TNPSC AE Previous Year Question Paper With Solution

PREVIOUS YEARS
TNPSC QUESTIONS
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2018 CIVIL ENGINEERING
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
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invigilator gives signal to open it at the commencement of the examination. As
soon as the signal is received you should tear the right side of the booklet cover
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2. This Question Booklet contains 200 questions.
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1. In angle dozers, usually the (C) remains same
blades are attached to the front (D) W/C ratio does not have
side of the tractor at an angle of any effect on strength of
(A) 30° (B) 90° concrete
(C) 120° (D) 180° 6. Which is the most dangerous
2. Desirable air changes for an for decaying the stone?
effective working of the (A) Efflorescence
ventilation system per hour (B) Water absorption
may be (C) Incorrect bedding
(A) 1 to 60 air changes per (D) Vegetation growth
hour 7. The split tensile strength of M20
(B) 10 to 50 air changes per grade concrete when expressed
hour in percentage of its compressive
(C) 5 to 10 air changes per strength is
hour (A) 10% to 15%
(D) 5 to 6 air changes per hour (B) 15% to 20%
3. The fire resistance (C) 20% to 25%
characteristics of concrete (D) 25% to 30%
dependence upon the 8. Match List I with List II for mix
(A) Co-efficient of thermal design of concrete as per Indian
expansion of coarse Standard and select correct
aggregate answer:
(B) Thermal expansion of sand List I List II
(C) Degree of compaction (a) Cement content 1. First step
(D) W/C ratio (b)Aggregate 2. Second step
4. Low sound intensity causing content
unsatisfactory hearing for the (c) Water content 3. Third step
audience is known as (d) Water to 4. Fourth step
(A) Insufficient loudness cement ratio
(B) Sound foci (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Dead spots (A) 1 2 4 3
(D) Transmission of noise. (B) 3 2 4 1
5. For the given W/C ratio, the (C) 1 4 2 3
higher the maximum size of (D) 3 4 2 1
aggregate the strength of
concrete
(A) increases
(B) decreases

9. Select the incorrect joint 15. Contour line is an imaginary
considered in ·stone masonry line connecting points of
(A) Butt joint (A) same R.L.
(B) Rebated joint (B) same declination
(C) Grooved joint (C) same dip
(D) Contraction joint (D) same inverted level
10. The masonry constructed using 16. G.P.S. stands for
more than one material to (A) Global Positioning System
improve the appearance and (B) Global Positioning Survey
durability is called as (C) Geographical Position
(A) Stone masonry Station
(B) Brick masonry (D) Geo-Point-Standard
(C) Rubble masonry 17. One of the factors deciding
(D) Composite masonry contour interval is
11. Brass handle and chain is (A) Scale of map
connected by (B) Skill of surveyor
(A) Flexible joint (C) Type of instrument
(B) Hinged joint (D) Environment
(C) Swivel joint 18. If a composite bar of steel and
(D) Rigid joint brass is heated, then the brass
12. Magnetic bearing of a line is 84° bar will be under
and magnetic declination is 2° (A) Tension
W, the time bearing of the line is (B) Compression
(A) 82° (B) 86° (C) Shear
(C) 80° (D) 83° (D) Torsion
13. G.T.S. stands for 19. Bending stre.ss distribution
(A) Great Trigonometrical diagram of a beam rectangular·
Station cross section, subjected to
(B) Great Trigonometrical transverse loading will be
Survey (A) (B)
(C) Great Triangle Survey
(D) Great Tangential Survey
14. Reduction -to-centre is-worked
out with
(C) (D)
(A) Barometric levelling
(B) Rectangulation
(C) Triangulation
(D) Precise levelling

20. The bending moment for an (D) changes sign
over hanging beam is shown in 24. If E is the Young‘s modulus and
figure. The point of contraflexure I is moment of inertia then
would include maximum deflection of a
cantilever beam of span ‗l‘ due
to pure bending moment ‗M‘ at
it free end is
Ml 2 Ml 2
(A) A and G (B) B and F (A) 3EI (B) 4 EI
(C) C and E (D) D Ml 2 Ml 2
21. ‗Core‘ of a section is the figure (C) 6 EI (D) 2 EI
within which load may be 25. The failure theory suitable for
placed so as brittle materials is
(A) to produce tensile stress at one (A) maximum strain energy
end and compressive stress at (B) maximum shear stress
the other end energy
(B) to produce tensile stress at both (C) maximum principal stress
ends of the section energy
(C) to produce tensile stress in the (D) distortion energy theory
middle of the section 26. Maximum principal stress
(D) not to produce tensile stress theory was postulated by
anywhere in the section (A) St. Venant (B) Rankine
22. Fletched beam means a (C) Mohr (D) Tresca
(A) continuous beam 27. When a tensile or compressive
(B) fixed beam force (P) acts on a body. If E is
(C) propped cantilever beam the Young‘s modulus, A is
(D) beam of composite section cross-sectional area and l is the
consisting of a wooden length, then the change in its
beam strengthened by mild length is given by
steel plates Pl AE
23. For a simply supported beam (A) AE (B) Pl
with a point load anywhere on PE PA
the span. The bending moment (C) Al (D) lE
is ·maximum on a section where
shearing force
(A) is maximum
(B) is minimum
(C) is equal

28. If E is Young‘s modulus and I is (D) 42 kN-m at 1/3rd of the
moment of inertia, then the span
d2y 32. Slenderness ratio of a column is
EI
expression dx 2 at any the ratio of
section for a beam is equal to (A) the minimum radius of
(A) load intensity at the section gyration to the
(B) shear force at the section unsupported length
(C) bending moment at the (B) unsupported length of
section column to the minimum
(D) slope at the section radius of gyration
29. Euler‘s critical load for a column (C) minimum radius of
of equivalent length le, moment gyration to the area of
of inertia I and modulus of cross-section
elasticity E is given by (D) area of cross-section of the
 2 EI  EI minimum radius of
le le2 gyration
(A) (B)
33. For a fixed beam of length L,
 2 EI  EI carrying uniformly distributed
(C) le2 (D) le
load ‗w‘ over the entire span,
30. In case of a simply supported the plastic moment capacity of
rectangular beam of span L and the beam, Mp is
loaded with a central load P, the Wc L 16
length of elasto-plastic zone of (A) 16 (B) Wc L
the plastic hinge is 18
Wc L2
L L 2
(C) 16 (D) Wc L
(A) 2 (B) 4
34. In plastic theory, shape factor is
L L
defined as-the ratio of
(C) 3 (D) 5
31. The absolute maximum bending Plastic modulus of section
moment in a simply supported (A) Elastic modulus of section
beam of span 10 m due to Elastic modulus of section
moving udl of 4 kN/m (B) Plastic modulus of section
spanning over 6 m is Shear modulus of section
(A) 42 kN-m at the support Plastic modulus of section
(C)
(B) 42 kN-m at the mid point
Plastic modulus of section
(C) 42 kN-m near the Shear modulus of section
(D)
mid·point

35. For the structure· shown in voids. The values of porosity
figure,· the ratio of relative and void ratio
stiffness for AB and AC is (A) and 0.0
(B) and 1.0
(C) 0.5 and 1.0
(D) and 0.5
38. In a partially saturated soil, the
air content is 60%. What is the
value of degree of saturation?
(A) 40% (B) 60%
(C) 50% (D) 100%
39. If the consistency index of a
1 3 natural soil is zero, then the
(A) 2 (B) 4 natural water content of the soil
4 is equal to its
(C) 3 (D) 2 (A) liquid limit
36. A rigid portal frame ABCD (B) plastic limit
carries loads W1 and W2 as (C) plasticity index
shown in figure. (D) shrinkage limit
40. Inorganic silts with high
compressibility are represented
as
(A) MH (B) SL
(C) ML (D) CH
41. Cohesionless soils are best
compacted by
(A) Vibratory roller
(B) Sheep foot roller
The structure is statically (C) Rubber tyred roller
(A) determinate (D) Drum roller
(B) indeterminate to the first 42. Under load, the void ratio of a
degree submerged. saturated· clay
(C) indeterminate to the decreases from 1.00 to 0.92.
second degree What will be the ultimate
(D) indeterminate to the third settlement of the 2 m thick clay,
degree due to consolidation?
37. In a soil mass, the volume of (A) 20 mm (B) 60mm
solids is equal to volume of (C) 80 mm (D) 100 mm

43. A circular area of radius ‗a‘ on 46. Negative skin friction occurs
the surface of a semi-infinite soil when
mass is uniformly loaded·with a (A) the surrounding soil settles
loading intensity of ‗q‘. The more than the fire
vertical stress z directly below (B) the driving operation
its centre at a depth ‗z‘ is given begins
by (C) the pile passes
q z 1 
2 continuously through a
 2  firm soil
(A) 2   1  (a/ z) 
(D) cast insitu pile was
  constructed
 1 
q 1
 1  (a/ z) 2  3/2  47. The length to ·diameter ratio of
(B)    
cylindrical specimens used in
5/2
3q  1  triaxial test is generally
2  2 
(C) 2 z  1  (a/ z)  (A) 1 (B) 2
3/2 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.5
q  1 
 2  48. If  ‗is the angle of internal
(D) 2 z  1  (a/ z) 
friction, the flow value N is
44. When the average degree of given by
consolidation U is less than 60% (A) tan2 (45° –  / 2)
the time factor T is given by
(B) tan (45° –  / 2)
  (C ) tan2(45° +  /2)
T   U 2
(A) 4
(D) tan(45° +  / 2)
4 49. For proceeding with optimum
T   U 2
(B)   rate of biological activity in
4  2 composting process, the
T   moisture content should be
(C) U 
about
U  2
T   (A) 25% (B) 45%
(D) 4 
(C) 55% (D) 75%
45. The bearing capacity factors Nc,
50. BOD5 refers to five days of
Nq and N are functions of
decomposition at 20°C. If the
(A) width and depth of footing
temperature is increased to
(B) density of soil
35°C, then the five day BOD can
(C) cohesion of soil
be obtained in
(D) angle of internal friction of
1 12 days 2 14 days
soil (A) (B)
2 12 days 3 12 days
(C) (D)

51. The turbidity produced by one 56. In the design of simply
milligram of —————— in supported rectangular RC
one litre of water is· the unit of beams, the development
Turbidity. length, Ld is
(A) Alumina (B) Silica 0.87 f y 0.87 f y
(C) Feldspar (D) Lime
(A) 4 bd (B) 4 bd
52. The following process does not
0.78 bd 0.71 f y
helps in the removal of
(C)
8 fy
(D) 3 bd
permanent hardness from
water. where -riomina1 diameter of
(A) Lime-soda process bar, fy -yield stress
(B) Lime-water process 57. A flat slab is called a flat plate if
(C) Base exchange process (A) the span of slab is large
(D) Demineralisation process and loads are small,
53. Among the following industrial omitting both drop and
wastes which one is having very column head
high BOD (B) the span of slab is not large
(A) Dairy wastes and loads are not
(B) Slaughter house wastes excessive, omitting both
(C) Tannery wastes drop and column head.
(D) Distillery wastes (C) the span of slab is small
54. The type of sewage collection and loads are small,
pattern preferred when the city considering drop
is situated near the river (D) the span of slab is small
(A) Radial pattern and loads are small
(B) Intercepter pattern considering column head
(C) Fan pattern 58. For the flexural tension
(D) Zone pattern reinforcement, the shear
55. The type of sewage capacity shall be at least ———
pumps·which have relatively times the applied shear at the
high specific speed point of curtailment.
(A) Axial flow pumps (A) 2.5 (B) 3
(B) Mixed flow pumps (C) 1.5 (D) 1.75
(C) Radial flow pumps with
single suction
(D) Radial flow pumps with
double suction

59. Short compression members at (C) Rupture of concrete in the
the junction of columns and tension zone
roof trusses or beams are called (D) Failure of concrete in the
as compression zone
(A) boom 63. The system suitable for pre-
(B) principal rafter tensioned prestressed concrete
(C) post members is
(D) knee braces (A) Magnel system
60. Gantry girders are designed as (B) Freyssinef system
(A) Laterally supported beams (C) Hoyer system
(B) Laterally unsupported (D) Gifford-Udall system
beams 64. High strength concrete is
(C) Longitudinally supported necessary in prestressed
beams concrete, as the material offers
(D) Longitudinally high resistance in
unsupported beams (A) Tension and bond
61. Web buckling occurs when the (B) Shear, bond and bearing
intensity of vertical compressive (C) Tension, shear, bond and
stress near the centre of the bearing
section becomes (D) Tension and shear
(A) Lesser than the critical 65. ——— is that property of a fluid
buckling stress for the web by virtue of which it offers
acting as a column resistance to the movement of
(B) Greater than the critical one layer of fluid over an
buckling stress for the web adjacent layer.
acting as a column (A) Viscosity
(C) Equal to the critical (B) Kinematics
buckling stress for the web (C) Density
acting as a column (D) Specific gravity
(D) Less than the bending 66. Differential manometers are
stress used to measure
62. The sudden failure of a (A) Pressure in water channels
prestressed member without (B) Pressure in water pipes
any warning is due to the (C) Difference of pressure
(A) Fracture of steel in the between any two points
compression zone (D) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Fracture of steel in the
tension zone

67. The practical value of upper 72. Valve of Bligh‘s coefficient C
critical Reynolds· number may takes approximately equal to 15
be considered to lie between for
(A) 12,000 to 14,000 (A) Coarse grained sand
(B) 2,000 to 4,000 (B) Fine sand
(C) 2,700 to 4,000 (C) Sand mixed with gravel
(D) 2,000 to 3,000 (D) Sand mixed with boulder
68. A pitot tube is a simple device and mud
used for measuring the 73. To say an modular pump can
(A) Velocity of flow form, the Froude no. should be
(B) Discharge of flow (A) F = 1
(C) Viscosity of flow (B) F = 1 to 1.7
(D) Pressure of flow (C) F = 1.7 to 2.5
69. The unit hydrograph is the (D) F = 2.5 to 4.5
graphical relation between the 74. Hydraulic drop is an example
time distributions of the of·
(A) Effective rainfall and direct (A) Steady flow
run off (B) Uniform flow
(B) Effective rainfall and total (C) Varied flow
run off (D) Laminar flow
(C) Total rainfall and direct 75. The crest of the under
run off sluice·portion of weir is kept at
(D) Total rainfall and total run ———— level, when compared
off to crest of normal portion of the
70. In the process of condensation, weir.
the fall in temperature (A) Lower (B) Higher
represented by its temperature (C) Same (D) Any
change is called as 76. The point of application of the
(A) Adiabatic temperature total pressure on the surface is
lapse known as
(B) Condensation lapse (A) Centre of gravity
(C) Saturation change (B) Centre of pressure
(D) Adiabatic saturation lapse (C) Centroid
rate (D) Centre of volume
71. Average approximate value of
delta for Rice is
(A) 120 cm (B) 150 cm
(C) 165 cm (D) 135 cm
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77. The value of silt factor depends 83. The switch lead to set out a B.G.
on turn-out with outer radius 100
(A) Size of silt m and a heel divergence of 0.72
(B) Depth of water m is
(C) Side slopes of the channel (A) 12 m (B) 15 m
(D) Characteristics of channel (C) 18 m (D) 14 m
bed and slopes 84. The objective of the minimum
78. Fish ladder is provided on the turning radius of an air craft is to
side of (A) decide the radius of runway
(A) Wing wall (B) decide the radius of taxi
(B) Core wall way
(C) Divide wall (C) decide the radius of taxi
(D) Diaphragm wall way and to ascertain its
79. The capillary rise is coarse sand position in the landing
is estimated as aprons and hangers
(A) 20–50cm (D) decide the location of
(B) 50–60crn aprons and hangers
(C) 60–80 cm 85. The area of land acquired for
(D) Over 80 cm the road, along its alignment is
80. Present concept of transportation called as
network discourages (A) Road way
(A) Industrial development (B) Right of way
(B) Commercial development (C) Permanent way
(C) Ribbon development (D) Carriage way
(D) Infrastructure development 86. Flexiple pavement distribute the
81. The design speed is decided wheel load
based on (A) Directly to the subgrade
(A) Characteristics of driver (B) Through structural action
(B) Over all highway (C) Through a set of layers to
requirements the subgrade
(C) Vehicular characteristics (D) Directly to the Base course
(D) Highway users 87. As per Stevensons‘s empirical
82. The lag distance traversed by a formula, the approximate value
driver with a speed of 40 kmph of the height of the wave in
and reaction time of 2 seconds is meter is given by
(A) 12.20 m (B) 22.20m (A) 3.4 F (B) 1.5 F
(C) 10.50 m (D) 2.22 m (C) 0.5 F (D) 0.34 F
where F is the fetch in km

88. Gauge is the (A) Original cost – sinking
(A) Centre to centre distance fund
between rails (B) Original cost – total
(B) Distance between outer amount of depreciation
faces of rails (C) Estimated cost – original
(C) Clear distance between the cost
running faces of two track (D) Original cost – scrap value
rail 93. Choose the wrong statement
(D) Distance between inner (or) Which of the following is
faces of pair of wheels not a tender documents?
89. Wharf is (A) Tender form
(A) Space for servicing ships (B) Tender notice
(B) Loading and unloading (C) Bill of quantities or
platform schedule of quantities
(C) Space for (D) Detailed rate analysis
manoueverability 94. The gradual decrease in the
(D) Space for parking value of property due to
90. An estimate is structural depreciation is
(A) the actual cost of known as
construction of a structure (A) Depreciation
(B) the random guess of the (B) Annual depreciation
cost of the structure (C) Sinking fund
(C) the probable cost arrived at (D) Book value
before commencement of 95. If to, tp and tL represent the
the structure optimistic, pessimistic and most
(D) computation of quantities likely time estimates, the
of materials and labour expected time of completion of
91. The annual periodic payments the activity is given by
of the capital invested is known t p  4to  t L
tE 
as (A) 6
(A) Sinking fund to  2t L  t p
(B) Annuity tE 
(B) 6
(C) Depreciation to  4t p  t L
(D) Years purchase tE 
(C) 6
92. The present value of a property
to  4t L  t p
can be determined from the tE 
(D) 6
relation

96. In the absence of detailed Brick excluding mortar
design the volume of steel in thickness is
RCC work (slab) is taken as (A) 19 cm × 9 cm × 7 cm
(A) 0.7% to 1% of RCC volume (B) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(B) 1% to 2% of RCC volume (C) 19 cm × 7 cm × 9 cm
(C) 0.3% to 0.5% of RCC (D) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
volume 102. In analysis of rate the quantity
(D) 1 % to 5% of RCC volume of dry cement mortar for 10 cubic
97. For reinforced bar cranked at metre brick work is taken as
both ends the additional length (A) 0.3 m3 (B) m3
at 30° angle is equal to (C) m3 (D) 5.0 m3
(A) 0.4 d (B) 0.5 d 103. Setting time of cement is
(C) 0.6 d (D) 0.7 d determined using
where d – centre to centre (A) Vicat apparatus
vertical distance (B) Casagrande apparatus
98. Which of the following is (C) Le-Chatelier apparatus
general overheads? (D) Slump Cone apparatus
(A) Losses of advances 104. The average tensile strength of
(B) Establishment (office staff) cement, after 3 days and 7 days,
(C) Amenities of labour should not·be less than
(D) Workmen‘s compensation (A) 2.0 N/mm2 and 2.5
99. A record of receipts, issues and N/mm2 respectively
running balance of certain (B) 2.5 N/mm2 and 3.0
articles of stock kept in N/mm2 respectively
(A) M-Book (C) 3.0 N/mm2 and 3.5
(B) Stock Account N/mm2 respectively
(C) Road Metal Book (D) 4.0.N/mm2 and 5.0
(D) Bin Card N/mm2 respectively
100. What is the time by which 105. Which of the following shape of
completion of an activity can be aggregates gives the maximum
delayed without affecting the strength in concrete?
start of succeeding activities? (A) Rounded aggregate
(A) Total float (B) Elongated aggregate
(B) Inteferring float (C) Flaky aggregate
(C) Free float (D) Angular aggregate
(D) Independent float
101. According to Indian Standard
Institution, the size, of Modular

106. Admixtures which are used to increases the bleeding of
lower the permeability of cement
concrete are ·known as 110. The correct sequence of
(A) Accelerators workability test methods in the
(B) Water-repellent order of their application from
admixtures low to high workability is
(C) Air entraining agents (A) slump test, compacting
(D) Bonding admixtures factor and vee-bee
107. Which type of the following mix consistometer
will be produced if the fineness (B) compacting factor, vee-bee
modulus of an aggregate is high? consistometer and slump
(A) Lean concrete test
(B) Stiff concrete (C) vee-bee consistometer,
(C) Harsh concrete slump test and compacting
(D) Workable concrete factor
108. Which of the following pairs in (D) vee-bee consistometer,
respect of Ordinary Portland compacting factor and
Cement (OPC) are correctly slump test
matched? 111. Consider the following
1. Initial setting time – 30 statements:
minutes Pozzolana used as an admixture
2. Final setting time – 10 hrs in concrete has the following
3. Normal consistency – 10% advantages :
Select correct answer : 1. It improves workability
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 with lesser amount of
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 water.
109. Increase in fineness of cement
2. It increases heat of
(A) reduces the rate of strength
hydration and so sets the
development and leads to
concrete quickly.
higher shrinkage
3. It increases resistance to
(B) increases the rate of
attack by salts and
strength development and
sulphates.
leads to higher shrinkage
(C) increases the rate of 4. It leaches calcium hydroxide.
strength development and Select correct answer:
reduces of the rate of (A) 1 and 3
deterioration (B) 1, 2 and 4
(D) decreases the rate of (C) 2, 3 and 4
strength development and (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

112. The purpose of ‗U‘ fork in plane (A) atmospheric temperature
tabling is and pressure
(A) to transfer the ground (B) curvature and refraction
point on to drawing sheet (C) faulty and improper
(B) to transfer the ground line instrument
on to drawing sheet (D) carelessness and
(C) to fix magnetic meridian inexperience of surveyor
(D) to fix the table 117. Curvature effect reduces the
113. The sequence of temporary value of
adjustments is (A) Horizontal distance
(A) Centring, setting and (B) Vertical distance
elimination of parallax (C) Reduced level
(B) Setting up, levelling up (D) Vertical angle
and elimination of parallax 118. The radius of Mohr‘s circle for
(C) Setting, adjusting and an equal unlike principal
focussing stresses of magnitude ‗‘ is
(D) Setting, focussing and 
bisecting (A)  (B) 2
114. In case, theodolite is with four (C) zero (D) 2
levelling screws, levelling up is 119. The po.inf of zero bending
done moment, where the continuous
(A) in parallel position curve of bending moment
(B) in perpendicular position changes sign is called
(C) diagonally (A) the point of inflation
(D) horizontally (B) the point of virtual hinge
115. In tacheometric surveying the (C) the point of internal hinge
focal length of objective and (D) the point of contraflexure
stadia interval is 20 cm and 4 120. A portion of beam between two
mm. Staff intercept is 1 m. Line section is said to be in pure
of sight is perpendicular to staff. bending when there is
The horizontal distance between (A) constant bending moment
instrument and staff by and zero shear force
assuming additive constant (B) constant shear force and
zero, is zero bending moment
(A) 60 m (B) 50 m (C) constant shear force and
(C) 80 m (D) 100 m constant bending moment
116 In surveying, gross errors occur (D) constant shear force and
due to varying bending moment

121. The ratio of. Moment of Inertia (C) circular curve
about the neutral axis to the (D) parabolic curve
distance of the most distant 125. For a cantilever beam with a
fibre of the section from the uniformly distributed load ―w‖
neutral axis is called per unit run carried for a entire
(A) Moment of Inertia span length ‗l, then the maximum
(B) Polar Moment of Inertia bending moment will be
(C) Section Modulus wl 2 wl 2
(D) Modulus of elasticity
(A) 3 (B) 4
122. A solid shaft of diameter ‗D
wl 2 wl
transmits the torque equal to
  (C) 2 (D) 2
 D3  D3 126. If 1 and 2 are principal
(A) 64 (B) 32
  3 stresses, the maximum shear
 D3 D stress τmax in terms of principal
(C) 16 (D) 8
stresses is given by
where τ is the shear stress
123. The rigidity modulus G, in
1   2
terms of modulus of elasticity E (A) 2 (B) 1 – 2
1 1   2
and Poisson‘s ratio m is given by (C) 1 + 2 (D) 2
E 127. If G is the modulus of rigidity
G
 1 and J is the polar moment of
2 1  
(A)  m inertia then the torsional
2E rigidity of the shaft is
G
 1 (A) G/J (B) GJ
1  
(B)  m (C) J/G (D) GJ2
E 128. The span arid dip of a parabolic
G
 1 cable are L and d respectively.
2 1  
(C)  m Then the length of the cable(s) is
E approximately equal to
G
 1 3 d2
1   S  L
(D)  m (A) 8 L
124. The shape of the bending 8 d2
S  L
moment diagram for simply (B) 3 L
supported beam carrying a 3
uniformly distributed load over S  L d
(C) 8
the entire span is
8
(A) linear S  L d
(B) cubical curve (D) 3

129. If a beam of length L having 133. The reaction locus for a semi-
Young‘s modulus ‗E‘ and circular arch is
moment of inertia ‗I‘. Sinks at (A) an ellipse
one the support by δ, then (B) a parabolic curve
sinking moment for beam fixed (C) a straight line not parallel
at both the ends is R
3EI  6EI  to 2
2
(A) l (B) l2 (D) a straight line para1Lel to
4EI  2EI  R
(C) l2 (D) l2 2
130. In the case of a three-hinged 134. Euler‘s formula for a‘ long
parabolic arch carrying a column hinged at both ends is
uniformly distributed load on not valid for slenderness ratio
the entire span, then bending (A) less than 80
moment will be (B) greater than 80
(A) equal to that of a simply (C) greater than 180
supported beam, loaded in (D) greater than 120
the same manner 135. Which one of the following is
(B) maximum at quarter span true example of a statically
(C) zero only at the centre indeterminate structure?
(D) zero throughout the span (A) Overhanging beam
131. If Q is load factor, S is shape (B) Simply supported beam
factor and F is factor of safety in (C) Fixed beam
elastic design. Pick up the (D) Cantilever beam
correct relation. 136. A cantilever beam subjected to a
S uniformly distributed load of
Q
(A) F (B) Q = S × F intensity ―w‖ kN/m propped at
(C) Q = S + F (D) Q = S – F free end by a rigid prop to the
132. Which is the most important same level of fixed support. The
tool in obtaining influence lines reaction in the prop is
for statically determinate and 3
wl
statically indeterminate (A) 8
structures? (B) wl
(A) Eddy‘s theorem wl
(B) Williot Mohr diagram (C) 2
(C) Muller Breslau method 5
wl
(D) Column Analogy method (D) 8

137. For a three hinged parabolic 140. The three moment equation is
arch Vx is sum of the vertical applicable only when
forces on the left hand side of (A) the spans are equal
the section, H is the horizontal (B) the beam is prismatic
thrust. If ‗θ‘ is the angle of (C) there is no discontinuity
tangent at the point on arch such as hinges within the
with the horizontal, then the span
radial shear ‗Rx‘ is given by (D) there is no settlement of
(A) Vx cos θ – H sin θ supports
(B) Vx sin θ – H cos θ 141. A three hinged parabolic arch
(C) Vx sin θ + H cos θ has its abutment at depth of h1
(D) Vx cos θ + H sin θ and h2 below the crown. It
138. The given figure shows a portal is·subjected to a uniformly
truss, the influence line distributed load w/unit length
diagrams for the member R is for the whole span. If the span
of the arch is l, the horizontal
thrust at each support is given
by
wl
h12  h22
(A)
(A) wl
(B) h1  h2
wl 2
(B) 2( h1  h2 ) 2
(C)
wl 2
(C) (h1  h 2 ) 2
(D)
(D)
139. The elements of flexibility
matrix of a structure
(A) are independent of the
choice of coordinates
(B) are dependent of the
choice of coordinates
(C) are always dimensionally
homogeneous
(D) both (B) and (C)

142. Match List I with List II and (D) 15 C
select the correct answers· using 144. A foundation has a depth of
the codes given· below : embedment less than its width
List I List II is known as
(a) Ultimate Net loading (A) shallow foundation
bearing capacity intensity at which (B) deep foundation
neither soil fails in (C) pile foundation
shear nor is there (D) well foundation
any excessive 145. Compression index of a soil
settlement helps to determine
(b) Net safe The maximum (A) total time required for
bearing .capacity pressure which consolidation
soil can carry (B) time required for 50%
safely without risk consolidation
of shear failure (C) consolidation settlement of
(c) Safe bearing Net ultimate clay soil
capacity bearing capacity (D) pre-consolidation pressure
divided by factor of clay
of safety 146. The following data refer to a
(d) Allowable Minimum gross sample of soil
bearing pressure pressure intensity Percent passing 4.75 mm
at the base of IS·siever – 71
foundation at Percent passing 75 μ IS siever –4
which soil fails in Uniformity coefficient – 7.5
shear Coefficient of curvature – 2.7
(a) (b) (c) (d) The soil is classified as
(A) 4 3 2 1 (A) SW
(B) 2 1 4 3 (B) GW
(C) 1 2 4 3 (C) SM
(D) 2 1 3 4 (D) GM
143. According to Skempton‘s
formula for a surface footing of
square shape, the net ultimate
bearing capacity on a purely
cohesive soil of cohesion ‗C‘ is
(A) 1.5 C
(B) 6.0 C
(C) 10.0 C

147. Consistency Index of a soil is 149. For collecting undisturbed
defined as the ratio of samples, the area ratio of
(A) the difference between sampler is to be
liquid limit and the natural (A) 0
water content to the (B) < 10%
plasticity index of a soil (C) > 10%
(B) the difference between (D) 100%
natural water content and 150. One of the following is not
the liquid limit to the related to the common types of
plasticity index of a soil collection equipment of aerosols
(C) the difference between (A) Settling chambers.
plasticity index and the (B) Cyclones
liquid limit to the natural (C) Filters
water content of a soil (D) Grit chambers
(D) the·difference between 151. A water-borne disease caused
plasticity index and the by protozoa
natural water content to (A) Cholera
the liquid (B) Paratyphoid
148. If Nf, Nd and H are total number (C) Histoplasmasis
of flow channels, total number (D) Amoebic dysentry
of potential drops and total 152. The type of coagulant used in
hydraulic head differences sewage treatment is prepared
respectively,· where K is the by the Scott Darcy process
coefficient of permeability, the (A) Ferric Sulphate
discharge on flow per unit (B) Ferrous Sulphate
length q is given by (C) Ferric Chloride
Nf (D) Ferrous Chloride
q  KH 1/2
Nd 153. The·point of inflexion occurs in
(A)
an oxygen sag curve when the
Nf
q  KH rate of recovery of oxygen is
(B) Nd
(A) Zero
Nf (B) Maximum
q  K 1/2 H
(C) Nd (C) Minimum
Nf (D) Unity
q  KH
Nd
(D)

154. The residual chlorine in water (B) at the end of a plate girder
for ensuring safety against (C) at the points of
pathogenic bacteria should concentrated loads
remain between (D) throughout the span
(A) 0.01 to 0.02 ppm 160. The loads to be considered for
(B) 0.02 to 0.04 ppm the design of a gantry girder
(C) 0.05 to 0.20 ppm are:
(D) 0.20 to 0.50 ppm (A) Gravity load
155. Nature of water corresponding (B) Lateral load and
to 3 degree of hardness value longitudinal load
(A) Very soft water (C) Gravity load, lateral load
(B) Soft water and longitudinal load
(C) Hard water (D) Gravity load, wind load
(D) Reasonably hard water and longitudinal load
156. The minimum diameter of 161. The provision of intermediate
longitudinal bars provided in stiffeners is to
columns should not be less than (A) Enhance the bearing
(A) 12 mm (B) 10 mm capacity of the web
(C) 8 mm (D) 6mm (B) Resist the applied loads
157. For columns with both ends (C) Provide stiffness to the
restrained, the unsupported web
length shall not be ———— (D) Enhance the buckling
times the least lateral dimension capacity of the web
of column section. 162. The high tensile steel tendon in
(A) Less than 60 a prestressed concrete-member
(B) Greater·than 50 (A) Remains under a constant
(C) Less than 40 stress
(D) Greater than 60 (B) Does not remain under a
158. In the design of columns for the constant condition of either
longitudinal reinforcement, the stress or strain
spacing of bars measured along (C) Remains under a constant
the periphery of the column strain
shall not exceed (D) Remains under a ·varying
(A) 200 mm (B) 250 mm stress
(C) 300 mm (D) 350 mm
159. Bearing stiffeners are provided
(A) at the end and on both
faces of the web

163. If a concrete beam is subjected (C) Maximum depth
to an eccentric prestressing (D) Negative depth
force of magnitude P, at an 167. The time period that elapses
eccentricity e, the stress from the instant of sowing to
developed at the bottom fibre of the instant of harvesting is
the beam is called as
P Pe (A) Base period

(A) A zb (B) Growth period
P Pe (C) Crop period

A zb (D) Rotation period
(B)
168. The efficiency of sprinkler
P Pe
  irrigation in moderate climate is
(C) A zb
(A) 60% (B) 70%
P Pe (C) 80% (D) 90%
 
(D) A zb
169. A land is considered to be prone
where A-cross sectional area of to water logging when the
the concrete member water table is
zb -section, modulus of the (A) within 1.5 m of ground
bottom fibre surface
164. The device which are used for (B) within 2 m of ground
measuring discharge in open surface
channels (C) within 3 m of ground
(A) Orifice-meter surface
(B) Orifice (D) within 3.5 m of ground
(C) Venturi flume surface
(D) Pitot tube 170. A pitot tube is used for
165. If the velocity of flow of fluid measuring
changes from point to point in (A) Velocity of flow
the flowing fluid at any instant (B) Pressure of flow
the flow is said to be (C) Flow rate
(A) Non-Uniform (D) Total energy
(B) Uniform 171. For most economical
(C) Steady trapezoidal section, the best side
(D) Unsteady slope is at
166. The depth of a uniform flow is (A) 30° to the horizontal
called (B) 45° to the horizontal
(A) Normal depth (C) 60° to the horizontal
(B) Minimum depth (D) 90° to the horizontal

172. A vertical gate closes a 177. Orificemeter is used to· measure
horizontal tunnel 6 m high and (A) average velocity
3 m wide running full with (B) velocity at a point
water. The pressure at the (C) discharge
bottom of the gate is 196.2 (D) pressure at a point
kN/m2 The total pressure on 178. The length of all streams per
the gate is unit area of a watershed is
(A) 4 kN called
(B) 5.008 × 106 N (A) Stream density
(C) 8 MN (B) Drainage density
(D) 3.001 × 106 N (C) Stream coefficient
173. Vorticity is given by (D) Drainage coefficient
(A) 3.0 times the rotation 179. If R is the radius of a main curve
(B) 3.5 times the rotation and L is the length of the
(C) 2.0 times the rotation transition curve, the shift of the
(D) 1.5 times the rotation curve, is
174. The discharge through a V- L2s / 24 R
(A) Ls/24 R (B)
notch varies as
(C)
L3s / 24 R (D) Ls/12 R
(A) H1/2 (B) H
(C) H3/2 (D) H5/2 180. Bitumen is soluble in
175. Modified Pul‘s method of (A) carbon tetra sulphide
reservoir routing is also known (B) carbon disulphide
as (C) nitrogen chloride
(A) Muskingum method (D) potassium chloride
(B) Storage indication method 181. If V is the design speed of
(C) Inflow storage discharge vehicles in km/hour, the
method allowable rate of centrifugal
(D) Inflow discharge storage acceleration
method 70 80
176. The total observed run off (A) 70  V (B) 75  V
volume during a 6 hour storn 75 65
with a uniform intensity of (C) 75  V (D) 70  V
1.5·cm/hour is 21.6 × 106 m3. If 182. Permanent track is regarded to
the area of the basin is 300 km2, be
the average infiltration rate for (A) Elastic in nature
the basin is (B) Semi-elastic in nature
(A) 7 mm/h (B) 9 mm/h (C) Flexible
(C) 3 mm/h (D) 4 mm/h (D) Viscous foundation

183. The height of semaphore signal (C) 3%
is (D) 4%
(A) 7 m 187. In general requirement in
(B) 7.5 m constructing a reinforced
(C) 8 m concrete road is to place a single
(D) 9.5 m layer of reinforcement
184. ICAO stands for (A) Near the bottom of the slab
(A) International Civil (B) Near the top of the slab
Aviation Organization (C) At the middle
(B) International Civil Aircraft (D) Only at the joint
Organization 188. The corner·wheel load stress for
(C) International Civil a rigid pavement of 20 cm thick
Aerodrome Office and wheel load of 4000 kg,
(D) International Council according to gold beck formula
Airtraffic Office is
185. Match List I with List II and (A) 20 kg/cm2
select the correct answer by (B) 30 kg/cm2
using the codes given below the (C) 80 kg/cm2
lists : (D) 40kg/cm2
List I (Type of road) List II (Width of 189. Choose the correct statement
carriage way) (A) Take-off is along wind
(a) Single lane road 1. 7.0 m direction
(b) Two lanes road 2. 7.5m (B) Landing is along wind
with out kerbs direction
(c) Two lanes road 3. 3.75 m (C) Take-off and landing is
with raised kerbs always opposite to wind
(d) Multi-lane road 4. 3.5 m per lane direction
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) Take-off and landing is
(A) 3 1 2 4 along wind direction
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
186. The grade compensation for a
hill road with horizontal curve
of radius 60 m is
(A) 1.5%
(B) 2.5%

190. Activity ‗C‘ follows activity ‗A‘ (C) Both (A) and (B)
and activity ‗D‘ follows (D) Time elapsed between
activities ‗A‘ and ‗B‘. The correct ordering, receiving and
network of the project is putting material into use
193. The optimistic, most likely and
pessimistic time estimates of an
activity are 8, 10, 12 days
respectively. What is the
(A)
expected time?
(A) 9 days (B) 10 days
(C) 11 days (D) 12 days
194. Which one of the statement is
(B)
correct?
(A) An unconfined compression,
test is a special case of direct
shear test
(C)
(B) An unconfined compression
test is a special case of vane
shear test
(C) An unconfined compression
(D)
191. In the process of determining test is a special case of
the quality of large group, triaxial compression test
reliability is expressed as (D) The confining pressure is
(A)  No.of defective units 
maximum during an
Reliability Number  1   100
 No.of units tested  unconfined compression test
195. The estimate prepared for
(B)  No.of units tested  technical sanction of the
 No.of defective units 
competent authority should
attached with
(C)  No.of defective units 
Reliability Number  100   100 (A) Detailed specification
 No.of units tested 
(B) Report
(D) (C) Abstract
 No.of units tested 
 No.of defective units  (D) Both detailed specification
and report
192. Lead time in material
management means
(A) Elapsed time
(B) Time delay factor

196. The person or a firm who
undertakes a contract to execute
a work or to supply the material
is termed as
(A) Competent authority
(B) Contract work
(C) Contractor
(D) Scheduled contractor
197. The brick work is not measured
in cum in case of
(A) Brick work in arches
(B) Brick work in foundation
(C) Half brick work
(D) Reinforced brick work
198. The number of errors in the
given network is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
199. Bar chart is drawn for
(A) Time Vs resources
(B) Time Vs progress
(C) Time Vs activity
(D) Activity Vs resources
200. The rule ·of numbering the
events is introduced by
(A) D.R.·Fulkerson
(B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Henry Gantt
(D) M.R. Kelly

7. You will also encode you‘re your Register Number, Subject Code, Question
8. Each Question comprises four responses (A).(B).(C).and(D). You are to select ONLY
ONE correct response and mark in your Answer Sheet In case, you feel that there
are more than one correct each question. Your total marks will depend on the
number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.

1. Which among the following is a (A) Stone should be properly
Retarder? dressed to requirements
(A) Calcium sulphate (B) Header and bond stones
(B) Chromium oxide should be of dumb-bull
(C) Tributyl acetate shapes
(D) Sodium penta chloro (C) Stones to be used should
phenate be hard, tough and durable
2. The Bogue compound Tricalcium (D) Construction work of stone
aluminate in clinkering process masonry should be raised
of cement is named as uniformly
(A) Alite (B) Belite 8. Water-Cement ratio in concrete
(C) Celite (D) Felite is the ratio of
3. The undesirable properties of (A) Volume of water to
cement is due to formation of volume of cement
(A) dicalcium silicate (B) Volume of water to the
(B) tricalcium silicate weight of cement
(C) tricalcium aluminate (C) Weight of water to the
(D) tetracalcium aluminate weight of cement
4. As per IS specification, (D) Weight of water to the
minimum time for initial setting volume of cement
of ordinary portland cement is 9. In pavement concrete quality, a
(A) 20 minutes value of compacting factor
(B) 30 minutes suggested varies
(C) 60 minutes (A) 0.75 to 0.80 (B) 0.60 to 0.85
(D) 120 minutes (C) 0.9 to 1.0 (D) 0.5 to 0.6
5. Compressive strength of cement 10. Type of stone masonry without
is determined using cube of size any mortar
(A) 15 cm (B) 50 cm (A) Random rubble
(C) 7.6 cm (D) 7.06 cm (B) Polygonal rubble
6. If water content, specific gravity (C) Flint rubble
and void ratio of given soil are (D) Dry rubble
11.11%, 2.7 and 0.5 respectively, 11. Generally the rail sections used
the degree of saturation is equal in India are
to (A) Double headed
(A) 40% (B) 50% (B) Bull headed
(C) 60% (D) 70% (C) Flat footed
7. Pick the incorrect principle in (D) Regular I-sections
stone masonry construction

12. The curvature correction for a (D) Carpet area
distance of 800 m is 19. The cost of a machine is
(A) 0.5 m (B) 0.005 m Rs.50,000 with a useful life of 10
(C) 0.05 m (D) 5 m years. Its depreciated cost, after
13. Anallatic lens is fitted with 5 years, if salvage value is
(A) Internal focussing Rs.10,000 on straight line basis
telescope will be
(B) External focussing (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 25,000
telescope (C) Rs. 30,000 (D) Rs. 35,000
(C) Ordinary telescope 20. Which of the following is the
(D) Tacheometric telescope most correct estimate?
14. Which one is not a fundamental (A) Plinth area estimate
axis of a Theodolite? (B) Cube rate estimate
(A) Line of sight (C) Detailed estimate
(B) Axis of altitude bubble (D) Abstract estimate
(C) Axis of plate level 21. If V is the stream speed and S is
(D) Horizontal axis the average space gap between
15. The unit of measurement for vehicles to follow, then the
explosives for blasting theoretical capacity of a traffic
(A) Number (B) Kg lane with one way traffic flow
(C) CU.m (D) Sq.m. by assuming an average length
16. In analysis of rate the quantity of vehicle of L will be
of dry mortar for 10 cubic metre 1000V
L
brick work is taken as (A) S
(A) 10 m3 (B) 3 m3 1000V
(C) 0.3 m3 (D) 1 m3 (B) S
1000V
17. The technique of finding the fair  2L
price of an existing building or (C) S
1000 S
property at present is known as L
(D) V
(A) estimation
22. The maximum strain energy
(B) valuation
stored at elastic limit per unit
(C) pricing
volume is known as
(D) costing
(A) proof resilience
18. The useful part of liveable area
(B) resilience
of a building is known as
(C) modulus of resilience
(A) Floor area
(D) strain energy density
(B) Circulation area
(C) Plinth area

23. When load is acting in per unit horizontal depth. The
longitudinal direction and when horizontal component of
a change in length takes place, tension in the cable is
the strain is known as wl 2 wl 2
(A) linear strain (A) 4d (B) 8d
(B) lateral strain 2
wl wl 2
(C) shear strain
(C) 12d (D) 16d
(D) volumetric strain
28. Field channels are also called
24. The deflection of a beam will be
(A) Supply channels
reduced if the moment of Inertia
(B) Branch channels
of the beam is
(C) Lateral channels
(A) Increased
(D) Waste channels
(B) Decreased
29. Euler critical load of a member
(C) Constant
is defined as
(D) Zero
(A) The load which is just
25. A single acting steam hammer
sufficient to maintain the
weighing W kN and falling
column in a deflected
through a height of H m drives
shape
a pile to about x cm penetration
(B) The load which is required
under last five blows. Then, the
to collapse the entire
allowable load on the pile is —
column
————— kN.
(C) The load which is required
WH
to create initial crack in the
(A) 16(x  0.25) column
WH
(D) The load which is required
(B) 6(x  0.25)
to split the column into
WH
two pieces
(C) 26(x  0.25)
30. Safeyield which is the
WH
maximum quantity of water,
(D) 36(x  0.25) which can lie supplied during a
26. Compatibility conditions are
critical dry, period is also
essentially required to solve
known as
(A) Substitute frame
(A) Firm yield
(B) Complex truss
(B) Secondary yield
(C) Redundant frame
(C) Average yield
(D) Compound truss
(D) Design yield
27. A cable of ‗l‘ and central dip ‗d‘
is subjected to uniform load ‗w‘

31. Length of parabolic cable of 34. A soil is classified as ‗GC‘ as per
span l and maximum dip ‗d‘ is Indian Standard Soil
d2 4d 2 Classification System. The
l l
(A) 3l (B) 3l percentage of fines in the soil is
(A) 0
8d 2 16d 2
l l (B) less than 5
(C) 3l (D) 3l
(C) between 5 and 12
32. For undisturbed sampling, the
(D) more than 12
area ratio for a thin walled
35. The soil compacted on the dry
sampler should not normally
side of optimum has ————
exceed
compared to that compacted on
(A) 15% (B) 25%
the wet side of optimum.
(C) 30% (D) 35%
(A) less permeability and less
33. Consider the following
strength
statements:
(B) less permeability and more
In subsoil exploration
strength
programme the term
(C) more permeability and less
―significant depth of
strength
exploration‖ is upto
(D) more permeability and
1. the width of foundation
more strength
2. twice the width of
36. The second moment of the area
foundation
of a triangle about is base b,
3. the depth where the
having its height h is
additional stress intensity
bh3 bh3
is less than 20% of the
overburden pressure (A) 24 (B) 4
4. the depth where the bh3 bh3

additional stress intensity (C) 8 (D) 36
is less than 10% of the 37. The width and depth of footing
overburden pressure are 2 and 1.5 m respectively.
5. hard rock level The water table at the site is at a
Of these statements depth of 3m below the ground
(A) 1, 3 and 5 are correct level. The water table correction
(B) 2, 3 and 5 are correct factor for the calculation of the
(C) 1 and 4 are correct bearing capacity of soil is
(D) 2 and 4 are correct (A) 0.875 (B) 1.000
(C) 0.925 (D) 0.500

38. The load carrying capacity of a 43. Hydraulically equivalent
bored pile in sand is about —— section of two sewers are such
—— times that of a driven pile. that they discharge at same rate
(A) 2/3 to 3/4 laid on same grade when
(B) more than 5/4 (A) running full
(C) 1/2 to 2/3 (B) running half depth
(D) 3/4 to 5/4 (C) running quarter depth
39. The load carrying capacity of (D) running three-fourth depth
pile depends on 44. A water purification works
(A) shaft resistance handles 50,000 m3/day of water
(B) point resistance which needs a chlorine
(C) shaft and point resistance (Chlorine demand) of 0.4 mg/l.
(D) pile capacity The residual chlorine after 15
40. A 30 cm diameter pile is depth minutes of contact time is 0.2
10 m into a homogeneous mg/l. The chlorine dosage in
consolidated clay deposit. The mg/l is
safe load when the factor of (A) 0.2 mg/l (B) 0.8 mg/l
safety is 2.50, unit cohesion is 40 (C) 4000 mg/l (D) 0.6 mg/l
kN/m2 and adhesion factor is 45. Which of the following is not a
0.70 is water borne disease?
(A) 105.6 kN (B) 211.2 kN (A) Dysentery (B) Cholera
(C) 215.4 kN (D) 150.8 kN (C) Typhoid (D) Malaria
41. The total passive earth pressure 46. Match the following:
per metre length against a A B
retaining wall of height 4 m (a) Carcinogenic 1. Cancer
with backfill of unit weight 20 agents
(b) Dust Particles 2. Respiratory
kN/m3 and angle of internal
diseases
friction 30° will be
(c) Odour 3. Bronchitis
(A) 600 kN/m (B) 120 kN/m nuisance
(C) 240 kN/m (D) 480 kN/m (d) Chronic 4. Hydrogen
42. The dissolved oxygen level in pulmonary sulphide
natural unpolluted waters at disease
normal temperature is found to (a) (b) (c) (d)
be of the range of (A) 1 2 4 3
(A) 0 – 1 mg/litre (B) 1 3 4 2
(B) 1 – 10 mg/litre (C) 4 2 1 3
(C) 20 – 100 mg/litre (D) 2 1 4 3
(D) 100 – 1000 mg/litre

47. The techniques used to remove (D) an inverse function of
gaseous pollutants from an water/cement ratio
effluent stream 51. Resistance of aggregate to
(A) Absorption, combustion, failure by impact is called
filtration (A) Hradness
(B) Adsorption, catalytic (B) Tenacity
treatment, scrubbing, (C) Toughness
centrifugal separation (D) Soundness
(C) Absorption, adsorption, 52. In case of volume batching a
combustion, catalytic smaller mass of sand occupying
treatment the fixed volume of the
(D) Absorption, combustion, measuring box is due to which
scrubbing, catalytic of the following effect?
treatment, gravity settling (A) Bulking
48. If recirculation ratio (R/I) equal (B) Hardening
to 1, then recirculation factor (F) (C) Softening
is. (D) Texture modification
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 53. Which type of formwork is
(C) 2.0 (D) 1.65 more economical for tall
49. In BOD test raw sewage is structure constructions?
diluted to 5%. The oxygen (A) Flex system formwork
consumption by bacteria during (B) Wall/column formwork
5 days experiment is 6 mg/l. (C) Heavy duty tower system
The BOD5 is (D) Climbing formwork
(A) 30 mg/l 54. If the compaction factor is 0.95,
(B) 0.3 mg/l the workability of concrete is
(C) 120 mg/l (A) very low (B) low
(D) 300 mg/l (C) medium (D) high
50. The other conditions being 55. For good performance of a
equal, for workable mixes, the construction joint, the material
strength of concrete varies as used between the old and new
(A) a direct function of concrete surfaces is
water/cement ratio (A) a welded wire fabric
(B) a direct function of (B) synthetic fibres
dilution of cement paste (C) synthetic resins
(C) an inverse function of (D) a polymer bonding agent
strength of coarse
aggregate

56. The transverse reinforcement to 59. The modular ratio for M 35
be provided at the top of the grade of concrete is
slab over the full effective width (A) 8.11 (B) 9.33
of flanged beam should not be (C) 10.98 (D) 13.33
less than 60. Which type of beam section
(A) 40 percentage of main steel among the following will fail in
at mid span of the beam a catastrophic manner?
(B) 50 percentage of main steel (A) Balanced section
at mid span of the beam (B) Doubly reinforced section
(C) 60 percentage of main steel (C) Over-reinforced section
at mid span of the beam (D) Under-reinforced section
(D) 70 percentage of main steel 61. The maximum effective
at mid span of the beam slenderness ratio of a member
57. When the bending moment at which is always in tension
the section changes its sign, as (other than pretensioned
may occur in the span of a member) is
continuous beam with moving (A) 180 (B) 250
loads in a bridge girder, the (C) 350 (D) 400
type of reinforcement required 62. The minimum number of
at that section will be battens in a built up column is
(A) compression reinforcement (A) 2 (B) 3
(B) tension reinforcement (C) 4 (D) 5
(C) vertical stirrups 63. A roof truss has to carry snow
(D) side face reinforcement loads in addition to wind loads.
58. The critical section for punching Which among the following
shear in an isolated pad footing pitch values is said to be
of effective depth d will be economical?
located at (A) 1/3 (B) 1/4
(A) the face of the column (C) 1/5 (D) 1/6
itself 64. The pattern of actual shear
(B) d distance alround from stress distribution across the
the face of column depth of a beam
d (A) varies parabolically
(C) 2 distance alround from (B) varies cubically
the face of column (C) varies linearly
(D) 2 d distance alround from (D) has no variation of
the face of column ordinates

65. In prestressed concrete, for post (D) Controlled outlets and
tensioned members, the spillway
minimum 28 days compressive 69. The pattern of shear stress
strength of concrete prescribed distribution across a circular
in IS 1343 is beam cross section is
(A) 25 MPa (B) 30 MPa (A) Straight
(C) 35 MPa (D) 40 MPa (B) Parabolic
66. A masonry chimney is of (C) Elliptic
hollow circular section with (D) Hyperbolic
height to outer diameter ratio of 70. In a CU test, the diameter of
5. As per IS 875 – 1987, the force Mohr Circle for total stresses at
coefficient for the wind force incipient failure condition is 200
calculation is kPa to a scale. If the pore
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.9 pressure at failure is 50 kPa, the
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.2 diameter of Mohr Circle for
67. An equal angle is to be effective stresses at failure
connected to a gusset plate by drawn to the same scale is equal
fillet welds, welded to
longitudinally at top and (A) 150 kPa (B) 200 kPa
bottom of the angle. The tensile (C) 250 kPa (D) 300 kPa
load acts along the centroidal 71. Which one of the following is a
axis of the angle. The length of flexible outlet?
weld required at the horizontal (A) Submerged pipe outlet
leg of the angle is l1. The length (B) Kennedy‘s gauge outlet
of weld required at top is 12. (C) Gibb‘s outlet
Which among the following is (D) Open flume outlet
correct? 72. The 4 hr unit hydrograph of a
(A) l1 = l2 (B) l1 > l2 basin can be approximated as a
(C) l1 < l2 (D) l2 = 0 triangle with a base period of 48
68. A retarding basin type of flood hour and peak ordinate of 200
control reservoir is the one m3/s. Then the area of the basin
which is provided with is
(A) Uncontrolled outlets and (A) 864 Km2
spillway (B) 1728 Km2
(B) Uncontrolled outlets but (C) 3456 Km2
controlled spillway (D) 5184 Km2
(C) Controlled outlets but
uncontrolled spillway

73. In the channel flood routing by 78. The side slope, generally
Muskingum method, the values adopted for a trapezoidal
of the routing coefficients C0 surface drain in alluvial soil is
and C1 are estimated as –0.2 and (A) 0.5 : 1 (B) 1 : 1
0.5 respectively. The value of (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
third coefficient C2 would be 79. The soil moisture which is
(A) –0.5 (B) 0.2 useful for plant‘s growth is
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.7 (A) Gravity water
74. Leaching is a process by which
(B) Capillary water
(A) Water is excessively
(C) Hygroscopic water
pumped from a water
(D) Chemical water
logged area
80. Capacity of a 3.75 metre traffic
(B) Excess salt in the soil
lane is
pushed down by standing
(A) 1200 PCU (B) 3000 PCU
water above the soil
(C) 1500 PCU (D) 1000 PCU
(C) Improving the soil
structure and texture by 81. The main cause of road accident
adding suitable chemicals in India is due to
(D) Sodium ions are removed (A) vehicle brake failure
from Irrigation water (B) improper geometric design
75. The characteristic feature of a (C) speed violation
barrage is (D) uneven pavement surface
(A) provision of raised crest. characteristics
(B) creation of storage 82. The purpose of a ‗median‘ is to
‗reservoir on DIS eliminate
(C) provision of series of gates (A) Head on collision
across the river (B) Side swipe
(D) that is built in deltas areas (C) Rear end collision
only (D) Nose to tail collision
76. The velocity of drainage water 83. The disadvantage of ‗Diamond
in syphon aqueduct is normally junction‖ is
limited to (A) Two parallel roads are
(A) 1 to 2 m/s (B) 2 to 3 m/s required
(C) 3 to 4 m/s (D) 4 to 5 m/s
(B) Two crossing angles are
77. For higher silt carrying capacity,
required
the lined canal section should be
(C) Two over bridges are
(A) trapezoidal
required
(B) rectangular
(D) No provision for easy right
(C) circular
turn
(D) horse shoe

84. For the most effective traffic 89. The pre stress is induced in the
control, adopt cross section of a pretensioned
(A) More number of traffic prestressed concrete member
signs due to the
(B) More varieties of traffic (A) bond between tendons and
signs concrete
(C) Limited number of traffic (B) end anchor bolts
signs (C) end anchor plates
(D) Less number of (D) bond stress and anchor plate
informatory signs 90. The corrected length of a
85. Recommended value of camber runway 2075 m after applying
for a WBM road in heavy correction for gradient is
rainfall area is (A) 2101 m (B) 2169 m
(A) 1 in 50 (B) 1 in 60 (C) 2179 m (D) 2189 m
(C) 1 in 40 (D) 1 in 33 91. The order of funding for Inland
86. Formula for length of the Water Transport (IWT) m
transition curve on a road way eighth five year plan for
is modernisation is
(A) Ls = 2 V2 / CR (A) 250 crore (B) 150 crore
(B) Ls = 0.5 V2 / CR (C) 190 crore (D) 200 crore
(C) Ls = 0.03 V3 / CR 92. Runway orientation (alignment)
V3 should be strictly
Ls  0.0215
(D) CR (A) parallel to a main highway
87. For a good highway drainage, in the locality
the highest level of ground (B) no need to bother about
water table below subgrade, highway alignment
preferably is (C) perpendicular to highway
(A) 0.30 m (B) 0.60 m (D) neither parallel nor
(C) 0.90 m (D) 1.20 m perpendicular but slightly
88. Seal coat in highway inclined to highway
maintenance comes under alignment
(A) routine maintenance 93. Out of the four types of
(B) rehabilitation and gradients for laying railway
strengthening tracks, which is STEEPEST?
(C) periodic maintenance (A) Ruling Gradient
(D) strengthening (B) Momentum Gradient
(C) Pushing Gradient
(D) Station yard Gradient

94. The wooden or rubber poles or 99. In a how net, the discharge is
poles placed in front of docks or inversely proportional to
wheel, to prevent damage to (A) coefficient of permeability
ship side while mooring they (B) head causing the flow
are called as (C) number of equipotential
(A) Fenders drops
(B) Moorings (D) number of flow channels
(C) Bulk heads 100. The short cut key to bring find
(D) Dolphins and replace dialog box in MS
95. If the earliest start of the Word is
successor is 43 and the earliest (A) Shift + F
start of activity considered is 36. (B) Control + F
Determine its free float if its (C) Alt + F
duration is 2 (D) Control + R
(A) 43 (B) 41 101. A display of a volume
(C) 7 (D) 5 model that shows all of its
96. If to, tp and tm are the optimistic, edges is called a
pessimistic and most likely time (A) Surface model
estimates of an activity (B) 3-D model
respectively, the expected time (C) Wire-frame
‗t‘ of the activity will be (D) Solid model
to  3tm  t p to  4tm  t p 102. The three key elements for a
(A) 6 (B) 4 graphics workstation include
to  4tm  t p t p  4tm  t p the host processor, display
controller and
(C) 5 (D) 6
(A) Plotter (B) Keyboard
97. Numbering of events in a
(C) CRT (D) Digitizer
network was devised by
103. Which technique enables the
(A) Henry Gantt
designer to mold and shape
(B) D.R. Fulherson
rather than construct an object
(C) Chris Hendrichson
using a series of lines?
(D) Du Pont
(A) Surface modelling
98. The factor of safety with respect
(B) Solid modelling
to cohesion of an embankment
(C) Wire-frame modelling
of height 6 m is 1.5. The critical
(D) Finite Element Modelling
height of the embankment is
(FEM)
(A) 4 m (B) 6 m
(C) 9 m (D) 12 m

104. Following is an example for (a) (b) (c) (d)
mobile OS (A) 4 1 3 2
(A) Symbian (B) OS/2 (B) 3 2 4 1
(C) DOS (D) Linux (C) 4 3 2 1
105. Specific gravity of raw rubber at (D) 4 3 1 2
O°C is 109. Consider the following
(A) 0.95 (B) 2.5 statement :
(C) 3.45 (D) 4.5 Higher water cement ratio in
106. Which among the following concrete results in
when added to plastics make 1. stronger mix
them impervious to X-rays? 2. better workable mix
(A) Barium salts 3. a weak mix
(B) Asbestos fibres 4. less bleeding
(C) Oleic acid of these the statement
(D) Vegetable oil (A) 1 and 2 are correct
107. The name of the glass produced (B) 2 and 3 are correct
by placing vinyl plastic and (C) 3 and 4 are correct
glass in several alternate layers (D) 1 and 4 are correct
and pressing them with outer 110. The time of consolidation of
layers of glass is layer with one way drainage is
(A) Opal glass ‗t‘. The time of consolidation for
(B) Bullet proof glass the same degree of
(C) Enamel glass consolidation of the same layer
(D) Block glass with two way drainage is
108. Match List I with List II and (A) 0.25 t (B) 0.5 t
select the correct answer using (C) t (D) 4 t
the codes given below the lists: 111. Which one of the following is
List I (Type of List II (Uses) not classified as a shell?
cement) (A) Dome (B) Pyramid
(a) Rapid 1. Refractory (C) Barrel arch (D) Cone
hardening cement concrete in 112. A type of bond in brick
industries masonry where bricks are laid
(b) Quick setting 2. Dams on edge
cement (A) Stretcher course
(c) High Alumina 3. Concrete under (B) Header course
cement water (C) Soldier course
(d) Low heat 4. Repair of (D) Bed course
cement bridges

113. Which one of the following is 118. Apex distance in a simple curve
not a method of underpinning? is indicated by
(A) Pit method Where R is radius of curvature
(B) Put log method arid θ is degree of curvature
(C) Pile method   
R  sin  1
(D) Pier method (A)  2 
114. Equally spaced contours
  
indicate R  tan  1
(B)  2 
(A) inclined plane surface
(B) flat surface   
R  cot  1
(C) uniform slope (C)  2 
(D) surface with different   
R  sec  1
slopes (D)  2 
115. The expansion for GPS for 119. The technical name for Line of
locating an object on earth is sight is
(A) Geographic Precision (A) Level Line
Signature (B) Horizontal Line
(B) Global Position System (C) Line of collimation
(C) Geographical Plan System (D) Datum Line
(D) Glosnass Position System 120. The length of furrows must be
116. The acrallactic lens is fitted in shorter for
the telescope of tacheometer in (A) Porous sandy soils
order to (B) Tight clayey soils
(A) eliminate error (C) Heavy soils
(B) eliminate cross hair (D) Clayey soils
(C) eliminate additive constant 121. The information which cannot
(D) eliminate multiplicate be included in drawing is
constant conveyed to the estimator
117. G.T.S. stands for (A) verbally
(A) Geoid Trignometrical (B) through specification
Survey (C) through cover note
(B) Great Terminology Survey (D) by bar chart
(C) Great Traverse Survey
(D) Great Trignometrical
Survey

122. To estimate the cost of the 126. If brass has higher co-efficient of
whole project by detailed thermal expansion than steel, it
estimate, provision for means that
supervision (or) departmental (A) both brass and steel have
charge is equal expansion
(A) 5% to 10% of estimated (B) steel expands more than
cost brass
1
(B) 1 2 % to 2% of estimated (C) brass expands more than
cost steel
(C) 3% to 5% of estimated cost (D) expansion is not related to
(D) 15% to 20% of estimated coefficient of thermal
cost expansion
123. The unit of payment for 127. Normal stresses on two
grouting of cracks, joints etc is perpendicular planes passing
in through a point are zero but
(A) Number (B) Per metre complementary shear stresses
(C) Sq.m (D) CU.m are ± 200 N/mm2. Maximum
124. Strain energy stored in a principal stress at the point is
specimen due to volumetric (A) 100 N/mm2
strain is (B) 150 N/mm2
(C) 200 N/mm2
2
 volume (D) 250N/mm2
(A) 2k
128. A cantilever beam subjected to a
2
 volume concentrated load at its free end,
(B) 3k
to max deflection is
2
 volume (A) pl3 / 3 EI (B) pl2 / 2 EI
(C) 4k
(C) pl4 / 8 EI (D) pl3 / 8 EI
2 2
 volume 129. Relationship among E, C and K
(D) k
is
125. A simple beam with a point
6 KC
load ‗p‘ at its centre, the strain E
(A) 3K  C
energy stored due to bending is
3KC
p 2l 3 p 2l 3 E
(B) 9K  C
(A) 60 EI (B) 96 EI 3K  C
E
p 3l 3 p 2l 4 (C) 9 KC
9 KC
(C) 96 EI (D) 96 EI E
(D) 3K  C

130. A suspension bridge with a two 135. In a series of triaxial tests on a
hinged stiffening girder is soil, if the deviator stress at
(A) Statically determinate failure is independent of cell
(B) Statically indeterminate to pressure, then ——————
one degree (A) c = 0
(C) Statically indeterminate to (B)  = 0
two degree (C) c = 0 and  = 0
(D) Statically indeterminate to (D) c = 0 and  = 45
three degree 136. The capillary rise in clay is
131. While using three moment usually between
equation a fixed end of a (A) 0.10 and 0.15 m
continuous beam is replaced by (B) 0.3 and 1.0 m
an additional span of (C) and 10.0 m
(A) Zero length (D) more than 10m
(B) Infinite length 137. If the undrained cohesion of a
(C) Zero moment of inertia saturated clay is 50 KPa, its
(D) Equal length of adjacent shear strength is equal to
span (A) 25 KPa (B) 50 KPa
132. Maximum strain theory for the (C) 100 KPa (D) 200 KPa
failure of a material at the 138. For a soil having liquid limit of
elastic limit, is known as 45%, plastic limit of 25% and
(A) Guest‘s Treca‘s theory shrinkage limit of 15%, the
(B) Rankine‘s theory plasticity index is
(C) Haig‘s theory (A) 20% (B) 40%
(D) Von Mise‘s theory (C) 50% (D) 60%
133. The moisture absorption of a 139. The permissible settlement is
good stone should be less than the maximum in the case of
(A) 1% (B) 10% (A) Isolater footing on sand
(C) 5% (D) 15% (B) Isolater footing on clay
134. The critical hydraulic gradient (C) Raft on clay
of a soil is 1.0. Its saturated unit (D) Raft on sand
weight is 140. As per IS code, the presumptive
(A) kN/m3 safe bearing capacity of soft clay
(B) 9.81 kN/m3 is
(C) 10.0 kN/m3 (A) 45 t/m2 (B) 165 t/m2
(D) 19.62 kN/m3 (C) 10 t/m2 (D) 25 t/m2

141. A pile of 0.50 m diameter and of 144. Match the following :
length 10 m is embedded in a A B
deposit of clay. The undrained (a) Service pipe 1. Pipe connecting
strength parameters of day are storage tanks to
cohesion = 60 kN/m2 and angle various fixtures
of internal friction = 0. The skin (b) Distribution 2. Pipe used for
friction capacity of the pile for pipe feeding the water
an adhesion factor of 0.6 is from the main to
(A) 106 kN the building
(B) 283 kN (c) Supply pipe 3. Pipe line
(C) 565 kN between stopcock
(D) 671 kN and storage tank
142. Earth pressure at rest is (d) Water main 4. Pipe line
(A) less than active earth intended for
pressure but greater general use
than passive earth pressure (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) greater than active earth (A) 2 1 3 4
pressure but less than (B) 1 3 4 2
passive earth pressure (C) 2 4 3 1
(C) greater than both the active (D) 3 1 2 4
earth pressure and passive
145. Under like conditions,
earth pressure
approximately how much more
(D) less than both the active
water will be carried by a 20 cm
and passive earth pressure
pipe when compared to that
143. As per IS 2911–1974 the safe
carried by a 10 cm pipe
load of pile from pile load test is
(A) 2 times (B) 4 times
taken as
(C) 6 times (D) 8 times
(A) 1/2 of the load at which
146. Cap system provided at the top
the total settlement is equal
of landfill is made of
to 5% of the pile diameter
(A) layered soil cover
(B) 2/3rd of the load at which
(B) concrete cover
(C) rubber sheet cover
(D) plastic sheet cover
(C) 1/2 of the load at which
147. The main mechanism for
purification of water in slow
sand filter
(D) 2/3rd of the load at which
(A) Formation of
schemutzdecke

(B) Straining 153. Lime and Soda are added to
(C) Sedimentation water to remove
(D) Flocculation (A) Pathogens
148. Ratio of 2.5 day 35°C BOD to (B) Iron
the 5 day 20°C BOD is ———— (C) Hardness
(A) 1 (B) 1.5 (D) Nitrates
(C) 0.8 (D) 0.65 154. In a conventional activated
149. A commonly used hand pump sludge, how much oxygen is
is the required per kg of BOD5 to be
(A) centrifugal pump removed?
(B) reciprocating pump (A) 0.6 – 0.65 kg
(C) rotary pump (B) 0.9 – 1.2 kg
(D) axial flow pump (C) 0.3 – 0.4 kg
150. The most significant air (D) 1.5 – 1.8 kg
pollutant is 155. Cowl is provided at
(A) Carbon dioxide (A) Lower end of a ventilating
(B) Oxygen column
(C) Nitrogen (B) Upper end of a ventilating
(D) Sulphur dioxide column
151. When level difference between (C) Upper end of manhole
(D) First step in manhole
branch sewer and main is more
156. The common source for flaky
than 0.6 m these are
aggregates is
(A) Man hole
(A) Sea shore gravel bed
(B) Lam phole
(B) Sandstone bed
(C) Drop manhole
(C) Laminated rock bed
(D) Street inlet
(D) Talus
152. The following three important
157. The test suitable for a concrete
stages are known to occur in the
of very low workability is
biological action involved in
(A) Vebe test
process of Anaerobic digestion
(B) Slump test
1. Hydrolysis
(C) Flow test
2. Acidogenesis
(D) Compacting factor test
3. Methanogenesis
158. The cement becomes unsound,
The correct sequence of these
if the percentage of free
stages are
magnesia exceeds —————
(A) 3, 2, 1 (B) 2, 3, 1
by weight of cement.
(C) 3, 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5
(C) 3.5 (D) 6.0

159. Assertion (A) : Light weight 162. The corner column in a
concrete exhibits higher multistoried building frame will
shrinkage than normal weight be subjected to
concrete (A) pure axial load only
Reason (R) : Modulus of (B) axial load with uniaxial
bending only
elasticity of light weight
(C) axial load with biaxial
concrete is lower than that of
bending
normal weight concrete (D) bending only
Select your answer according to 163. Assertion (A) : Iri continuous
the codes given below: beams under reversal of
(A) Both A and R are true and stresses, there will be a negative
R is the correct explanation moment near the mid span and
of A positive moment near the
(B) Both A and R are true but support.
R is not the correct Reason (R) : T-beam action may
explanation of A be utilized near the supports
and should not be considered
(C) A is true but R is false
near the mid span while
(D) A is false but R is true
designing continuous beam
160. The minimum distribution steel
under reversal of stresses.
to be provided in one way slab Select your answer according to
for Fe 415 grade steel is the codes given below:
(A) 0.0015 bD (B) 0.0015 bd (A) Both (A) and (R) are true
(C) 0.0012 bD (D) 0.0012 bd and (R) is the correct
161. The critical section for shear will explanation of (A)
be situated at ————— in the (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
case of simply supported but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
rectangular beam of effective
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
depth d.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) d/3 distance from the face
164. According to Grashof-Rankine
of the support and in two way slabs Marcus,
(B) d/2 distance from the face the ratio of wx to wy load
of the support sharing is proportional to
(C) d distance from the face of 4
 Lx 
4
 Ly 
the support    
(D) 2d distance from the face (A)  x 
L
(B)  Ly 
3 2
of the support  Ly   Ly 
   
(C)  x  (D)  x 
L L

165. The spacing of stirrups in a (a) (b) (c) (d)
prestressed beam should not (A) 2 3 4 1
exceed (B) 2 3 1 4
(A) Overall depth of the beam (C) 3 2 1 4
(B) Effective depth of the beam (D) 3 2 4 1
(C) 0.75 times the effective 169. Match List I with List II and
depth of the beam select the correct answer by
(D) 0.3 times the effective using the codes given below
depth of the beam List I List II
166. Masonry chimneys are lined (a) Isopleth 1. Line joining points of
from inside with fire bricks, Equal depth of rainfall
atleast upto (b) Isohyte 2. Line joining points of
(A) 1 to 5% of its height from Equal rainfall magnitude
bottom (c) 3. Line joining points of
(B) 6 to 10% of its height from Isochrone Equal time of
bottom concentration
(C) 11 to 15% of its height from (d) 4. Line joining points of
bottom Isopluvial equal depth of
(D) 20 to 25% of its height from Evapotranspiration
bottom (a) (b) (c) (d)
167. The partial safety factor for (A) 4 1 3 2
strength of steel reinforcement (B) 3 4 2 1
at limit state of collapse is (C) 4 2 3 1
(A) 1.15 (D) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1. 20
(C) 1.25 170. The Water year in India maybe
(D) 1.50 taken as
168. Match List I with List II and (A) From June to May
select the correct answer using (B) From January to December
the codes given below: (C) From April to March
List I List II (D) From October to
(a) Canal drop l. Control of flow September
depth 171. The most commonly used
(b) Canal escape 2. Control of bed probability distribution to fit the
grade flood data is
(c) Canal cross- 3. Control of full
(A) Normal distribution
regulator level supply
(B) Gumbel‘s extreme value
(d) Canal outlet 4. Control of
distribution
discharge

(C) Log-Normal distribution 177. Reflection cracking is observed
(D) Gamma distribution in
172. The useful moisture of a soil is (A) Flexible pavement
equal to (B) Rigid pavement
(A) Field capacity (C) Bituminous overlay over
(B) Saturation capacity cement concrete surface
(C) Moisture content at (D) Rigid overlay over flexible
permanent wilting point pavements
(D) Difference between field 178. Minimum lateral clearance
capacity and permanent desirable from the pavement
wilting point edge is
173. The difference in crop response (A) 1.00 m (B) 1.85 m
due to different irrigation (C) 1.55 m (D) 1.70 m
methods can be evaluated using 179. An advantage of ‗one way
(A) Crop water use efficiency traffic‘ system is
(B) Field water use efficiency (A) Saving of fuel
(C) Water application (B) Quality of improvement in
efficiency environment
(D) Consumptive use (C) Saving of cost
efficiency (D) Reduced number of points
174. The coefficient of variation of a of conflicts
good point source emitter of a 180. The number of fatal road
drip system should be accidents in India is in the order
(A) < 0.10 (B) < 0.20 of
(C) < 0.15 (D) < 0.05 (A) Less than 1.2 lakhs per
175. Fish ladder is provided on the year
side of (B) More than 1.35 lakhs per
(A) divide wall year
(B) diaphragm wall (C) Above 1.5 lakhs per year
(C) core wall (D) Less than 1.00 lakh per
(D) wing wall year
176. A lamp post at the edge of the 181. Concrete roads are opened to
pavement reduces the capacity traffic after
of a lane to (A) 3 days (B) 7 days
(A) 72% (B) 90% (C) 14 days (D) 28 days
(C) 60% (D) 84% 182. Which one of the following is
incorrect about a flexible
pavement?

(A) Grain to grain transfer of 187. The place within the harbour
compressive stresses where ships can turn around to
(B) Reflects deformation of change their direction is called
lower layers on road as
surface (A) Dock
(C) Comprises of subgrade, (B) Anchorage Area
subbase, base and surface (C) Turning Basin or Turning
course circle
(D) High flexural strength (D) Berth
183. If Td, Tv and Ts are traffic 188. In the joining of rails by
density, traffic volume and welding, CWR means
speed of the traffic flow, (A) Corrugated welded rails
respectively and when Ts = 0, (B) Continuous welded rails
then (C) Corrosion of welded rails
(A) Td = 0 and Tv is maximum (D) Combined welding of rails
(B) Td and Tv are maximum 189. Choose the odd one out:
(C) Td = Tv = 0 (A) Runway and Taxiway
(D) Td is maximum and Tv = 0 (B) Apron and Hangar
184. A good bituminous concrete (C) Approach zone and
road should have a roughness Turning zone
value in the range of (D) Terminal and Lounge
(A) 2000 – 2500 mm per km 190. The minimum depth of ballast
(B) 2500 – 3000 mm per km with sleeper spacing ‗S‘ and
(C) 3500 – 4000 mm per km width of sleeper ‗W‘ is
(D) 1000 – 1500mm per km 2S  W S  2W
185. Tie bars are used in cement (A) 2 (B) 2
concrete pavements to S W S W
withstand (C) 2 (D) 3
(A) Shear stresses 191. Latest start and finish time in
(B) Tensile stresses CPM is determined by
(C) Compressive stresses (A) Forward pass
(D) Torsional stresses (B) Backward pass
186. For a 3 degree Broad Gauge (C) Upward pass
transitioned curve having (D) Downward pass
maximum sectional speed of 192. CPM scheduling of projects is a
100 Km/h, the safe speed is (A) Probabilistic approach to
(A) 82 Km/h (B) 89 Km/h scheduling
(C) 101 Km/h (D) 93 Km/h

(B) Deterministic approach to (A) smart phone
scheduling (B) note book
(C) Simulation approach to (C) super computer
scheduling (D) mainframe
(D) Production rate approach 198. SQL stands for
to scheduling (A) Scalable Query Language
193. Which one of the following is an (B) Structured Query Language
incorrect network rule? (C) Standard Query Language
(A) There must be only single (D) Structured and Quick
initial mode in a network Learning
(B) An event can occur twice 199. The four types of Mail Merge
(C) There must be only single main documents are
final mode (A) Form letters, Directories,
(D) No activity can start until Catalogs and Envelopes
its tail end event has (B) Form letters, Envelopes,
occurred Mailing labels, Directories
194. If latest finish time of an activity and Lists
is 63 and its earliest finish time (C) Basic letters, Envelopes,
is 42, then its total float is Labels and Lists
(A) 63 (B) 42 (D) Form letters, Envelopes,
(C) 21 (D) 105 Mailing labels and Catalog
195. Drainage is taken along with 200. CAD and CAM are linked
sewage in a through
(A) separate system (A) a common database and
(B) partially separate system communications system
(C) both in separate and (B) NC tape programming and
partially separate system automated design
(D) combined system (C) assembly automation and
196. CPM was discovered tool production
independently of PERT by (D) parts production and
(A) Chris Hendrichson testing
(B) Henry Gantt
(C) D.J. Fulherson
(D) Du Pont and Spery Rand
Corporation
197. Which type of computer will
you most likely encounter at the
department of motor vehicles?

5. You must write your Register Number in the space provided on the top right side
of this page. Do not write anything else on the Question Booklet.
7. You will also encode you’re your Register Number, Subject Code, Question
Booklet SI. No. etc. with Blue or Black ink Ball point pen in the space provide on
the side 2 of the Answer Sheet. If you do not encode properly or fail to encode
the above information. Your Answer sheet will not be evaluated.
8. Each Question comprises four responses (A).(B).(C).and(D). You are to select
ONLY ONE correct response and mark in your Answer Sheet In case, you feel
that there are more than one correct each question. Your total marks will depend
on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator You are allowed to take
the Question Booklet with you only after the Examination is over.

1. Match List-I with List-II 5. The arch indicated in the figure
List I List II below is a
(Type of cement) (Compound in
cement
clinker)
(a) high early 1. C3A
strength of cement
(b) initial setting time 2. C2S
of cement
(c) strength of cement 3. C3S
(A) Semicircular arch
at later age
(B) Segmental arch
(a) (b) (c)
(C) Horse-Shoe arch
(A) 1 2 3
(D) Stilted arch
(B) 2 1 3
6. The difference between the true
(C) 3 2 1
value of a quantity and its
(D) 3 1 2
observed value is
2. Flooring material that is
(A) most probable value
supplied in the form of rolls
(B) true value
(A) Glass (B) Cork
(C) true error
(C) Linoleum (D) Mosaic
(D) most probable error
3. The type of roof shown in figure
7. One of the following set of
is
terms are related to curve
setting in road network placing
(A) parabola, hyperbola, circle
(B) angle, chord, centre line
(C) apex distance, unit chord
(A) Lean to roof and tangent length
(B) Gambrel roof (D) cant, bitumen, tangent
(C) Gable roof length
(D) Deck roof 8. Mapping of spot heights in a
4. The exposed edges of stones terrain with (x, y) observation is
are bevelled for a depth of 2.5 possible with
cm in a (A) Total station
(A) Ashlar rough tooled (B) EDM
masonry (C) Photogrammetry
(B) Ashlar rock faced masonry (D) Electronic theodolite
(C) Ashlar changed masonry
(D) Ashlar block in course

9. The substance bar has two vases (B) longitudinal section and
for measurement of cross section surveying
(A) one inclinded angle (C) line of sight and cross sight
(B) one sighting (D) leveling survey and
(C) two linear observation contour survey
(D) two vertical angles 15. The maximum shear stress
10. The condition necessary for theory gives better results for
accurate assessment of vertical (A) brittle materials
angles using theodolite is (B) ductile materials
achieved through adjustment of (C) brittle and ductile
(A) plate bubbles materials
(B) tightening screws (D) non-metallic materials
(C) cross hair in diaphragm 16. Moment area method is used for
(D) trunmois axis determining the
11. Super elevation on a curved (A) shear force at a point
road cannot be provided at (B) bending at a point
(A) forward tangent (C) deflection at a point
(B) point of equilibrium (D) slope and deflection at a
(C) point of tangent point
(D) point of reverse curvature 17. The strain energy due to
12. The allowable linear error of sending is given by (where M
closure for minor theodolite bending moment l-length of
traverse for detailing is member, E Young’s modulus
(A) 1:5,000 (B) 1:300 and I-moment of inertia)
(C) 1:50 (D) 1:10,000 l
M2
l /2
M
13. To measure the magnetic 0 2EI dx 2
EI
dx
(A) (B) 0
bearing of a line, the theodolite l l
M M
should have 0 2EI dx  EI dx
(A) tape (C) (D) 0
(B) trough compass 18. The maximum principal stress
(C) magnetic compass theory is also known as
(D) total station (A) St. Vernant’s theory
14. In general engineering survey (B) Beltrami’s theory
terminology, LS and CS survey (C) Von Mises theory
means (w.r.t. leveling) (D) Rankine’s theory
(A) long staff and cross staff
survey ,

19. The maximum slope of a simply 24. Consider the following
supported beam of length L statements. In the beam shown
carrying a uniformly distributed in Fig. for all positions of load W
load of w per unit length is (except x = 0)
(A) wL3/6EI
(B) wL3/16EI
(C) wL3/24EI
(D) wL3/48EI
20. The relation between, E, G and
1. bending moment is
K is where E-Young’s modulus,
maximum at B
G rigidity modulus, K-bulk
2. bending moment is
modulus
maximum under load
G  3K
E 3. deflection is zero at A
(A) 3GK
4. deflection is zero at B Of
3G  K these statements:
E
(B) 9GK
(A) 1 and 3 are correct
G  3K (B) 2 and 4 are correct
E
(C) 9GK (C) 1 and 4 are correct
E
9GK (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) G  3K 25. In a spherical dome the hoop
21. The major and minor principal stress due to a concentrated
stress are 1 and 2, maximum load at crown is
shear stress is given as (A) compressive everywhere
1   2  12   22 (B) tensile everywhere
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) zero
(D) partly compressive and
 1   2 
2
1   2
  partly tensile
(C) 2 (D)  2 
22. Materials are generally classified
statements
as brittle if the percentage of
I. In a two hinged semi
elongation is less than circular, the reaction locus
(A) 5% (B) 15% is a straight line.
(C) 25% (D) 40% II. The distance of reaction
23. Principal planes are separated locus from abutment is
R/2.
by
(A) Both I and II are true
(A) 180° (B) 45°
(B) I is true but II is false
(C) 90° (D) 60°
(C) I is false but II is true
(D) Both I and II are false

27. Euler buckling load can only 30. If c,  and Hc are cohesion, unit
represent column behaviour weight of soil and critical height
(A) of higher values of of slope, the stability number is
slenderness ratio given by
(B) of lower values of c Hc
slenderness ratio (A)  H c (B) c
(C) both high value and lower c
 Hc
values of slenderness ratio Hc
(C) c (D)
(D) is not based on slenderness
31. The following assumption is not
ratio
made for the friction circle
28. The influence line for bending
method of slope stability
moment at section X(Mx) at a
analysis
distance of 4 m from the left
(A) friction is fully mobilised
support of simply supported
(B) total stress analysis is
girder AB is shown in Fig. A udl
applicable
of intensity 2t/m longer than
(C) the resultant is tangential
the span crosses the girder from
to the friction circle
left to right. The maximum
(D) the resultant passes
bending moment at section X is
through the centre of
equal to
friction circle
32. The pile designed to take care of
uplift levels are called
(A) compression pile
(B) anchor pile
(A) 12 t-m (C) end bearing pile
(B) 24 t-m (D) screw pile
(C) 48 t-m 33. Pile cap in group pile is a
(D) 96 t-m (A) structural member
29. The line of optimum generally (B) connecting member of pile
corresponds to percentage air (C) member to transfer the
voids of about column load uniformly for
(A) zero percent all piles
(B) 5 percent (D) member to reduce
(C) 10 percent settlement of pile group
(D) 20 percent

34. Two circular footing of 38. Air binding phenomena in rapid
diameters D1 and D2 are resting sand filters occur due to
on the surface of the same (A) excessive negative head
purely cohesive soil. The ratio of (B) mud ball formation
their gross ultimate bearing (C) higher turbidity in the
capacities is effluent
D1 D2 (D) low temperature
39. Which one of the following is
(A) D2 (B) D1
2 the purpose of providing a
 D1 
  surge tank in a pipeline carrying
(C) 1.0 (D)  D2 
water?
35. The coefficient of subgrade
(A) to store water
reaction depends upon
(B) to increase the pressure
(A) the size of footing
throughout the pipeline
(B) the size, shape of footing
(C) to store overflowing water
(C) the depth of footing
(D) the size, shape and depth (D) to protect the pipeline
of footing against water hammer
36. Match the following pairs. 40. As compared to the geometrical
A B increase method of forecasting
(a) Residual 1. Orthotolidine population, the arithmetical
chlorine increase method gives
(b) COD 2. Ferro in solution (A) lesser value
(c) Chlorides 3. Potassium chromate (B) higher· value
(d) Hardness 4. Eriochrome black T (C) equal value
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) may vary as it may depend
(A) 1 2 3 4 on the population figures
(B) 2 3 4 1 41. Pyrolysis is suitable for
(C) 4 1 2 3 (A) inorganic material
(D) 3 4 2 1 (B) organic materials
37. There are three samples X, Y (C) metal scraps
and Z of water having pH value (D) radioactive wastes
of 4.5, 5.5 and 6.5 respectively. 42. Parshall flume is provided to
Calculate how many times X is control velocity of flow in
acidic than Z? (A) trickling filter
(A) 2 times (B) grit cham ber
(B) 4 times (C) activated sludge
(C) 10 times (D) slow sand filter
(D) 100 times

43. As a result of a stabilization of (C) low strength sewage and
sewage effluent, the most aerobic condition
appropriate end product (D) fresh sewage with
(A) chloride dissolved-oxygen
(B) plant nutrients 48. In the design of storm sewers,
(C) alkalinity ‘Time of concentration’ is
(D) hardness relevant to determine the
(A) rainfall intensity
44. BOD exerted of waste water — (B) velocity in the sewer
——— with time, while BOD (C) time of travel
remaining ———— with time. (D) area served by the sewer
(A) decrease, decrease 49. The accuracy of the predicted
(B) increase, decrease strength of concrete using
(C) decrease, increase rebound hammer test is
(D) increase, increase
(A) ± 5 percentage
45. The population equivalent (B) ± 10 percentage
factor for BOD is (C) ± 25 percentage
(A) 0.08 kg of BQD5/day/ (D) ± 35 percentage
person 50. An ultrasonic pulse is generated
(B) 0.06 kg of BOD5/day/ by
person (A) an amplifier
(C) 0.8 kg of BOD5/day/ (B) a pair of transducers
person (C) an electronic timing device
(D) 0.6 kg of BOD5/day/ (D) an electro – acoustical
person transducer
46. External heating devices are 51. Anchorage value of standard
sometimes provided·to control
90 bend will be
temperature in
(A) 8 times the diameter of the
(A) trickling filter bar with a maximum of 16
(B) activated sludge process times the diameter of the
(C) sludge digestion tank bar
(D) oxidation ditch (B) 16 times the diameter of
47. The colour of sewage changes the bar
from Grey to dark indicates (C) 4 times the diameter of the
bar for each 45° bend,
(A) presence of oxygen and
which should not exceed
aerobic condition 16 times the diameter of
(B) zero dissolved oxygen and the bar
anaerobic condition (D) 4 times the diameter of the
bar

52. If the depth of neutral axis is xu, (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
the depth of the rectangular but (R) is not the correct
portion of the stress block will explanation of (A)
be (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) 0.416 xu (B) 0.43 xu (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) 0.57 xu (D) 0.62 xu 56. The most efficient and
53. The model adopted for shear economical section used as a
reinforcement design by median beam is
standard code is (A) I section
(A) compression force-path (B) Circular section
(B) 45° truss (C) Angle section
(C) modified compression (D) H section
field 57. The maximum moment
(D) variable angle truss considered in a continuous
54. Which of the following options purlin subjected to uniformly
gives the partial safety factors distributed load of intensity ‘w’
for dead load and wind load for and distance between supports
limit state of collapse when ‘l’ is
stability against overloading is wl 2 wl 2
critical? (A) 8 (B) 10
(A) 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL 2
wl wl 2
(B) 1.2 DL + 1.2 WL
(C) 12 (D) 16
(C) 0.9 DL + 1.5 WL
58. In designing prestressed
(D) 1.4 DL + 1.6 WL
concrete flexural members, the
breadth of compression flange is
statements.
determined on the basis of
Assertion (A) : To avoid brittle
(A) ultimate shear strength
failures, an upper limit on τc is
(B) ultimate flexural strength
imposed by the codes
(C) ultimate tensile strength
Reason (R) : Large shear forces
(D) ultimate compressive
in the beam will result in
strength
compressive stresses that may
59. The compression member used
cause crushing of web concrete in roof trusses and bracings are
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, called as
and (R) is the correct (A) Rafters
explanation of (A) (B) Booms
(C) Struts
(D) Knee braces

60. The effective length of the fillet (A) Clark (B) Sherman
weld is (C) Nash (D) Bernard
(A) Total length minus twice 64. Base period of a crop is the time
the throat size
between
(B) Total length minus twice
(A) the instant of sowing to its
the weld size
harvesting
(C) 0.7 times total length
(D) Total length minus 0.7 (B) first watering at the time of
times the weld size sowing to its last watering
61. The theoretical load carrying before harvesting
capacity of a long column with (C) sowing to last watering
hinged ends is 100 kN. The load (D) none of the above
carrying capacity of the same 65. A land is considered prone to
column if its ends are fixed is water logging when water table
(A) 50 kN (B) 70 kN is
(C) 200 kN (D) 400 kN (A) within 1.5 m of ground
62. Consider the following surface
statements. (B) within 2 m of ground
Assertion (A) : The engineering surface
stress-strain curve does not give (C) within 3 m of ground
a true indication of the surface
deformation characteristics of a (D) within 3.5 m of ground
metal in tension surface
Reason (R) : The engineering 66. The Exchangeable Sodium
stress-strain curve of a metal in Percentage (ESP) of a saline soil
tension is entirely on the is
original dimensions of the (A) > 15
‘specimen and dimensions (B) 15
change continuously as the load (C) none of them
increases (D) < 15
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, 67. In a Syphon-aqueduct, the most
and (R) is the correct severe condition of uplift on the
explanation of (A) floor occurs when
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A) Canal runs full and drain
but (R) is not a correct is dry
explanation of (A) (B) Canal is dry and drain is
(C) 1(A) is true, but (R) is false with high flood level
(C) Canal runs dry and drain
(D) 2(A) is false, but (R) is true
is dry
63. Unit hydrograph theory was (D) Both canal and drain run
first enunciated by full

68. Irrigation potential of the (C) Warning sign
country is about (D) Route marker sign
(A) 87 M. Ha (B) 100 M. Ha 74. Highway capacity is defined as
(C) 113 M. ha (D) 125 M. ha the total number of vehicles
69. The optimum capacity of an (A) that can pass a given point
irrigation tube well is in a unit period of time
(A) 0.07 cumec (B) that can pass a given point
(B) 0.08 cumec in a specified period of
(C) 0.05 cumec time
(D) 0.10 cumec (C) that can be accommodated
70. The fall when flumed on a unit length of the road
functioning satisfactorily as a (D) that can pass a given
meter is length of the road in km
(A) Sharp crested fall 75. As per Indian Roads Congress
(B) Vertical fall (IRC), traffic volume study is
(C) Inglis fall carried out for rural roads
(D) Broad crested weir continuously during harvesting
71. The co-efficient of Rugosity (Na) and urn season for
for an earthen canal in excellant (A) 14 days (B) 28 days
condition is (C) 7 days (D) 21 days
(A) 0.015 (B) 0.020 76. The overall road density in the
(C) 0.025 (D) 0.030 country should be increased to
72. The water application efficiency 82 km per 100 sq.km area by the
of sprinkler irrigation method in year 2001 according to
moderate climate is (A) First twenty year road plan
(A) 70% (B) 60% (B) Second twenty year road
(C) 80% (D) 90% plan
73. The below figure indicates (C) Third twenty year road
plan
(D) Fourth twenty year road
plan
77. Arterial road come under
category of which road
(A) Secondary rural
(B) Rural
(C) Urban
(A) Informatory sign (D) Primary rural
(B) Regulatory sign

78. If the stopping sight distance for (A) Wave (B) Tide
a highway is 91.4 m, then its (C) Current (D) Tsunami
intermediate Sight Distance is 83. The figure below illustrates the
(A) 91.4m (B) 182.8 m type of vertical wall adopted in
(C) 45.7 m (D) 274.2 m
79. If ‘V’ is the design speed of a
overtaking vehicle, then speed
of overtaken vehicle if not given
shall be assumed as (A) Britain beach
(A) (V–13) kmph (B) Scandinavia beach
(B) (V–14) kmph (C) Miami beach
(C) (V–15) kmph (D) U.S.A. beach
(D) (V–16) kmph 84. The part of an airport where
80. If the cross slope of a particular planes are parked for repairs,
terrain is 15%, then it is maintenance, etc is called as
classified as (A) Apron (B) ATC
(A) Plain
(C) Hangar (D) Taxiway
(B) Rolling
85. When rails are welded, there is
(C) Mountainous
no need for expansion joint. Still
(D) Steep
81. Garbage dumping is not the deformations of rails due to
allowed around the areas closer thermal stresses are avoided by
to airport for the reason (A) Locking effect on
(A) To avoid ugly views for longitudinal thermal
passengers while entering stresses due to resistance
the city by sleepers, ballest, etc
(B) To avoid foul smell (B) Welds absorb the thermal
affecting passengers stresses
waiting in terminals. (C) Thermal stresses are lesser
(C) To avoid rats and such than the weld stress
menace to airport (D) Thermal stresses are
buildings that may come
negligible compared to
from garbage area
stresses from high speed
(D) To avoid BIRD menace –
trains
birds hitting the planes
during takeoff and landing 86. The Poisson’s ratio is denned as
82. The periodic rise and fall of sea (A) Linear strain/Lateral strain
water levels based on the (B) Lateral strain/Linear strain
influence of moon on earth is (C) Shear strain/Linear strain
called as (D) Linear strain/Shear strain

87. If the earliest finish time of (C) definable center markers
activity is 18 days and its are entered
duration is 8 days, then its (D) identified data are
earliest start is automatically segmented
(A) 8 (B) 10 93. A technique for displaying
(C) 18 (D) 26 applications where complex 3-D
88. In PERT technique the critical geometrics are required for the
path has slack equal to exterior shall of a product is
(A) Zero or Positive called
(B) Negative (A) 2 - D modelling
(C) Positive (B) Solid modelling
(D) Zero or Negative (C) 3 - D modelling
89. When the float of an activity is (D) Surface modelling
positive then it is called as 94. What is the name of the system
(A) Super critical activity database that contains
(B) Critical activity description of the data in the
(C) Sub-critical activity database?
(D) Hyper-critical activity (A) Metadata
90. Which one of the following is (B) Data dictionary
not an application of CPM? (C) Table
(A) Crashing (D) Name space
(B) Resource levelling 95. The method of solid modeling
(C) Resource allocation that defines the topology of
(D) Linear scheduling faces, edges and vertices as well
91. What key hardware item ties a as data that defines the surface
CAD/CAM system together? in which each face line is called
(A) Keyboard (A) Layering
(B) Graphics workstation (B) Constructive solid geometry
(C) Digitiser (C) Boundary representation
(D) Plotter (D) Isometric
92. The ‘snap’ command feature in 96. A means of storing large
both Auto CAD and versa CAD amounts of data outside the
ensures that : main memory is
(A) template lines can be (A) Magnetic 1nemory
removed (B) Primary memory
(B) objects are entered at (C) Auxiliary memory
specific intervals (D) Cache memory

97. Increase in fineness of cement 102. Marble is quarried by
(A) reduces the rate of (A) heating
strength development and (B) excavating
leads to higher shrinkage (C) wedging
(B) increases the rate of (D) blasting
strength development and 103. Consider the following
reduces the rate of statements.
deterioration Assertion (A) : Finer the cement,
(C) decreases the rate of more is the strength.
strength development a!1d Reason (R) : Surface area for
increases the bleeding of hydration is less for finer
cement cements
(D) increases the rate of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true
strength development and and (R) is the correct
leads to higher shrinkage explanation of (A)
98. Moh’s scale for stones is used to (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
determine but (R) is not a correct
(A) toughness explanation of (A)
(B) hardness (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) durability (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) specific gravity 104. The process of adding water to
99. Before testing setting time of lime to convert it into hydrated
cement one should test for lime is known as
(A) soundness (A) quenching
(B) strength (B) crystallisation
(C) fineness (C) slaking
(D) consistency (D) calcination
100. Which of the following is used 105. The specific gravity of most of
for making electrical switches? the stones lie between
(A) polyvinyl chloride (A) 1.8 to 2.2 (B) 2.5 to 3.0
(B) polypropylene (C) 3.0 to 3.5 (D) 3.5 to 4.5
(C) bakelite 106. A sloping member which
(D) polyvinyl acetate supports the steps in a stair
101. Trade name of polystryene is (A) Stringer (B) Carriage
(A) Thermocol (C) Flight (D) Landing
(B) Asbestos
(C) Cork
(D) Glass wool

107. Out of all the rules and 110. A semi tight material which
specifications, choose the most forms an excellent impervious
important requirement with layer for damp-proofing is called
respect to brick masonry (A) bitumen
(A) all bricks should be of (B) bituminous felt
uniform shape and size (C) aluminal
(B) the mortal joints should be (D) mastic asphalt
as thin as possible 111. In Arches, the bottom most
(C) the vertical joints should starting point at both ends is
not be contiguous and called as
should be staggered in (A) Springer (B) Crown
consecutive layers (C) Closer (D) Bearing
(D) the entire wall height 112. SIMPSON’S rule to calculate
should be constructed area-to apply this rule, then the
without stoppage in condition to divide the given
between overall area is that
108. Masons who went to ensure the (A) no special condition, the
best quality and best whole area can be
workmanship in brick masonry, divided any way
will insist on using only (B) divide the entire area into
(A) single layer scaffolding EVEN divisions so that
with crea supports on the there are ODD number of
wall it self ORDINATES boundaries
(B) double layer scaffolding (C) divide the entire area into
which does not require the ODD divisions so that
wall for its support there are EVEN ordinates
(C) steel scaffolding instead of (D) both ODD or EVEN
timber scaffold number of divisions are
(D) moving scaffold acceptable
109. A type of scaffolding that can be 113. One cubic metre of mild steel
provided on side of a busy weighs about
street without obstructing the (A) 1000 kg (B) 3625 kg
traffic on road (C) 7850 kg (D) 12560 kg
(A) Single scaffolding 114. The quantity of partition walls
(B) Mason’s scaffolding and honey comb walls are
(C) Ladder scaffolding worked out in
(D) Needle scaffolding (A) M (B) M3
(C) M2 (D) Lumpsum

115. The scheduled of rate is 121. In analysis of rates contractor
prepared on the basis of profit is taken at the rate of
(A) labour (A) 10 times of total cost of
(B) material material and labour
(C) analysis of rates (B) 5 times of total cost of
(D) rough estimate material and labour
116. The annual periodic payments (C) 0.5 times of total cost of
made for the repayment of the material and labour
capital invested is known as (D) 0.1 times of total cost of
(A) annuity material and labour
(B) sinking fund 122. The amount required to be
(C) out going deposited by a contractor while
(D) depreciation submitting a tender is known as
117. The expected task for 12 mm (A) fixed deposit
plastering with cement mortar (B) caution deposit
per mason is (C) security deposit
(A) 3 cu.m (D) earnest money deposit
(B) 3 sq.m 123. Energy stored in a material during
(C) 6 sq.m its deformation is known as
(D) 8 sq.m (A) elastic energy
118. The brick work is not measured (B) plastic energy
in cu.m in the case (C) strain energy
(A) one or more than one brick (D) potential energy
wall 124. The moment required to rotate
(B) brick work in arches the near end of a prismatic
(C) reinforced brick work beam through unit angle
(D) thin partition wall without translation, when the
119. The expected out turn for earth far end is fixed
work in excavation in ordinary EI 2EI
soil per mazdoor per day is (A) l (B) l
(A) 1.00 cu.m (B) 2.00 cu.m 3EI 4EI
(C) 3.00 cu.m (D) 4.00 cu.m (C) l (D) l
120. The expected out turn of 2.5 cm 125. The moment distribution
cement concrete floor per mason method in structural analysis
per day can be treated as
(A) 2.5 sq.m (B) 4.0 sq.m (A) force method
(C) 6.0 sq.m (D) 7.5 sq.m (B) displacement method
(C) flexibility method
(D) unit load method

126. A two span continuous beam 129. Boussinesq’s vertical stress at a
ABC is simply supported at A & point for a concentrated load is
C is continuous over support B. independent of
Span AB = 6 m and span BC = 6 (A) depth of the point below
m. The beam carries a udl of 2 the point of application of
t/m over both the spans. EI is the load
constant for the entire beam. (B) magnitude of the load
The fixed end moment at B in (C) modulus of elasticity and
span BA or BC would be Poisson’s ratio of the soil
(D) radial distance of the point
from the line of action of
the load
130. Vane shear test is applicable for
(A) 12 t m (B) 6 t-m
(A) dense sand
(C) 8 t-m (D) 9 t-m
(B) loose sand
127. In a two hinged arch an increase
(C) soft clay
in temperature induces
(D) stiff clay
(A) no bending moment in the
arch rib
statements.
(B) uniform bending moment
Assertion (A) : The quick sand
in the arch rib
leading to
(C) maximum bending moment
liquefaction is not a
at the crown
type of sand but a
(D) minimum bending moment
flow condition
at the crown
occuring within a
128. The frame shown in the figure
cohensionless soil
has
when its effective
pressure is reduced
to zero.
Reason (R) : Equal amounts of
the upward water
(A) one unknown reaction pressure and the
component downward pressure
(B) two unknown reaction of the submerged
component soil mass are acting.
(C) three unknown reaction Select the answer to the above
component
questions using the codes given below:
(D) six unknown reaction
component

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true 135. The least count of dial gauge to
and (R) is the correct be used in the laboratory
explanation of (A) consolidation test is
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true (A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.002 mm
but (R) is not a correct (C) 0.02 mm (D) 0.1 mm
explanation of (A) 136. Minimum centre to centre
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false spacing of friction piles of
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true diameter (D) as per BIS code is
132. The maximum vertical stress on (A) 1.5 D (B) 2.5 D
a vertical line at a constant (C) 2.0 D (D) 3 D
radial distance ‘r’ from the axis 137. Consider the following
of vertical load is induced at the statements.
point of intersection of the 1. Coulombs earth pressure
vertical line with a radial line at theory does not take the
an angle of —————— from roughness of soil into
the point of application of the conservation
concentrated load. 2. In case of non-cohesive
(A) 0° 13’ (B) 39° 13’ soils, the coefficients of
(C) 45° (D) 60° active earth pressure and
133. The void ratio and discharge earth pressure at rest are
velocity of a soil are 1.0 and 1 × equal
10–5 cm/s respectively. Its 3. Any movement of
seepage velocity in cm/s is retaining wall away from
(A) 4 × 10–5 (B) 2 × 10–5 the full corresponds to
(C) 1 × 10–5 (D) 0.5 × 10–5 active earth pressure
134. In a CU test, the diameter of correction
Mohr circle for total stresses at Of these statements:
incipient failure condition is 200 (A) only 1 is correct
KPa to a scale. If the pore (B) 1 and 2 are correct
pressure at failure is 50 KPa, the (C) only 2 is correct
diameter of Mohr circle for (D) only 3 is correct
effective stresses at failure 138. The bearing capacity of footing
drawn to the same scale is equal size 3 m × 3 m will not be
to affected by the presence of
(A) 150 KPa (B) 200 KPa water table located at a depth
(C) 250 KPa (D) 300 KPa below the base of footing of
(A) 1.0 m (B) 3.0 m
(C) 1.5 m (D) 6.2 m

139. Which of the following pile will 144. The ratio of the yield of water
have high level carrying from a rapid sand filter to that
capacity, for ideal conditions? from a slow sand filter is
(A) driven pile (A) 5 (B) 20
(B) bored piles (C) 100 (D) 30
(C) driven and cost-in-situ 145. The permissible limit of Iron
piles and Chlorides in drinking water
(D) bored and cost-in-situ piles are —————— mg/l, ———
140. For the design of strap footing,
————— mg/l respectively.
the following assumption is not (A) 0.8, 800 (B) 1.3, 600
made (C) 0.03, 1200 (D) 0.3, 250
(A) the strap is perfectly rapid 146. A rapid test to indicate the
(B) the interior footing is intensity of pollution in river
centrally located water is
(C) the strap is not subjected (A) Biochemical oxygen
to any direct soil pressure demand
(D) the soil pressure varies (B) Dissolved oxygen
linearly
(C) MPN
141. Settlement of foundation can be (D) Total dissolved solids
minimized if 147. The role of algae is significant in
(A) bearing capacity is ————— treatment unit for
improved
treating sewage or
(B) void ratio is increased
biodegradable industrial waste.
(C) water content is added
(D) external load is increased (A) aerated lagoon
142. The devices which are installed (B) oxidation ditch
for drawing water from the (C) trickling filter
(D) stabilization pond
sources are called
148. Match the following.
(A) aquifers
A B
(B) aquiclude
(a) Acid water 1. Volcanoes
(C) filters
(b) SO2 2. Automobiles
(D) intakes
(c) CO 3. Thermal
143. Which of the following causes a
decrease in per capita power station
consumption? (d) Fly ash 4. Mining
(A) use of metering system (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) good quality of water (A) 1 2 3 4
(C) better standard of living of (B) 2 3 4 1
the people (C) 4 1 2 3
(D) hotter climate (D) 3 4 1 2

149. LVDT is a 154. The volume of standard gauge
(A) Linear Variable Differential box used for volume batching of
Transducer concrete is
(B) Linear Velocity Doppler (A) 25 litres (B) 35 litres
Transmitter (C) 42 litres (D) 50 litres
(C) Low Velocity Differential 155. The standard rate of application
Transformer of loading to be adopted in the
(D) Linear Variable Damping concrete cube testing is
Tester (A) 14 N/mm2 per minute
150. The property of fresh cement (B) 10 N/mm2 per minute
concrete, in which the water in (C) 7 N/mm2 per minute
the mix tends to rise to the (D) 5 N/mm2 per minute
surface while placing and 156. Surfaces of rnembers m tidal
compacting is called zones will come under which
(A) segregation (B) bleeding category of environmental
(C) creep (D) bulking exposure condition?
151. The slump (in mm) required in (A) moderate (B) severe
the trench fill-in situ piling will (C) very severe (D) extreme
be 157. A square slab panel is
(A) 25 – 75 (B) 50 – 100 supported on only two parallel
(C) 75 – 100 (D) 100 - 150 sides. It will act as will
152. In the standard_central point (A) One - way slab
loading test on concrete prism, (B) One - way continuous slab
the maximum fibre stress will (C) Two - way slab
occur at (D) Two - way continuous slab
(A) the left end support 158. The total area of side face
(B) the right end support reinforcement provided along
(C) one-third point the two faces of a beam should
(D) the loading point not be less than
153. The quantity of water required (A) 0.3 percent of the web area
for setting time test of cement is (B) 0.3 percent of gross area
______ times the quantity of (C) 0.1 percent of the web area
water required for normal (D) 0.1 percent of gross area
consistency test 159. The ultimate strain in concrete
(A) 0.85 (B) 0.78 in bending will be taken as
(C) 0.65 (D) 0.52 (A) 0.002 (B) 0.003
(C) 0.0035 (D) 0.004

160. If the strain in the extreme layer (A) cost of purlins and cost of
of tensile steel in a column is root covering
greater than or equal to 0.0005, (B) cost of roofing and dead
it denotes the loads
(A) on set of cracking in (C) live loads and dead loads
column (D) cost of purlins and live
(B) compression - controlled loads
failure 165. An agricultural land is known
(C) balanced failure as water logged when
(D) tension - controlled ductile (A) gravity drainage has
failure ceased
161. When the isolated footing is (B) permanent wilting point is
loaded, the clayey soil under the reached
footing (C) the soil become completely
(A) will be subjected to saturated
uniform soil pressure (D) capillary fringe reaches the
(B) relieves the pressure-near root zone of the plants
the middle of the footing 166. The total water resources
(C) will have minimum available in India is
pressure near the edges (A) 1850 cubic km
(D) will be subjected to a (B) 1580 cubic km
trapezoidal non-uniform (C) 1350 cubic km
pressure (D) 1530 cubic km
162. Two plates 16 mm and 14 mm 167. The standard project flood is
are jointed by the fillet weld. the (A) the same as the maximum
maximum size of the fillet weld probable flood
is (B) the same as the design
(A) 18.5 mm (B) 17.5 mm flood
(C) 15.5 mm (D) 12.5mm (C) larger than the maximum
163. The proof stress of high tensile probable flood
wires are measured at (D) about 50% of the
(A) 0.7% residual strain maximum probable flood
(B) 0.4% residual strain 168. Out of the total water present on
(C) - 0.2% residual strain the globe the saline water of
(D) 0.1 % residual strain oceans accounts for
164. The economic spacing of roof (A) 95.2% (B) 97.2%
trusses depends on (C) 96.2% (D) 98.2%

169. The live storage requirement for (A) Contour farming
a reservoir is to be determined (B) Furrow method
by (C) Flooding method
(A) topographical survey (D) Sprinkler irrigation
(B) double mass curve 175. Traffic density is
analysis (A) Number of vehicles
(C) annual demand passing in one hour
(D) mass curve analysis (B) Number of vehicles per
170. Ombrometer is used to measure unit length
(A) soil moisture state of a (C) Number of vehicles in
plant specific direction per hour
(B) rainfall depth (D) Number of vehicles per
(C) root zone depth lane in specific direction
(D) leaf area 176. An instrument used to study
171. What is the distance to the ‘spot speeds’ in Traffic
centroid of Nash’s Engineering is
instantaneous unit Hydrograph (A) Enoscope
from the origin? (B) Speed recorder
(A) n/K (B) n/K2 (C) Lux meter
(C) nK (D) nK2 (D) Sound level meter
172. A catchment is made of 60% 177. Major reason for high level of
area with run off coefficient 0.4 road accidents in India is due to
and remaining 40% area with (A) Lack of knowledge with
run off coefficient 0.6. What is people
the weighted run off coefficient (B) Lack of fund availability
to be used in rational formula? (C) Lack of proper enforcement
(A) 0.24 (B) 0.48 of traffic rules
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.6 (D) Lack of traffic control
173. The net head under which the devices
turbine reaches its peak 178. The basic root cause of today’s
efficiency at synchronous speed traffic problem is
is called (A) Lack of ‘commitments of
(A) rated head professionals
(B) gross head (B) Lack of fund availability
(C) operating head (C) Lack of land use transport
(D) design head interaction in planning
174. The common method of urban areas
irrigating row crops is (D) Lack of time availability

179. The volume of traffic, that 184. Overtaking sight distance is also
would immediately use a new called as
or an improved road when (A) Stopping sight distance
opened to traffic is known as (B) Headlight sight distance
(A) current traffic (C) Non passing sight distance
(B) Generated traffic (D) Passing sight distance
(C) Development traffic 185. The primary road system
(D) Future traffic classification comprises of
180. The instantaneous speed of a (A) Expressways and National
vehicle as it passes a point on a Highways
highway is known as (B) State Highways and Major
(A) Jomney speed District Roads
(B) Running speed (C) Other District Roads and
(C) Design speed Village Roads
(D) Spot speed (D) Major District Roads and
181. The theoretical capacity (C) of a Other District Roads
highway is given by 186. The first 20-year road
1000S 100S development plan for India was
C C
(A) V (B) V called as
1000V 1000V (A) Bombay Road Plan
C C
(C) S (D) 2S (B) Nagpur Road Plan
182. The minim um width of (C) Lucknow Road Plan
shoulder recommended by the (D) Delhi Road Plan
IRC is 187. A runway is aligned such that it
(A) 2.2 m (B) 2.3 m is exactly laid along EAST-
(C) 2.4 m (D) 2.5m WEST direction. Then for that
183. In highway geometric design, runway, choose the correct pair
the desirable length of of RUNWAY number
overtaking jone is kept at (A) 0 - 90 (B) 90 - 180
(A) 5 times overtaking sight (C) 90 - 270 (D) 9 - 27
distance 188. In curved portions of railway
(B) 6 times overtaking sight tracks, the gradient of track
dist;nce laying is
(C) 7 times overtaking sight (A) slightly lesser (reduced)
distance than the gradient in
(D) 8 times overtaking sight straight portions
distance

(B) slightly HIGHER than the 192. Expected time of an activity is-
gradient in straight ·calculated in PERT using the
portions formula
(C) gradient in curves may be 4a  4m  4b
higher or lesser than the (A) 6
gradient in straight tracks amb
(D) gradient in curves should (B) 6
be same as the gradient in a  4m  b
straights (C) 6
189. Coning of wheels is done for the a  6m  b
purpose of
(D) 4
(A) reducirig contact area
193. In the figure, name the curve
between wheel and rail
marked(?)
(B) to prevent SLIPPING or
SKIDDING of wheels
while rolling on the curved
tracks
(C) reducing the noise due to
wheel rolling vibration
(D) to reduce centrifugal force
while travelling on curves (A) Crash cost curve
190. The type of rail piece which (B) Normal cost curve
move left and right within the (C) Total cost curve
main rails and which are sharp (D) Other cost curve
ended are called as 194. In a time scaled version of
(A) Stock Rail network, critical activities a!e
(B) Check Rail shown along
(C) Tongue Rail (A) an inclined path
(D) Stretcher Bar (B) an oblique path
191. With respect to transition (C) a vertical straight path
curves, choose the odd one out (D) a horizontal straight path
(A) Cubic parabola curve 195. In PERT, the variance of an
(B) Simple circular curve activity is determined by
(C) Spiral curve
b  a 
2
ba
(D) Bernoulli’s Lemniscate
curve (A) 6 (B) 6
ba
2
b2  a 2
 
(C)  6  (D) 6

196. The critical path duration of a 200. Status indicators are located on
project is 15 months with a the
standard deviation of 3 months. (A) Vertical scroll bar
What is the probability of (B) Horizontal scroll bar
completing the project in 15 (C) Formula bar
months? (D) Standard tool bar
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 100%
197. RAM is used as a short memory
because it
(A) is very expensive
(B) has small capacity
(C) is programmable
(D) is volatile
198. One of the major benefits of
using CAD in tool design is that
(A) product design represents
approximately one-half the
engineering costs
(B) tool motions can be
checked to see if there is
interference between the
tool and the object
(C) there is better coordination
in the materials handling
area
(D) it simplifies the trial-and-
error method
199. What kind of capability is
required for one plane to
interface with a plotter or
printer?
(A) Graphics cable
(B) RGB monitor
(C) Graphics board
(D) Co-processor

7. You will also encode you‟re your Register Number, Subject Code, Question
8. Each Question comprises four responses (A).(B).(C).and(D). You are to select
ONLY ONE correct response and mark in your Answer Sheet In case, you feel
that there are more than one correct each question. Your total marks will depend
on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.

1. The compressive strength of 8. Chemically, marble is known as
first class bricks should not be (A) Metamorphic rock
less than (B) Argillaceous rock
(A) 7 N/mm2 (C) Calcareous rock
(B) 10.5 N/mm2 (D) Siliceous rock
(C) 12 N/mm2 9. Lime mortar is generally made
(D) 15 N/mm2 with
2. The process of burning the lime (A) quick lime
stone to redness in contact with (B) fat lime
air is termed (C) hydraulic lime
(A) Carbonation (D) white lime
(B) Oxidation 10. A good building stone is one
(C) Hydration which does not absorb more
(D) Calcination than ______ of its weight or
3. Stucco plastering is used in water after one day‟s immersion
(A) excellent finish (A) 5% (B) 10%
(B) X-ray rooms (C) 15% (D) 20%
(C) sound proofing 11. A stretcher bond is usually used
(D) all of the above for
4. Refractory bricks resist (A) Half brick wall
(A) Chemical action (B) One and half brick wall
(B) Shocks and vibrations (C) Two brick wall
(C) Dampness (D) One brick wall
(D) High temperature 12. A series of steps without any
5. Due to attack of dry rob, the platform or landing is called
timber (A) Soffit (B) Flight
(A) cracks (C) Pitch (D) Nosing
(B) twist 13. The construction of a temporary
(C) shrinks structure required to support an
(D) reduces to powder unsafe structure is called
6. A well seasoned limber may (A) under pinning
contain moisture upto (B) shoring
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) scaffolding
(C) 5% (D) 12% (D) shuttering
7. The central part of a tree called 14. A levelled horizontal mortar
(A) Heart wood joint in a masonry wall is called
(B) Pith (A) wall joint
(C) Sap wood (B) bed joint
(D) Cambium layer (C) cross joint
(D) bonded joint

15. A wall constructed to withstand (B) Terrazzo flooring
the pressure or an earth filling is (C) Asphalt flooring
(A) Parapet wall (D) None of the above
(B) Sloping wall 21. The window used with the
(C) Buttress object of providing light and air
to the enclosed space below
(D) Retaining wall
(A) Dormer window
16. For damp proof course at plinth
(B) Comer window
level, the commonly adopted (C) Bay window
material is (D) Clerestory window
(A) Membrane sheeting 22. A bat is the portion of a
(B) Mortar sheeting (A) wall between facing and
(C) Bitumen sheeting backing
(D) Paint coating (B) wall not exposed to weather
17. When a brick is cut into two (C) brick cut across the width
halves longitudinally, one part (D) brick cut in such a manner
that its one long face
is called
remains uncut
(A) King closer
23. In case of buildings without
(B) Queen closer
basement, the best position for
(C) Comice brick D P.C. lies at
(D) Bat (A) Plinth level
18. The minimum number of days (B) Ground level
required 10 strip-off the side (C) 15 cm above the plinth level
form work or RC beams after (D) 15 cm above the ground
(A) 1 (B) 5 level
(C) 10 (D) 14 24. A type of bond in a brick
19. The type of stone masonry masonry in which each course
consist of alternate leaders and
commonly adopted in the
stretchers, is called
construction of residential
(A) English bond
building is
(B) Flemish bond
(A) Uncoursed rubble masonry (C) Stretching bond
(B) Coursed rubble masonry (D) Heading bond
(C) Random rubble masonry 25. Which one of the following may
(D) Dry rubble masonry be classified as personal error in
20. A type or flooring made with levelling ?
special aggregate of marble (A) Error in sighting
chips mixed with white and (B) Wind vibrations
coloured cement, is called (C) Atmospheric refractions
(A) Mosaic flooring (D) Error due to defective joint

26. The best method of 31. An imaginary tine joining
interpella1ion of contour in points of equal elevation is
direct method of contouring is called
by (A) a horizontal line
(A) Graphical method (B) a level line
(B) Auxiliary contouring
(C) an isogonic line
(C) Computations (Arithmetical
(D) a contour
calculation)
(D) Estimation 32. Cross-sectioning and
27. The capability of a telescope of „longitudinal sectioning‟ is
producing a sharp image is usually involved in
called as (A) check levelling
(A) Magnification (B) differential levelling
(B) Sensitivity (C) simple levelling
(C) Definition (D) profile levelling
(D) Brightness 33. The curvature of earth is taken
28. The process of moving in or out into consideration, if the limit of
the eye-piece untill the cross-
survey is
hairs are clearly visible is called
(A) 1 to 10 km2
(A) Removing the parallax
(B) 25 10 55 km2
(B) Focussing the objective
(C) Adjusting the cross-hairs (C) 50 to 100 km2
(D) Focussing the eye-piece (D) More than 250 km2
29. The method of surveying used 34. Contour lines cross ridge on
for determining the relative valley lines at
height of points on the surface (A) 30° (B) 45°
(A) levelling (C) 60° (D) 90°
(B) traversing 35. The value of dismantled
(C) triangulation material are called as
(D) plane table surveying
(A) Salvage value
30. A deflection angle in a traverse
(B) Scrap value
is equal to the
(C) Market value
(A) difference between the
included angle and 180 (D) All of the above
(B) difference between 360° and 36. All works are assessed as per
the included angle schedule of rates, except the one
(C) sum of the included angle (A) Estimates of cost
and 180° (B) Agreements
(D) none of the above (C) Design
(D) Contract

37. The book values goes on 43. Accurate estimate is prepared by
(A) Increasing every year (A) Preliminary estimate
(B) Reducing every year (B) Revised estimate
(C) Increasing once in 5 year (C) Detailed estimate
(D) Decreasing once in 5 year (D) Plinth area estimate
38. Capitalized value is 44. Damp proof course is measured in
(A) Net annual income x year‟s (A) kg (B) sq metres
purchase (C) centimetre (D) kilometre
(B) Monthly income x year‟s 45. A beam which is fixed at one
purchase end and free at the other end is
(C) 5% interest per annum called
(D) 5% interest per month (A) Simply supported beam
39. For mortgage purposes the (B) Fixed beam
mortgage value of a property is (C) Overhanging beam
taken as _____ of the valuation (D) Cantilever beam
or capitalized value 46. Simple bending equation is
1 2 1 2 M R F
to to  
(A) 3 3 (B) 2 3 (A) I E Y
1 1 1 3 M E F
to to  
(C) 2 4 (D) 3 4 (B) I R Y
M E Y
40. The capital cost for rent fixation  
may be (C) I R F
(D) None of these
(A) cost of construction
47. The maximum deflection of a
(B) cost of sanitary and water
simply supported beam of
supply works
length L with a central load W is
(C) cost of electric installations
WL2
(D) all of the above
41. The Gross rent is (A) 48 EI
(A) Net rent + outgoing W 2L
(B) Net rent + 6% of outgoing (B) 24 EI
(C) Net rent + 8% of outgoing WL2
(D) None of the above (C) 8 EI
42. Along with the preliminary WL3
estimate, about ______ is added (D) 48 EI
to it as contingencies charges. 48. The ratio of the effective length
(A) 10% (B) 5% of a column and maximum
(C) 6% (D) 8% radius of gyration of its cross-
sectional area, is known as

(A) Buckling factor (C) nothing on the bending
(B) Slenderness ratio throughout
(C) Crippling factor (D) all the above
(D) None of these 54. If the beam is supported so that
49. An arch with three hinges, is there are only three unknown
structure reactive elements at the
(A) statically determinate supports. These can be
(B) statically indeterminate determined by using the
(C) geometrically unstable following fundamental equation
(D) none of these of statics:
50. A simply supported beam of (A) H = 0
span L, cross-section A carrying (B) V = 0
a point load W, concentrated at (C) H = 0, V = 0
the centre of span L, will have (D) H = 0, V = 0, M = 0
maximum bending moment of 55. The ratio of Young‟s modulus to
WL modulus of rigidity for a
(A) WL (B) 4 material having Poisson‟s ratio
WL WL 0.2 is
(C) 2 (D) 8 (A) 2
51. If P is the internal pressure in a (B) 2.4
thin cylinder of diameter d and (C) 2.8
thickness I, the developed Hoop (D) 3
stress, is 56. The ratio of maximum load to
Pd Pd the original are of cross-section
(A) 4t (B) t is
Pd 2Pd (A) Strain
(C) 2t (D) t (B) Ultimate Stress
52. In a three hinged arch, the shear (C) Young‟s Modulus
force is usually (D) Unit Stress
(A) maximum at crown 57. A simply supported beam of
(B) maximum at springing span „l‟ carries a udl of W per
unit run over the whole span.
(C) maximum at quarter points
The maximum bending moment
(D) varies with slope
is given by
53. The effect of arching a beam, is 2
wl wl
(A) to reduce the bending
(A) 8 (B) 4
moment throughout
(B) to increase the bending
wl 2
moment throughout (C) 8 (D) None of the above

58. The slope at the mid span of a modulus „E‟ and Poisson‟s ratio
beam of length L, simply „μ‟, then the maximum principal
supported al the ends, carrying stress will be given by
a concentrated load W at its mid (A) Ee1
span is (B) E(e1 + e2)
WL2 E (e1   e2 )
(A) Zero (B) 4 EI
(C) (1   )
2
WL2 WL2 E (e2   e1 )

(C) 8 EI (D) 16 EI (D) (1   )
2
59. Pick up the correct statement 62. The shearing force at the fixed
from the following : end of a cantilever of length L,
(A) For a uniformly distributed
carrying uniformly distributed
load, the shear force varies
load of „w‟ per unit length over
linearly
the whole length is
(B) For a load varying linearly,
the shear force curve is a WL
parabola (A) 2 (B) WL
(C) For a load varying linearly, (C) 2WL (D) WL2
the B.M. curve is a cubic 63. Choose the correct answer :
purabola. The ratio of shear stress and
(D) All of the above shear strain of an elastic material is
60. The state of stress at point in a (A) Modulus of rigidity
stressed element is shown in the
(B) Shear modulus
given figure The maximum
(C) Young‟s modulus
tensile stress in the element will
(D) Both (A) and (B)
be
64. Point of contraflexure is where
(A) Bending Moment is zero
(B) Shear Force is zero
(C) Sign of Bending Moment
changes
(D) Bending Moment is
(A) 20 N/mm2 maximum
2 65. Main difference in Bonssinesq‟s
(B) 10 2 N/mm
and Wester Gaard‟s theory is
(C) 10 N/mm2
due to
(D) Zero
(A) Consideration of different
61. If e1 and e2 (e1 > e2) are the
soil modulus value E.
maximum and minimum strains
(B) Poisson‟s ratio
in the neighbourhood of a point
(C) Homogeneous nature of soil
in a stressed material of Young‟s

(D) Presence of voids and 70. Assertion (A): The water
channels in soil content of a soil remains
66. Increase of compaction, effect unchanged during the entire
on a soil causes : test in unconsolidated
(A) reduction in O.M.C. undrained test.
(B) increases in O.M.C. Reason (R) : Drainage is not
(C) no change m O.M.C. permitted during the
(D) increases or decreases in application of stresses.
O.M.C. which depends on Codes:
the nature of soil. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true
67. The degree of saturation on zero and (R) is the correct
air void line is explanation of (A).
(A) 40% (B) 45% (B) Both (A) and (R) are true
(C) 100% (D) 60% and (R) is not a correct
68. The coefficient of consolidation explanation of(A).
is used for (C) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) establishing the duration of (D) is false, but (R) is true.
primary consolidation 71. The ratio of unconfined
(B) estimating the amount of compressive strength of an
settlement for a load undistributed sample of soil to
increment that of a remoulded sample at
(C) determining the depth to the same water content, is
which the soil is stressed known as
when loads are applied on (A) activity (B) damping
the surface of a soil deposit (C) plasticity (D) sensitivity
(D) determining the 72. Of the following soils,
preconsolidation pressure characterized by their USCS
for soil deposit known to be group symbol, which one is
over consolidated. most suitable as fill for a road
69. The slope of thee-Jog p curve for embankment?
a soil mass gives (A) SM (B) GC
(A) coefficient of permeability, k (C) GW (D) CL
(B) coefficient of consolidation, Cv 73. Stability of an infinite slope is
(C) compression index, CC lowest for
(D) coefficient of volume (A) Partially saturated soil
compressibility. Mv (B) Dry soil
(C) Seepage parallel slope
(D) Horizontal seepage

74. (1) The void ratio of soil can capacity of a group of 9 such
exceed unity. piles with group efficiency
(2) The water content of a soil factor or 0.8 is
cannot be greater than one (A) 1800 kN (B) 1640 kN
hundred percent. (C) l440 kN (D) 900 kN
(3) In the IS classification 79. The settlement H of a clay
System „SM‟ stands for sandy layer of thickness Ho is related
silt. with the increased stress (over
Which of the above statements the original stress Po) as
are TRUE? H  m  H o  P
(A)
(A) (2) & (3) mv  H o
(B) (1), (2) & (3) H 
(B) P
(C) (1) only H
H  o .P
(D) (3) only m
(C)
75. Rankine‟s theory of earth P
pressure assumes that the back H 
(D) mv  H o
of the wall is
where, mv = modulus of volume
(A) Plane and smooth
change corresponding to the
(B) Plane and rough
original pressure, Po.
(C) Vertical and smooth
80. Coulomb‟s theory of earth
(D) Vertical and rough
pressure is based on
76. Due to negative skin friction on
(A) the theory of elasticity
a pile, the load carrying capacity
(B) the theory of plasticity
of the pile
(C) empirical rules
(A) increases
(D) wedge theory
(B) decreases
81. Dearing capacity should be
(C) remains same
calculated from the criteria of
(D) uncertain
(A) shear only
77. The efficiency of a group of
(B) settlement only
piles driven dense sand is
(C) shear and settlement
usually
(D) none of the above
(A) less than 1
82. Which type of foundation is
(B) more than 1
preferable on soil or poor
(C) equal to 1
bearing capacity?
(D) none of the above
(A) Raft
78. The load carrying capacity of an
(B) Stepped
individual friction pile is
(C) Grillage
200 kN. The total load carrying
(D) None of the above

83. Pile caps are used on a group of 88. The water bearing strata is
piles lo called
(A) increase the load bearing (A) An acquifer
capacity of each pile. (B) An aquiclude
(B) protect the piles from (C) An aquifuge
lateral displacement. (D) Zone of Saturations
(C) protect in case of offshore 89. The maximum permissible
structure. concentration of sulphates for
(D) spread the vertical and potable water is
horizontal loads to all the (A) 150 mg/l
piles. (B) 250 mg/l
84. As  increases, co-efficient of (C) 300 mg/l
active earth pressure (D) 500 mg/l
(A) Increases 90. Match List – I with List – II :
(B) Decreases List – I (Coagulant) List – II
(Chemical
(C) Remains same
Name)
(D) None of these (a) Al2(SO4)3·18H2O 1. Copperas
85. Which one of the following is (b) FeSO4·7H2O 2. Sodium
correctly matched ? Aluminate
(A) Clay, Silt – causes odour (c) Na2Al2O4 3. Alum
(d) 2Fe2(SO4)3 + 2FeCl3 4. Chlorinated
(B) Bacteria – causes colour
Copperas
(C) Algae – causes odour,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
coloured
(A) 1 2 3 4
turbidity
(B) 3 2 4 1
(D) Solids – causes disease
(C) 3 1 2 4
86. A coagulant generally used is
(D) 1 4 2 3
(A) Chloride
91. The shape of graph of
(B) Bleaching powder
population against time plotted
(C) Alum
according to the arithmetical
(D) Ferric chloride
increase method is
87. The yield of the well is
(A) A hyperbola
measured in
(B) A parabola
(A) Cumec/hr
(C) A straight line
(B) litres/hr
(D) S type graph
(C) kg/hr
92. The movement of colloidal
(D) either (A) or (B)
particles are associated with
(A) Tyndal effect
(B) Discrete particle

(C) Schmutzedecke (C) Total organic solids
(D) Brownian movement (D) D.O.
93. Test for BOD is usually made at 99. The process of selective killing
a temperature of of infectious agents by chemical
(A) 0 °C or physical means is known as
(B) 10 °C (A) Disinfection
(C) 20 °C (B) Purification
(D) 37 C (C) Rectification
94. Biological action is used in (D) Recycling
(A) Screens 100. The amount of oxygen
(B) Sedimentation tanks consumed by sewage from an
(C) Trickling filters oxidising agent like potassium
(D) All of the above dichromate is termed as
95. The gases given out of a septic (A) Bio-chemical oxygen
tank are demand
(A) CO2 + SO2 + N (B) Chemical oxygen demand
(B) CO2 + PH3 + NH3 (C) Relative stability
(C) CO2 + CH4 + H2S (D) None of the above
(D) CH4 + O2 + H2 101. Favourable temperature for
96. Which of the following is not a rapid sludge digestion is
biological process for (A) 5 to 10 C
destroying organic compounds? (B) 10 to 15 °C
(A) Composting (C) 40 to 60 C
(B) Trickling filter (D) 28 to 38 °C
(C) Calcination 102. In sewage treatment plants, the
(D) Activated sludge oil and grease is removed by
97. Presence of SO2 in air can be (A) Oxidation
detected by (B) Filtration
(A) Ultraviolet pulsed (C) Skimming
fluorescence (D) Screening
(B) Flame photometry 103. Main gas from land fills is
(C) Colorimetric (A) Oxygen
(D) Any of the above (B) Nitrogen
98. A single rapid test to determine (C) Carbon monoxide
the pollution status of the river (D) Methane
water 104. A natural method of disposal of
(A) BOD sewage is
(B) COD (A) Sewage irrigation

(B) Septic tank (C) high alumina cement
(C) Composting (D) rapid hardening cement
(D) Aerated lagooning 111. In slump test, in determining
105. Hydraulic lime has small workability of concrete, the
quantities of slump is expressed in
(A) silica (A) cubic centimeters/hour
(B) alumina (B) square centimetres/hour
(C) iron oxide (C) centimeters
(D) hours
106. Creep in concrete is undesirable
112. A concrete is said to be
particularly in
workable if
(A) RCC columns
(B) Continuous beams (A) It shows signs of bleeding.
(C) Prestressed structures (B) It shows signs of
(D) All of the above segregation.
107. If the slump of concrete mix is (C) It can be easily mixed,
70 mm, its workability is placed and compacted.
considered to be (D) It is in the form of a paste.
(A) very low 113. Workability of concrete mix
(B) low having very low water-cement
(C) medium ratio should be obtained by
(D) high (A) Flexural strength test
108. The separation of coarse (B) Slump test
aggregates from concrete (C) Compaction factor test
during its transportation (D) Any one of the above
(A) segregation 114. More water should not be
(B) shrinkage added in the concrete mix, as it
(C) bleeding will increase
(D) creeping
(A) Strength
109. The following compound helps
(B) Durability
in early strength of cement
(C) Water-cement ratio
concrete:
(D) All of the above
(A) Tri calcium silicate
115. The maximum deflection of a
(B) Di calcium silicate
simply supported beam or
(C) Gypsum
length „L‟ with uniformly
(D) Tri calcium aluminate
110. For repair of road distributed load „W‟ is
(A) low heat cement is used 5 WL4 WL2
(B) sulphate resistant cement (A) 384 EI (B) 48 EI

5 WL2 WL2 f f
tension is fht, If 1 and ht are
(C) 48 EI (D) 5 EI their corresponding actual axial
116. The minimum percentage of tensile and bending stresses, the
steel for HYSD bars as per IS relationship which hold~ goods is
456-2000 for slab is ft f ht ft  f ht

  1 
(A) 0.12% (B) 0.15% f f ht ft f ht
(A) t (B)
(C) 0.1% (D) 0.6%
f1 f ht f1 f ht
117. The modular ratio between steel  1 
  1
(C) f1 f ht (D) f t f ht
and any grade of concrete is
121. The design criterion in R.C.C.
given by
walls is very similar lo
(A) 270/3cbc (B) 280/3cbc
(A) Slabs (B) Retaining walls
(C) 380/3cbc (D) 385/3cbc
Where cbc = Permissible (C) Plates (D) Piers
compressive stress due to 122. When the eccentricity does not
bending in concrete in N/mm2. exceed 0.05 times the least
118. With usual notations for a lateral dimension the member
balanced section the depth of may be designed by the
N.A. is given by following equation :
d n (A) Pu = 0.4 fck Ac + 0.75 fyAsc
m cbc 
(A) n (B) Pu = 0.5 fck Ac + 0.67 fyAsc
 st d n
 (C) Pu = 0.4 fck Ac + 0.67 fyAsc
(B) m cbc n
(D) Pu = fck Ac + fyAsc
 st d n
 123. All columns shall be designed
(C) m cbc n
for an eccentricity not less than
m cbc n
 l b l b
 
(D)  st d n
(A) 30 500 (B) 500 30
119. The factor of safely fur
l b l b
(A) steel and concrete are same
(B) steel is lower than that for (C) 500 (D) 800
concrete 124. Number of rivets required in a
(C) steel is higher than that for joint is equal to
concrete Load
(D) no relation
(A) Shear strength of rivet
120. Choose the correct answer : Load
In a member subjected to an
axial tensile force and bending (B) Rivet value
Load
moment the maximum
allowable stress in axial tension (C) Bearing strength of rivet
is ft and the maximum Load
allowable bending stress in (D) Working strength of plate

125. For a cantilever slab the span to Of these statements :
effective depth ratio should not (A) I alone is correct.
exceed (B) I, and II are correct.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) I, II and III are correct
(C) 7 (D) 4 (D) All are correct
130. The clear cover for a RCC beam
126. For economic spacing of trusses,
the cost of truss should be equal is usually
to (A) 20 mm (B) 25 mm
(A) cost of purlins + cost of roof (C) 30 mm (D) 35 mm
covering 131. Assertion (A): A stress isobar is
(B) cost of purlins + 2 × cost of a line which connects all points
roof covering below the ground surface of
(C) cost of roof covering equal stress.
(D) 2 × cost of purlins + cost of Reason (R) : Stress isobar is a
roof covering stress contour.
127. The deflection of a prismatic
Codes:
beam may be decreased by
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
(A) increasing the depth of
and (R) is the correct
beam
(B) increasing the span explanation of (A).
(C) decrease the depth of beam (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(D) decrease the width of beam but (R) is not a correct
128. The minimum cube strength of explanation of (A).
concrete used for a prestresscd (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
member is (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(A) 5 N/mm2 131. For the design of steel stacks,
(B) 15 N/mm2 the thickness of the steel plates
(C) 25 N/mm2
is increased by
(A) 1.0 mm (B) l.5 mm
129. Consider the sta1ements :
(C) 2.0 mm (D) 2.5 mm
Prestressed concrete structures
are most economical 133. Choose the incorrect statement
I. Prestressed concrete Combined Trapezoidal footing
structures suitable for long are provided
spans. 1. to avoid eccentricity of loading
II. Prestressed concrete with respect to the base.
structures are subjected to 2. when the space outside the
heavy loads. exterior column is limited.
III. Prestressed concrete 3. when the exterior column
structures are subjected to
carries the heavier load
impact and vibrations.
Of these statements :

(A) 1 and 2 are correct 140. An ephemeral stream is
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (A) one which always carries
(C) 2 and 3 are correct some flow.
(D) 1 and 3 are correct (B) one which carries only
134. A pre-messed concrete induces snowmelt water
artificially ______ stresses in a (C) one which has limited
structure before it is loaded. contribution of ground
(A) tensile water.
(B) shear (D) one which does not have
(C) compressive any base flow contribution
(D) all of the above 141. Assertion (A) : Ground water
135. Darcy‟s Law is for from artesian wells is a good
(A) Open channel flow source.
(B) Diffusion Reason (R) : It contains no
(C) Underground motion of suspended matter and no
water bacteria. It requires lesser
(D) Evaporation of surface treatment.
water Codes:
136. pH value of drinking water (A) (A) and (R) both are not
should be in the range of correct
(A) 1 to 2 (B) 3 to 6 (B) (A) and (R) both are correct
(C) 6.5 to 8.5 (D) 8.6 to 10 (C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
137. A hydrograph is a plot of
(D) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(A) Precipitation against time
142. An aquiclude is
(B) Direct runoff against time
(A) a non-artesian aquifer
(C) Stream flow against time
(B) an artesian aquifer
(D) Surface runoff against time
(C) a confined bed of
138. Geological formations that do
impervious material
not contain ground water at all
between aquifers
are called
(D) a large water body
(A) aquifuges (B) aquitards
underground
(C) aquicludes (D) aquifers
143. Which of the following
139. When the base flow is separated
operation washes out salts from
from the storm-hydrograph the
the upper zone of the soil ?
resulting plot is known as
(A) Evapotranspiration
(A) excess-runoff hydrograph
(B) Separation
(B) excess-rainfall hydrograph
(C) Washing
(C) direct-runoff hydrograph
(D) Leaching
(D) direct-rainfall hyetograph

144. An aquifer confined at the 150. The hydrology is a science
bottom but not at the top is which deals with the
known as (A) occurrence of water on the
(A) perched aquifer earth
(B) unconfined aquifer (B) distribution of water on the
(C) confined aquifer earth
(D) semi-confined aquifu (C) movement of water on the
145. A work which carries one earth
channel over another without
the bed level of the lower
151. A Hydraulic jump is formed
channel, is called
when
(A) Aquaduct
(A) a sub-critical flow strikes
(B) super passage
against a super-critical flow
(C) Siphon
(B) a super-critical flow strikes
(D) Hybrid channel
against a sub-critical flow.
146. The top of‟ a weir or spillway, is
called (C) the two flows of super-
(A) Peak (B) Crest critical velocity meet each
(C) Ridge (D) Head other.
147. Which canal is used to drain off (D) the two flows of sub-critical
water from water logged areas? velocity meet each other
(A) Ditch canal 152. The salinity in water
(B) Drain canal (A) reduces the evaporation
(C) Perennial canal (B) does not affect evaporation
(D) Percolation canal (C) increases the evaporation
148. The volume of water which can (D) first reduce, then increases
be extracted by force of gravity 153. An effective way to conduct
from a unit volume of aquifer “Origin and Destination” study is
material is termed as (A) Road side interview
(A) porosity (B) Licence plate method
(B) specific retention (C) Return post card method
(C) specific yield (D) Tag on car method
(D) specific storage 154. Traffic density is
149. The canals constructed for the
(A) Number of vehicles moving
diversion of flood water rivers
in a specific direction per
is called
lane per day.
(A) Flood canal
(B) Number of vehicles moving
(B) Inundation canal
in a specific direction per
(C) Drain
hour.
(D) Ridge canal

(C) Number of vehicles per unit List – I List – II
length. (a) PCU value for car 1. 3
(D) Maximum number of (b) Minimum lateral 2. 10
vehicles passing a given clearance desirable from
point in one hour. pavement
155. A Channelization Island should (c) Area of acute vision 3. 1.00
have (d) Traffic sign should be 4.1.85
(A) small entry radius and large placed within a cone of
exist radius (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) large entry radius and small (A) 4 3 2 1
exit radius (B) 1 2 3 4
(C) equal radii for entry and (C) 3 4 1 2
exit (D) 4 1 2 3
(D) large entry and exit radii 160. In case of multi lane road,
156. Speed regulation on roads is overtaking is generally
decided on the basis of permitted from
(A) 60 percentile cumulative (A) left side only
frequency (B) right side only
(B) 75 percentile cumulative (C) both sides
frequency (D) none of the above
(C) 80 percentile cumulative 161. The purpose of "Divisional
frequency Island” is to eliminate
(D) 85 percentile cumulative (A) Nose to Tail collision
frequency (B) Head on Collision
157. At a 4 arm intersection, 16 cross (C) Side Surpe
conflict points are serve if (D) Tail to Tail Collision
(A) Both are one way roads. 162. Roy is Ideally suited
(B) Both are two way roads. (A) when traffic from more
(C) One is two way and other is than 4 streams join at the
one way road. junction
(D) None of these. (B) when traffic is heavy
158. The value of maximum gradient (C) when pedestrian traffic is
for hill roads is heavy
(A) 1 in 5 (B) 1 in 10 (D) for congested areas
(C) 1 in 15 (D) 1 in 20 163. The Indian Road Congress came
159. Match List – I with List – II and into existence in
select the correct answer by (A) 1927 (B) 1934
using the code given below: (C) 1943 (D) 1947

164. The roads connecting one town (B) 8 and, soil and binder
with another town is designated (C) bitumen, soil and binder
as (D) cornet, soil and binder
(A) National Highway 169. The value of group index of a
(B) State Highway soil varies from
(C) District Roads (A) 40 10 50 (B) 0 10 20
(D) Village Roads (C) 20 to 10 (D) 10 to 40
165. The widening of a road is not l70. When the coefficient of friction
required when its radius will be
is neglected, the maximum rate
(A) less than 300 m
of super elevation is given by
(B) less than 460 m
V2 V2
(C) more than 300 m
(D) more than 460 m (A) 127R (B) 227R
166. Which one of the following is V2 V2
correctly matched? (C) 225R (D) 125R
(a) Overall length 1. Lane width 171. Match the following:
of vehiele (a) Thorough 1. localized
(b) Weight of the 2. Pavement maintenance of heaving up
vehicle thickness earthem road along
(c) Width of the 3. Clearance of the
done pavement
vehicle subway or
portion
underpass
(b) Repairs work 2. after rainy
(d) Height of the 4. Turning radius
of cement season
vehicle of curve
concrete road
(a) (b) (c) (d)
is done
(A) 4 2 1 3
(c) Patching 3. after summer
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 3 1 4 should be done season
(D) 1 2 3 4 (d) Frost heaving 4. after rainy
167. While testing a soil, thread lest is season
is conducted in the field in (a) (b) (c) (d)
order to find out (A) 3 2 1 4
(A) liquid limit (B) 2 3 4 1
(B) bearing limit (C) 3 1 2 4
(C) shrinkage limit (D) 4 3 2 1
(D) plastic limit 172. At places of heavy rainfall, side
168. The different material used for drains to be provided on a road
road construction are should be
(A) stone aggregate, soil and (A) trapezoidal in section
binder (B) triangular in section

(C) rectangular in section (C) Lowest point of the landing
(D) circular in sec1ion area
173. The first railway train in India (D) None of these
ran between 179. The taxiway is the strip of
(A) Bombay and Thana pavement which connects
(B) Howrah and Raniganj
(A) City to the airport
(C) Madras and Bangalore
(B) Runway to apron
(D) Calcutta and Delhi
174. Broad Gauge (in Railways) is (C) Terminal Building to Taxi
(A) 1676 mm (B) 1524 mm stand
(C) 1435 mm (D) 1000 mm (D) None of the above
175. The object of double headed rail 180. Pick out the odd.
is to Airport are classified on the
(A) provide symmetrical basis of
section about both (A) Runway length
horizontal vertical axes. (B) Pavement strength
(B) use both the flanges for (C) Expected Air traffic
riding
(C) employ chairs to hold the
181. Pick out the incorrect statement:
rail
(D) gain more vertical stiffness (A) Every port is a harbour but
176. Coning of wheels is provided the reverse is not true.
(A) to give dynamic stability of (B) An isolated enclosed area
the rolling stock for handling of cargo to be
(B) to prevent lateral slip reshipped without the
(C) to save materials of wheels intervention of customs is
(D) to suit super elevation on called free port.
curves (C) A location where foreign
177. In railway switch is citizens and goods are
(A) Tongue rail
cleared through custom
(B) Stock rail
house is called entry port.
(C) Combination of both
(D) The essential requirement
tongue and stock rail
(D) Tongue and stock rail of the harbour of refugee is
combination but separated spacious accommodation
by flange way for the mercantile marine.
178. Airport elevation is the reduced 182. The traffic volume is equal to
level about MSL of Traffic density
(A) Control tower (A) Trafficspeed
(B) Highest point of the landing Trafficspeed
area
(B) Traffic density

(C) Traffic density  Traffic (A) a merge
speed (B) a burst
(D) None of these (C) an activity
183. Resource smoothening means (D) none of the above
(A) Gradual increase in 187. The occurrence of the
resources completion of an activity is
(B) Optimisation and called its
economical utilization of (A) Head event
resources (B) Tail event
(C) Complete distribution of
(C) Dual role event
resources
188. A dummy activity
184. Cost slope of the direct cost
(A) has no tail event but only a
curve is given by
head event
Crash cost  Normal cost
(B) has only head event but no
(A) Crash time
tail event
Normal cost  Crash cost
(C) does not require any
(B) Normal time
resources or any time
Crash cost  Normal cost
(D) consumes time and
(C) Normal time  Crash time
resources
Normal cost  Crash cost
189. „Which of the following
(D) Crash time
statements is true?
185. Slack is given as the difference
(A) PERT is activity oriented
between
and adopts probabilistic
(A) Earliest expected time and
latest allowable time. approach
(B) Final event time and initial (B) CPM is event oriented and
event time. adopts deterministic
(C) Latest allowable time and approach
earliest expected time. (C) CPM is activity oriented
(D) Final event time and initial and adopts probabilistic
event time. approach
186. What does the following figure (D) PERT is event oriented and
indicate? adopts probabilistic
approach
190. In computer terminology virus
is
(A) Disease affecting computer

(B) Viral infection caused due (A) 2 1 4 3
to accumulation of dust on (B) 1 2 3 4
computers (C) 2 4 1 3
(C) An unsolicitated software (D) 3 4 1 2
programme corrupting the 195. Common output devices are
system (A) Magnetic tape
(D) None of the above (B) C.R. Tube
191. Microprocessor is an (C) Printers
(A) Electronic Machine (D) All of the above
196. C.P.U. means
(B) Electronic Chip
(A) Central Processing Unit
(C) Electro Magnetic Processor
(B) Computing Processing Unit
(C) Computing Processing Unit
192. A flow chart is ____ of the
(D) All of the above
sequence of the steps to he
197. Expansion of ROM is
followed in a solution of a
(A) Read Only Memories
(A) Pictorial depiction
(B) Read Output Memories
(B) Problem formulation
(C) Random Only Memories
(C) Testing the program (D) All of the above
(D) Documentation 198. A standard key board has
193. The screen image in a Visual (A) 103 keys (B) 105 keys
Display Unit (VDU), is (C) 110 keys (D) 104 keys
(A) Tiny-dots 199. Odd one out
(B) Picture elements (A) DOS (B) Windows
(C) Pixels (C) Linux (D) FoxPro
(D) All of the above 200. In computer terminology WAN
194. Match the following : refers to
Basic Electronic (A) Wide Area Network
Generation
Component (B) Wide Access Network
(a) First 1. Transistors (C) Wavelength Network
Generation (D) None of the above
(b) Second 2. Vacuum tube
Generation
(c) Third 3. Large scale
Generation integrated circuits
(d) Fourth 4. Integrated
Generation circuits
(a) (b) (c) (d)

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PREVIOUS YEARS

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4. the depth where the bh3 bh3

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| GATE| ESE |TNPSC - AE | TRB | SOFTWARES |9994102301, 8015512131 ~ 45 ~

| GATE| ESE |TNPSC - AE | TRB | SOFTWARES |9994102301, 8015512131 ~ 46 ~

| GATE| ESE |TNPSC - AE | TRB | SOFTWARES |9994102301, 8015512131 ~ 47 ~

| GATE| ESE |TNPSC - AE | TRB | SOFTWARES |9994102301, 8015512131 ~ 48 ~

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| GATE| ESE |TNPSC - AE | TRB | SOFTWARES |9994102301, 8015512131 ~ 55 ~