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2014 SampleTest II-B (200Q) by Willy Segovia NO Answer.
2014 SampleTest II-B (200Q) by Willy Segovia NO Answer.
2014 SampleTest II-B (200Q) by Willy Segovia NO Answer.
Note: This is a sample Test of 200 questions for practice purposes. How to use this Sample Test –
1) Save the entire file in another name with the highlighted answers intact.
2) Remove the highlights on the original set.
3) Start answering the questions. Give yourself exactly 4 hours.
4) Score yourself. Repeat as needed.
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1. Registration of a mortgage covering a subdivision project can only be affected when the deed is accompanied by a
permit to mortgage issued by:
a. Local government unit
b. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
c. Home Insurance Guarantee Corporation
d. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
e. National Housing Authority
2. In the absence of any provision in the master deed of a residential condominium project, the interest of the unit
owners in the common area shall be:
a. Proportionate b. Based on value c. Equal d. Decided by the condominium corporation
4. Condominium Act:
a. R.A. 4727 b. R.A. 4276 c. R.A. 2774 d. R.A. 4726 e. None of the above
6. The required number of votes of registered owners to authorize a condominium corporation to sell, or otherwise
dispose of the common areas in a condominium project is:
a. Two-thirds b. Unanimous c.Three-fourths d. Simple majority e. None of the above.
7. As provide by R.A. 7279, a developer of a project is required to develop an equivalent 20% of the project for --
a. Economic housing c. Open spaces e. None of the above
b. Commercial area d. Socialized housing
9. The technical description in the TCT of real property can readily be plotted on a sheet by using the following data:
a. Bearing and lot points (monuments) c. Distance and lot points (monuments) e. Bearing and tie line
b. BLLM and tie line d. Distance between lot points and bearing
11. The performance bond for a subdivision project may be in the form of a surety bond equivalent to:
a. 10% of development b. 40% of development cost c. 20% of development cost d. None of the above
14. A kind of survey to determine the contours, levels and terrain of the property –
a. Cadastral survey b. Terrain survey c. Topographic survey d. Hydrographic survey
15. In global mapping, the angular unit of measure of lines parallel to the equator are called –
a. Longitude b. Lattitudes c. Parallels d. Meridians
16. In mixed use condominium project, the distribution of shareholdings shall be based on --
a. One share per unit c. Number of bedrooms
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
b. In proportion to floor area d. Any of the above
17. A subdivision plan needs only the approval of the Land Registration or Land Management Bureau to effect
segregation of titles when the resulting number of lot is:
a. Nine (9) or less b.Twelve (12) or less c. Ten (10)or less d. Fifteen (15) or less
18. A set of reference grid lines running north and south (meridians), and east and west (parallels) --
a. Metes and Bounds b. Cardinal Direction c. Rectangular Survey d. Monuments e. None of the above
20. The body which serves as the umbrella of all agencies for the county’s national shelter program is:
a. National Housing Authority c. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council d. None of the above
21. The BIR will assess delinquent taxpayers for surcharge, compromise, and penalty interest at --
a. 10% interest per annum c. 20% interest per annum
b. 15% interest per annum d. 25% interest per annum
22. The documentary stamp tax on the sale of the property must be paid
a. Within 30 days from the date of notarization
b. Within five (5) days after the close of the month of the date of sale
c. Within ten (10) days after the close of the month of the date of sale
d. At the time of payment of the capital gains tax
25. If the property is not subject to value-added tax, what is the applicable tax?
a. Capital gains tax c. Percentage tax e. Creditable Withholding Tax
b. Excise tax d. Estate Tax
26. The chairman of the Local Board of Assessment Appeals in a city is:
a. City auditor b. City mayor c. City Register of Deeds d. City Engineer e. None of the above
27. The rate of real estate property tax in municipalities within the Metro Manila is not more than:
a. One-half percent of assessed value c. Two percent of assessed value
b. One percent of assessed value d. None of the above
29. LGU levy on real estate equivalent to 1% of assessed value which shall be in additional to be basic real estate tax is:
a. Special real estate tax b. Ad valorem tax c. Special assessment fund tax d. Special education fund tax
30. The value placed on taxable property by the assessor for ad valorem tax purpose is:
a. Market value b. Economic value c. Assessed value d. Assessment value e. Appraised value
31. The documentary stamp tax for a deed of real estate mortgage is:
a. P15.00 for every P1,000.00 of the mortgage amount
b. P10.00 for every P1,000.00 of the mortgage amount
c. P10.00 for the first P5,000.00 of the mortgage amount plus P5.00 for every P5,000.00 thereafter
d. P20.00 for the first P5,000.00 of the mortgage plus P10.00 for every P5,000.00 thereafter
33. In payment of estate tax, an allowed deduction to the gross estate of a decedent is funeral expense which is:
a. 5% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is lower
b. 5% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is higher
c. 10% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is lower
d. 10% of gross estate or P200,000.00 whichever is higher
e. None of the above
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
35. The schedule of fair market value in municipalities in Metro Manila is prepared by:
a. MMDA c. Sanggunian Bayan by ordinance
b. Concerned municipal assessor d. Bureau of Internal Revenue e. None of the above
36. The following compose the Board of Assessment Appeals in Makati City, except:
a. Registry of deeds b. City Assessor c. City Prosecutor e. City Engineer
37. A tax payer has _____ to redeem his real property which was levied and subsequently forfeited and acquired by the
local government for tax delinquency.
a. 1 year b. 4 years c. 60 days d. 3 years
38. For purpose of determining whether seller / transferor can be considered as habitually engaged in real estate
business, he should offer satisfactory evidence that he consummated least ____ taxable real estate transaction during
the preceding year.
a. Five b. Six c. Eight d. Ten e. Twelve
39. Under the new BIR Ruling, acquired asset of banks regardless of amount are subject to the creditable withholding
tax of:
a. 1.5% b. 3.0% c. 5.0% d. 6.0%
40. In case a false or fraudulent estate, donor or capital gains tax BIR form was willfully made how much surcharge
based on the deficiency shall be imposed?
a. 20% B. 25% c. 30% d. 50%
41. In a sale of property on installment plan, if payment in one year exceed 25%, how is the sale treated for tax
purposes?
a. Deferred sale b. Lump sum sale c. Partial sale d. Installment sale
42. The schedule of market value for ad valorem tax in municipalities outside Metro Manila is prepared by:
a. Municipal Assessors c. Sanggunian Panglalawigan
b. Provincial Assessors d. Provincial treasurer
43. The amount of family home equivalent to fair market consideration as allowable deduction from the estate of a
decedent.
a. P500,000.00 b. P1,000,000.00 c. P2,000,000 d. 750,000.00
44. The acquisition of land in advance of actual need based on present value for future planned development is referred
to under Urban Reform Law as:
a. Land assembly c. Urban renewal e. None of the above
b. Land banking d. New settlement
45. Removal of land from owner to another when a stream suddenly changes its course:
a. Avulsion b. Quarry c. Alluvium d. Alienation e. None of the above
47. Public and private agricultural land is excluded from CARP when it has a slop or gradient of:
a. 9% b. 12% c. 15% d.18% e. None of the above
48. A former natural born Filipino citizen can acquire more than 5,000 sq.m. of urban land for business purpose under:
a. B.P. 185 b. P.D. 957 c. Act 2728 d. R.A. 7279 e. None of the above
49. It refers to land located in the fringes of built-up communities which has the provincial characterized but is favored
with the metropolis utilities, facilities and amenities.
a. Urban land b. Suburban Land c. Rural land d. Urbanizable land e. City satellite
50. The bundle of rights inherent in ownership without any limitations other than those imposed by law or contract is:
a. Fee Estate b. Leased fee estate c. Fee simple d. Tenancy in common
51. The right of a landowner to the ownership of everything which is produced by the land or which is incorporated or
attached thereto, either naturally or artificially is known as:
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. Prescription b. Adverse possession c. Accession d. Laches
52. A rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible among competing user group is:
a. Land assembly b. On-site development c. Land use planning d. Urban renewal
53. The following are modes of acquiring lands for purpose of Urban Development and Housing Act, except:
a. Community mortgage b. Negotiated purchase c. Foreclosure d.Joint venture agreement e.Land swapping
54. The following are types of property description ordinarily used in deeds, contracts, offer to sell and lease except:
a. Technical description b. Coordinates c. Lot number d. Metes and bounds
55. Conversion permit of agricultural land of not more than 5 hectares shall be approved by:
a. Municipal agrarian officers d. USEC for Legal Affairs, DAR
b. Provincial agrarian officers e. DAR secretary
c. Regional agrarian reform officer
56. Urbanizable areas refer to sites which, considering present characteristics and prevailing conditions, display
marked and great potential of becoming urban areas within the period.
a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years e. 15 years
57. It refers to acquisition of lots varying ownership through purchase or expropriation for the purpose of planned and
rational development and socialized housing program without individual property boundary restrictions:
a. Land banking c. Land assembly c. Land swapping e. d. Land use plan e.None of the above
58. The following are modes of acquiring lands for the purposes of the Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992,
except:
a. Joint venture b. Community mortgage c. Expropriation d.Negotiated purchases e. Accretion
59. Under R.A. 7279, __________ shall be resorted to only when other modes or acquisition have been exhausted.
a. Negotiated purchase b. Expropriation c. Land consolidation d. Joint Venture Agreement
60. A stipulation in a mortgage contract where the mortgagee is authorized to appropriate the property upon default or
non-payment of debt is:
a. Dacion en pago b. Pactum de non Aliendo c. Tacita Reconduta d. Pactum commissorium
61. A contract where the property is hypothecated to secure an obligation where the creditor is given the right to
possess the property and collect the fruits thereof is:
a. Real estate mortgage b. Equitable mortgage c. Blanket mortgage d.. Antichresis
63. A provision in the blanket mortgage that property fully paid shall be released from the mortgage:
a. Defeasance clause b. Automatic redemption clause c. Termination clause d. Acceleration clause
64. In the absence of a pre-nuptial agreement, the following are excluded from the community property, except:
a. Property acquired during the marriage by gratuitous title by either spouse unless otherwise provided by the donor
b. Fruit as well as income of property mentioned in letter (a) unless otherwise provided by the donor
c. Property acquired before the marriage by other spouse who has legitimate descendants by a former marriage and the fruit
as well as the income, if any, of such property.
d. Jewelry for personal and exclusive use of either spouse.
65. Title to an inherited property may be transferred to the sole heir upon payment of estate tax and
execution and registration of a legal document called:
a. Extra-judicial Settlement of Estate c. Affidavit of Adjudication
b. Extra-judicial Partition of Estate d. Affidavit of consolidation e. None of the above
66. It means that short of foreclosure, the mortgagor agrees to transfer ownership of the mortgaged property to the
mortgagee:
a. Dacion en pago b. Auction c. Redemption d. Pacto de retro e. None or the above
67. The right of an owner-lessor to receive the contract rent and reversion of the property at the end of the lease is called:
a. Fee simple b. Lease fee c. Net lease d. Leasehold e. None of the above
69. A legal provision which requires agreement for the sale of real estate to be in writing and subscribed to by the parties
to be enforceable by action:
a. Defeasance clause c. Statute of fraud e. Evidentiary rule
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
b. Patrole evidence rule d. Enforceability clause
70. The maximum period, including renewals, that a foreigner who is an investor may lease land in the Philippines is:
a. 50 years b. 60 years c. 75 years d. 90 years
72. Registration of a real estate instrument can be given due course even without the presentation of the owner’s
duplicate certificate of title when the document is:
a. Notice of adverse claim c. Writ of attachment e. None of the above
b. Notice of Lis Pendens d. All of the above
75. A TCT has an annotation that says “subject to sec.4 Rule 74 of the Rules of Court. It means that the property is
subject to claim by any heir unduly deprived of lawful participation in the settlement of the decedents estate within”:
a. 2 years b. 4 years c. 6 years d. 10 years e. None of the above
76. In case of the refusal of the lessor to accept payment of the rental agreed upon, the lessee may either deposit by way of
consignation, the amount in --
a. Court c. City / Municipal Treasurer
b. Bank in the name of lessor d. Any of the above
77. Mr. Villanueva inherited a piece of land when he was still single. Then he got married on October 1, 2000 without a
marriage settlement. What is the nature of the property now that he is married?
a. Exclusive property c. Separate property e. Absolute Community property
b. Common property d. Conjugal property
78. A provision in a financing agreement which renders the remaining principal balance of the loan immediately due and
payable upon default in any stipulated installment.
a. Escalation clause c. Defeasance clause e. Acceleration clause
b. Break-even point d. Open-end loan provision
80. A stipulation in an authority to sell entitles the broker to a commission even beyond the period of his authority if he
has registered and is negotiating with his buyer before the expiry date of his authority.
a. Open, non-exclusive listing c. Authority to overprice e. Hold over clause
b. Exclusive agency agreement d. “First come, First serve” rule
81. A buyer on installment who has paid at least two years of installments, under Republic Act No. 6552, is entitled to a
refund or 50% of total payments effected during the first five years and an additional ____ every year but not to exceed
90% of total payments made.
a. 5% b. 50% c. 20% d. 30% e. 10%
84. For the exemption on capital gains tax to be valid, within how many months should a Seller use the proceeds to
purchase another home?
a. 9 months b. 36 months c.. 24 months d. 12 months e. 18 months
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
85. Minimum size of lots for single-detached homes allowed by BP 220 for socialized housing –
a. 64 sqm b. 72 sqm c. 80 sqm d. 100 sqm
86. Minimum size of condominim unit for multi-family buildings allowed by BP 220 for socialized housing –
a. 18 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 22 sqm d. 24 sqm
87. The HLURB will accept an application for registration of a memorial park when development has reached –
a. 0% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% e. 50%
88. A form of project development in which landowners contribute land only and the developer handles the rest –
a. Partnership b. Cooperative c. Corporate venture d. Joint venture
89. The following actions comprise due diligence in real estate transactions , except –
a. Broker must secure a certified true copy of the title
b. Exact location of the property should be physically verified
c. A zoning certification from LGU must be obtained.
d. The special power of attorney requires verification
e. None of the above.
91. Lands acquired under Free Patent cannot be alienated within ___ years from issuance of patent:
a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 20 years
92. Lands acquired under a Certificate of Land Ownership cannot be alienated within ____ years from issuance:
a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 20 years
93. Agricultural lands acquired from land reform that are no longer suitable for agriculture can be converted to
residential after the lapse of ____ years:
a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 20 years
95. The most recent law which provides opportunities for the landless to have land for free –
a. RA 9700 b. RA 10023 c. RA6657 RA 3844
96. A financing program in which government assists the underprivileged and homeless to acquire land –
a. Pag-Ibig b. Community Mortgage c. Land banking d. Land assembly
97. Under PD 27, rice and corn tenants were entitled to ____ hectares of land if not irrigated:
a. 5 hectares b. 4 hectares c. 3 hectares d. 2 hectares
98. The following lands are exempt from agrarian land reform, except –
a. Parks b. School site c. Private farms d. Church sites e. Cemeteries
99. In financial analysis, a rate used to convert a future value into its present value –
a. Discount rate b. Cap rate c. Interest rate d. Internal rate
100. The name of the accredited integrated organization of real estate practitioners –
a. PAREB b. REBAP c. Phil-RES d. PRB-RES
101. An agreement where the seller, for a consideration, binds himself to reserve the property for the buyer within a
stipulated period is:
a. Escrow b. Contract to sell c. Option d. Listing e. Offer to sell
102. In the real estate business, another term of the owner is:
a. Customer b. Prospect c. Principal d. Alter Ego e. None of the above
103. Which of the following listings affords the best protection for real estate brokers:
a. Open listing b. Exclusive agency c. Multiple listing d. Exclusive right to sell e.None of the above
105. A commission rate for the sale of real estate is determined by:
a. Standard rate approved by the brokers in a locality
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
b. Fixed scheduled of commission approved by the BTRCP
c. Discretion of the seller
d. Agreement between seller and broker
e. None of the above
106. As an agent, the broker is usually authorized to do all of the following acts, except:
a. Advertise the listed property c. Place “for sale” sign on the listed property
b. Cooperate with other brokers to facilitate the sale d. Bind the principal in a contract of sale
107. An agreement where the payment is deposited with a third party for release on compliance with conditions.
a. Option b. Escrow c. Contract to sell d. Hold-over clause
108. A “Hold-over” clause entitles the broker to commission even after the lapse of his authority, if he --
a. Register his prospect during his authority c. Submit written acknowledgement of his buyer
b. Register and negotiate with his prospect during his authority d. None of the above
109. The term “ residential unit” as defined in the rent control law RA 9653 does not include:
a. Motels b. Hotels c. Pension houses d. All of the above
110. Lease of Residential units with monthly rental below ___________ is VAT exempt:
a. Php15,300 b. Php10,000 c. Php12,800 d. Php13,500 e. None of the above
111. The residential units covered by Rent Control are those with rent below _____ in NCR:
a. PhP 12,800. b. PhP 9,000. c. PhP 8,000. d. PhP 10,000.
113. A sum of money paid by a Lessee to guarantee that utilities will be paid and repairs will be made.
a. Earnest money b. Rental deposit c. Security deposit d. None of the above.
114. A system where several brokers agree to help each other sell their respective listings –
a. Multi-Listing System b. Cooperative c. Open Listing System d. Corporate brokerage
116. A government agency which issues visas for foreigners who will retire in the Philippines –
a. PRA b. DOT c. NEDA d. Immigration
120. The fastest growing component of the Service sector of the economy in the last 3 years --
a. Tourism b. Construction c. BPO d. Real estate service
122. Developers can obtain capital by listing and selling shares through a stock exchange --
a. Public funding b. Pre-selling c. Traditional funding d. None of the above.
124. The market condition expected when demand for a product equals supply available --
a. Equal distribution b. Equilibrium price c. Inflation d. Recession
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. RA 9679 b. RA 9653 c. RA 9856 d. RA 9507
127. The law which governs companies who establish a real estate investment trust –
a. RA 9679b. RA 9653 c. RA 9700 d. RA 9507 e. RA 9856
129. When the loan is fully amortized by equal monthly payments, the amount applied to principal -
a. Increases while interest payment decreases c. Decreases while interest payment increases
b. Remains constant d. Increase by a constant amount
130. To be eligible for a PAG-IBIG housing loan, how many months of mandatory savings should a member remit at the
time of loan application?
a. 12 months b. 36 months c. 30 months d. 24 months e. 40 months
131. In land acquisitions for socialized housing, such land is not in the priority.
a. Government land
b. Unregistered or abandoned and idle lands
c. Those within the areas for priority development
d. Zonal Improvement Program Sites
e. Private agricultural lands
132. The right of pre-emption or first refusal under PD 1517 is exercisable is tenant has occupied the land at least -
a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 7 years d. None of the above
133. It is the ratio of building’s total gross floor area to the area of the lot.
a. Floor Space Ratio b. Floor Space Index c. Floor Area Ratio d. Site Ratio e. All of the above
134. A water quality measurement often applied to treated sewage which measures the amount of oxygen required to
dissolve and decompose organic matter is –
a. Oxidation; b. Dissolved oxygen level; c. Biological oxygen demand d. Organic oxygen level;
135. An aspect of the ecosystem which affects the symbiosis between species and which must be carefully preserved to
avoid decline in population or extinction is the --
a. Oxygen level; b. Carbon dioxide level; c. Biodiversity d. Food chain;
137. Small-scale agriculture without introducing artificial fertilizers or pesticides is commonly known as –
a. Greenhouse farming b. Organic farming c. Cottage industry d. Agri-business
138. An oxygen molecule that in its gaseous state screens ultraviolet radiation.—
a. Oxygen vapor b. Ozone c. Clouds d. Water
140. Which of the following environmental calamities is not a direct outcome of human settlements --
a. Fire b. Flooding c. Pollution d. Earthquakes
142. A depression or hole opened by sand or soil erosion caused by poor drainage. Common after a lot of rain, especially
in heavily paved areas –
a. Cracks b. Quicksand c. Sinkholes d. Canals
147. The following is not environmentally critical and does not require an environmental clearances from DENR –
a. Heavy industries such as metal, petrochemical industries
b. Resource extraction such as mining, logging, fishponds;
c. Infrastructure projects such as major dams, roads, reclamation
d. Leisure projects such as golf courses;
e. Rice farming projects;
152. International code name of the typhoon which devastated Eastern Visayas in 2013 –
a. Yolanda b. Ondoy c. Haiyan d. Carmela
153. Estimated typhoon wind velocities of the super typhoon that hit Eastern Visayas in 2013 –
a. 150 KPH b. 250 KPH c. 300 KPH d. 350 KPH
154. The direct cause of most of the deaths in the Eastern Visayas typhoon was caused by –
a. Strong winds b. Wave surge c. Hurricane d. Tornados
158. The selling price of the real estate is usually based on its:
a. Intrinsic value b. Exchange value c. Speculative value d. Market value
159. The estimated selling price of homes in a district can best be determined by:
a. Assessed value b. Market Analysis c. An appraisal d. None of the above;
161. A hypothetical condition which can be made the basis for an appraisal estimate --
a. Restriction b. Forecast c. Analysis d. Assumption )
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
162. In studying a tract of land to estimate its value, what is the appraiser’s first necessary consideration?
a. Capitalization of estimated net income c. Comparison with sale of other properties
b. Highest and best use d. Reproduction cost less depreciation
163. The principle of value which states that yield or productivity reaches a certain limit despite more inputs --
a. Principle of progression c. Principle of highest and best use
b. Principle of increasing and diminishing returns d. Principle of conformity
164. The increase in value of real estate without any effort or expense of the owner is:
a. Accretion b. Unearned increment c. Accession d. Adhesion
165. In the computation of depreciation of real properties, the method that is widely used by practitioners is --
a. Straight line method c. Cost-benefit method
b. Declining balance method d. Diminishing return method
166. An appraisal principle which holds that value of property is enhanced by association with superior properties is:
a. Principle of Progression c. Principle of Infiltration
b. Principle of Regression d. None of the above
167. The study of current supply and demand conditions in a particular area for a particular type of property is:
a. Real Estate appraising b. Market analysis c. Cash flow analysis d. Income projection
168. Estimating a property’s value by comparison of the subject property with similar properties within the vicinity:
a. Market data approach b. Area approach c. Income approach d. Cost approach
173. A building that is constructed for 10M is depreciated at 2.5% per year on a straight line basis. What is its book value
after 10 years?
a. 2.5M b. 7.5M c. 5M d. None of the above
174. In the cost approach to value, the percentage of physical deterioration is estimated by the formula--
a. Economic life divided by chronological age
b. Chronological life divided by economic life
c. Economic life divided by effective age
d. Effective age divided by economic life
175. A method of property appraisal to estimate the fair market value of an improvement by estimating present
production cost and deducting depreciation.
a. Basic appraisal approach b. Reproduction cost approach c. Cost approach d. Income approach
176. The appraisal term for the cost of an improvement which is an exact replica of subject property --
a.Replacement cost new b. Reproduction cost new c. Actual cost estimate d. Income approach
178. The type of market analysis relating to a specific product within a defined market --
a. Market study b. Marketability study c. Feasibility study d. Supply and demand study
179.The principle of value which states that property value will tend to be similar in a homogenous neighborhood.
a. Principle of Progression
b. Principle of highest and best use
c. Principle of increasing and diminishing returns
d. Principle of conformity
e. None of the above
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
a. Observation method b. Cost benefits method c. Straight Line method d. Diminishing return method
181. A discount rate that gives zero net present value, total present values equals capital invested -
a. Capitalization rate b. Interest rate c. Internal rate of return d. Discount rate
182. The ratio obtained by dividing the sales price by the contract rental rate, is:
a. Effective gross income c. Gross income multiplier e. None of the above
b. Recapture d. Capitalization
183. The bank’s acquired assets which form part of its real estate inventories at the close of its accounting period shall be
classified as:
a. Ordinary assets b. Capital assets c. Fixed assets d. None of the above
185. A review of the appraisal report limited to the data in the report; may use a simple checklist --
a. Desk review b. Admin review c. Field review d. Technical review
186. The economic condition resulting in rapid increases in the prices of goods and services -
a. Inflation b. Purchasing power c. Buyer’s market d. Seller’s market
187. A building is depreciated at 2.5% per year on a straight line basis. What is the estimated useful life of the building?
a. 30 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d. 60 years
188. To account for significant differences between the subject and other comparable properties, the appraiser identifies
and calculates the effect of the said differences and applies them as --
a. Adjustment factors b. Correction factors c. Assumption factors d. None of the above
189. The actual period of time during which the improvement is economically useful -
a. Effective age b. Chronological life c. Economic age d. Economic Life
190. A buyer of real estate has already paid in 8 years of installment a total amount of P520,000.00 inclusive of
P20,000.00 penalty interest. The cash surrender value of the property based on Maceda Law is:
a. P200,000.00 b . P325,000.00 c. P250,000.00 d. None of the above
191.The owner wants a net proceed of P1,750,000.00 exclusive of capital gain tax, documentary stamps and 5% broker’s
commission. How much would be the selling price so that the broker can maintain his 5% commission?
a. P1,668,750.00 b. P1,680,000.00 c. P2,000,000.00 d. 2,200,000.00
192. The seller realized a 30% gross profit over his cost. It the property is sold at P1,950,000.00, the cost is:
a. P1,365,000.00 b. P1,500,000.00 c. None of the above d. P1,560,000.00 d. P1,350,000.00
193. What is the VAT for a property listed at a price of P500,000. , inclusive of VAT?
a. P 535,714. b. P 600,000. c. P 650,000. P 568,182.
194.What is the VAT for a property listed at a price of P5,000,000., exclusive of VAT?
a. P 535,714. b. P 600,000. c. P 650,000. P 568,182.
195. What is the capital gains tax plus docs stamps for a condominium unit sold by a real estate developer at a price of
P5,000,000.?
a. P 300,000. b. P 375,000. c. PhP 0.00 d. None of the above.
196. A lot measuring 20 meters wide by 40 meters long requires a perimeter fence with a 6.0m wide gate. What is the total
cost of the fence only if the unit cost is P2,000. per lineal meter.
a. P 228,000. b. P 240,000. c. P 120,000. d. None of the above.
197. Mr. de la Cruz buys a condo priced at P5,000,000. on the following terms: 20% cash down payment, balance 20 years
to pay at 12% interest per annum. If he was able to get a discount of 10%, how much is the amortization if the
mortgage constant is 0.011
a. P 40,000. b. P 55,000. c. P 50,000. d. P 39,600.
198. How much is the total local taxes to be paid (real property tax plus SEF) for a residential land with market value of
P5,000,000. Assuming that the real property tax is the maximum for provinces.
a. P 20,000. B. 10,000. d. 100,000. D. None of the above
199. How much is the market value of a commercial lot levied with a basic real property tax of P10,000. assuming the rate
is the maximum for Metro Manila?
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MBR CRESAR 2014 Part II Set B
200. A buyer of a subdivision lot on installment and after sufficient notice to the developer discontinued paying
amortization because the developer failed to develop the subdivision as certified by the HLURB in such situation and
under P.D. 957, the buyer is entitled to a refund which would be:
a. Total amount paid including interests but excluding penalty charges.
b. Total payments made less penalty charges and interest charges
c. 50% of total payments made less penalty and interest charges
d. None of the above
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