CET 2020 Expected Question Paper by CK Cetking MAH MBA MMS CET 2020 PDF PDF

CET Question Paper Page 1
VERBAL ABILITY
Read the following passage and answer the following questions based on the given passage.
There is no longer any room for doubt on the parlous state of the Indian economy. The automobile industry,
seen as a bellwether of activity in the post-liberalization years, is in crisis, as automakers, parts
manufacturers and dealers have laid off about 350,000 workers since April this year, with more job cuts
likely. While this could still reflect falling demand only from higher income groups, recently, Parle
Products, once the world’s largest selling biscuit brands, announced that it may have to lay off up to 10,000
workers (around a tenth of its workforce). The company blamed falling sales due to the Goods and Services
Tax (GST) that led to higher prices of the cheapest small packets of biscuits at a time of extreme price
sensitivity because of reduced livelihood, especially among rural consumers.
Sales in the fast-moving consumer goods (FMCG) sector as a whole grew at only 10% in the April-June
quarter of this year, less than nominal GDP growth. The slowdown in sales is across the food and non-food
items, with the biggest reductions in salty snacks and biscuits, spices, soaps, and packaged tea. These
represent the more discretionary element of consumer spending even among the poor — the items more
likely to be cut down when household budgets are under strain.
The hugely damaging impact of demonetization on November 2016 was further accentuated by the poor
implementation of the GST barely seven months later. These badly managed policy measures served as
body blows to informal economic activity, causing major declines in employment and output. At first, they
did not affect formal enterprises so much as they gained at the cost of informal ones. But the resulting loss
in livelihoods and wage incomes eventually had an effect on demand for formal sector output, which has
worsened over time because there have been no counterbalancing moves by the government. Total
employment actually declined by more than 15 million workers between 2011-12 and 2017-18, even as
unemployment rates reached their highest levels in nearly half a century.
This operated in addition to a medium-term trend of wage suppression, something that was even celebrated
by the late former Finance Minister Arun Jaitley as a means of combating inflation. Rural wages have been
stagnant or declining in the recent period. Meanwhile, the continuing crisis of cultivation has obviously
affected the purchasing power of the farming community. Urban wage incomes are also apparently not
keeping pace with inflation, even as informal activity and “start-ups” in urban areas have faltered.
The government could have countered this adverse impact of declining employment and consumer demand,
which in turn reduced the profit expectations of producers informal enterprises, by providing a fiscal
stimulus. It did not do so. Instead, it kept assuming or hoping that using optical measures — manipulating
“Ease of Doing Business” indicators and offering further incentives to foreign capital to attract more
inflows, however volatile — would somehow attract investment into the economy that would counteract all
the negative impulses.
Private investors simply kept demanding more fiscal and regulatory concessions even as they continued to
sit on investment plans as they waited for overall demand improvement. More recent complaints of the
private corporate sector have been about oppressive tax collection methods of a government desperate to
meet its revenue targets. But these along with the greater difficulties of accessing loans from both banks
and non-banks are irritants that would have been tolerated in a buoyant economy. They have become
serious issues now because of the wider stagnation.
In this context, the Finance Minister’s recent announcements of measures to boost the flagging economy
are not a case of “too little too late”; rather, they completely miss the point. They do nothing to address the
issue of inadequate demand generation or the underlying tendencies of wage suppression and low
employment growth. Instead, they once again reveal a supply-side approach to the problem, which is
unlikely to yield much benefit.
Even these measures are mostly cosmetic or affect only a small segment of the economy, not enough to
cause any real change in economic direction. The capital infusion of ₹70,000 crore into public sector banks
had already been announced in the Budget; frontloading this inadequate amount is not going to rev up an
economy if those whom banks are willing to lend to are hesitant to invest. Giving in to demands of foreign
portfolio investors about taxation likewise does nothing to increase domestic demand; it simply provides
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some solace to the stock market. The middle classes repaying home loans may see a minor benefit if banks
actually do pass on lower interest rates, but this too will not provide a major boost to the economy. The
decision of the government to buy more cars to shore up the automobile industry is bizarre in the extreme
because it undermines the medium-term strategy of shifting to electric vehicles as soon as possible.
What could the Finance Minister have done instead? If the immediate problem is lack of demand, the
immediate response should be to increase it — ideally in ways that provide the desired basis for future
economic growth.
Q1. According to the above passage, what does the highlighted phrase ‘bellwether of activity’ infer?
(a) One of the leading industries in post-liberalization years
(b) Leading all the industries
(c) Bellwether the activities
(d) Leading Indian Economy
(e) None of these
Q2. As given in the above passage, what does the phrase ‘laid off’ mean?
(a) Laying off the entire industry
(b) Permanently terminating the employment of employees due to business reasons
(c) Calling off certain activities within an organization
(d) Checking for any malfunctions in the company
(e) None of these
Q3. What are the causes of the credit system mess, a factor in a current slowdown?
(a) An overhang of banks’ bad debts
(b) Erosion of non-banks after the collapse of Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services Limited.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Finance stress inherited from UPA government
(e) None of these
Q4. The poor implementation of GST affected the demand for formal sector output?
(a) Blowing informal economic activities
(b) Huge declination in employment and output
(c) Loss in livelihoods
(d) Reduction in wage incomes
(e) All of the above
Q5. According to the above passage, what steps the government took to deal with the decline in
employment as well as consumer demand?
(a) It manipulated indicators of ‘ease of doing business’
(b) It offered incentives to foreign capital for attracting more inflows
(c) It assumed that attracting investment into the economy would be able to counteract negative impulses
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
In the following questions, a word is given in bold followed by three sentences. Choose the
appropriate option mentioning the sentence(s) that uses the highlighted word in a grammatically
correct and contextually meaningful
manner.
Q6.
Internecine
(I) This was a bitter internecine warfare within the CBI, and the government’s discomfiture was clear.
(II) Hardly has the din in the election fray subsided, and the internecine squabbles in the Congress are
assuming feverish pitch once again.
(III) Flooded with multiple applications for every vacancy, school internecine are going the corporate way
to recruit new staff.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
Q7.
Misconceived
(I) The government should also misconceived contract, casual and “honorary” jobs and make them regular
jobs.
(II) I would suggest you have some misconceived conceptions about the gentility of World War II, or
certainly its portrayal to the public.
(III) You may regard some decisions as misconceived and wrong-headed, but we must have an
authoritative structure to preserve the rule of law.
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
Q8.
Wanton
(I) If one were to believe those in-charge of this wanton destruction, permission has been taken from the
Delhi Forest Department.
(II) Mr. Khalilzad had disclosed that he had reached an “in principle” wanton with the Taliban, but the
details have not been revealed.
(III) But the Taliban has been continually engaging in a series of wanton attacks against civilians
throughout the course of the talks that the U.S. had with the group in Qatar.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three options which can be used to form a
single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the
statements.
Q9.
(I) Lack of demand and major supply-side bottlenecks are being the primary issues facing exports and real
estate.
(II) It is doubtful whether the present measures will be enough to revive these flailing sectors.
(i) With lack of demand………………..
(ii) It is doubtful…………
(iii) Since is it is doubtful……….
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)

(c) Both (iii) and (i)
(d) Only (i)
(e) None of these
Q10.
(I) There are no options available to the government to deal with the present crisis.
(II) The government has been relying almost entirely on providing fiscal relief in the form of tax cuts.
(i) Because of scarcity of options available…..
(ii) As there are no options………..
(iii) As the government has cut……..
(d) Only (i)
(e) None of these
Q11.
(I) The government promised structural reforms when it rose to power in 2014.
(II) Structural reforms are a far cry from what many expected from the government.
(i) As soon as structural reforms are a far……….
(ii) Since these are a far cry………
(iii) Though government promised………….
(d) Only (iii)
(e) None of these
Q12.
(I) It is crucial for media to show solidarity towards its own.
(II) The media should improve working conditions for those on margins.
(i) While improving working conditions………….
(ii) Being crucial for media to show………..
(iii) However media to show……..
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it. Some words are
highlighted to help you to answer some of the questions.
For a party that had appeared to be lost in the political wilderness over the past few years,
the Congress has plenty to cheer about following the results in the recent round of Assembly elections. In
the three Hindi-speaking States, where it was locked in a direct contest with the Bharatiya Janata Party, the
Congress has performed more than creditably, raising hopes of a revival of fortunes as the country gears up
for the general election in 2019. A measure of how much of a reversal this is for the BJP can be gauged by
comparing this result with that of the 2014 Lok Sabha election, when the BJP won 62 of the 65
parliamentary seats in the three States. If the Congress struggled to breast the tape in Rajasthan and
Madhya Pradesh, it was because independents and smaller parties registered a few surprise victories. If the
results are interpreted as pointers on how the 2019 election will play out, then the Congress may be still
short of where it would like to be. But the results may well infuse the party leadership with the confidence
that it is on the comeback trail. The best news for the Congress was of course Chhattisgarh. The presence of
a third front in the form of the Janta Congress Chhattisgarh, led by former Chief Minister Ajit Jogi, and the
Bahujan Samaj Party, which took away a chunk of the anti-incumbency votes, did nothing to deny the
Congress a big win. Chhattisgarh had voted overwhelmingly for the BJP in 2014, giving it 10 of the 11
seats, and the dramatic reversal in fortunes must have shocked the BJP. But the Congress can also take
heart from the performance in Madhya Pradesh, a much larger State that sends 29 members to the Lok
Sabha. Although there was not much that separated the two parties in terms of vote share, the Congress can
reasonably believe that the momentum is with it. In Rajasthan, where it performed stunningly in by-
elections, and where anti-incumbency sentiment was believed to be riding high, the Congress, despite its
victory, may regard its own performance as sub-par. For the BJP, the setback in Rajasthan, which has not
been kind to the incumbent from 1998 onward, was no surprise. Despite conceding a substantial number of
Assembly seats, the party can take solace from the fact that the difference in vote share between it and the
Congress was minuscule. However, looking forward, the BJP will be worried that the results will
encourage the Congress and the BSP to come together in an electoral embrace. In Madhya Pradesh, the
BSP has demonstrated its strength, or at the very least its capacity to be a spoiler. An alliance of the
Samajwadi Party, the BSP and the Congress that extends beyond Uttar Pradesh to Madhya Pradesh can
seriously alter the political landscape of the region. As for the BJP, the results are an opportunity to
introspect. Not just on the performance of its governments in the State, but also the performance of the
Narendra Modi government at the Centre. To reduce the results of the Hindi-speaking States to the
intangible anti-incumbency sentiment would be a mistake. After all, both Chhattisgarh Chief Minister
Raman Singh and Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan survived two elections as
incumbents. A potent mix of rural distress and urban angst seem to have contributed to the erosion in the
BJP’s support base. Farmers suffered disproportionately and for longer following demonetisation, and
small traders in urban areas have felt handicapped by the
straitjacket of the Goods and Services Tax. Both demonetisation and the Goods and
Services Tax were implemented by the Centre. It may be tempting to think that aggressive cow vigilantism
and the Ram temple will influence voter behaviour, but these elections underline it is livelihood concerns
that really matter. The BJP will need to tackle issues of employment and development with better intent if it
is to arrest the slide. The first term of a Prime Minister is won on promise, but the second term will have to
be won on performance. Not even Narendra Modi is an exception to this.
Q13. How does the author express her/his opinion on the performance of the
Congress in the Rajasthan Assembly elections?
A. The performance of Congress in Rajasthan was exemplary.
B. The performance of Congress in Rajasthan was bad compared to the last elections.
C. The performance of Congress in Rajasthan was below average level.
D. The Congress failed to make a mark in Rajasthan.
E. None of the above
Q14. Which of the following statements can be considered as a sarcastic comment on

Narendra Modi and/or BJP and/or government at the Centre?
(I) The BSP has demonstrated its strength, or at the very least its capacity to be a
spoiler.
(II) The BJP will need to tackle issues of employment and development with better
intent.
(III) The first term of a Prime Minister is won on promise, but the second term will have
to be won on performance. Not even Narendra Modi is an exception to this.
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Only (II)
D. All of (I), (II) & (III)

E. Both (II) & (III)
Q15. As per the author, which of the followings illustrate the reasons for the BJP
losing popularity?
(I) Demonetisation
(II) The Goods and Services Tax
(III) Concerns for livelihood
(IV) Aggressive cow vigilantism and the issue of Ram temple
A. (I), (II) and (III)
B. (I), (II) and (IV)
C. (II) and (IV)
D. (I) and (II)
E. All of (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
Q16. The criticism ‘Farmers suffered disproportionately and for longer following
demonetisation, and small traders in urban areas have straitjacket of the Goods and
Services Tax’ chiefly targets whom?
A. BJP government in the state of Chhattisgarh
B. BJP government at the centre
C. BJP government in the state of Rajasthan
D. BJP government in the state of Madhya Pradesh
E. All of the above
Q17. Which of the following words illustrates the emotion of the author toward BJP
losing the assembly elections in Rajasthan?
A. Shock
B. Grief
C. Happiness
D. Obvious
E. None of the above
In the following questions two sentences is given with one blank. The sentence is then provided with
five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as your
answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option. If none of the given
options fills the given blanks then choose option (e), ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Q18.
(I) A major obstacle to good governance is the entrenched lack of ___________ within the government.
(II) We must have learned from past that transparency and ______________ are of the utmost of
importance.
(a) Accountability
(b) Persistent
(c) Benign
(d) Cavelier
(e) None of these
Q19.
(I) This is a body of new work George has produced over the last twelve months which intrigue and
__________ the viewer.
(II) Along with the already restored Rolls Royce, the timeless Napier’s cars are set to __________ visitors.
(a) Consequential
(b) Bewitch
(c) Annul
(d) Corollary
(e) None of these
Q20.
(I) The Kerala Chief Minister dismissed as __________ the claim that Hindi was a unifying force
(II) Mo Yan, a writer who enjoyed delving into the realms of the ________, must be feeling like he stepped
into one of his novels.
(a) Dissent
(b) Foregone
(c) Absurd
(d) Ironically
(e) None of these
Q21.
(I) Men may refuse the challenge of trying to right a ship on the verge of ___________, preferring to wait
for an easier test.
(II) A boat ___________ near Rajamahendravaram, happens all of a sudden and passengers are caught
unawares.
(a) Incentivize
(b) Incomprehensible
(c) Inhibit
(d) Capsize
(e) None of these
Given below the sentences each of which has been divided into four parts Each of the questions is
then followed by the five options which give the sequence of the rearranged parts. You must choose
the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the
correct sequence or the correct sequence doesn’t match with any of the given sequence, mark option
(e).i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
Q22. on multiple fronts and in the realm (A)/ the government’s failures are evident (B)/ every
neighboring country is under strain(C)/ of foreign policy, India’s relationship with (D)/ No
arrangement required (E)
(a) BDCA
(b) BACD
(c) BADC
(d) BDAC
(e) None of the above
Q23. to make sense of the government’s claims ( (A)/ the media takes the lead in B)/through the
clutter of official rhetoric (C)/ providing credible information and cuts (D)/ No arrangement required
(E)
(a) BDAC
(b) BACD
(c) ACBD
(d) BDCA
Q24. of voices from Kashmir expressing alienation (A)/ there is a growing silence (B)/ states among
many things that (C)/ Mr. Raghavan should read this report, which (D)/ No arrangement required
(E)
(a) DCBA
(b) BACD
(c) ACBD
(d) BDCA
Q25. stands out like a sore thumb (A)/ into the Nuclear Suppliers Group (B)/ economies, the failure
to gain entry (C)/ in the area of cooperation with developed (D)/ No arrangement required (E)
(a) DABC
(b) DCBA
(c) DACB
(d) CDBA
In each of the following questions below, a sentence is given with some bold words which may contain
errors. Below each of the sentence, a table is given with two columns in which column ‘A’ contains
the list of bold words, and in column ‘B’ the suggested corrections are listed. You have to choose the
best alternative among the four given options. If no correction is required against any given bold
word, mark (e),.i.e. “None of the above” as your answer.
Q26.Though the hottest move will surely lower the interest cost on new floating rate loans availed by
borrowers to buy cars or homes, it may force banks to start hurtful the interest rate.
Column A
(1) Hottest
(2) Floating
(3) Borrowers
(4) Hurtful
Column B
(5) Latest
(6) Detached
(7) Pledgers
(8) Cutting
(a) Both (1-5) and (4-8)

(b) Only (3-7)
(c) Only (2-8)
(d) Both (3-5) and (2-8)
Q27. Hepatitis B infection at a young age turns chronic, causing over 1,00,000 overdue deaths annually
from liver cirrhosis or liver cancer.
Column A
(1) Infection
(2) Chronic
(3) Overdue
(4) Cancer
Column B
(5) Dirt
(6) Fleeting
(7) Premature
(8) Cancerous
(a) Both (1-5) and (4-8)

(b) Only (3-7)
(c) Only (2-8)
(d) Both (3-5) and (2-8)
Q28. In a consumption-oriented environmental, the kind of idealism school teaching requires is not easy for
a young person to cultivate and sustains.
Column A
(1) Environmental
(2) Teaching
(3) Young
(4) Sustains
Column B
(5) Environment
(6) Teach
(7) Youth
(8) Sustain
(a) Both (1-5) and (4-8)

(b) Only (3-7)
(c) Only (2-8)
(d) Both (3-5) and (2-8)
Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number (A, B, C or D) of this part is your answer. If
there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice.
Q29. People of my generation (A) /who lived through World War II (B)/ have vividly memories(C)/ of
confusion and incompetence (D). /No Error
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d)D
(e) None of these.
Q30. The bank will lend (A) / your company almost (B)/quite a huge sum of money(C)/ on very
favourable terms(D). /No Error
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these.
Q31. One of my (A) /earliest childhood memory (B)/is of my mother reading(C)/ stories to me by the fire
(D)./No Error
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of these.
In the following questions a paragraph is given with two blanks. The paragraph is then provided
with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as your
answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option. If none of the given
options fills the given blanks then choose option (e), ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Q32. Given the scenario, it is ____________ for New Delhi to not adopt a zero-sum game approach and
objectively contextualise the Indo-Japan strategic partnership ___________ interchangeable variables of
the emerging strategic equation.
(a) pertinent, amidst
(b) virtue, criticized
(c) calamity, reverenced
(d) reliable , evolving
(e) None of these.
Q33. Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Japan as part of the 13th Annual Summit on October 28-29,
2018, has shed light on the evolving ______________ of the Indo-Japan bilateral relationship against the
_______________ of a changing but volatile global order.
(a) gutted, engulfed
(b) direct, extra
(c) dynamics, backdrop
(d) perfect, retrogades
(e) None of these.
Q34. Most stock market commentators are extremely _____________ and attempt to find a
______________ to every bad news.
(a) follow, plan
(b) designed, anticipation
(c) degree, appreciation
(d) optimistic, silver lining
(e) None of these.
Q35. If the UK exits the European Union without a deal, it is likely to adversely _____________ the
country as well as the foreign companies ______________ out of the UK.
(a) escalation, elitist
(b) impact, operating
(c) encouraged, reinforce
(d) visualize, hidden
(e) None of these.
In the questions given below few sentences are given which are grammatically correct and
meaningful. Connect them by the word given above the statements in the best possible way without
changing the intended meaning. Choose your answer accordingly from the options to form a correct,
coherent sentence.
Q36.
WHILE
(A) Ambiguity may be a good tactic in diplomacy at times
(B) Mr. Khan has even spoken about the possibility of a nuclear war
(C) This occasion warrants stated clarity that India does not seek conflict
(D) A Minister went to the extent of announcing a time frame for starting a war
(a) Only A-B
(b) Only A-C
(c) Both B-D and A-C
(d) Only A-D
(e) None of these
Q37.
SO THAT
(A) All research is easily tagged and categorizable
(B) It could be safely moved to a different area
(C) Researchers can filter through their many files to find the one they were looking for
(D) They tranquilized the bear with a dart
(a) Only A-B
(b) Both A-C and D-B
(c) Both B-C and A-D
(d) Only A-D
(e) None of these
Q38.
PROVIDED THAT
(A) He is willing to give the formula for free to any country that asks
(B) They agree to lay down their arms and live in peace
(C) Farmers ask for government help
(D) They cannot harvest their crops after a drought.
(a) Only A-B
(c) Both A-B and C-D
(d) Only A-D
(e) None of these
Q39.
AS THOUGH
(A) She gazes toward, but beyond the viewer with a slightly wan and wistful smile,
(B) As we descended, my behind bounced off each log we passed
(C) I were a piece of laundry being scrubbed on a washboard.
(D) She has a secret somewhere deep inside.
(a) Only A-B
(c) Both A-D and B-C
(d) Only A-D
(e) None of these
Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed. There are some blanks given in the
passage-based in which some questions are framed, and some words are highlighted as well to help
you answer some of the questions.
Brazil’s Amazon forests are ablaze with dozens of fires, most of them set …………………….(A) by
loggers and others seeking greater access to forest land. How long the fires can continue is unclear. But at
this scale, they are paving the way for a global climate catastrophe.
(B) While European leaders and civil society in many places are encourage (1) protests to oppose policies
that organizing (2) the fires, the Brazilian President Jair Bolsonaro has stated(3) that they are an internal
matter and that they were actually started(4) by the very non-governmental organizations who are now
shouting “fire”.
(C) The American President Donald Trump has withdrew from the Paris Climate Agreement stating that it
is against the national interests of the U.S.
Across the Atlantic, British Prime Minister Boris Johnson, a vocal critic of European integration, has
spoken from both sides of his mouth on climate change, ……………….(D)funding from climate science
denial groups while saying that he would lobby the U.S. to take climate change more seriously.
Meanwhile, many cities in Europe and elsewhere have seen high temperatures never before experienced.
Heatwaves have also accelerated melting of glaciers in Greenland at a rate that was not
……………………..(E) by scientific models until much later this century.
Q40. Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place marked as (A) in the
above passage to make it grammatically correct and meaningful? Also, the word should fill in the two
sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(I) As with other metal systems, copper is ________________ alloyed to improve its strength without
unduly degrading ductility or workability.
(II) People who ______________ starve themselves suffer from an eating disorder called anorexia nervosa.
(a) Intentionally
(b) Apathetic
(c) Rendered
(d) Conferred
(e) Granted
Q41. The sentence given in (B) has four words given in bold. Amongst the given bold words which of
the followings must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful?
(a) 1-4
(b) 2-1
(c) 2-3
(d) 1-3
(e) 2-4
Q42. In the above passage, sentence (C) is italicized. There may or may not be error in one part of
the sentence, select the part having error it in.
(a) the American President Donald Trump
(b) has withdrew from the Paris Climate Agreement
(c) stating that it is against
(d) the national interests of the U.S
(e) None of these
Q43. Which of the following should fill the blank given in (D) to make it contextually correct and
meaningful?
(a) Intimately
(b) Contemplating
(c) Receiving
(d) Distinctively
(e) Weighed
Q44. Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place marked as (E) in the
given passage to make it grammatically correct and meaningful? Also, the word should fill in the two
sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(I) My plan was moving a little quicker than anticipated so I decided to take things slow after the next
step.
(II) In evaluating the justness of any military venture, it’s critical to weigh the anticipated benefits against
the expected costs.
(a) Perished
(b) Demolished
(c) Contended
(d) Anticipated
(e) Alleged
In the following question a part of the sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by four sentences
which try to explain the meaning of the phrase given in bold. Choose the best set of alternatives from
the five options given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly
without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question
Q45. The sales team blamed the engineers for the organization’s failure to bag the mega-deal, but they
were barking up the wrong tree.
(a) The sales team blamed the engineers for the organization’s failure to bag the mega-deal, but they were
looking for a cause to find the reason
(b) The sales team blamed the engineers for the organization’s failure to bag the mega-deal, but they were
mistaken and looking in the wrong place.
(c) The sales team blamed the engineers for the organization’s failure to bag the mega-deal, but they were
trying to find a valid reason behind the failure
(d) The sales team blamed the engineers for the organization’s failure to bag the mega-deal, but they were
conspiring against the engineers.
(e) None of these
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
When we are children growing up, our imagination is the key to untold worlds. And it has
been shown that kids with very active imaginations are more likely to dream and strive for
greater things as adults. It is a sad fact that all too often, as we grow up, we are told to “get
our heads out of the clouds”, to “Stop daydreaming”; and that living in an imaginary world is
not good for us. But stifling your imagination is the worst thing you can do to yourself, as it
will only pave the way for accelerated aging, and all too often a life that feels unfulfilled.
Though many take creativity for granted, it is a trait not possessed by everyone. Many
people are labelled as primarily “right brained” or “left brained” (if such a thing exists): It is
argued that highly intellectual, logical types are less likely to be creative, have less wild
imaginations and are typically rule followers who do not believe in much of anything that
cannot be logically quantified. Regardless of the left brain / right brain argument,
imagination unleashes creativity, allowing you to live a life filled with potential. The creative
individual does not see the sky as the limit, instead the limit is as far as he or she can
imagine. They not only think outside the box, for them there is no box, and so their brains are
constantly challenged, humming and conjuring up all sorts of goodies. Anything the mind
can conjure is good enough to become true, be it work, life, personal goals accomplishments or anything. A
very good trait to cultivate from childhood. Empathy is the act of being truly sympathetic to another person,
without ever actually experiencing what they are going through yourself. Sadly, many people do not know
how to express empathy, and the reason for this is simple; it is not because that person is a bad individual,
or mean spirited. It simply means that individual cannot imagine the feelings of the person experiencing a
particular event, and thus cannot truly relate. Your imagination may leave you in a good position to offer a
shoulder for comfort and support, as you are able to envision going through the same thing as the person
suffering, and thus able to demonstrate what you think a person needs at that time. Being of service towards
other people in that way, promotes your own mental health and emotional well being. Those brain
connections are a part of what makes you who you are, and forming new connections supports memory
functions and keeps the brain vibrant and strong. Your imagination can be a useful tool for strengthening
these connections, in order to form long-term memories. Here are two explanations of how memory works;
an intellectual will harness and strengthen
memory by repetition. Studying work day after day enhances these connections bit by bit, or
via physical practice. On the other hand, someone who uses their imagination may know
something well, and be able to recall everything without seeming to make an effort. Take for
example planning for their wedding. Years and years beforehand, that person could
have meticulously planned and imagined their dream wedding, so that when the actual time
comes, the planning step and what they want pops up like clockwork.
Q46. What, according to the passage, is/are the disadvantage(s) of constraining the
children to be realistic and not imaginative?
(I) it will lead to an unfulfilled life.
(II) They lack empathy
(III) It limits the growth of their brain.
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II)
C. Both (I) and (II)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. All
Q47. “Imagination unleashes Creativity”. Justify.

A. They become sympathetic.
B. They (imaginative people) believe in things that can not be logically quantified.
C. They (imaginative people) set their own limit.
D. It protects us from day dreaming
E. All are correct
Q48. According to the passage, how can a person express empathy?

A. by not being mean spirited
B. by visualising or imagining the same suffering as others.
C. By giving some time to them.
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. All are correct
Q49. Which of the following is an appropriate title of the passage?

A. Harmful effects of stiflings the imagination
B. The power of using your imagination
C. Expressing empathy
D. Imagination and creativity

E. Imagining beyond the limit of the sky.
Q50. According to the passage, Imaginative power helps in

A. thinking creative and original
B. strengthening connections
C. becoming an empathetic person.
D. Fulfill their potential
E. All
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
Q1. Manoj’s monthly salary is 25% more than Mohit’s salary. Mayank’s monthly salary is Rs 1750
more than Mohit’s monthly salary. Sum of Manoj’s, Mayank’s and Mohit’s yearly salary is Rs
3,33,000.
Quantity I: Sum of monthly salary of Manoj and Mohit together
Quantity II: Rs. 20,000
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q2. A bag contains 8 white balls, 13 black balls and 5 green.

Quantity I: Probability that the first ball is white and the second ball is black if two balls are drawn at
random from the bag one after another without replacement.
Quantity II: 6/35
(b) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II
(e) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Q3. Quantity I: Profit share of ‘A’ out of total annual profit of Rs. 56,500. A, B and C enter into a
partnership. ‘A’ invests Rs. 4000 for the whole year, ‘B’ puts in Rs. 6000 initially and increased to Rs.
8000 at the end of 4 months, while C puts initially Rs. 8000 but withdraw Rs. 2000 at the end of 9 months.
Quantity II: Amount which when lend on C.I. at 20% interest being compounded annually for 3 years,
gives total interest equal to Rs.9100
(b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I < Quantity II
(d) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q4. 8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece of work in 6 days. Work done by a man in one
day is double the work done by a woman in one day. 8 men and 4 women started working and after 2
days, 4 men left and 4 new women joined the work.
Quantity I: Number of days required to complete remaining work after 4 men left
Quantity II: 5 days
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
(b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(c) Quantity I < Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II
Q5. The ratio of the age of Tina and Rakesh is 9 : 10 respectively. Ten years ago the ratio of their age
was 4 : 5 respectively.
Quantity I: 22 years
Quantity II: Present age of Rakesh
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Pie-chart given bellow shows the income of five different persons and bar
graph shows the percentage distribution of their income on different things.
Study the question carefully and answer them.
Q6. Who among the following spend maximum amount on food?

(a) D
(b) E
(c) B
(d) C
(e) A
Q7. Amount spend by ‘E’ on furniture is what percent more than amount spend by ‘D’ on
Transportation?
(a) 70%
(b) 45%
(c) 80%
(d) 65%
(e) 60%
Q8. Find the average amount spend by A, B and C on furniture?

(a) 4622
(b) 4626
(c) 4262
(d) 4266
(e) 4662
Q9. ‘D’ buy only three type of food X, Y and Z and amount spend on buying X, Y and Z is in the
ratio 5 : 7 : 8. What is the difference between amount spend on buying Z type food to amount spend
on buying X type food.
(a) 2520
(b) 1680
(c) 8400
(d) 1260
(e) 2100
Q10. Find the ratio of amount spend by ‘A’ and ‘B’ together on food to the amount spend by ‘C’ and
‘D’ together on furniture?
(a) 295 : 277
(b) 277 : 295
(c) 310 : 301
(d) 301 : 305
(e) 301 : 310
Find the wrong number in the given number series questions.

Q11. 900, 648, 516, 452, 420, 404, 396
(a) 396
(b) 900
(c) 404
(d) 648
(e) 452
Q12. 8, 4, 4, 8, 32, 136, 812
(a) 8
(b) 136
(c) 32
(d) 812
(e) 4
Q13. 5 year ago the ratio of ages of A and B was 2 : 3 and after 5 year will be 4 : 5 so what is present
age of A (in years)?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 30
(e) 10
Q14. (X+4) men can complete a work in 2X days while (X+12) women can complete same work in
(X+8) days. If ratio of efficiency of men to women is 5 : 4 then find in how many days 12 men and 15
women together can complete the same work?
(a) 32 days
(b) 16 days
(c) 48 days
(d) 64 days
(e) 80 days
What will come at the place of question mark (?) in given number series :
Q15. 620, 632, 608, 644, 596, ?
(a) 536
(b) 556
(c) 656
(d) 646
(e) 666
Q16. 1400, 1384, 1360, 1300, ?, 145

(a) 960
(b) 240
(c) 540
(d) 1090
(e) 780
Q17. Length of two trains is 210 meters and 240 meters respectively. The ratio between the speed of
longer train to smaller train is 3 : 4 and both cross each other in 90/7 sec, when running in opposite
direction. If length of each compartment is x meters and two more compartments are added in
smaller train, both trains cross each other in 96 sec running in the same direction. Find length of
each compartment?
(a) 15 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 18 m
(d) 16 m
(e) 20 m
Q18.In a right angled triangle of hypotenuse 15 cm, the remaining two sides are in the ratio 3 : 4. If
smaller side is equal to radius and second longer side is equal to height of right circular cylinder, find
volume of cylinder?
(a) 288π
(b) 512π
(c) 972π
(d) 778π
(e) 750π
Study the data carefully & answer the questions.

Table given below shows the total candidate enrolled in 5 different schools and shows the percentage
of unqualified candidates & ratio between the qualified male to qualified female in each school.
Note : 1. Total candidates enrolled = total qualified candidates + total unqualified candidates .
2. Some data are missing in table, find missing data is necessary.
Q19. If the qualified male in school B is 200 and qualified female in school C is 40% of unqualified
candidates in school C, then find ratio of qualified male of C to qualified female in school B ?
(a) 176 : 150
(b) 176 : 125
(c) 96 : 113
(d) 93 : 125
(e) Cannot be determined
Q20. If total candidate in school D is 75% more than qualified candidate in school C. Then
unqualified candidates in school D is what percentage of total candidates in school A.
Q21.If average of total candidates of all the 5 schools is 1300 and qualified females in school B is 250
then find the average of qualified males in school D and Qualified females in school E. (Given that
ratio of qualified males to qualified females in school E is 2 : 1)
(a) 250
(b) 350
(c) 325
(d) 375
(e) 275
Q22. If ratio of qualified males in school A to qualified males in school C is 2:3 and qualified females
in school A is 150, then qualified candidates in school A is what percentage more/less than Qualified
females in school C.
Q23.If qualified candidates School D is 400 more than qualified candidates in school E then find total
qualified candidates in school D & C together?
(a) 2405
(b) 2345
(c) 1715
(d) 2225
(e) 1820
The following questions are accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to determine
which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
Q24 . If (X + 6) man work for seven days on work ‘A’ , what part of work will remain?
I . X man work for 12 days and remaining work complete by (X + 14) man in days.
II . Ratio of work did by X man to (X + 14) man is 3 : 11.
(a) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to
answer the questions.
(b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
(c) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q25. A bag contains some red balls , five green balls and 7 yellow balls. Find number of red balls in
the bag.
I . If one ball drawn from the bag at random, then probability of being green is 5/16.
II . If one ball drawn from bag at random, then probability of being either red or yellow is 11/16.
Q26. A shopkeeper bought a jeans at the price of ‘2x’. Find the profit of shopkeeper (In Rs.)
I . Shopkeeper sold jeans at 20% profit after allowing two successive discounts of 20% & 4%
respectively and difference between marked price and cost price is Rs. 810.
II . Cost price of a shirt is 75% of cost price of jeans and the difference of CP of shirt and CP of jeans
is Rs. 360. Shopkeeper marks up jeans by 56.25% and allows a discount of 23.2%.
Q27. What is annual salary of Anurag?

I. If Anurag deposited 45% of his monthly salary at the rate of 20% half yearly for one year at
compound interest, then he will get an amount which is Rs. 88 less than his remaining monthly
salary.
II. If Anurag divided 55% of his annual salary between his son & daughter in the ratio of 13 : 11,
then difference between remaining annual salary of Anurag and share of his son will Rs. 29200.
Q28. If longer train added three more compartment of 15 m each, then find in what time both trains
cross each other running in opposite direction
I. Ratio between length of two trains is 4 : 5 and speed of longer trains & shorter train is 81 km/hr &
108 km/hr respectively.
II. Longer & shorter trains cross each other in 36 sec running in same direction.
Q29. There is a 8-digits telephone number with all different digits. If the digit at extreme right and
extreme left are 6 and 5 respectively then find how many such telephone numbers are possible?
(a) 20,260
(b) 21,160
(c) 20,160
(d) 20,260
(e) 22,260
Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions. The given graph shows the
profit percentage of three companies in different years.
Profit= Income- Expenditure and profit percentage is calculated using income as a reference.
Q30.What is the difference (in Rs. Lakhs) between the profits of A in 2000 and 2002? Assume that
the expenditures of A in 2000 and 2002 were Rs. 9 lakhs and Rs. 10.2 lakhs respectively.
(a) Rs 72,000
(b) Rs 60,000
(c) Rs 75,000
(d) Rs 80,000
(e) Rs 90,000
Q31. The expenditure of B in 2004 was same as the expenditure of C in 2000, what was the ratio of
the income of B in 2004 to that of C in 2000?
(a) 3: 2
(b) 1: 1
(c) 5: 4
(d) 2: 3
(e) None of these
Q32. The ratio of the incomes of A and B in 2008 was 5: 4. What was the ratio of the expenditure of A
to that of B in that year?
(a) 10: 7
(b) 10: 9
(c) 5: 4
(d) 3: 2
(e) 6: 5
Q33. If the expenditure of A in 2002 was Rs 50 lakh and that of C and B together in that year is Rs 20
lakhs more than that of A, then what was the ratio of the income of A to that of B and C together?
(a) 4: 7
(b) 5: 8
(c) 5: 7
(d) 2: 3
(e) 5: 6
Q34.The sum of income of C in 2006 and that of B in 2010 is Rs 15 lakh and expenditure of B in 2010
is Rs 1.8 lakhs more than the expenditure of C in 2006 then find the difference of their income in the
given year?
(a) 4.2 lakhs
(b) 4 lakhs
(c) 2.5 lakhs
(d) 3 lakhs
(e) 3.4 lakhs
Q35. Marked price of article A is 75% of the marked price of article B. Shopkeeper sold article B at
8% more discount than that of A. Shopkeeper made a profit of 20% on selling article B and found
that its cost price is equal to selling price of article A. If two successive discounts of 20% and 32.5%
are given then article A will be sold at Rs. 972. Find the marked price of article B?
(a) Rs 3600
(b) Rs 4000
(c) Rs 3000
(d) Rs 2500
(e) Rs 2400
Study the given passage carefully & answer the questions.

In a sport Academy ‘XY’, there are some student who can play three games i.e. tennis, cricket & chess.
Total number of players who play tennis is 160 & all three games are played by 10% of total tennis players.
Ratio of cricket to chess players is 3:5 and total of cricket & chess players is 100% more than tennis
players. Players who play both tennis and chess are of total tennis players. Ratio of players who
play both tennis & cricket to players who play both chess & cricket is 2:3 & total of players who play both
tennis & cricket and players who play both chess & cricket is equal to one-fourth of chess players.
Q36. What is the average no. of players who play only one game?
Q37. Players who play chess but not cricket is approximately what percent of total players?
(a) 35%
(b) 45%
(c) None of these
(d) 40%
(e) 50%
Q38. What is ratio of players who play both tennis & chess to players who play only cricket?
(a) 7 : 13
(b) 9 : 41
(c) 10 : 43
(d) None of these
(e) 2 : 5
Q39. Players who play at least two games is approximately what percent of players who play utmost
two games?
(a) 4%
(b) 6%
(c) 15%
(d)12%
(e) 9%
Q40. What is the difference between no. of players who can play tennis & players who play only
cricket?
(a) 74
(b) 64
(c) 68
(d) None of these
(e) 72
What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You
are not expected to calculate the exact value).
Q41. 41% of 601 – 250.17 = ? – 77% of 910

(a) 800
(b) 500
(c) 690
(d) 650
(e) 550
Q42. 52001÷60×29= ? ×41

(a) 700
(b) 650
(c) 500
(d) 550
(e) 680
Q43. 16.5% of 1399.921 + 114.78% of 1211 = ?

(a) 1270
(b) 1350
(c) 1490
(d) 1530
(e) 1620
Q44.
(a) 610
(b) 620
(c) 630
(d) 640
(e) 650
Q45. 18.08× 11.898 + 22.922 × 14.94 = ?

(a) 520
(b) 560
(c) 540
(d) 580
(e) 610
Given below is the bar graph showing the production (in thousands) of scooties, bikes and cars by a
company, the table shows the percent of these vehicles exported. Read the graphs carefully and
answer the following questions:
Q46. Total vehicles exported in 2005 is what percent of total production in the same year? (round off
to 2 decimal places)
(a) 21.42%
(b) 21.52%
(c) 21.6%
(d) 21.85%
(e) None of these
Q47. Export of bikes in 2001 and 2002 together is approximately what times of the export of cars in
2005 and 2006 together.
(a) 0.82
(b) 0.85
(c) 0.88
(d) 0.91
(e) 0.94
Q48. The export of bikes is 3rd highest in which year?

(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
(e) 2005
Q49. What is the average export of cars from 2001 to 2004?

(a) 13575
(b) 13565
(c) 13555
(d) 13545
(e) None of these
Q50. Find the difference between the average production in time period 2001 – 2003 and the average
production in the time period 2004 – 2006.
(a) 30000
(b) 35000
(c) 40000
(d) 45000
(e) 50000
LOGICAL REASONING
In each of the questions given below, a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of
letters/ symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the four combinations
correctly represents the group of digits based on the letter/ symbol codes and the conditions given
below. If none of the four combinations represents the group of digits correctly, give (e) ‘None of
these’ as the answer.
Condition for coding the group digits:

(i) If the first digit is odd and last digit is even, the codes for the first and the last digits are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If the first as well as the last digit is even, both are to be coded by the code for the last digit.
(iii) If the first as well as the last digit is odd, both are to be coded as ‘X’.
Q1. 285961
(a) @PD=S
(b) @∆D=S
(c) @PV=S
(d) @PD=SV
(e) None of these
Q2. 972486
(a) =∆@VPS
(b) S∆@VP=
(c) SD@VP=
(d) SA@ P=
(e) None of these
Q3. 834762
(a) PMV∆SP
(b) PMV∆S@
(c) @MVA∆SP
(d) @MV∆S@
(e) None of these
Q4. 785291
(a) ∆PD@ X
(b) ∆PD@=X
(c) XPD@=X
(d) XPD@=
(e) None of these
Q5. 748956
(a) AVP=DS
(b) SVP=DS
(c) ∆VP=D∆
(d) S P=D∆
(e) None of these
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are eight friends sitting around a square table, two on each side. All of
them are facing away from the centre and each is opposite to another. They all live on different floors
of a two storey building with topmost floor being numbered as second and the bottommost floor
being numbered as first. There are three female members and no two females are seated next to one
another. Four of them live on each floor. X sits between D and Z. One of the male members whose
immediate neighbours are also males lives on the topmost floor. Y is a female member who sits
second to the left of X. Z is not a female member but sits opposite A, who is a female. C sits third to
the left of W and is not male member. Only one female lives on the floor below the floor on which D
lives.The person who sit opposite to B lives on second floor. A does not lives on topmost floor.C and D
are immediate neighbours.
Q6. Who among the following is not a male member?

(a) W.
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) B
(e) None of these
Q7. Which of the following statements is true about W and X?

(a) Both are opposite to each other
(b) They do not live on the same floor.
(c) W is female, but X is a male
(d) Both are females
(e) None of these
Q8. Which of the following groups includes only females?

(a) YAW
(b) ACB
(c) XYZ
(d) ACY.
(e) None of these
Q9. Who among the following is sitting between B and the female whose immediate neighbours live
below her, when counted from the right of B?
(a) A
(b) C and D
(c) C
(d) A and W.
(e) None of these
Q10. Who amongst the following pair of females lives on the same floor?
(a) DY
(b) AY
(c) AC
(d) AB
(e) None of these.
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons are sitting in a circular table. Some of them facing towards the center and some of
them facing outside the center. Each of them likes different colours i.e. Red, Green, Blue, Yellow,
Orange, Brown, White, and Pink. All information is not necessarily in same order. Not more than
two persons face same direction, sit together.
V sits third to the left of the one who likes Orange colour. Two persons sit between P and the one who
likes Orange colour. M sits immediate right of P and likes Brown colour. The one who likes green
colour is not an immediate neighbor of V and the one who likes orange colour. The one who likes
green colour faces inside the center. O and T sit immediate left of each other. Three persons sit
between V and U. The one who likes red colour sits immediate right of the one who likes green
colour. T face same direction as one who likes Green colour. E sits immediate right of O. The one
who likes brown colour is immediate neighbor of the one who likes yellow colour. Neither P nor V
like yellow colour. The one who likes Pink colour is immediate left of the one who likes white colour.
The one who likes blue colour is immediate left of A. M faces outside the center. T does not like pink
colour.
Q11. How many persons facing outside?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than Four
(d) Three
(e) Four
Q12. Who among the following sits immediate right of T?

(a) O
(b) A
(c) The one who likes Green
(d) The one who likes Orange
(e) None of these
Q13. How many persons are between U and A, when counted left of U?
(a) One
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None
Q14. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on a group, find the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) A
(b) T
(c) E
(d) M
(e) O
Q15. Who among the following person likes green colour?

(a) P
(b) A
(c) T
(d) E
(e) None of these
An uncertain number of persons sitting in a straight line facing north. Three persons sit between P
and L. M sits second to the right of P. Only three persons sit between L and R. S is immediate left of
P. M sits fifth from one of the extreme ends of the row. As many persons sit between M and Q as
many between Q and R. T sits second to the left of X, who is an immediate neighbor of L. Not more
than two persons sit between X and R. Five persons sit between R and Y. As many persons sit
between R and Z as many between Z and Y.
Q16. How many persons sitting in a row?

(a) 20
(b) 18
(c) 23
(d) 14
(e) None of these
Q17. Who among the following person sits fourth to the right of Z?
(a) T
(b) X
(c) R
(d) L
(e) None of these
Q18. How many persons are sitting between X and M?

(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than five
Q19. If J is an immediate neighbor of S then who among the following person sits second to the left of
J?
(a) P
(b) X
(c) L
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Q20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on a group, find the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) R-X
(b) Q-P
(c) M-S
(d) Z-T
(e) L-T
In these questions, relationship between different elements is show in the statements. The statements
are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the
appropriate answer:
Q21.
Statements: U>I>X<M≤P<L=E≥R<T
Conclusion I: U>M II: E>M
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
Q22.
Statements: W>R=T>Y<M<N≤X=D>F
Conclusion I: D≥N II: W>Y
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows
In the following questions, the symbols %, &, #, * and @ are used with the following meaning as
illustrated below-
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’
‘P&Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P*Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the
conclusions given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Q23.
Statements: Q@P$U*X&M%K$L*R
Conclusions: I. L@K II. X&P

(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Either I or II is true
(e) Both are true
Q24.
Statements: X@U%Y$L&P$W*S&V
Conclusions: I. Y$X II. W@U
(a) None is true
(b) Both are true
(c) Only II is true
(e) Only I is true
Q25.
Statements: S*X@O*U%L&P&D$W
Conclusions: I. U$W II. W%U
(a) None is true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(e) Both are true
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons are living on eight different floors of an eight storey building, in such a way ground
floor is numbered as 1 and the top floor is numbered as 2. Each person has different number of
books (all books are in increasing order from bottom to top that means a person have lowest number
of books lives on 1st floor and the person who has highest number of books lives on 8th floor). The
one who has maximum number of books has not more than 40.
Only three persons are live between D and E, who has less number of books than D. F has four books
more than D. G lives on an odd numbered floor and has just half number of books than C. B has
number of books which is square of an odd number and just five times of the number of books A has.
E has number of books which is square of an even number. More than three persons are living in
between F and A. Only one person lives between H and G, who has 8 books less than H. C has more
books than F and B. F has 20 books more than E. H has three books more than B.
Q26. How many books does C have?

(a) 25
(b) 32
(c) 36
(d) 40
(e) None of these
Q27. What is the difference between the number of books have D and B?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 7
(d) 10
(e) None of these
Q28. Who among the following lives on 5th floor?

(a) C
(b) G
(c) H
(d) B
(e) None of these
Q29. The person who has 36 number of books lives on which floor?
(a) 8th floor
(b) 6th floor
(c) 7th floor
(d) 5th floor
(e) None of these
Q30. How many persons are live in between D and the one who has 16 books?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Given below are pairs of events ‘A’ and ‘B’. You have to read both the events ‘A’ and ‘B’ and decide
their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is true and
you will not assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the answer. Mark answer
Q31. Statement (A): The government has decided to roll back the hike in the prices of cooking gas and
kerosene.
Statement (B): Some ministers had resigned in protest against the hike in prices of cooking gas and other
petroleum products.
(a) If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and principal cause.
(b) If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘B’ is its effect.
(c) If ‘A’ is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(d) If ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(e) None of these
Q32. Statement (A): A traveler found cockroaches in the crevices of his seat and also in the toilets of
India’s most prestigious train, the Rajdhani Express.
Statement (B): He drew the attention of catering manager, Western Railway, to the insects.
(a) If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and principal cause.
(b) If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘B’ is its effect.
(c) If ‘A’ is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(d) If ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(e) None of these
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below
it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer:
Q33. What is the distance between point E and point H?

I. The point D is 8 m to the south of point C, which is 8 m to the east of point B. Point G is 16 m to the west
of point D which is 8 m to the east of point A. Point H is 4 m to the east of point D. Point E is to the south
of point C.
II. The point G is 8 m to the west of point A, which is 8 m to the south of point B. Point C is to the north-
west of point A. Point E is to the north of point D. Point H is to the south-east of point C.
(a) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is
(c) if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions.
(e) if the data in statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions.
Q34. By using which statement, we can conclude ‘Some white is not tiger’.
I. All white is dog. Some white is rabbit. Some cat is dog. No cat is tiger.
II. Some dog is white. Some white is rabbit. All rabbit is cat. No cat is tiger.
Q35. Five runner Q, R, S, V, T are participating in a race. Who amongst the five of them are fastest
runner?
I. Q runs faster than R but not as fast as V. S runs faster than V. T is faster than only one person.
II. T runs faster than R but not as fast as V.
Q36.Statement: India’s population could surpass that of China around 2024,is projected to touch 1.5
billion in 2030, according to a UN forecast.
(I)Two most populous countries, India and China, comprising 19 and 18 per cent of the total global
population.
(II)India’s population may eventually see a decline in the half century after 2030 to 1.51 billion by 2100.
(III) The new estimates released said that in 2024, India and China are expected to have roughly a
population of 1.44 billion each.
Which of the following negates the given statement?
(a)None of the above
(b)Only I and II
(c)Only II and III
(d)Only I
(e)Only III
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input: 2375 9824 1673 8253 4213 5184

Step I: 2357 2489 1367 2358 1234 1458
Step II: 7532 9842 7631 8532 4321 8541
Step III: 4321 7532 7631 8532 8541 9842
Step IV: 32 53 63 53 54 84
Step V: 1 2 3 2 1 4
Step V is the last step of the input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step
for the given output.
Input: 3472 6721 9733 7123 5361 8417
Q37. In which of the following step the elements “9733 7321 6531” found in the same order?
(a) Step I
(b) Step IV
(c) Step III
(d) Step II
(e) no such step
Q38. What is difference between the fourth element from the left in step IV and fourth element from
the right in step V?
(a) 31
(b) 63
(c) 42
(d) 61
(e) None of these
Q39. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) V
(b) IV
(c) II
(d) More than VI
(e) VI
Q40. Which of the following element would be at the third from the right of the element which is
sixth from the right end in step II?
(a) 9733
(b) 6531
(c) 7123
(d) 8417
(e) None of these
Q41. Which element is exactly between the third element from left end and second element from
right end in step III?
(a) 7321
(b) 7621
(c) 8741
(d) 6531
(e) Can’t be determined
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
There are six employees of a company and all of them are working on six different designation of a
company viz. CMD, MD, CEO, COO, SE, JE. All the designations given are to be considered in a
given order (as CMD is considered as Senior-most and JE is considered as the Junior-most). No one
is older than 55years.R is junior than U, who is not MD. The one who is MD is 4years younger than
CEO. More than two persons are junior than P. Age of the one who is JE is a perfect square of an
odd number. Q is Junior than S but senior than R. Age of the one who is CEO is just double the age
of the one who is JE. U is senior to T who is not JE. S is not COO. Age of the one who is COO is a
perfect square of number and 10years younger than S. The one who is CMD is 5years older than the
one who is CEO. S is junior to P. U’ age is an even number. T is 6years younger than S. Q is 11years
older than R. Age of the one who is JE is not less than 20years.
Q42. Who among the following is CEO of the company?

(a) P
(b) T
(c) the one who is 46years old
(d) U
(e) None of these
Q43. Who among the following is 55years old?

(a) U
(b) P
(c) S
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Q44. What is the age difference between U and T?

(a) 15years
(b) 10years
(c) 12years
(d) 8years
(e) None of these
Q45. How many persons are junior to R?

(a) Four
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None
Q46. Who among the following SE of the company?

(a) Q
(b) U
(c) T
(d) R
(e) None of these
Seven boxes J, K, L, M, N, O and P are placed one above other. Each box contains different numbers
of bottles i.e. 12, 15, 19, 23, 25, 32 and 36. All information is not necessarily in same order. Equal no.
of box placed above and below the box, which contains 12 bottles. One box is placed between L and
the box which contains 12 bottles. More than two boxes are placed between L and the box which
contains 15 bottles. Box J is placed just below box O, which contains no. of bottles that is perfect
square. Two boxes is placed between J and the box which contains 32 bottles. The number of bottles
N contains is 4 more than the numbers of bottles K contains. Box K is placed below box M but above
box P. Box J is not contains 15 bottles. One box is placed between L and J. The box which contains 32
bottles is not placed just above or just below box L. Box M is not placed just above or just below box
L. Box M contains 2 bottles less than box L.
Q47. Box P contained how many bottles?

(a) 25
(b) 36
(c) 23
(d) 32
(e) None of these
Q48. What is the difference between the number of bottles in box K and L?
(a) 10
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Q49. How many bottles box O contains?

(a) 25
(b) 36
(c) 32
(d) 23
(e) None of these
Q50. How many boxes are placed between box O and box P?
(a) More than four
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None
Q51. How many bottles in the box which is placed just above box M?
(a) 25
(b) 36
(c) 19
(d) 32
(e) None of these
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Payal starts walking from point A, walks 8m in east direction and reach at point B. From point B she
takes a left turn and walks 10m to reach at point C, then takes two consecutive right turn and walks
6m and 14m respectively to reach her friend Nisha’s house. Aparna starts walking in south direction
from point P and walks 5m to reach at point Q, then takes a right turn and walks 6m to reach at
point R. From point R she takes a left turn and walks 7m to reach at point S. From point S she takes
a right turn and walks 24m and reach at point T, then finally takes a left turn and walks 7m to reach
her friend Nisha’s house.
Q52. What is the distance between point C to point R?

(a) 12m
(b) 28m
(c) 30m
(d) 20m
(e) None of these
Q53. What is the shortest distance between point S to Nisha’s house?

(a) 49m
(b) 25m
(c) 16m
(d) 30m
(e) None of these
Q54. What is the direction of point P with respect to point B?

(a) South-West
(b) North
(c) East
(d) North-East
(e) None of these
Q55. What is the direction and distance between point T with respect to point B?
(a) 3√5m, south-west
(b) 45m, east
(c) 3√5m, north-east
(d) 35, west
(e) None of these
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons are lives on eight different floors of an eight storey building. Ground floor is numbered
as 1 and top floor is numbered as 8. All of them sits in a linear row and facing north direction. A lives
on odd number floor and sits third from the left end. Only four persons live between A and H. E lives
on even number floor between the floors of A and H. E does not live on a floor adjacent to A’s floor
but sits third to right of A. G does not live on odd number floor. The one who sits third to the right of
H does not live above H. The one who sits at left end lives on fifth floor. D lives immediate above E.
There is a gap of two floors between floors of D and C, who lives above H. More than two persons sit
between G and the one who lives on second floor. The one who lives on eight floor sits third to right
of D. Only two persons sit between C and B. G does not sit with A and F. The one who lives just
below A sits on right end.
Q56. Who among the following lives on second floor?

(a) D
(b) C
(c) H
(d) B
(e) None of these
Q57. Who among the following sits immediate left of G?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Q58. The person who sits second to the left of E, lives on which of the following floor?
(a) 5th
(b) 6th
(c) 4th
(d) 8th
(e) None of these
Q59. How many persons sits between the who lives on 7th floor and the one who lives on 2nd floor?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) Four
(e) None
Q60. Which of the following statement is true about F?

(a) F sits immediate right of E
(b) F lives on an even numbered floor
(c) Only two persons are sitting between F and the one who lives on 6th floor
(d) Only two persons are live between F and D
(e) None of these
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Give answer as:
(a) if only argument I is strong
(b) if only argument II is strong
(c) if either I or II is strong
(d) if neither I nor II is strong
(e) if both I and II are strong
Q61. Statement: Should the tuition fees in all post-graduate courses be hiked considerably?
Arguments: I. Yes. This will bring in some sense of seriousness among the students and will improve the
quality.
II. No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay away from post-graduate courses.
Q62. Statement: Should India create a huge oil reserve like some Western countries to face difficult
situations in future?
Arguments: I. No. There is no need to block huge amount of foreign exchange and keep the money idle.
II. Yes. This will help India withstand shocks of sudden rise in oil prices due to unforeseen circumstances.
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are eight members in a family i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. There are three females and two
married couples. A is son in law of C. B is daughter in law of G, who is father of H. H is unmarried.
D is son of C. C married to F, who is grandfather of E. E is niece of H who is brother of A.
Q63. Who among the following is brother-in-law of D?

(a) G
(b) C
(c) A
(d) B
(e) None of these
Q64. Who among the following is brother in law of B?

(a) A
(b) H
(c) D
(d) G
(e) None of these
Q65. Who among the following is father of D?

(a) E
(b) F
(c) A
(d) H
(e) None of these
In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You have to
take the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Q66. Statements:
All honey are sugar
Some sugar is salt
No honey is water
Conclusions:
I: Some salt is not water
II: Some honey is water is possibility
Q67. Statements:
Some dance are classic
All classic are old
Some old are Gold
Conclusions:
I. Some gold are classic

II. No classic is gold
Q68.Statements:
Some debit are credit.
All credit are cashless
All cashless are online.
Conclusions:
I. Some online are debit.
II. All credit are online.
Q69. Statements:
Some paytm are flipkart
Some flipkart are amazon.
All amazon are shopclues.
Conclusions:
I. Some shopclues are flipkart.
II. Some amazon are paytm.
Q70. Statements:
All rings are bus
Some bus are mesh.
No mesh is star.
Conclusions:
I. Some star are rings.
II. No star is rings.
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the
statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Q71. Statement: The kharif crops have been affected by the insects for consecutive three years in the
district and the farmers harvested less than fifty percent of produce during these years.
Courses of Action:
(I) The farmers should seek measures to control the attack of insects to protect their crops next year.
(II) The Government should increase the support price of kharif crops considerably to protect the economic
interests of farmers.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) Both I and II follow
Q72. Statement: The State Government has decided to declare 'Kala Azar' as a notifiable disease under the
Epidemics Act. Family members or neighbours of the patient are liable to be punished in case they did not
inform the State authorities.
Courses of Action:
(I) Efforts should be made to effectively implement the Act.
(II) The cases of punishment should be propagated through mass media so that more people become aware
of the stern actions.
(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows
Q73. Statement: The Chairman stressed the need for making education system more flexible and regretted
that the curriculum has not been revised in keeping with the pace of the changes taking place.
Courses of Action:
(I)Curriculum should be reviewed and revised periodically.
(II) System of education should be made more flexible.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
Q74. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
(I) At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
(II) The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either I or II is implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit
(e) Both I and II are implicit
Q75. Statement: "In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance allowance to our
employees." - In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:
(I) Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
(II) Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Either I or II is implicit
(d) Neither I nor II is implicit
(e) Both I and II are implicit
ABSTRACT REASONING
Q1. DIRECTIONS for the question: In the question given below which one of the answer
figures should come after the problem figures given, if the sequence were continued?
Q16. DIRECTIONS for the questions: The second figure in the first unit of the problem
figures bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly one of the figures in the
answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the second unit of the
problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark.
problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark.
problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark
problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark
Q21. DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of figures which best expresses the
relationship similar to that expressed in the figures given initially.

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CET Question Paper Page 1

(b) Both (ii) and (iii)

Q14. Which of the following statements can be considered as a sarcastic comment on

D. All of (I), (II) &amp; (III)

(a) Both (1-5) and (4-8)

(a) Both (1-5) and (4-8)

(a) Both (1-5) and (4-8)

Q47. “Imagination unleashes Creativity”. Justify.

Q48. According to the passage, how can a person express empathy?

Q49. Which of the following is an appropriate title of the passage?

D. Imagination and creativity

Q50. According to the passage, Imaginative power helps in

Q2. A bag contains 8 white balls, 13 black balls and 5 green.

(c) Quantity I < Quantity II

Q6. Who among the following spend maximum amount on food?

Q8. Find the average amount spend by A, B and C on furniture?

Find the wrong number in the given number series questions.

Q16. 1400, 1384, 1360, 1300, ?, 145

Study the data carefully & answer the questions.

Q27. What is annual salary of Anurag?

Study the given passage carefully & answer the questions.

Q41. 41% of 601 – 250.17 = ? – 77% of 910

Q42. 52001÷60×29= ? ×41

Q43. 16.5% of 1399.921 + 114.78% of 1211 = ?

Q45. 18.08× 11.898 + 22.922 × 14.94 = ?

Q48. The export of bikes is 3rd highest in which year?

Q49. What is the average export of cars from 2001 to 2004?

Condition for coding the group digits:

Q6. Who among the following is not a male member?

Q7. Which of the following statements is true about W and X?

Q8. Which of the following groups includes only females?

Q11. How many persons facing outside?

Q12. Who among the following sits immediate right of T?

Q15. Who among the following person likes green colour?

Q16. How many persons sitting in a row?

Q18. How many persons are sitting between X and M?

Conclusions: I. L@K II. X&P

Q26. How many books does C have?

(e) None of these

Q28. Who among the following lives on 5th floor?

Q33. What is the distance between point E and point H?

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Input: 2375 9824 1673 8253 4213 5184

Input: 3472 6721 9733 7123 5361 8417

Q39. How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Q42. Who among the following is CEO of the company?

Q43. Who among the following is 55years old?

Q44. What is the age difference between U and T?

Q45. How many persons are junior to R?

Q46. Who among the following SE of the company?

Q47. Box P contained how many bottles?

Q49. How many bottles box O contains?

Q52. What is the distance between point C to point R?

Q53. What is the shortest distance between point S to Nisha’s house?

Q54. What is the direction of point P with respect to point B?

Q56. Who among the following lives on second floor?

Q57. Who among the following sits immediate left of G?

Q60. Which of the following statement is true about F?

Q63. Who among the following is brother-in-law of D?

Q64. Who among the following is brother in law of B?

Q65. Who among the following is father of D?

D. All of (I), (II) & (III)