UNIVERSITY OF NUEVA CACERES

IN PARTNERSHIP WITH
ALCORCON ENGINEERING REVIEW CENTER
Cebu: 4TH Flr. Villacampa-Capuras Bldg., Sanciangco St. Cebu City (Tel # 254-33-84)
Manila Branch: 3rd floor JPD Bldg 1955, C M Recto corner N. Reyes St, Sampaloc, Manila Tel # (02) 736-4438

MATHEMATICS
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION
INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Find the diameter of a sphere whose volume is 10,000 cm 3.

A. 13.36 cm B. 26.73 cm C. 29.34 cm D. 10.23 cm
2. Find the side of a cube whose diagonal is 10 in.
A. 5.77 in B. 6.96 in C. 8.45 in D. 9.77 in
3. For triangle ABC, angle A = 60o, a = 15 cm and c = 10 cm. Find the area of triangle.
A. 48.56 cm2 B. 53.04 cm2 C. 64.45 cm2 D. 74.68 cm2
4. Find the area of sector whose central angle is 40 o, and whose arc length is 15 in.
A. 156.34 in2 B. 161.14 in2 C. 176.93 in2 D. 187.49 in2
5. Find the 95th term of an AP of 1.03, 1.02, 1.01, …
A. 0.05 B. 0.09 C. 0.07 D. 0.13
6. If four coins are tossed, how many possible ways are there of at least one coin
showing tails?
A. 7 B. 12 C. 15 D. 18
7. If f(x) = x2 + 2x + 3, find f(4).
A. 25 B. 27 C. 29 D. 31
8. A rat fell on a bucket of a water wheel with diameter of 600 cm which traveled an
angle of 210o before it dropped the bucket. Calculate for the linear centimeter that the rat
was carried by the bucket before it fell.
A. 970.84 cm B. 983.84 cm C. 1099.55 cm D. 994.84 cm
9. Solve for x: Log4 (x - 6) + log4 x = 2.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
10. A pyramid with a square base has an altitude of 30 cm. If the edge of the base is 15
cm, calculate for the volume of pyramid.
A. 1,275 cm3 B. 2250 cm3 C. 1,875 cm3 D. 1,593 cm3
11. If a right cone has a base radius of 30 cm and an altitude of 45 cm, solve for the total
surface area and the volume of the cone.
A. 56,726.76 cm3 B. 57,826.76 cm3 C. 42,411.50 cm3 D.
3
57,926.76 cm
12. If the LPG sphere of Shell company has an inside diameter of 12 meters and it could
safely be filled to 75% of its volume, compute for the volume of LPG that could safely be
contained in the sphere.
A. 1,525.36 m3 B. 678.58 m3 C. 1,425.36 m3 D. 1,325.36 m3
13. The radius of a circle inscribed in a triangle with sides of 6, 8 and 10 is:
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
14. From a box containing 6 red balls, 8 white balls and 10 blue balls, one ball is drawn
at random. Determine the probability that it is white.
A. 1/8 B. ¼ C. ½ D. 1/3
15. What is the radius of a circle with the following equation? x2 - 6x + y2 - 4y - 12 = 0
A. 3.46 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
x2  9
16. What is the value of the following limit? Lim
x 3 x3
A. -6 B. 1 C. 6 D. 9
17. Find the length of latus rectum of parabola y 2 + 8x – 6y + 1 = 0.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
18. A sector has an area of 50 in2. Find the perimeter of the sector for a central angle of
60o.
A. 29.78 in B. 32.34 in C. 36.34 in D. 45.34 in
19. Evaluate the identity: (tan2)(cos2) + (cot2)(sin2)
A. 1 B. 0 C. cosθ D. sinθ
20. For given triangle ABC: Given A = 32, c = 27 and B = 70 find side b.
A. 32.45 B. 40.56 C. 25.94 D. 12.45
21. Carpenter Pedro can make a cabinet in 4 working days alone. Carpenter Juan can
do it in 9 days also working alone. How long will it take them to finish the same job
working together?
A. 2-10/13 days B. 2-1/3 days C. 3-1/3 days D. 2-5/3 days
22. When an irregular shaped object is placed in a cylindrical vessel of a water whose
radius is 10 cm, the water rises 5 cm. What is the volume of the rock if it is completely
submerged?
A. 192π cm3 B. 24π cm3 C. 384π cm3 D. 500π cm3
23. What is the number of the sides of the polygon if the sum of the measures of the
angles of a convex polygon is 1440?
A. 7 B. 9 C. 6 D. 10
24. A circle with radius r has a circumference equal to the perimeter of a square whose
side is S.Which of the following is true?
A. 2r = πS B. r = π/2 S C. r2 = S D. r = 2S/π
25. An equilateral triangle has an altitude of 8 3 cm long. Find its area.
A. 5 3 / 4 cm2 B. 100.45 cm2 C. 257.67 cm2 D. 110.85 cm2
26. How long is each side of regular hexagon with perimeter 12 ft?
A. 36 in B. 12 in C. 24 in D. 18 in
27. Instead of multiplying the number by 21, Fred divided it by 7. If the answer he
obtained was 2, what should have been the correct answer?
A. 289 B. 294 C. 287 D. 504
28. A rectangular floor is to contain 144 m2 of flooring. If the length is to be four times its
width, what should its dimension be?
A. 12 m x 12 m B. 6 m x 24 m C. 10 m x 14.4 m D. 4 m x 36 m
29. Point (5, 2) is the center of a circle that is tangent to the y-axis. What is the point of
tangency?
 A. (0, 2) B. (0, 5) C. (2, 0) D. (5, 0)
30. The ratio of two number is 5:7. If the larger number is 42, what number is the smaller
one?
A. 10 B. 18 C. 20 D. 30
31. Circle A has circumference numerically equal to its area. If a certain square has the
same area as circle A, then what would be the length of its sides?
A. π 2 B. π 3 C. 4 4 D. 2 
32. A dodecagon has how many diagonals?
A. 50 B. 54 C. 56 D. 58
33. Neil is 15 years and his sister is 5 years old. In how many years will Neil be twice as
old as his sister?
A. 8 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
34. Find the maximum area of square that can be cut from a circular cardboard whose
perimeter is 100 cm.
A. 456.34 cm2 B. 478.60 cm2 C. 498.45 cm2 D. 506.61 cm2
35. Find the area of pentagon inscribed in a circle whose diameter is 5 ft.
A. 12.34 ft2 B. 10.25 ft2 C. 14.86 ft2 D. 16.34 ft2
36. The pilot of an airplane observes the angle of depression of a light directly below his
line of flight to be 30o. A minute later its angle of depression is 45 o. If he is flying
horizontally in a straight course at the rate of 240 kph, find the altitude at which he is
flying.
A. 5.456 km B. 9.456 km C. 3.456 km D. 2.456 km
37. A garden is in the form of an ellipse with semi-major axis and semi-minor axis of 4 m
and 3 m respectively. If the semi-major and semi-minor axes increased by 0.18 m each,
find the increase in the area of the garden in sq. m.
A. 3.69 B. 4.06 C. 4.62 D. 5,02
38. If the line through (-1, 3) and (-3, -2) is perpendicular to the line through (-7, 4) and
(x, 0). Find
the value of x.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
39. A kite at a height of 60 ft is moving horizontally at a rate of 5 ft per second away from
the boy who flies it. How fast is the cord being released when 100 ft are out?
A. 2 fps B. 4 fps C. 6 fps D. 8 fps
40. A rectangular box with an open top is to be formed from a rectangular piece of
cardboard which is 3 inches by 8 inches. How many inches should be cut from each
corner to form a box with maximum volume?
A. 1 B. 2/3 C. ½ D. 1/3
41. A balloon leaving the ground, 18 m from the observer, rises vertically at a steady rate
of 3 m/s. How fast is the angle of elevation of the line of sight increasing after 8 seconds.
A. 0.12 rad/s B. 0.08 rad/s C. 0.03 rad/s D. 0.06 rad/s
42. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y = x 3 and the lines y = 1 and x = 0.
A. ¾ sq. unit B. 4/5 sq. unit C. 5/6 sq. unit D. 2/3 sq. unit
43. Evaluate: dy/dx = 2y/x at x = 2; y = 2
A. y = ½ x2 B. x2 + 2y2 = -12 C. y = 2x2 D. x2 + 2y2 = 12
44. The sum of all prime numbers between 1 and 15 is _____.
A. 39 B. 41 C. 46 D. 120
45. Ten liters of 25% salt solution and 15 liters of 35% salt solution are poured into a
drum originally containing 30 liters of 10% salt solution. What is the percent
concentration of salt in the mixture?
A. 19.55% B. 22.15% C. 27.05% D. 25.72%
46. Find the smallest positive integer, which leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 4,
6 and 8.
A. 26 B. 50 C. 74 D. 98
47. A boy started one hour and twenty minutes earlier than a man. If the man at 6 kph
faster than the boy and overlook the boy in 40 minutes, find the rate of the man.
A. 12 kph B. 10 kph C. 8 kph D. 9 kph
48. How many minutes after 2:00 will the hands of the clock extended in the opposite
directions for the first time?
A. 40.636 B. 41.636 C. 42.6363 D. 43.636
49. Find the area of the triangle which the line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 forms with the coordinate
axes.
A. 2 sq. unit B. 3 sq. unit C. 4 sq. unit D. 5 sq. unit
50. A trapezoid has an area of 180 sq. cm and altitude of 20 cm. Find the shorter base if
the ratio of the bases is 4:5.
A. 6 cm B. 8 cm C. 10 cm D. 12 cm
51. A circle having an area of 452 sq. m is cut into two segment by a chord which is 6 m
from the center. Compute for the area of the bigger segment.
A. 354.89 sq. cm B. 363.68 sq. cm C. 378.42 sq. cm
D. 383.64 sq. cm
52. Two die are rolled. Find the probability that the sum of the two die is less than 10.
A. 17/18 B. 11/12 C. 8/9 D. 5/6
53. Find the area bounded by the parabola: 2y = x 2, and the line: y = x + 4.
A. 16 sq. units B. 18 sq. units C. 20 sq. units D. 24 sq. units
54. Determine the area of the triangle bounded by the straight lines x + 2y – 7 = 0, 3x –
4y – 1 = 0, 2x – y + 6 = 0.
A. 10 sq units B. 20 sq units C. 15 sq units D. 25 sq. units
55. The length of the latus rectum for the ellipse (x 2 / 64) + (y2 / 16) = 1 is _____.
A. 4 units B. 5 units C. 6 units D. 8 units
56. One point of a segment is (-1, 0) and the mid-point is (2, 2). Find the other end of
the segment.
A. (3, 4) B. (4, 4) C. (5, 4) D. (6, 4)
57. Find the slope of the line passing through the points (-1, -2) and (7, 8).
A. 3/5 B. ¾ C. 5/4 D. ¼
58. Find the equation of line passing through (5, -5) and has a slope of -5.
A. y = 5x + 20 B. y = -5x – 20 C. y = -5x + 20 D. y = -5x + 34
59. Find the distance between point (2, 3) and line 2x + y = 8.
A. 0.15 B. 0.35 C. 0.45 D. 0.65
60. Find the angle of intersection between line y = -2x + 4 and line y = 3x – 5.
A. 35o B. 40o C. 45o D. 50o
61. Find the center and radius of x2 + y2 + 4x – 3y = 0.
A. (-2, 3/2), r = 1/2 C. (-2, 3/2), r = 3/2
B. (-2, 3/2), r = 5/2 D. (-2, 3/2), r = 7/2
62. Find the vertex of the parabola y2 + 8x – 6y + 1 = 0
A. (1, 3) B. (2, 4) C. (3, 5) D. (4, 6
63. Find the length of latus rectum of ellipse x2 + 4y2 = 1.
A. 1/3 B. 2/3 C. ½ D. 4/3
64. The distance a body travels is a function of time and is given by x(t) = 18t + 9t 2. Find
its velocity at t = 2.
A. 36 B. 54 C. 24 D. 20
65. The product of two positive numbers is 16. Find the number if the sum of one and
the square of the other is least.
A. 8, 2 B. 8, 1 C. 8, 5 D. 8, 0
66. A rectangular field is to be enclosed by 1000 meters of fenced. What is the possible
area can be enclosed?
A. 63,500 m2 B. 50,630 m2 C. 35,600 m2 D. 62,500 m2
67. Find x if x2 - 5x + 6 = 0.
A. 2 & 3 B. 6 & 4 C. 2 & 5 D. 3 & 6
68. Find the sum of the first 20 terms of 2, 4, 8, 16, ...........
A. 2,097,150 B. 2,453,455 C. 1,237,456 D. 3,126,355
69. Find the sum of infinite series of 200, 100, 50, 25, ....
A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400
70. Find the side of a square key that can be cut from a 30 mm diameter cross-section of
metal.
A. 23.12 B. 21.21 mm C. 26.34 mm D. 32.34 mm
71. Find the area of flow of 12 in diameter pipe with 2/3 full or height is 2/3 of the
diameter.
A. 50 in2 B. 60 in2 C. 70 in2 D. 80 in2
72. Find the number of sides of a polygon having an interior angles of 144 o.
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
73. Find the volume of sphere with 20 cm diameter.
A. 321.23 cm3 B. 4188.80 cm3 C. 2353.45 cm3 D. 2643 cm3
74. Solve for y if x - y = 5 and y = 2x - 13.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
75. Find the distance between the points P1 (3, 4) and P2(-5, 6).
A. 8.25 B. 6.45 C. 8.00 D. 7.25
76. Find the equation of line with x-intercept of 2 and y-intercept of 3.
A. 3x + 2y = 6 B. 3x - 2y = 6 C. 3x + 2y = -6 D. 3x - 2y = -6
77. Find the radius of a circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y - 31 = 0.
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
78. The equation x2 + 3x - y + 16 = 0 is:
A. circle B. hyperbola C. ellipse D. parabola
3
79. Evaluate the limits of x  8 as x approaches 2.
x2
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
80. Find the value of x in the equation y3 - 3y + 3x3 - 9x2 = 0 for a maximum value of y.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
81. Find the maximum area of a rectangle with diagonal of 10 inches, in in 2.
A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50
82. What is the derivative of sin4x dx?
A. 2sin4x B. 4cos4x C. -4cos4x D. cos 4x
83. Find the slope of y = 3x + 4.
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
84. Find the area bounded by the following curves y = 8 and the parabola y = x 2.
A. 25.34 B. 20.34 C. 30.17 D. 35.34
85. The slope of the line is 1/2. The slope of the second line is -2/3. Both lines intercept
at the point (3,1). What is the acute angle between the lines?
A. 26.6 B. 50.2 C. 33.7 D. 60.3
86. The position of the acceleration of the object as a function of time is described by: x
= 4t3 + 2t2 - t + 3. What is the acceleration of the object at t = 2?
A. 26 B. 41 C. 27.5 D. 52
87. The square of a number is increased by 36 is the same as 12 times the number.
Find the number.
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
88. A 20 ft length pipe is to be cut into two pieces where one is 4 ft longer than the other.
Find the length of smaller part.
A. 8 ft B. 12 ft C. 10 ft D. 14 ft
89. A rectangular lot has a perimeter of 78 m and area of 368 m 2. What is the width of
lot?
A. 12 m B. 8 m C. 16 m D. 18 m
90. A car passes through a gasoline station at an average speed of 36 kph. After 10
seconds, another car passes at the same station with an average speed of 72 kph. How
long will thesecond car overtake the first car?
A. 5 sec B. 10 sec C. 15 sec D. 20 sec
91. What is the slope of the line tangent to the parabola y = 12x 2 + 3 at a point where x =
5?
A. 3 B. 120 C. 24 D. 303
92. Resolve (5x+4)/(x2+2x) into partial fractions.
A. 2/x + 3/(x+2) B. 2/x + 3/(x-2) C. -2/x + 3/(x+2) D. 2/x - 3/(x+2)
93. Rudy rode 18 km downstream and back to the same place where he started in 3
hours. Find the rate of Rudy in still water if the velocity of the stream is 3 kph.
A. 12.7 kph B. 10.4 kph C. 16,8 kph D. 14.5 kph
94. Six years ago, a mother was 4 times as old as her daughter. Ten years from now,
she will be twice as old. How old is the daughter now?
A. 18 B. 16 C. 12 D. 14
95. In a certain laboratory a chemist has 24 mL of 78% sulfuric acid solution. How many
liters of pure sulfuric acid should he add to make 85% solution?
A. 4.6 mL B. 5.8 mL C. 16.4 mL D. 11.2 mL
96. One pipe can filled the tank in 5 hours. A second pipe takes only 3 hours to do the
same job. If both pipes working together, how long will it takes to fill the tank?
A. 1.875 hrs B. 2.675 hrs C. 1.500 hrs D. 1.250 hrs
97. What time after one o’clock will the hands of the clock be 100 o to each other for the
first time?
A. 1:19.67 B. 1:21.54 C. 1:23.63 D. 1:25.63
98. Given A = 32, c = 27 and B = 70 find side b.
 A. 30.23 B. 25.94 C. 34.55 D. 45.34
99. Find the equation of parabola with vertex at (0,0) and focus at (4,0)
A. x = y2 B. y2 = 16x C. y2 = x + 1 D. y2 = 16x -4
100. A tower on top of building as observed 500 ft away from the ground has an angle of
elevation of 40o and 43o, respectively. How tall is the tower?
A. 40.42 ft B. 42.42 ft C. 44.71 m D. 46.71 m
----------------------------------------------------- nothing follows
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 UNIVERSITY OF NUEVA CACERES
IN PARTNERSHIP WITH
ALCORCON ENGINEERING REVIEW CENTER
Cebu: 4TH Flr. Villacampa-Capuras Bldg., Sanciangco St. Cebu City (Tel # 254-33-84)
Manila Branch: 3rd floor JPD Bldg 1955, C M Recto corner N. Reyes St, Sampaloc, Manila Tel # (02) 736-4438

POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION
INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Twenty liters of air at 14 psi is compressed isothermally to 2 liters has a pressure of:
A. 140 psi B. 150 psi C. 160 psi D. 170 psi
2. Find the density of air 110 kPa and 34oC is:
A. 1.25 B. 1.20 C. 1.18 D. 1.08
3. The density of mixing 10 kg water with 8 kg fluid with (SG = 1.2) is:
A. 1080 B. 2943 C. 1070 D. 1050
4. At constant volume the air temperature changes from 30 C to 60oC, if mass of air is 20 kg/s,
o

find the work done

A. 600 kJ B. 700 kJ C. 800 kJ D. 0 kJ
o o
5. Twenty five kilogram of air is heated from 25 C to 50 C. Find the heat added at constant
pressure process.
A. 600 kJ B. 625 kJ C. 650 kJ D. 675 kJ
6. The velocity of fluid with specific gravity of 0.9 at a head of 20 m is
A. 12.34 m/s B. 15.23 m/s C. 17.34 m/s D. 19.81 m/s
7. Find the efficiency of an Otto cycle having a compression ratio of 10 is
A. 40.45% B. 56.34% C. 60.19% D. 72.34%
o o
8. The equivalent of 36 F temperature change in C.
A. 20 B. 16 C. 22 D. 24
o o
9. A reversed Carnot cycle operates 40 C and – 2 C. Find the COP of the system.
A. 2.34 B. 4.23 C. 5.33 D. 6.45
10. A 30,000 kg fish is to be cooled from 25 oC to –20oC in 24 hrs. The latent heat of fusion is
270 kJ/kg and cp above freezing is 3.8 kJ/kg-K and below freezing is 1.7 kJ/kg-K with freezing
point of – 3oC. Find the tons of refrigeration required considering the 30% loss.
A. 34 B. 52 C. 43 D. 86
11. Two 300 m pipes are connected in parallel. If there are 1.5 m head loss per 20 m pipe, find
the total head loss of the combination?
A. 22.50 m B. 45 m C. 54 m D. 65 m
12. The inlet temperature of compressor in a Brayton cycle is 30 oC. If cycle efficiency is 60%,
find the temperature at compressor exit.
A. 452.30K B. 542.34K C. 673.45K D. 757.49K
13. A steam turbine has an inlet enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg and exit enthalpy of 2300 KJ. The turbine
exit has a quality of 80% while the mass of water is 0.3 kg/s. Find the turbine power, kw.
A. 653 kW B. 763 kW C. 840 kW D. 210 W
14. A Rankine cycle has a turbine work of 600 kJ/kg, pump work of 10 kJ/kg and condenser heat
rejected of 800 kJ/kg. The cycle efficiency is:
A. 42.45% B. 45.34% C. 38.45% D. 56.34%
15. A boiler feed pump that operates between 50 kpa and 3500 kpa has a work of:
A. 9.45 kJ/kg B. 7.34 kJ/kg C. 5.67 kJ/kg D. 3.45 kJ/kg
16. The cooling water in the condenser of a Rankine cycle has a temperature difference of 36 oF.
If the cooling water circulates at 60 li/s, find the heat rejected from the condenser, kw.
A. 5024 kW B. 1675 kW C. 2346.45 kW D. 3624 kW
17. A venturimeter has a pressure difference of 30 kpa. If inlet velocity is 6 m/s, find the exit
velocity.
A. 10 m/s B. 25 m/s C. 20 m/s D. 35 m/s
o o
18. A Reversed Carnot cycle operates between 5 C and 30 C. If the load in the evaporator is 50
kW, find the compressor power.
A. 4.5 kW B. 5 kW C. 5.5 kW D. 6 kW
19. A 10,000 kg fish is to be cooled from 25oC to –18oC in 14 hrs. The specific heat above
freezing is 3.8 kJ/kg-K and below freezing is 1.7 kJ/kg-K while the freezing temperature of
the fish is – 2oC. If latent heat of fusion is 280 kJ/kg, find the tons of refrigeration required.
A. 23.12 B. 32.34 C. 38.34 D. 42.38
20. If the compression ratio of an Otto cycle is 10, its pressure ratio is:
A. 10.23 B. 8.23 C. 25.12 D. 12.34
21. An Otto cycle has a clearance of 8%. If the heat added is 1000 kJ, what is the heat rejected.
 A. 353 kJ B. 234 kJ C. 453 kJ D. 543 kJ
22. What is the maximum to minimum temperature ratio if the cycle efficiency of Carnot cycle is
60%.
A. 1.5 B. 2.5 C. 3.5 D. 4.5
23. The enthalpy at turbine exit of Rankine cycle is 1200 kJ/kg and at condenser inlet is 1100
kJ/kg. If mass of steam circulate is 1.5 kg/s, find the heat rejected between the two points.
A. 50 kW B. 100 kW C. 150 kW D. 200 kW
24. At 3000 kPa constant pressure process of steam the specific volume changes from 1.234
m3/kg to 0.0234 m3/kg. Find the work done during the process.
A. 3632 kJ/kg B. 2312 kJ/kg C. 1676 kJ/kg D. 5423 kJ/kg
25. Find molal air-fuel ratio of C10 H16 fuel if burned with 30% excess air.
A. 111.38 B. 102.34 C. 86.63 D. 88.42
26. What is the COP of a 25 tons refrigeration system that has a compressor power of 25 hp?
A. 3.45 B. 5.23 C. 6.34 D. 4.71
27. When a vessel contains 10 kg steam, its internal energy changes from 2000 kJ/kg to 2600
kJ/kg. Find the heat added during the process.
A. 5000 kJ B. 6000 kJ C. 7000 kJ D. 8000 kJ
28. At 1 atm pressure the heat is added to water until its temperature is 230 oC. Find the degree
superheat.
A. 120oC B. 130oC C. 140oC D. 150oC
29. A 3000 kg pork is to be cooled from 26 oC to -16oC in 20 hrs. The specific heat above freezing
is 3.8 and below freezing is 1.68 KJ/kg-K. The freezing point is - 2 oC and latent heat of
fusion is 250 kJ/kg. Find the tons of refrigeration needed.
A. 2.5 B. 3.5 C. 4.5 D. 5.5
30. A refrigeration system has an evaporator temperature of - 10 oC (hf = 154.056 KJ/kg, hg =
1450.22 kJ/kg) if condenser exit has 356 kJ/kg enthalpy, find the amount of refrigerant
vaporized.
A. 12.34% B. 15.58% C. 17.34% D. 19.34%
31. A venturi-meter has an inlet water velocity of 6 m/s and area ratio of 4. Find the pressure
difference in kPa.
A. 270 B. 280 C. 290 D. 300
32. A 3 x 4 x 5 m room has an air temperature of 35 oC and 100 kPa pressure. If humidity ratio is
0.0289, find the mass of water vapor in air.
A. 5.34 kg B. 4.23 kg C. 3.23 kg D. 1.87 kg
33. Air has a humidity ratio of 0.0873 kg/kg. If total pressure of air 102 kPa, what is the pressure
of water vapor?
A. 10.23 kPa B. 12.55 kPa C. 8.34 kPa D. 14.23 kPa
34. The moisture removed from 100 kg copra at 75% solid to 5% moisture is:
A. 16 kg B. 18 kg C. 21 kg D. 23 kg
35. A C14 H20 fuel is burned with 30% excess air. What is the theoretical air needed?
A. 30% B. 120% C. 130% D. 150%
36. A water tank is filled with water to a height of 5 m. The tank is 25 m from the ground. The
pressure at the bottom of the tank in kPa is
A. 294.3 kPa B. 49 kPa C. 64 kPa D. 178 kPa
37. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 2 kg of iron (Cp = 0.115 kcal/kg-oC)
from 27oC to 100oC is
A. 16.5 kcal B. 16.6 kcal C. 16.7 kcal D. 16.8 kcal
38. A horizontal pipe of cross section of 8 cm and has a constriction of cross section of 2 cm2.
2

Gasoline flows in the larger pipe with a speed of 10 cm/s. What is the speed in the
constriction in cm/s?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
39. Find the efficiency of a Diesel cycle having clearance volume of 8% and cut-off ratio of 3.
A. 53.90% B. 34.23% C. 56.45% D. 62.12%
40. The efficiency of the engine operating between 50oC and 300oC is:
A. 43.63% B. 45.23% C. 52.34% D. 61.23%
41. A reversed Carnot cycle operates between 2oC and 50oC. Find the performance factor.
A. 5.73 B. 4.23 C. 6.73 D. 2.71
42. Water enters the heater at the rate of 5 liters per second at 25oC. Find the final temperature at
the exit if the heat rejected is 100 kW.
A.10oC B. 20oC C. 30oC D. 40oC
43. A polytropic process follows the equation PV1.36 = C. The initial temperature and pressure are
30oC and 1 bar, respectively. Find the final pressure of air if the temperature doubles.
A. 6.73 bars B. 7.34 bars C. 9.45 bars D. 11.31 bars
44. The enthalpy at the exit of the turbine in a Rankine cycle is 2700 kJ/kg and condenser exit is
2000 kJ/kg. Steam has a rate of 2 kg/s. If the change of cooling water in the condenser is
20oC, find the liters per sec of water needed for cooling.
A. 12.34 kg/s B. 16.20 kg/s C. 20.34 kg/s D. 24.23 kg/s
o o
45. What is the density of a 30 API fuel if it is used at 50 C temperature?
 A. 834 kg/m3 B. 855 kg/m3 C. 923 kg/m3 D. 1000 kg/m3
46. Find the efficiency of the engine operating between 30oC and 400oC.
A. 45% B. 50% C. 55% D. 60%
o
47. Assuming specific heat of ice is 0.5 Btu/lb- F, and the latent heat of fusion is 144 Btu/lb, how
many Btu will be absorbed in changing 30 lbs of ice at 5oF to water at 42oF?
A. 4093 Btu B. 5025 Btu C. 6034 Btu D. 9835 Btu
48. A 40 pound of water at 200oF is mixed 80 pounds of water at 60oF. What is its final
emperature?
A. 726.34oF B. 106.67oF C. 87.23oF D. 208.57oF
49. A single acting reciprocating compressor is needed to compress 50 kg of air per hour from 100
kPa and 25oC intake condition to 900 kPa delivering pressure. The compression is expected
to follow PV1.25 = C. If the compressor has a clearance factor of 4% and it is expected to
operate at 300 rpm, what is the required piston displacement?
A. 2700 cc B. 2800 cc C. 2900 cc D. 3000 cc
50. Water coming from a pressure head of 100 ft flows through a turbine at a rate of 50 cfs,
develops 500 bhp. The turbine elevation above the tailwater level is 10 ft. Find the turbine
efficiency.
A. 87.39% B. 80.13% C. 75.80% D. 98.34%
51. A 0.75 horsepower motor drives a pump whose efficiency is 63%. What should be the
required flow rate if the pump develops pressure rise of 115 Pa in water?
A. 3.06 cu. m/s B. 4.05 cu. m/s C. 5.39 cu. m/s D. 9.34 cu. m/s
52. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 min. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8 and a
heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has an efficiency of 25%. What is the brake
horsepower of this engine?
A. 16.76 hp B. 18.30 hp C. 20.04 hp D. 30.45 hp
53. A steam engine operates between 150C and 550C. What is its theoretical maximum thermal
efficiency?
A. 27% B. 73% C. 49% D. 95%
54. A gas at 1 atmospheric pressure originally occupies a volume of 20 ft 3 . The gas is
polytropically compressed with n = 1.15 until the pressure is 48.51 psia. What work is
required for this compression?
A. 45 ft-lbf B. 300 ft-lbf C. 115 ft-lbf D. 48,000 ft-lbf
55. A 48 ft wall has an average thermal conductivity of 1.2 BTU-ft/ft2-F-hr. If the temperature
2

difference between the two sides is 18F and the thickness is 0.7 ft, what is the total heat loss
is 5 hours?
A. 1480 Btu B. 7400 Btu C. 5180 Btu D. 38,500 Btu
56. What is the coeficient of performance of a Carnot refrigeration cycle operating between -10F
and -190F?
A. - 0.5 B. 1.06 C. 0.5 D. 1.5
57. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4oC by removing heat from it at a rate
of 360 kJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 2 kW, determine the
coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
o
58. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained at 4 C by removing heat from it at a rate
of 360 kJ/min. If the required power input to the refrigerator is 2 kW, determine the rate of
heat discharge to the room that houses the refrigerator.
A. 420 kJ/min B. 440 kJ/min C. 460 kJ/min D. 480 kJ/min
59. A Carnot heat engine receives 500 kJ of heat per cycle from a high-temperature source at
652oC and rejects heat to a low temperature sink at 30oC. Determine the thermal efficiency
of this Carnot engine
A. 0.234 B. 0.453 C. 0.672 D. 0.873
60. Carnot heat engine receives 500 kJ of heat per cycle from a high-temperature source at 652oC
and rejects heat to a low temperature sink at 30oC. Determine the amount of heat rejected to
the sink per cycle.
A. 163.80 kJ B. 187.34 kJ C. 210.34 kJ D. 293.34 kJ
61. A household refrigerator with a COP of 1.8 removes heat from the refrigerated space at a rate
of 90 kJ/min. Determine the electric power consumed by the refrigerator
A. 0.45 kW B. 0.83 kW C. 1.23 kW D. 1.85 kW
62. A nude person has a conduction heat transfer of 30 kJ/hr and radiation loss of 80 kJ/hr. If
convection heat transfer is 30 kJ/hr, find the total heat loss after 4 hrs?
A. 560 kJ B. 80 kJC. 39 kJD. 440 kJ
63. Consider a nude person standing in a room at 20oC. Determine the total rate of heat transfer
from this person if this exposed surface are and the skin temperature of the person are 1.6 m2
and 34oC, respectively, and the convection heat transfer coefficient is 6 W/m2-C. Use Fe =
0.95
A. 243.45 w B. 256.34 w C. 287.45 w D. 264.80 w
64. The internal energy of 5 kg air during a process is 200 kJ. Its temperature change in OF is:
A. 73.4 B. 87.4 C. 100.5 D. 123.4
65. What is the corresponding head to a flow of 5 m/s
A. 3.055 m B. 3.52 m C. 2.320 m D. 1.275 m
3
66. A natural waterfall 50 m high consistently discharges 2 m /s . The available power in kg-m/s
is:
 A. 100 B. 2500 C. 50,000 D. 100,000
3 3
67. Ten kilogram of air is heated from 0.2 m to 0.02 m . Find the change of entropy during an
isothermal process.
A. 6.61 kJ/kg B. 7.34 kJ/kg C. 8.45 kJ/kg D. 9.45 kJ/kg
68. A flexible tank contains gas at 210 kPaa, 60 C and 2 m . If the tank condition reduces to 30oC
o 3

and 0.5 m3, find the final gage pressure in the tank, kpa.
A. 374 B. 456 C. 583 D. 663
69. A piston with diameter of 12 cm has a piston stroke of 20 cm. If air is compressed to half of
the stroke, find the work done at constant pressure process of 600 kpa.
A. 0.68 kJ/kg B. 0.79 kJ/kg C. 0.90 kJ/kg D. 1.23 kJ/kg
70. Air is compressed isentropically from 102 kPa to 280 kPa. If volume after compression is
0.10 m3, find the initial volume if compression follows PV1.38 = C.
A. 0.14 m3 B. 0.56 m3 C. 0.21 m3 D. 0.35 m3
71. The refrigerating capacity of an R-12 system is 22 kW. Compressor power is 7.8 hp.
Determine the COP of the refrigeration system.
A. 3.78 B. 2.82 C. 2.22 D. 1.85
72. The fuel has a chemical formula of CH4 with 15% excess air. Find the actual mass of air in
kg per mass of kg fuel?
A. 17.2 B. 19.8 C. 22.3 D. 25.9
73. Air at atmospheric pressure of 760 mm Hg at sea level with a temperature of 22 oC, what is the
specific weight per cu. meter?
A. 0.651 B. 0.516 C. 0.371 D. 1.197
74. The refrigeration system has a refrigeration cycle per kg of 220 kJ. The heat required to
remove is 630 kJ/hr. Calculate the mass circulated per hour.
A. 3.186 kg B. 10 kg C. 8 kg D. 2.86 kg
75. A reversed Carnot cycle is operating under the temperature limits - 8oC and 18oC. Find
the COP.
A. 10.2 B. 14 C. 16.8 D. 19.2
76. A refrigeration cycle having 0.18 MPa (h g = 180.8 KJ/kg) and 0.8 Mpa (h = 208.65). The mass
flow rate in the cycle is 0.09 kg/sec with 10.21 kW rate of heat removal. Determine the heat
rejected per power?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8
77. Find the efficiency of Otto cycle having an intake pressure of 1 at and discharge pressure of 6
atm.
 A. 30% B. 40% C. 45% D. 55%
78. Find the head of fluid flowing at the rate of 40 m/s.
A. 76.34 m B. 78.34 m C. 98.23 m D. 81.55 m
3 o
79. Find the mass of air in a 10 ft air tank at 20 psia and 300 F.
A. 0.71 lb B. 0.92 lb C. 1.28 lb D. 1.764 lb
80. Find the heat added to a 10 lb air from 50oF to 180oF at constant pressure process.
A. 278 Btu B. 312 Btu C. 493 Btu D. 874 Btu
81. Find the heat needed to raise 20 lb water from 90oF to 200oF.
A. 2000 Btu B. 2100 Btu C. 1800 Btu D. 2200 Btu
o
82. The heat added to the system 200 kJ at 150 F. Find the change of entropy in kJ/K.
A. 0.591 B. 0.239 C. 0.764 D. 0.193
83. Find the pressure at the bottom of 100 ft column water.
A. 32.45 psi B. 38.99 psi C. 43.33 psi D. 54.34 psi
3
84. Find the work needed to isothermally compressed 20 m /min of air from 95 kPa to 400 kPa.
A. 40.34 kW B. 45.52 kW C. 48.34 kW D. 52.34 kW
85. Find the sensible heat factor of an air-conditioning unit with sensible heat load of 100
kW and latent heat load of 40 kW.
A. 0.513 B. 0.714 C. 0.983 D. 1.293
86. A steam turbine has a brake power of 1200 hp at 600 rpm when its head is 40 m. Find the
specific speed of turbine.
A. 46.79 rpm B. 43.21 rpm C. 52.17 rpm D. 56.44 rpm
87. Find the COP of refrigeration that operates between -5oC to 40oC.
A. 5.95 B. 4.32 C. 3.04 D. 6.94
88. Air is flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe has a velocity of 5 m/s. If temperature of air is
25oC and 120 kpa pressure, find the mass flow of air in the pipe.
A. 0.11 kg/s B. 0.22 kg/s C. 0.33 kg/s D. 0.44 kg/s
89. An ammonia refrigeration operates between -6 C evaporator temperature and 30oC
o

condensing temperature. Find the quality after expansion.

At - 6oC: hf = 172.371 kJ/kg hg = 1455.00 kJ/kg
At 30oC: hf = 341.769 kJ/kg hg = 1486.14 kJ/kg
A. 11.23% B. 15.34% C. 13.21% D. 16.34%
90. An Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 6 and inlet condition of 98 kpa and 15 oC. The
maximum temperature of the system is 3000oC. Find the maximum pressure of the system.
A. 4334.32 kPa B. 6682.23 kPa C. 5634.45 kpa D. 7049.53 kPa
91. In a Rankine cycle, the steam turbine has a condition of 3126 kJ/kg enthalpy andentropy of
6.68 kJ/kg-K. The quality after expansion is is 80% and enthalpy of 2104.3 kJ/kg with h f =
209.33 kJ/kg. Find the efficiency of the cycle.
A. 23.45% B. 35.04% C. 30.34% D. 38.44%
o
92. An Otto cycle has an inlet condition of 101 kpa and 30 C. The compression ratio is 8 and
maximum temperature of the cycle is 1500oC. Find the mean effective pressure of the system.
A. 578 kPa B. 735 kPa C. 653 kPa D. 823 kPa
93. A 30 cm x 40 cm reciprocating pump running at 250 rpm discharges 210 li/s of water. Find the
percent slip of the pump.
A. 4.23% B. 8.34% C. 5.76% D. 10.87%
94. The pressure and temperature entering the turbine is 1800 kpa and 380 oC. The temperature
leaving the turbine is 20 kPa. The quality of steam is entering the condenser is at 90%. What
is the turbine work?
At 1.8 MPa and 380oC: h = 3207.2 kJ/kg
At 20 kPa: hf = 251.40 kJ/kg hfg = 2358.3 kJ/kg
A. 833.33 kJ/kg B. 753.56 kJ/kg C. 654.32 kJ/kg D. 945.67 kJ/kg
95. A fuel is represented with C 3H8 is burned with 50% excess air. If mass of fuel is 0.07 kg, find
the mass of air needed.
A. 1.23 kg B. 1.638 kg C. 2.34 kg D. 5.34 kg
96. Water enters the cooling tower at 48 C. The approximate leaving water temperature is 28 oC.
o

If the atmospheric condition is 25 degrees C wet bulb, determine the cooling effectiveness of
the cooling tower?
A. 87% B. 75% C. 25% D. 50%
97. One kilogram of air is compressed adiabatically and in steady flow. The compression
efficiency is 70% and work done is 300 KJ/kg. Compute heat.
A. 212 kJ/kg B. 0 kJ/kg C. 1 kJ/kg D. 331.25 kJ/kg
99. A wall with an area of 10 m2 is made of a 2 cm thickness of white pine (k= 0.113 W/mC)
followed by 10 cm of brick (k = 0.649 W/mC). The pine is on the inside where the
temperature is 30C while the outside temperature is 10C. Assuming equilibrium conditions
exist, what is the temperature at the interface between the two metals?
A. 15.65C B. 17.64C C. 18.21C D. 19.31C
100. At 1.11oC evaporator temperature the inlet enthalpy is 410.4 kJ/kg and exit enthalpy =
1471.6 kJ/kg. If mass flow rate is 10 kg/min, find the refrigerating effect, kW.
 A. 177 B. 34 C. 145 D. 253
----------------------------------------------------- nothing follows ---------------------------------------------------
 UNIVERSITY OF NUEVA CACERES
IN PARTNERSHIP WITH
ALCORCON ENGINEERING REVIEW CENTER
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PREBOARD EXAM - ENGINEERING SCIENCES

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. A person deposits $5000 into a money market account which pays interest at a rate of
8% per year. The amount that would be in the account at the end of ten years is most
nearly:
A. $2,792 B. $9,000 C. $10,795 D. $12,165
2. A small company wants to deposit a single amount of money now so that it will have
enough to purchase a new truck costing $50,000 five years from now. If the money can
be deposited into an account which earns interest at 10% per year, the amount that must
be deposited is most nearly
A. $10,000 B. $31,050 C. $33,250 D. $319,160
3. If a person deposits $100 per month into an account which pays interest at a rate of
6% per year compounded monthly, the amount in the account at the end of five years
would be nearest to:
A. $564 B. $3,69 C. $6,977 D. $7,992
4. A small company wants to have enough money saved to purchase a new $200,000
warehouse in five years. If the company can invest money at 18% per year, the amount
that must be invested each year is closed to:
A. $27,960 B. $36,920 C. $49,650 D. $63,960
5. A company expects the cost of equipment maintenance to be $5,000 in years one,
$5,500 in year two, and amounts increasing by $500 per year through year 10. At an
interest rate of 10% per year, the present worth of maintenance cost is nearest to
A. $38,220 B. $42,170 C. $46,660 D. $51,790
6. For an interest rate of 12% per year compounded quarterly, the effective interest rate
per year is closed to:
A. 4% B. 12% C. 12.55% D. 12.68%
7. For an interest rate of 2% per month, the effective semiannual rate is closest to:
A. 11.55% B. 12% C. 12.62% D. 26.82%
8. If you deposit $1,000 now at an interest rate of 12% per year compounded monthly,
the amount that will be in the savings account five years from now is closest to:
A. $1,600 B. $1,762 C. $1,817 D. $1,905
9. The costs associated with a particular process are expressed to be $6,000 per year
for five years, beginning three years from now. At an interest rate of 10% per year, the
present worth of these costs is closest to:
 A. $17,088 B. $18,796 C. $22,745 D. $29,210
10. The costs associated with a particular process are expressed to be $6,000 per year
for five years, beginning three years from now. At an interest rate of 10% per year, the
equivalent uniform annual worth, A, in years one through eight at i = 10% per year is
closest to:
A. $2,875 B. $3,202 C. $3,522 D. $4,262
11. A member of congress wants to know the capitalized cost of maintaining a proposed
national park. The annual maintenance cost is expected to be $25,000. At an interest
rate of 6% per year, the capitalized cost of the maintenance would be closest to:
A. $1,500 B. $25,000 C. $150,000 D. $416,667
12. An alternative for manufacturing a certain part has a first cost of $50,000, an annual
cost of $10,000, and a salvage value of $5,000 after its 10 year life. At an interest rate of
10% per year, the capitalized cost of the alternative is closest to:
A. $17,822 B. $145,000 C. $178,215 D. $189,355
13. A municipal bond with a face value of $10,000 will mature 15 years from now. The
bond interest rate is 6% per year, payable quarterly. At an interest rate of 16% per year
compounded quarterly, the present worth of the bond is closest to:
A. $4,173 B. $4,345 C. $5,277 D. $6,135
14. A machine with a first cost of $25,000 is expected to have a $5,000 salvage value
after its five year depreciable life. The depreciation charge by the straight-line method for
year three is closest to:
A. $4,000 B. $5,000 C. $10,000 D. $15,000
15. A five-year asset which had a first cost of $20,000 with a $2,000 salvage value was
depreciated by the straight line method. The book value at the end of year four was
closest to:
A. $3,600 B. $4,000 C. $5,600 D. $16,400
16. What is the present worth of a $100 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 8%?
A. $122 B. $153 C. $160 D. $162
17. You deposit $1000 into a 9% account today. At the end of two years, you will deposit
another $3,000. In five years, you plan a $4000 purchase. How much is left in the
account one year after the purchase?
A. $925 B. $1424 C. $1552 D. $1691
18. You need $4000 per year for four years to go to college. Your father invested $5000
in a 7% account for your education when you were born. If you withdraw the $4000 at
the end of 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th years, how much money will be left in the account at
the end of your 21st year?
A. $1700 B. $2500 C. $3400 D. $4000
19. A firm borrows $2000 for six years at 8%. At the end of six years, it renews the loan
for the amount due plus $2000 more for two years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?
A. $5280 B. $5754 C. $6035 D. $6135
20. A company must relocate one of its factories in three years. Equipment for the
loading dock is being considered for purchase. The original cost is $20,000, the salvage
value after three years is $8000. The company’s rate of return on money is 10%.
Determine the capital recovery rate (CR) per year.
A. $4805 per year B. $4946 per year C. $5115 per year
 D. $5625 per year
21. A person pays interest on a loan semiannually at a nominal annual interest rate of
16%. What is the effective annual interest rate?
A. 15.5% B. 15.65% C. 16% D. 16.64%
22. A steel drum manufacturer incurs a yearly fixed cost of $200,000. Each drum
manufactured costs $160 to produce and sells for $200. What is the manufacture’s
break-even sales volume in drums per year?
A. 1000 B. 1250 C. 2500 D. 5000
23. A machine is under consideration for investment. The cost of the machine is
P25,000.00. Each year it operates, the machine will generate a savings of P15,000.
Given an effective annual interest rate of 18%, what is the discounted payback period, in
years, on the investment in the machine?
A. 1.75 B. 3.17 C. 1.67 D. 2.16
24. An asset is purchased for P120,000. Its estimated life is 10 years, after which it will
be sold for P12,000. Find the depreciation for the first year using the sum-of-the-year-
digit method.
A. P19,000 B. P19,637 C. P18,200 D. P18,400
25. Given the discount rate is 11.5%, what is the equivalent uniform annual cash flow of
the following stream of cash flows? Year 0 – P100,000, year 1 – P200,000, year 2 –
P300,000, year 3 – P135,000.
A. P230,437.00B. P255,124.24C. P250,005.25 D. P525,421.20
26. A product has a current selling price of P325.00. If its selling price is expected to
decline at the rate of 10% per annum because of obsolescence, what will be its selling
price four years hence?
A. P202.75 B. P213.23 C. P302.75 D. P156.00
27. A savings certificate that costs P2500 now which pay P3750 in five years. What is
the interest rate?
A. 6.45% B. 10.25% C. P9.05% D. 8.45%
28. In 18 years, P1,000,000 is required for a child’s college expenses. How much should
be deposited each year starting on the day of birth so that this goal will met? Assume
that the first payment is made at birth, the last payment is on the child’s 18 th birthday, and
that 5% interest is paid.
A. P32,700 B. P33,700 C. P34,700 D. P35,546
29. An item is purchased for P5,000,000. Annual costs are P900,000. Using 8%, what
is the capitalized cost of perpetual service for the insulation?
A. P16,250,000B. P17,250,000C. P18,250,000 D. P19,250,000
30. A small building can be re-roofed for P300,000 (aluminum). The estimated life is 50
years. If the interest rate is 10%, what is the average annual cost?
A. P24,250 B. P26,250 C. P28,250 D. P30,250
31. A public works project has an initial cost of P50,000,000, benefits with a present
worth of P75,000,000, and disbenefits with a present worth of P15,000,000. What is the
benefit-cost ratio?
A. 1.2 B. 1.3 C. 1.4 D. 1.4
32. An asset is purchased for P25,000,000. Salvage value in 25 years is P5,000,000.
What is the depreciation in the third year using sum-of-the-years digit depreciation
method?
 A. P1,215,385 B. P1,315,385 C. P1,415,385 D. P1,515,385
33. What is the effective interest rate for a payment plan of 30 equal payments of P4465
per month, when a lump sum of P100,000 would have been an outright purchase?
A. 26.82% B. 24.82% C. 22.82% D. 20.82%
34. A fixture that costs P35,000 will save P3.00 per item produced. Maintenance will be
P2000 annually. 3500 units are produced annually. What is the pay-back period at 10%?
A. 5.57 years B. 7.57 years C. 8.57 years D. 9.57 years
35. Engr. Dela Cruz borrowed P150,000 two years ago. The terms of the loan are 10%
interest for 10 years with uniform payments. He just made his second annual payment.
How much principal does he still owe?
A. 130,235.20 B. 134,567.30 C. P132,456.20 D. P129,456,78
36. A business man wants to have P500,000 four years from now. What amount he
invest now if it will earn interest of 6% compounded quarterly for the first two years and
8% compounded semi-annually during the next two years.
A. P379,409.60B. P561,895.55C. P420,539.68 D. P510,485.45
37. Compute the nominal interest rate of a continuously compounded loan if the effective
interest rate is 25%.
A. e1.25 B. e0.25 C. loge0.25 D. loge 1.25
38. To secure a return of 4% at what price should a bond be purchased if it is
redeemable at P1,000 in 10 years and pays dividends P35.00?
A. P985.34 B. P959.45 C. P975.23 D. P986.40
39. A generating set that has a first cost of P50,000 4 years ago has a remaining life of 6
years, but is no longer efficient in its performance. If extensive repairs are made now, the
annual operating and maintenance cost will be reduced by P2,200 during the next 4
years and by P1,500 during the last 2 years. The life of the generating set will not be
affected, but its salvage value will be increased by 1,400. What amount maybe spent on
repairs if money is worth 12%?
A. 8,604 B. P9,866 C. P9,002 D. P9,560
40. An old boiler cost P2,400 a year to maintain. What expenditures for a new boiler is
justified if no maintenance will be required for the first 3 years, P600 per year for the next
7 years, and P2,400 a year thereafter? Assume money to cost 4% compounded annually
and no other cost to be considered.
A. P17,435.60 B. P18,321.43 C. P16,264.66 D. P16,895.70
41. A printing equipment costs P73,500 has a life expectancy of 8 years and has a
salvage value of P3,500 at the end of its life. The book value at the end of “x” years is
equal to P38,500. Using straight line method of depreciation, solve for the value of “x”.
A. 4 years B. 3 years C. 6 years D. 2 years
42. An asset costing P20,000 was purchased 3 years ago. At what time it was estimated
that it would have a 5 year life and salvage value of P5,000. Consideration is being given
to replacing it with a new asset costing P25,000 and a trade in of P6,000 will be allowed
on the old one. If straight line depreciation has been used for accounting purpose, what
is the sunk cost?
A. P5,400 B. P6,100 C. P5,000 D. P5,800
43. About how long will it take for a deposit to triple its amount if invested at 18%
compounded quarterly?
A. 6.89 B. 5.67 C. 7.56 D. 6.24
44. A mine is purchases for P1,000,000, and it is anticipated that it will be exhausted at
the end of 20 years. If the sinking fund rate is 4%, what must be the annual return from
the mine to realize a return of 7% on the investment?
A. P108,350 B. P150,823 C. P130,850 D. P103,582
45. A simply supported beam is 6 m in length. It carries concentrated load of 5000 N at
the center and a triangular load, which varies uniformly from zero at the left support to a
maximum value of 7500 N/m at the right support. Find the reaction at the left support.
A. 10,000 N B. 12,500 N C. 17,500 N D. 25,000 N
46. A 40 kg skater at 4 m/s overtakes a 60 kg skater at 2 m/s in the same direction and
collides with him. If the two remains in contact after the collision, how much kinetic
energy is lost?
A. 48 J B. 124 J C. 392 J D. 432 J
47. A bullet of mass 60 g moving horizontally strikes a block of wood of mass 50 kg,
which is suspended as a pendulum whose length is 0.9 m. The bullet lodges in the
wood, and together they swing upward at a height of 0.03 m. What is the velocity of the
bullet just before it struck the wooden block?
A. 560 m/s B. 640 m/s C. 750 m/s C. 825 m/s
48. What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the three forces 250 N at 30 o, 350 N
at 135o, 150 N at 200o and 450 N at - 60o?
A. 86.67 N B. 68.52 N C. 53.07 N D. 121.59 N
49. A projectile is fired from the edge of a cliff with an initial velocity components of V ox =
60 m/s and Voy = 100 m/s. Find the magnitude of the velocity at time = 15 seconds.
A. 47 m/s B. 60.5 m/s C. 76.2 m/s D. 107 m/s
50. For how many years must an investment of P63,000 provide a continuous flow of
funds at the rate of P16,000 per year so that a nominal interest rate of 10% continuously
compounded will be earned?
A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 7 years
51. An elevator weighing 1000 kg attains an upward velocity of 5 mps in 4 sec with
uniform acceleration. Calculate the tension in the cables so that the elevator comes to
rest in a distance of 1.5 m.
A. 150 kg B. 155 kg C. 160 kg D. 168 kg
52. A projectile is fired at an angle of 20 o with the horizontal at the top of a 30 m high
building. The muzzle velocity is 300 m/s. What is the total time of flight?
A. 32.6 s B. 25.7 s C. 21.2 s D. 18.5 s
53. A machine costing P480,000 has a life expectancy of 12 years with a salvage value
of 10% of the first cost. What is the book value after five years using the declining
balance method?
A. P183,892 B. P152,758 C. P196,432 D. P214,785
54. A driver of a car traveling at a certain speed suddenly sees an obstruction ahead and
traveled a distance of 72 m during the perception-reaction time of 2.5 seconds.
Determine the car’s speed of approach in kph.
A. 85.6 B. 96.3 C. 103.7 D. 124.3
55. A rocket with a mass of 4000 lb travels at 27,000 ft/sec. What is the kinetic energy in
ft-lb?
A. 4.53 x 1010 ft-lb B. 3.45 x 1010 ft-lb C. 6.34 x 1010 ft-lb
10
D. 8.45 x 10 ft-lb
56. A 200 lb crate is pushed 25 ft at constant velocity across a warehouse floor. There is
a frictional force of 60 pounds between the crate and floor. What work is done by the
frictional force on the crate?
A. 1200 ft-lb B. 1300 ft-lb C. 1400 ft-lb D. 1500 ft-lb
57. A 2 lb projectile is launched straight up with an initial speed of 700 ft/s. Calculate the
kinetic energy immediately after launched.
A. 12,234 ft-lb B. 13,456 ft-lb C. 14,799 ft-lb D. 15,217 ft-lb
58. When traveling at 100 kph, a car supplies a horizontal force of 50 N to the hitch of a
trailer. What tractive horsepower is required for the trailer alone?
A. 1.86 hp B. 2.34 hp C. 6.34 hp D. 9.45 hp
59. What is the acceleration of a body that increases in velocity from 20 m/s to 40 m/s in
3 sec?
A. 6.67 m/s2 B. 4.42 m/s2 C. 5.34 m/s2 D. 7.45 m/s2
60. A stone is dropped over a cliff and falls for 6 s before reaching the bottom. How high
above the bottom is the cliff?
A. 166 m B. 176 m C. 186 m D. 196 m
61. A shot is fired at an angle of 45 with the horizontal and a velocity of 300 ft/sec. Find
the range of the projectile.
A. 2,400 ft B. 2,500 ft C. 2,600 ft D. 2,800 ft
62. A 10 kg weight is suspended by a rope from a ceiling. If a horizontal force of 5.8 kg
is applied to the weight, the rope will make an angle with the vertical equal to:
A. 60o B. 30o C. 45o D. 75o
63. A 100 KN block slides down a plane inclined at an angle of 30 o with the horizontal.
Neglecting friction, find the force tat causes the block to slide?
A. 86.6 KN B. 80 KN C. 20 KN D. 50 KN
64. A block of wood is resting on a level surface. If the coefficient of friction between the
block and the surface is 0.30, how much can the plane be inclined without causing the
block to slide down?
A. 16.7o B. 30.2o C. 21.2o D. 33.3o
65. A train upon passing point A at a speed of 72 kph accelerates at 0.75 m/s 2 for one
minute along a straight path then decelerates at 1.0 m/s 2. How far in kilometers from
point A will it be 2 minutes after passing point A.
A. 4.95 B. 4.75 C. 4.85 D. 4.65
66. A mango falls from a branch 5 meters above the ground. With what speed in meters
per second will it strike the ground? Assume g = 10 m/s2.
A. 8 B. 12 C. 10 D. 14
67. A man standing at a window 5 meters tall watches a falling stone pass by the window
in 0.3 seconds. From how high above the top of the window was the stone released?
A. 12.86 m B. 11.77 m C. 9.54 m D. 15.21 m
68. A ball is thrown from a tower 30 m high above the ground with a velocity of 300 m/s
directed at 20o from the horizontal. How long will the ball hit the ground?
A. 24.2 B. 23.2 C. 21.2 D. 22.2
69. A flywheel rotating at 1500 rpm decelerates uniformly at 2 rad/s 2. How many
seconds will it take for the flywheel to stop?
A. 24.5 s B. 28.4 s C. 25.1 s D. 78.54 s
70. A highway curve is superelevated at 7o. Find the radius of the curve if there is no
lateral pressure on the wheels of a car at a speed of 40 mph.
A. 247.4 m B. 265.6 m C. 229.6 m D. 285.3 m
71. A 0.50 kg ball with a speed of 20 m/s strikes and sticks to a 70 kg block resting on a
frictionless surface. Find the block’s velocity.
A. 142 m/s B. 14.2 m/s C. 1.42 m/s D. 0.142 m/s
72. An iceberg having specific gravity of 0.92 is floating on salt water of sp gr. 1.03. If
the volume of ice above the water surface is 1000 m 3, what is the total volume of the ice?
A. 8523 m3 B. 7862 m3 C. 9364 m3 D. 6325 m3
73. A block of wood requires a force of 40 N to keep it immersed in water and a force of
100 N to keep it immersed in glycerin (SG = 1.3). Find the specific gravity of the wood.
A. 0.7 B. 0.6 C. 0.9 D. 0.8
74. An empty, open can is 30 cm high with a 15 cm diameter. The can, with the open end
down, is pushed under water with a density of 1000 kg/m3. Find the water level in the can
when the top of the can is 50 cm below the surface.
A. 17.20 cm B. 2.12 cm C. 4.20 cm D. 5.87 cm
75. A cylindrical pipe with water flowing downward at 0.03 m 3/s having top diameter of
0.08 m, bottom diameter of 0.04 m and height of 1.5 m. Find the pressure between the
pipe.
A. 154.63 kPa B. 197.93 kPa C. 252.44 kPa D. 243.92 kPa
76. Water flowing at the rate of 10 m/s from an orifice at bottom of a reservoir. Find the
pressure at the bottom of reservoir.
A. 30 kPag B. 40 kPag C. 50 kPag D. 60 kPag
77. Water is boiling at 1 atm pressure in a stainless steel pan on an electric range. It is
observed that 2 kg of liquid water evaporates in 30 min. The rate of heat transfer to the
water is:
A. 2.97 kW B. 0.47 kW C. 2.51 kW D. 3.12 kW
78. In order to cool 1 tone (1000 kg) of water at 20oC in an insulated tank, a person
pours 80 kg of ice at - 5oC into the water. Determine the final equilibrium temperature in
the tank. The melting temperature and the heat of fusion of ice at atmospheric pressure
are 0oC and 333.7 kJ/kg,
respectively.
A. 12.43oC B. 14.43oC C. 16.43oC D. 18.43oC
79. Compute the pressure drop of 35C air flowing with a mean velocity of 5 m/s in a
circular sheet-metal duct 400 mm in diameter and 25 m long. Use a friction factor, f =
0.04, and air = 1.3799 kg/m3.
A. 431.22 Pa B. 221.34 Pa C. 312.24 Pa D. 422.31 Pa
80. A rectangular duct has a dimensions of 0.25 m by 2 m. Determine the equivalent
diameter of the duct.
A. 0.50 m B. 0.60 m C. 0.70 m D. 0.44 m
---------------------------------------------- nothing follows ---------------------------------------------------
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PREBOARD EXAM – MACHINE DESIGN

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Find the pressure needed to punch 2 in diameter hole from 1 in. thick plate.
A. 120 tons B. 140 tons C. 160 tons D. 180 tons
2. Find the tooth thickness of a gear with diametral pitch of 8.
A. 10 mm B. 3 mm C. 7 mm D. 5 mm
3. A 65 mm steel shaft is use to transmit 5 kN-m torque. Find the angle of shaft deflection in
degrees per meter.
A. 1.34 deg B. 1.654 deg C. 2.064 deg D. 3.98 deg
4. Compute the working strength of 1 in bolt is screwed up tightly in packaged joint when the
allowable stress is 13,000 psi.
A. 3,600 lbs B. 3,700 lbs C. 3,800 lbs D. 3,900 lbs
5. A steel tie rod on bridge must be withstand a pull of 6500 lbs. Find the diameter of the rod
assuming a factor of safety of 5 and ultimate stress of 68,000 psi.
A. 0.78 in B. 0.54 in C. 0.92 in D. 1.23 in
6. If the ultimate shear strength of stell plate is 50,000 psi, what force is necessary to punch a 1 in
diameter hole in a 0.8 in thick plate using a factor of safety of 3.
A. 43 tons B. 52 tons C. 63 tons D. 75 tons
7. Find the polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft with outside diameter of 60 mm and inside
diameter of 45 mm.
A. 4.344 x 10-7 m4 B. 9.344 x 10-7 m4 C. 5.344 x 10-7 m4 D. 8.698 x 10-7 m4
8. What is the diameter of line shaft that transmit 150 kW at 15 rps?
A. 9.45 in B. 2.28 in C. 3.56 in D. 6.44 in
9. Two gears with 25 teeth and 75 teeth meshing each other at a center distance of 25 in. Find the
circular pitch of the gears.
 A. 1.57 in B. 1.34 in C. 1.86 in D. 2.87 in
10. Compute how many ¼ inch diameter set screws required to transmit 10 hp at a shaft speed of
600 rpm. The shaft diameter is 1 inch.
A. 81 B. 12 C. 3 D. 21
2
11. A iron rod 4 m long and 0.5 cm in cross section stretches 1 mm when a mass of 225 kg is
hang on it. Compute the modulus of elasticity of the iron.
A. 176.58 GPa B. 160.41 GPa C. 169.81 GPa D. 180.26 GPa
12. A short shaft is use to transmit 30 hp at 360 rpm. Find the shaft diameter.
A. 5.34 in B. 3.45 in C. 1.47 in D. 2.34 in
13. Two cylinders rolling in the opposite direction has a speed ratio of 4. If the diameter of driver
is 10 inches, find the center distance between cylinders.
A. 20 in B. 25 in C. 30 in D. 35 in
14. Find the diameter of shaft needed to deliver 50 kW power at 1200 rpm if designed torsional
stress is 40 MPa.
A. 37 mm B. 39 mm C. 43 mm D. 12 mm
15. A chain and sprocket has 30 teeth with chain pitch of ½ in. If the sprocket turns at 600 rpm,
find the speed of chain.
A. 651.37 fpm B. 751.37 fpm C. 641.72 fpm D. 661.72 fpm
16. A chain and sprocket has a pitch diameter of 12 in and a pitch of 1 in. How many teeth are
there in sprocket?
A. 25 B. 30 C. 38 D. 48
17. A brake has a difference in band tension of 6 kN. The drum diameter is 1.2 meter and rotating
at 360 rpm. Determine the power needed to drive the drum.
A. 154.62 kW B. 56.85 kW C. 62. 83 kW D. 135.72 kW
18. In a brake, the tension on tight side is 280% of the slack side. If coefficient of friction is
0.28, find the angle of contact of the band.
A. 240.69 deg. B. 210.69 deg. C. 286.75 deg. D. 275.65 deg.
19. A band brake has a 86 cm diameter drum sustains a load of 1.2 Mton to a hoisting drum 45 cm
in diameter. What is the band tension difference?
A. 628 kg B. 785 kg C. 686 kg D. 948 kg
o
20. A cone clutch has an angle of 12 and coefficient of friction of 0.42. Find the axial force
required if the capacity of the clutch is 8 kW at 500 rpm. The mean diameter of the active
conical sections is 300 mm. Use uniform wear method.
A. 504.27 N B. 604.27 N C. 704.27 N D. 804.27 N
21. How much torque can a cone clutch transmit if the angle of the conical elements is 10
degrees. The mean diameter of conical sections is 200 mm and an axial force of 600 N is
applied. Consider a coefficient of friction of 0.45.
A. 135.49 N.m B. 155.49 N.m C. 175.49 N.m D. 195.49 N.m
22. Find the thickness of 5 m diameter spherical tank having an internal pressure of 1000 kpa if
ultimate stress of material is 150 MPa. Use a factor of safety of 3.
A. 20 mm B. 25 mm C. 30 mm D. 35 mm
23. Find the power delivered by 2 in. diameter shaft at 900 rpm if ultimate shearing stress is 24
ksi and a factor of safety of 4.
A. 123.4 hp B. 132.34 hp C. 134.58 hp D. 234.34 hp
24. A shaft is subjected to a 1 kN.m torque has an allowable stress of 30 MPa. Find the polar
moment of inertia of the shaft.
A. 9.23 x 10-7m4 B. 9.82 x 10-7 m4 C. 1.23 x 10-7 m4 D. 1 x 10-2 m4
25. A hollow shaft is to deliver 20 kW power at 600 rpm. The design torsional stress is 25 MPa
and has an outside diameter of 54 mm. Find the inside diameter of the shaft.
A. 32.34 mm B. 47.29 mm C. 73.23 mm D. 56.34 mm
26. Find the diameter of main shaft needed to transmit 50 Kw power at 450 rpm.
A. 2.90 in B. 6.34 in C. 3.23 in D. 2.28 in
27. The maximum rim speed for 2 ft diameter solid cast iron pulley turning at 600 rpm is:
A. 2,200 fpm B. 7,000 fpm C. 3770 fpm D. 4,000 fpm
28. A 3/16 in drill operating at speed of 800 rpm would have experience a cutting speed in fpm:
A. 392.7 B. 39.27 C. 3,927 D. 471.20
29. What load in newtons must be applied to a 25 mm round steel bar 2.5 m long to stretch the bar
1.3 mm. Modulus of elasticity is 207 GPa.
A. 52,840 B. 53,048 C. 60,000 D. 42,562
30. A cylindrical tank has an inside diameter of 6 m and is subjected to an internal pressure of 120
kPa. Determine the wall thickness of the tank if the allowable tangential stress is 40 MPa.
A. 6 mm B. 7 mm C. 8 mm D. 9 mm
31. All four compression coil spring support one load of 400 kg. All four springs are arranged in
parallel and rated same at 0.709 kg/mm. Compute the deflection in mm.
A. 564 B. 1457 C. 171 D. 141
32. Determine the center distance into which a meshing spur gear of a module 5, with 20 teeth
pinion and 64 teeth gear be mounted?
A. 20 cm B. 21 cm C. 25 cm D. 24 cm
33. A 24 tooth pinion with turning speed of 400 rpm drives a 96 tooth gear. The speed of the gear
is:
A. 50 rpm B. 120 rpm C. 75 rpm D. 100 rpm
34. Determine the length of a sleeve-type bearing if the weight of the shaft and the gear tooth
bearing load is 2,200 lbs. The shaft is 1 1/4 inch in diameter and is oil lubricated. For normal
service, the allowable mean bearing pressure is 400 psi.
A. 3.8 in B. 5.6 in C. 4.4 in D. 3.0 in
35. A solid cylindrical shaft 48.2 cm long is used for a transmission of mechanical power at a rate
of 37 kW running at 1760 rpm. The shearing stress is 8.13 MPa. Calculate the diameter.
A. 30 mm B. 35 mm C. 40 mm D. 50 mm
36. An internal gear is set up with a 5 inches diameter pinion and a center distance of 18 inches.
Find the diameter of internal gear.
A. 36” B. 21.5” C. 26” D. 41”
37. A 3 in diameter short shaft carrying two pulleys close to the bearings transmit how many
horsepower if the shaft makes 280 rpm?
A. 199 hp B. 198 hp C. 200 hp D. 210 hp
38. A thin walled spherical pressure vessel uses 20 mm thick plate that has an ultimate shearing
stress of 320 MPa. If tank diameter is 4 m, find the internal pressure of the tank.
A. 4.6 MPa B. 6.4 MPa C. 5.3 MPa D. 8.6 MPa
39. A 30-in long rod (E = 3 x 107 lbf/in2,  = 6 x 10-6 in/in-F) with a 2-in2 cross section is fixed at
both ends. If the rod is heated to 60F above the neutral temeprature, what is the stress?
A. 109 lb/in2 B. 36,000 lb/in2 C. 10,800 lb/in2 D. 57,070 lb/in2
40. A body of mass 50 kg is being hoisted by a winch, and the tension in the cable is 600 N. What
is the acceleration?
A. 4.23 m/s2 B. 3.23 m/s2 C. 5.23 m/s2 D. 2.19 m/s2
41. Find the thickness of metal required in the hemi-spherical end of a cylindrical vessel, 2 feet in
diameter, subjected to an internal pressure of 500 psi. The material is mild steel and a tensile
stress of 10,000 psi is allowable.
A. 0.10 in B. 0.3 in C. 0.5 in D. 0.7 in
42. What would be the diameter of the line shaft to transmit 10 horsepower if the shaft makes 150
rpm?
A. 9/16 in B. 2 9/16 in C. 3 9/16 in D. 1 9/16 in
43. What horsepower would be transmitted by a short shaft, 2 inches in diameter, carrying but two
pulleys too close to bearings if the shaft makes 300 rpm?
A. 60 hp B. 65 hp C. 75 hp D. 70 hp
44. What would be the diameter of power-transmitting shaft to transmit 150 kw at 500 rpm?
A. 78 mm B. 93 mm C. 81 mm D. 85 mm
45. What power would a short shaft, 50 mm in diameter, transmit at 400 rpm?
A. 50 kw B. 55 kw C. 60 kw D. 65 kw
46. Find the torsional deflection for a solid steel shaft 4 inches in diameter and 48 inches long,
subjected to twisting moment of 24,000 in-lb.
A. 0.122 deg B. 0.23 deg C. 0.052 deg D. 0.43 deg
47. Find the torsional deflection of a solid steel shaft, 100 mm in diameter and 1300 mm long,
subjected to twisting moment of 3 x 10 6 N-mm. The torsional modulus of elasticity is 80,000
N/mm2.
A. 0.122 deg B. 0.234 deg C. 0.285 deg D. 0.543 deg
48. Find the diameter needed to transmit 60 kW power at 300 rpm if allowable stress is 40 MPa.
A. 62.42 mm B. 76.45 mm C. 84.56 mm D. 52.34 mm
49. Find the force required to punch a 2 in hole with 1.5 in thick.
A. 180 tons B. 200 tons C. 220 tons D. 240 tons
50. Find the force required to tightly packed joint with 2 in diameter and working stress of 15,000
psi.
A. 8.34 tons B. 10.23 tons C. 12.75 tons D. 14.50 tons
51. Find the tooth thickness of a gear having a diametral pitch of 10.
A. 0.045 in B. 0.157 in C. 0.453 in D. 0.873 in
52. Find the stress experienced by a steel shaft having 50oC temperature difference.
A. 15,725 psi B. 13,975 psi C. 17,550 psi D. 19,345 psi
53. A 50 mm shaft is use to transmit power at 450 rpm. Find the power delivered by the shaft if
ultimate stress is 200 MPa and factor of safety is 4.
A. 34.34 kW B. 45.34 kW C. 57.83 kW D. 65.34 kW
54. A hollow shaft has an outside diameter of 70 mm and inner diameter of 50 mm is use to
deliver 100 kW at 600 rpm. Find the stress delivered by the shaft.
A. 31,948 kPa B. 34,567 kPa C. 36,345 kPa D. 38,467 kPa
55. A hollow shaft has an outside diameter of 70 mm and inner diameter of 50 mm is use to
deliver 100 kw at 600 rpm. Find the torsional deflection in degrees per meter length of steel
shaft.
A. 0.12o B. 0.45o C. 0.66o D. 0.76o
56. Find the distance between centers of a pair of gears, one of which has 12 teeth and the other
37 teeth. The diametral pitch is 8.
 A. 3 in B. 4 in C. 5 in D. 6 in
57. Determine the pitch diameter of a gear with 28 teeth and module of 2.
A. 16 mm B. 34 mm C. 47 mm D. 56 mm
58. Two parallel shafts have an angular velocity ratio of 3 to 1 are connected by gears, the largest
of which has 54 teeth. Find the number of teeth of smaller gear.
A. 14 B. 16 C. 12 D. 18
59. Compute the allowable load in kN on a 20 cm x 1200 cm long steel rod with a maximum
elongation must not exceed 1 mm.
A. 35.12 B. 541.36 C. 555.45 D. 576.93
60. A body weighing 1000 lb falls from a height of 6 in and strikes a 2000 lb/in spring. The
deformation of the spring is.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
61. Compute the cutting speed in fpm of a workpiece with 2 inches diameter and running at 100
rpm.
A. 52 B. 25 C. 62 D. 26
62. Compute the working strength of 1 in bolt is screwed up tightly in packaged joint when the
allowable stress is 13,000 psi
. A. 3,600 lbs B. 3,800 lbs C. 3,700 lbs D. 3,900 lbs
63. A hollow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06 m. Compute
the torque if the shear stress is not to exceed 120 MPa in N-m.
A. 4,400 N-m B. 4,500 N-m C. 4,300 N-m D. 4,200 N-m
64. Determine the bursting pressure of steel with diameter of 10 inches and make of 1/4 in thick
plate. The joint efficiency is at 70% and the tensile strength is 60 ksi.
A. 4,020 psi B. 2,400 psi C. 4,002 psi D. 4,200 psi
65. A 3 in diameter short shaft carrying pulleys close to the bearings transmit how much
horsepower if the shaft makes 280 rpm?
A. 991 hp B. 199 hp C. 919 hp D. 260 hp
66. Compute the speed of the gear mounted in a 52.5 mm diameter shaft receiving power from a
prime motor with 250 hp.
A. 2182 rpm B. 2265 rpm C. 2081 rpm D. 2341 rpm
67. Find the force needed to punch 2 in hole from 1 in thick plate.
A. 160 tons B. 140 tons C. 180 tons D. 200 tons
68. What is the bending moment in ft-lb at the fixed end of a 10 ft cantilever truss with a uniform
weight of 100 lb/ft and a concentrated vertical load at the free end of 1200 lbs?
 A. 15,000 B. 17,000 C. 1800 D. 18,000
69. Determine the number of 1/2 in diameter set screw needed to transmit 10 HP at a shaft speed
of 1200 rpm. The shaft diameter is 1 1/4 in of SAE 4140 material.
A. 3 B. 2 C. 1.4 D. 1
70. Find the polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft having 85 mm outside diameter and wall
thickness of 10 mm.
A. 3.366 x 10-6 m4 B. 2.366 x 10-6 m4 C. 1.366 x 10-6 m4 D. 5.366 x 10-6 m4
71. A steel wire 90 m long with negligible weight has a load of 16 kN, if the wire elongation is 10
mm, find the diameter of rod.
A. 30 mm B. 35 mm C. 40 mm D. 25 mm
o o
72. A 20 m steel rod is heated from 26 C to 46 C. Find the total elongation of the rod.
A. 4.68 mm B. 6.78 mm C. 2.34 mm D. 7.34 mm
73. Compute for the induced stress, in kpa, of a steel solid shafting of 5.8 cm diameter and 5 m in
length that is subjected to from 30oC to 108oC temperature.
A. 76.45 MPa B. 188.71 MPa C. 145.34 MPa D. 169.36 MPa
74. How long will it take to mill a 3/4” by 5” long keyway in a 3” diameter shafting with a 26
tooth cutter turning at 160 rpm and 0.004” feed/tooth?
A. 3.45 sec B. 18.00 sec C. 64.1 sec D. 641 sec
75. A 1 in diameter horizontal shaft rotates at 600 rpm in a sleeve-type bearing. The coefficient of
friction is 0.15. Calculate the horsepower lost in the bearing if the reaction between the shaft
and the bearing is 800 lb.
A. 0.2634 hp B. 0.0925 hp C. 1.2344 hp D. 0.5710 hp
76. A disc clutch has 6 pairs of contracting friction surfaces. The frictional radius is 3 in and the
coefficient of friction is 0.3. An axial force of 100 lbs acts on the clutch. The shaft speed is
400 rpm. How much horsepower can the clutch transmit?
A. 2.28 hp B. 3.43 hp C. 1.23 hp D. 4.23 hp
77. Compute the maximum deflection of a 16 coils helical spring having a load of 200 kg. The
spring has plain end with G = 80 GPa, outside diameter is 110 mm and wire diameter of 10
mm.
A. 284 mm B. 314 mm C. 452 mm D. 874 mm
78. A gear with diAmetral pitch of 6 and with 36 teeth at 450 rpm will have a pitch line velocity
of:
A. 707 fpm B. 863 fpm C. 634 fpm D. 973 fpm
79. A hollow shaft that has 120 mm outside diameter and 80 mm inside diameter is used to
transmit 150 kW at 600 rpm. Determine the shaft stress.
 A. 6384.38 kPa B. 8768.18 kPa C. 4345.67 kPa D. 1098.29 kPa
80. A gear has a diametral pitch of 8. Find the tooth thickness.
A. 5 mm B. 7 mm C. 3 mm D. 9 mm
81. A 25 cm spur gear is driven by a 25 Kw motor at 250 rpm. If pressure angle is 20 degrees,
find the total load of the gear.
A. 10.34 kN B. 8.13 kN C. 12.56 kN D. 6.45 kN
82. Two gears having a central distance of 20 module has a speed ratio of 3, find the number of
teeth of the small gear.
A. 25 B. 10 C. 20 D. 15
83. A keyed gears deliver a torque of 1 KN-m thru its shaft of 54 mm diameter. If the key has
thickness of 18 mm and width of 13 mm, find the length of the key. Assume the permissible
stress values of 65 MPa for shear and 110 MPa for tension.
A. 40.78 mm B. 48.67 mm C. 43.83 mm D. 46.78 mm
84. Two gears meshing each other has 20-tooth pinion and 80-tooth gear. The center distance
between gears is 12 in. Find the circular pitch of the gear.
A. 0.863 in. B. 0.0123 in. C. 0.754 in. D. 0.652 in.
85. Two gears meshing each other has 20-tooth pinion and 60-tooth gear. The circular pitch of the
gears is 0.23 in. Find the center distance between gears.
A. 2.93 in. B. 4.23 in. C. 5.34 in. D. 7.35 in.
86. A flange coupling has ten (10) steel 25.4 mm diameter bolt evenly tightened around a 450 mm
bolt circle. Determine the torque capacity if allowable shearing stress is 50 MPa.
A. 27 kN-m B. 37 kN-m C. 47 kN-m D. 57 kN-m
87. A 20 degree pressure angle, diametral pitch of 6, a 19-tooth pinion and a 37-tooth gear. Find
the addendum:
A. 0.208 B. 0.167 C. 0.29 D. 0.254
88. How long will it take to mill 20 mm x 50 mm long keyway in a 76 mm diameter shafting a 24
teeth cutter turning at 100 rpm and 0.127 mm feed/tooth?
A. 0.165 min B. 0.185 min C. 0.25 min D. 0.3 min
2
89. Calculate the bolt area in mm of each of 20-bolts used to fasten the hemispherical joints of a
580 mm pressure vessel with an internal pressure of 10 MPa and a material strength of 80
MPa and a bolt strength of 150 MPa:
A. 880.69 B. 920.5 C. 820 D. 790
90. Calculate the torque required in N.m to overcome friction on a collar having an outside
diameter of 37 mm and an inside diameter of 21 mm for a load of 400 kg and coefficient of
friction f = 0.3.
 A. 17.5 N.m B. 20 N.m C. 15 N.m D. 25 N.m
91. A disc clutch with two pairs of contact surfaces is lined with a high grade friction lining
whose coefficient of friction and maximum pressure are 0.25 and 220 kPa respectively. The
clutch is used to connect two 25 - mm shafts whose safe shearing stress is 70 MPa. The width
of the clutch face is 70 mm. What power is transmitted at 1000 rpm?
A. 22.5 kW B. 26 kW C. 30 kW D. 20 kW
92. Determine the width of a 6 ply rubber belt for a ventilating fan running at 150 rpm driven
from a 305 mm pulley on a 52 kW input at 800 rpm. The center distance between pulley is
3.65 m and the rated belt tension is 1.4 kg/mm width.
A. 296 mm B. 269 mm C. 300 mm D. 290 mm
93. A work rotating at 1150 rpm drives a worm gear. The velocity ratio is 15 to 1. A 14 hp motor
is used to supply the worm with worm pitch gear diameter of 3 in. Find the tangential force
on the worm.
A. 2069 lbs B. 512 lbs C. 406 lbs D. 5069 lbs
94. A double thread worm has a helix angle of 80o and a pitch diameter of 4 in. The worm rotates
at 850 rpm. Find the linear speed of the worm.
A. 129.82 fpm B. 139.82 fpm C. 149.95 fpm D. 156.95 fpm
95. A 30–tooth helical gear having a pitch diameter of 6 has a helix angle of 22 degrees. Find the
circular pitch in a plane normal to the teeth.
A. 0.583 B. 0.628 C. 0.728 D. 0.828
96. A straight tooth bevel gear has a face width of 4” and a pitch diameter of 12 in with cone pitch
angle of 36o. If the torque on the gear is 8000 in-lb, what is the tangential force on the gear?
A. 1658 lbs B. 1700 lbs C. 1872 lbs D. 1400 lbs
97. A spiral bevel pinion with a left hand spiral rotates clockwise transmits power to a mating
gear with speed ratio of 3 to 1. Determine the pitch angle of the pinion.
A. 16.56 deg B. 18.43 deg C. 26.43 deg D. 32.56 deg
98. Determine the belt length of an open belt to connect the 10 in and 30 in diameter pulley at a
center distance of 70 in.
A. 172.39 in B. 160.23 in C. 184.23 in D. 204.23 in
99. A pulley 500 mm in diameter transmits 48 kW at 650 rpm by means of belt. Determine the
effective belt pull
A. 2.82 kN B. 3.82 kN C. 4.65 kN D. 5.65 kN
100. A pulley have an effective belt pull of 5 KN and an angle of belt contact of 160 degrees. The
working stress of belt is 2 MPa. Determine the thickness of belt to be used if width is 220
mm and coefficient of friction is 0.32.
A. 10.87 mm B. 19.25 mm C. 8.68 mm D. 29.47 mm