2014 SampleTest II-B (200Q) by Willy Segovia NO Answer.

You might also like

Download as doc, pdf, or txt
Download as doc, pdf, or txt
You are on page 1of 12

MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B

Courtesy of Engr. Willy Segovia as promised.

Note: This is a sample Test of 200 questions for practice purposes. How to use this Sample Test –
1) Save the entire file in another name with the highlighted answers intact.
2) Remove the highlights on the original set.
3) Start answering the questions. Give yourself exactly 4 hours.
4) Score yourself. Repeat as needed.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________

1. Registration of a mortgage covering a subdivision project can only be affected when the deed is accompanied by a
permit to mortgage issued by:
a. Local government unit
b. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
c. Home Insurance Guarantee Corporation
d. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
e. National Housing Authority

2. In the absence of any provision in the master deed of a residential condominium project, the interest of the unit
owners in the common area shall be:
a. Proportionate b. Based on value c. Equal d. Decided by the condominium corporation

3. Urban Development Housing Act:


a. R.A. 7279 b. R.A. 9279 c. R.A. 7927 d. R.A. 7972 e. None of the above

4. Condominium Act:
a. R.A. 4727 b. R.A. 4276 c. R.A. 2774 d. R.A. 4726 e. None of the above

5. Which of the following cannot be issued condominium certificates of titles:


a. One-level row houses c. Industrial warehouses e. None of the above
b. Townhouses d. Subdivision lots

6. The required number of votes of registered owners to authorize a condominium corporation to sell, or otherwise
dispose of the common areas in a condominium project is:
a. Two-thirds b. Unanimous c.Three-fourths d. Simple majority e. None of the above.

7. As provide by R.A. 7279, a developer of a project is required to develop an equivalent 20% of the project for --
a. Economic housing c. Open spaces e. None of the above
b. Commercial area d. Socialized housing

8. The area of triangular plot is computed by the formula:


a. Length x width c. 2 k x length x width e. None of the above
b. ½ x length x width d. Length x width x height

9. The technical description in the TCT of real property can readily be plotted on a sheet by using the following data:
a. Bearing and lot points (monuments) c. Distance and lot points (monuments) e. Bearing and tie line
b. BLLM and tie line d. Distance between lot points and bearing

10. A scale of 1:200 in surveying means:


a. 1 cm is equal to 200 meters b. 1 meter is equal to 200 meters c. 1 cm is equal to 20 meters
d. 1 meter is equal to 20 meters e. None of the above

11. The performance bond for a subdivision project may be in the form of a surety bond equivalent to:
a. 10% of development b. 40% of development cost c. 20% of development cost d. None of the above

12. The term of a condominium corporation is:


a. 50 years c. Co-terminus with duration of condominium project
b. 25 years d. Subject to agreement with the developer

13. A land survey always uses a reference point. It could be:


a. Bureau of Lands Location Monument c. Bureau of Lands Barrio Monument e. City Boundary Monument
b. Provincial Boundary Monument d. Any of the above

14. A kind of survey to determine the contours, levels and terrain of the property –
a. Cadastral survey b. Terrain survey c. Topographic survey d. Hydrographic survey

15. In global mapping, the angular unit of measure of lines parallel to the equator are called –
a. Longitude b. Lattitudes c. Parallels d. Meridians

16. In mixed use condominium project, the distribution of shareholdings shall be based on --
a. One share per unit c. Number of bedrooms

Page 1 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
b. In proportion to floor area d. Any of the above
17. A subdivision plan needs only the approval of the Land Registration or Land Management Bureau to effect
segregation of titles when the resulting number of lot is:
a. Nine (9) or less b.Twelve (12) or less c. Ten (10)or less d. Fifteen (15) or less

18. A set of reference grid lines running north and south (meridians), and east and west (parallels) --
a. Metes and Bounds b. Cardinal Direction c. Rectangular Survey d. Monuments e. None of the above

19. The name of the reference line used to measure longitude -


a. Greenwich meridian b. Equator c. North-south meridian d. East-west meridian

20. The body which serves as the umbrella of all agencies for the county’s national shelter program is:
a. National Housing Authority c. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council d. None of the above

21. The BIR will assess delinquent taxpayers for surcharge, compromise, and penalty interest at --
a. 10% interest per annum c. 20% interest per annum
b. 15% interest per annum d. 25% interest per annum

22. The documentary stamp tax on the sale of the property must be paid
a. Within 30 days from the date of notarization
b. Within five (5) days after the close of the month of the date of sale
c. Within ten (10) days after the close of the month of the date of sale
d. At the time of payment of the capital gains tax

23. If the property is an ordinary asset, what is the applicable tax?


a. Capital gains tax c. Percentage tax e. Creditable Withholding Tax
b. Excise tax d. Estate Tax

24. If the property is a capital asset, what is the applicable tax?


a. Capital gains tax c. Percentage tax e. Creditable Withholding Tax
b. Excise tax d. Estate Tax

25. If the property is not subject to value-added tax, what is the applicable tax?
a. Capital gains tax c. Percentage tax e. Creditable Withholding Tax
b. Excise tax d. Estate Tax

26. The chairman of the Local Board of Assessment Appeals in a city is:
a. City auditor b. City mayor c. City Register of Deeds d. City Engineer e. None of the above

27. The rate of real estate property tax in municipalities within the Metro Manila is not more than:
a. One-half percent of assessed value c. Two percent of assessed value
b. One percent of assessed value d. None of the above

28. The prescription period to collect real property taxes is -


a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 20 years d. 15 years

29. LGU levy on real estate equivalent to 1% of assessed value which shall be in additional to be basic real estate tax is:
a. Special real estate tax b. Ad valorem tax c. Special assessment fund tax d. Special education fund tax

30. The value placed on taxable property by the assessor for ad valorem tax purpose is:
a. Market value b. Economic value c. Assessed value d. Assessment value e. Appraised value

31. The documentary stamp tax for a deed of real estate mortgage is:
a. P15.00 for every P1,000.00 of the mortgage amount
b. P10.00 for every P1,000.00 of the mortgage amount
c. P10.00 for the first P5,000.00 of the mortgage amount plus P5.00 for every P5,000.00 thereafter
d. P20.00 for the first P5,000.00 of the mortgage plus P10.00 for every P5,000.00 thereafter

32. Unless validated, tax credit life span is only:


a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years e. 5 years

33. In payment of estate tax, an allowed deduction to the gross estate of a decedent is funeral expense which is:
a. 5% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is lower
b. 5% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is higher
c. 10% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is lower
d. 10% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is higher
e. None of the above

Page 2 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B

34. The zonal value of property can be obtained from:


a. Assessor’s Office b. Land Registration Authority c. Bureau of Internal Revenue d. All of the above

35. The schedule of fair market value in municipalities in Metro Manila is prepared by:
a. MMDA c. Sanggunian Bayan by ordinance
b. Concerned municipal assessor d. Bureau of Internal Revenue e. None of the above

36. The following compose the Board of Assessment Appeals in Makati City, except:
a. Registry of deeds b. City Assessor c. City Prosecutor e. City Engineer

37. A tax payer has _____ to redeem his real property which was levied and subsequently forfeited and acquired by the
local government for tax delinquency.
a. 1 year b. 4 years c. 60 days d. 3 years

38. For purpose of determining whether seller / transferor can be considered as habitually engaged in real estate
business, he should offer satisfactory evidence that he consummated least ____ taxable real estate transaction during
the preceding year.
a. Five b. Six c. Eight d. Ten e. Twelve

39. Under the new BIR Ruling, acquired asset of banks regardless of amount are subject to the creditable withholding
tax of:
a. 1.5% b. 3.0% c. 5.0% d. 6.0%

40. In case a false or fraudulent estate, donor or capital gains tax BIR form was willfully made how much surcharge
based on the deficiency shall be imposed?
a. 20% B. 25% c. 30% d. 50%

41. In a sale of property on installment plan, if payment in one year exceed 25%, how is the sale treated for tax
purposes?
a. Deferred sale b. Lump sum sale c. Partial sale d. Installment sale

42. The schedule of market value for ad valorem tax in municipalities outside Metro Manila is prepared by:
a. Municipal Assessors c. Sanggunian Panglalawigan
b. Provincial Assessors d. Provincial treasurer

43. The amount of family home equivalent to fair market consideration as allowable deduction from the estate of a
decedent.
a. P500,000.00 b. P1,000,000.00 c. P2,000,000 d. 750,000.00

44. The acquisition of land in advance of actual need based on present value for future planned development is referred
to under Urban Reform Law as:
a. Land assembly c. Urban renewal e. None of the above
b. Land banking d. New settlement

45. Removal of land from owner to another when a stream suddenly changes its course:
a. Avulsion b. Quarry c. Alluvium d. Alienation e. None of the above

46. The following are public dominion, except:


a. Navigable river b. Canal c. Public plaza d. Subdivision lots e. Natural resources

47. Public and private agricultural land is excluded from CARP when it has a slop or gradient of:
a. 9% b. 12% c. 15% d.18% e. None of the above

48. A former natural born Filipino citizen can acquire more than 5,000 sq.m. of urban land for business purpose under:
a. B.P. 185 b. P.D. 957 c. Act 2728 d. R.A. 7279 e. None of the above

49. It refers to land located in the fringes of built-up communities which has the provincial characterized but is favored
with the metropolis utilities, facilities and amenities.
a. Urban land b. Suburban Land c. Rural land d. Urbanizable land e. City satellite

50. The bundle of rights inherent in ownership without any limitations other than those imposed by law or contract is:
a. Fee Estate b. Leased fee estate c. Fee simple d. Tenancy in common

51. The right of a landowner to the ownership of everything which is produced by the land or which is incorporated or
attached thereto, either naturally or artificially is known as:

Page 3 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. Prescription b. Adverse possession c. Accession d. Laches

52. A rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible among competing user group is:
a. Land assembly b. On-site development c. Land use planning d. Urban renewal

53. The following are modes of acquiring lands for purpose of Urban Development and Housing Act, except:
a. Community mortgage b. Negotiated purchase c. Foreclosure d.Joint venture agreement e.Land swapping

54. The following are types of property description ordinarily used in deeds, contracts, offer to sell and lease except:
a. Technical description b. Coordinates c. Lot number d. Metes and bounds

55. Conversion permit of agricultural land of not more than 5 hectares shall be approved by:
a. Municipal agrarian officers d. USEC for Legal Affairs, DAR
b. Provincial agrarian officers e. DAR secretary
c. Regional agrarian reform officer

56. Urbanizable areas refer to sites which, considering present characteristics and prevailing conditions, display
marked and great potential of becoming urban areas within the period.
a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years e. 15 years

57. It refers to acquisition of lots varying ownership through purchase or expropriation for the purpose of planned and
rational development and socialized housing program without individual property boundary restrictions:
a. Land banking c. Land assembly c. Land swapping e. d. Land use plan e.None of the above

58. The following are modes of acquiring lands for the purposes of the Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992,
except:
a. Joint venture b. Community mortgage c. Expropriation d.Negotiated purchases e. Accretion

59. Under R.A. 7279, __________ shall be resorted to only when other modes or acquisition have been exhausted.
a. Negotiated purchase b. Expropriation c. Land consolidation d. Joint Venture Agreement

60. A stipulation in a mortgage contract where the mortgagee is authorized to appropriate the property upon default or
non-payment of debt is:
a. Dacion en pago b. Pactum de non Aliendo c. Tacita Reconduta d. Pactum commissorium

61. A contract where the property is hypothecated to secure an obligation where the creditor is given the right to
possess the property and collect the fruits thereof is:
a. Real estate mortgage b. Equitable mortgage c. Blanket mortgage d.. Antichresis

62. The conveyance of real estate in payment of an obligation is:


a. Pacto en retro sale b. Dacion en pago c. Cession of ownership d. Quit claim Deed e. Deed of waiver

63. A provision in the blanket mortgage that property fully paid shall be released from the mortgage:
a. Defeasance clause b. Automatic redemption clause c. Termination clause d. Acceleration clause

64. In the absence of a pre-nuptial agreement, the following are excluded from the community property, except:
a. Property acquired during the marriage by gratuitous title by either spouse unless otherwise provided by the donor
b. Fruit as well as income of property mentioned in letter (a) unless otherwise provided by the donor
c. Property acquired before the marriage by other spouse who has legitimate descendants by a former marriage and the fruit
as well as the income, if any, of such property.
d. Jewelry for personal and exclusive use of either spouse.

65. Title to an inherited property may be transferred to the sole heir upon payment of estate tax and
execution and registration of a legal document called:
a. Extra-judicial Settlement of Estate c. Affidavit of Adjudication
b. Extra-judicial Partition of Estate d. Affidavit of consolidation e. None of the above

66. It means that short of foreclosure, the mortgagor agrees to transfer ownership of the mortgaged property to the
mortgagee:
a. Dacion en pago b. Auction c. Redemption d. Pacto de retro e. None or the above

67. The right of an owner-lessor to receive the contract rent and reversion of the property at the end of the lease is called:
a. Fee simple b. Lease fee c. Net lease d. Leasehold e. None of the above

68. A mortgage which covers two or more properties is called:


a. Open mortgage b. Equitable mortgage c. Conventional mortgage d. Close mortgage e. Blanket mortgage

69. A legal provision which requires agreement for the sale of real estate to be in writing and subscribed to by the parties
to be enforceable by action:
a. Defeasance clause c. Statute of fraud e. Evidentiary rule

Page 4 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
b. Patrole evidence rule d. Enforceability clause

70. The maximum period, including renewals, that a foreigner who is an investor may lease land in the Philippines is:
a. 50 years b. 60 years c. 75 years d. 90 years

71. If a contract of sale is to deed of sale, contract to sell is to:


a. Pacto de retro sale b. Deed of sale with mortgage c. Deed of conditional sale d.. Dacion en pago

72. Registration of a real estate instrument can be given due course even without the presentation of the owner’s
duplicate certificate of title when the document is:
a. Notice of adverse claim c. Writ of attachment e. None of the above
b. Notice of Lis Pendens d. All of the above

73. Special power of attorney is necessary in the following cases, except:


a. To perform acts of administration
b. To lease real property for more than one year.
c. To convey real right on immovable property
d. To cancel any obligation gratuitously

74. Conjugal partnership can be dissolved by:


a. Legal separation b. Annulment of marriage c. Judicial separation of property d. Any of the above

75. A TCT has an annotation that says “subject to sec.4 Rule 74 of the Rules of Court. It means that the property is
subject to claim by any heir unduly deprived of lawful participation in the settlement of the decedents estate within”:
a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 6 years d. 10 years e. None of the above

76. In case of the refusal of the lessor to accept payment of the rental agreed upon, the lessee may either deposit by way of
consignation, the amount in --
a. Court c. City / Municipal Treasurer
b. Bank in the name of lessor d. Any of the above

77. Mr. Villanueva inherited a piece of land when he was still single. Then he got married on October 1, 2000 without a
marriage settlement. What is the nature of the property now that he is married?
a. Exclusive property c. Separate property e. Absolute Community property
b. Common property d. Conjugal property

78. A provision in a financing agreement which renders the remaining principal balance of the loan immediately due and
payable upon default in any stipulated installment.
a. Escalation clause c. Defeasance clause e. Acceleration clause
b. Break-even point d. Open-end loan provision

79. What is legitime?


a. An inherited property c. Reserved property for compulsory heirs
b. Child born out or wedlock d. A process of legitimization

80. A stipulation in an authority to sell entitles the broker to a commission even beyond the period of his authority if he
has registered and is negotiating with his buyer before the expiry date of his authority.
a. Open, non-exclusive listing c. Authority to overprice e. Hold over clause
b. Exclusive agency agreement d. “First come, First serve” rule

81. A buyer on installment who has paid at least two years of installments, under Republic Act No. 6552, is entitled to a
refund or 50% of total payments effected during the first five years and an additional ____ every year but not to exceed
90% of total payments made.
a. 5% b. 50% c. 20% d. 30% e. 10%

82. The retention unit of landowners under the CARP is :


a. 5 has. for the landowners and 3 has per child irrespective of age
b. 5 has. for the landowners and 3 has per child who must be at least 15 years old
c. 5 has. for landowners and 5 has per child whether or not they till the land or manage the farm
d. 5 has. for the landowners and 3 has per child at least 15 years old and is actually tilling the land or managing the farm
e. 5 has. for the landowners and 3 has per child who must be over 21 yrs. old

83. The zonal value of a property can be obtained from:


a. Bureau of Internal Revenue c. Registry of deeds e. Office of the sheriff
b. Assessor’s Office d. Land Registration Authority

84. For the exemption on capital gains tax to be valid, within how many months should a Seller use the proceeds to
purchase another home?
a. 9 months b. 36 months c.. 24 months d. 12 months e. 18 months
Page 5 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
85. Minimum size of lots for single-detached homes allowed by BP 220 for socialized housing –
a. 64 sqm b. 72 sqm c. 80 sqm d. 100 sqm

86. Minimum size of condominim unit for multi-family buildings allowed by BP 220 for socialized housing –
a. 18 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 22 sqm d. 24 sqm

87. The HLURB will accept an application for registration of a memorial park when development has reached –
a. 0% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 50%

88. A form of project development in which landowners contribute land only and the developer handles the rest –
a. Partnership b. Cooperative c. Corporate venture d. Joint venture

89. The following actions comprise due diligence in real estate transactions , except –
a. Broker must secure a certified true copy of the title
b. Exact location of the property should be physically verified
c. A zoning certification from LGU must be obtained.
d. The special power of attorney requires verification
e. None of the above.

90. Purchase of real estate at an auction –


a. Consolidation of ownership b. Adjudication c. Partition d. None of the above.

91. Lands acquired under Free Patent cannot be alienated within ___ years from issuance of patent:
a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 20 years

92. Lands acquired under a Certificate of Land Ownership cannot be alienated within ____ years from issuance:
a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 20 years

93. Agricultural lands acquired from land reform that are no longer suitable for agriculture can be converted to
residential after the lapse of ____ years:
a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 20 years

94. The country’s economic growth for 2013 is projected to be about –


a. 5% b. 6% c. 7% d. 8%

95. The most recent law which provides opportunities for the landless to have land for free –
a. RA 9700 b. RA 10023 c. RA6657 RA 3844

96. A financing program in which government assists the underprivileged and homeless to acquire land –
a. Pag-Ibig b. Community Mortgage c. Land banking d. Land assembly

97. Under PD 27, rice and corn tenants were entitled to ____ hectares of land if not irrigated:
a. 5 hectares b. 4 hectares c. 3 hectares d. 2 hectares

98. The following lands are exempt from agrarian land reform, except –
a. Parks b. School site c. Private farms d. Church sites e. Cemeteries

99. In financial analysis, a rate used to convert a future value into its present value –
a. Discount rate b. Cap rate c. Interest rate d. Internal rate

100. The name of the accredited integrated organization of real estate practitioners –
a. PAREB b. REBAP c. Phil-RES d. PRB-RES

101. An agreement where the seller, for a consideration, binds himself to reserve the property for the buyer within a
stipulated period is:
a. Escrow b. Contract to sell c. Option d. Listing e. Offer to sell

102. In the real estate business, another term of the owner is:
a. Customer b. Prospect c. Principal d. Alter Ego e. None of the above

103. Which of the following listings affords the best protection for real estate brokers:
a. Open listing b. Exclusive agency c. Multiple listing d. Exclusive right to sell e.None of the above

104. A real estate listing authority is:


a. A list of real estate properties held by one owner c. Employment of a broker by owner to sell or lease
b. A written list improvements on the land d. A rendition of property for valuation

105. A commission rate for the sale of real estate is determined by:
a. Standard rate approved by the brokers in a locality

Page 6 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
b. Fixed scheduled of commission approved by the BTRCP
c. Discretion of the seller
d. Agreement between seller and broker
e. None of the above

106. As an agent, the broker is usually authorized to do all of the following acts, except:
a. Advertise the listed property c. Place “for sale” sign on the listed property
b. Cooperate with other brokers to facilitate the sale d. Bind the principal in a contract of sale

107. An agreement where the payment is deposited with a third party for release on compliance with conditions.
a. Option b. Escrow c. Contract to sell d. Hold-over clause

108. A “Hold-over” clause entitles the broker to commission even after the lapse of his authority, if he --
a. Register his prospect during his authority c. Submit written acknowledgement of his buyer
b. Register and negotiate with his prospect during his authority d. None of the above

109. The term “ residential unit” as defined in the rent control law RA 9653 does not include:
a. Motels b. Hotels c. Pension houses d. All of the above

110. Lease of Residential units with monthly rental below ___________ is VAT exempt:
a. Php15,300 b. Php10,000 c. Php12,800 d. Php13,500 e. None of the above

111. The residential units covered by Rent Control are those with rent below _____ in NCR:
a. PhP 12,800. b. PhP 9,000. c. PhP 8,000. d. PhP 10,000.

112. A sum of money paid by a Lessee to guarantee the payment of rent –


a. Earnest money b. Time deposit c. Rental deposit d. Security deposit

113. A sum of money paid by a Lessee to guarantee that utilities will be paid and repairs will be made.
a. Earnest money b. Rental deposit c. Security deposit d. None of the above.

114. A system where several brokers agree to help each other sell their respective listings –
a. Multi-Listing System b. Cooperative c. Open Listing System d. Corporate brokerage

115. A an addition to an insurance policy that becomes a part of the contract -


a. Rider b. Addendum c. Extra Conditions d. Policy Extension

116. A government agency which issues visas for foreigners who will retire in the Philippines –
a. PRA b. DOT c. NEDA d. Immigration

117. The SRRV stands for –


a. Special Resident Retiree’s Visa c. Special Retirement Resident Visa
b. Special Retirement and Residence Visa d. Special Retirement and Residency Visa

118. The cost of money also known as?


a. Interest b. Present value c. Recurrent value d. None of the above

119. The use of borrowed fund to increase the profitability of an investment is --


a. Limited liability b. Debt Coverage c. Leverage d. Interim Financing

120. The fastest growing component of the Service sector of the economy in the last 3 years --
a. Tourism b. Construction c. BPO d. Real estate service

121. The law that made PAG-IBIG Membership mandatory --


a. PD 1752 b. PD1530 c. PD 4752 d. Executive Order No. 90

122. Developers can obtain capital by listing and selling shares through a stock exchange --
a. Public funding b. Pre-selling c. Traditional funding d. None of the above.

123. The function of money in the economy --


a. Unit of value b. Medium of exchange c. Store of value. d. All of the above.

124. The market condition expected when demand for a product equals supply available --
a. Equal distribution b. Equilibrium price c. Inflation d. Recession

125. Pag-ibig is also known as?


a. Home Development Mutual Fund c. Housing and Urban Coordinating Council
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board d. None of the above

126. The latest law governing the Pag-Ibig program --

Page 7 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. RA 9679 b. RA 9653 c. RA 9856 d. RA 9507

127. The law which governs companies who establish a real estate investment trust –
a. RA 9679b. RA 9653 c. RA 9700 d. RA 9507 e. RA 9856

128. Who is not qualified for a Pag-ibig housing loan?


a. 68 years old, a Pag-IBIG member c. Person who has legal capacity to acquire and encumber real property
b. A person who does not have any outstanding loan d. All of the above

129. When the loan is fully amortized by equal monthly payments, the amount applied to principal -
a. Increases while interest payment decreases c. Decreases while interest payment increases
b. Remains constant d. Increase by a constant amount

130. To be eligible for a PAG-IBIG housing loan, how many months of mandatory savings should a member remit at the
time of loan application?
a. 12 months b. 36 months c. 30 months d. 24 months e. 40 months

131. In land acquisitions for socialized housing, such land is not in the priority.
a. Government land
b. Unregistered or abandoned and idle lands
c. Those within the areas for priority development
d. Zonal Improvement Program Sites
e. Private agricultural lands

132. The right of pre-emption or first refusal under PD 1517 is exercisable is tenant has occupied the land at least -
a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 7 years d. None of the above

133. It is the ratio of building’s total gross floor area to the area of the lot.
a. Floor Space Ratio b. Floor Space Index c. Floor Area Ratio d. Site Ratio e. All of the above

134. A water quality measurement often applied to treated sewage which measures the amount of oxygen required to
dissolve and decompose organic matter is –
a. Oxidation; b. Dissolved oxygen level; c. Biological oxygen demand d. Organic oxygen level;

135. An aspect of the ecosystem which affects the symbiosis between species and which must be carefully preserved to
avoid decline in population or extinction is the --
a. Oxygen level; b. Carbon dioxide level; c. Biodiversity d. Food chain;

136. Greenhouse Effect” is --


a. Gradual warming of the earth because solar radiation is trapped by unwanted gases;
b. Transformation of water into different forms and incidences as part of nature;
c. Farming of new kinds of food, plants and other flora within semi-enclosed structures;
d. None of the above;

137. Small-scale agriculture without introducing artificial fertilizers or pesticides is commonly known as –
a. Greenhouse farming b. Organic farming c. Cottage industry d. Agri-business

138. An oxygen molecule that in its gaseous state screens ultraviolet radiation.—
a. Oxygen vapor b. Ozone c. Clouds d. Water

139. A scale to measure the alkalinity or acidity.


a. Acidosis b. Potential hydrogen c. Biological oxygen demand d. Fertility level

140. Which of the following environmental calamities is not a direct outcome of human settlements --
a. Fire b. Flooding c. Pollution d. Earthquakes

141. A measure scale to determine the magnitude of an earthquake.


a. Reichter scale b. Mercalli scale c. Acceleration scale e. Velocity scale

142. A depression or hole opened by sand or soil erosion caused by poor drainage. Common after a lot of rain, especially
in heavily paved areas –
a. Cracks b. Quicksand c. Sinkholes d. Canals

143.The hydrologic cycle is –


a. Perennial flooding caused by excessive rainfall.
b. The transformation of water into different forms and incidences as part of nature;
c. The alternating sequence or series of climate changes consisting of typhoons and droughts.
d. The study of oceans, rivers and streams.

144. Which of the following is part of the earth –


Page 8 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. Hydrosphere b. Lithosphere c. Atmosphere d. All of the above.

145. A community of living and non-living things that work together.


a. Environment b. Rainforest c. Ecosystem d. Habitat

146. Photosynthesis refers to –


a. Sensitivity of certain plants to sunlight c. The conversion of carbon dioxide into oxygen
b. The chemical process in nature which depends upon sunlight d. None of the above

147. The following is not environmentally critical and does not require an environmental clearances from DENR –
a. Heavy industries such as metal, petrochemical industries
b. Resource extraction such as mining, logging, fishponds;
c. Infrastructure projects such as major dams, roads, reclamation
d. Leisure projects such as golf courses;
e. Rice farming projects;

148. What is “EIS” ?


a. Environment Integration System c. Ecological Impact System
b. Environmental Impact Statement d. Environment Institute of Sciences

149. What is LEED?


a. Leaders in Effective Energy Development c. A certification system of the U.S. Green Building Council
b. A Philippine Government initiative to promote energy conservation d. None of the above

150. What is ECC?


a. Environment Certificate of Compliance c. Ecological Compliance Certificate
b. Energy Compliance Certificate d. Environmental Compliance Certificate

151. What is CNC?


a. Certificate of Non-Compliance c. Certificate of Non-Coverage
b. Certificate of New Compliance d. Compliance of New Communities

152. International code name of the typhoon which devastated Eastern Visayas in 2013 –
a. Yolanda b. Ondoy c. Haiyan d. Carmela

153. Estimated typhoon wind velocities of the super typhoon that hit Eastern Visayas in 2013 –
a. 150 KPH b. 250 KPH c. 300 KPH d. 350 KPH

154. The direct cause of most of the deaths in the Eastern Visayas typhoon was caused by –
a. Strong winds b. Wave surge c. Hurricane d. Tornados

155. Agency in charge of coordinating disaster relief –


a. DILG b. DSWD c. Red Cross d. NDRRMC

156. Location of the strongest earthquake in the Philippines in 2013 –


a. Bohol b. Iloilo c. Cagayan de Oro d. Mindanao

157. Agency in charge of monitoring seismic activity in our country.


a. DPWH b. Phivolcs c. DENR d. LMB

158. The selling price of the real estate is usually based on its:
a. Intrinsic value b. Exchange value c. Speculative value d. Market value

159. The estimated selling price of homes in a district can best be determined by:
a. Assessed value b. Market Analysis c. An appraisal d. None of the above;

160. Income approach in appraisal would be most widely used:


a. On newly opened subdivision c. On properties heavily insured
b. On commercial and investment properties d. On properties heavily mortgaged

161. A hypothetical condition which can be made the basis for an appraisal estimate --
a. Restriction b. Forecast c. Analysis d. Assumption )

Page 9 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
162. In studying a tract of land to estimate its value, what is the appraiser’s first necessary consideration?
a. Capitalization of estimated net income c. Comparison with sale of other properties
b. Highest and best use d. Reproduction cost less depreciation

163. The principle of value which states that yield or productivity reaches a certain limit despite more inputs --
a. Principle of progression c. Principle of highest and best use
b. Principle of increasing and diminishing returns d. Principle of conformity

164. The increase in value of real estate without any effort or expense of the owner is:
a. Accretion b. Unearned increment c. Accession d. Adhesion

165. In the computation of depreciation of real properties, the method that is widely used by practitioners is --
a. Straight line method c. Cost-benefit method
b. Declining balance method d. Diminishing return method

166. An appraisal principle which holds that value of property is enhanced by association with superior properties is:
a. Principle of Progression c. Principle of Infiltration
b. Principle of Regression d. None of the above

167. The study of current supply and demand conditions in a particular area for a particular type of property is:
a. Real Estate appraising b. Market analysis c. Cash flow analysis d. Income projection

168. Estimating a property’s value by comparison of the subject property with similar properties within the vicinity:
a. Market data approach b. Area approach c. Income approach d. Cost approach

169. The process of paying a loan in equal monthly installments --


a. Acceleration b. Hypothecation c. Amortization d. Liquidation

170. The principle involved in the income approach of appraisal --


a. Reproduction b. Progression c. Anticipation d. Cost comparison

171. Land valuation guidelines for socialized projects is set by: --


a. HUDCC c. Department of finance e. Provincial / City Assessors
b. NHA d. Regular courts

172. The following are determinants of value in appraisal of realty except -


a. Inflation b. Purchasing power c. Utility d. Demand e. Scarcity

173. A building that is constructed for 10M is depreciated at 2.5% per year on a straight line basis. What is its book value
after 10 years?
a. 2.5M b. 7.5M c. 5M d. None of the above

174. In the cost approach to value, the percentage of physical deterioration is estimated by the formula--
a. Economic life divided by chronological age
b. Chronological life divided by economic life
c. Economic life divided by effective age
d. Effective age divided by economic life

175. A method of property appraisal to estimate the fair market value of an improvement by estimating present
production cost and deducting depreciation.
a. Basic appraisal approach b. Reproduction cost approach c. Cost approach d. Income approach

176. The appraisal term for the cost of an improvement which is an exact replica of subject property --
a.Replacement cost new b. Reproduction cost new c. Actual cost estimate d. Income approach

177. The major forces affecting real estate values, except --


a. Physical forces b. Economic forces c. Government forces d. Labor forces e. Social forces

178. The type of market analysis relating to a specific product within a defined market --
a. Market study b. Marketability study c. Feasibility study d. Supply and demand study

179.The principle of value which states that property value will tend to be similar in a homogenous neighborhood.
a. Principle of Progression
b. Principle of highest and best use
c. Principle of increasing and diminishing returns
d. Principle of conformity
e. None of the above

180. A method of comparison in appraisal work --

Page 10 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. Observation method b. Cost benefits method c. Straight Line method d. Diminishing return method

181. A discount rate that gives zero net present value, total present values equals capital invested -
a. Capitalization rate b. Interest rate c. Internal rate of return d. Discount rate

182. The ratio obtained by dividing the sales price by the contract rental rate, is:
a. Effective gross income c. Gross income multiplier e. None of the above
b. Recapture d. Capitalization

183. The bank’s acquired assets which form part of its real estate inventories at the close of its accounting period shall be
classified as:
a. Ordinary assets b. Capital assets c. Fixed assets d. None of the above

184. An appraisal report must be in writing.


a. False. b. True. c. True only for government properties. d. True only for mortgaged properties.

185. A review of the appraisal report limited to the data in the report; may use a simple checklist --
a. Desk review b. Admin review c. Field review d. Technical review

186. The economic condition resulting in rapid increases in the prices of goods and services -
a. Inflation b. Purchasing power c. Buyer’s market d. Seller’s market

187. A building is depreciated at 2.5% per year on a straight line basis. What is the estimated useful life of the building?
a. 30 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d. 60 years

188. To account for significant differences between the subject and other comparable properties, the appraiser identifies
and calculates the effect of the said differences and applies them as --
a. Adjustment factors b. Correction factors c. Assumption factors d. None of the above

189. The actual period of time during which the improvement is economically useful -
a. Effective age b. Chronological life c. Economic age d. Economic Life

190. A buyer of real estate has already paid in 8 years of installment a total amount of P520,000.00 inclusive of
P20,000.00 penalty interest. The cash surrender value of the property based on Maceda Law is:
a. P200,000.00 b . P325,000.00 c. P250,000.00 d. None of the above

191.The owner wants a net proceed of P1,750,000.00 exclusive of capital gain tax, documentary stamps and 5% broker’s
commission. How much would be the selling price so that the broker can maintain his 5% commission?
a. P1,668,750.00 b. P1,680,000.00 c. P2,000,000.00 d. 2,200,000.00

192. The seller realized a 30% gross profit over his cost. It the property is sold at P1,950,000.00, the cost is:
a. P1,365,000.00 b. P1,500,000.00 c. None of the above d. P1,560,000.00 d. P1,350,000.00

193. What is the VAT for a property listed at a price of P500,000. , inclusive of VAT?
a. P 535,714. b. P 600,000. c. P 650,000. P 568,182.

194.What is the VAT for a property listed at a price of P5,000,000., exclusive of VAT?
a. P 535,714. b. P 600,000. c. P 650,000. P 568,182.

195. What is the capital gains tax plus docs stamps for a condominium unit sold by a real estate developer at a price of
P5,000,000.?
a. P 300,000. b. P 375,000. c. PhP 0.00 d. None of the above.

196. A lot measuring 20 meters wide by 40 meters long requires a perimeter fence with a 6.0m wide gate. What is the total
cost of the fence only if the unit cost is P2,000. per lineal meter.
a. P 228,000. b. P 240,000. c. P 120,000. d. None of the above.

197. Mr. de la Cruz buys a condo priced at P5,000,000. on the following terms: 20% cash down payment, balance 20 years
to pay at 12% interest per annum. If he was able to get a discount of 10%, how much is the amortization if the
mortgage constant is 0.011
a. P 40,000. b. P 55,000. c. P 50,000. d. P 39,600.

198. How much is the total local taxes to be paid (real property tax plus SEF) for a residential land with market value of
P5,000,000. Assuming that the real property tax is the maximum for provinces.
a. P 20,000. B. 10,000. d. 100,000. D. None of the above

199. How much is the market value of a commercial lot levied with a basic real property tax of P10,000. assuming the rate
is the maximum for Metro Manila?

a. P 1,000,000. b. P 500,000. c. P 2,000,000. d. P 200,000.

Page 11 of 12
MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
200. A buyer of a subdivision lot on installment and after sufficient notice to the developer discontinued paying
amortization because the developer failed to develop the subdivision as certified by the HLURB in such situation and
under P.D. 957, the buyer is entitled to a refund which would be:
a. Total amount paid including interests but excluding penalty charges.
b. Total payments made less penalty charges and interest charges
c. 50% of total payments made less penalty and interest charges
d. None of the above

Page 12 of 12

You might also like