Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection

Multiple Choice

1. Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards

is considered _____.
a. improper hiring
b. negligent hiring
c. appropriate depending upon the job
d. negligent intent
e. unwise, but not illegal
(b; moderate; p. 194)

2. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?

a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate
forms of the test
b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on
the same test taken on a different occasion
c. one that yields the same score from two different people taking the test
on the same occasion
d. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the
test on different occasions
e. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way
(a; difficult; p. 195)

3. If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130

when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____.
a. valid
b. invalid
c. reliable
d. unreliable
e. inconsistent
(d; moderate; p. 195)

4. If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested

on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____.
a. valid
b. invalid
c. reliable
d. unreliable
e. inconsistent
(c; moderate; p. 195)

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5. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same
test to the same people at two different points in time and then compares
the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.
a. Equivalent form estimate
b. Retest estimate
c. Internal consistency
d. Internal comparison estimate
e. Criterion validity
(b; moderate; p. 195)

6. Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess

reliability?
a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in
time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary
together
c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of
the different people
d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of
the different people
e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to
know to do the job in question well
(a; difficult; p. 195)

7. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests

deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from
the two tests.
a. Equivalent form estimate
b. Retest estimate
c. Internal consistency
d. Internal comparison estimate
e. Criterion validity
(a; moderate; p. 195)

8. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with

x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the
degree to which responses to the items vary together.
a. Equivalent form estimate
b. Retest estimate
c. Internal consistency
d. Internal comparison estimate
e. Criterion validity
(c; moderate; p. 195)

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9. Which of the following describes using an internal consistency as an
assessment of reliability?
a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in
time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary
together
c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of
the different people
d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of
the different people
e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to
know to do the job in question well
(b; difficult; p. 195)

10. When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of

reliability is likely being measured?
a. retest estimate
b. internal consistency
c. equivalent form
d. test validity
e. criterion validity
(b; moderate; p. 195)

11. Which of the following describes using an equivalent form estimate to

assess reliability?
a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in
time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary
together
c. administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare
participants’ test scores for test one and test two
d. different tests to different people and compare test scores of the
different people
e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to
know to do the job in question well
(c; difficult; p. 195)

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12. Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to
assess reliability?
a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in
time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then
statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary
together
c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of
the different people
d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of
the different people
e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to
know to do the job in question well
(b; difficult; p. 195)

13. Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?
a. questions may not represent material
b. tests used to estimate equivalence may not have been equivalent
c. testing conditions could vary
d. the test may not predict actual performance
e. all are reasons for unreliable tests
(d; difficult; p. 195)

14. The first step in the validation process is to _____.

a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
b. analyze the job
c. administer tests
d. relate test scores and job criteria
e. cross-validate
(b; easy; p. 197)

15. The second step in the validation process is to _____.

a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
b. analyze the job
c. administer tests
d. relate test scores and job criteria
e. cross-validate
(a; easy; p. 197)

16. The final step in the validation process is to _____.

a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
b. analyze the job
c. administer tests
d. relate test scores and job criteria
e. cross-validate
(e; easy; p. 197)

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17. Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?
a. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test are represent
the tasks performed on the job
b. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks
performed on the job
c. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test
resemble the work situation
d. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of
criterion like job performance
e. all of the above are part of demonstrating content validity
(d; difficult; p. 197)

18. A(n) _____ aims to measure an array of possible predictors for job
performance.
a. test validity
b. test criterion
c. test battery
d. job analysis
e. assessment rating
(c; moderate; p. 197)

19. To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on the job and
then compares their test scores with current performance.
a. concurrent validation
b. predictive validation
c. correlation analysis
d. expectancy assessment
e. test batteries
(a; moderate; p. 198)

20. To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired.
The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not
the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are
compared to the test scores under development.
a. concurrent validation
b. predictive validation
c. correlation analysis
d. expectancy assessment
e. test batteries
(b; moderate; p. 198)

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21. Which method of test validation is considered more dependable?
a. content validation
b. criterion validation
c. predictive validation
d. concurrent validation
e. face validation
(c; difficult; p. 198)

22. Which statistical tool is used to determine if a significant relationship

exists between the predictor scores and the performance criterion?
a. regression analysis
b. discriminant analysis
c. correlation analysis
d. canonical correlational analysis
e. confirmatory factor analysis
(c; moderate; p. 199)

23. The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following except
_____.
a. using a new sample of employees
b. administering more tests
c. evaluating the relationship between scores and performance
d. assessing predictive validation
e. analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
(e; moderate; p. 199)

24. Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a validation

tool?
a. criterion validation
b. predictive validation
c. content validation
d. concurrent validation
e. all of the above
(c; moderate; p. 199)

25. _____ means there is a significant discrepancy between rates of members

of the protected groups and others.
a. Discrimination
b. Disparate impact
c. Criterion validity
d. Negligent hiring
e. Discrimination discrepancy
(b; moderate; p. 200)

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26. Psychologists qualified to develop, validate, and use selection standards
such as selection tests are _____.
a. licensed by their respective state
b. familiar with federal equal rights laws
c. familiar with state equal rights laws
d. usually holders of a Ph.D. degree
e. all of the above
(e; moderate; p. 201)

27. A rejected minority job candidate has shown that the selection rate for the
applicant’s racial group was less than four-fifths that for the group with the
highest selection rate. The candidate has shown _____.
a. discrimination
b. disparate impact
c. adverse impact
d. negligent hiring
e. affirmative action
(c; moderate; p. 201)

28. If an employer is shown to use selection procedures resulting in adverse

impact, the employer could then use all of the alternatives listed below
except _____.
a. institute another valid selection procedure that does not have an
adverse impact
b. show that the test is valid by conducting a validation study
c. monitor the selection test to see if it has disparate impact
d. revise the selection test to eliminate the problem
e. all are possible alternatives
(d; difficult; p. 201)

29. All of the following are considered “pink collar” jobs except
a. waitress
b. secretary
c. nursing
d. teaching
e. psychologist
(e; easy; p. 201)

30. Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs.

a. purple collar
b. white collar
c. pink collar
d. blue collar
e. none of the above
(c; easy; p. 201)

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31. Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American
Psychological Association’s standard for educational and psychological
tests?
a. the right to confidentiality of test results
b. the right to informed consent
c. the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the
scores
d. the right to expect that the test is fair
e. all of the above
(e; moderate; p. 201)

32. _____ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific
mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
a. Motor ability
b. Personality
c. Achievement
d. Cognitive
e. Physical ability
(d; easy; p. 205)

33. Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary,

verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called _____.
a. aptitude tests
b. intelligence tests
c. achievement tests
d. personality tests
e. comprehensive tests
(b; easy; p. 205)

34. Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body

coordination and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using
_____ tests.
a. aptitude
b. personality
c. motor and physical abilities
d. achievement
e. comprehensive
(c; moderate; p. 205)

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35. _____ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and
reaction time.
a. Motor ability
b. Personality
c. Achievement
d. Cognitive
e. Interest
(a; easy; p. 205)

36. _____ tests measure a person’s level of introversion, stability, and

motivation.
a. Motor ability
b. Personality
c. Achievement
d. Cognitive
e. Physical ability
(b; easy; p. 206)

37. Most people are fired due to _____.

a. lack of qualifications
b. lack of aptitude
c. nonperformance
d. lack of necessary motor abilities
e. cognitive abilities
(c; moderate; p. 206)

38. Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is important to

measure motivation and interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and
physical abilities during the selection process.
a. attitude
b. motivation
c. temperament
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d; moderate; p. 206)

39. Which of the following is not a type of projective technique for measuring
aspects of an applicant’s personality?
a. Make a Picture Story
b. House-Tree-Person
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test
e. All of the above are projective
(c; moderate; p. 206)

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40. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following except
a. neuroticism
b. optimism
c. extraversion
d. conscientiousness
e. agreeableness
(b; moderate; p. 207)

41. _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and

experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility.
a. Neuroticism
b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
(a; easy; p. 207)

42. _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and to

experience positive effects such as energy and zeal.
a. Neuroticism
b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
(b; easy; p. 207)

43. Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position in pharmaceutical sales.
Which personality characteristic is most predictive of Mike’s likelihood of
success in a sales position?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
(b; moderate; p. 207)

44. Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be

imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
(e; moderate; p. 207)

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45. Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to be
trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
(d; moderate; p. 207)

46. Which personality characteristic captures a combination of achievement

and dependability?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
(c; moderate; p. 207)

47. While some personality characteristics are associated with success in

different types of jobs, which one characteristic tends to be associated with
job performance across types?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
(c; moderate; p. 207)

48. Which of the following best describes how the work sampling technique is
executed?
a. applicants submit work samples from previous jobs
b. applicants are tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to
performing the job of interest
c. applicants are tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related
to several positions in a company
d. applicants are asked to respond to questions about how they would
perform various tasks
e. applicants are given video-based situational interviews
(b; moderate; p. 208)

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49. A _____ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates
perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who
appraise each candidate’s potential.
a. work sampling event
b. video-based situational testing
c. management assessment center
d. personality test
e. retreat
(c; moderate; p. 209)

50. Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers

include all of the following except _____.
a. the in basket
b. leaderless group discussion
c. tests of motor abilities
d. interviews
e. management games
(c; moderate; p. 209)

51. Which of the following is an advantage of using management assessment

centers in the selection process?
a. cost of development
b. time required to administer and assess results
c. use of managers as assessors
d. peer evaluations of candidates
e. use psychologists as performance assessors
(d; difficult; p. 209)

52. Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job

performance during the selection process?
a. intelligence tests
b. miniature job training and evaluation
c. management assessment center
d. work sampling technique
e. video-based simulation technique
(a; moderate; p. 205)

53. Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job performance
during the selection process?
a. intelligence tests
b. motor abilities tests
c. personality tests
d. work sampling technique
e. interests inventories
(d; moderate; p. 208)

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54. An employer’s selection process is likely to include any of the following
methods except
a. testing
b. reference checks
c. honesty testing
d. substance abuse screening
e. all of the above may be included in an employer’s selection process
(e; easy; p. 208)

55. Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks

to verify a candidate’s _____.
a. age
b. marital status
c. identification
d. ethnic background
e. all of the above
(c; moderate; p. 209)

56. Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to

hiring a job candidate?
a. legal eligibility for employment
b. education
c. age
d. credit
e. motor vehicle record
(c; moderate; p. 209)

57. Which of the following is not a possible motivation for a current employer
to give an in correct reference to an employee who is applying for a
different position with another company?
a. fear of legal consequences
b. desire to improve employee’s chances for a new job
c. desire to remove employee from company
d. respect for employee privacy
e. all are possible motivations
(d; moderate; p. 213)

58. Which selection tool is considered the least useful by HR managers?

a. interview
b. reference letters
c. application form
d. academic record
e. psychological tests
(b; moderate; p. 213)

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59. One of the most useful features of an applicant tracking system is its
ability to report metrics including _____.
a. applicant EEO data
b. applicant source statistics
c. time to fill
d. cost to hire
e. all of the above
(e; easy; p. 217)

60. Which law prohibits employers from making pre-employment inquiries

into the existence, nature, or severity of a disability?
a. Freedom of Information Act
b. Privacy Act of 1974
c. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970
d. Americans with Disabilities Act
e. Buckley Amendment
(d; easy; p. 217)

61. Which law at the federal level governs how employers acquire and use
applicants’ and employees’ background information?
a. Freedom of Information Act
b. Privacy Act of 1974
c. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970
d. Americans with Disabilities Act
e. Buckley Amendment
(c; moderate; p. 217)

62. Which of the following actions is not required by the Fair Credit
Reporting Act of employers who check background information on
applicants?
a. disclosure to applicant that a credit report will be requested
b. written consent from the applicant
c. provision of report copies to the applicant
d. provision of a detailed rationale for any adverse action decision
e. all are required
(d; difficult; p. 217)

63. Which of the following businesses are not permitted to use polygraph tests
during the selection process?
a. businesses with national defense contracts
b. retail businesses
c. pharmacies
d. consultants with access to highly classified information
e. all businesses may use polygraph tests
(b; moderate; p. 220)

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64. Which of the following is not restricted or prohibited by federal laws?
a. polygraph exams
b. psychological stress evaluators
c. voice stress analyzers
d. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
e. all are restricted
(d; moderate; p. 220)

65. What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding

tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?
a. personality tests
b. interest inventories
c. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
d. graphology
e. handwriting analysis
(c; moderate; p. 220)

66. For a private employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing

investigation of alleged economic loss or employee theft, an employer
must do all of the following except _____.
a. demonstrate economic loss
b. prove that the accused had access to the property
c. document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph
d. explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked
during the polygraph
e. subject all employees with access to the property in question to the
same polygraph examination as the accused employee
(e; moderate; p. 220)

67. Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to
detect dishonest job applicants except _____.
a. polygraph tests
b. credit checks
c. background checks
d. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
e. drug tests
(a; easy; p. 220)

68. Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called
_____.
a. numerology
b. astrology
c. handwriting analysis
d. reasoning analysis
e. polygraph output assessment
(c; moderate; p. 222)

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69. What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a
baseline for future insurance claims?
a. physical examinations
b. personality tests
c. polygraph tests
d. substance abuse screening
e. all of the above
(a; easy; p. 223)

70. Which of the following is true regarding the use of drug testing?
a. some drug tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal
substances
b. drug tests measure degree of impairment
c. drug tests can assess level of drug addiction
d. drug tests can assess frequency of drug use
e. all of the above
(a; difficult; p. 223)

True/ False

71. EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected

groups. (T; easy; p. 194)
72. Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but
not reliability. (F; moderate; p. 195)
73. A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two
alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or
more different occasions. (T; easy; p. 195)
74. An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency. (T; easy;
p. 195)
75. Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test
administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence. (F;
moderate; p. 195)
76. Test validity answers the question, “Does this test measure what it’s
supposed to measure?” (T; easy; p. 195)
77. Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure.
(F; moderate; p. 195)
78. Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently. (F;
moderate; p. 195)
79. There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyze the
job and concluding with revalidation. (F; easy; p. 197)
80. A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then
measure an array of predictors. (T; easy; p. 197)
81. Some selection tests are validated, published, and sold to qualified buyers
by companies like Psychological Assessment Resources. (T; easy; p. 197)

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82. Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection
test. (F; moderate; p. 198)
83. To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before
they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection
techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance
measures are compared to the test scores under development. (T;
moderate; p. 198)
84. If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop
an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and
job performance graphically. (T; moderate; p. 199)
85. Criterion validity emphasizes judgment. (F; moderate; p. 199)
86. Developing, validating, and using selection standards including selection
tests generally require a qualified psychologist. (T; easy; p. 200)
87. Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them
regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations. (F;
moderate; p. 200)
88. Selection tests are used as supplements to other tools like interviews and
background checks. (T; moderate; p. 200)
89. EEO guidelines and laws apply to application forms and selection tests but
not to interviews or reference checks. (F; easy; p. 200)
90. A selection test can be found to have an adverse impact but still be
permissible for use as long as it does not have a disparate impact. (T;
difficult; p. 200)
91. The American Psychological Association’s standards for educational and
psychological tests are legally enforceable. (F; easy; p. 201)
92. Cognitive tests are the most difficult tests to evaluate and use. (F;
moderate; p. 204)
93. Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare
the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various
occupations. (T; moderate; p. 206)
94. Rejected applicants who receive bad references could sue the source of a
reference for defamation of character. (T; easy; p. 213)
95. Most employers report favoring written references to telephone references
because written letters provide a permanent record for the employer’s
files. (F; moderate; p. 213)
96. Hair follicle testing can provide a history of drug use for six months prior
to testing. (T; moderate; p. 223)
97. Hair follicle testing utilizes a method called radio-immunoassay of hair or
RIAH. (T; moderate; p. 223)
98. Most prospective employees prove their eligibility for employment in the
United States by showing a U.S. passport. (F; moderate; p. 224)
99. Applicant tracking systems (ATS) compile resumes, track applicants
during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet
minimum job requirements. (T; easy; p. 218)

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100. The Privacy Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how
employers acquire and use applicants’ and employees’ background
information. (F; difficult; p. 202)

Essay/ Short Answer

101. Why is it important to select the right employees for a position? (easy; p.
194)

Answer: First, a manager’s own performance depends in part on his or her

subordinates. Second, it is costly to recruit, hire, and train employees.
Third, there are legal implications to incompetent hiring. EEO laws and
court decisions require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for
protected groups. Courts will find employees liable when employees with
criminal records or other problems take advantage of access to customers’
property to commit crimes. Hiring workers with such backgrounds without
proper safeguards is called negligent hiring.

102. How can employers protect themselves against claims of negligent hiring?
(moderate; p. 194)

Answer: Employers can take the following steps to protect themselves

against claims of negligent hiring.
 Carefully scrutinize all information supplied by the applicant on
the employment application.
 Get the applicant’s written authorization for reference checks and
check those references carefully.
 Save all records and information you obtain about the applicant.
 Reject applicants who make false statements of material facts or
who have conviction records for offenses directly related and
important to the job in question.
 Keep in mind the need to balance the applicant’s privacy rights
with others’ “need to know” when damaging information is
discovered.
 Take immediate disciplinary action if problems develop.

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103. Describe the two main ways to demonstrate a test’s validity in
employment testing. What third method is rarely used? (moderate; p. 196)

Answer: The three ways to demonstrate a test’s validity are criterion

validity, content validity, and construct validity. Criterion validity means
demonstrating that those who do well on the test also do well on the job
and those that do poorly on the test do poorly on the job. Employers can
demonstrate content validity of a test by showing that the test constitutes a
fair sample of the content of the job. If the content on the test is
representative of what the person needs to know for the job, then the test is
probably content valid. Construct validity is not used as often.

104. Explain the five steps in the validation process. (moderate; p. 197)

Answer: The five steps are to analyze the job, choose tests, administer
tests, relate the test scores and the criteria, and cross-validate and
revalidate. The first step is to analyze the job and write job descriptions
and job specifications. Next, the tests that measure the attributes important
for job success are chosen. Then, the tests are administered. The next step
is to determine if there is a significant relationship between scores and
performance. Before putting the test into use, the test should be checked
by cross-validating and/ or revalidating.

105. Several guidelines exist for managing a testing program. List these
guidelines. (moderate; p. 200)

Answer: The guidelines for testing programs are as follows.

1) Use tests as supplements
2) Validate the tests
3) Monitor the testing and selection program
4) Keep accurate records
5) Use a certified psychologist
6) Manage test conditions
7) Revalidate periodically

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106. Industrial psychologists often emphasize the “big five” personality
dimensions in personnel testing. List and explain the meaning of the big
five dimensions. What do the dimensions tell us about applicants as it
relates to job success? (moderate; p. 207)

Answer: The “big five” personality dimensions are neuroticism,

extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to
experience. Neuroticism refers to a tendency to exhibit poor emotional
adjustment and experience negative effects like anxiety and insecurity.
Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.
Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative,
nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the
tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness
is comprised of two related facets including achievement and
dependability.

Extraversion is generally associated with success in sales. Extraversion,

conscientiousness, and openness to experience are strong predictors of
leadership. Neuroticism is negatively related to motivation.
Conscientiousness is the most consistent and universal predictor of job
performance.

107. What are the advantages of using the work sampling technique for
employee selection? (moderate; p. 208)

Answer: The work sampling technique measures how a candidate actually

performs some of a job’s basic tasks. It measures actual on-the-job tasks
so it is difficult for applicants to fake answers. Work samples are more
clearly related to the job being tested so the test is fair. Work sampling
does not include assessment of an applicant’s personality or mental state
so it cannot be considered an invasion of privacy. When designed well,
work sampling tests also show better validity than other tests designed to
predict performance.

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108. There are several methods for measuring job performance directly. List
and explain three such methods. (difficult; p. 205-210)

Answer: Work samples and simulations measure job performance directly.

Several types of tests fit into direct measurement methods: 1) work
sampling techniques, 2) management assessment centers, 3) video-based
situational testing, and 4) miniature job training and evaluation. The work
sampling technique measures how a candidate actually performs some of
the job’s basic tasks. A management assessment center is a 2-3 day
simulation in which 10-12 candidates perform realistic management tasks
under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s leadership
potential. Video-based tests are situational tests that present the candidate
with several scenarios, each followed by a multiple-choice question. The
miniature job training and evaluation approach trains candidates to
perform a sample of the job’s tasks and then evaluates performance.

109. What is a management assessment center? What else can managers use
these centers for besides selection? Provide five examples of typical
simulated exercises used in management assessment centers. (easy; p.
209)

Answer: A management assessment center is a 2-3 day simulation in

which 10-12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the
observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s leadership potential.
Typical simulated exercises include 1) the in basket, 2) leaderless group
discussion, 3) management games, 4) individual presentations, 5)
objective tests, and 6) the interview. These centers can be used for
promotion and development purposes as well as for selection.

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110. Various federal and state laws govern how employers acquire and use
applicants’ and employees’ background information. What four steps are
necessary for an employer to comply with these laws? (difficult; p. 219)

Answer: The four steps are 1) disclosure and authorization; 2)

certification; 3) provision of report copies; and 4) notice after adverse
action. In the first step, employers must disclose to the applicant or
employee that a report will be requested and that copies may be provided
to the employee/applicant, and the employer must obtain the
employee/applicant’s written authorization. In the second step, the
employer must certify to the reporting agency that the employer will
comply with the federal and state legal requirements. In the third step, the
employer must provide copies of the report to the applicant/employee if
adverse action such as withdrawing an offer or dismissing the employee is
contemplated. After the employer provides the employee or applicant with
copies of the consumer and investigative reports and a “reasonable period”
has elapsed, the employer may take adverse action. If so, the employee or
applicant must receive an adverse action notice.

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