FED-BATCH Reactor

1. It is a type of reactor which functions at continuous feeding like CSTRs and only one-time product removal like
batch reactors.
a. Biological reactors b. Semi-batch reactor
c. Fed-batch reactor d. Batch reactors
2. The following are advantages of a fed-batch reactor except:
a. Good temperature control b. Complicated design analysis because of unsteady state condition

c. Unwanted side reactions are minimized d. Higher conversion of reactant

3. Which of the following defines the material balance for a fed-batch reactor?
a. V =V O +υO t
b. N A =N AO−N AO X

N AO (1−X )
c. C A=
V O + υO t  
d. r A=−kCACB
4. A reaction A + B → 3C is carried out in a semi-batch reactor. Initially, A has a volume on the tank of 2.5 m3 and a
volumetric flowrate of 0.8 m3/h. FAO was found to be 10 mol/hr and rate of A equals 0.05 mol/m3 h. What is the
volume of the tank and the number of moles of the reaction after 2hrs. NAO = 35 mol?
a. NA = 54.51 mol c. NA = 56.41 mol
b. NA = 57.51 mol d. NA = 55.41 mol
SOLUTION:
V =V o +ν o t
V =2.5 m3 +(0.8 m3 /hr )(2 hr )
V =4.1 m3
d NA
=F AO +r A V
dt
d NA
=10+( 0.05)(4.1)
dt
dN A =10.205 dt
NA

∫ dN A =10.205∫ dt
N AO

N A −N AO=10.205 t
N A =10.205 t+ N AO
N A =10.205(2)+(35)
N A =55.41 mol
5. Calculate the total volume present in a fed-batch reactor after 10 hours if its initial volume of 15 dm 3 was
flowing at 0.20 dm3/hr.
a. 16 dm3 c. 17 dm3
b. 18dm3 d. 19 dm3

SOLUTION:

V =V o +ν o t
V =15 d m3 +(0.20 d m3 /hr )( 10 hr)
V =17 d m 3
 6. A reaction 2NO (g) + 2H2 (g) → N2(g) + H2O(g) was carried out in a fed-batch reactor. What is the concentration of H 2 if
the rate of reaction was found to be 5.00 x10 -5 and the concentration of NO was 0.0100M? (k=2.5 x10 2)
a. 0.0010 b. 0.0020
b. c. 0.0030 d. 0.0040

SOLUTION.

r =k ¿

5.00 x 10−5=2.5 x 102 ¿

5.00 x 10−5
[ H 2 ]=
2.5 x 102 ¿ ¿

[ H 2 ]=0.0020 M
7. How much time is needed for a fed-batch reactor to obtain a volume of 30 m 3 if it has initial volume of 5 m 3 and
a volumetric flowrate of 0.25 m3?
a. 140 hours c. 120 hours
b. 100 hours d. 90 hours

SOLUTION:

V =V o +ν o t
30 m3=5 m3+(0.25 m3 /hr )(t )
30 m3 −5 m3
t=
0.25 m3 /hr
t=100 hours
ENZYME-CATALYZED REACTIONS IN CSTRs

1. What is the advantages of immobilized enzyme?

a. Immobilization is expensive technique requires sophisticated equipment
b. High operating cost
c. Suitable for industrial and medical use
d. CSTR is ideal for good product formation
2. It is called the maximum rate of enzyme reaction
a. V max
b. K m
c. A ∆ Z
d. S
3. It is used for waste water treatment. ____________
a. CSTR c. PFR
b. Agitator d. Kinetic
4. Immobilized glycosidase glucose isomerase are used in production of ________________
a. L- amino cycles c. Mixture
b. Fructose from starch d. Microbial cells
5. Consideration of reactor design
a. Temperature control c. High stability
b. Reusable d. Minimize
6. Continuous reactor, continuously operated version of ______________
a. STR c. Batch
 b. PFR d. Enzyme
7. Used in variety of therapeutic applications.
a. Enzyme reaction c. Toxic
b. Application of enzyme reactor d. continuous

CSTR WITH RECYCLE

1. A continuous stirred tank reactor runs in a _________.

a. Steady state with no concentration gradients
b. Unsteady state with no concentration gradients
c. Steady state with concentration gradients
d. Unsteady state with no concentration gradients
2. What are the operation stages of a bioreactor?
a. upstream flow, mixing, downstream flow
b. upstream processing, bioreaction, and downstream processing
c. bioreaction, agitation, recycling
d. recycling, agitation, bioreaction
3. Based on the diagram shown, the recycled substrate is denoted by
a. Sa c. Si
b. S0 d. S
4. Based on the diagram shown, the flowrate of the recycle stream is denoted by
a. Q0 c. Qi
b. Qr d. Q
5. Based on the diagram show, finding Si is equal to
Q S0 +Qr S
a.
Qi
Q Si +Q r S
b.
Q0
Q Sr + Q0 S
c.
Qi
Q S0 +Qr S
d.
Q0
6. The dilution rate of washout is given by
(Cso)( µ max)
a. Dwashout=
K +Cso
( Cso ) +( µ max)
b. Dwashout=
K +Cso
(Cso)/( µ max)
c. Dwashout=
K +Cso
( Cso )−(µ max)
d. Dwashout=
K +Cso
7. This step is mainly consisting of three operations namely, production of biomass, metabolize biosynthesis and
biotransformation.
a. Upstream processing c. Bioreaction
b. Downstream processing d. Biosynthesis

PLUGFLOW REACTORS
1. Plug flow reactor is the _________________ with a uniform fluid velocity across the entire flow channel.
A. flow channel B. plug flow
C. idealized flow D. none of these
2. The concentration of _______________________ in the plug flow reactor along the flow dire ction.
A. reactant B. reactant and products
C. product D. none of these
3. The plug flow reactor model (PFR, sometimes called __________
A. Continuous tabular reactor, (CTR) B. CSTR
C. batch reactor D. None of these
4. The __________ model ids used to predict the behavior of chemical reactors of tabular design
A. batch reactor B. CSTR
C. plug flow reactor D. both a and b
5. Plug flow reactor (PDFR) consist in a________________ in which the reactive fluid transfer at steady- state where no
accumulation occurs
A. plug flow reactor B. batch reactor C. long straight pipe D. none of these

BATCH STERILIZATION

1. Chemical agents are prohibited to be used in the sterilization of fermentation medium primarily because it has
low disinfection ability.
a. True b. False c. Maybe d. none of these

2. When a bacterial strain is exposed to a dry heat, the heat resistance of that colony of bacteria will
, which sums up why dry heat is not efficient in sterilization method.
a. Decrease b. Stays the same c. Be uncertain d. Increase

3. In sterilization, it is best described as the measure of the size of the job to be accomplished.
a. Del Factor b. Design Factor c. Eccentric Factor d. None of these

For items 4-7, consider the following Batch Sterilization problem:

A fermenter containing 40 m 3 of medium (25OC) is going to be sterilized by direct injection of saturated steam. The
typical bacterial count of the medium is about 5x10 12 m-3, which needs to be reduced to such an extent that the chance
for a contaminant surviving the sterilization is 1 in 1,000. The steam (345 KPa, absolute pressure) will be injected with a
flow rate of 5,000 kg/hr, which will be stopped when the medium temperature reaches 122 OC. During the holding time,
the heat loss through the vessel is assumed to be negligible. After a proper holding time, the fermenter will be cooled by
passing 100 m3/hr of 20OC water through the cooling coil in the fermenter until the medium reaches 30 OC. The coil has a
heat-transfer area of 40 m2 and for this operation the average overall heat-transfer coefficient (U) for cooling is 2,500
kJ/hr m2 K. The heat-resistant bacterial spores in the medium can be characterized by an Arrhenius coefficient k d0 of 5.7
x1039 hr-1 and activation energy (Ed) of 2.834x105 J/kmol (Deindoerfer and Humphrey, 1959). The heat capacity, density
of the medium and kd are 4.187 kJ/Kg K , 1,000 kg/m 3 NS 196. 7 respectively.

4. The total design criterion of the fermentation process is

a. 38.7 b. 39. 4 c. 40.2 d. 42.6
5. Estimate the heating time (theat).
a. 1.46 hr b. 2.06 hr c. 2.56 hr d. 3.36 hr
6. The design criterion for heating is
a. 15.83 b. 15.44 c. 14.87 d. 14.72
7. Estimate the cooling time (tcooling).
 a. 3. 67 min b. 3.87 min c. 4.37 min d. 4.97 min
For items 4-7, the following is the solution of the problem:

Given:
Vmedium = 40 m3 ρmedium = 1000 kg/m3
Bacterial count = 5 x 1012 m-3 Cp = 4.187 KJ/ Kg. K
n = 1 / 1000 = 0.001 kd = 197. 6
ms = 5, 000 kg/hr
vol. flowrate of cooling = 100 m3/hr
internal energy (U) = 2, 500 KJ/ hr.m2.K
Kd0 = 5.7 x 1039 hr-1

Solution:
4. To get the total design criterion:
n0 ( 40 ) (5 x 1012)
∇ total=ln
n
= [ ( 0.001) ]
∇ total=39.84
5. To get the time of heating (theating)
T (final boiling temp) = 395.15 K T0 (initial boiling temp) = 298. 15 K

To find for the value of the total enthalpy (H):

H @ 345 KPa = 2730 . 97 kJ/kg (obtained by interpolation)
H @ 25 oC = 104. 8 KJ/kg (obtained in the steam table)

H=2730−104.8=2, 626.17 kJ /kg

Using the first condition of heating process using direct steam contact:
H ms t
T =T 0+
Cp(M +m s t)

H ms t
T =T 0+
Cp( ρ medium V medium +m s t)

( 2 , 626.17 ) (5 , 000)
T =T 0+
4.187( 40 x 1000+5 , 000t )

Simplifying the equation becomes

(78.40 t)
T =298.15+
(1+0.125 t)
Substituting the temperature, the heating time (t heating) will be
theating = 1.46 hr

6. To find for the design criterion for heating:

t
−E d
∇ heating=k d 0∫ exp
0
( )
RT
dt
 1.46
−2.834 x 10 5
[( ]
−1
78.40 t
39
∇ heating=(5.7 x 10 ) ∫ exp
0 8.314 )(298.15+
1+ 0.125t ) dt

∇ heating=14.72

7. To get the time of cooling (tcooling)

T0 ( temp before cooling) = 395.15 K TC0 (initial cooling temp) = 293. 15 K

Using the cooling condition of sterilization:

mc t
{[
T =T C + ( T 0−T C ) exp − 1−exp
0 0
( −UA
mc Cp )] M }
{[
T =293.15+ ( 395.15−293.15 ) exp − 1−exp
x 1000 x 4.187 1000 x 40 }
( 100−2,500 x 40
) ] 100 x 1000 t

T =293.15+102 exp (−0.531t )

To find for the cooling time (tcooling) when T = 303.15 k

t cooling=4.37 hr

CONTINUOUS STERILIZATION

1. For indirect heating, the plate and frame heat exchanger is generally more effective than the shell and tube heat
transfer due to
a. smaller heat transfer area c. larger heat transfer area
b. more number of plates d. lesser cost
2. The deviation from ideal plug flow due to axial mixing can be described
a. Friedlander model c. Langmuir model
b. Pasceri model d. dispersion model
3. For laminar flow of Newtonian fluid through a smooth round pipe, the ratio of average fluid velocity to the
maximum velocity is
a. 0.75 c. 0.5
b. 0.37 d. 0.87
4. Sterilization can be carried out by
a. Radiation c. heat
b. chemical agents d. all of these
5. The heated medium passes through a holding section, which is usually maintained in
a. Isothermal conditions c. Adiabatic conditions
b. Isobaric conditions d. Isotropic conditions

A medium is to be continuously sterilized at a flow rate of 2m 3 h -1 in a sterilizer by direct steam injection. The
temperature of a holding section is maintained at 120 0C, and the time for h00eating and cooling can be neglected. The
bacterial count of the entering medium, 2x10 12m-3, must be reduced to such an extent that only one organism can
survive during 30 days of continuous operation. The holding section of the sterilizer is a tube, 0.15m in the internal
diameter. The specific death rate of bacterial spores in the medium is 121 h -1 at 120 0C, the medium density = 950 kg m-
3
; the medium viscosity =1kgm-1 h-1. Assuming ideal plug flow.

6. Calculate the average medium velocity in the holding section.

a. 135.6 m h-1 c. 313 m h-1
-1
b. 131 m h d. 113 m h-1
7. Calculate the required length of the holding section of the sterilizer.
a. 31.2 m 34.2 m
 b. 30.2 m 33.2 m

ACTIVE IMMOBILIZATION

1. Which of the following is NOT belong to the group?

a. Entrapment c. covalent bond
b. Adsorption d. active immobilization
2. The following are the DISADVANTAGES of cell immobilization, EXCEPT;
a. Some unwanted byproducts can be formed due to presence of other enzymes in the used cells.
b. There is a complete elimination of cell wash out problems especially at very high dilution rates.
c. The cell wall and cell membrane of the used cells prevent substrate, products or other reaction
components to penetrate inside or outside the cell.
d. Some immobilization techniques and materials can have an important negative impact on the economics
of the bioprocess.
3. The two major strategies under active immobilization
a. Cross-linking and encapsulation c. Adsorption and cross-linking
b. Entrapment and binding of cell d. Entrapment and encapsulation
4. A very simple, cheap technique, easier to do and convenient method because of its low cost and improved
stability.
a. Active immobilization c. Cell immobilization
b. Passive immobilization d. none of the above
5. Confinement or localization of enzymes so that they can be reused continuously is called_____
a. Immobilization c. passive immobilization
b. Active immobilization d. all of the above
6. The categories of cell immobilization are__
I. Passive immobilization
II. Active immobilization
III. Cell immobilization
IV. Enzyme immobilization
a. I and II c. II and III
b. I and III d. II and IV
PASSIVE IMMOBILIZATION

1. The immobilized technique involving chemical method is

a. Covalent bond formation dependent

b. Non-covalent bond formation dependent
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Ionic bond formation dependent

2. The immobilized enzyme produced by micro encapsulation technique provides

a. an extremely large surface area

b. smaller surface area
c. high amount of solvent
d. relatively smaller surface area

3. It is seen that the nutrients diffuse into the biofilms and products diffuse out into the liquid nutrient medium.

a. Active immobilization c. Passive immobilization

b. Mixed culture systems d. stagnant Biofilms

4. Which of the following is NOT TRUE

a. Immobilization provides high cell concentrations.

b. Immobilization improves genetic stability.
c. Immobilization has favorable microenvironmental conditions.
d. None of these

5. These biofilms are basically produced due to the presence of some polymer-producing organisms that enhance or
facilitate and even stabilize the formation of biofilms.

a. Active Immobilization c. Passive Immobilization

b. Mixed culture systems d. Stagnant Biofilms

6. The covalent attachment of enzyme molecules is via

a. nonessential amino acids residues to water insoluble, functional supports

b. essential amino acids residues to water insoluble, functional supports
c. nonessential amino acids residues to water soluble, functional supports
d. essential amino acids residues to water soluble, functional supports

7. It is an important parameter to avoid removal of deactivated enzymes and reloading with a fresh active catalyst.

a. Mechanical strength of the support c. Surface properties

b. Pore size distribution d. Regeneration

PACKED BED REACTORS

1. What is the other term of packed bed reactor?

a. multiphase reactor c. plug flow reactor
b. fixed bed reactor d. None of these.
2. Packed bed is one of the reactors that is commonly used in the chemical industry.

Ans.: True

3. Mass transfer is included in the designing of the packed bed reactor.

Ans.: True
 4. Packed bed reactor has as a heterogeneous reaction.

Ans.: True

FLUIDIZED-BED REACTORS

1. It occurs when small solid particles, in a fluidized bed, are suspended in an upward flowing stream of fluid.
a. Contraction c. Diffusion
b. Fluidization d. Floatation
2. It is a bubbling bed model which is used in describing reactions in fluidized beds.
a. Michaelis-Menten Model c. Kunii-Levenspiel Model
b. Fluid Bed Model d. Reactor Model
3. It is a reactor that can process large volumes of fluid.
a. Fluidized bed reactor c. Packed bed reactor
b. Trickle bed reactor d. None of these
4. The significant applications for the fluidized bed technology concerns________ systems.
a. Liquid-liquid c. Gas-liquid
b. Gas-solid d. Solid-liquid
w
For questions 5-7 (Problem Solving)
A fluidized bed reactor is used for a test reaction in a pilot laboratory. The operator wants to know if what is the
specific bubble diameter, in order to know of how the reaction is going to be effective at a specific height of 50 cm.
The maximum bubble diameter is 34 cm and the minimum bubble diameter is 0.0341 cm. (D t= 100 cm)
5. Determine the maximum height, or the height at the top of the bed.
a. 100 cm c. 120 cm
b. 55 cm d. 60 cm
6. Determine the equation to be used in this problem

a.

b.

c.

d.

7. What is the bubble diameter at the given parameters?

a. 5.79 cm c. 4.77 cm
b. 5.67 cm d. 5.25 cm

SOLUTION FOR NO. 7

GIVEN:
db= 34 cm dbo= 0.0341 cm
Dt = 100 cm h= 50 cm

REQUIRED: db of the reaction

SOLUTION: Using the equation of the bubble diameter by Mori and Wen:

Substituting the given values:

 −0.3(50 cm)
34 cm−d b
=e 100cm
34 cm−0.0341 cm

db= 4.77 cm
TRICKLE BED REACTORS

1. It is a three-phase system containing a packed bed of heterogeneous catalyst, flowing gas and liquid phases.
a. Fluidized-bed Bioreactors c. Packed-bed Reactors
b. Trickle-bed Reactors d. Bubble-column Bioreactors
2. It is an enzyme attached to an inert, insoluble material—such as calcium alginate (produced by reacting a mixture of
sodium alginate solution and enzyme solution with calcium chloride). This can provide increased resistance to
changes in conditions such as pH or temperature.
a. Immobilized Enzyme Protease Enzymes
b. Lipase Enzymes Carbohydrase Enzymes
3. The following are the advantages of a Trickle-bed Reactor EXCEPT,
a. Higher catalyst attrition
b. Simple to operate under high temperatures and pressures
c. Lower total energy consumption since solids are stagnant, not suspended in slurry
d. Can be used for three - phase reactions
4. In a Trickle-Bed Reactor, which of the following is placed at the top of the bed to ensure a uniform liquid distribution
throughout the bed.
a. Bubble cap c. Sieve-plate distributor
b. Fine layer of non-reacting particles d. All of these
5. The term trickle bed is used to mean a reactor in which a liquid phase and a gas phase flow
_____________________through a fixed bed of catalyst particles while reaction takes place.
a. Counter-currently c. Concurrently Upward
b. Concurrently Downward d. Horizontally
6. Trickle bed reactors play a large role in hydro-processing in the petroleum industry to generate cleaner fuels through
____________________.
a. Denitrogenization c. Hydrodesulphurization
b. Demetallization d. All of the above
7. It refers to any manufactured device or system that supports a biologically active environment. It is a vessel in which
a chemical process is carried out which involves organisms or biochemically active substances derive from such
organisms.
a. Chemical Reactors c. Batch Reactors
b. Packed-bed Reactor d. Bioreactors

INSTRUMENTATION FOR MEASUREMENTS OF ACTIVE FERMENTATION

1. It is a small electric turbines that generate an electromotive force which is proportional to the mean fluid
velocity.
a. Radioactive sensor c. Magnetic sensor
b. Electrochemical analyzers d. Turbine meter
2. It is an instrument available for measurement of CO2 and O2.
a. Electrochemical analyzer c. Paramagnetic analyzers
b. Infrared instrument d. Magnetic sensor
3. It is an instrument available for measurement of CO.
a. Gas chromatography c. Paramagnetic analyzers
b. Infrared instrument d. Magnetic sensor
4. An undesirable phenomenon that has a risk to lose an essential part of the fermentation broth.
a. Dissolved oxygen c. Foam
 b. Acidity d. Biomass
5. it is an instrument used to track radioactive trace of a species.
a. dopple sensor c. radioactive sensor
b. magnetic sensor d. turbine meters
6. A phenomenon that has the risk to destroy the efficiency of bioreactor or may cause failure of the process.
a. broth c. foam
b. residue d. overflow
8. It is an instrument available for measurement of O2.
a. Electrochemical analyzer c. Paramagnetic analyzers
b. Infrared instrument d. Magnetic sensor

USING THE INFORMATION OBTAINED

1. __________ are the key to understanding and therefore controlling any process.
a. Measurements c. Instrumentation
b. Control d. none of the above
2. It is one of the most important indicators in a fermentation or bioreactor process.
a. Dissolved oxygen c. pH meter
b. Temperature d. none of these

3. It can be used in conjunction with metabolic models which employ such physiological parameters.
a. Dissolved oxygen c. Cell mass measurement
b. Broth level d. Temperature
4. As the broth in a fermenter or bioreactor becomes more viscous and is subjected to agitation from sparging, it
has a tendency to ________.
a. Expand c. foam
b. Increase d. decrease
5. Measurement technology can be separated into three broad categories. These are _________, __________ and
__________.
a. Biological, physical, scientific c. Physical, scientific, chemical
b. Biological, chemical, physical d. None of the above
6. Below are examples of bioreactor control, EXCEPT
a. Ph c. Cell mass measurement
b. Proliferation d. Broth level
7. It computes the distance from the device to the broth surface based on the time it takes for the sound wave
initiating from the device to reflect off the surface of the air-liquid boundary and return.
a. Capacitance probe c. sonic
b. Hydrostatic tank gauging d. none of these

Design & Operation of Aseptic, Aerobic Fermentation Process

1. Which of the following are typical design requirements for an aerobic, aseptic batch fermentor?
1. Agitation
2. Aeration
3. Withdrawal of cells/medium
4. Antifoam sonication
5. Sterilization and maintenance of sterility
6. Regulation of factors like temperature, pH, pressure, aeration, nutrient feeding, liquid level etc.
a) 1, 2, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 1, 2, 5, 6 d) 3, 4, 2, 5
2. A sparger is a design component intended to address which of the following?
a) Aeration c. Withdrawal of cells/medium
 b) Antifoam sonication d. Sterilization and maintenance of sterility
3. All of the following contribute to aeration, in a way, except
a) Cooling jacket c. Agitator
b) Sparger d. No exemptions
4. Which of the following operational step is intended to maintain genetic stability?
a) Fermentation c. Lyophilization
b) Incubation d. Proliferation
5. There are several methods of destroying foam that may affect the fermentation process. Hence, a fermentation
that does not produce foam is desirable.
a) True c. False
b) Amen d. Hurrah
6. Fermentation can’t happen in the absence of ______________.
a) Oxygen c. Deuterium
b) Fermentation vessel d. Organic substrate
7. Because of the dangers that the microorganisms used in industrial fermentations pose, fermentation cannot be
allowed to transpire inside the human physiological system.
a) True c. Not enough data
b) False d. With 21st century technology, it is possible.

ANALYSIS OF MULTIPLE INTERACTING MICROBIAL POPULATIONS

1. Which of the following equations represents the Exponential population growth of Species 1?
dN 1 dN 1 K 1−N 1
a.
dt
=r 1 N 1b .
dt (
=r 1 N 1
K1 )
dN 1 K 1−N 1−αN 2
c.
dt
=r 1 N 1 ( K1 )
dN 1
d. + N 1 b1−d 1 N 1 N 2
dt
2. Which of the following equations represents the Logistic population growth of species 1?
dN 1 dN 1 K 1−N 1
a.
dt
=r 1 N 1b .
dt (
=r 1 N 1
K1 )
dN 1 K 1−N 1−αN 2
c.
dt
=r 1 N 1 ( K1 )
dN 1
d. + N 1 b1−d 1 N 1 N 2
dt
3. Which of the following equations represents the Population growth of prey species 1 in the presence of
predator species 2?
dN 1 dN 1 K 1−N 1
a.
dt
=r 1 N 1b .
dt (
=r 1 N 1
K1 )
dN 1 K 1−N 1−αN 2
c.
dt
=r 1 N 1 ( K1 )
dN 1
d. + N 1 b1−d 1 N 1 N 2
dt
4. This microbial interaction states that the growth of one organism either depends on or is improved by growth
factors, nutrients, or substrates provided by another organism growing nearby.
 a. Mutualism c. Commensalism
b. Amensalism d. Competition
5. The production of antibiotics that can inhibit or kill a susceptible microorganism is an example of what type of
microbial interaction?
a. Mutualism c. Commensalism
b. Amensalism d. Competition
6. The following are types of negative microbial interaction, except?
a. Competition c. Commensalism
b. Predation d. Amensalism
7. Which figure describes a Competitive Interaction?
a. b.

c.
d. Both a and c

USES OF WELL-DEFINED MIXED POPULATIONS

1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

I. Mixed populations or mixed cultures are those in which the inoculum always consists of two or more
organisms.
II. Mixed cultures can consist of known species to the exclusion of all others, or they may be composed of
mixtures of unknown species.
III. The mixed cultures should not be all of one microbial group.
IV. Mixed cultures may consist of a mixture of organisms of fungi and bacteria or fungi and yeasts or other
combinations in which the components are quite unrelated.
A. I and II only.
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and III only.
D. I, II, and IV only.
2. This is produced by inoculating pasteurized fresh milk with appropriate lactic acid-producing organisms.
A. Propionic acid c. Cheese
B. Nisin d. Ginger beer
3. Which of the following is produced due to the interaction between a yeast and a lactic acid bacterium?
A. Propionic acid c. Cheese
B. Nisin d. Ginger beer
4. It is produced by Lactococcus lactis.
A. Propionic acid c. Cheese
B. Nisin d. Ginger beer
5. This is the main sugar found in whey.
A. Fructose c. Glucose
B. Lactose d. Maltose
6. This refers to the watery liquid that separates from the solid part of milk when it turns sour or when enzymes
are added in cheese making.
A. Whey c. Wheat
B. Casein d. Curd
7. The yoghurt is made from
A. Lactobacillus bulgaricus c. Streptococcus thermophiles
B. S. cremoris d. mixed culture of (a) and (c)