θ= 15°
with the horizontal, the mass just begins to slide. What is the coefficient of static friction between the
block and the surface?
Correct Answer :
0.27
3 A scooter weighs 120kg f. Brakes are applied so that wheels stop rolling and start skidding. Find
the force of friction if the coefficient of friction is 0.4.
Correct Answer :
48kg f
4 How is friction due to air reduced?
Correct Answer :
Streamlining
5 Friction can be increased by:
Correct Answer :
Using sand
6 When a person walks on a rough surface, the frictional force exerted by the surface on the
person is opposite to direction of his motion.
Correct Answer :
The statement is incorrect.
7 It is difficult to put a cycle into motion than to maintain the motion because of:
Correct Answer :
Limiting friction
8 The fuel in the vehicle can be saved by:
Correct Answer :
Properly inflating the tires
9 Friction is a non-conservative force. True or false?
Correct Answer :
The statement is correct.
10 Which of the brakes are effective on a bicycle?
Correct Answer :
Both small and big
1 A man jumping out of a moving train.
Correct Answer :
Falls with his head forward
2 A stone when thrown on a glass window smashes the windowpane to pieces, but a bullet from
the gun passes through making a clean hole. Why?
Correct Answer :
Because of the small speed of stone
3 A body in linear motion can never be in equilibrium.
Correct Answer :
4 An astronaut is suddenly thrown out of his small spaceship accelerating in inter-stellar space at a
constant rate of 100/s2. What is the acceleration of the astronaut the instant after he is outside the
spaceship? Assuming there are no nearby stars.
Correct Answer :
Zero
5 A soda-water bottle is falling freely. The bubbles of the gas rise in the water of the bottle.
Correct Answer :
6 A bird is sitting on the floor of a wire cage and the cage is in the hand of a boy. The bird starts
flying in the cage. The boy will:
Correct Answer :
Feel the weight of the cage has become lighter
7 When a man jumps down for a height of several storeys into a stretched tarpaulin, he receives
no injury. True or false?
Correct Answer :
8 There is some water in a breaker placed on the pan of a spring balance. If we dip our finger in
this water without touching the bottom of the beaker,
Correct Answer :
The reading will increase
9 A stone tied at the end of a string is whirled in a circle. When the string breaks, the stone.
Correct Answer :
Flies away tangentially
10 A Bucket containing water is going in a vertical circle. The water:
Correct Answer :
Does not fall
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The motion of a particle is defined by the relation x = (1/3)t3 – 3t2 + 8t + 2 where x is the
distance in meters and is the time in seconds. What is the time when the velocity is zero?
Correct Answer :
2 seconds
2 A particle moves along a straight line with the equation x = 16t + 4t2 – 3t3 where x is the
distance in ft. and t is the time in second. Compute the acceleration of the particle after 2 seconds.
Correct Answer :
– 28 ft/s2
3 A train changes its speed uniformly from 60 mph to 30 mph in a distance of 1500 ft. What is its
acceleration?
Correct Answer :
– 1.94 ft/s2
4 A bus moving at a speed of 20 m/s begins to slow at a rate of 3 m/s each second after seeing a
red light at the intersection. Find how far it goes before stopping.
Correct Answer :
66.7 m
5 Rest and motion are relative terms. True or false?
Correct Answer :
6 A train is under a journey of several hundred kilometers. How can it be regarded?
Correct Answer :
A point object
7 A car is moving along a zigzag path on a level road. This is an example for which of the
following?
Correct Answer :
Two dimensional motion
8 Which of the following can be regarded as an example for three dimensional motions?
Correct Answer :
A kite flying on a windy day
9 A body travels from A to B at 40m/s and from B to A at 60m/s. Calculate the average speed.
Correct Answer :
48m/s
10 Displacement is a scalar quantity.
Correct Answer :
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 An objects starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 8 m/s^2 along a straight line. Find the
speed at the end of 5s.
Correct Answer :
40 m/s
2 An objects starts from rest with a constant acceleration of 8 m/s^2 along a straight line. Find the
average speed for the 5-s interval.
Correct Answer :
20 m/s
3 A ball is dropped from rest at a height of 50 m above the ground. What is its speed just before it
hit the ground?
Correct Answer :
31.3 m/s
4 A ball is dropped from rest at a height of 50 m above the ground. How long does it take to reach
the ground?
Correct Answer :
3.19 s
5 A stone is thrown straight upward and it rises to a height of 20 m. With what speed was is
thrown?
Correct Answer :
20 m/s
6 A stone is thrown straight upward with a speed of 20 m/s. It is caught on its way down at a point
5 m above where it was thrown. How fast was it going when it is caught?
Correct Answer :
17 m/s
7 A projectile is launched at 45° to the horizontal on a level ground at a speed of 60 m/s.

Neglecting air resistance, what is the range of the projectile?
Correct Answer :
366.86 m
8 A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Find the maximum
height that it could reach?
Correct Answer :
31.86 m
9 A projectile has a velocity of 200 m/s acting at an angle of 20° with the horizontal. How long will
it take for the projectile to hit the ground surface?
Correct Answer :
13.95 sec.
10 A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Find the time it
would take for the projectile to reach the maximum height.
Correct Answer :
2.55 sec
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is easier to catch a tennis ball than a cricket ball even when both are moving with same
velocity. True or false?
Correct Answer :
2 The speed of driving a car safely depends on.
Correct Answer :
Headlight range
3 What is the magnitude of net force acting a kite skilfully held stationary in air?
Correct Answer :
Zero
4 The driver of a three wheeler with a speed of 36km/h sees a child in the middle of the road and
brings his vehicle to rest in 4s just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding force on the
vehicle? The mass of the three-wheeler is 400kg and the mass of the driver is 65kg.
Correct Answer :
1162.5 N
5 On a 60km track travels the first 30km with a uniform speed of 30km/h. How fast must the train
travel the next 30km so as to average 40km.h for the entire trip?
Correct Answer :
60km/h
6 What is the acceleration of a bus approaching a bus stop?
Correct Answer :
Negative acceleration
7 A jet plane starts from rest with an acceleration of 3m/s^2 and makes a run for 35 s before
taking off. What is the minimum length of the runway?
Correct Answer :
1837.5 m
8 A driver takes 0.20 s to apply the brakes after he sees a need for it. This is called the reaction
time of the driver. If he is driving at a speed of 54km/h and the brakes cause a deceleration of 6.0m/s2,
find the distance travelled by the car after he sees the need to put the brakes.
Correct Answer :
21.5 m
9 A runner makes a one lap around a 200-m track in a time of 25 s. What were the runner’s
average speed?
Correct Answer :
8 m/s
10 A runner makes a one lap around a 200-m track in a time of 25 s. What were the runner’s
average velocity?
Correct Answer :
0 m/s
1 ________ is the product of force and the time it acts.
Correct Answer :
Impulse
2 ________ is the product of mass and the velocity of the body.
Correct Answer :
Momentum
3 This law states that, when two bodies of masses m1 and m2 collide, the total momentum before
impact is equal to the momentum after impact.
Correct Answer :
Law of Conservation of Momentum
4 ________ is a collision that conserves kinetic energy.
Correct Answer :
Elastic Collision
5 ________ is a collision that does not conserves kinetic energy.
Correct Answer :
Inelastic Collision
6 Impulse is equal to ________.
Correct Answer :
force x time or change in momentum
7 It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.
Correct Answer :
impulse
8 Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are
known as __________.
Correct Answer :
elastic collisions
9 Suppose you find yourself teetering on the edge of a cliff or the roof of a tall building with a
heavy physics book in your hand. As you are about to fall, you suddenly remember how physics can save
you! What law did you remember?
Correct Answer :
law of conservation of momentum
10 A heavy truck has more momentum than a passenger car moving at the same speed because the
truck.
Correct Answer :
has greater mass
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A gun recoiling when it is fired is an example of:
Correct Answer :
conservation of momentum
2 A heavy object and a light object have the same momentum. Which has the greater speed?
Correct Answer :
light object
3 A 1500 kg truck traveling at 80 km/h collides with another car of mass 1000 kg traveling at 30
km/h in the same direction. The two cars stick together after the collision. Their speed immediately after
the collision is:
Correct Answer :
60 km/h
4 A baseball player grabs a 200 gram baseball which is moving at speed of 30 m/s. The ball comes
to rest in about 1/10 second. The force acting on the player’s hand is (Think of the relationship between
change of the momentum and force),
Correct Answer :
60 N
5 A change in momentum may result from:
Correct Answer :
all of these choices
6 A boxer quickly learns to move his head backward when he sees he is going to receive a jab to
the head. What does this head motion accomplish?
Correct Answer :
It increases the contact time which decreases the force
7 Guardrails along roadsides collapse (bend and crumple) when a car runs into them. This is done:
Correct Answer :
to increase the contact time and decrease the crash force
8 A bazooka, or rocket launcher, is essentially a large tube, open at both ends, that a soldier holds
on the shoulder when firing a heavy shell. There is a very little recoil on the person firing the shell. Why?
Correct Answer :
Momentum is shared between the gas and the shell; the tube does not recoil.
9 In order to reduce the "sting" in catching a hard ball one usually,
Correct Answer :
increase the contact time
10 For the same force, which one imparts a greater momentum to a cannonball?
Correct Answer :
a long cannon
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A ball is dropped on a horizontal surface from a height of 15 m. What will be the rebounding
height of the ball after striking the surface? (coefficient of restitution = 0.8)
Correct Answer :
9.6 m
2 A ball is dropped from a height h above a tile floor and rebounds to a height of 0.65h. Find the
coefficient of restitution between the ball and floor.
Correct Answer :
0.81
3 Which of the following laws derive impulse moment principle?
Correct Answer :
Newton's 2nd law
4 What is the coefficient of restitution (e) for elastic impact?
Correct Answer :
e=1
5 If coefficient of restitution is zero during plastic impact, then ___________ .
Correct Answer :
momentum energy is conserved
6 A 3.000 kg ball is pitched with a kinetic energy of 20.00 Joules. Then the momentum of the ball
is:
Correct Answer :
10.95 kg m/s.
7 The total momentum of a system __________, if no external impressed force acts on it.
Correct Answer :
remains constant
8 An 8g bullet is fired horizontally into a 9kg block of wood and sticks in it. The block which is free
to move, has a velocity of 40 cm/s after impact. Find the velocity of the bullet.
Correct Answer :
450 m/s
9 An object of 30 kg is moved with a velocity of 2 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface. What is the
velocity of the block for 4 seconds if force of 40 N is applied on it in the direction of force?
Correct Answer :
7.33 m/s
10 If the momentum of a ball is doubled, then the kinetic energy is:
Correct Answer :
4 times larger.
1 The moment of force is zero when:
Correct Answer :
all of these choices
2 The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is:
Correct Answer :
2/5 mr2
3 The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is:
Correct Answer :
2/3 mr2
4 It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is
distributed about the reference axis.
Correct Answer :
second moment of area
5 An electric fan revolving at 900 rpm slows down uniformly to 300 rpm while making 50
revolutions. Find the time required to turn through these 50 revolutions.
Correct Answer :
5s
6 A car has wheels of radius 30 cm. It starts from rest and accelerates uniformly to a speed of
15m/s in a time of 8s. Find the number of rotations one wheel makes in this time.
Correct Answer :
32 rev
7 A wheel 25 cm in radius turning at 120 rpm increases its speed to 660 rpm in 9s. Find tangential
acceleration of a point on its rim.
Correct Answer :
1.57 m/s
8 A wheel of mass 6 kg and radius of gyration 40 cm is rotating at 300 rpm. What is the rotational
kinetic energy of the wheel?
Correct Answer :
473 J
9 Determine the angle of super elevation for a highway curve of radius 183 m so that there will be
no “side thrust” for a speed of 72 kph.
Correct Answer :
12.57°
10 What is the maximum speed at which a car can round a curve of 25m radius on a level road if
the coefficient of static friction between the tires and road is 0.80?
Correct Answer :
14 m/s
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Which of the following is true about centripetal force?
Correct Answer :
It is directed toward the center of the circular path.
2 Centripetal acceleration.
Correct Answer :
changes the direction of the velocity.
3 Tangential acceleration.
Correct Answer :
changes the magnitude of the velocity.
4 A particle moves at 50 π rad/s of angular speed. Find the frequency of the particle motion.
Correct Answer :
25 Hz
5 The angular speed of a particle in circular motion is 12 rad/s. Find the speed of particle if the
radius is 2 m.
Correct Answer :
24 m/s
6 A mass of 1 kg rotates with an angular speed of 120 rpm. If its radius is 2 meter then find the
centripetal acceleration of this particle.
Correct Answer :
32π2m/s2
7 Find the centripetal force acting on a body of 1 kg in a circular motion with its radius of 2 m and
speed of 3 m/s.
Correct Answer :
4.5 N
8 Calculate the centripetal force and acceleration of a 3.0 Kg mass tied in a rope and swung in a
circle of radius 0.75 m, which is moving in a velocity of 4.0 m/s?
Correct Answer :
64 N; 21.33 m/s2
9 A car of mass 1000 Kg moves in a circular path of radius 50 m. The constant speed of car is given
by 12 m/s. Determine the centripetal force of the car?
Correct Answer :
2880 N
10 A car is moving with a constant velocity around a circular path. If the radius of the circular path
is 48.2 m and the centripetal acceleration is 8.05 m/s2, what is the tangential speed of the car?
Correct Answer :
19.7 m/s2
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The first sprocket radius and the second are 20 cm and 10 cm respectively and the angular
speed of the first sprocket is 50 rad/s, find the second sprocket angular speed.
Given two sprockets of a bicycle below.
Correct Answer :
100 rad/s
2 Two rotating gears are shown. The speed of the first gear (bigger) is 20 m/s with radius of the
first and the second gears are 20 cm and 10 cm, find the second gear speed.
Correct Answer :
10 m/s
3 Three gears are configured as below. The radius are: r1 = 20 cm; r2 = 10 cm; r3 = 5 cm. If the
angular speed of the firs gear is 100 rad/s, find the angular speed of the third gear.
Correct Answer :
400 rad/s
4 A particle in a circular motion has its angular speed of 4 rad/s. Determine the angular position at
t = 5 sec.
Correct Answer :
20 radian
5 A particle in circular motion initially at rest. The particle angular acceleration is 2 rad/s2. Find
the angular speed at t = 5 sec.
Correct Answer :
10 rad/sec
6 A particle in circular motion initially at rest. The particle angular acceleration is 2 rad/s2. Find
the angular position at t = 5 sec.
Correct Answer :
25 radians
7 A car of 2000 kg of mass at 20 m/s of speed travels in circular motion with its radius of 100 m.
Find the normal force acting on the car in the peak point (the highest).
Correct Answer :
12,000 N
8 A particle in circular motion with its radius of 50 cm shown below. If the mass of particle is 200
gram and the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2, find the tension of the rope when it is in the highest
point.
Correct Answer :
38 Newton
9 Use the previous problem, find the tension of the rope when it is in the lowest point.
Correct Answer :
42 Newton
10 Find the angular speed of the second gear.
Correct Answer :
240 rad/s
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
Section4.1 Stresses, Simple Stresses & Thin-walled Cylinder

1 ________ is a stress left in the material due to the manufacturing processes.
Correct Answer :
Residual Stress
2 ________ is a stress produced in structural members because of the weights they support.
Correct Answer :
Structural Stress
3 ________ is a stress induced in vessels containing pressurized materials.

Correct Answer :
Pressure Stress
4 ________ is a stress that occurs when a mass of flowing fluid induces a dynamic pressure on a
conduit wall.
Correct Answer :
Flow Stress
5 ________ is a stress that exists whenever temperature gradients are present in a material.
Correct Answer :
Thermal Stress
6 ________ occurs due to cyclic application of a stress. It could be due to vibration of thermal
cycling.
Correct Answer :
Fatigue Stress
7 With _________, the area is perpendicular to the force carried.

Correct Answer :
Normal Stress & Axial Stress
8 ________ is the stress caused by pulling the material apart.

Correct Answer :
Tensile Stress
9 ________ is the stress caused by squeezing the material.

Correct Answer :
Compressive Stress
10 With __________, the stress is caused by sliding the faces of the material relative to one
another.
Correct Answer :
Shearing Stress
1 ____________ is also known as circumferential stress, hoop stress or girth stress.

Correct Answer :
Tangential Stress
2 When the vessel has closed ends the internal pressure acts on them to develop a force along the
axis of the cylinder. This is known as the axial or __________ and is usually less than the hoop stress.
Correct Answer :
Longitudinal Stress
3 ___________ is the contact pressure between the separate bodies. It differs from compressive
stress, as it is an internal stress caused by compressive forces.
Correct Answer :
Bearing Stress
4 The force needed to punch a hole 8.0 mm square in a steel sheet 3.0 mm thick whose shear
strength is 2.5 x 108 Pa is:
Correct Answer :
24 kN
5 The ultimate strength in compressed of aluminum is 2 x 108 Pa. The maximum mass an
aluminum cube 1 cm on each edge can support is about:
Correct Answer :
2 x 103 kg
6 Determine the outside diameter of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at
a stress of 140 MPa Assume the wall thickness to be 1/10 of the outside diameter.
Correct Answer :
112 mm
7 A cylindrical pressure vessel is fabricated from steel plates which have a thickness of 20mm. The
diameter of the pressure vessel is 500mm and its length is 3m. Determine the maximum internal
pressure which can be applied if the stress in the steel is limited to 140 MPa.
Correct Answer :
11.2 MPa
8 A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress
in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. If the plate is 0.25 inches thick, determine the diameter of the smallest
hole that can be punched.
Correct Answer :
0.800 in
9 A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress
in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. Compute the maximum thickness of plate from which a hole 2.5 inches
in diameter can be punched.
Correct Answer :
0.781 in
10 The wall thickness of a 4ft-diameter spherical tank is 4/17 in. Calculate the allowable internal
pressure if the stress is limited to 9000 psi.
Correct Answer :
176.47psi
1 A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 10
mm. A gasket is inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a flat plate use to cap the end.
How many 40-mm-diameter bolts must be used to hold the cap on if the allowable stress in the bolts is
80 MPa, of which 55 MPa is the initial stress?
Correct Answer :
17
2 A hollow steel tube with an inside diameter of 100 mm must carry a tensile load of 400 kN.
Determine the outside diameter of the tube if the stress is limited to 120 MN/m^2.
Correct Answer :
119.35 mm
3 A rod is composed of an aluminum section rigidly attached between steel and bronze sections,
as shown in the figure. Axial loads are applied at the positions indicated. If P = 3000 lb and the cross
sectional area of the rod is 0.5 in2, determine the stress in the steel section.
Correct Answer :
24 ksi
sectional area of the rod is 0.5 in2, determine the stress in the aluminum section.
Correct Answer :
24 ksi
sectional area of the rod is 0.5 in2, determine the stress in the bronze section.
Correct Answer :
18 ksi
6 An aluminum rod is rigidly attached between a steel rod and a bronze rod as shown in the
figure. Axial loads are applied at the positions indicated. Find the maximum value of P that will not
exceed a stress in steel of 140 MPa, in aluminum of 90 MPa, or in bronze of 100 MPa.
Correct Answer :
10,000 N
7 What force is required to punch a 20-mm-diameter hole in a plate that is 25 mm thick? The
shear strength is 350 MN/m^2.
Correct Answer :
550 kN
8 As in the figure, a hole is to be punched out of a plate having a shearing strength of 40 ksi. The
compressive stress in the punch is limited to 50 ksi. Compute the maximum thickness of plate in which a
hole 2.5 inches in diameter can be punched.
Correct Answer :
0.781 in
9 Find the smallest diameter bolt that can be used in the clevis shown in the figure if P = 400 kN.
The shearing strength of the bolt is 300 MPa.
Correct Answer :
29.13 mm
10 The lap joint shown the figure is fastened by four •0†6-in.-diameter rivets. Calculate the
maximum safe load P that can be applied if the shearing stress in the rivets is limited to 14 ksi and the
bearing stress in the plates is limited to 18 ksi. Assume the applied load is uniformly distributed among
the four rivets.
Correct Answer :
24.74 kips
Section4.2 Strain, Poisson¡¯s Ratio, & Hooke¡¯s Law part 1
1 What is the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial strain in a body subjected to
uniaxial stress?
Correct Answer :
Poisson¡¯s ratio
2 What is the unit of strain?

Correct Answer :
Unitless
3 Volumetric strain is the:

Correct Answer :
ratio of change in volume to original volume
4 Strength of materials can most aptly be described as ¡°statics of deformable _______ bodies¡±.
Correct Answer :
elastic
5 When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the
Poisson¡¯s ratio is:
Correct Answer :
Positive
6 Poisson¡¯s ratio is the ratio of the:

Correct Answer :
Unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation
7 _________ is a measure of deformation of a material. It is the change in shape produced by

stress.
Correct Answer :
Strain
8 _________ is the ratio of transverse contraction strain to longitudinal extension strain in the
direction of stretching force.
Correct Answer :
Poisson's Ratio
9 Strain is defined as the ratio of:

Correct Answer :
any one of these choices
10 When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the
Poisson¡¯s ratio is:
Correct Answer :
Negative
1 The property of a material by which it can be drawn into thin wires is?
Correct Answer :
Ductility
2 If a material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is called:

Correct Answer :
Isotropic
3 Why is the strain the fundamental property but not the stress?
Correct Answer :
Because its value is calculated in laboratory
4 The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture is called:
Correct Answer :
Ductile
5 What is creep?
Correct Answer :
Gradual increase of plastic strain with time at constant load
6 If a material has different elastic properties in perpendicular directions, it is called:

Correct Answer :
Orthotropic
7 Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Correct Answer :
Visco-elastic: small plastic zone
8 The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having constant load, i.e. increasing with the
time is called:
Correct Answer :
Creeping
9 Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deform progressively with
time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon called?
Correct Answer :
Creep
10 Resilience can also be termed as ___.

Correct Answer :
Strain energy
Section4.3 Strain, Poisson¡¯s Ratio, & Hooke¡¯s Law part 2
1 Hooke's law holds well up to:

Correct Answer :
limit of proportionality
2 The force acting along the circumference will cause stress in the walls in a direction normal to
the longitudinal axis of cylinder; this stress is called:
Correct Answer :
hoop stress
3 The dimension of strain is?

Correct Answer :
Dimensionless
4 What is tensile stress?

Correct Answer :
The ratio of change in length to the original length
5 Find the strain of a brass rod of length 250mm which is subjected to a tensile load of 50kN when
the extension of rod is equal to 0.3mm?
Correct Answer :
0.0012
6 Find the elongation of a steel rod of 100mm length when it is subjected to a tensile strain of
0.005?
Correct Answer :
0.5mm
7 A tensile test was conducted on a mild steel bar. The diameter and the gauge length of bat was
3cm and 20cm respectively. The extension was 0.21mm. What is the value to strain?
Correct Answer :
0.00105
8 Q: Strain is a fundamental behaviour of material.

R: Strain does not have a unit.
Correct Answer :
Both Q. and R. are true and R. is the correct explanation of Q
9 A tensile test was conducted on a steel bar. The gauge length of the bar was 10cm and the
extension was 2mm. What will be the percentage elongation?
Correct Answer :
2
10 The lateral strain is:

Correct Answer :
The strain at right angles to the direction of applied load
1 A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be x-
times the linear strain in any of the three axes when?
Correct Answer :
X=3
2 A rod 200cm long is subjected to an axial pull due to which it elongates about 2mm. Calculate
the amount of strain?
Correct Answer :
0.001
3 Find the strain of a brass rod of length 100mm which is subjected to a tensile load of 50kN when
the extension of rod is equal to 0.1mm?
Correct Answer :
0.001
4 The law which states that within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress
producing it is known as:
Correct Answer :
Hooke¡¯s law
5 For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke¡¯s law, number of
independent elastic constants is:
Correct Answer :
3
6 What is the factor of safety?

Correct Answer :
The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
7 What is Hooke¡¯s law for 1-D system?

Correct Answer :
The relation between normal stress and corresponding strain
8 Highest value of stress for which Hooke¡¯s law is applicable for given material is called:
Correct Answer :
Proportional limit
9 Which of these is a non-hookean material?

Correct Answer :
Rubber
10 Where in the stress-strain curve, the Hooke¡¯s law is valid?

Correct Answer :
Elastic range
Section4.4 Elasticity, Deformation or Elongation, Thermal Stress& Stress-Strain Diagram part 1
1 The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force, is called:
Correct Answer :
Elasticity
2 The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates, is called:
Correct Answer :
Malleability
3 Which law is also called as the elasticity law?
Correct Answer :
Hooke¡¯s law
4 The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called:
Correct Answer :
Isotropic
5 A member which does not regain its original shape after removal of load producing deformation
is said:
Correct Answer :
Plastic
6 The body will regain it is previous shape and size only when the deformation caused by the
external forces, is within a certain limit. What is that limit?
Correct Answer :
Elastic limit
7 The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called:
Correct Answer :
Isotropic
8 As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain.

Correct Answer :
Increases more rapidly
9 What kind of elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function?
Correct Answer :
Hyper elastic materials
10 What the number that measures an object¡¯s resistance to being deformed elastically when
stress is applied to it?
Correct Answer :
Elastic modulus
1 The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load, is called:
Correct Answer :
Yielding point
2 Limit of proportionality depends upon________.

Correct Answer :
3 What are the four basic forms of deformation of solid bodies?

Correct Answer :
Tension, compression, bending and twisting
4 Which of the following materials has the least modulus of elasticity?

Correct Answer :
Glass
5 Within elastic limit, the shear stress is proportional to shear strain. What is the constant of
proportionality of this statement called?
Correct Answer :
Modulus of rigidity
6 What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity?

Correct Answer :
Pa
7 Within elastic limit, the volumetric strain is proportional to the hydrostatic stress. What is the
constant that relates these two quantities called?
Correct Answer :
Bulk modulus
8 What is another term for modulus of rigidity?
Correct Answer :
Shear modulus
9 How many times greater is the plastic range of strain as compared to the elastic range of strain?
Correct Answer :
300
10 What does it means when the material is said to be ¡°yielding¡±?

Correct Answer :
The material has pass through elastic range and enter the plastic range
4.5
Questions
1 The elastic deformation of a material is:
Correct Answer :
inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity of material
2 Stiffness is:
Correct Answer :
ratio of force to deformation
3 Which of the following substances has the least average coefficient of linear thermal expansion?
Correct Answer :
Steel
4 Steel has a modulus of elasticity of ___ MPa.
Correct Answer :
200,000
5 __ is the stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape when unloaded but will
retain a permanent deformation.
Correct Answer :
Elastic limit
6 A ______ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of rupture.
Correct Answer :
ductile
7 A ______ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture.
Correct Answer :
brittle
8 The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a linear function
of strain.
Correct Answer :
proportional limit
9 The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is no
permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed.
Correct Answer :
elastic limit
10 The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is called:
Correct Answer :
elastic range
1 The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of rupture is
called:
Correct Answer : plastic range
2 The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress is known as
: Correct Answer : yield point
3 Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight.
Correct Answer : Specific Strength
4 Defined as the ratio of the Young’s modulus to the specific weight.
Correct Answer : Specific Modulus
5 A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or form.
Correct Answer : Bulk modulus
6 Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body. Correct Answer :
Thermal stress
7 The typical Young’s modulus of steel is: Correct Answer : 195 – 210 GPa
8 It is the change in shape and/or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a displacement between
an initial and a deformed configuration.
Correct Answer : Deformation
9 Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of:
Correct Answer : longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
10 The unit of Young's modulus is: Correct Answer : kg/cm2 Details
4.6
Questions
1 Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as:
Correct Answer : linear strain
2 The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called:
Correct Answer : isotropic materials
3 A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The extensions noted
with increasing loads will behave as under.
Correct Answer : increase uniformly first and then increase rapidly
4 Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of: Correct Answer : shear stress and shear strain
5 If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young's modulus will be:
Correct Answer : remain unaffected
6 The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is:
Correct Answer : more
7 Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by the:
Correct Answer : original cross-sectional area
8 The impact strength of a material is an index of its:
Correct Answer : toughness
9 The Young's modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of wire compared
to its original length.
Correct Answer : same amount
10 The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called:
Correct Answer : modulus of elasticity
1 Which of the following has no unit?
Correct Answer : strain
2 Which of the following materials is most elastic?
Correct Answer : steel
3 The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically downwards due to its own
weight is equal to that produced by a weight.
Correct Answer : half the weight of bar applied at lower end
4 The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called:
Correct Answer : isotropic
5 The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called:
Correct Answer : ductility
6 The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called:
Correct Answer : malleability
7 In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of the material, i. e. stress increasing with the
time at a constant load is called:
Correct Answer : creeping
8 The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called:
Correct Answer : breaking stress
9 Rupture stress is:
Correct Answer : load at breaking point/neck area
10 The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its:
Correct Answer : stress at elastic limit
4.7
Questions
1 The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is:
Correct Answer : Elastic modulus
2 What is the stress-strain curve?
Correct Answer : It is the relationship between stress and strain
3 Which point on the stress strain curve occur after proportionality limit?
Correct Answer : Elastic limit
4 Which point on the stress strain curve occur after lower yield point?
Correct Answer : Yield plateau
5 Which point on the stress strain curve occur after yield plateau?
Correct Answer : Ultimate point
6 Which point on the stress strain curve occur after the ultimate point?
Correct Answer : Breaking point
7 Elastic limit is the point.
Correct Answer : Up to which if the load is removed, original volume and shapes are regained
8 What is the point P shown on the stress strain curve?
Correct Answer : Ultimate point
9 What is the point P shown in the stress-strain curve?
Correct Answer : Breaking point
10 What is the point shown in the stress strain curve?
Correct Answer : Lower yield point
1 The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a body subjected to three mutually
perpendicular stresses of equal intensity, is equal to:
Correct Answer : bulk modulus
2 The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in
load is called:
Correct Answer : yielding point of the material
3 When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will:
Correct Answer : stretch
4 The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as:
Correct Answer : strain energy
5 Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to:
Correct Answer : shock loading
6 The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is known as:
Correct Answer : proof resilience
7 Proof resilience per material is known as:
Correct Answer : modulus of resilience
8 A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as:
Correct Answer : toughness
9 A steel bar 40mm in diameter and 3m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 6mm thick. Compute
the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.95 mm in the length of 2m. For steel
E=300GPa, and for cast iron, E=150GPa.
Correct Answer : 161kN
10 A steel rod 3.5m long is secured between two walls. If the load on the rod is zero at 30°C, compute
the stress when the temperature drops to -30°C. The cross-sectional area of the rod is 1200mm2, α
=11.7um/(m°C), and E=200Gpa.
Correct Answer : 140MPa
1 A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 sq. millimeters and a length of 150 m is suspended
vertically from one end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of steel is
7850 kg/m^3 and E = 200x10^3 MN/m^2, find the total elongation of the rod.
Correct Answer : 54.3 mm
2 A steel rod 2.5 m long is secured between two walls. If the load on the rod is zero at 20 degree Celsius,
compute the stress when the temperature drops to -20 degrees Celsius. The cross-sectional are if the
rod is 1200 sq. mm, coefficient of linear expansion = 11.7 um/(m-deg.C), and E = 200 GPa. Assume that
the walls are rigid.
Correct Answer : 93.6 MPa
3 A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute
the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.8 mm in the length of 2m. For steel E = 200
GPa, and for cast iron E = 100 GPa.
Correct Answer : 192 kN
4 A steel bar 50mm in diameter and 2m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 5mm thick. Compute
the load that will compress the combined bar a total of 1mm in the length of 2m for steel, E=200GPa
and for cast iron, E=100GPa.
Correct Answer : 240 kN
5 The coefficient of linear expansion of steel is 1.2 x 10^-5/ degree C. What is the increase in length of a
steel girder that is 20 meters long at 10 degrees C when its temperature is raised to 20 degrees C?
6 An iron wire 1.0 m long with a square cross section 2.0 mm on a side is used to support a 100-kg load.
The modulus of elasticity of iron is 190 GPa. Its elongation is:
7 A brass rod 5.0 ft. long with a square cross section 0.50 in on a side is used to support a 540-lb load.
The modulus of elasticity of brass is 91 GPa. Its elongation is:
Correct Answer : 0.0096 in
8 Young's modulus for aluminum is 7.00 x 1010 Pa. The force needed to stretch by 1.0 mm an aluminum
wire 2.0 mm in diameter and 800 mm long is:
Correct Answer : 275 N
9 A wire 10 m long with a cross-sectional area of 0.10 cm2 stretches by 13mm when a load of 100 kg is
suspended from it. The Young's modulus for this wire is:
Correct Answer : 7.5 x 1010 Pa
10 When a pressure of 2.0 MPa is applied to sample of kerosene, it contracts by 0.15%. The bulk
modulus of kerosene is:
Correct Answer : 1.3 GPa
4.8
Questions
1 Torque is __ moment.
Correct Answer :
Twisting
Details
2 Twisting moment is a product of _ and the radius.
Correct Answer :
Force
Details
3 Torsion is denoted by __.
Correct Answer :
T
Details
4 The SI units for torsion is __.
Correct Answer :
Nm
Details
5 twisting couple coincides with the axis of the shaft.
Correct Answer :
Pure
Details
6 Torsional sectional modulus is also known as _______.
Correct Answer :
Polar modulus
Details
7 ______ is a measure of strength of shaft in rotation.
Correct Answer :
Polar modulus
Details
8 What are the units of torsional rigidity?
Correct Answer :
Nmm2
Details
9 The power transmitted by shaft SI system is given by ________.
Correct Answer :
2πNT/60
Details
10 The intensity of shear stress at a section is______ to the distance of the section from the axis of the
shaft.
Correct Answer :
Directly proportional
Details
Eman
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The shear stress is __ at the axis of shaft.
Correct Answer :
Zero
Details
2 The shear stress at outer surface of hollow circular section is _______.
Correct Answer :
Maximum
Details
3 The hollow shaft will transmit greater _____ than the solid shaft of the same weight.
Correct Answer :
Torque
Details
4 A shaft is said to be in pure torsion if:
Correct Answer :
Two opposite turning moments are applied to the shaft
Details
5 The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the:
Correct Answer :
torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft
Details
6 The load required to produce a unit deflection in the spring is called:
Correct Answer :
Spring stiffness
Details
7 In spring balances, the spring is used:
Correct Answer :
To measure forces
Details
8 The most important property for the spring material is:
Correct Answer :
Details
9 The springs in brakes and clutches are used:
Correct Answer :
To apply forces
Details
10 In a watch, the spring is used to store energy. The energy is released.
Correct Answer :
To run the watch
1 What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than 4° in a 6m
length when subjected to a torque of 13kN-m? G=85 GPa.
Correct Answer : 107.6mm
2 Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a
mean radius of 90 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2.5kN. Use G=83 GPa.
Correct Answer : 175mm

3 A large pipe, called a penstock in hydraulic work, is 1.5 m in diameter. It is composed of wooden
staves bound together by steel hoops, each 300 sq. millimeter in cross-sectional area, and is used to
conduct water from a reservoir to power a house. If the maximum tensile stress permitted in the hoops
is 130 MPa, what is the maximum spacing between hoops under a head of water of 30 m?
Correct Answer : 177 mm
4 At what angular velocity will the stress in a rotating steel ring equal to 150 MPa if its mean radius is
220 mm? The density of the steel is 7.85 Mg/m^3.
Correct Answer : 628 rad/s
5 A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 80 MPa when twisted through 4 degrees. Using G = 83 GPa,
compute the shaft diameter.
6 A solid steel shaft is not to twist through more than 3 degrees in a 6 m length when subjected to a
torque of 12 kN-m. What maximum shearing stress is developed? Use G=83GPa.
7 What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will not twist through more than 3 degrees in
a 6 m length when subjected to a torque of 12 kN-m? Use G=83GPa.
8 Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-
diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.
9 Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diameter wire on a
mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.
10 A steel shaft 3 ft long that has a diameter of 4 in is subjected to a torque of 15 kip•ft. Determine the
maximum shearing stress and the angle of twist. Use G = 12 × 106 psi.
Correct Answer : 14.3 ksi; 1.23°
THERMODYNAMICS
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What is an energy that can be transferred from one object to another causing a
change in temperature of each object?
Correct Answer :Heat

Details
2
What is the heat capacity of one mole of substance?
Correct Answer :Molar heat

Details
3
How is heat transferred?

Details
4
The amount of energy needed to change a given mass of ice to water at constant
temperature is called the heat of:
Correct Answer :fusion

Details
5
Heat transfer by conduction occurs:
Correct Answer :in gases, liquids and solids

Details
6
In natural convection, a heated portion of a fluid moves because:
Correct Answer :its density is less than that of the surrounding

Details
7
Four pieces of iron are heated in a furnace to different temperature. The one at
the highest temperature appears:
Correct Answer :white

Details
8
If 10 g of ice melts at 0°C, the total quantity of heat absorbed is:
Correct Answer :800 cal

Details
9
How many calories of heat will be needed to raise the temperature of 200 g of
iron from 27°C to 80°C? (Cp= 0.11 cal/g. °C)
Correct Answer :1.16 kcal

Details
10
A 50 kg iron block at 80°C is dropped into an insulated tank that contains 0.5 m3
of liquid water at 25°C. Determine the temperature when thermal equilibrium
reached. The specific heat of iron is 0.45kJ/kg-°C and for water is 4.18kJ/kg-°C.
Correct Answer :25.6°C

Details
<="" span="" style="box-sizing: border-box; font-family: NotoSans-Regular;
font-size: 15px; color: rgb(104, 123, 146); padding: 3px; display: block; text-
align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
A 4-in wall of fire brick, k=9 Btu/(ft2-hr-F/in), has one surface at 300F, the other
at 90F. Find the heat conducted through the area of 2ft2 in 1 day.
Correct Answer :22, 680BTU

Details
2
If 80 g of iron shot at 100C is dropped into 200 g of water at 20C contained in an
iron vessel of mass 50 g, find the resulting temperature. (Use C iron = 0.12 cal/g)
Correct Answer :23.6°C

Details
3
The radiator of a room contains 10 kilogram of water. If the water gives off
50,000 calories of heat to the room, the drop in temperature of the water is:
Correct Answer :5 degrees Celsius

Details
4
Ten calories of heat are added to 2 grams of water. The temperature of the water
rises to a total of how many degrees?

Details
5
A 2-kilogram block of metal with a specific heat of 100 joules per kilogram per
Kelvin falls from rest through a distance of 100 meters to the Earth’s surface. If
half of the potential energy lost by the fallen block is converted to internal energy
of the block, the temperature change of the block is most nearly.
Correct Answer :5 K
Details
6
One kilogram of boiling water is poured into an empty thermos whose mass is 1
kilogram and whose temperature is 25℃. No heat is loss from the thermos. The
specific heats of water and the thermos are 1 and 0.5 kilocalories per kilogram
degree Celsius, respectively. Their final temperature is:

Details
7
An aluminum rod at a temperature of 100℃ radiates energy at a rate of 10 watts.
If its temperature is increased to 200 degrees Celsius, at approximately what rate
will it radiate energy?
Correct Answer :26 watts

Details
8
It is the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles.
Correct Answer :Conduction

Details
9
The rate at which an object radiates electromagnetic energy does not depend on
its:
Correct Answer :mass

Details
10
In an hour, the heat produced by a 1-kW heating element equals.
Correct Answer :3412 BTU

Details
align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What term refers to the heat needed to to melt a solid or that must be removed to
freeze a liquid?
Correct Answer :all of these choices

Details
2
Heat transfer by mixing is more commonly known as what?
Correct Answer :convection

Details
3
The change of a gas to a liquid is called:
Correct Answer :condensation

Details
4
A bimetallic strip commonly found in home furnace thermostats works because
of the difference in which property of the two metals?
Correct Answer :thermal expansion

Details
5
The area of thermodynamics concerned with the measuring of thermal
properties is called what?
Correct Answer :calorimetry

Details
6
The heat absorbed by a unit mass of material at its boiling point in order to
convert the material into gas at the same temperature.
Correct Answer :Latent Heat of Vaporization

Details
7
Which of the following terms refer to the amount of heat needed to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance through one degree?
Correct Answer :Specific heat

Details
8
Heat from the sun reaches the Earth by:
Correct Answer :radiation

Details
9
What is a calorie?
Correct Answer :amount of heat required to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius
Details
10
A British Thermal Unit, or BTU, is the amount of heat required to raise one pound
of what material one degree Fahrenheit?
Correct Answer :water

Details
align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
In extra-terrestrial space, heat is transferred by:
Correct Answer :radiation

Details
2
Occurs when the vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer :Boiling

Details
3
If an object with higher temperature comes in contact with a lower temperature
object, it will:
Correct Answer :transfer heat to the lower temperature object

Details
4
The ___________ of a substance is the amount of heat required to change its
temperature by one degree, and has units of energy per degree.
Correct Answer :heat capacity

Details
5
The heat absorbed by a unit mass at its melting point in order to convert the
solid at the same temperature.
Correct Answer :Latent Heat of Fusion

Details
6
Heat transfer by convection occurs.
Correct Answer :only in gases and liquids

Details
7
Consider a person standing in a breezy room at 22°C. Determine the total rate of
heat transfer from this person if the exposed surface area and the average outer
surface temperature of the person are 1.2 m2 and 33°C, respectively, and the
convection heat transfer coefficient is 5 W/m2. ε=0.95 and σ=5.67x10-8 W/m4-
K4.
Correct Answer :143.2J/s

Details
8
If 10.0 kg of ice at 0 oC is added to 2.0 kg of steam at 100 oC, the temperature of
the resulting mixture is:
Correct Answer :40 °C
Details
9
Fifteen megajoules of heat is removed from 5 kg of steam initially at 200 oC. The
steam afterward is in the form of:
Correct Answer :a mixture of water and ice

Details
10
The average temperature of the earth's surface is 15oC. Assuming that the earth
radiates as a blackbody, the rate at which it loses energy by radiation is:
Correct Answer :390 W/m2

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
A process where heat is released to the surroundings.
Correct Answer :Exothermic process

Details
2
A kilogram of water goes from 90 degrees Celsius to 10 degrees Celsius in a
period of 2 hours. If the specific heat of water is 4 kilojoules per kilogram per
degrees Celsius, how much heat has the water lost?
Correct Answer :320 kJ

Details
3
When a 2 lb of brass at 212°F is dropped into 5lb of water at 35°F, the resulting
temperature is 41.2°F. Find the specific heat of brass in Btu/lb-°F.

Details
4
How much heat is necessary to raise the temperature of 0.80 kg of ethyl alcohol
from 15°C of its boiling point 78.3°C? The specific heat for ethyl alcohol is 0.6
cal/kg-oC.
Correct Answer :30kcal
Details
5
A copper bar is 1.0 m long at 20oC. At what temperature will it be shorter by 1.0
mm? α_C=17x10^-6/℃
Correct Answer :-39°C

Details
6
The natural direction of heat flow between two reservoirs depends on.
Correct Answer :their temperatures

Details
7
Of the following substances, the one that requires the greatest amount of heat
per kilogram for a given increase in temperature is:
Correct Answer :water

Details
8
One gram of steam of 100oC causes a more serious burn than 1 g of water at
100oC because the steam.
Correct Answer :contains more internal energy
Details
9
The freezing point of water is 0°C. It's melting point is:
Correct Answer :0°C

Details
10
When a vapor condenses into a liquid,
Correct Answer :it evolves heat

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
The heat of vaporization of a substance is:
Correct Answer :greater than its heat of fusion
Details
2
What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance at its boiling
point from the liquid to the gaseous state?
Correct Answer :Heat of vaporation

Details
3
What refers to the amount of energy absorbed or released during a phase-change
process?
Correct Answer :Latent heat

Details
4
What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?
Correct Answer :333.7 kJ/kg

Details
5
What is the latent heat of vaporization of water at 1 atm?
Details
6
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1
°C is called ______.
Correct Answer :Kilocalorie

Details
7
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water by 1°F
is called ______.
Correct Answer :BTU

Details
8
1 British thermal unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?

Details
9
What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg ∙°C?
Details
10
What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?
Correct Answer :J/kg∙ °C

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1

Details
2
Details
3
process?

Details
4

Details
5

Details
6
Details
7
is called ______.
Correct Answer :BTU

Details
8

Details
9

Details
10
Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1

Details
2

Details
3
process?
Details
4

Details
5

Details
6

Details
7
is called ______.
Correct Answer :BTU
Details
8

Details
9

Details
10

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
The term “enthalpy” comes from Greek “enthalpen” which means ______.
Correct Answer :Heat

Details
2
The total energy of the system. It contains the translational, rotational,
vibrational, electronic, and nuclear energies and the energies due to
intermolecular interactions. Its absolute value is unknown; its change is defined
by the first law of thermodynamics. It is a state function and an extensive
quantity.
Correct Answer :Internal energy

Details
3
Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?
Correct Answer :h = u + pV
Details
4
Which of the following thermodynamic relations is incorrect?
Correct Answer :H = U - pV
Details
5
The property of a substance which remains constant if no heat enters or leaves
the system, while it does work or alters its volume, but which increases or
diminishes should a small amount of heat enter or leave.
Correct Answer :entropy

Details
6
If the ΔH of a reaction is a negative quantity, the reaction is definitely.
Correct Answer :Exothermic

Details
7
In a graphic representation of the energy contents of reactants and resulting
products, which would have a higher energy content in an exothermic reaction?
Correct Answer :The reactants

Details
8
Entropy is a measure of:
Correct Answer :disorder

Details
9
Entropy is measured in ______.
Correct Answer :Joule/Kelvin

Details
10
What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume
conditions?
Correct Answer :Enthalpy

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
A rigid tank contains a hot fluid that is cooled while being stirred by a paddle
wheel. Initially, the internal energy of the fluid is 850kJ. During the cooling
process, the fluid loses 550kJ of heat, and the paddle wheel does 200kJ of work
on the fluid. Determine the final energy of the fluid. Neglect the energy stored in
the paddle wheel.
Correct Answer :500kJ

Details
2
A piston cylinder device contains a liquid vapor mixture of water at 400K. During
a constant pressure process, 700 kJ of heat is transferred to the water. As a
result, part of the liquid in the cylinder vaporizes. Determine the entropy change
of the water during this process.
Correct Answer :1.75 kJ/K

Details
3
The value for the ΔU of a system is -120 J. If the system is known to have
absorbed 420 J of heat, how much work was done?
Correct Answer :-540 J

Details
4
A gas is compressed from 5 L to 3 L under an average pressure of 2 bars. During
the compression 0.3 kJ of heat is given off. The internal energy of the gas:
Correct Answer :increases by 0.1 kJ

Details
5
The energy of molecular motion in a gas appears in the form of:
Correct Answer :temperature

Details
6
It has been said that the universe will die an "entropy death". This means that:
Correct Answer :the universe will be at the same temperature everywhere

Details
7
Radiant energy emitted from a blackbody is only a function of what?
Correct Answer :temperature

Details
8
Energy is always:
Correct Answer :None of these choices

Details
9
Energy destruction is a result of:
Correct Answer :Process irreversibility

Details
10
The entropy change of an ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is given by:
Correct Answer :cP ln (T2 / T1) - R ln (P2 / P1)

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
As temperature goes to “0”, the entropy approaches a constant.
Correct Answer :Third Law of Thermodynamics
Details
2
If a system absorbs 500 cal of het at the same time does 400 J of work, find the
change in internal energy of the system.
Correct Answer :1700 J

Details
3
A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The
gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant
pressure of 200 kPa. Find the work done on the system.
Correct Answer :12 kJ

Details
4
Twenty grams of ice at 0oC melts to water at 0oC. How much does the entropy
change?
Correct Answer :24.6 J/K

Details
5
During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the temperature increases
from 4.44° C to 115.6°C. if Cp=1.0062kNm/ kg∙K for a non-flow process, what is
∆H?
Correct Answer :152.2 kJ/s

Details
6
What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?
Correct Answer :Microscopic form of energy

Details
7
What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect
to some outside reference frame, such as potential and kinetic energies?
Correct Answer :Macroscopic form of energy

Details
8
Who coined the word “energy” in 1807?
Correct Answer :Thomas Young

Details
9
The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what
kind of energy?
Correct Answer :Translational energy

Details
10
The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus possess what kind of
energy?
Correct Answer :Rotational kinetic energy

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
The electrons which spins about its axis will possess what kind of energy?
Correct Answer :Spin energy
Details
2
What refers to the portion of the internal energy of a system associated with the
kinetic energies of the molecules?
Correct Answer :Sensible energy

Details
3
What is the internal energy associated with the phase of a system called?
Correct Answer :Latent energy

Details
4
What is the internal energy associated with the atomic bonds in a molecule
called?
Correct Answer :Chemical energy

Details
5
What is the extremely large amount of energy associated with the strong bonds
within the nucleus of the atom itself called?
Correct Answer :Nuclear energy
Details
6
What are the only two forms of energy interactions associated with a closed
system?
Correct Answer :Heat transfer and work

Details
7
A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process.
Correct Answer :Isentropic

Details
8
“The entropy change of a system during a process is equal to the net entropy
transfer through the system boundary and the entropy generated within the
system”. This statement is known as:
Correct Answer :Entropy balance relation

Details
9
Which temperature-specific entropy state diagram below correctly represents
the isobaric cooling process occurring in a heat exchanger?
Correct Answer :C
Details
10
A 0.5-kg steel (C = 0.5 kJ/kg-k) rivet cools from 800 K to 300 K upon being
installed in a riveted building structure. The entropy change of this rivet is:
Correct Answer :-0.245 kJ/K

Details

align: center;">
Perc
Questions
CorrectWrong
1The amount of mass per unit volume refers to the:
Correct Answer :
Density
Details
2In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object must be at a temperature.

Correct Answer :
above 0 K
Details
3A pressure gage register 50 psig in a region where the barometer is 14.25 psia. Find the absolute
pressure in Pascals.
Correct Answer :
443 kPa
Details
4A property that is determined by the state of the system. The change in the state function is path
independent and defined by the properties in the initial and the final state only.
Correct Answer :
State function
Details
5Absolute zero may be regarded as that temperature at which:
Correct Answer :
molecular motion in a gas would be the minimum possible
Details
6It is defined as the amount of light output in lumens per W of electricity consumed.
Correct Answer :
Light efficacy
Details
7If a metallic object is heated, its density generally:
Correct Answer :
decreases
Details
8Two thermometers, one calibrated in the Celsius scale and the other in the Fahrenheit scale, are used
to measure the same temperature. The numerical reading on the Fahrenheit thermometer:
Correct Answer :
may be greater or less than that on that on the Celsius thermometer
Details
9A machine performs 8 Joules of work in 2 seconds. How much power is delivered by this machine?
Correct Answer :
4W
Details
10What is the Celsius temperature corresponding to 100 degrees Kelvin?
Correct Answer :
-173 degrees Celsius
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1A rise in temperature of 20 Kelvin degrees is equal to a rise of:
Correct Answer :
20 degrees Celsius
Details
2The temperature of an object is raised by 50°C. This is equivalent to an increase in its absolute
temperature of:
Correct Answer :
50 K
Details
3The boiling point of water on the Rankine scale is:
Correct Answer :
672oR
Details
4A kilocalorie is equal to which one of the following.
Correct Answer :
4200 Joules
Details
5What is 20 degrees Celsius in Kelvin?
Correct Answer :
293 K
Details
6The pressure placed on a square with ½ meter sides is 1000 Pascals. How much force is being applied
to the square?
Correct Answer :
250 N
Details
7The term "laminar flow" is most often associated with the description of:
Correct Answer :
effects of viscosity of liquids
Details
8What is the SI unit of pressure?
Correct Answer :
Pascal
Details
9What is the value given to standard pressure in Torr?
Correct Answer :
760
Details
10Who invented the barometer?
Correct Answer :
Torricelli
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1The random motion of particles suspended in a fluid is called:
Correct Answer :
Brownian Motion
Details
2The formation of pockets of gas in a liquid is called:
Correct Answer :
cavitation
Details
3Pressure is equal to:
Correct Answer :
force divided by area
Details
4If water is warmed from 0 degrees Celsius to 6 degrees Celsius, which of the following things happen?
Correct Answer :
contract first then expand
Details
5How many Torr are there in one atmosphere?
Correct Answer :
760
Details
6What is the SI unit for pressure?
Correct Answer :
Pascal
Details
7Zero degrees Kelvin is equal to what temperature on the Celsius scale?
Correct Answer :
-273 degrees Celsius
Details
8The temperature of a gas measures the:
Correct Answer :
average kinetic energy of the particles in the gas
Details
9It is a very hot day. You are in a special kitchen, in that there are no exits and the walls of this kitchen
are thermally very well insulated. If you open the refrigerator door, the room will eventually:
Correct Answer :
heat up
Details
10Consider two water drops at a temperature T. These drops are not allowed to exchange energy with
their environment. These two drops collide and combine. How does the temperature of these drops
change when they combine?
Correct Answer :
increase
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1The part of a nuclear power plant that prevents thermal pollution of lakes or rivers is the:
Correct Answer :
cooling tower
Details
2How many independent properties are required to completely specify the state of a simple
compressible system?
Correct Answer :
2
Details
3In thermodynamics, a fixed quantity of mass selected for the purpose of study is called a:
Correct Answer :
closed system
Details
4A specific property is also:
Correct Answer :
an intensive property
Details
5In order for a system to be in thermal equilibrium, which of the following properties must be the same
throughout the system?
Correct Answer :
temperature
Details
6A control volume refers to what?
Correct Answer :
A fixed region in space
Details
7Which of the following is commonly used as liquid absorbent?
Correct Answer :
Ethylene glycol
Details
8A nozzle is used to:

Correct Answer :
increase velocity and decrease pressure
Details
9If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure, then,
the working medium must be a:
Correct Answer :
compressed liquid
Details
10Temperature measured relative to absolute zero.
Correct Answer :
Absolute Temperature
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1Which of the following equation of state has two constants?
Correct Answer :
Vander Waals equation
Details
2How many constants are there in Strobridge Equation of State?
Correct Answer :
16
Details
3Which of the following equation of state has eight constant?

Correct Answer :
Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
Details
4It is the energy possesses by the system as a result of its elevation with respect to the gravitational
acceleration of the earth.
Correct Answer :
Potential
Details
5A system is composed of gasoline liquid and vapor, and air. According to Gibbs phase rule how many
independent properties are required for phase equilibrium?
Correct Answer :
Details
6At what point is the temperature the same on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales?
Correct Answer :
Negative 40 degrees
Details
7A 0.5 m3 container is filled with a fluid whose specific volume is 0.001 m3/kg. At standard gravitation,
the contents of this container weigh:
Correct Answer :
4900 N
Details
8Which temperature below is equivalent to 125°F?
Correct Answer :
52 °C
Details
9On a day when the barometer reads 755 mmHg, a tire pressure gage reads 204 kPa. The absolute
pressure in the tire is:
Correct Answer :
2.29 mHg
Details
10The fan pressure differential gage on an air handler reads 12 cmH2O. What is this pressure differential
in kilopascals?
Correct Answer :
1.18 kPa
Details
Perc perc
Questions
CorrectWrong
1The number of intensive variables that can be changed independently in the system without disturbing
the number of phases in equilibrium.
Correct Answer :
Degree of freedom
Details
2At which of the following temperatures would the molecules of a gas have twice the average kinetic
energy they have at room temperature, 20 °C?
Correct Answer :
313 °C
Details
3The interaction that occurs between a system and its surroundings as the system executes a process,
which is the result of the system being at a temperature different from the surroundings, is:
Correct Answer :
Heat transfer
Details
4Which one is NOT part of the total energy of a system?
Correct Answer :
Work
Details
5A fluid is accelerated from a zero velocity to 44.7 m/s. The change in the kinetic energy of the fluid is:
Correct Answer :
1 kJ/kg
Details
6It takes 500 watts to operate a machine whose power output is 480 Watts. Which of the following is
the efficiency of the machine?
Correct Answer :
96%
Details
7A car engine produces an average of 25 kW of power in a period of 10-min during which 1.25 kg of
gasoline is consumed. If the heating value of gasoline is 43,000 kJ/kg, the efficiency of this engine during
this operation is:
Correct Answer :
28%
Details
8A system contains water at 2.00 MPa, 220°C. The phase of this water is:
Correct Answer :
Vapor
Details
9A thermodynamic system contains water at 10 m3 of air whose pressure and temperature are 300 kPa,
127°C respectively. The weight for this system is:
Correct Answer :
256 N
Details
10The term “thermodynamics” comes from Greek words “therme” and “dynamis” which means
_______.
Correct Answer :
Heat power
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1The term “thermodynamics” was first used in 1849 in the publication of a:
Correct Answer :
Lord Kelvin
Details
2The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a knowledge of the
behavior of individual particles is called _____.
Correct Answer :
Classical thermodynamics
Details
3What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on the average
behavior of large groups of individual particles?
Correct Answer :
Statistical thermodynamics
Details
4What is defined a region in space chosen for study?
Correct Answer :
System
Details
5What is the mass or region outside the system called?
Correct Answer :
Surroundings
Details
6What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its surroundings?
Correct Answer :
Boundary
Details
7A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called ____.
Correct Answer :
Isolated system
Details
8A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as _____.
Correct Answer :
Open system
Details
9Open system usually encloses which of the following devices?
Correct Answer :
Details
10The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginary is called _____.
Correct Answer :
Control surface
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a _____.
Correct Answer :
Property
Details
2How are thermodynamic properties classified?
Correct Answer :
Intensive and extensive
Details
3The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is called _____.
Correct Answer :
Intensive property
Details
4The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the system is called _____.
Correct Answer :
Extensive property
Details
5Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?
Correct Answer :
Mass
Details
6Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?
Correct Answer :
Density
Details
7Extensive properties per unit mass are called _____.
Correct Answer :
Specific properties
Details
8A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the entire system.
Correct Answer :
Thermal
Details
9A system is in ______ equilibrium if there is no change in pressure at any point of the system with time.
Correct Answer :
Mechanical
Details
10If a system involves two phases, it is in ______ equilibrium when the mass of each phase reaches an
equilibrium level and stays there.
Correct Answer :
Phase
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1A system is in ______ equilibrium of its chemical composition does not change with time, i.e., no
chemical reaction occurs.
Correct Answer :
Chemical
Details
2“The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent, intensive
properties”. This is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
State postulate
Details
3What is the unit of the total energy of the system?
Correct Answer :
kJ
Details
4Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a system is called
_____ system.
Correct Answer :
Simple compressible
Details
5A closed system may refer to ______.
Correct Answer :
Control mass
Details
6A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains ______ equilibrium.
Correct Answer :
Thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical
Details
7What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?
Correct Answer :
Kelvin scale
Details
8What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the English system?
Correct Answer :
Rankine scale
Details
9What temperature scale is identical to the Kelvin scale?
Correct Answer :
Ideal gas temperature scale
Details
10An open system may refer to ______.
Correct Answer :
Control volume
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium?
Correct Answer :
Triple point of water
Details
21 bar is equivalent to how many Pascals?
Correct Answer :
10^5
Details
31 atm is equivalent to how many Pascals?
Correct Answer :
101,325
Details
4What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute
vacuum?
Correct Answer :
Absolute pressure
Details
5What is the pressure below atmospheric pressure called?
Correct Answer :
Vacuum pressure
Details
6The difference between the absolute pressure and the atmospheric pressure is called the _____
pressure.
Correct Answer :
Gage
Details
7Which of the following is NOT an instrument used to measure pressure?
Correct Answer :
Pitot tube
Details
8What instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

Correct Answer :
Barometer
Details
9One Joule is equivalent to one _____.
Correct Answer :
Kg ∙ m2/s2
Details
10One erg is equivalent to how many Joules?
Correct Answer :
10^-7
Details
Questions
CorrectWrong
1When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as _____liquid.
Correct Answer :
Compressed o subcooled
Details
2A liquid that is about to vaporize is called ______ liquid.
Correct Answer :
Saturated
Details
3A vapor that is about to condense is called ______ vapor.

Correct Answer :
Saturated
Details
4A vapor that is not about to condense is called _____ vapor.
Correct Answer :
Superheated
Details
5A substance that has a fixed chemical composition is known as ______ substance.
Correct Answer :
Pure
Details
6What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase at a given pressure?
Correct Answer :
Saturation temperature
Details
7What refers to the pressure at which a pure substance changes phase at a given temperature?
Correct Answer :
Saturation pressure
Details
8The ratio of the mass of vapor to the total mass of the mixture is called ______.
Correct Answer :
Quality
Details
9The “equation of state” refers to any equation that relates the ______ of the substance.
Correct Answer :
Pressure, temperature and specific volume
Details
10What is constant for a substance that is considered “incompressible”?
Correct Answer :
Specific volume of density
Details
Perc perc perc
Questions
CorrectWrong
1What is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat?
Correct Answer :
Thermal conductivity
Details
2What is a form of mechanical work which is related with the expansion and compression of
substances?
Correct Answer :
Boundary work
Details
3Thermal radiation is an electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths in _____ range.
Correct Answer :
0.1 to 100µm
Details
4What refers to the rate of thermal radiation emitter per unit area of a body?
Correct Answer :
Emissive power
Details
5At same temperatures, the radiation emitted by all real surfaces is ______ the radiation emitted by a
black body.
Correct Answer :
Less than
Details
6Which is NOT a characteristic of emissivity?
Correct Answer :
It is independent with the surface condition of the material
Details
7What is the emissivity of a black body?
Correct Answer :
Details
8What is the absorptivity of a black body?
Correct Answer :
Details
9Water boils when:

Correct Answer :
Its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure
Details
10Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
Correct Answer :
0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere
Details
5.7
1 Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1931?
Correct Answer :
Ralph Fowler
Details
2 What states that for a confined fluid, the pressure at a point has the same magnitude in all
directions?
Correct Answer :
Pascal¡¯s Law
Details
3 The natural direction of heat flow is from a high-temperature reservoir to a low-temperature

reservoir, regardless of their respective heat contents. This fact is incorporated in the:
Correct Answer :
second law of thermodynamics
Details
4 States that every substance has finite positive entropy except the entropy of pure, perfect
crystalline structure which is 0 at 0 K.
Correct Answer :
3rd law of thermodynamics
Details
5 It states that the vapor pressure in a solution is the sum of the vapor pressure of the pure
component multiplied by the mole fraction of that component.
Correct Answer :
Raoult¡¯s law
Details
6 It is impossible to convert heat completely into work.
Correct Answer :
2nd law of thermodynamics
Details
7 This Law States that ¡°The quantity of the substance entering the system is equal to the
substance leaving the system¡±
Correct Answer :
Law of conservation of mass
Details
8 States that the change in the enthalpy of a reaction is the sum of the enthalpies of reactions
from which the reaction can be built.
Correct Answer :
Hess¡¯ law
Details
9 States that in isolated systems the entropy increases in spontaneous process.

Correct Answer :
2nd law of thermodynamics
Details
10 The principle that the amount of gas dissolved under equilibrium in a volume of liquid is in direct
proportion to the pressure of the gas that contact the liquid surface.
Correct Answer :
Henry¡¯s law
Details
1 It states that energy can neither be destroyed nor created; it can only change forms.
Correct Answer :
First law of thermodynamics
Details
2 In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state that no heat engine can have a
thermal efficiency of 100% or as far as power plant to operate, the working fluid must exchange heat
with the environment as well as the furnace.
Correct Answer :
Kelvin ¨CPlanck Statement
Details
3 In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following state that no device can transfer heat
from cooler body to a warmer one without leaving an effect on the surroundings.
Correct Answer :
Clausius Statement
4 If two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, then they must be in thermal
equilibrium.
Correct Answer :
Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

Details
5 Which of the laws of Thermodynamics is often invoked to discredit attempts at perpetual

motion?
Correct Answer :
Second Law of Thermodynamics
Details
6 The principle that energy may be converted from one form to another but it cannot be either
created or destroyed is:
Correct Answer :
First Law of Thermodynamics
Details
7 The statement, "In regions where fluid velocity is smaller, the pressure is higher, and vice versa",
is known as the principle of:
Correct Answer :
Bernoulli
Details
8 As temperature goes to ¡°0¡±, the entropy approaches a constant.
Correct Answer :
Third Law of Thermodynamics
Details
9 State that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same
two reservoirs are the same, and that no heat engine is more efficient than a reversible one operating
between the same two reservoirs.
Correct Answer :
Carnot principle
Details
10 States that if system A is in thermal equilibrium with system B, and system B is in thermal
equilibrium with system C, then system C is also in thermal equilibrium with system A (TA = TB = TC).
Correct Answer :
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
Details
1 What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?
Correct Answer :
First law of Thermodynamics
Details
2 What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?
Correct Answer :
Second law of Thermodynamics
Details
3 The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
Correct Answer :
Conservation of energy
Details
4 What states that the net mass transfer to or from a system during a process is equal to the net
change in the total mass of the system during that process?
Correct Answer :
Conservation of mass principle
5 What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to the
absorptivity are equal?
Correct Answer :
Kirchhoff¡¯s radiation law
Details
6 What is sometimes known as the ¡°Fourth-power law¡±?
Correct Answer :
Stefan-Boltzmann law
7 What states that the net change in the total energy of the system during a process is equal to
the difference between the total energy entering and the total energy leaving the system during that
process?
Correct Answer :
Conservation of energy principle
Details
8 The equation Ein ¨C Eout = •6Ò2Esystem is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Energy balance
Details
9 What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have no
other effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of work?
Correct Answer :
Second law of thermodynamics
Details
10 What law states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no
effect other than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body?
Correct Answer :
Second law of thermodynamics

1 A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of
thermodynamics is known as _____.
Correct Answer :
Perpetual-motion machine
Details
2 A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _____.
Correct Answer :
Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind
Details
3 A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.
Correct Answer :
Perpetual motion machine of the second kind
Details
4 What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?
Correct Answer :
Third law of thermodynamics
5 What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic
weight?
Correct Answer :
Law of Dulong and Petit
Details
6 Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the ______ law.
Correct Answer :
Avogadro¡¯s
Details
7 What are the assumptions of the kinetic gas theory?
Correct Answer :
All of the other choices
Details
8 ¡°The total volume of a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial
volumes.¡± This statement is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Amagat¡¯s law
9 What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas?
Correct Answer :
Dalton¡¯s law
Details
10 What law states that one energy from can be converted without loss into another form?
Correct Answer :
Joule¡¯s law
5.8
1 A process not involved in the operating cycle of a Carnot engine is:
Correct Answer :
an isobaric expansion
Details
2 A process involving a gas that cannot, even in principle, be reversed without work being done is:
Correct Answer :
an isobaric compression
Details
3 An adiabatic process in a system is one in which:
Correct Answer :
no heat enters or leaves the system
Details
4 In the process of freeze drying, ice goes directly into water vapor. The temperature at which this
can take place is:
Correct Answer :
below the triple point of water
5 A type of process that does not need outside energy to reverse is one that occurs at constant.
Correct Answer :
temperature
Details
6 A process where heat is released to the surroundings.
Correct Answer :
Exothermic process
Details
7 The maximum efficiency of a heat engine that operates between temperatures of 1500 K in the
firing chamber and 600 K in the exhaust chamber is most nearly.
Correct Answer :
60%
8 A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.8 m3 of air at 110 kPa and 80 ¡ãC. The air is now
compressed to 0.2 m3 in such a way that the temperature inside the cylinder remains constant.
Determine the work done during this process.
Correct Answer :
-122 kJ
Details
9 Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 92 MW. If the rate of waste heat
rejection to a nearby river is 45 MW, determine the net power output and the thermal efficiency for this
heat engine.
Correct Answer :
51.09 %
Details
10 Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?
Correct Answer :
1 Which of the following processes are involved in Carnot cycle?
Correct Answer :
Two adiabatic; two isothermal
Details
2 A thermodynamic process in which entropy is conserved.
Correct Answer :
Isentropic
Details
3 Which of the following quantities has the greatest influence on the overall efficiency of a
conventional (Rankine cycle) electric generating station burning fossil fuels?
Correct Answer :
steam temperature at the steam turbine inlet
Details
4 A four cycle internal combustion automobile engine operates on what kind of cycle?
Correct Answer :
Otto
5 Processes which occur without the addition or withdrawal of heat from the surrounding are
called what?
Correct Answer :
adiabatic
Details
6 A cycle consists of a series of processes that:
Correct Answer :
eventually return to the first state of the first process
Details
7 A heat engine whose thermodynamic efficiency is greater than that of a Carnot device using the
same energy reservoir is known as:
Correct Answer :
A perpetual machine of the second kind
8 Which of the reversible processes listed below are used to form a Carnot cycle?
Correct Answer :
Isothermal, adiabatic
Details
9 A reversed Carnot cycle heat pump uses a hot reservoir whose temperature is Th and a cold
reservoir whose temperature is Tl. The coefficient of performance of this heat pump is:
Correct Answer :
Th / (Th - Tl)
Details
10 State that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same
two reservoirs are the same, and that no heat engine is more efficient than a reversible one operating
between the same two reservoirs.
Correct Answer :
Carnot principle
1 Occurring at fixed temperature.
Correct Answer :
Isothermal
Details
2 ________ is the most efficient thermodynamics cycle.
Correct Answer :
Carnot
Details
3 The most efficient heat engine that can operate between two temperature reservoirs T1 and T2
is:
Correct Answer :
Carnot engine
Details
4 What is the ideal efficiency of a reversible heat engine cyclically operating between a source
temperature of 600 degrees Kelvin and a sink temperature of 15 degrees Kelvin?
Correct Answer :
75 percent
5 A Carnot heat engine receives 500kJ of heat per cycle from a high-temperature source at 600
¡ãC and rejects heat a low temperature sink at 40 ¡ãC. Determine the thermal efficiency of this Carnot
engine.
Correct Answer :
64.15 %
Details
6 The work output of every heat engine.
Correct Answer :
equals the difference between its heat intake and the heat exhaust
Details
7 A process in which the system is always infinitesimally close to equilibrium. Such a process can
never be observed; it is only of theoretical interest.
Correct Answer :
Reversible process
8 The area enclosed by the p-V graph of a complete heat engine cycle equals.
Correct Answer :
the work done by the engine per cycle
Details
9 A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is:
Correct Answer :
0K
Details
10 In any process the maximum amount of mechanical energy that can be converted to heat.
Correct Answer :
is 100%
Details
1 A Carnot engine turns heat into work.
Correct Answer :
without itself undergoing a permanent change
Details
2 Which of the following engine is the most efficient?
Correct Answer :
Carnot engine
Details
3 The fuel in a diesel engine is ignited by:
Correct Answer :
the hot compressed air into which it is injected
Details
4 The physics underlying the operation of a refrigerator most closely resembles the physics
underlying.
Correct Answer :
a heat engine
5 A refrigerator.
Correct Answer :
removes heat from a region and transports it elsewhere
Details
6 A refrigerator exhausts.
Correct Answer :
more heat that it absorbs from its contents
Details
7 A Carnot engine absorbs heat at a temperature of 127¡ãC and exhaust heat at a temperature of
77¡ãC. Its efficiency is:
Correct Answer :
13%
Details
8 If a Carnot engine exhaust heat at 140¡ãF is to have an efficiency of 33%, it must take in heat at:
Correct Answer :
440¡Ãf
9 A Carnot engine operates between 800 K and 200 K. If it absorbs 8 kJ of heat in each cycle, the
work it does per cycle is:
Correct Answer :
6 kJ
Details
10 Which of the following engines is normally the least efficient?
Correct Answer :
gasoline engine
5.9
1 A refrigerator gives off 3 J of heat for every Joule of mechanical energy input. Its coefficient of
performance is:
Correct Answer :
Details
2 What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state?
Correct Answer :
Process
Details
3 What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process?
Correct Answer :
Path
Details
4 What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state at
all times?
Correct Answer :
Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process
5 If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a ______ process.
Correct Answer :
Adiabatic
Details
6 The term ¡°adiabatic¡± comes from Greek ¡°adiabatos¡± which means ______.
Correct Answer :
Not to be passed
Details
7 How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
Correct Answer :
Both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible
Details
8 What remains constant during a steady-flow process?
Correct Answer :
Mass and energy content of the control volume
Details
9 Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:
Correct Answer :
Net work output to total heat input
10 What is the ratio of the useful heat extracted to heating value?
Correct Answer :
Combustion efficiency
1 What is defined as the ratio of the net electrical power output to the rate of fuel energy input?
Correct Answer :
Overall efficiency
Details
2 Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was first proposed in what year?
Correct Answer :
1824
Details
3 Who proposed the Carnot cycle?
Correct Answer :
Sadi Carnot
Details
4 What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy
reservoirs at temperature limits?
Correct Answer :
Carnot efficiency
5 A process during which entropy remains constant is called ______ process.
Correct Answer :
Isentropic
Details
6 ¡°A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not
necessarily reversible adiabatic process.¡± This statement is:
Correct Answer :
True
Details
7 The term ¡°isentropic process¡± used in thermodynamics implies what?
Correct Answer :
Internally reversible, adiabatic process

Details
8 During adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
Correct Answer :
It is always zero
9 What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
Correct Answer :
Zero
Details
10 For heat engine operating between two temperatures (T1>T2), what is the maximum efficiency
attainable?
Correct Answer :
Eff = 1 ¨C(T2/T1)
1 Which one is the correct relation between energy efficiency ratio (EER) and coefficient of
performance (COP)?
Correct Answer :
EER = 3.42COP
Details
2 The coefficient of performance (COP) is the ratio between the:
Correct Answer :
Absorbed heat and work required
Details
3 An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a
significant decrease in pressure is called _____.
Correct Answer :
Throttling process
Details
4 What is a process with identical end states called?
Correct Answer :
Cycle
5 What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?
Correct Answer :
Isothermal process
Details
6 What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?
Correct Answer :
Isobaric process
Details
7 What is a process during which the specific volume remains constant?
Correct Answer :
Isochoric or isometric process
Details
8 The prefix ¡°iso¡± used to designate a process means ______.
Correct Answer :
Remains constant
9 What does the term ¡°steady¡± implies?
Correct Answer :
No change with time

Details
10 What does the tem ¡°uniform¡± implies?
Correct Answer :
No change with location
Details
5.10
1 An ideal gas confined in a box initially has pressure p. If the absolute temperature of the gas is
doubled and the volume of the box is quadrupled, the pressure is:
Correct Answer :
p/2
Details
2 At what centigrade temperature will 1 mole of a gas under 1 atmosphere of pressure occupy
22.4 liters?
Correct Answer :
0 degrees
Details
3 How many molecules are present in 2.5 liters of gas at STP?
Correct Answer :
6.7x10^22
Details
4 How many moles of O2are present in 44.8L of O2 at STP?
Correct Answer :
2.0moles
5 Assuming all other parameters remain constant, what happens to the pressure of a gas when
the volume of the gas is increased?
Correct Answer :
decreases
Details
6 The temperature of a gas is held constant while its volume is reduced. The pressure the gas
exerts on the walls of its container increases because its molecules:
Correct Answer :
strike the container walls more often
Details
7 If two different gases have the same volume, temperature, and pressure and behave like ideal
gases, they will also be identical in which one of the following ways?
Correct Answer :
total molecular kinetic energy
8 Increasing the temperature of an ideal gas increases.
Correct Answer :
The number of disassociation products
Details
9 The temperature a volume of dry air at pressure ¡°P¡± and temperature ¡°T¡± would have if
compressed adiabatically.
Correct Answer :
Potential Temperature
Details
10 A law relating the pressure, temperature and volume of an ideal gas.

Correct Answer :
Ideal Gas Law
1 An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated that there is essentially no heat
transfer. The temperature of the gas:
Correct Answer :
increases
Details
2 Gases under equal conditions of temperature and pressure react with one another in volume
ratios of small whole numbers.
Correct Answer :
Gay-Lussac¡¯s Law of Combining Volumes
Details
3 The pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases of which it
is composed.
Correct Answer :
Dalton¡¯s Law
4 The volume of a gas under constant pressure increases or decrease with temperature.
Correct Answer :
Charles¡¯ Law
Details
5 The molecular number density of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure in cm3
Correct Answer :
Loschmidt Number
Details
6 At one atmosphere, a cylinder with movable piston contains 2,000 milliliters of gas. If the
pressure is increased to 5 atmospheres and the temperature remains unchanged, what is the new
volume of the gas?
Correct Answer :
400 milliliters
7 At zero degrees Celsius and one atmosphere (STP), the volume of the gas is 1,000 milliliters. If
the temperature is increased to 25 degrees Celsius and the pressure is doubled, what is the new volume
of the gas?
Correct Answer :
546 milliliters
Details
8 When a gas is collected over water, the pressure is corrected by:
Correct Answer :
Subtracting the vapor pressure of water at that temperature
Details
9 At 5 atm pressure and 70OC, how many moles are present in 1.5L of O2 gas?
Correct Answer :
0.267
10 Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure, the volume
must:
Correct Answer :
Contain equal number of particles
1 The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4¡ãC by removing heat from it at a rate
of 300 KJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 3KW, determine the coefficient of
performance of the refrigerator.
Correct Answer :
1.67
Details
2 A heat engine operates by taking in heat at a particular temperature and:
Correct Answer :
converting some of it into work and exhausting the rest at lower temperature
Details
3 Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed slowly and isothermally from a volume of 5 to 1.5
ft3, at a temperature of 320K. How much work is done?
Correct Answer :
-9.61kJ
4 What pressure must be applied to 225mL of gas at 1atm to reduce its volume to 100mL?
Correct Answer :
2.25atm
Details
5 The volume of a gas sample is proportional to its:
Correct Answer :
absolute temperature
Details
6 Which of the following is not true of molecular motion in gas?
Correct Answer :
There is a definite average direction of motion at a given temperature
Details
7 The kinetic-molecular theory of gases predicts that, at a given temperature,

Correct Answer :
all of the molecules in a gas have the same average energy
8 The volume of gas is held constant while its temperature is raised. the pressure gas exerts on
the walls of its container increases because:
Correct Answer :
the molecules have higher average speeds and strike the wall more often
Details
9 The higher the temperature of a volume of air, the:
Correct Answer :
the more water vapor it can hold
Details
10 A container holds 1 kg of air at atmospheric pressure. When an additional kg of air is pumped

into the container at constant temperature, the new pressure is:
Correct Answer :
2 atm
1 If the absolute pressure on 10 ft3 of air is increased from 30 psi to 120 psi, the new volume of
the air will be:
Correct Answer :
2.5 ft3
Details
2 A 1.00 L sample of Neon at 0 ¡ãC and 100 kPa pressure is compressed to 0.25 L, and its
temperature is raised to 273 ¡ãC. The new pressure of the gas is:
Correct Answer :
800 kPa
Details
3 An ideal gas at 0.60 atmosphere and 87 oC occupies 0.450 liter. How many moles are in the
sample? (R = 0.0821 l-aym/mol-K)
Correct Answer :
0.0091 mole
4 An ideal gas is contained in a vessel of unknown volume at a pressure of 1 atmosphere. The gas
is released and allowed to expand into a previously evacuated bulb whose volume is 0.500 liter. Once
equilibrium has been reached, the temperature remains the same while the pressure is recorded as 500
millimeters of mercury. What is the unknown volume, V, of the first bulb?
Correct Answer :
0.961 L
Details
5 On a hot day, the temperature rises from 50oF early in the morning to 99oF in the afternoon.
What is the ratio of the concentration (in moles/ft3) of helium in a spherical balloon in the afternoon to
the concentration of helium in the balloon in the morning?
Correct Answer :
0.91
6 If air is at pressure, p, of 3200 lb/ft2, and at a temperature, T, of 800¡ãR, what is the specific
volume, v? (R = 53.3 ft-lbf/lbm-¡ãR, and air can be modeled as an ideal gas)
Correct Answer :
13.3 ft3/lbm
Details
7 Steam at 1000 lbf/ft2 pressure and 300 oR has a specific volume of 6.5 ft3/lbm and a specific
enthalpy of 9800 lbf-ft/lbm. Find the internal energy per pound mass of steam.
Correct Answer :
3300 lbf-ft/lbm
Details
8 Determine the mass of the air in a room whose dimensions are (5x6x7) m at 105 kPa and 27¡ãC.
Correct Answer :
256.1 kg
Details
9 The weight-density of air at 32F and 29.92 in Hg pressure is 0.081 lb/ft3. What is its weight-
density, in lb/ft3, at an altitude where the pressure is 13.73 in Hg and the temperature is -40F?
Correct Answer :
0.044
10 The temperatures of the ideal gas temperature scale are measured by using a ______.
Correct Answer :
Constant-volume gas thermometer
1 What gas thermometer is based on the principle that at low pressure, the temperature of a gas
is proportional to its pressure at constant volume?
Correct Answer :
Constant-volume gas thermometer
Details
2 In the equation Pv = RT, the constant of proportionality R is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Gas constant
Details
3 The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:
Correct Answer :
Universal gas constant to molar mass

Details
4 What is the value of the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol •6Ó7 K?
Correct Answer :
8.314
5 Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas, but not for a real gas?
Correct Answer :
PV = nRT
Details
6 Which of the following is the Ideal gas law (equation)?
Correct Answer :
PV = nRT
Details
7 ¡°At constant pressure, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure¡±. This is
known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Boyle¡¯s Law
Details
8 Which of the following is the mathematical representation of the Charles¡¯s law?
Correct Answer :
V1/T1=V2/T2
9 A mixture of ideal gases has an apparent molecular weight of 36.4 kg/kg-mole and a specific
enthalpy of 273.2 kJ/kg when the temperature is 127¡ãC. The specific internal energy of this gas mixture
is:
Correct Answer :
181.8 kJ/kg
Details
10 Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure, the volume
must ____.
Correct Answer :
Contain equal number of particles
ENGINEERING MATERIALS
Section 6.1
1. Which physical property is defined as the mass per unit volume of the material?
Correct Answer : Mass Density
2. Which physical property is defined as the weight per unit volume of the material?
Correct Answer : Specific Weight
3. Which physical property is defined as the ratio of the density of a substance by the density of a
standard substance?
Correct Answer : Specific Gravity
4. Which property refers to measure of how much the speed of a wave is reduced inside that medium
compared to the speed of the wave in some reference medium?
Correct Answer : Refractive index
5. Which of the following is a physical property?
Correct Answer : Dielectric Strength
6. Which chemical property refers to the partial or complete wearing away, dissolving, or softening of
any substance by chemical or electrochemical reaction with its environment?
Correct Answer : Corrosion
7. Which chemical property refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to form with an
ordered, spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?
Correct Answer : Stereospecificity
8. What mechanical property refers to the ability of the material to withstand force, stress or pressure?
Correct Answer : Strength
9. What mechanical property refers to the measure of a material’s resistance to localized deformation or
scratch?
Correct Answer : Hardness
10. What mechanical property refers to the ability of a material to absorb energy up to fracture?
Correct Answer : Toughness
Questions
1. What is is defined as the ratio of the uniaxial stress over the uniaxial strain?
Correct Answer : Young's modulus
2. It is known as the stiffness to weight ratio or specific stiffness.
Correct Answer : Specific modulus
3. What refers to a material's ability to deform under tensile stress?
Correct Answer : Ductility
4. What refers to a material's ability to deform under compressive stress?
Correct Answer : Malleability
5. What is the ratio of the contraction or transverse strain to the extension or axial strain?
Correct Answer : Poisson's ratio
6. What is the capacity of a material to absorb energy when it is deformed elastically – and then, upon
unloading, to have its energy recovered?
Correct Answer : Resilience
7. What is a measure of the magnitude of an induced thermoelectric voltage in response to a

temperature difference across that material?
Correct Answer : Seebeck coefficient
8. What is the maximum electric field strength that it can withstand intrinsically without breaking down?
Correct Answer : Dielectric Strength
9. What is thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric heat capacity?
Correct Answer : Thermal diffusivity
10. It is the ratio of energy radiated by a particular material to energy radiated by a black body at the
same temperature.
Correct Answer : Emissivity

Questions
1. What is the measure of heat or thermal energy required to increase the temperature of a unit
quantity of a substance by one unit?
Correct Answer : Specific heat capacity
2. What is the temperature and pressure at which three phases of that substance coexist in
thermodynamic equilibrium?
Correct Answer : Triple point
3. What is the lowest temperature of a volatile liquid at which it can vaporize to form an ignitable
mixture in air?
Correct Answer : Flash point
4. What refers to the measure of the ability of a material to resist the formation of a magnetic field
within itself?
Correct Answer : Permeability
5. What dimensional property refers to deviation from edge straightness?
Correct Answer : Camber
6. What dimensional property refers to the direction of a predominating surface pattern?
Correct Answer : Lay
7. What dimensional property refers to deviation of a surface from a flat plane?
Correct Answer : Out of flat
8. What is defined as a local corrosion damage characterized by surface cavities?
Correct Answer : Pitting
9. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?
Correct Answer : Aluminum
10. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the
stress-strain diagram?
Correct Answer : Secant modulus
Questions
1. What is a measure of rigidity?
Correct Answer : Modulus of elasticity
2. What is the most common widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?
Correct Answer : Plastic
3. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?
Correct Answer : Diamagnetic materials
4. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of
stress cycles?
Correct Answer : Endurance limit
5. Which of the following is a natural magnet?
Correct Answer : Lodestone
6. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress?
Correct Answer : Creep
7. What materials have permeability slightly greater than that of free space?
Correct Answer : Paramagnetic materials
8. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?
Correct Answer : Hardness
9. What is the reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?
Correct Answer : Periodic table
10. Which of the following materials have very high permeability?
Correct Answer : Ferromagnetic materials
Questions
1. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable of
stress to stain is called ______.
Correct Answer : proportional limit
2. What is a substance that attracts piece of irons?
Correct Answer : Magnet

3. The first four most abundant elements in the earth crust are respectively:
Correct Answer : O, Si, Al, Fe
4. The most abundant element in the universe is:
Correct Answer : H
5. The second most abundant element in heavy rocks is:
Correct Answer : Mg
6. The percentage by weight of oxygen and silicon in the earth crust is approximately:
Correct Answer : 75%
7. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called:
Correct Answer : brittle
8. Which of the following atomic bonds are characterized by physical forces?
Correct Answer : Ionic bonds
9. A colloidal state in which a liquid is suspended in another liquid is called:
Correct Answer : emulsion
10. Flow of a materials refers to:
Correct Answer : continued change of the material under a given load
Section 6.2
Questions
Correct Wrong
1. A classification of material that includes the plastics and rubber materials.
Correct Answer : Polymers
2. These are multiphase materials that are artificially made, as opposed to one that occurs or forms
naturally.
Correct Answer : Composites
3. Which of the following is an example of composite material?
Correct Answer : Fiber glass

4. What is the experimental science of determining the arrangement of atoms in solids?
Correct Answer : Crystallography
5. What is the smallest group of atoms of a substance that has the overall symmetry of a crystal of that
substance, and from which the entire lattice can be built up by repetition in three dimensions?
Correct Answer : Unit Cell
6. What is the ratio between the volume of the basic atoms of the unit cell to the volume of the unit cell
itself?
Correct Answer : Atomic Packing Factor
7. What refers to the number of nearest neighbor or touching atoms?
Correct Answer : Coordination Number
8. These materials typically have low densities and may be extremely flexible.
Correct Answer : Polymers
9. What is the atomic packing factor for simple cubic?
Correct Answer : 0.52
10. How many atom/s is/are there in the unit cell of a simple cubic?
Correct Answer : 1
Questions
1. What is the atomic packing factor for body-centered cubic?
2. How many atom/s is/are there in a unit cell of a body-centered cubic?
Correct Answer : 2
3. What is the coordination number for simple cubic?
Correct Answer : 6
4. What is the coordination number for body-centered cubic?
Correct Answer : 8
5. What is the atomic packing factor for face-centered cubic?
6. How many atoms are there in a unit cell of a face-centered cubic?
Correct Answer : 4
7. What is the coordination number for hexagonal closed-packed?
Correct Answer : 12
8. How many atoms are there in a unit cell of hexagonal closed-packed?
Correct Answer : 6
9. Which of the following has body-centered cubic crystal structure?
Correct Answer : Chromium
10. Which of the following has a face-centered cubic crystal structure?
Correct Answer : Aluminum
Questions
1. What is the atomic packing factor for hexagonal closed-packed?
2. Which of the following is NOT FCC?
Correct Answer : Cobalt
3. Which of the following has hexagonal closed-packed crystal structure?
Correct Answer : Zinc
4. Which of the following is NOT BCC?
Correct Answer : Gold
5. Which of the following is NOT HCP?
Correct Answer : Lead
6. What refers to the group of three numbers that indicates the orientation of a plane or set of parallel
planes of atoms in a crystal?
Correct Answer : Miller Indices
7. What crystal system has axial relationship a=b=c and inter-axial angle α=β=γ=90o?
Correct Answer : Cubic or Isometric
8. What crystal system has axial relationship a=b≠c and inter-axial angle α=β=90o and γ=120o?
Correct Answer : Hexagonal
9. What crystal system has axial relationship a=b=c and inter-axial angle α=β=γ≠90o?
Correct Answer : Rhombohedral
10. What crystal system has axial relationship a≠b≠c and inter-axial angle α≠β≠γ≠90o?
Correct Answer : Triclinic
Questions
1. Polymers are long chain giant organic molecules are assembled from many smaller molecules called
monomers or mers. It comes the Greek word poly meaning “many” and meros meaning _____.
Correct Answer : Part
2. Polymers with degree of polymerization of less than 10 are called ___.
Correct Answer : Oligonomers
3. These are artificially made polymers and are named by adding the prefix poly to the name of the basic
mer. Polyvinyl chloride is an example.
Correct Answer : Synthetic Polymers
4. These consist of chains with identical bonding linkages to each monomer unit.
Correct Answer : Homopolymers
5. What are plastics that soften when heated and can be molded, but harden permanently?
Correct Answer : Thermosetting Polymers
6. What are plastics that soften when heated and become firm again when cooled?
Correct Answer : Thermoplastic Polymers
7. Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?
Correct Answer : Epoxy
8. Which of the following is a thermoplastic polymer?
Correct Answer : polyamide (nylon)
9. Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?
Correct Answer : Polyester

10. Which of the following is NOT a thermoplastic polymer?
Correct Answer : silicone
Questions
1. Some polymeric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called
______.
Correct Answer : Cross linking
2. What is the process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die?
Correct Answer : Extrusion
3. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”?
Correct Answer : Polyamide
4. Space lattice refers to:
Correct Answer : arrangement of atoms
5. Many properties and processes in solids are manifested by this defect or imperfections such as
melting:
Correct Answer : atomic vibration
6. The only two features of microstructure:
Correct Answer : shape and size
7. It is the diffusion of atoms of a gas through a plate of metal for which the concentrations of diffusing
species on both surfaces of plate are held constant.
Correct Answer : Steady state diffusion
8. What is the stacking sequence of FCC in closed-packed crystal structure?
Correct Answer : ABC ABC
9. The process where the atoms of one metal diffuse into another is termed:
Correct Answer : inter-diffusion
10. It is the interchange of an atom from a normal lattice position to an adjacent vacant lattice.
Correct Answer : vacancy diffusion

Section 6.3
Questions
1. Ceramics comes from the Greek word “keramikos” which means __.
Correct Answer : burnt stuff
2. These are compounds between metallic and non-metallic element. They are most frequently oxides,
nitrides and carbides.
Correct Answer : Ceramics
3. Which of the following is NOT a property of ceramics?
Correct Answer : low melting point
4. Which of the following is NOT a property of ceramics?
Correct Answer : high thermal conductivity
5. All of the following are examples of single oxide ceramic except:
Correct Answer : Kaolinte
6. What is the process where a mixture of carbide and powdered metal is heated in order to solidify the
powder in single piece?
Correct Answer : Sintering
7. What is the process where a liquid glass solidifies without molecular change when cooled below
melting point?
Correct Answer : Vitrification
8. Which of the following types of glasses is commonly used in cooking utensils?
Correct Answer : borosilicate (pyrex)
9. Which of the following is NOT a property of glass?
Correct Answer : high thermal coefficient of thermal expansion
10. Which of the following is NOT a property of glass?
Correct Answer : good electrical conductor
Questions
1. What kind of wood contain tube-like fibers oriented with the longitudinal axis?
Correct Answer : softwood
2. What do call the special substance that cements together the tube-like fibers of woods?
Correct Answer : lignin
3. Wood used in construction that has a moisture content of more than 19%.
Correct Answer : dry wood
4. This is a hard material that can cut other materials. This can be either natural or artificial.
Correct Answer : Abrasive
5. Which of the following is NOT a natural abrasive?
Correct Answer : Tungsten carbide
6. What is a mixture of mineral aggregates locked in a solid structure by a binding mineral?
Correct Answer : Concrete
7. What refer to sand and rock particles that have been added to increase mass and volume of concrete.
Correct Answer : Aggregates
8. What refers to any materials that hardens and becomes strongly adhesive after application in plastic
form?
Correct Answer : Cement
9. Which of the following is considered an abrasive?
Correct Answer : All of these choices
10. Which of the following is NOT a type of ceramics?
Correct Answer : All the other choices are ceramics
Questions
1. What is the most widely known carbide?
Correct Answer : Silicon carbide
2. What is the combination of one or more metals with a non-metallic element?
Correct Answer : Ceramic
3. Porcelain is made for making crockery which is itself being prepared by:
Correct Answer : clay
4. Ceramics.
Correct Answer : Do not conduct heat nor electricity
5. Ceramics bear properties of:
Correct Answer : all of these choices
6. Materials which can retain their strength above 550°C are known as:
Correct Answer : refractories
7. Glass, furnance lining and abrasive for grinding is done by ceramic which contain.
Correct Answer : aluminum oxide
8. Major ingredients of traditional ceramics.
9. Not a major contributor of engineering ceramics.
Correct Answer : SiO2
10. The following ceramic product is mostly used as pigment in paints:
Correct Answer : TiO2
Questions
1. What is the most widely known carbide?
Correct Answer : Silicon carbide
2. What is the combination of one or more metals with a non-metallic element?
Correct Answer : Ceramic
3. Porcelain is made for making crockery which is itself being prepared by:
Correct Answer : clay
4. Ceramics.
Correct Answer : Do not conduct heat nor electricity
5. Ceramics bear properties of:
6. Materials which can retain their strength above 550°C are known as:
Correct Answer : refractories
7. Glass, furnance lining and abrasive for grinding is done by ceramic which contain.
Correct Answer : aluminum oxide
8. Major ingredients of traditional ceramics.
9. Not a major contributor of engineering ceramics.
Correct Answer : SiO2
10. The following ceramic product is mostly used as pigment in paints:
Correct Answer : TiO2
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What is an alloy of carbon and iron with the carbon being restricted with certain
limit on concentration?
Correct Answer :Steel

Details
2
What kind of steel have 0.30% to 0.70% carbon?
Correct Answer :Medium-carbon steel

Details
3
What kind of steel have having 0.7% to 1.4% carbon?
Correct Answer :High-carbon steel

Details
4
What kind of carbon steel are non-sulfurized?
Correct Answer :Plain carbon steel

Details
5
What is an alloy of iron, chromium and other elements that resist corrosion from
many environments?
Correct Answer :Stainless steel

Details
6
What stainless steels contain chromium in the range of 16% to 20% and has low
carbon content less than 0.2%?
Correct Answer :Ferritic

Details
7
What refers to the family of iron, carbon, and silicon alloys with the carbon
content greater than can be accommodated in solid solution?
Correct Answer :Cast iron

Details
8
What is the most common type of cast iron?
Correct Answer :Gray iron

Details
9
It is essentially a white cast iron that has been modified by heat treatment. It is
formed when white cast iron is heated to around 920 deg C and then left to cool
very slowly.
Correct Answer :Malleable iron

Details
10
A cast iron without any alloy addition and with low C and Si content such that the
structure is hard brittle iron carbide with no free graphite.
Correct Answer :White iron
Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What type of cast iron contains both cementite and graphite and is between
white and gray cast irons in composition and performance?
Correct Answer :Mottled iron

Details
2
What is the branch of science and technology concerned with the properties of
metals and their production and purification?
Correct Answer :Metallurgy

Details
3
What is the science and technology of the behavior of metals relating to
mechanical forces imposed on them?
Correct Answer :Mechanical Metallurgy
Details
4
What is the branch of metallurgy concerned with physical of metals as affected
by composition, mechanical working, and heat treatment?
Correct Answer :Physical Metallurgy

Details
5
What is the practice of extracting metal from ore, purifying it, and recycling it?
Correct Answer :Extractive Metallurgy

Details
6
What is a worthless rock or other material in which valuable minerals are found?
Correct Answer :Gangue

Details
7
What rock contains minerals with important elements including metals?
Correct Answer :Ore
Details
8
What are metals reclaimed from scrap?
Correct Answer :Bauxite

Details
9
What stainless steels have at least four major alloying elements, namely iron,
chromium, carbon and nickel?
Correct Answer :Austenitic

Details
10
What is the primary ore of aluminum?
Correct Answer :Bauxite

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What is the primary ore of antimony?
Correct Answer :Stibnite

Details
2
What is the major ore mineral of cesium?
Correct Answer :pollucite

Details
3
What element is produced from the mineral halite (rock salt)?
Correct Answer :Chlorine

Details
4
What is the primary ore for lead?
Correct Answer :galena
Details
5
What element can be extracted from quartz?
Correct Answer :Silicon

Details
6
What is the primary ore of tin?
Correct Answer :Cassiterite

Details
7
Which of the following elements can be extracted from the ore minerals
pitchblende (a mixture of various oxides) and coffinite?
Correct Answer :Uranium

Details
8
What element can be derived from the ore mineral sphalerite?
Correct Answer :Zinc
Details
9
What element can be derived from hematite and magnetite?
Correct Answer :Iron

Details
10
What is the main ore for mercury?
Correct Answer :cinnabar

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?
Correct Answer :Coke

Details
2
What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be
casehardened is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to
about 1000oF?
Correct Answer :Nitriding

Details
3
What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?
Correct Answer :Aluminum

Details
4
What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martensite
into pearlite?
Correct Answer :Tempering

Details
5
What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast
iron?
Correct Answer :Gray iron
Details
6
Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?
Correct Answer :White iron

Details
7
The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as
________.
Correct Answer :Pickling

Details
8
What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

Details
9
What is another term for tempering?
Correct Answer :Drawing or toughening
Details
10
What is the most abundant metal in nature?
Correct Answer :Aluminum

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What is the chief ore of the titanium?
Correct Answer :Ilmanite

Details
2
Steel in an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less
than _______ percent.
Correct Answer :2
Details
3
What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted
within a certain concentration limits?
Correct Answer :Steel

Details
4
What is the most undesirable of all elements commonly found in steels?
Correct Answer :Phosphorus

Details
5
What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion
resistance, and high strength red heat temperatures, making it useful in
resistance heating?
Correct Answer :Nichrome

Details
6
The core of the earth consists of:
Correct Answer :Fe alloyed with Ni
Details
7
Granite is an example of:
Correct Answer :Igneous rocks

Details
8
The characteristics of an ore is/are:

Details
9
The element(s) that may occur in the native form in the nature is:

Details
10
The separation of ore by converting it into a water soluble compound by reacting
with a suitable chemical substance is called:
Correct Answer :Leaching
Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
Chromium can be extracted from its oxide by using aluminum. In this case
aluminum acts as:
Correct Answer :Reducing agent

Details
2
The reducing agent used in Belgian process during the extraction of Zinc is:
Correct Answer :C
Details
3
The percentage of carbon in cast iron is:
Correct Answer :4%
Details
4
Impure tin can be refined by:
Correct Answer :Liquation

Details
5
The best method used to refine gold metal is:5. The best method used to refine
gold metal is:
Correct Answer :Electrolysis

Details
6
Light rocks in the continental crust contain:
Correct Answer :Al2O3 + SiO2

Details
7
The chemical composition of wulfenite is:
Correct Answer :PbMoO4
Details
8
Pitch blende is the chief ore of:
Correct Answer :Uranium

Details
9
The separation of magnetite (Fe3O4), Chromite (Cr2O3). FeO) and pyrolusite
(MnO2) ores from the non magnetic gangue is usually done by:
Correct Answer :Magnetic separation

Details
10
The element present in the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase is:

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
The metals which exist in their native state in nature are:
Correct Answer :Cu, Ag, Au & Pt

Details
2
The ore which can be concentrated by liquation method is:
Correct Answer :Stibnite

Details
3
The Puddler’s candles are produced due to burning of:
Correct Answer :carbon monoxide

Details
4
The suitable method used to remove lead impurity from impure silver is:
Correct Answer :Cupellation
Details
5
The complex of nickel formed during Mond’s process is:
Correct Answer :Ni(CO)4

Details
6
The metal obtained during the reduction of cassiterite by coke is:
Correct Answer :Tin

Details
7
Cupric oxide can be leached by using:
Correct Answer :H2SO4

Details
8
The gas evolved during the roasting of sulfide ores is:
Correct Answer :SO2
Details
9
Which one of the following is not an oxide ore?
Correct Answer :Iron pyrites

Details
10
Which one of the following is not an ore of iron?
Correct Answer :Cassiterite

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
What is also referred to as a microhardness test method and is mostly used for
small parts, thin sections, or case depth work using a diamond indenter?
Correct Answer :Vickers Hardness Test
Details
2
It is used to test materials that have a structure that is too coarse or that have a
surface that is too rough to be tested using another test method. It often uses a
very high test load (3000 kgf) and a 10mm diameter indenter so that the
resulting indentation averages out most surface and sub-surface inconsistencies.
Correct Answer :Brinell Hardness Test

Details
3
It is consists of indenting the test material with a diamond cone or hardened
steel ball indenter. The indenter is forced into the test material under a
preliminary minor load usually 10 kgf.
Correct Answer :Rockwell Hardness Test

Details
4
It is a micro-hardness for mechanical hardness used particularly for very brittle
materials or thin sheets, where only a small indentation may be made for testing
purposes. It uses asymmetrical pyramid as penetrator.
Correct Answer :Knoop Hardness Test

Details
5
What characterizes the scratch resistance of various minerals through the ability
of a harder material to scratch a softer material?
Correct Answer :Mohs scale

Details
6
According to Mohs scale of hardness, which material is the hardest?
Correct Answer :Topaz

Details
7
According to Mohs scale, what is the hardness rating for orthoclase?
Correct Answer :6
Details
8
According to Mohs scale, what is the hardness rating for talc?
Correct Answer :1
Details
9
According to Mohs scale, what is the hardness rating for corundum?
Correct Answer :9
Details
10
According to Mohs scale, which of the following is the hardest?
Correct Answer :Diamond

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
According to Mohs scale, which material has hardness rating of 7?
Correct Answer :Quartz

Details
2
According to Mohs scale, which material has hardness rating of 2?
Correct Answer :Gypsum

Details
3
According to Mohs scale, what is the hardness rating for calcite?
Correct Answer :3
Details
4
According to Mohs scale, what is the hardness rating for Diamond?
Correct Answer :10

Details
5
Mohs scale of hardness was devised in 1812 by the German mineralogist named:
Correct Answer :Friedrich Mohs

Details
6
Arrange the following according to increasing hardness: calcite, corundum, topaz
and quartz.
Correct Answer :calcite, quartz, topaz, corundum

Details
7
Arrange the following materials according to decreasing hardness: apatite,
fluorite, diamond, talc.
Correct Answer :diamond, apatite, fluorite, talc

Details
8
The figure and formula below is indicating what kind of hardness test?
Correct Answer :Knoop Hardness Test

Details
9
The figure and formula below indicate what kind of hardness test?
Correct Answer :Brinell Hardness Test

Details
10
The figure and formula below indicate what kind of hardness test?
Correct Answer :Vickers Hardness Test

Details

align: center;">
Questions
Correct
Wrong
1
Ruby and sapphire are the gemstone varieties of:
Correct Answer :Corundum

Details
2
The stone which floats on water is:
Correct Answer :Pumice

Details
3
Hardening is always followed by _____ in order relieve the residual stresses and
improve the ductility and toughness of the hardened steel
Correct Answer :Tempering

Details
4
Tensile test can be performed on.
Correct Answer :Universal testing machine

Details
5
Which machine records the change in length of specimen?
Correct Answer :Universal testing machine

Details
6
The ability of the material to resist stress without failure is called:
Correct Answer :Strength

Details
7
In universal testing machine, for a circular section specimen, the gauge length is
taken to be: (Where A=Area of cross section of the test specimen)
Correct Answer :5.65 (A)^1/2

Details
8
In universal testing machine, the tensile specimen of mild steel fails in shear and
the shear stress is maximum at __ degrees planes with respect to the direction of
load.
Correct Answer :45

Details
9
The shape of specimen used in compression test is:
i. Cube
ii. Cylinder
iii. Cuboid
iv. Prism
Which of the above is true?
Correct Answer :All

Details
10
During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears
along the:
Correct Answer :Diagonal

Details
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Engr. Cabansag an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the interest
was deducted from the loan at the time the money was borrowed. If at the end of one year, she has to
pay the full amount of P100,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
25.0%
Details
2 A loan of P10,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%, what
future amount is due at the end of the loan period?
Correct Answer :
P11,875
Details
3 A man borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and promised to
repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple interest.
Correct Answer :
10.29%
Details
4 A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to pay the
amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank collected the advance
interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount?
Correct Answer :
4.00%
Details
5 The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25, 1995 is P100.
What is the rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
3.90%
Details
6 Mr. Brightside borrowed money from a bank. he receives from the bank P1,340.00 and
promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding discount rate or often
referred to as the “banker’s discount”.
Correct Answer :
13.73%
Details
7 What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?
Correct Answer :
P39.45
Details
8 What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount of
the loan or principal?
Correct Answer :
Simple interest
Details
9 Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?
Correct Answer :
360
Details
10 One banker’s year is equivalent to ______ days.
Correct Answer :
360
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Determine the ordinary simple interest on P5,000 for 9 months and 10 days if the rate of
interest is 12%.
Correct Answer :
466.67
Details
2 Jeffrey buys an electric fan from a merchant who asks P1,250 at the end of 60 days (cash in 60
days). Jeffrey wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the cash price on the
assumption that money is worth 8% simple interest. What is the cash price today?
Correct Answer :
1,233.55
Details
3 A man borrowed P10,000 from a loan firm at a simple interest of 15%. If the interest is to be
deducted from the loan at the time the money is borrowed and at the end of 1 year he has to pay back
P10,000. Calculate the actual rate of interest.
Correct Answer :
17.65%
Details
4 Determine the exact simple interest on P10,000 for the period from January 15 to June 20, 2004,
if the rate of simple interest is 14%.
Correct Answer :
600.54
Details
5 Determine the exact simple interest on P1,000 for the period from January 10 to October 28,
2005 at 12% interest.
Correct Answer :
95.67
Details
6 Determine the exact simple interest on P2000 for the period from January 10 to October 28,
Correct Answer :
P230.13
Details
7 If P1000 accumulates to P1500 when invested at a simple interest for three years, what is the
rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
16.67%
Details
8 A man loan from a firm an amount of P10,000 with a rate of simple interest of 20% but the
interest was deducted from the loan at the time that the money was borrowed. If at the end of one
year, he has to pay the full amount of P10,000, what is the actual rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
25%
Details
9 Determine the exact simple interest on P2000 for the period from January 10 to October 28,
Correct Answer :
P230.13
Details
10 A loan of P5000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest of 15%, what future
amount is due at the end of the loan period?
Correct Answer :
P5,937.50
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 If you borrowed money from your friend with simple interest of 12%, find the present value of
P50,000, which is due at the end of 7 months.
Correct Answer :
P46,728.97
Details
2 Engr. Agustin borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P18,420 and promise
to repay P20,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the simple interest.
Correct Answer :
10.29%
Details
3 If you borrowed P100,000 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the total amount
to be repaid at the end of one year?
Correct Answer :
P118,000
Details
4 A price tag of P1,200 is payable in 60 days but if paid within 30 days it will have a 3% discount.
Find the rate of interest.
Correct Answer :
37.11%
Details
5 An engineering borrowed P20,000 from a bank and promise to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P19,200 after the bank collected an advance interest of P800. What was
the rate of discount?
Correct Answer :
4%
Details
6 An engineering borrowed P20,000 from a bank and promise to pay the amount for one year. He
received only the amount of P19,200 after the bank collected an advance interest of P800. What is the
actual rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
4.17%
Details
7 If P3000 accumulates to P4500 when invested at a simple interest for ten years, what is the rate
of interest?
Correct Answer :
5%
Details
8 P2000 is borrowed for 105 days at 12% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the
end of 105 days?
Correct Answer :
P2,070
Details
9 Determine the exact simple interest on P1,000,000 invested for the period from October 24,
1987 to January 7, 1990, if the rate of interest is 17%.
Correct Answer :
P93,785.079
Details
10 What will be the future worth of money after 12 months, if the sum of P25,000 is invested today
at a simple interest rate of 1% per year?
Correct Answer :
P25,250
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A sum of money at simple interest amounts to 815 in 3 years and to 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
Correct Answer :
698
Details
2 Mr. Thomas invested an amount of 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the
simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned
in 2 years be 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
Correct Answer :
6400
Details
3 A sum fetched a total simple interest of 4016.25 at the rate of 9%.per annum in 5 years. What is
the sum?
Correct Answer :
8925
Details
4 How much time will it take for an amount of 450 to yield 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of
simple interest?
Correct Answer :
4 years
Details
5 Raphael took a loan of 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If he
paid 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
Details
6 A sum of 12,500 amounts to 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest. What is the rate of
interest?
Correct Answer :
6%
Details
7 A person takes a loan of 200 at 5% simple interest. He returns 100 at the end of 1 year. In order
to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay:
Correct Answer :
115
Details
8 An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the
interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective
rate of interest becomes:
Correct Answer :
10.25%
Details
9 A sum of 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum
of 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, 33.50 is earned as
interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?
Correct Answer :
Details
10 A man took loan from a bank at the rate of 12% per annum simple interest. After 3 years he had
to pay $ 5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:
Correct Answer :
$ 15,000
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A sum of money amounts to 9800 after 5 years and 12005 after 8 years at the same rate of
simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is:
Correct Answer :
12%
Details
2 What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest
for 6 years and that for 9 years?
Correct Answer :
2:3
Details
3 A certain amount earns simple interest of 1750 after 7 years. Had the interest been 2% more,
how much more interest would it have earned?
Correct Answer :
Cannot be determined
Details
4 What will be the future worth of money after 12 months, if the sum of P25,000 is invested today
at a simple interest rate of 1% per month?
Correct Answer :
P28,000
Details
5 A man applied for a loan with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14%
of which P11,200 was deducted and he was given a check of P68,800. If he has to pay the amount of
P80,000 after one year, what then is the effective interest rate?
Correct Answer :
16.28%
Details
6 A deposit of P110,00 was made for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20% withholding
tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.
Correct Answer :
11.75%
Details
7 P5,000 is borrowed for 75 days at 16% per annum simple interest. How much will be due at the
end of 75 days?
Correct Answer :
P5,166.67
Details
8 A businessman wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income from an
available investment will be taxed at an average of 42%, what minimum rate of return, before payment
of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?
Correct Answer :
12.07%
Details
9 Rex Jason was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer PERCDC with an interest of 6% for 180
days on the principal collected in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000
non-interest for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.
Correct Answer :
P18,800
Details
10 Determine the exact simple interest on P5,000 invested for the period from January 15, 2016 to
October 12, 2016, if the interest rate is 18%.
Correct Answer :
P666.39
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Find the nominal rate compounded monthly which is equivalent to 12% compounded quarterly.
Correct Answer :
11.89%
Details
2 If a nominal interest rate per year is 12%, and compounding is continuous, what is the effective
interest rate per year?
Correct Answer :
12.75%
Details
3 By the conditions of a will, the sum of P25,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust by her guardian
until it amounts to P45,000. When will the girl receive the money if the fund is invested at 8 percent
compounded quarterly.
Correct Answer :
8 years
Details
4 What is the future worth of P12,000 deposited in an account earning interest at the rate of 9%
compounded quarterly for 8 years?
Correct Answer :
24,457.24
Details
5 A man possesses a promissory note whose maturity value is P6700, due in 3 years hence. If the
rate of interest is 10% compounded semi-annually, what is the value of this note now?
Correct Answer :
5,000
Details
6 A P2,000 loan was originally made at 8% simple interest for 4 years. At the end of this period,
the loan was extended for three years without the interest being paid, this time at a rate of 10%
compounded semi-annually. How much should the borrower pay at the end of 7 years?
Correct Answer :
3,537
Details
7 If P1,000 becomes P1,811.36 after 5 years when invested at an unknown rate of interest
compounded bimonthly, determine the unknown nominal rate and the corresponding effective rate,
respectively.
Correct Answer :
12%, 12.616%
Details
8 If the nominal interest rate is 3 percent, how much is P5000 worth in 10 years in a continuously
compounded account?
Correct Answer :
P6,750
Details
9 How long will it take for an investment to double its amount if invested at an interest rate of 6%
compounded monthly?
Correct Answer :
12 years
Details
10 How long will it take money to triple itself if invested at 8% compounded annually?
Correct Answer :
15 years
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The amount of P20,000 was deposited in a bank earning an interest of 6.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 17 years if the principal and interest were not withdrawn
during this period.
Correct Answer :
P58,340.93
Details
2 A loan for P170,000 is to be paid in three years at the amount of P185,000 compounded
annually. What is the effective rate of money?
Correct Answer :
2.859%
Details
3 The amount of P150,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per annum.
Determine the total amount at the end of 16 years, if the principal and interest were not withdrawn
during the period.
Correct Answer :
P477,118.97
Details
4 Find the present worth of a future payment of P290,000 to be made in 4 years with an interest
of 9% compounded annually.
Correct Answer :
P205,443.31
Details
5 What nominal rate, compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 25% compounded
quarterly?
Correct Answer :
25.78%
Details
6 What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?
Correct Answer :
8.24%
Details
7 By the condition of a will, the sum of P1500 is left to a boy to be held in trust by her guardian
until it amounts to P24,000, when will the boy receive the money if the fund is invested at 7%
compounded semi-annually?
Correct Answer :
40.298 years
Details
8 If P26,500 shall accumulate for 5 years at 7% compounded bimonthly, find the compounded
interest at the end of 5 years.
Correct Answer :
11,029.18
Details
9 A sum of P15,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued and is left for another eight years. If the affective annual interest
rate is 15%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th year?
Correct Answer :
P94,478.97
Details
10 Kristel received inheritance of 100,000 from her grandfather, if he invested a big money 25
years ago with a 25% interest. How much did the grandfather deposit?
Correct Answer :
P377.79
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A merchant puts in his P25,000 to a small business for a period of 12 years. With a given interest
rate on the investment of 1% compounded annually, how much will he collect at the end of the 12th
year?
Correct Answer :
P28,170.626
Details
2 When will an amount be tripled with an interest rate of 12%?
Correct Answer :
9.7 years
Details
3 Jeffrey deposit P150 in the bank now and plans to withdraw P100 next year. What will be the
amount of money left in the bank after 10 years of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest is 10%?
Correct Answer :
P168.59
Details
4 How much must be invested on December 21, 2012 in order to accumulate P65,4321 on
December 21, 2017? Money is worth 7%
Correct Answer :
P466,521.83
Details
5 A businessman wishes to accumulate a total of P500,000 in a savings at the end of 50 years. The
bank offers 1% compounded quarterly. What should be the initial deposit?
Correct Answer :
P303,454.614
Details
6 You borrow 1,000,000 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1% per month instead of
taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 13% per year. Compare how much money you will save or lose on
the transaction.
Correct Answer :
P2,175 will be saved from borrowing from the bank
Details
7 A deposit of P20,000 is made in a bank account that pays 8% interest compounded annually.
Approximately how much money will be in the account after 15 years?
Correct Answer :
P63,443
Details
8 How many years will it take money to quadruple if it earns 10% compounded semi-annually?
Correct Answer :
15
Details
9 How much should you put into a 1% savings account in order to have P1,000 in five years?
Correct Answer :
P951.5
Details
10 P2000 was deposited 20 years ago at an interest rate of 8% compounded semi-annually. How
much is the sum now?
Correct Answer :
P9,602
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 John expects to receive Php 20,000 in 10 years. How much is the money worth now considering
interest at 6% compounded quarterly?
Correct Answer :
Php 11,025.25
Details
2 A couple decided that for every child that will be born to them they will place a deposit in the
bank so that on the child’s 18th birthday, the child will receive the amount of P150,000. If the bank will
pay an interest of 16% compounded yearly, how much deposit will the couple have to make on the birth
of a child to them?
Correct Answer :
P10,372
Details
3 A man who won P500,000 in a lottery decided to place 50% of his winning in a trust fund for the
college education of his son. If the money will earn 14% per year compounded quarterly, how much will
the man have at the end of 10 years when his son will be starting his college education?
Correct Answer :
P989,815
Details
4 500 years ago, Rajah Salayog deposited P0.01 with an interest rate of 5% per annum. Now the
bank discovered that you are the only left in the clan and entitled to receive the money. How much is it?
Correct Answer :
P393,232,618.3
Details
5 Suppose that P200,000.00 is invested at a certain rate of interest compounded annually for two
years. If the accumulated interest at the end of 2 years is P42,000.00, find the rate of interest.
Correct Answer :
10%
Details
6 Rex borrowed a certain amount on October 1990 from Jason. Two years later, Rex borrowed
again from Jason an amount of P500. Rex paid P200 on October 1993 and discharged his balance by
paying P700 on October 1995. What was the amount borrowed by Rex on October 1990 if the interest
rate is 8% compounded annually?
Correct Answer :
P206.51
Details
7 What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is equal to 360
days.
Correct Answer :
19.72%
Details
8 An investor has an option to purchase a tract of land that will be worth P20,000 in seven years.
If the value of the land increases at 9% each year, how much should the investor be willing to pay now
for this property?
Correct Answer :
P10,941
Details
9 What is the effective rate of interest if P1000 is invested at a nominal rate of 15% compounded
quarterly?
Correct Answer :
15.86%
Details
10 A nominal interest of 3% compounded continuously is given on the account. What is the

accumulated amount of Php 10,000 after 10 years?
Correct Answer :
Php 13,498.60
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A man wishes to have Php 40,000 in a certain fund at the end of 8 years. How much should he
invest in fund that will pay 6% compounded continuously?
Correct Answer :
Php 24,751.34
Details
2 The amount of P2,825 in 8 years at 5% compounded continuously.
Correct Answer :
P4,214.40
Details
3 How long will it take money to quadruple if it earns 7% compounded semi-annually?
Correct Answer :
20.15 years
Details
4 P200,000 was deposited at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually. After how many
years will the sum ne P621,170?
Correct Answer :
Details
5 P200,000 was deposited on Jan. 1, 2008 at an interest rate of 24% compounded semi-annually.
How much would the sum be on Jan. 1, 2013?
Correct Answer :
621,170
Details
6 If P500,000 is deposited at a rate of 11.25% compounded monthly, determine the compounded

interest after 7 years and 9 months.
Correct Answer :
P690,849
Details
7 By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund by her
guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if fund invested at 8%
compounded quarterly?
Correct Answer :
11.57 years
Details
8 A man invested P 10,000 at an interest rate of 10% compounded annually. What will be the final
amount of his investment, in terms of today’s pesos, after five years, if inflation remains the same at the
rate of 8% per year?
Correct Answer :
P 10,960.86
Details
9 A P1000 loan was originally made at 8% simple interest for 4 years. At the end of this period the
loan was extended for 3 years, without the interest being paid, but the new interest rate was made 12%
compounded semiannually. How much should the borrower pay at the end of 7 years?
Correct Answer :
P1872
Details
10 Find the accumulated amounts after 5 years of P 1000 invested at the rate of 10% per year
compounded monthly.
Correct Answer :
P 1645.31
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 An interest rate of 10% compounded continuously is desired of an investment of P15,000. How

many years will be required to recover the capital with the desired interest if P2,500 is received each
year?
Correct Answer :
9.3 years
Details
2 A man invested P20,000 at an interest rate of 10% compounded annually. What will be the final
amount of his investment, in terms of today’s pesos, after five years, if the inflation remains the same at
the rate of 8% per year?
Correct Answer :
P21,922
Details
3 Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often the interest
is compounded.
Correct Answer :
Quarterly
Details
4 A man wishes his son to receive P200,000 ten years from now. What amount should he invest if
it will earn interest of 10% compounded annually during the first 5 years and 12% compounded
quarterly during the next 5 years?
Correct Answer :
P68,757.82
Details
5 HR Publication borrowed P9, 000 from PERCDC on Jan. 1, 1978 and P12, 000 on Jan. 1, 1980. HR
Publication made a partial payment of P7, 000 on Jan. 1, 1981. It was agreed that the balance of the loan
would be amortizes by two payments one of Jan. 1, 1982 and the other on Jan. 1, 1983, the second
being 50%larger than the first. If the interest rate is 12%. What is the amount of each payment?
Correct Answer :
P9,137.18 and P13,705.77
Details
6 A woman borrowed P3, 000 to be paid after 1.5 years with interest at 12% compounded
semiannually and P5, 000 to be paid after 3 years at 12% compounded monthly. What single payment
must she pay after 3.5 years at an interest rate of 16% compounded quarterly to settle the two
obligations?
Correct Answer :
P12,627.55
Details
7 A man deposits P50, 000 in a bank account at 6% compounded monthly for 5 years. If the
inflation rate of 6.5% per year continues for this period, will this effectively protect the purchasing
power of the original principal?
Correct Answer :
P49, 225.00
Details
8 A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan for the
amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the present lump sum due?
Correct Answer :
P3,260.34
Details
9 What is the present worth of two P100 at the end of the 3rd year and 4t year? The annual
interest rate is 8%.
Correct Answer :
P158.88
Details
10 Fifteen years ago P1,000 was deposited in a bank account, and today it is worth P2,370. The
bank pays interest semi-annually. What was the nominal rate of interest paid in this account?
Correct Answer :
5.84%
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Suppose that you make 12 equal annual deposits of P2,000 each into a bank account paying 8%
interest per year. The first deposit will be made one year from today. How much money can be
withdrawn from this bank account immediately after the 12th deposit?
Correct Answer :
P37,954
Details
2 A man purchased a house for P425,000. In the first month that he owned the house, he spent
P75,000 on repairs and remodeling. Immediately after the house was remodeled, he was offered
P545,000 to sell the house. After some consideration, he decided to keep the house and have it rented
for P4,500 per month starting two months after the purchase. He collected rent for 15 months and then
sold the house for P600,000. if the interest rate was 1.5% per month, how much extra money did he
make or lose by not selling the house immediately after it was remodeled?
Correct Answer :
P5,000
Details
3 On the day his grandson was born, a man deposited to a trust company a sufficient amount of
money so that the boy could receive five annual payments of P20,000 each for his college tuition fees,
starting with his 18th birthday. Interest at the rate of 12% per annum was to be paid on all amounts on
deposit. How much did the grandfather deposit?
Correct Answer :
P10,500
Details
4 A man bought an equipment costing P30,000 payable in 12 quarterly payments, each

installment payable at the beginning of each period. The rate of interest is 24% compounded quarterly.
What is the amount of each payment?
Correct Answer :
P3,375.76
Details
5 How much money you invest today in order to withdraw P2000 annually for 10 years if the
interest rate is 9%?
Correct Answer :
12,835.32
Details
6 An employee obtained a loan of P10,000 at the rate of 6% compounded annually to repair a

house. How much must he pay monthly to amortize the loan within a period of ten years?
Correct Answer :
110.22
Details
7 Ernest invests P10,000 now for the college education of his 2- year old son. If the fund earns
14% effective, how much will the son get each year starting from his 18th to the 22nd birthday?
Correct Answer :
20,791.64
Details
8 A farmer bought a tractor costing P25,000 payable in 10 semi-annual payments starting at the
beginning of each period. If the interest rate is 26% compounded semi-annually, determine the amount
of each installment.
Correct Answer :
4,077.20
Details
9 A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 every end of 3 months for x years. However,
he may choose to get a single lump of P3,702,939.8 at the end of 4 years. If the rate of interest was 14%
compounded quarterly, what is the value of x?
Correct Answer :
10
Details
10 A man paid a 10% downpayment of P200,000 for a house & lot and agreed to pay the balance
on monthly instalments for 5 years at an interest rate of 15% compounded monthly. What was the
monthly instalment in pesos?
Correct Answer :
P42,821.87
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 An Electronic Engineer wishes to set up a special fund by making uniform semiannual end-of-
period deposits for 22 years. The fund is to provide P200,000 at the end of each of the last seven years
of the 22-year period. If interest is 10% compounded semiannually, what is the required semiannual
deposit to be made?
Correct Answer :
P12,651
Details
2 Some future amount F, is equivalent to P2,000 being received every six months over the next 12
years. The nominal interest rate is 20% compounded continuously. Find the value of F.
Correct Answer :
P191,000
Details
3 Find the present value, in pesos, of a perpetuity of P15,000 payable semi-annually if money is
worth 8% compounded quarterly.
Correct Answer :
371,287 (semi-annually)
Details
4 A service car whose car price was P540,000 was bought with a down-payment of P162,000 and
monthly instalments of P10,874.29 for 5 years. What was the rate of interest if compounded monthly?
Correct Answer :
24.0%
Details
5 A man inherited a regular endowment of P100,000 every end of 3 months for 10 years.
However, he may choose to get a single lump sum payment at the end of 4 years. How much is this lump
sum if the cost of money is 14% compounded quarterly?
Correct Answer :
3,702,939.73
Details
6 A man loans P187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He agrees to pay
his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at the end of 10 years. Find the
annual payments.
Correct Answer :
P44,981
Details
7 A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay the dealer
uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded annually, that the final
payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is the annual payment?
Correct Answer :
P 2,504.57
Details
8 A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 downpayment and 10 deferred semi-annual payments
of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present value of the investment if the rate of
interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
Correct Answer :
P 143,999.08
Details
9 What is the future worth of P600 deposited at the end of every month for 4 years if the interest
rate is 12% compounded quarterly?
Correct Answer :
P36,641
Details
10 An individual makes five annual deposit of P2000 in a savings account that pays interest at a rate
of 4% per year. One year after making the last deposit, the interest rate changes to 6% per year. Five
years after the last deposit, the accumulated money is withdrawn from the account. How much is
withdrawn?
Correct Answer :
P14,233
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Raphael Asher borrows P600,000 at 12% compounded annually, agreeing to repay the loan in 15
equal annual payments. How much of the original principal is still unpaid after he has made the 8th
payment?
Correct Answer :
P402,042
Details
2 Engr. Agustin purchased a small lot in a subdivision, paying P200, 000 down and promising to
pay P15, 000 every 3 months for the next 10 years. The seller figured interest at 12% compounded
quarterly. What was the cash price of the lot?
Correct Answer :
P546,722
Details
quarterly. If Engr. Agustin missed the first 12 payments, what must he pay at the time the 13th is due to
bring him up to date?
Correct Answer :
P234,270
Details
quarterly. After making 8 payments, Engr. Agustin wished to discharge his remaining indebtedness by a
single payment at the time when the 9th regular payment was due, what must he pay in addition to the
regular payment then due?
Correct Answer :
P300,006
Details
5 An asphalt road requires no upkeep until the end of 2 years when P60, 000 will be needed for
repairs. After this P90, 000 will be needed for repairs at the end of each year for the next 5 years, then
P120, 000 at the end of each year for the next 5 years. If money is worth 14% compounded annually,
what was the equivalent uniform annual cost for the 12-year period?
Correct Answer :
P79,245.82
Details
6 A man wishes to provide a fund for his retirement such that from his 60th to 70th birthdays he
will be able to withdraw equal sums of P18, 000 for his yearly expenses. He invests equal amount for his
41st to 59th birthdays in a fund earning 10% compounded annually. How much should each of these
amounts be?
Correct Answer :
P2,285
Details
7 Determine the present worth of an annuity consisting of 6 payments of P120, 000 each, the
payments are made at the beginning of each year. Money is worth 15% compounded annually.
Correct Answer :
P522,259
Details
8 What is the size of seven equal annual payments to repay a loan of P2,000? The first payment is
due one year after receiving the loan and the nominal rate of interest is 12%.
Correct Answer :
P438
Details
9 A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum for the last 4
years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his loan?(Correction on
choices)
Correct Answer :
P 6,917.72
Details
10 $200 is deposited at the end of each quarter in an account that pays 4%, compounded quarterly.
How much money will we have in the account in 2 years and 3 months?
Correct Answer :
$1,873
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Find the future value of an investment if $150 is deposited at the beginning of each month for 9
years and the interest rate is 7.2%, compounded monthly.
Correct Answer :
$22,836.59
Details
2 What is the present value of an annuity of $1,500 payable at the end of each 6-month period for
2 years if money is worth 8%, compounded semiannually?
Correct Answer :
$5,444.84
Details
3 Suppose that a court settlement results in a $750,000 award. If this is invested at 9%

compounded semiannually, how much will it provide at the beginning of each half-year for a period of 7
years?
Correct Answer :
$70,205.97
Details
4 A deferred annuity is purchased that will pay $10,000 per quarter for 15 years after being
deferred for 5 years. If money is worth 6% compounded quarterly, what is the present value of this
annuity?
Correct Answer :
$292,386.85
Details
5 You wish to receive an annuity of $800 each year for 5 years. The annual interest rate is 10%.
What is the present value of the annuity?
Correct Answer :
$3032.63
Details
6 You wish to receive an annuity of $500 a month for 10 years. The monthly interest rate is 1%.
Correct Answer :
$34,850.26
Details
7 You wish to receive an annuity of $300 a month for 6 years. The monthly interest rate is 0.9%.
Correct Answer :
$15,846.35
Details
8 You wish to receive an annuity of $1,000 a quarter for 5 years. The quarterly interest rate is
2.5%. What is the present value of the annuity?
Correct Answer :
$15,589.16
Details
9 You wish to receive an annuity of $6,500 a year for 15 years. The annual interest rate is 5.5%.
Correct Answer :
$65,244.28
Details
10 You have $10,000 and wish to receive an annual annuity for 10 years. The annual interest rate is
8%. How much will you receive each year?
Correct Answer :
$1,490.29
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A sports apparel company has initiated a logo-licensing program. It expects to realize a revenue
of $80,000 in fees next year from the sale of its logo. Fees are expected to increase uniformly to a level
of $200,000 in 9 years. Determine the arithmetic gradient.
Correct Answer :
$15,000
Details
2 PERCDC is considering the deposit of $500,000 in an account for the repair of old and safety-
questionable bridges in Cebu. Further, they estimate that the deposits will increase by $100,000 per
year for only 9 years thereafter, then cease. Determine the equivalent.
Correct Answer :
$7,026,050
Details
3 Engineers at Villtek, the large printing press in Cavite, are considering an innovation to the
company. The modification costs only $8000 and is expected to last 6 years with a $1300 salvage value
for the printing equipment. The maintenance cost is expected to be high at $1700 the first year,
increasing by 11% per year thereafter. Determine the equivalent present worth of the modification and
maintenance cost. The interest rate is 8% per year.
Correct Answer :
$17,305.85
Details
4 A contract has been signed to lease a building at P20,000 per year with an annual increase of
P1,500 for 8 years. Payments are to be made at the end of each year, starting one year from now. The
prevailing interest rate is 7%. What lump sum paid today would be equivalent to the 8-year lease
payment plan?
Correct Answer :
P147,609.38
Details
5 Given the cash flow diagram below, what is the present worth? Interest rate is 7%.
Correct Answer :
578.45
Details
6 Given the cash flow diagram below, what is the present worth? Interest rate is 10%.
Correct Answer :
$273
Details
7 The cash flow diagram below, find the annual equivalent (A series) of a gradient series. Interest
rate is 10%.
Correct Answer :
$86.12
Details
8 In uniform geometric gradient series, if A1 = $100; g = 15%; i = 9%; n = 5, what is the equivalent
present worth?
Correct Answer :
$512
Details
9 Lily Rose deposited P1,000, P1,500 and P2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd year and 4th year,
respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How much is in the account at the end
of the 4th year?
Correct Answer :
P 4,860.00
Details
10 In uniform geometric gradient series, if A1 = $100; g = 5%; i = 8%; n = 10, what is the equivalent
present worth?
Correct Answer :
$818.36
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of interest of this
investment?
Correct Answer :
3.0%
Details
2 A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semi-annually and will be redeemed at 110% on June 21, 204.
It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the bond.
Correct Answer :
P 1,144.81
Details
3 Engr. Lipata plans to purchase a new office building costing P1,000,000. He can raise the building
by issuing 10%, 30-year bond that would pay P150,000 interest per year and repay the face amount at
maturity. Instead of buying the new building, he can lease it for P140,000 per year, first payment being
due one year from now. The building has an expected life of 30 years. Ignoring effects on income tax,
what is the difference between buying the building and leasing the building?
Correct Answer :
P151,578
Details
4 Mr.Lyam Mikael invested P1,000 at the end of 2nd year, P1,500 at the end of 3rd year and
P2,000 at the end of 4th year. Determine the equivalent total present worth if the interest rate is 10%.
Correct Answer :
P3,319.45
Details
5 Basketball superstar Godfree Manalo, playing for Baba’s Coffee Mixers is earning an annual
salary of P5,000,000 for 10 years. Quexbook Shooters would like to acquire his services, offered him an
initial annual salary of P3,000,000 but is increasing at the rate of P600,000 annually. If he can still play
for 10 years and money is worth 10%, which team gives better offer?
Correct Answer :
Quexbook Shooters’ offer is better
Details
6 What is the total present worth of an investment below?
P500 at end of 1st year

P540 at end of 2nd year
P583.2 at end of 3rd year
P629.856 at the end of 4th year and
P680.24448 at the end of 5th year
(Hint: this is a uniform geometric gradient problem)
Correct Answer :
P2,191.49
Details
7 What is the total future worth of the investment below at the end of 5th year?
P500 at end of 1st year
P540 at end of 2nd year
P583.2 at end of 3rd year
P629.856 at the end of 4th year and
P680.24448 at the end of 5th year
(Hint: this is a uniform geometric gradient problem)

Correct Answer :
P3,529.54
Details
8 Mr.Uriel wishes to have upon his retirement at the age of 40 the sum of P5,000,000. On his 21st
birthday, he deposited a certain amount and increased his deposit by 15% each year until he will be 40.
If the money is deposited in a super savings account which earns 15% interest compounded annually,
how much was his initial deposit?
Correct Answer :
P17,566.33
Details
9 A man was offered a Land Bank certificate with a face value of P100,000 which is bearing
interest of 6% per year payable semi-annually and due in 6 years. If he wants to earn 8% semi-annually,
how much must he pay the certificate?
Correct Answer :
P90,615
Details
10 A P1,000 bond which will mature in 10 years and with a bond rate of 8% payable annually is to
be redeemed at par at the end of this period. It is sold at P1,030. Determine the yield at this price.
Correct Answer :
7.56%
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A telephone company installed a new equipment that cost P150,000 and is estimated to have a
useful life of 10 years. It is estimated to have a scrap value at the end of its useful life of P5,000. If the
interest is 12% compounded annually, determine its capitalized cost.
Correct Answer :
P218,855.87
Details
2 A machine is purchased for P100, 000. If the annual maintenance cost is P18,000, determine the
capitalized cost of perpetual service with an interest rate of 8%.
Correct Answer :
P325,000
Details
3 An item is purchased for P125,000. Annual cost is P18,500. Using interest rate of 8%, what is the
capitalized cost of perpetual service?
Correct Answer :
P356,250
Details
4 A man planned of building a house. The cost of construction is P800,000 while annual
maintenance cost is estimated at P15,000. If the interest rate is 6%, what is the capitalized cost of the
house?
Correct Answer :
P1,050,000
Details
5 Determine the capitalized cost of a research laboratory which requires P6,000,000 for original
construction; P100,000 at the end of every year for the first 6 years and then P120,000 each year
thereafter for operating expenses, and P500,000 every 5 years for replacement of equipment with
interest at 12% per annum?
Correct Answer :
P7.75M
Details
6 At 6% find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20 years, if the bridge
must partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each 20 years.
Correct Answer :
295 M
Details
7 Determine the capitalized cost of a structure that requires an initial investment of P 1,500,000
and an annual maintenance of P 150,000. Interest is 15%.
Correct Answer :
P2,500,000
Details
8 A dam will have a first cost of $5,000,000, an annual maintenance cost of $25,000 and minor
reconstruction costs of $100,000 every five years. At an interest rate of 8% per year, the capitalized cost
of the dam is nearest to:
Correct Answer :
$5,525,625
Details
9 The first cost of a certain piece of equipment is $50,000. It will have an annual operating cost of
$20,000 and $5,000 salvage value after its 5-year life. At an interest rate of 10% per year, the capitalized
cost of the equipment is closest to:
Correct Answer :
$323,710
Details
10 At 6%, find the capitalized cost of an apartment whose cost is 200M and life is 20 years, if the
apartment must be partially rebuilt at a cost of 100M at the end of each 20 years.
Correct Answer :
245.3M
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 An equipment costs P480,000 and has a salvage value of 10% of its cost at the end of its
economic life of 35,000 operating hours. In the first year, it was used for 4,000 hours. Determine its
book value at the end of the first year using straight line method.
Correct Answer :
430,629
Details
2 A printing equipment costs P 73,500 has a life expectancy of 8 yrs. and has a salvage value of P
3500 at the end of its life. The book value at the end of “x” years is equal to P 38,500. Using straight line
method of depreciation, solve for the value of “x”.
Correct Answer :
4 years
Details
3 A broadcasting corporation purchased an equipment that costs P7,000, last 8 years and has a
salvage value of P350. determine the book value during the 4th year using declining balance method.
Correct Answer :
P1,565
Details
4 A telephone company purchased a microwave radio equipment for P6M. Freight and installation
charges amounted to 3% of the purchase price. If the equipment shall be depreciated over a period of 8
years with a salvage value of 5%, determine the depreciation charge during the fifth year using the sum
of the years’ digit method.
Correct Answer :
653,333.33
Details
5 A company purchases an asset of P15,000 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the salvage value
is zero at the end of 20 years, what is the depreciation in third year? Use SYD method.
Correct Answer :
1,286
Details
6 A machine is purchased for P55,000. The salvage value in 20 years is P10,000. What is the
depreciation in the first 3 years using straight line method?
Correct Answer :
6,750
Details
7 An asset has an initial cost of P15000 and a salvage value of P1000 after 10 years. What is the
book value after 5 years using straight line depreciation?
Correct Answer :
P8,000
Details
8 An asset is purchased for P50,000. Its estimated life is 10 years after which it will be sold for
P12,000. Find the depreciation for the first year using sum of years’ digit method.
Correct Answer :
6,909.1
Details
9 A telecommunication company purchased an equipment for P53,000 and paid P1,500 for freight
and delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal life of 10 years with a trade-in value of
P5,000 against the purchase of a new equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual
depreciation cost by the sinking fund method. Assume interest at 6.5% compounded annually.
Correct Answer :
P3,668
Details
10 The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines (IECEP) is planning
to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are: A. The construction of the building now
to cost P 400,000 B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5
years, an extension to be added to cost P 200,000. By how much is proposal B more economical than
proposal A if interest rate is 20% and depreciation to be neglected?
Correct Answer :
P 19,624.49
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 Fernandez corporation bought a machine for P200,000 and used it for 10 years, the life span of
the equipment. What is the book value of the machine after 5 years of use? Assume a scrap value of
P20,000. Use double declining balance method.
Correct Answer :
P65,536
Details
2 An engineer bought an equipment for P500,000. He spent and additional amount of P30,000 for
instalment and other expenses. The estimated useful life of the equipment is 10 years. The salvage value
is x% of the first cost. Using the straight line method of depreciation, the book value at the end five of
years will be P291,500. What is the value of x?
Correct Answer :
10
Details
3 A machine costing P720,000 is estimated to have a book value of P40,545.73 when retired at the
end of 10 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the declining book value.
What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?
Correct Answer :
25%
Details
4 ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no salvage value. Determine
the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is the SYD method.
Correct Answer :
9 years
Details
5 A machine costing P45,000 is estimated to have a salvage value of P4,350 when retired at the
end of 6 years. Depreciation cost is computed using a constant percentage of the declining book value.
What is the annual rate of depreciation in %?
Correct Answer :
32.25%
Details
6 A new electric saw for cutting small pieces of lumber in a furniture manufacturing plant has a
cost basis of P5,000 and 8-year depreciable life. The estimated salvage value of the saw is zero at the
end of 8 years. The book value at the end of 5 years using straight-line method.
Correct Answer :
P1,875
Details
7 Find the total depreciation at the end of 7th year for an asset that costs P10,000 new and has an
estimated scrap value of P2,000 at the end of 12 years using declining balance method.
Correct Answer :
P6,089
Details
8 The cost of the equipment is P500,000 and the cost of installation is P30,000. If the salvage
value is 10% of the cost of equipment at the end of 5 years, determine the book value at the end of the
fourth year using straight line method.
Correct Answer :
P148,400
Details
9 What is considered as the principal method for computing depreciation deductions for property
in engineering projects?
Correct Answer :
Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS)
Details
10 An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after which it will be
sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using sum-of-years digit method.
Correct Answer :
P 3,927.27
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 An agricultural equipment that cost P90,000.00 will have an estimated salvage value of
P18,000.00 at the end of 8 years. Using double declining balance method compute the book value and
total depreciation at the end of 5th year.
Correct Answer :
P21,357.42;P68,642.58
Details
2 An asset is purchased for 120,000. Its estimated life is 10 years; after which it will be sold for
12,000. Find the depreciation for the second year using the sum-of-the-years-digit method.
Correct Answer :
17,673
Details
3 A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required for a
proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000. Annual depreciation is
estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine the rate of return on the total
investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000.
Correct Answer :
29.17%
Details
4 A company purchases an asset of P1500 and plans to keep it for 20 years. If the salvage value is
zero at the end of 20 years, what is depreciation in the third year? Use SYD method.
Correct Answer :
128.6
Details
5 A broadcasting corporation purchased an equipment for P53,000 and paid P1,500 for freight and
delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal life of 10 years with trade-in value of
P5,000 against the purchase of a new equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual
depreciation cost by the straight line method.
Correct Answer :
P4,950
Details
6 The decrease in the value of the property due to the gradual extraction of its content.
Correct Answer :
depletion
Details
7 Coal Company purchases land for $3,000,000 from which it expects to extract 1,000,000 tons of
coal, the estimated residual value is $200,000, and it mines 80,000 tons of coal in the first year.
Calculate depletion for the year.
Correct Answer :
$224,000
Details
8 A machine shop purchased 10 years ago a milling machine for P60,000. A straight-line
depreciation reserve had been provided based on a 20-year life of the machine. The owner of the
machine shop desires to replace the old milling machine with a modern unit having many advantages
costing P100,000. It can sell the old unit for P20, 000. How much new capital will be required for the
purchase?
Correct Answer :
P50,000
Details
9 A tax and duty free importation of a 30-horsepower sand mill for paint manufacturing costs
P360,000, CIF Manila. Bank charges, arrester and brokerage cost P5,000. Foundation and installation
costs were P25,000. Other incidental expenses amount to P20,000. Salvage value of the mill is estimated
to be P60,000 after 20 years. Find the appraisal value of the mill using straight-line depreciation at the
end of 10 years.
Correct Answer :
P235,000
Details
10 An industrial plant bought a generator set for 90,000. Other expenses including installation
amounted to 10,000. The generator set is to have a life of 17 years with a salvage value at the end of life
of 5,000. Determine the depreciation charge during the 13th year by the double declining balance
method.
Correct Answer :
P2,619.93
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material cost per unit of
P100, and a variable cost of P3.00 per unit. If the item has a selling price of P995, how many units must
be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P461,600.
Correct Answer :
800
Details
2 ABC Corporation manufactures book cases that sells for P65.00 each. It costs ABC P35,000 per
year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges on equipment and salary
payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is P50, how many bookcases must be sold each year for
ABC to avoid taking a loss?
Correct Answer :
2334
Details
3 The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P12,345. If the cost of making a forging is P71
per unit and its selling price is P180 per forged unit, find the number of units to be forged to break-even.
Correct Answer :
114 units
Details
4 A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P55 each, material cost of P82 each
and variable cost of P1.75 each. If the item has a unit price of P700, how much number of units must be
manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break-even if the monthly overhead is P432,000?
Correct Answer :
770 units
Details
5 Steel container manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed operating cost of P300,000. Each container
manufactured costs P250 to produce and sells P500. What is the manufacturer’s break-even sales
volume in containers per year?
Correct Answer :
1200 containers
Details
6 A motor company has production capacity of 1200 motors a month. The variable costs are
P1150 per motor. The average selling price of the motors is P1275. Fixed costs of the company amount
to P50,000 per month which includes taxes. Find the number of motors that must be sold each month to
break-even.
Correct Answer :
45
Details
7 DRC Electronics manufactures automatic voltage regulators at a labor cost of P25 per unit and
material cost of P125 per unit. The fixed charges on the business are P15,000 per month and the
variable costs are P20 per unit. If the automatic voltage regulators are sold to retailers at P750 each,
how many units must be produced and sold per month to break-even?
Correct Answer :
26
Details
8 The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P100 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P75 per unit. If the
product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold to break-even?
Correct Answer :
160
Details
9 The following data for year 2011 are accounted:
Unit selling price P80
Unit variable cost P40
Unit contribution margin P40
Total fixed costs P200,000
What is the break-even point in units for the current year?
Correct Answer :
5000
Details
10 The cost of producing a small transistor radio set consists of P350 for labor and P250 for
material. The fixed charges in operation the plant is P1,000,000 per month. The variable cost is P10 per
set. The radio set can be sold for P750 each. Determine how many sets must be produced per month to
break-even?
Correct Answer :
7143
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P115 each, material cost of P76 and
variable cost of P2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P600, how many number of units must be
manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P428,000.
Correct Answer :
1053 units
Details
2 A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Jaworski signature shoes at a labor cost of P
900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business are P 5,000,000 a
month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair. Royalty Jaworski is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the
shoes sell at P 5,000 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to
break-even?
Correct Answer :
2,632
Details
3 A local factory assembling calculators produces 100 units per month and sells them at P1,800
each. Dividends are 8% on the 8000 shares with par value of P250 each. The fixed operating cost per
month is P25,000. Other costs are P1,000 per unit. Determine the break-even point. If only 200 units
were produced per month, determine the profit.
Correct Answer :
48 ; P121,666.67
Details
4 General Electric Company, which manufactures electric motor, has a capacity of producing 150
motors a month. The variable costs are P4,000 per month, the average selling price of the motor is P750
per motor. Fixed costs of the company amounts to P78,000 per month which includes all taxes.
Determine the number of motors to be produced per month to break even and the sales volume in
pesos at this point.
Correct Answer :
110 units
Details
5 A plywood manufacturer produces a piece of plywood at a labor cost of P0.50 and material at
P3.00. The fixed charges on business are P50,000 a month and the variable cost is P0.50 per piece. If one
plywood sells for P6.00 each, how many pieces must be produced each month for the manufacturer to
break even?
Correct Answer :
25,000
Details
6 The profit on a product selling for P8.20 is 10% of the selling price. What percentage increase in
production cost will reduce the profit by 60%?
Correct Answer :
6.67%
Details
7 A local company assembling stereo radio cassette produces 300 units per month at a cost of
P800 per unit. Each stereo radio cassette sells for P1,200. If the firm makes a profit of 10% on its 10,000
shares with a par value of P200 per share, and the total fixed cost is P20,000 per month. What is the
break-even point and how much is the loss or profit if only 100 units are produced in a given month?
Correct Answer :
92 ; P3,333.33
Details
8 A certain operation is now performed by hand, the labor cost per unit is P0.54 and the annual
fixed charge for tool used is estimated at P100 per year. A machine that is being considered for this job
will cost P2,400, have a salvage value of P100 at any time and a fixed annual cost of P200. With it, labor
cost is P0.22 per unit. For what number of units of product per year at zero interest and life of 6 years
for the machine will the annual cost of the two methods break even?
Correct Answer :
1510 units
Details
9 A shoe manufacturer produces a pair of shoes at a labor cost of P9.00 a pair and a material cost
of P8.00 a pair. The fixed charges on the business is P90,000 a month and the variable cost is P4.00 a
pair. If the shoes sell at P30 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer
to break even?
Correct Answer :
10,000
Details
10 The direct labor cost and material cost of a certain product are P300 and P400 per unit,
respectively. Fixed charges are P100,000 per month and other variable costs are P100 per unit. If the
product is sold at P1,200 per unit, how many units must be produced and sold to break even?
Correct Answer :
250 units
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is
made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment?
Correct Answer :
Deferred annuity
Details
2 What do you call the amount of property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for
the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor sell?
Correct Answer :
market value
Details
3 What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of its period, beginning
from the first period?
Correct Answer :
annuity due
Details
4 It is the function of interest and time that determines the cumulative amount of a sinking fund
resulting from specific periodic deposits.
Correct Answer :
sinking fund factor
Details
5 It is defined as the future value minus the present value in a negotiable paper.
Correct Answer :
Discount
Details
6 What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each payment period
starting from the first period?
Correct Answer :
ordinary annuity
Details
7 It is the flow back of profit plus depreciation from a given project.
Correct Answer :
cash flow
Details
8 It is the profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations
to financial contributors or claims of other based on profit.
Correct Answer :
Economic return
Details
9 What is a mathematical expression which is also known as the present value of an annuity of
one?
Correct Answer :
sinking fund factor
Details
10 It is the payment for the use of borrowed money.
Correct Answer :
interest
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is the interest rate at which the present worth of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment.
Correct Answer :
rate of return
Details
2 It is the recorded current value of an asset.
Correct Answer :
book value
Details
3 It is the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.
Correct Answer :
interest rate
Details
4 What is the method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread over the
estimated life of the asset in terms units of output?
Correct Answer :
service output
Details
5 It is the method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound
interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of
an asset's estimated life.
Correct Answer :
sinking fund method
Details
6 _________ is the true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a
1-year period.
Correct Answer :
effective interest
Details
7 What is the reduction of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time?
Correct Answer :
depreciation
Details
8 It is a condition where only few individual produce a certain product that action of one will lead
to almost the same action by the other.
Correct Answer :
oligopoly
Details
9 What is the simplest form of business organization?
Correct Answer :
sole proprietorship
Details
10 ________ is an association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable

business.
Correct Answer :
partnership
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 _______ is a distinct legal entity which can practically transact any business transaction which a
real person could do.
Correct Answer :
corporation
Details
2 What is the type of annuity where payments continue infinitely?
Correct Answer :
Perpetuity
Details
3 It is an example of intangible assets.
Correct Answer :
patents
Details
4 It is a form of fixed-interest security issued by central or local governments, companies, banks,

or other institutions. They are usually a form of long-term security, but may be irredeemable.
Correct Answer :
t-bills
Details
5 _______ is a type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns (stocks, bonds
of its subsidiaries).
Correct Answer :
collateral trust bond
Details
6 _______ is a type of bond which does not have security except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation.
Correct Answer :
debenture
Details
7 What is the type of bond issued jointly by two or more corporations?
Correct Answer :
joint bond
Details
8 The corporation's owner name is recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners
with their asking for it is known as _______.
Correct Answer :
registered bond
Details
9 What is an increase in the value of a capital asset?
Correct Answer :
capital gain
Details
10 The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is known as ________.
Correct Answer :
capital loss
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 A negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit is called _________.
Correct Answer :
certificate of deposit
Details
2 It is any particular raw material or primary product.
Correct Answer :
commodity
Details
3 What denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of other? The term usually
applies to floating exchange rates.
Correct Answer :
currency depreciation
Details
4 ________ is the amount of company's profits that the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders.
Correct Answer :
dividend
Details
5 It is a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security.
Correct Answer :
coupon
Details
6 A market condition where there are two buyers and two sellers is called _________.
Correct Answer :
bilateral duopoly
Details
7 In case of bankruptcy a partnership.
Correct Answer :
the partners’ personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
Details
8 Which is true about corporations?

Correct Answer :
the stockholders of the corporation only liable to the extent of their investments
Details
9 It is defined as the capacity of commodity to satisfy human want.
Correct Answer :
luxuries
Details
10 What is the profit obtained by selling at a higher price than its original purchase price?
Correct Answer :
capital gain
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 It is a financial summary showing the relationship among assets, liabilities, and ownership in the
corporation on a specific date.
Correct Answer :
balance sheet
Details
2 What is the ratio of the annual net profit to the amount of capital invested?
Correct Answer :
rate of return
Details
3 What is the difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold?
Correct Answer :
gross profit
Details
4 It is also known as second hand value.
Correct Answer :
salvage value
Details
5 It represents the ownership, and enjoys certain preference than ordinary stock.
Correct Answer :
preferred stock
Details
6 An intangible value which is actually operating concern has due to its operation.
Correct Answer :
going value
Details
7 It is the satisfaction or pleasure that an individual derives from the consumption of a good or
services.
Correct Answer :
utility
Details
8 What is an intangible item of value arising from the exclusive right of the company to provide a
specified product and service in a certain region of the country?
Correct Answer :
franchise value
Details
9 The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given time and
place is called __________.
Correct Answer :
supply
Details
10 The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and place is
called:
Correct Answer :
demand
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What do you call the place where sellers and buyers come together?
Correct Answer :
market
Details
2 It is a market situation where there are few sellers and few buyers.
Correct Answer :
oligopsony
Details
3 It is a market situation where there is one seller and one buyer.
Correct Answer :
bilateral monopoly
Details
4 _________ is an agreed payment made to an owner of an industrial property right for the grant
of an exclusive sell for profit of the item concerned.
Correct Answer :
royalty
Details
5 It is a form of indirect tax which is incorporated into the selling price of a product and which is
borne by the customer.
Correct Answer :
EVAT
Details
6 EVAT means:
Correct Answer :
Expanded Value Added Tax
Details
7 A market that deals in long term company securities (stocks and shares) and government
securities (bonds) is called _________.
Correct Answer :
stock market
Details
8 ________ is the negotiation of wage rates, conditions of employment, etc. by representatives of

the labor force and management.
Correct Answer :
collective bargaining
Details
9 What is a form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their
mutual benefit?
Correct Answer :
cooperative
Details
10 The sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs of replacement, operation and
maintenance for a long time or forever is called ___________.
Correct Answer :
capitalized cost
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 _______ is obtained by setting the sum of the values on a certain comparison or focal date of
one set of obligations equal to the sum of the values on the same date of another set of obligations.
Correct Answer :
equation of value
Details
2 The book value where the original accounts are recorded is called ______.
Correct Answer :
journal
Details
3 It is the point where the cost of an order (ordering cost) will approximately compensate with the
inventory carrying cost.
Correct Answer :
economic order quantity
Details
4 What is the process of determining the value of certain property?
Correct Answer :
appraisal
Details
5 A form of report stating the financial status of an individual or firm at a particular time.
Correct Answer :
balance sheet
Details
6 ______ is a contra-asset, uncollectible as the result of customer's non-payment of their

accounts.
Correct Answer :
Bad debt
Details
7 A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed
to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.
Correct Answer :
Cartel
Details
8 What is the series of equal payments made at equal interval of time?

Correct Answer :
annuity
Details
9 The length of time needed to recover the capital.
Correct Answer :
payback period
Details
10 It is the stock that has prior right to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.
Correct Answer :
Pretend stock
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 The value of stock as stated on the stocks certificate.
Correct Answer :
Par value
Details
2 A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many sellers.
Correct Answer :
Duopsony
Details
3 The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
Correct Answer :
Break-even
Details
4 The amount which has been spend or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.
Correct Answer :
Sunk cost
Details
5 Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
Correct Answer :
Authorized capital
Details
6 It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.
Correct Answer :
Journal
Details
7 The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.
Correct Answer :
Economic life
Details
8 The amount received from the sale of an additional unit of a product.
Correct Answer :
Marginal revenue
Details
9 The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called:
Correct Answer :
Prime cost
Details
10 The addition cost of producing one more unit.
Correct Answer :
Marginal cost
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic change to
operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged
programs is called ______.
Correct Answer :
Amortization
Details
2 Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?
Correct Answer :
First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
Details
3 The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period
is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Effective interest
Details
4 Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:
Correct Answer :
Net income to owner’s equity
Details
5 Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.
Correct Answer :
Net sale
Details
6 What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?
Correct Answer :
Quick ratio
Details
7 What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity?
Correct Answer :
Consol
Details
8 What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of

regulating the price of that product?
Correct Answer :
Buffer stock
Details
9 The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.
Correct Answer :
Solvency
Details
10 The length of time needed to recover the capital.
Correct Answer :
payback period
Details
Questions
Correct Wrong
1 What is the basic accounting equation?
Correct Answer :
Assets = liability + owner’s equity
Details
2 The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:
Correct Answer :
Details
3 What is an index of short-term paying ability?

Correct Answer :
Current ratio
Details
4 The common ratio is the ratio of:
Correct Answer :
Current assets to current liabilities
Details
5 What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?
Correct Answer :
Quick ratio
Details
6 What is the ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities?
Correct Answer :
Quick ratio
Details
7 What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
Correct Answer :
Receivables turnover
Details
8 Receivable turnover is the ratio of:
Correct Answer :
Net credit sales to average net receivables
Details
9 What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?

Correct Answer :
Return of investment ratio
Details
10 What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?
Correct Answer :
Price-earnings ratio
Details
LAWS
1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?
Correct Answer :
R. A. 7925
2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as:
Correct Answer :
Municipal Telephone Act of 2000
3. What is otherwise known as ¡°The Maritime Communications Law¡±?
Correct Answer :
R. A. 3396
Details
4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the provision of
local exchange carrier service?
Correct Answer :
D.O. 109
5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes?
Correct Answer :
R. A. 3846
6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and Communications
Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations?
Correct Answer :
D. O. 88
7. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communicateons
satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?
Correct Answer :
E. O. 196
8. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and for
other purposes?
Correct Answer :
P. D. No. 576-A
9. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
Correct Answer :
MC No. 2-05-88
10. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
Correct Answer :
E. O. 436
1. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
Correct Answer :
E. O. 468
2. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the country?
Correct Answer :
E. O. 467
3. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
Correct Answer :
E. O. 205
4. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998 providing the
national policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the Philippines?
Correct Answer :
E. O. 467
5. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?
Correct Answer :
February 24, 1993
Correct Answer :
September 9, 1997
Correct Answer :
July 12, 1993
8. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?
Correct Answer :
June 30, 1987
9. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?
Correct Answer :
March 21, 1995
10. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?
Correct Answer :
March 1, 1995
1. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?
Correct Answer :
P. D. 1986
2. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?
Correct Answer :
P. D. 1987
3. What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal communication
having a global coverage using satellite?
Correct Answer :
GMPCS
4. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
Correct Answer :
National Telecommunications Commission
5. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce Promotion
Council?
Correct Answer :
DTI
6. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and members.
Correct Answer :
18
7. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.
Correct Answer :
30
8. MTRCB law defines an ¡°Adult¡± as a person years of age and above.
Correct Answer :
18
9. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
Correct Answer :
9 PM
10. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?
Correct Answer :
11 AM to 3 PM
1. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from local time.
Correct Answer :
6:00 to 11:00 PM
2. What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?
Correct Answer :
6 AM to 8 PM
3. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
Correct Answer :
5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
4. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?
Correct Answer :
6:00 AM to 8 PM
5. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from:
Correct Answer :
12 MN to 5 AM
6. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term ¡°nighttime¡± refers to the period
of time between UTC.
Correct Answer :
1000 to 2200
7. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 ¨C 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila?
Correct Answer :
20 kW
8. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and direct
supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?
Correct Answer :
1 kW
9. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?
Correct Answer :
50 kW
10. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro
Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 ¨C 13?
Correct Answer :
1000 kW
1. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour program.
Correct Answer :
15
2. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day.
Correct Answer :
45 minutes
3. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed breaks in every
program hour.
Correct Answer :
6
4. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed breaks per
program hour.
Correct Answer :
7
5. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one hour program.
Correct Answer :
17
6. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.
Correct Answer :
4
7. All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.
Correct Answer :
45 minutes
8. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of excluding intro, extro,
headline and commercial load.
Correct Answer :
1 minute
9. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how many breaks
in 1 hour?
Correct Answer :
6
10. TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day during
weekdays.
Correct Answer :
30 minutes
1. NTC Memorandum Circular states that ¡°type approval¡± shall not be required for terminal equipment
intended for connection to leased the circuits?
Correct Answer :
NTC MC 02-01-2001
2. NTC memorandum Circular requires Class B-1 to have a transmitter power of 500W and an effective
radiated power not lower than ______ watts.
Correct Answer :
1000
3. In NTC 03-11-2005, it states that any person or entity intending to register as VOIP service provider
has to post a performance bond of how much?
Correct Answer :
5 Million
4. What is otherwise known as the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines?
Correct Answer :
RA 8792
5. When is the effectivity date of the implementing Rules and Regulation of R.A. 9292?
Correct Answer :
October 2, 2007
6.What is the keystone of professional conduct?
Correct Answer :
integrity
7. In handling unsolicited or unwanted commercial and promotional advertisement and surveys,

complainants who are not satisfied with the action of the Public Telecom Entities or Content Providers
may bring the matter to the NTC in writing within _____ from receipt of the alleged text spam.
Correct Answer :
3 months
8. If an ECE is to appear as an expert witness in court arbitration hearings, the minimum fee chargeable
to the client will not be less than _____ attendance or appearance.
Correct Answer :
P 1000
9. The basic law providing for the regulations of radio station communications in the Philippines and
other purposes.
Correct Answer :
RA 3846
10. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics
Engineering?
Correct Answer :
Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to his appointment
1. As provided in ACT 3846, the construction of a radio station shall begin only when:
Correct Answer :
The NTC has already issued a Permit to construct.
2. As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure a franchise if:
Correct Answer :
it puts up its own network.
3. In accordance with Radio Laws and Regulations, a base station in the Land Mobile Service must
maintain entry in its logbook, for a period of _____ if emergency signal is received.
Correct Answer :
2 years
4. In accordance with the Philippine Electronic Code the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD)
of radiation associated with a radio transmitter for human being who is 54 years old is _____ rems.
Correct Answer :
180
5. Department Order No. 88 at the DPWTC also require the supervision of an ECE in the operation and
maintenance of any radio communications system composed of _____ more of any type of land radio
stations.
Correct Answer :
6
6. The maximum fine for any violation of RA 3846, an act of providing for the regulation of radio and
communications.
Correct Answer :
2 years
7. When was the IRR of RA 9292 approved by the PRC?
Correct Answer :
August 31, 2007
8. The minimum carrier output power of transmitters that require supervision of an Electronics Engineer
is_____.
Correct Answer :
1 kW
9. In class B FM transmitter, the antenna height must be at least _____ above the average terrain.
Correct Answer :
500 ft
10 The promulgation of the syllabi/table of specification for the subjects in the board licensure
examination for electronics technician (ECT) is also known as the Board of Electronics Engineering
_____.
Correct Answer :
Board Resolution No. 1 Series of 2011
1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
Correct Answer :
Lightning
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from minor
discomfort to serious injury.
Correct Answer :
Acoustic Shock
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electric shock is:
Correct Answer :
current
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
Correct Answer :
1,000 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60 Hz rms current of _______ amperes and above
passes through one¡¯s chest cavity.
Correct Answer :
0.030
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
Correct Answer :
45 V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
Correct Answer :
135V DC
8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface separated by a
distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum potential gradient shall be no
greater than __________.
Correct Answer :
45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
9 It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage to plant
equipment possible.
Correct Answer :
Shielding
10. Prevents developments of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct bonding,
when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which operate under
abnormal voltage condition.
Correct Answer :
Voltage Limiting
1. current in circuit can be kept from rising above a predetermined value by the use of a fuse in series
with a circuit.
Correct Answer :
Current limiting
2. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected and often
are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
Correct Answer :
Grounding
3. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its connection to
ground electrode.
Correct Answer :
Ground Resistance
4. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance must
never exceed _________.
Correct Answer :
5 ohms
5. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground resistance
must never exceed ________.
Correct Answer :
25 ohms
6. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance electrical
contact with the earth.
Correct Answer :
Made Ground
7. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to protect tall or
isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel) from lightning damage.
Correct Answer :
Lightning Rods
8. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
Correct Answer :
fuse
9. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal operating
potentials.
Correct Answer :
Surge arrester
10. It provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
Correct Answer :
Bonding or grounding
1. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:

Correct Answer :
Direct Method or two terminal test
2. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-centimeter.
Correct Answer :
Earth Resistivity
3. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
Correct Answer :
Place stones near the rod
4.Ground resistance shall be tested when installed nd periodically afterwards, at least _______ during
the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE
REQUIRED.
Correct Answer :
once a year
5All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least _________ to be sure
they are tight.
Correct Answer :
once a year
6. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240 kph wind
velocity.
Correct Answer :
Heavy Loading Zone
velocity.
Correct Answer :
Medium Loading Zone
velocity.
Correct Answer :
Light Loading Zone
9. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between _________ degrees Celsius.
Correct Answer :
15.5 and 32.2
10. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
_________ kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the equipment room
or location where people are staying.
Correct Answer :
10 kW
1 Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO
SMOKING” signs should be posted __________.
Correct Answer: inside the room only
2 An acid neutralizing agent such as _________ should be stored and available in battery rooms
for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
Correct Answer: Caustic soda
3 A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
Correct Answer: Bond
4 The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for linemen
to equipment conductors located thereon.
Correct Answer: Climbing Space
5 Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the protector at
the house or building.
Correct Answer: dropwire
6 A physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in a

required manner.
Correct Answer: fault
7 A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
Correct Answer: Fault current
8 An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured readily when
subjected to flame.
Correct Answer: Flame Proof
9 A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to burn
for longer times that specified in the appropriate flame test.
Correct Answer: Flame Retarding

10 A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation, between
parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage such that the breakdown
path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
Correct Answer: Flashover
1 A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit or

equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent that serves in
place of the earth.
Correct Answer: ground
2 A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced force
on a pole or other overhead line structures.
Correct Answer: Guy
3 A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree and is sometimes called span guy.
Correct Answer: Overhead guy
4 An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
Correct Answer: Handhole
5 A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge current
to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
Correct Answer: Lightning Arrester
6 A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more conduit
runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors, cables and any
associated apparatus.
Correct Answer: Manhole
7 Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
Correct Answer: messenger
8 A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a communication
company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
Correct Answer: plant
9 A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
Correct Answer: Ground rod

10 A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to earth by a
heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
Correct Answer: Lightning rod
1 The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises.
Correct Answer: Service drop
2 The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at that
elevation.
Correct Answer: Tower displacement
3 The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind load
position at that elevation.
Correct Answer: Tower sway
4 The horizontal angular displacement of the tower its no-wind position at that elevation.
Correct Answer: Tower Twist
5 Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
Correct Answer: underground
6 Defined as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross connecting point
within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
Correct Answer: service entrance
7 A type of serve entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a pole to a
building.
Correct Answer: Aerial entrance
8 A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimize the need for
possible subsequent repairs to the property.
Correct Answer: Underground entrance
9 It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are terminated.
Correct Answer: main terminals
10 A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal blocks.
Correct Answer: Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
1 The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other special services is:
Correct Answer: blue

2 The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an entrance is:
Correct Answer: white
3 The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used risers is:
Correct Answer: yellow
4 A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will exceed 300
pairs.
Correct Answer: Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
5 Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines between
two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building generally originating at or near
the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
Correct Answer: Riser System
6 A riser system usually extents from the ground to the roof top of the building with no floor
separation similar to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless places in metallic
conduit.
Correct Answer: Open Riser
7 A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets vertically or non-
vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and extending throughout the height of the
building.
Correct Answer: Closed Riser
8 Type of distribution system that provides concealment of the wires with the least flexibility.
Correct Answer: Conduit System
9 Type of distribution system comprise of two component, distribution ducts and feeder (header)
ducts. Depending on the floor structure, they may be designed into a one or two, they may be designed
into a one or two-level system.
Correct Answer: Under floor duct system
10 Type of distribution system that serves the same floor where the cables (wires) are placed
within the ceiling and brought down to desk locations.
Correct Answer: Ceiling system
1 Type of distribution system comprises of two distinct components, distribution cells and feeder
(header) ducts. Depending on the floor structure, the distribution cells may be constructed of steel or
concrete.
Correct Answer: Cellular floor system

2 It is a floor assembly elevated with respect to an existing area providing unlimited accessible
space under the floor. This has been used for computer rooms and office space.
Correct Answer: Unlimited access (raised floor)
3 It is typically a box-type made of steel or fiber glass usually prefabricated in standard sizes with
cover and knockout holes, for in-building telephone distribution.
Correct Answer: Cabinet
4 It is a room of shallow enclosure which is normally enclosed by a door (or a series of doors in the
case of a shallow closet).
Correct Answer: Closet
5 A closet which varies from 460 to 760 mm in depth.
Correct Answer: Shallow closet
6 The place where customer’s communication lines are terminated and where the equipment
which interconnects those lines are located.
Correct Answer: central office
7 A suitable enclosure large enough to house a key telephone systems apparatus, power
equipment and terminating facilities for key telephone system stations and services, as well as central
closets, zone closets, or riser closets, according to the design of the underfloor raceway or riser system.
Correct Answer: Apparatus Closet
8 Refers to the physical cable within a building that does not include station wiring cable.
Correct Answer: building cable
9 An assembly of cellular metal or concrete floor raceways units forming part of continuous floor
structure.
Correct Answer: Cellular floor system
10 A load-bearing floor unit containing one or more longitudinal cells which may be closed on all
the sides or open at top or bottom.
Correct Answer: cellular floor unit
1 According to NTC MC 4-09-88 or the PRESCRIBED EQUIPMENT FOR SHIP STATIONS OF VARIOUS
VESSELS PLYING DOMESTIC ROUTES AND OTHER REQUIREMENT, 156.8 MHz is used for _______.
Correct Answer: VHF International Distress Channel
2 According to NTC MC 4-09-88 or the PRESCRIBED EQUIPMENT FOR SHIP STATIONS OF VARIOUS
VESSELS PLYING DOMESTIC ROUTES AND OTHER REQUIREMENT, 156.3 MHz is used for _______.
Correct Answer: Intership
3 Based on Memorandum Circular MC No. 4-09-88 (Prescribed Equipment for Ship Stations of
Various Vessels Plying Domestic Routes and Other Requirements)what is the Prescribed Radio
Installation for Cargo Vessels below 350 GT and less than 5 hours of navigation.
Correct Answer: Radio installation option
Various Vessels Plying Domestic Routes and Other Requirements) what is the Prescribed Radio
Installation for Passenger Vessels below 350 GT and less than 5 hours of navigation.
Correct Answer: Radio installation optional
Various Vessels Plying Domestic Routes and Other Requirements) what is the Prescribed Radio
Installation for Passenger Vessels 350 GT above and more than 5 hours of navigation.
Correct Answer: All of these choices
6 The amendments of Memorandum Circular No. 4-09-88 or the PRESCRIBED EQUIPMENT FOR
SHIP STATIONS OF VARIOUS VESSELS PLYING DOMESTIC ROUTES AND OTHER REQUIREMENT can be
seen on.
Correct Answer: NTC MC 03-06-2016
7 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, PASSENGER SHIPS at bay, river, harbor and
lakes or engaged on a coastwise voyage are required to have:
Correct Answer: VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS (150 GT and
above) & AIS (300 GT and above)
8 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, CARGO SHIPS at bay, river, harbor and
above) & AIS (500 GT and above)
9 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, TANKERS at bay, river, harbor and lakes or
engaged on a coastwise voyage are required to have:
Correct Answer: VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS regardless of size
10 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, TUG and DREDGERS at bay, river, harbor
and lakes or engaged on a coastwise voyage are required to have:
Correct Answer: VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS
1 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, FISHING VESSELS at bay, river, harbor and
above)
2 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, YACHTS at bay, river, harbor and lakes or
engaged on a coastwise voyage are required to have:
above)
3 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, HIGHSPEED CRAFTS at bay, river, harbor
Correct Answer: VHF, MF/HF SSB Radio installation (20-100 Watts Power Output), GPS regardless of size
4 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, SPECIAL PURPOSE SHIPS at bay, river,
harbor and lakes or engaged on a coastwise voyage are required to have:
5 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, MISCELLANEOUS SHIPS at bay, river, harbor
6 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, the required radio operator for any classes
and categories of ships that travels at bay, river, harbor and lakes must be a:
Correct Answer: Holder of at least Third Class Radiotelephone Operator Certificate (3PHN) or Special
Radio Operator Permit (SROP)
7 According to Memorandum circular No. 03-06-2016, the required radio operator for any classes
and categories of ships that are engaged on a coastwise voyage must be a:
Correct Answer: Holder of at least Second Class Radiotelephone Operator Certificate (2PHN)
8 According to NTC MC 03-06-2016 or the amendment of NTC MC 04-09-1988 PRESCRIBED

EQUIPMENT FOR SHIP STATIONS OF VARIOUS VESSELS PLYING DOMESTIC ROUTES AND OTHER
REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention, 2182 KHz is used for _______.
Correct Answer: HF/SSB International Distress Channel

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention, 4125 and 6215 KHz is used for _______.
Correct Answer:Alternate HF/SSB International Distress Channel

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention, 156.3 (Channel 6) is used for _______.
Correct Answer: Internship and Safety

Correct Answer: PCG/Harbormaster

Correct Answer: VHF International Distress, Safety and Calling

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention for vessels equipped with GMDSS, 2187.5 KHz
is used for _______.
Correct Answer: MF International Distress/Urgency/Safety Channel for Digital Selective Calling (DSC)

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention for vessels equipped with GMDSS,
4207.5/6312.0/8414.5/12577.0/16804.5 KHz is used for _______.
Correct Answer: HF International Distress/Urgency/Safety Channel for DSC

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention for vessels equipped with GMDSS, 156.525
MHz (Channel 70) is used for _______.
Correct Answer: Maritime Safety Information (NAVTEX)

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention for vessels equipped with GMDSS, 518 KHz is
used for _______.
Correct Answer: VHF International Distress/Urgency/Safety Channel for DSC

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention for vessels equipped with GMDSS, 406/121.5
MHz is used for _______.
Correct Answer: Emergency Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)

REQUIREMENT under Regulation 16 of SOLAS convention for vessels equipped with GMDSS, 9 GHz is
used for _______.
Correct Answer: Search and Rescue Radar Transponder (SART)
9 For vessels equipped with GMDSS, the radio operator requirement is:
Correct Answer: either at least two (2) deck officers (excluding the master) who are holders of General
Operator Certificate (GOC) or one (1) exclusive radio operator who is a holder of both GOC and Radio
Electronic Certificate (REC).
10 SOLAS means ____________.
Correct Answer: International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
1 Date of approval of RA 9292.
Correct Answer: April 17, 2004
2 There are _____ Articles and _____ sections in the RA 9292.
Correct Answer: 8, 43
3 Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules, regulations, the Code of
Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section_____.
Correct Answer: 35
4 The chairperson of the PRC shall include in the Commission’s program the implementation of RA
9292, the funding of w/c shall be included in the Annual General Appropriation Act.
Correct Answer: Sec 40
5 The statement of policy of RA 9292 is _____ of its implementing rules and regulations.
Correct Answer: Rule 1
6 When is the effectivity date of the implementing Rules and Regulation of R.A. 9292?
Correct Answer: October 2, 2007
7 What is the minimum fine for persons who violate a provision of R.A. 9292?
Correct Answer: P 100,000
8 If en ECE is to appear as an expert witness in court arbitration hearings, the minimum fee
chargeable to the client will not be less than _____ attendance or appearance.
Correct Answer: P 1000
9 Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics
Engineering?
Correct Answer: Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to his
appointment
10 When was the IRR of RA 9292 approved by the PRC?
Correct Answer: August 31, 2007
1 R.A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released within
_____ days after the examination.
Correct Answer: 15
2 The Board and the _____ shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers.
Correct Answer: Commission
3 According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore develop and nurture
competent, virtuous, productive, and _____ PECE, ECE, and ECTs.
Correct Answer: well-rounded
4 Within _____ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall issue Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Cards without examination to all applicants for registration
as Electronics Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20.
Correct Answer: 5 (five)
5 What is the title of Section 2 of RA 9292?
Correct Answer: Statement of Policy
Correct Answer: Composition of the Board
Correct Answer: Compensation and Allowances of the Board
Correct Answer: Qualifications for Examinations
Correct Answer: Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics Engineer
Correct Answer: Professional Oath

Correct Answer: Exemptions from Examination and Registration
Correct Answer: Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards of Practice
Correct Answer: Penal Provision
Correct Answer: Implementing Rules and Regulations
Correct Answer: Definition and Interpretation of Terms
Correct Answer: Powers and Functions of the Board
Correct Answer: Removal of Board Members
Correct Answer: Scope of Examination for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians
Correct Answer: Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card
Correct Answer: Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification

Card and Cancellation of Special Permits
Correct Answer: Practice of the Profession
Correct Answer: Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs
Correct Answer: Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies

Correct Answer: Appropriations
Correct Answer: Categories of Practice
Correct Answer: Qualifications of Board Members
Correct Answer: Removal of Board Members
Correct Answer: Ratings
Correct Answer: Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians
Correct Answer: Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration and

Professional Identification Card
SECTION 8.9
1. What is the title of Section 28 of RA 9292?
Correct Answer : Prohibitions and Limitations on the Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics
Technician Profession
Correct Answer : Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization
Correct Answer : Transitory Provision
Correct Answer : Separability Clause

Correct Answer : Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician
Professions
Correct Answer : Term of Office
Correct Answer : Licensure Examination
Correct Answer : Release of the Results of Examination
Correct Answer : Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional Identification Card for
Certain Grounds
Correct Answer : Roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics
Technicians
Correct Answer : Seal of the Professional Electronics Engineers
Correct Answer : Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and Licensed
Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians
Correct Answer : Vested Rights
4 To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician
must obtain a passing rating of seventy percent (70%) in each subject given during the examination.
However, if a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating
in the other subject/s below seventy percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%), shall be
allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing
rating: Provided, finally, that should the examinee fail to obtain a passing rating in the removal
examination, he/she shall be considered as having failed the entire licensure examination. In which
section of RA 9292 can this rule be found?
Correct Answer : Section 16
5 The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of three (3) years from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed
once for another term. Any vacancy occurring within the term of a member shall be filled for the
unexpired portion of the term only: provided, that the member appointed to serve the unexpired term
may be re-appointed more than once for as long as his/her continuous tenure shall not exceed six (6)
years. Under what section of RA 9292 can this paragraph be found?
6 The following shall be the engineering and technician categories covered by RA 9292:
(a) Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE)
(b) Electronics Engineer (ECE)
(c) Electronics Technician (ECT)
Under what section of RA 9292 do this statements belong?
7 The examination for Electronics Engineers shall consist of written tests which shall cover
subjects prescribed by the Board but including at least the following: Mathematics, Applied Sciences,
Engineering Economics, Laws and Ethics, Electronics, Communications, Computers, and Information and
Communications Technology. Under what section of RA 9292 is this statement found?
8 No person shall offer himself/herself in the Philippines as, or use the title "Professional
Electronics Engineer", "Electronics Engineer" or "Electronics Technician", or use any word, letter figure,
or sign whatsoever, tending to convey the impression that he/she is a Professional Electronics Engineer,
Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician, or advertise that he/she is qualified to perform the work
of a Professional Electronics Engineer, Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician, without holding a
valid Certificate of Registration and a valid Professional Identification Card in accordance to RA 9292,
except as provided under Section 26. Under what section of RA 9292 is this found?
Correct Answer : Practice of the Profession
9 All registered Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers, and Electronics

Technicians, shall comply with pertinent rules and regulations already prescribed by and/or as may be
prescribed and promulgated by the Commission and/or the Board, the Accredited Professional
Organization and other government agencies, and other relevant laws, international treaties,
agreements and/or covenants to which the Philippines is a signatory and has ratified, with respect to
continuing professional education and/or development and/or other similar/related programs. Under
what section of RA 9292 is this found?
Correct Answer :Section 31
10 The following statements are some of the functions of the Electronics Engineering Board.
1 The scope and nature of practice of the Professional Electronics Engineer shall embrace and
consist of all of the mentioned fields under the scope and nature of practice of the Electronics Engineers
plus the sole authority to provide consulting services and to sign and seal electronics plans, drawings,
permit applications, specifications, reports and other technical documents prepared by himself/herself
and/or under his direct supervision. Under what section of RA 9292 thus this statement belong?
2 This article talks about General Provisions regarding Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE I

3 This article talks about the Professional Regulatory Board of Electronics Engineering of
Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE II
4 This article talks about the Practice of Professional Electronics Engineering, Electronics
Engineering and Electronics Technicians of Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE IV
5 This article talks about Sundry Provisions of Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE V
6 This article talks about the Examination, Registration and Licensure Electronics Engineering Law
of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE III
7 This article talks about the Penal Provision and Assistance of Law Enforcement Agencies of
Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE VI
8 This article talks about the Transitory Provisions of Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE VII
9 This article talks about the Final Provisions of Electronics Engineering Law of 2004.
Correct Answer : ARTICLE VIII
10 “Statement of Policy” is what section of RA 9292?

1 “Nature and Scope of Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics Technician Professions”
is what section of RA 9292?
2 “Term of Office” is what section of RA 9292?
3 “Licensure Examination” is what section of RA 9292?
4 “Qualifications for Examinations” is what section of RA 9292?
5 “Qualifications and Schedule of Registration for Professional Electronics Engineer” is what

section of RA 9292?
6 “Professional Oath” is what section of RA 9292?
7 “Exemptions from Examination and Registration” is what section of RA 9292?
8 “Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards of Practice” is what section of RA 9292?

9 “Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and Licensed Professional
Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians” is what section of RA 9292?
10 “Vested Rights: Electronics and Communications Engineers when this Law is Passed” is what
section of RA 9292?
SECTION 8.10
1 “Repealing Clause” is what section of RA 9292?
2 “Definition and Interpretation of Terms” is what section of RA 9292?
3 “Powers and Functions of the Board” is what section of RA 9292?
4 “Removal of Board Members” is what section of RA 9292?
5 “Ratings” is what section of RA 9292?
6 “Registration without Examination for Electronics Technicians” is what section of RA 9292?

7 “Reinstatement, Re-issuance or Replacement of Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card” is what section of RA 9292?
8 “Prohibitions and Limitations on the Practice of Electronics Engineering and Electronics

Technician Profession” is what section of RA 9292?
9 “Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization” is what section of RA 9292?
10 “Assistance of Law Enforcement and Other Government Agencies” is what section of RA 9292?
1 “Appropriations” is what section of RA 9292?
2 “Categories of Practice” is what section of RA 9292?
3 “Qualifications of Board Members” is what section of RA 9292?
4 “Custodian of Board Records, Secretariat and Support Services” is what section of RA 9292?
5 “Release of the Results of Examination” is what section of RA 9292?

6 “Non-issuance of a Certificate of Registration and/or Professional Identification Card for Certain
Grounds” is what section of RA 9292?
7 “Roster of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians”

is what section of RA 9292?
8 “Seal of the Professional Electronics Engineers” is what section of RA 9292?
9 “Foreign Reciprocity” is what section of RA 9292?
10 “Transitory Provision” is what section of RA 9292?
1 “Separability Clause” is what section of RA 9292?
2 “Composition of the Board” is what section of RA 9292?
3 “Compensation and Allowances of the Board” is what section of RA 9292?
4 “Scope of Examination for Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technicians” is what section of
RA 9292?

5 “Issuance of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card” is what section
of RA 9292?
6 “Revocation and Suspension of Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card and

Cancellation of Special Permits” is what section of RA 9292?
7 “Practice of the Profession” is what section of RA 9292?
8 “Continuing Professional Education (CPE) and/or Development Programs” is what section of RA

9292?
9 “Penal Provision” is what section of RA 9292?
10 “Implementing Rules and Regulations” is what section of RA 9292?
SECTION 8.11
1 An act mandating and strengthening the Continuing Professional Development Program for all
regulated professions, creating the continuing professional development council, and appropriating
funds therefore, and for other related purposes. It is otherwise known as Continuing Professional
Development Act of 2016.
Correct Answer : RA 10912
2 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to what a learner can be expected to know,
understand and/or demonstrate as a result of a learning experience.
Correct Answer : Learning outcomes
3 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to learning that has been acquired in
addition or alternatively to formal learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according
to educational and training arrangements.
Correct Answer : Nonformal learning
4 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to learning that occurs in daily life assessed,
through the recognition, validation and accreditation process, and which can contribute to a
qualification.
Correct Answer : Informal learning
5 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to a set of learning activities accredited by
the CPD Council such as seminars, workshops, technical lectures or subject matter meetings, nondegree
training lectures and scientific meetings, modules, tours and visits, which equip the professionals with
advanced knowledge, skills and values in specialized or in an inter- or multidisciplinary field of study,
self-directed research and/or lifelong learning.
Correct Answer : Continuing Professional Development Program
6 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to educational arrangements such as

curricular qualifications and teaching-learning requirements that take place in education and training
institutions recognized by relevant national authorities, and which lead to diplomas and qualifications.
Correct Answer : Formal learning
7 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refer to structured or unstructured learning

initiatives, which make use of the internet and other web-based Information and Communications
Technology solutions.
Correct Answer : Online learning activities
8 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to learning activities undertaken throughout
fife for the development of competencies and qualifications of the professional.
Correct Answer : Lifelong learning
9 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to a person’s skills, knowledge and
competencies that have been acquired through work experience, training, independent study, volunteer
activities and hobbies, that may be applied for academic credit, as a requirement of a training program
or for occupational certification.
Correct Answer : Prior learning
10 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to an ability that extends beyond the
possession of knowledge and skills, which include cognitive, functional, personal and ethical.
Correct Answer : Competence
1 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to a status gained after a person has been
assessed to have achieved learning outcomes or competencies in accordance with the standard
specified for a qualification title, and is proven by a document issued by a recognized agency or body.
Correct Answer : Competence
2 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to learning activities such as online training,
local/international seminars/non-degree courses, institution/company-sponsored training programs,
and the like, which did not undergo CPD accreditation but maybe applied for and awarded CPD units by
the respective CPD Council.
Correct Answer : Self-directed learning
3 According to Republic Act 10912, _________ refers to the inculcation of advanced knowledge,
skills and ethical values in a post-licensure specialization or in an inter- or multidisciplinary field of study,
for assimilation into professional practice, self-directed research and/or lifelong learning.
Correct Answer : Continuing Professional Development
Correct Answer : Definition of Terms

Correct Answer : Effectivity
Correct Answer : Career Progression and Specialization
Correct Answer : Nature of CPD Programs
Correct Answer : CPD as Mandatory Requirement in the Renewal of Professional License and
Accreditation System for the Practice of Professions
Correct Answer : Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the PRC and the Professional Regulatory
Boards (PRBs)
Correct Answer : Implementing Rules and Regulations
Correct Answer : Secretariat
Correct Answer : Recognition of Credit Units
Correct Answer : Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Council

Correct Answer : Funding
Correct Answer : Fraud Relating to CPD
Correct Answer : Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the PRC and the Professional Regulatory
Boards (PRBs)
Correct Answer : Repealing Clause
Correct Answer : Role of Concerned Government Agencies and the Private Sector
Correct Answer : Strengthening the CPD Program
Correct Answer : Recognition of Credit Units
1 What does ARQF mean?
Correct Answer : ASEAN Qualifications Reference Framework
2 What does ASEANMRA mean?
Correct Answer : ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement

3 The Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of Republic Act 10912, known as “Continuing
Professional Development (CPD) Act of 2016” was dated for publication in the Official Gazette on.
Correct Answer : February 28, 2017
4 The date of effectivity of “Continuing Professional Development (CPD) Act of 2016” is on.
Correct Answer : March 15, 2017
5 CPD Act of 2016, in accordance with Article IV, Section 27 (1) of the Constitution, was lapsed
into law on.
Correct Answer : July 21, 2016
6 The Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of Republic Act 10912, known as “Continuing
Professional Development (CPD) Act of 2016” under Resolution No. 1032 series of 2017 of Professional
Regulations Commission (PRC) was signed by Commissioner Chairman Teofilo S. Pilando on.
Correct Answer : February 15, 2017
7 CPD Act of 2016 was consolidated by:
Correct Answer : House Bill No. 6423 and Senate Bill No. 2581
8 According to the CPD Council of Electronics Engineering, how many CPD points is required for a
Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE) to renew his/her license?
Correct Answer : 60 Credit Units
9 According to the CPD Council of Electronics Engineering, how many CPD points is required for a
Registered Electronics Engineer (RECE) to renew his/her license?
Correct Answer : 45 Credit Units
10 According to Republic Act 10912, under the Academic track, how many CU points does a
Professorial Chair can get?
Correct Answer : 15 CU per year

SECTION 8.12
1 According to Republic Act 10912, an article published in a referred/peer reviewed professional

journal can also be accepted to accumulate CU points. The author could get ______ if the article is in
LOCAL reviewed professional journal.
Correct Answer : 10 CU points

journal can also be accepted to accumulate CU points. The author could get ______ if the article is in
INTERNATIONAL reviewed professional journal.

journal can also be accepted to accumulate CU points. The peer reviewer could get ______ per article.

journal can also be accepted to accumulate CU points. If there are more than one authors, how many
points does each one of them can get?
Correct Answer : The CU points will be divided equally among them.
5 According to Republic Act 10912, a pamphlet/book or monograph that was published can also
be accepted to accumulate CU points. The author could get ______ for single authorship for a pamphlet
of less than 100 pages.

6 According to Republic Act 10912, a pamphlet/book or monograph that was published can also
be accepted to accumulate CU points. The author could get ______ for single authorship for a
book/monograph of more than 100 pages.
7 It is stated in this Section of RA 10912 that the PRC and the PRBs, in consultation with the
AIPO/APO and other stakeholders, shall promulgate the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) within
six (6) months from the effectivity of the CPD Act.
8 The PRC and the PRBs shall undertake the overall implementation of the CPD Programs, and for
this purpose, shall:
(i) Organize CPD Councils for each of the regulated professions and promulgate guidelines for their
operation;
(ii) Review existing and new CPD Programs for all of the regulated professions;
(iii) Formulate, issue, and promulgate guidelines and procedures for the implementation of the CPD
Programs;
(iv) Coordinate with the academe, concerned government agencies, and other stakeholders in the
implementation of the CPD Programs and other measures provided under this Act; and
(v) Coordinate with concerned government agencies in the development of mechanisms and guidelines,
in the grant and transfer of credit units earned from all the learning processes and activities.
What Section of RA 10912 is being mentioned here?
9 The CPD is made as a mandatory requirement in the renewal of the Professional Identification
Cards (PICs) of all registered and licensed professionals under the regulation of the PRC. In what Section
of RA 10912 is this rule mentioned?

10 The policy for choosing the chairman and two (2) members that will form a CPD Council for a
specific profession shall be under the supervision of the concerned PRB. What are the guidelines in
choosing the chairman and the two (2) members?
Correct Answer :
(1) The chairperson of the CPD Council shall be the member of the PRB so chosen by the PRB
concerned to sit in the CPD Council; (2) the first member shall be the president or officer of the
AIPO/APO duly authorized by its Board of Governors/Trustees; (3) the second member shall be the
president or officer of the national organization of deans or department chairpersons of schools,
colleges or universities offering the course requiring the licensure examination.
1 According to Republic Act 10912, Section ____, the PRC and the PRBs, in consultation with the
AIPO/APO, the Civil Service Commission (CSC), other concerned government agencies and industry
stakeholders, shall formulate and implement a Career Progression and Specialization Program for every
profession. The Career Progression and Specialization Program shall form part of the CPD.
Correct Answer : 12
2 All of the following are Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Council except:
Correct Answer : Make sure that the CPD Programs are economically affordable to each profession
3 It is stated in this Section of RA 10912 that the PRC shall review and approve the proposed
budget for each CPD Council, taking into consideration the reasonable expenses that will be incurred for
travel, honorarium/allowances, and per diems, when attending official CPD Council meetings or
performing other related functions assigned to them.
Correct Answer : Issue a Certificate of Good Standing for each accredited seminars provided by the
AIPO/APO
5 A CPD Council Secretariat is created at the PRC Central and Regional Offices to provide technical,
administrative and operational support to the CPD Councils and the PRBs in the implementation of the
CPD Programs. The CPD Council Secretariat shall be headed by an Executive Director to be appointed by
the PRC. Under what Section of RA 10912 is this provision mentioned?
6 According to this Section of RA 10912, all duly validated and recognized CPD credit units earned
by a professional shall be accumulated and transferred in accordance with the Pathways and
Equivalencies of the Philippines Qualification Framework (PQF).
7 According to Section ___ of RA 10912, there is hereby created a CPD Council in each of the
regulated professions, which shall be under the supervision of the concerned Professional Regulatory
Board (PRB). Every CPD Council shall be composed of a chairperson and two (2) members.
8 Due to the implementation of RA 10912, all concerned government agencies and private firms
and organizations employing professionals shall include the CPD as part of their human resource
development plan and program. In which section of the said law it was stated?
9 It is stated in this Section of 10912 that fraudulent acts relating to the implementation and
enforcement of CPD Act of 2016 shall be punishable under the pertinent provisions of the Revised Penal
Code, the New Civil Code and other applicable laws.
1 According to Republic Act 10912, Section ____, the PRC and the PRBs, in consultation with the
AIPO/APO, the Civil Service Commission (CSC), other concerned government agencies and industry
stakeholders, shall formulate and implement a Career Progression and Specialization Program for every
profession. The Career Progression and Specialization Program shall form part of the CPD.
Correct Answer :12
Correct Answer : Make sure that the CPD Programs are economically affordable to each profession
3 It is stated in this Section of RA 10912 that the PRC shall review and approve the proposed
budget for each CPD Council, taking into consideration the reasonable expenses that will be incurred for
travel, honorarium/allowances, and per diems, when attending official CPD Council meetings or
performing other related functions assigned to them.
Correct Answer : Issue a Certificate of Good Standing for each accredited seminars provided by the
AIPO/APO
5 A CPD Council Secretariat is created at the PRC Central and Regional Offices to provide technical,
administrative and operational support to the CPD Councils and the PRBs in the implementation of the
CPD Programs. The CPD Council Secretariat shall be headed by an Executive Director to be appointed by
the PRC. Under what Section of RA 10912 is this provision mentioned?
6 According to this Section of RA 10912, all duly validated and recognized CPD credit units earned
by a professional shall be accumulated and transferred in accordance with the Pathways and
Equivalencies of the Philippines Qualification Framework (PQF).
7 According to Section ___ of RA 10912, there is hereby created a CPD Council in each of the
regulated professions, which shall be under the supervision of the concerned Professional Regulatory
Board (PRB). Every CPD Council shall be composed of a chairperson and two (2) members.

8 Due to the implementation of RA 10912, all concerned government agencies and private firms
and organizations employing professionals shall include the CPD as part of their human resource
development plan and program. In which section of the said law it was stated?
9 It is stated in this Section of 10912 that fraudulent acts relating to the implementation and
enforcement of CPD Act of 2016 shall be punishable under the pertinent provisions of the Revised Penal
Code, the New Civil Code and other applicable laws.
1 “Role of Concerned Government Agencies and the Private Sector” is provided in what section of
RA 10912?
2 “Separability Clause” is provided in what section of RA 10912?
3 “CPD as Mandatory Requirement in the Renewal of Professional License and Accreditation

System for the Practice of Professions” is provided in what section of RA 10912?
4 “Strengthening the CPD Program” is provided in what section of RA 10912?

5 This article talks about Final Provisions regarding Continuing Professional Development Act of
2016.
Correct Answer : Article IV
6 CPD Program Implementation and Monitoring of Continuing Professional Development Act of

2016 is stated in.
Correct Answer : Article III
7 Rules and regulations for CPD Programs, CPD Councils and Secretariat of Continuing Professional
Development Act of 2016 is stated in.
Correct Answer : Article II
8 The title, policies and definition of terms of Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016 is
stated in.
Correct Answer : Article I
9 An act of creating the Department of Information and Communications Technology, defining its
powers and functions, appropriating funds therefor, and for other purposes. It is also known as
Department of Information and Communications Technology Act of 2015.
10 For registration with and without examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT), all
submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a certification from _____ registered PECEs vouching for
the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the applicant.
Correct Answer : at least 3

Geas Complete Naka PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Geas Complete Naka PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CHEMISTRY

Physical Chemistry Details

8 A branch of chemistry associated with nuclear reactions and isotopes.

10 A branch of chemistry concerned with interactions between light and matter.

6 It is said to be the fifth state of matter.

9 A phase change in which a solid is converted to liquid.

10 A phase change in which a gas is converted to liquid.

A phase change in which a liquid is converted to gas.

2 A phase change in which a liquid is converted to solid.

3 A phase change in which a gas is converted to solid.

4 A phase change in which a plasma is converted to gas.

5 A phase change in which a solid is converted to gas.

6 A phase change in which a gas is converted to plasma.

Chemical Properties Details

2 HCl being a strong acid is a __________.

3 Wood sawed in two is ____________.

4 Copper Sulfate (CuSO4) is dissolved in water

5 Aluminum Phosphate has a density of 2.566 g/cm3.

6 Which of the following are examples of matter?

8 The formation of gas bubbles is a sign of what type of change?

9 The mass of lead is a __________ property.

7 Table salt is a _________.

8 What type of mixture is air?

9 Carbon Dioxide is a __________.

10 What type of mixture is coffee?

All of these choices

5 _________ is a colloidal suspension with solid particles in a liquid.

6 _________ is a colloid with liquid particles in a liquid.

Solid Sol Details

10 It is used in separating gold from its ore.

1 ________ are the basic building blocks of matter.

2 A proton has a charge of:

3 An electron has a charge of:

4 A neutron has a charge of:

None of these choices

5 The unit mass of proton in kilogram is:

6 The unit mass of an electron in kilogram is:

7 Proton was discovered by:

8 Electron was discovered by:

Joseph John Thomson

9 Neutron was discovered by:

10 One Dalton (Da) is equal to:

1 The number of protons in the nucleus on an atom is called:

2 The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is called:

Atomic Weight Details

7 This atomic model is also known as the ¡®Billiard Ball Model¡¯.

John Dalton¡¯s Model

8 Also called the ¡®Raisin Bread Model¡¯ or Plum pudding Model.

J.J. Thomson¡¯s Model

Ernest Rutherford¡¯s Model

10 Also known as the ¡®Planetary Model of Atom¡¯.

Niels Bohr¡¯s Model

2 It states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

Law of Definite Proportions

Law of Multiple Proportions

Orientation Quantum Number

Principal Quantum Number

Azimuthal Quantum Number

Magnetic Quantum Number

Spin Quantum Number

Pauli¡¯s Exclusion Principle

Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

4 What are the first seven permitted values for n?