Procedure for Online Submission of Application Note: On-line application will be available from The

online submission of the application may be made at website www.ssconline.nic.in. Instructions are
available at the site. Candidate should read the instructions carefully before making any entry or
selecting options. Candidate should supply all the required details while filling up the online form.
Mandatory fields are marked with * (asterisk) sign. The filling of online application contains two parts :
Part I Registration Part II Registration 1. In Part I registration, candidate will have to fill basic information.
On submission of details, candidate shall be prompted to check the details and make any correction in
the application. 2. Candidate may press “I agree” button after declaration once he/she finds that
information supplied by him/her is in order and no correction is required. Thereafter no
correction/modification etc. shall be allowed. 3. Then a page with Registration No. shall be generated.
Note down registration number or take out the print out of the page. The application procedure is
incomplete without part II registration. Part II registration requires filling of payment details, uploading
of photograph and scanned signature. Candidates may note that the Registration number given by the
Commission and Transaction ID of the Bank should be properly entered in the relevant space, failing
which it will not be possible to link the payment with Part I registration. On-line application will be
complete only if scanned signature and photo are uploaded as per instructions. 4. Candidates who have
to pay application fee can pay fee online through net banking, or cash through SBI bank challan. 5. To
pay fee in cash, candidate can take printout of challan generated online after completion of part I
registration. Deposit the requisite fee in pay branch of State Bank of India and then continue with the
Part II registration. 6. Those who want to pay online through net banking, can go directly to part II
registration after completion of part I. Candidate will have to supply registration number and date of
birth to continue to Part II registration. 7. As approval of the Controller General of Accounts, Ministry of
Finance has not been received for use of credit cards / debit cards, payment through these modes will
not be available. 8. Those who are exempted from payment of fee can skip steps 4 to 7. 9. Then upload a
recently taken scanned photograph in 8 – bit grayscale JPG format. The digital size of the file must be of
resolution 100 pixel widths by 120 pixels height. 10. Then upload your scanned signature in 8 – bit
grayscale JPG format. The digital size of the file must be of resolution 140 pixel width by 60 pixels height.
11. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully before filling up the application
form. 12. Request for change/correction in any particulars in the Application Form shall not be
entertained under any circumstances. The Staff Selection Commission will not be responsible for any
consequences arising out of non acceptance of any correction/addition/deletion in any particular
filled in application form whatever the reasons may be.

(A) SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS

The written Part Subject Maximum Total Duration / Total Duration/

examination Marks Timing for Timing for
will consist of General Visually
candidates Handicapped
one objective candidates
type paper as
shown below :
Date of Exam
27.02.2011 I General 25 2 Hours 10.00 2 Hours 20 mins
(Sunday) Intelligence & A.M. to 12.00 10.00 A.M. to
Reasoning Noon 12.20 PM
 ( 25questions)
II Numerical Aptitude ( 25 25
questions)
III General English ( 50 questions) 50

IV General Awareness (50 questions) 50

English Language : Candidates' understanding the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary,
grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability
would be tested.
Numerical Aptitude: This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems,
Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers,
Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit
and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time,
Time and Work, etc.
General Awareness: Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate‟s general awareness
of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test
knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their
scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating
to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography,
Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These
questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline

Essential Educational Qualification Code Code

Educational Qualification
Matriculation 01

Intermediate/Higher Secondary 02

Certificate 03

Diploma 04

BA 05

BA (Hons.) 06

B. Com. 07
B.Com. (Hons.) 08

B.Sc. 09

B.Sc. (Hons.) 10

B. Ed. 11

LLB 12

BE 13

B. Tech 14

AMIE (Part A & Part B) 15

B.Sc. (Engg.) 16

BCA 17

BBA 18

Graduation issued by Defence (Indian Army, 19

Air Force, Navy)
B. Lib. 20

B. Pharm. 21

ICWA 22

CA 23

PG Diploma 24

MA 25

M.Com. 26

M. Sc. 27

M.Ed. 28

LLM 29

ME 30

M. Tech. 31

M. Sc. (Engg.) 32

MCA 33

MBA 34
Others 35

1. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation? 158.25 x 4.6 + 21% of 847+?= 950.93 50 45

 35
 40
 25
 Answer: 45
  53.25

2. The average of the first and the second of three numbers is 15 more than the average of
the second and the third of these numbers. What is the difference between the first and the
third of these three numbers?

 15
 45
 60
 Data inadequate
 Answer: None of these

Difference is 30 - The difference between the simple and the compound interest
compounded every six rnonths at the rate of 10 %.p.a. at the end of two years is Rs. 124.05.
What is the sum?

 Rs 10,000
 Rs 6,000
 Rs 12,000
 Answer: Rs 8,000
 None of these

4. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation? 85.147 + 34.912 x 6.2 + ? = 802.293

 400
 450
 550
 600
 Answer: 500

5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
9548+7314=8362+?

 8230
 Answer: 8500
 8410
 8600
 None of these

6. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation? 248.251 ÷ 12.62 x 20.52 =?

 Answer: 400
 450
  600
 375
 350

7. When a number is added to another number the total becomes 333.333 per cent of the
second number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number?

 3:7
 7:4
 Answer: 7:3
 Data inadequate
 None of these

8. There are 11 members in a family out of which there are 4 males and remaining females.
The family has hired three cars for a trip to zoo. The members are to be seated in the cars
in such a way that there are not more than four members in one car and there is at least
one male in each car. How many different ways can the members travel?

 610
 126
 140
 532
 Answer: None of these

9. 657 Ways 9:- The sum of four numbers is 64.If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is
subtracted from second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the sum is divided by 3,
then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of
the original numbers?

 Answer: 32
 27
 21
 Cannot be determined
 None of these

10. The Numbers are 9,15,4,36 10. In a recent Survey 40% homes contained two or more
People. Of those houses containing only one person 25% were having only a male. What is
the percentage of all houses which contain exactly one female and no males?

 75
 40
 15
 Cannot be determined
 Answer: None of these
11. 45 percent 11. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 examinations. How much
should she make on her eighth examination to obtain an average of 60% on 8
examinations?

 88%
 78%
 98%
 Answer: Cannot be determined
 None of these

12. Since Total marks are not given So Can not be Determined 12. A classroom has equal
number of boys and girls. Eight girls left to play Kho-kho, leaving twice as many boys as
girls in the classroom. What was the total number of girls boys present initially? -

 Cannot be Determined
 16
 24
 Answer: 32
 None of these

13. 16 boys 16 Girls 13. An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the
ratio of 6:19:7 respectively. If R gives Rs. 200/- of his share to Q, the ratio among P, Q and
R becomes 3:10:3 respectively .What was the total amount?

 Answer: Rs. 6,400/-

 Rs 12800/-
 Rs 3,200/-
 Data inadequate
 None of these

14. A man in his will distributed his money in such a way that half of it is for his wife, two-
thirds of the remaining equally to three of his sons and the remaining amount equally to
four of his daughters. If each of the daughters receives Rs. 20,000/-, how much money will
each of his sons receive?

 Rs. 50,333.33
 Rs 48333.33
 Answer: Rs 53,333.33
 Data inadequate
 None of these

15. Arun thinks his weight is more than 65 kg but less than 72 . His brother does not agree
with him and thinks Arun’s Weight is more than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. Arun ‘s Mother
thinks Arun’s weight cannot be more than 68kg. If all of them are correct in their
estimation, what is the average of the probable values of Arun’s weight?
  69 kg
 Answer: 67 kg
 68kg
 Data inadequate
 None of these

16. The length and the breadth of the floor of a room is 20 ft. and 10 ft respectively. Square
tiles of 2 ft. dimension having three different colours are placed on the floor. The first row
of tiles on all sides is of black colour, out of the remaining one-third is of white colour and
the remaining are of blue colour. How many blue Coloured tiles are there?

 Answer: 16
 32
 48
 24
 None of these

17. If the arithmetic mean of 6, 8, 10. x, 7 is 8.the value of x will be

 7
 Answer: 9
 10
 8
 none of these

18. A train is moving with an uniform speed. It crosses a railway platform 120 metres long
in 12 seconds and another platform 170 meires long in 16 seconds. The speed of the train
per second is—

 Answer: 12.5 m/sec

 10 m/sec
 10.22 m/sec
 14 m/sec
 None of these

19.The median of the data 30. 25, 27, 25-8, 29, 35,38. 28 is

 Answer: 28.5
 29.5
 28
 29
 None of these

20. If the sum of the two radii of two circles is 7 cm and the difference of their
circumference is 8 cm, the two circumferences will be—
  34cm and 26cm
 28cm and 20cm
 Answer: 26 cm and 18 cm
 20cm and 12cm
 None of these

PART I : GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus
(c) Justin (d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti. (b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana. (d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency (b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency (d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP (b) Disposable income
(c) NNP (d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade. (d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas (b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid (d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) methane and ethane (b) methane and butane.
(c) propane and butane (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for
transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
29. What is the principal one of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite (b) Copper
(c) Lignite (d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US (b) Norway
(c) India (d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector (d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in
India?
(a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total
receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change (b) Force
(c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision (b) Management
(c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on
the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos (b) Chetak
(c) Astra (d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France. (b) China.
(c) Germany. (d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration (b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms (d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes (b) isomorphous
(c) isomers (d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool. (b) boat.
(c) ship. (d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) fats
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla (b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation. (b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation.
Part II : AIRTHMETIC
76. A trader sells his goods at a discount of 20 per cent. He still makes a profit of 25 per cent. If he sells
the goods at the marked price only, his profit will be
(a) 56.25 per cent (b) 25.56 per cent
(c) 50.25 per cent (d) 54.25 per cent
77. The total surface area of a metallic hemisphere is 1848 cm2 . The hemisphere is melted to form a
solid right circular cone. If the radius of the base of the cone is the same as the radius of the
hemisphere, its height is
(a) 21 cm. (b) 26 cm.
(c) 28 cm. (d) 30 cm.
78. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. The area of the portion between the
triangle and the circle is
(a) 11 cm2 . (b) 10.95 cm2 .
(c) 10 cm2 . (d) 10.50 cm2 .
79. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height. The ratio of
their respective volumes is
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3
(c) 1:3:2 (d) 3:1:2
80. The difference between a discount of 40 per cent on Rs. 500 and two successive discounts of 36 per
cent and 4 per cent on the same amount is
(a) zero (b) Rs. 1.93
(c) Rs. 2.00 (d) Rs. 7.20
81. If a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price of a shirt saves a man Rs. 150, how much did he pay
for the shirt?
(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 620
82. In a cricket match the total number of runs scored by Sachin, Vinod and Saurav is 285. The ratio of
the number of runs scored by Sachin and Saurav is 3:2 and that of the runs scored by Sourav and Vinod
is also 3:2. The number of runs scored by Sachin in that match is
(a) 135 (b) 90
(c) 60 (d) 140
83. If A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:4:6
(c) 6:4:5 (d) 8:12:15
84. If two times of A is equal to three times of B and also equal to four times of C, then A:B:C is
(a) 2:3:4 (b) 3:4:2
(c) 4:6:3 (d) 6:4:3
85. In a bag, there are three types of coins- rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise in the ratio 3:8:20. Their total
value is Rs. 372. The total number of coins is
(a) 1200 (b) 961
(c) 744 (d) 612
86. 5 years ago, the average age of A,B,C and D was 45 years. With E joining them now, the average of
all the five is 49 years. How old is E?
(a) 25 years (b) 40 years
(c) 45 years (d) 64 years.
87. 200 liters of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 17:3. After the addition of some more
milk to it, the ratio of milk of water in the resulting mixture becomes 7:1. The quantity of milk added it
was
(a) 20 liters. (b) 40 liters.
(c) 60 liters. (d) 80 liters.
88. 3333(333)(333)(334)3333333334++−ΧΧΧis equal to
(a) 12 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 15
89. The least number, which is a perfect square and is divisible by each of the numbers 16,20 and 24, is
(a) 1600 (b) 3600
(c) 6400 (d) 14400
90. The L.C.M. of the two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of
H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1150, the other number is
(a) 215 (b) 220
(c) 225 (d) 235
91. The least one of 4 2 3,25, 8 and 3 2 is
(a) 23 (b) 4 25
(c) 8 (d) 32 121212... + + +
92. is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 2
93. If (a-b) is 6 more than (c+d) and (a+b) 3 is less than (c-d), then (a-c) is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
94. In a test, a student got 30 per cent marks and failed. In the same test, another student got 40 per
cent marks and secured 25 marks more than the essential minimum pass mark. The maximum marks for
the test were
(a) 400 (b) 480
(c) 500 (d) 580
95. 200 liters of a mixture contains 15 per cent water and the rest is milk. The amount of milk that must
be added so that the resulting mixture contains 87.5 per cent milk is
SSC Section Officer (Commercial Audit) Exam Page 11 of 25
(a) 30 liters. (b) 35 liters.
(c) 40 liters. (d) 45 liters.
96. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1,200 each. On one hand he gained 20 per cent and on other he lost 20
per cent. His gain or loss in the whole transaction is
(a) 1 per cent loss. (b) 2 per cent loss.
(c) 4 per cent loss. (d) 1 per cent gain.
97. By what per cent must the cost price be raised in fixing the sale price in order that there may be a
profit of 20 per cent after allowing a commission of 10 per cent?
(a) 25 (b) 13313
(c) 3313(d) 30
98. If the price of petrol be raised by 20 per cent, then the percentage by which a car owner must
reduce his consumption so as not to increase his expenditure on petrol is
(a) 16 13 (b) 162 3
(c) 1523(d) 151 3
99. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50 per cent, then the area will be increased by
(a) 50 per cent (b) 75 per cent
(c) 100 per cent (d) 125 per cent
100. A,B,C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs. 3,20,000 for 4 months, B contributes Rs. 5,10,000
for 3 months and C contributes Rs. 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs. 1,24,800, then A’s
share of profit is
(a) Rs. 38,400 (b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,500 (d) Rs. 41,500
101. The value of (12+22+32…..+202)-(1+2+3+….+20) is
(a) 5320 (b) 4200
(c) 3150 (d) 2660
102. If A and B together can complete a work in 18 days, A and C together in 12 days, and B and C
together in 9 days, then B alone can do the work in
(a) 18 days. (b) 24 days.
(c) 30 days. (d) 40 days.
103. A tank can be filled with water by two pipes A and B together in 36 minutes. If the pipe B was
stopped after 30 minutes, the tank is filled in 40 minutes. The pipe B alone can fill the tank in
(a) 45 minutes. (b) 60 minutes.
(c) 75 minutes. (d) 90 minutes.
104. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, the lengths of the perpendiculars to the three
sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively. The area of the triangle is
(a) 48 cm2 . (b) 163cm2 .
(c) 1923 cm2 . (d) 192 cm2 .
105. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10 per cent while its area remains same, its
corresponding base will have to be decreased by
(a) 10 per cent (b) 9 per cent
(c) 1911 per cent (d) 1119per cent
106. The simple interest on a sum of money is 1 16 of the principal and the number of years is equal to
the rate per cent per annum. The rate per annum is
(a) 112per cent (b) 2 1 2 per cent
(c) 312per cent (d) 4 1 2 per cent
107. Running at 5 4 of his usual speed, an athlete improves his timing by 5 minutes. The time he usually
take to run the same distance is
(a) 30 minutes. (b) 28 minutes.
(c) 25 minutes. (d) 23 minutes.
108. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat B by 100 m, In a race of 400 m, B beats C by 40m. In a race of 500
m, A will beat C by
(a) 95 m. (b) 50 m.
(c) 45 m. (d) 60 m.
109. A sum of Rs. 6,000 is deposited for 3 years at 5 per cent per annum compound interest
(compounded annually). The difference of interest for 3 and 2 years will be
(a) Rs. 75.00 (b) Rs. 30.75
(c) Rs. 330.75 (d) Rs. 375.00
110. The difference between the compound and the simple interests on a sum for 2 years at 10 per cent
per annum, when the interest is compounded annually, is Rs. 28. If the interest were compounded half
yearly, the difference in the two interests will be
(a) Rs. 44 (b) Rs. 28.35
(c) Rs. 43.41 (d) Rs. 43.29
111. A dealer sold 34of his articles at a gain of 20 per cent and the remaining at cost price. The gain
percent earned by him in the whole transaction is
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) 15 (d) 16
112. Mohan brought 25 books for Rs. 2,000 and sold them at a profit equal to the selling price of 5
books. The selling price of 1 book is
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 120
(c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 200
113. 7 kg of tea costing Rs. 280 per kg is mixed with 9 kg of tea costing Rs. 240 per kg. The average price
of the mixed tea is
(a) Rs. 225.80 (b) Rs. 257.50
(c) Rs. 267.20 (d) Rs. 267.50
114. Of the three numbers, the second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of
these numbers is 44, the largest number is
(a) 24 (b) 36
(c) 72 (d) 108
115. The average of 30 numbers is 15. The average of the first 18 numbers is 10 and that of next 11
numbers is 20. The last number is
(a) 56 (b) 52
(c) 60 (d) 50
116. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5 per cent and the remainder of loss of 2 per
cent. If the total profit was Rs. 400, then the value of the consignment was
(a) Rs. 15,000 (b) Rs. 15,500
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 16,500
Directions. Q. 117-120 : These questions are based on the following bar graph and the question
FINANCES IF XYX
RAILWAYS640075008500940053005100580069008000880002000400060008000100002001-022002-
032003-042004-052005-06 Gross Traffic ReceiptsTotal Expenditure
117. In which year was the profit , as a percent of gross traffic receipts, the highest?
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2004-05
(c) 2003-04 (d) 2002-03
118. In order to make profit 10 percent what should have been the gross traffic receipts (in Rs. Crores) in
2002-03, total expenditure remaining the same?
(a) 6186 (b) 5876
(c) 6444 (d) 7667
119. What was the percentage increase in the gross traffic receipt in 2003-04 as compared to 2001-02?
(a) 33.9 (b) 41.5
(c) 20.7 (d) 17
120. If profit=gross traffic – total expenditure, then in 2004-05 what percentage of gross traffic receipts
is the profit made?
(a) 5.9 (b) 6.4
(c) 7.2 (d) 8.0
121. The least multiple of 7, which leaves the remainder 4, when divided by any of 6, 9, 15 and 18, is
(a) 76 (b) 94
(c) 184 (d) 364
122. If a = 5151+− and b= 5151−+, the value of 2222aabbaabb⎛⎞++⎜⎟−+⎝⎠ is
(a) 34 (b) 43
(c) 35 (d) 53
123. One’s digit of (2137)754 is
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 7 (d) 9
124. 1111...1223341011++++ΧΧΧΧ is equal to
(a) 911 (b) 1011
(c) 1211 (d) 109 110
125. The sum of two 2-digit numbers is 132. If their H.C.F. is 11, the numbers are
(a) 55, 77 (b) 44, 88
(c) 33, 99 (d) 22,110
PART III : ENGLISH
Directions. Q. 126-130 : In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in
Answer-sheet.
126. He is accused of on sitting on the fence.
(a) observing the scene (b) resting on fence
(c) hesitating which side to take (d) sitting back and enjoying the fun
127. You have to read between the lines to understand most of the symbolic writing.
(a) read again and again (b) understand the hidden meaning
(c) know the symbols (d) look for many meanings
128. The ruling party has been warned not to play to the gallery.
(a) to give importance to the common man
(b) to try to be clever
(c) to seek to win approval
(d) to side-track the issue
129. In the securities scam, the national credibility was at stake.
(a) on trial (b) under pressure
(c) in danger (d) challenged
130. There is no love lost between any two neighboring countries in the world.
(a) stop loving (b) not on good terms
(c) in danger (d) challenged
Directions. Q. 131-135: In these questions, group of four words are given. In each group, one word is
wrongly –spelt. Find the wrongly-spelt word and mark in the Answer-Sheet.
131.
(a) Sergent (b) Silhousette
(c) Session (d) Somnambulist
132.
(a) Façade (b) Inept
(c) Quotation (d) Pursuasive
133.
(a) Demeanour (b) Deodorise
(c) Demonstretor (d) Demoralise
134.
(a) Courageous (b) Outrangeous
(c) Languoreous (d) Spacious
135.
(a) Lapped (b) Murmurred
(c) Deterred (d) Worshipped
Directions. Q. 136-140: In these questions, the first and the last sentences of the passage are numbered
1 and 6. The rest pf the passage is spilt into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not
given in their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
Then find the correct answer and indicate it in Answer-sheet.
136.
1. We do not know whether the machines are the masters or we are.
P: They must be given rather ‘fed’ with coal and given petrol to drink from time to time
Q: Already man spends most of his time looking after and waiting upon them.
R: Yet we have grown so dependent on them that they have almost becomes the masters now.
S. It is very true that they were made for the sole purpose of being man’s servants.
6. And if they don’t get their meals when they expect them, they will just refuse to work.
(a) RSQP (b) RSPQ
(c) SPQR (d) SRQP
137.
1. The king of the oilfield is the driller.
P: During the process of drilling, gas and oil may be met.
Q: He is very skilled man.
R: If this rushes out and catches fire it is dangerous.
S: Sometimes he sends his drill more than a mile.
6. This danger is well-known and steps are taken to prevent it.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) QPRS (d) RSQP
138.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P: All valuables were smashed or stolen.
Q: The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R: Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S: The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mrs. M stood in the center of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Holy book, forcing back her
tears.
(a) PQRS (b) PRQS
(c) SPRQ (d) RSQP
139.
1. The student came late to the school.
P: He went home weeping.
Q: The watchman didn’t allow him inside the school.
R: The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S: He then decide to go home.
6. It was bad day for him.
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP
(c) QRSP (d) QPSR
140.
1. Freedom is first of all a personal matter.
P: A man who will not submit to the discipline of his chosen occupation is not free to be a great surgeon,
or engineer, or golfer, or executive.
Q: Life imposes a drastic discipline on all living things, including human beings.
R: We are free to eat poison or jump off a tall building, but not to escape the consequences.
S: We are bound by the laws of cause and effect.
6. Nature, moreover, binds us by arbitrary limits of mind and body; we are not free to do, by whatever
effort, what is beyond our capacity.
(a) QRSP (b) RSPQ
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP
Directions. Q.141-150: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the
Answer Sheet.
1. 141. A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
(a) Prologue (b) Dialogue
(c) Epilogue (d) Monologue
142. One who loves books
(a) Scholar (b) Bibliographer
(c) Teacher (d) Bibliophile
143. Belief that war and violence are unjustified
(a) Neutralization (b) Pessimism
(c) Naturalization (d) Pacifism
144. A group of girls
(a) Bevy (b) covey
(c) Troupe (d) Coterie
145. Causing or ending in death
(a) Fatal (b) Deadly
(c) Serious (d) Dangerous
146. Military waking signal sounded in the morning
(a) Reveille (b) Lullaby
(c) Anthem (d) Soprano
147. Study of insects
(a) Ecology (b) Embryology
(c) Entomology (d) Biology
148. A person in his seventies
(a) Sexagenarian (b) Septuagenarian
(c) Centurion (d) Patriarch
149. One who has obstinate and narrow religious views
(a) Theosophist (b) Bigot
(c) Philosopher (d) Theologian
150. The sound of a funeral bell
(a) Knell (b) Spell
(c) Dong (d) Ding-dong
Directions. Q. 151-155: In these questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out
of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express the same sentence in
Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
151. Tell him to get out of our house.
(a) He is told to get out of our house.
(b) Let him be told to get out of our house.
(c) He might be told to get out of our house.
(d) He should be told that he may get out of our house.
152. Those who worked hard seldom obtained good marks.
(a) Good marks were seldom being obtained by those who worked hard.
(b) Good marks are seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
(c) Seldom had good marks been obtained by those who worked hard.
(d) Good marks were seldom obtained by those who worked hard.
153. Has the price-rise affected all the people?
(a) Have all the people been affected by the price-rise?
(b) Are all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(c) Had all the people being affected by the price-rise?
(d) Are all the people affected by the price-rise?
154. They pick the flowers fresh every morning.
(a) The fresh flowers are picked every morning by them.
(b) The flowers are fresh and picked every morning by them.
(c) The flowers are picked fresh every morning by them.
(d) The picked flowers are fresh every morning by them.
155. Everyone looked up to him.
(a) He was looked up to by everyone.
(b) He was looked up by everyone.
(c) He is looked up by everyone.
(d) He looks up by everyone.
Directions. Q. 156-165: In these questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D).
156. He can’t read this, nor can I.
(a) no, I never can (b) no, I can’t
(c) no, I don’t (d) No improvement
157. I brought four dozen of mangoes.
(a) dozens of mango (b) dozens of mangoes
(c) dozens mangoes (d) No improvement
158. The master was good at using pleasant names for unpleasant things in order to hoodwink the
laboureres.
(a) euphemisms (b) euphoria
(c) pleasantries (d) No improvement
159. They had to put off until later the open-air performance because of heavy rain.
(a) postpone (b) delay
(c) adjourn (d) No improvement.
160. Dozens of phrases can be offered to describe style but perhaps the best one is : "Style-it is the
man."
(a) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(b) but perhaps the best one is : " Style is the man."
(c) but the best one is : " Style is the man."
(d) No improvement.
161. They have bought a new car, isn’t it?
(a) haven’t they? (b) don’t they?
(c) have they? (d) No improvement.
162. Only a few persons can stand on entreaties.
(a) against (b) with
(c) in (d) No improvement.
163. I had my ears bored so I could wear my diamond ear-rings
(a) holed (b) pricked
(c) pierced (d) No improvement.
164. It is interesting to correspond the history of the 19th century with its literature.
(a) corroborate (b) correlate
(c) command (d) No improvement.
165. Didn’t Mr. Sharma come to the office yet?
(a) Hadn’t (b) Hasn’t
(c) Isn’t (d) No improvement.
Directions. Q. 166-175: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the
passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the
alternatives given. Mark your answer in Answer-Sheet.
In most enterprises around the world, it is the Information Technology infrastructure that is undergoing
the most rapid upgradation. Perhaps this is a direct result of the rate of …..166….. in the Information
Technology industry, ……167….. with new …….168…… and business ……169…… invading our
consciousness everyday. In this context, it is …..170…. of this new technology that looms……171….. as an
issue …..172…. chief information officers of end-user organizations. Given the ….173…. of
magnitude….174….. the investments required and associated …..175….. in human terms in order to
effect change of this magnitude, this concern is hardly surprising.
166.
(a) rejection (b) growth
(c) obsolescence (d) magnificence
167.
(a) where (b) hence
(c) what (d) since
168.
(a) armies (b) agencies
(c) enemies (d) technologies
169.
(a) relations (b) prospects
(c) applications (d) agreements
170.
(a) absorption (b) development
(c) delineation (d) filtration
171.
(a) large (b) wide
(c) across (d) close
172.
(a) eluding (b) facing
(c) confounding (d) comprising
173.
(a) order (b) priority
(c) quality (d) gravity
174.
(a) in (b) on
(c) for (d) of
175.
(a) choices (b) costs
(c) feelings (d) possibilities
Directions. Q.176-180. In these questions you have one brief passage with five questions following the
passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four
alternatives and mark it in the Answer-sheet.
Passage
Every society must develop in its people a social responsibility. This is something that we, in India, have
been falling short of.
We are very individualistic, and don’t relate ourselves to our society as such. Very seldom do we actually
go out and do something, which is beneficial to the society and which does not have a side-benefit for
ourselves, as individuals. And this is another thing that must be built into the education system.
Our young boys and girls coming out must have a feeling for our society. There is a special responsibility
that you have, that we all have in building up the spirit.. We have to see that what we learn is not used
only; for our own personal benefits, that every task we do is such that it benefits the weak and the poor,
as Gandhiji has said.
India, today, is striving out into the modern world. We are looking ahead to new technology to high
technology, new methods, new types of employment, and an new dynamism in our economic growth.
But while we look ahead, we must not forget the millions who are still Below the Poverty Line. When we
look at technology, when we look at science, when we look at development, our attention must not be
diverted from what is still a major block in India -the poor and deprived groups. And everything we do
must be targetted in a manner that the benefit will flow to the weak, the deprived and the depressed.
176. The author says that India
(a) wants to acquire new technology.
(b) does not want new technology.
(c) already has sufficient new technology.
(d) can export technology to other countries.
177. The author suggests that
(a) the poor and the weak must benefit from new technology.
(b) the poor and week produce new technology.
(c) the new technology must help the rich.
(d) the new technology is useless to the poor and weak.
178. What value does the author want to build into the educational system?
(a) Individual must work for themselves.
(b) Individual must work for the benefit of the society without expecting any return or personal benefits.
(c) Society must work for the benefit of the individuals.
(d) Side-benefit is a must for any special work.
179. According to the author, the Indian people
(a) are socially very responsible.
(b) lack social responsibility.
(c) have several responsibilities.
(d) are highly responsible.
180. Indians do not do anything beneficial to society unless
(a) there is a benefit for themselves.
(b) it involves personal sacrifices.
(c) other individuals are benefited.
(d) the whole society benefits by it.
Directions. Q.181-190. In these questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find
out which part of the sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to appropriate
letter (A), (B) and (C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [■] corresponding to (D) in the Answer-
Sheet.
1. 181. I meant nothing (a) /less than (b) /to compel you to come. (c)/ No error (d).
2. 182. Females (a)/ are not appointed (b)/ in our college. (c)/ No error (d).
3. 183. He has read four plays (a)/ written by Shakespeare (b)/ by the end of his vacation. (c)/ No error
(d).
4. 184. The officer (a)/is angry on the clerk (b)/for not attending to the work. (c)/ No error (d).
5. 185. Banks were developed to keep people’s money safe (a)/ and to make it available (b) / when they
need it. (c)/ No error (d).
6. 186. Based on the newspaper reports, (a)/ we can conclude that (b)/ many accidents caused by
reckless driving. (c)/ No error (d).
7. 187. He walked (a)/ till the (b)/end of the street. (c)/ No error (d).
8. 188. The strain of all (a)/ the difficulties and vexation and anxieties (b)/ are more than he could bear.
(c)/ No error (d).
9. 189. In the background they could hear John laughing and joking loudly, (a)/ John was the life and soul
of any party. (b)/ and he was cracking a joke every few minutes. (c)/ No error (d).
10. 190. I was thinking (a)/ if I could do (b)/ anything to help. (c)/ No error (d).
Directions. Q.191-195. in these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
191. Impious
(a) Holy
(b) Mischievous
(c) Shrewd
(d) Irreverent
192. Freelance
(a) Self-betrayed
(b) Self-centred
(c) Self-employed
(d) Self-driven
193. Slither
(a) Slide (b) Move
(c) Shake (d) Slip
194. Apposite
(a) Contrary
(b) Bitter
(c) Appropriate
(d) Misleading
195. Scorn
(a) Ridicule
(b) Laugh
(c) Condemn
(d) Criticise
Directions. Q.196-200. in these questions, choose the word opposite to the meaning of the given word
and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.
196. Cursory
(a) Final
(b) Through
(c) Impulsive
(d) Customary
197. Lackadaisical
(a) Enthusiastic
(b) Intelligent
(c) Classical
(d) Irresponsible
198. Sublime
(a) Inferior
(b) Deficit
(c) Ridiculous
(d) Crooked
199. Evident
(a) Definite
(b) Careless
(c) Clear
(d) Obscure
200. Insolent
(a) Arrogant
(b) Humble
(c) Ashamed
(d) Ignorant
ANSWER KEYS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (b) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (c)
110. (c) 111. (a) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c)
119. (a) 120. (d) 121. (b) 122. (d) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a)
128. (c) 129. (a) 130. (a) 131. (d) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b)
137. (a) 138. (c) 139. (d) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (c) 144. (a) 145. (a)
146. (c) 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (a)
155. (d) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a) 161. (b) 162. (c) 163. (b)
164. (b) 165. (b) 166. (b) 167. (a) 168. (c) 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (b) 172. (a)
173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (a) 180. (b) 181. (d)
182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (a) 185. (c) 186. (b) 187. (c) 188. (b) 189. (a) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (b)
200. (b)

GENERAL AWARENESS

(Held on 06.09.09)

1. ‘India Today’ is—

(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
Ans : (C)

2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—

(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Ans : (D)

3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—

(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (D)

4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of
Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
Ans : (B)

5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—

(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
Ans : (C)
6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
Ans : (B)

7. Namdhapa National Park is in—

(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)

8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?

(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
Ans : (C)

9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?

(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
Ans : (D)

10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans : (D)

11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?

(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
Ans : (B)

12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on
27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11•75 per cent
(B) 11•85 per cent
(C) 12•00 per cent
(D) 12•05 per cent
Ans : (D)

13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
Ans : (A)

14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—

(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
Ans : (A)

15. CTBT stands for—

(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
Ans : (C)

16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—

(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (A)

17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

18. Full form of MCA is—

(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
Ans : (B)
19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
Ans : (A)

20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—

(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
Ans : (C)

21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
Ans : (C)

22. Match the following—

Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II
1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (C)

23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
Ans : (A)
24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)

25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?

(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
Ans : (C)

26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
Ans : (B)

27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?

(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
Ans : (C)

28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
Ans : (A)

29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and
‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
Ans : (C)

30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the
same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
Ans : (D)

31. The Constitution of India came into force on—

(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
Ans : (A)

32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
Ans : (A)

33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Fog is an example of—

(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
Ans : (B)

35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?

(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
Ans : (D)

36. Match the following—

Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (C)

37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)

38. Equator represents—

(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
Ans : (B)

39. Global warming is expected to result in—

(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—

(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
Ans : (B)

41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
Ans : (C)

42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—

(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
Ans : (D)

43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
Ans : (C)

44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?

(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
Ans : (C)

45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
Ans : (D)

46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
Ans : (C)

47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—

(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
Ans : (A)
48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
Ans : (C)

49. The Finance Commission—

(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Ans : (D)

50. Net National Product of a country is—

(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
Ans : (D)

51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—

(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
Ans : (B)

52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
Ans : (C)

53. EEG records the activity of—

(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
Ans : (C)

54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
Ans : (D)

55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?

(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
Ans : (B)

56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?

(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
Ans : (A)

57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?

(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Ans : (A)

58. Cereals are a rich source of—

(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

59. Aspirin is common name of—

(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
Ans : (D)

60. Small Pox is caused by—

(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
Ans : (B)
61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also
inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (D)

62. Aerobic respiration process requires—

(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
Ans : (C)

63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
Ans : (B)

64. Ozone consists of—

(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
Ans : (A)

65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?

(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
Ans : (C)

66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?

(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
Ans : (D)

67. A photo-electric cell converts—

(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
Ans : (D)

68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
Ans : (C)

69. Pulsars are—

(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
Ans : (C)

70. Biggest planet of solar system is—

(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)

71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (B)

72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Ans : (D)

73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
Ans : (B)
74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
Ans : (D)

75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
Ans : (B)

SSC  10+2 Level Exam Reasoning Model test paper

1.         If HARD is coded as    1357 and SOFT is
coded as 2468, what do the figures 21448 stand for?
(A) SHOP
(B) SCHOOL
(C) SHOOT
(D) SHOOL
Ans: C
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(A)215
(B) 143
(C)247
(D) 91
Ans : A
3. If MNPQWXFG stand for the word LOVE, how would you encode the word HATE?
(A) FGBCVUFG
(B) FGBCUVCD
(C) IJBGVUFG
(D) IJBCUVFG
Ans: D
4. In a row of thirty five children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children
between M and R. What is R’s position from the left end of the row?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : D
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(A)Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Platinum
(D)  Diamond
Ans : D
6. If SEND-MONEY is coded as QCLB-KMLCW, how would you encode ‘MOST-
SECRET’?
Write the first and last letters only.
(A) R,K
(B) O,V
(C) K,R
(D) V,U
Ans: B
7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RBAE using each letter
only once in each word?
(A)Three
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : A
8. If TOUR is coded as 1234 CLEAR is coded as 56784 and SPARE is coded as 90847, how you
encode the word SCULPTURE?
(A) 953601347
(B) 935601437
(C) 567903417
(D) None of these
Ans: A
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : D
10. If A is coded 2, B is coded as 4  and C is coded 6,
what does the following number stand for?
12 10 10 8
(A) PEEP
(B) FEED
(C) DOOR
(D) DEAF
Ans: b
11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of which has as many
digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the
number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
Ans : D
12. If Sister is coded as 535301, Uncle is coded as 84670 and Boy is coded as 129, how will you
encode the word ‘SON’?
(A) 923
(B) 524
(C) 342
(D) 872
Ans: b
13. Jn a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and beautiful’ is
written as ‘sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language?
(A)da
(B) ta
(C)na
(D)da or ta
Ans : D
14. If SLEEP is coded as XMKKB, SPEAR is coded as X8KOY and PULL is coded as BEMM
then how would you encode the word PLEASURE?
(A) XYKBMOFK
(B) BMKOXEYK
(C) KOXFYKBM
(D) BKMOXEKY
Ans: B
Directions—(Q. 15-17) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given
below—
832 719 654 967 481
15.If the positions of the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which
of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the third highest number?
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 15
Ans : A
16. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which
of the following will be the difference between the highest and the second highest number?
(A) 144
(B) 133
(C) 385
(D) 182
Ans : A
17. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of
the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the lowest number?
(A) 8
(B)11
(C) 15
(D)12
Directions—(Q. 18-24) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I ,II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
18. Statements:
All chairs are keys.
All keys are balloons.
Some balloons are mirrors.
Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III Some mirrors are balloons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
19. Statements:
Some drums are posters.
All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.
All tablets are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
Ans : B
20. Statements:
Some boxes are toys.
Some toys are nails.
Some nails are stores.
Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : C
21. Statements:
All doors are windows. No window is house.
Some houses are buildings.
All buildings are skies.
Conclusions:
I. Some skies are doors.
II. Some skies are houses.
III. Some buildings are doors.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : B
22. Statements:
All rivers are wails.
All walls are stones.
All stones are clothes.
All clothes are frees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are stones.
II Some clothes are rivers.
III. All walls are clothes.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(B) None of these
Ans : D
23. Statements:
Some letters are glasses. Some glasses are plates.
All plates are buses. All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are letters.
II. Some cars are glasses.
III. Some buses are glasses.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
24. Statements:
All books are pens.
Some pens are ropes.
All ropes are discs.
Some discs are bricks.
Conclusions:
I. Some bricks are ropes.
II. Some discs are books.
III. Some bricks are pens.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(B) Only II and III follow
Ans : A
25. If the word BOY is coded as ACNPXZ, what does the coded word RTNPMO stand for?
(A) SON
(B) CUT
(C) PEN
(D) DOG
Ans: A
26. In a certain code CROWNED is written as PSDVEFO. How is
STREAMS written in that code?
(A) SUTDBNT
(B) TUSDTNB
(C) SUTFTNB
(D) None of these
Ans : D
27. If the word GASP is coded as KMRO and CROW is coded as AXYZ then how would
you encode the word SPARROW?
(A) TRCTTOY
(B) ROMXYZY
(C) ROMXXYZ
(D) VSDUURZ
Ans: c
28. If 8514 stands for HEAD, 3945 stands for RIDE and 057 stands for BEG then what
does stand for GRADE?
(A) 13754
(B) 41357
(C) 14735
(D) 73145
Ans: d
29. If INDUS is coded as 03865 and TENNIS is coded as 243305 then STUDENT will be coded
as:
(A) 5268432
(B) 5642832
(C) 5628342
(D) 5648324
Ans: a
30. ‘DEAN’ is related to ‘NDAE’ and ‘ROAD’ is related to ‘DRAO’ in the same way as
‘SOME’ is related to
(A)ESMO
(B) BOMS
(C)EMOS
(D) MSEO
Ans : A
31. If COW is coded as 358, WORD is coded as
8571 and DRAW is code das 1708 then how
would you encode the word COWARD?
(A) 358017
(B) 358071
(C) 358077
(D) 507381
Ans: B
32. Among P, Q, T, A and B each having a different height, T is taller than P and B but shorter
than A and Q. P is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) None of these
Ans : D
33. Mohan correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is before twentieth January but after
sixteenth January whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after
eighteenth January but before twenty-third January. On which date in January is definitely their
father’s birthday?
(A) Eighteenth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Twentieth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
34. If SON is coded as TUPQOP, what will be
the first and last letters of the coded word of
FATHER?
(A)GH
(B) G T
(C) D E
(D) P Q
Ans: b
Directions—(Q. 35—431) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below—
B4@DA©79F%2R5H6E
*N$1UW3PT8&v#YI
35. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twenty- first from the left end of the
above arrangement?
(A)R
(B)1
(C)5
(DNone of these
Ans : D
36. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be
the fifteenth from the right end?
(A)W
(B)6
(C)*
(D)R
Ans : D
37. How many such consonants are there in the above e arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
Ans : C
38. In which of the following com binations the first element is in between the second and the
third elements in the above arrange
ment? -
(A)2%F
(B) 9©7
(C)5H6
(D) *EN
Ans : D
39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)562
(B) WPU
(C)©9D
(D) &#T
(E)U3$
Ans : B
40. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
41. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
42. If LINE CLEAR is coded as OKQGFN HCU, what will be the first and last letters of the
word for which the letters ZKUGS CUVXTH stand for?
(A) W E
(B) Z F
(C)YG
(D) Z H
Ans: A
43. In a certain code TRAIN is written as ‘39*7%’ and MEAL is written as ‘4$*@
How is ITEM written in that code?
(A)7$34
(B) 73$4
(C)79$4
(D) 73*4
Ans : B
44. If each consonant in the word TOLERANT is replaced by the previous letter in the English
alphabet and each vowel in the word is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the
new set of letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the
right end after the replacement?
(A) M
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) K
Ans : B
45. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are interchanged.
Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the
positions of the seventh and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third to the right
of 3 after the rearrange ent?
(A)9
(B)7
(C)8
(D)2
Ans : A
46. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than W and lighter than
only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(A) R
(B) W
(C) R or W
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : C
47. lf ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, ‘P’, denotes ‘x’,‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and
‘V’ denotes‘-‘then14W16R4V3P5=?
(A) 15
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans : D
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group ?
(A VY
(B) EB
(C) TQ
(D) IF
Ans : A
49. In a row of thirty children, M is sixth to the right of R who is twelfth from the left end. What
is M’s position from the right end of the row ?
(A) Twelfth
(B) Thirteenth
(C) Fourteenth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 169
(B) 441
(C) 361
(D) 529
Ans : B

CPO SUB Inspector Exam Paper 2008

General Knowledge

1. Which one one of the following is not a quantitative credit control techniques?
(1) Bank Rate
(2) Cash Reserve Ratio
(3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(4) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit

2. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) GoQ(i money drives bad money out of circulation
(2) Bad money drives good mon- . ey out of circulation
(3) Good and bad money cannot circulate together
(4) Cannot say

3. Tetanus is caused by
(1) Clostridium
(2) Virus
(3) Bacteriophage
(4) Salmonella

4. Vitamin E is particularly important for

(1) development of teeth
(2) carbohydrate metabolism
(3) normal activity of sex glands
(4) general health of epithelial tissues

5. Birds usually have a single

(1) Kidney
(2) Lung
(3) Testis
(4) Ovary

6. Blood pressure is controlled by

(1) Adrenal gland
(2) Thyroid gland'
(3) Thymus
(4) Corpus Luteum

7. The carbon dioxlde content in the air that we exhale is about

(1) 4%
(2) 8%
(3) 12%
(4) 16%

8. Maximum harm to a tree is caused by

(1) Loss of half of its leaves
(2) loss of all leaves
(3) loss of half of its branches
(4) loss of its bark

9. Mineral constituent of chlorophyllis.

(1) Iron
(2) Magnesium
(3) Calcium
(4) Potassium

10. Which of the part of tongue bears cells for sour taste?
(1) Front
(2) Back
(3) Sides
(4) Middle

11. The deficiency of Vitamin B causes

(1) Scurvy
(2) Dermatitis
(3) Beri - Beri
(4) Phynoderma

12. In which vertebrate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood gets mixed?

(1) Fish
(2) Amphibian
(3) Bird
(4) Mammal

13. Which of the following circuit elements is used to 'block' DC in an electronic circuit?
(1) Resistances
(2) Capacitance
(3) Inductance
(4) Diode

14. Spectacles used for viewing 3D fllmshave

(1) Bifocal lens
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave lens
(4) Polaroids

15. The number of staellites of the planet is Mercury is

(1) 0 I
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 16

Answers: 1. 4, 2. 2, 3. 1, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 1, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 2, 10. 3, 11. 3, 12. 2, 13. 2, 14. 4, 15. 1

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SSC CPO SI EXAM PAPER

1. In which State was the first non- Congress Government set up in Independent India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
2. Cheap money means
(a) low rates of interest
(b) low level of saving
(c) low level of income
(d) low level of standard of living
3. Under the rules of the IMR, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal
tender money in terms of the US dollars and
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Pound Sterling
(d) Diamond
4. The Government takes ‘Ways and means advances’ from
(a) RBI
(b) IDBI
(c) SBI
(d) ICICI
5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in
(a) 1991
(b) 1996
(c) 1998
(d) 2000
6. Compared to the rich the poor save
(a) a large part of their income
(b) an equal part of their income
(c) a smaller part of their income
(d) all of their incomes
7. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
(a) imposition of import duties
(b) liberalization of the economy
(c) recession in other countries
(d) diversification of exports
8. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Recession
(d) Stagflation
9. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane
10. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
11. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
(a) 21 years of age
(b) 25 years of age
(c) 30 years of age
(d) 32 years of age
12. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State
Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 56th
13. Nov. 26, 1949 is a significant day in the history of our constitution because
(a) India took a pledge of complete independence on this day
(b) the Constitution was adopted on this day
(c) India became a Republic on the day
(d) the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day
14. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the India
Constitutions?
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b) Socialist
(c) Secular
(d) Federal
15. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Zakir Hussain
(d) V. V. Giri
16. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is
(a) 530
(b) 545
(c) 540
(d) 550
17. How many readings does a non-Money Bill have in each House of the Parliament?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
18. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of
the
(a) Governor of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(d) Finance Minister of the State
19. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) V. P. Singh
(d) Chandrashekhar
20. The Union Parliament consists of
(a) the President of India
(b) the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(c) the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) All of these
21. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on “Non-Cooperation” in
1920 as its session held at
(a) Lucknow
(b) Delhi
(c) Bombay
(d) Calcutta
22. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
23. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made
by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab?
(a) Educational Reforms
(b) Police Reforms
(c) Industrial Reforms
(d) Agricultural Reforms
24. Who among the following was sent as an Ambassasdor to the royal court of Jahangir by
James I, the then King of England?
(a) John Hawkins
(b) William Todd
(c) Sir Thomas Roe
(d) Sir Walter Raleigh
25. ‘Dyarchy’ was introduced in the Government of India Act of
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) None of these

:: ANSWERS ::
1 (d), 2 (a), 3 (b), 4 (a), 5 (c), 6 (c), 7 (a), 8 (a), 9 (b), 10 (b), 11 (c), 12 (a), 13 (b), 14 (d), 15 (b),
16 (d), 17 (b), 18 (c), 19 (a), 20 (d), 21 (d), 22 (a), 23 (d), 24 (c), 25 (b)
Numerical Ability Model paper for SSC Staff Selection Commission Exam
SSC Staff Selection Commission Exam : solved Question Paper
SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Data Entry Operator exam for
basic Arithmetic (Numerical Aptitude)

Directions-(Q. 1-5) What should come in

place of the questi0n—mark (?) in the following
questions ?

1. [(58)² x (48)²] ÷ ? = 2152-96

(A) 60 (B) 2500

(C) 50 (D) 3600
(E) None of those

Answer.D

2. 7432 ÷ 92-9 x 18-5 = ?

(A) 1450 (B) 1600

(C) 1480 (D) 1560
(E) None of these

Answer.C

3. 99 x 21 – ³?? = 1968

(A) 1367631
(B) 111
(C) 1366731
(D) 1367
(E) None of these

Answer.E

4. 9634 x 3/8 ÷ ? = 28-902

(A) 115 (B) 95

(C) 110 (D) 120
(E) None of these

Answer.A

5. 19-99 x 9-9 + 99-9 = ?

(A) 129-79 (B) 297-801

(C) 1009 . (D) 296-91
(E) None of these

Answer.B
Directions—(Q. 6-10) What should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?

6. 354, 180, 64, 21, 10.2, ?

(A) 5.6 (B) 8.7

(C) 3.8 (D) 1.7
(E) None of these

Answer.B

7. 4.5, 18, 2.25, ?, 1.6875, 33.75

(A) 27 (B) 25.5 .

(C) 36 (D) 40. l
(E) None of these

Answer.A

8. 59.76, 58.66, 56.46, 52.06, 7, 25.66

(A) 48.08 (B) 46.53

(C) 43.46 (D) 43.26
(E) None of these

Answer.D

9. 36, 157, 301, 470, ?, 891 -

(A) 646 (B) 695 `

(C) 639 (D) 669
(E) None of these

Answer.E

10. 14, 70, 350, ?, 8750, 43750

(A) 1570 (B) 875

(C) 1750 _ (D) 785
(E) None of these

Answer.C

ll. The ratio of the number of students studying

in Schools A, B and C is 6 : 8 : 7 respectively.
If the number of students studying in each of
the schools is increased by 20%, 15% and
20% respectively, what will be the new ratio
of the number of students in Schools A, B and C.

(A) 18 : 23 : 21
(B) 12: 18 : 17
(C) 18 :21 : l7
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.A

2. On a test consisting of 75 questions carrying

one mark each Samir answered 75% of the
first 40 questions correctly. What approxi-
mate per cent of the other 35 questions does
he need to answer correctly to score 80% on
the entire test

(A) 90 (B) 75
(C) 86 (D) 60
(E) 58

Answer.C

3. Out of these numbers the sum of the first and

the second number is 73 and the sum of
second and the third number is 77. The sum
of the third and thrice the first number is 104.
What is the third number

(A) 25
(B) 39
(C) 48
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these _

Answer.E

14. 50 people consume 350 kgs. of rice in 30

days. In how many days will 35 people
consume 50 kgs. of rice

(A) 2 days (B) 3 days

(C) 5 days (D) 7 days
(E) None of these

Answer.E

15. Krishna has some hens and some goats. If the

total number of animal heads are 81 and total
number of animal legs are 234, how many
goats does’ Krishna have ?

(A) 45
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer.C

Directions—(Q. 16-20) Study the following

data carefully and answer the questions given
below-

A survey conducted on 1800 villages shows

_ that 25% of the total villages have only adequate
water supply. 15% of the total number of villages
have proper supply of electricity only. 7% of the
total number of villages have only proper
education facilities. 12% of the total number of
villages have telecommunication services only.
16% of the total number of villages have proper
health care services only. 6% of the total number
of villages have adequate water as well as supply
of electricity. 8% of the total number of villages
have adequate supply of water, supply of elec-
tricity as well as health care services. 5% of the
total number of villages have proper supply of
electricity, telecommunication services as well as
health care services and 6% of the total number of
villages have all the facilities.

16, How many villages in all have adequate water

supply ?

(A) 702
(B) 450
(C) 594
(D) 810
(E) None of these

Answer.D

17. How many villages in all have adequate

supply of water as well as electricity ?

(A) 360 (B) 108

(C) 720 (D) 972
(E) None of these

Answer.A

18. How many villages in all do not have proper

supply of electricity ?

(A) 720 (B) 850

(C) 920 (D) 1080
(E) None of these

Answer.D
19. How many villages have only proper
education facilities ? _

(A) 108 (B) 126

(C) 234 (D) 216
(E) None of these

Answer.B

20. How many villages have all the facilities ?

(A) 90 (B) 126

(C) 144 (D) 106
(E) None of these

Answer.E

Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the following

table carefully and answer the questions given _;
below. l
Quantity of Rice produced by
various states over the years
(Quantity in Tonnes)

Years
States 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
A 1500 1480 1620 1700 1540 1650
B 1250 1190 1400 1450 1320 1380
C 1160 1190 1310 1300 1340 1360
D 1520 1500 1480 1590 1630 1580
E 1440 1350 1430 1280 1380 1400
F 1600 1620 1510 1610 1580 1590

21. In which state has the production of rice

increased over the years continuant

(A) A (B) B
(C) D (D) E
(E) None of these

Answer.E

22. In which year was the production of rice the

highest in all the states together

(A) 2007 (B) 2002

(C) 2005 (D) 2006
(E) None of these

Answer.A

23. Which state produced the lowest quantity of

rice over the years ?
(A) E (B) D
(C) C (D) A
(E) None of these

Answer.C

24. What is the respective ratio of the average

quantity of rice produced by State D to the
average quantity of rice produced by State F
over the years ?

(A) 69 : 79 (B) 310:317

(C) 138: 155 (D) 276: 317
(E) None of these

Answer.B

25. Rice produced by State C in the year 2005 is

approximately what per cent of the rice
produced by State A in the same year ‘?

(A) 82 (B) 72
(C) 88 (D) 76
(E) 69

Answer.D

Directions- Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Number of Literates in various cities over the years

M-Males, F-Females
Years 2001 2002 2004

Cities M F M F M F M F M F
U 15000 25000 18550 20000 18590 25000 25000 25500 28000 28800
V 12500 9200 14680 10520 16000 11000 16850 13680 16920 14360
W 18660 17380 18950 18000 18980 19000 19500 19250 19580 19600
X 14200 14350 14820 14500 15250 15000 15390 15250 16000 16200
Y 9700 8320 9990 8540 9870 8820 10200 10000 10520 10300

31. What is the total number of male literates in

City W over the years

(A) 97650 (B) 95670

(C) 99280 (D) 96570
(E) None of these

Answer.B

32. What is the total number of literates across

the cities in the year 2005
(A) 180280 (B) 182000
(C) 18805.0 (D) 180500
(E) None of these

Answer.A

33. What is the difference between the total

number of female literates across the cities in
the year 2002 and the year 2004 ?

(A) 11850 (B) 12000

(C) 11500 (D) 12800
(E) None of these

Answer.E

34. What is the respective ratio of literates of City

X in the year 2001 to the literates of the same
city in the year 2003 ‘?

(A) 581 : 624

(B) 64 : 75
(C) 571 : 605
(D) 84: 131
(E) None of these

Answer.C

35. What is the average number of female

literates across the cities in the year 2005 ?

(A) 18725 (B) 15872 •

(C) 17582 (D) 17852
(E) None of these

Answer.D

Directions- Study the following

Pie—Graph carefully and answer the questions
given below.

A survey conducted on 5800

villages staying in various villages and having
various favourite fruits

Favourite Fruits
Guava 14%
Apple 12%
Grapes 11%
Mango 28%
Banana 20%
Custard apple 15%
People staying in various villages

A 22%
B 21%
C 32%
D 25%

36. Mango is the favorite fruit of 50% of the

people from Village C. People having their
favourite fruit as mango from Villages C form
approximately what per cent of the people
having their favourite fruit as mango from all
the villages together ?

(A) 48 (B) 53
(C) 61 (D) 57
(E) 45

Answer.D

37. 20% of the people from Village D have

banana is their favourite fruit and 12% of the
people from the same village have guava as
their favourite fruit. How many people from
that village like other fruits

(A) 764 B ) 896

(C) 874 (D) 96%
(E) None of these

Answer.E

38. How many people in all have custard apple as

their favourite fruit

(A) 850 (B) 864

(C) 870 (D) 812
(E) None of these

Answer.C

39. 50% of the people from Village B have

banana as their favourite fruit. How many A
people from other villages have the same
favourite fruit

(A) 1160 (B) 551

(C) 1020 (D) 609
(E) None of these

Answer.B
40. What is the total number of people having
their favourite fruit as apple and grapes to-
gether

(A) 1334 (B) 1286

(C) 1300 (D) 1420
(E) None of these

Answer.A

41. In how many different ways can the letters

of the word ‘GAMBLE’ be arranged

(A) 720 (B) 840

(C) 360 (D) 420
(E) None of these

Answer.A

42. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by

200% and the denominator of the fraction is
increased by 150%, the resultant fraction is $6
What is the original fraction

(A) 5/12 (B) 4/7840

(C) 3/4 (D) 7/11
(E) None of these

Answer.C

43. Pratibha covers a distance of 24 kms at the

speed of 8 kms/hr, and a distance of 18 kms at
the speed of 9 kms/hr. Further she covers a
distance of 12 kms at the speed of 3 kms/hr.
What is her average speed in covering the
whole distance

(A) 8 kms/hr. (B) 5.5 kms/hr.

(C) 3 kms/hr. (D) 6kms/hr.
(E) None of these

Answer.D

44. The mean of the marks obtained by 100 E

students is 60. If the marks obtained by one of `
the students was incorrectiy caiemated as 75,
whereas the actual marks obtained by him
were 65, what is the correct mean of the
marks obtained by the students

(A) 59
(B) 58-50
(C) 50
(D) Cannot be determined ‘
(E) None of these

Answer.E

45. The difference between a two•digit number

and the number obtained by interchanging the
two digits of the numbers is 36. What is the
difference between the two digits of the
number

(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Answer.B

Directions•(Q
What approximate
value should come in place of the question mark
(?) in the following questions ? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).

46. 388 + 0.8 + 0.7 = ?

(A) 681 (B) 654

(C) 693 (D) 670
(E) 700

Answer.C

47. ?729 x ?338= ?

(A) 470 (B) 482

(C) 521 (D) 530
(E) 496

Answer.E

48. 1875 ÷ 35 x 3242 ÷ 48 = ?

(A) 3525 (B) 3618
(C) 3641 (D) 3591
(E) 3636

Answer.B

49.³?41132 =?

(A) 35 (B) 42
(C) 22 (D) 29
(E) 45
Answer.A

50. 15.28 x 12.36+ 41.17 x 21 – 34 = ?

(A) 1125 (B) 1098

(C) 1132 (D) 1032
(E) 1067

Answer.E

SSC Staff Selection Commission Exam : solved Question Paper

SSC 2009 QUESTION PAPER Based on Previous exams on GENERAL AWARENESS
SSC ASSISTANT exam Free online paper
GK in SSC Exams is very vast and you need need to Prepare with a broad focus

1. Which Indian film stars was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University, (U.K.) ?
(A) AmitabhBachhan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Om Puri
(D) Amir Khan
Anawer.B

2. Williams Sisters won the U.S.

Open Women’s Doubles Title
2009 after defeating in the final-
(A) Leizal Herber and Cara
Blank
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna
Kournikova
(C) Coroline Wozniacki and
Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania
Mirza
Anawer.A

3, Which one of the following is a

military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN (B) SAARC
(C) NATO (D) NAFTA
Anawer.C

4. The recipient of the 42nd Jnan

Peeth Award is-
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K. Kamal Kumar
Anawer.C

5.World Development Report is an

annual publication of-
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) WTO
(D) World Bank
Anawer.D

6. Which one of the following is

correct ?
Player Sport
(A)jeev Milkha Singh -—Tennis
(B) jhulan Goswami —Cricket
(C) Baichung Bhutia —Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani-Badmi.nton
Anawer.B

7. _Which one of the following

industrialists was declared ’The
Business Person of the year 2008’
by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
Anawer.C

S. Naina Devi peak forms a part

of-
(A) Himalayan range located in
Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in
Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in
Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in
jammu & Kashmir
Anawer.B

9. The aim of the ISRO’s OCEAN-

SAT•2 satellite is—
(A) T0 provide ocean scientists
knowledge – about mineral
resources under the sea
(B) To aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) To aid weathermen to fore-
cast cyclones and weather conditions
(D) All the above
Anawer.D

10. Who amongst the following is

not the recipient of the Rajiv
Gandhi Khel Rama Award ?
(A) Vijendra Singh
(B) Sushil Kumar
(C) M, C. Marykom
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Anawer.D

ll. Nilgiri, Hirngiri and ’Beas’ are-

(A) Aircraft Carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
Anawer.B

12. The age of a tree can be calculated by-

(A) Number of branches
(B) Its height
(C) Girth of its trunk
(D) Number of its annual rings
Anawer.D

13. Which one of the statements

below explains the external economies of scale ?
(A) Starting a computer firm in
a Techno Park to avail the
expertise
(B) Expanding firms employing
specialist accountants, lawyers
and managers
(C) A manufacturer spreading
the research and development
cost over the output
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct
purchase
Anawer.C

14, Which one of the following types

of unemployment is common in
lndian agriculture
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
Anawer.D

15. A rolling plan refers to a plan

which-
(A) Does not change its targets
every year
(B) Changes its allocations every
year
(C) Changes its allocations and
targets every year
(D) Changes only its targets
every year
Anawer.C
16. An instrument of qualitative
credit control in India is—
(A) Open market operations
(B) Credit rationing
(C) Change in reserve ratio
(D) Bank rate policy
Answer.B

17. Laissez-faire is a feature of—

(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
Anawer.C

18. Which one of the following is not

a source of the tax revenue in
Indian States ?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
Anawer.D

19. CSO has changed its base year

for National Income estimation.
The new base year is-
(A) 1990-91 (B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95 (D) 1995-96
Anawer.B

20. Which is the biggest enterprise of

the Government of India ?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
Anawer.B

21. In which type of competition

does Marginal Revenue Curve
coincide with Average Revenue
Curve ?
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition

Anawer.C
22. According to ]. Schumpeter,
entrepreneurs are entitled to
enjoy the profit for their ……,..
activities.
(A) Innovative
(B) Risk taking
(C) Risk averting
(D) Hard work
Anawer.A

23. Demonstration effect means~

(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Anawer.B

24. Homogeneous product is a

feature of-
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
Anawer.D

25. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideals of

Welfare State
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State
Policy
Anawer.D

26. Who said, “Parliamentary System

provides a daily as well as a
periodic assessment of the Government” ?
(A) Dr. B4 R. Ambedkar
(B) Shri B. N. Rao
(C) Shri fawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Anawer.A

27. The legal advisor to the State

Government is known as-
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney•General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
Anawer.A

28. The maximum duration of Zero

Hour in Lok Sabha is—•
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Two hours
(D) Unspecified
Anawer.B

29. Which agency acts as co-coordinator between Union Government,

Planning Commission and State
Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development
Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Anawer.C

30. When will demand become a

grant ?
(A) When a demand is pro-
posed
(B) After the discussion on
demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is
closed
Anawer.C

31. What makes the judiciary the

guardian of the Constitution
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) judicial Review
Anawer.D

32. What is the name of judicial

organ of UNO
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of lnternational justice
(C) judicial Forum
(D) International Court of justice
Anawer.D

33. The Election disputes regarding

the Election of President and
Vice-President can be heard by-
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Cornmission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
Anawer.C

34. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

suggested that the structure of
Panchayati Raj should consist
of-
(A) The village, the block and
the district levels
(B) The mandal and the district
levels
(C) The village, the district and
the State levels
(D) The village, the mandal, the
district and the State levels
Anawer.A

35. Which of the following has

banned ’floor crossing’ by the
members elected on a party
ticket to the legislature
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal
Security Act
Anawer.A

36. The expression ’Creamy Layer’

used in the judgments of the
Supreme Court relating to the
case regarding reservations refers
to-
(A) Those sections of society
which pay Income-tax
(B) Those sections of socially
and educationally backward
classes of the society that are economically advanced
(C) Those sections of the society
that are considered advanced
according to Karpuri Thakur
formula
(D) All sections of upper castes
of the society
Anawer.B

37. When was the Panchtantra

written
(A) Maurya Period
(B) Kanishka Period
(C) Gupta Period
(D) Harsha Period
Answer.C

38. Which one among the following

is regarded as the ’Magna Carta’
of Indian education
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
Anawer.A

39. The battle of Mahabharata is

believed to have been fought at
Kurukshetra for-
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Anawer.C

40. The Mukteswara Temple is

located at——
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
Anawer.D

41. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty

was called the ’Napoleon of
India’ 7
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Anawer.A

42. Between which two rulers was

the First Battle of Panipat
fought ?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Baburand IbrahjrnLodi
(C) Bairam Khan and Sikandar
Lodi
(D) Shah Iahanancl Daulat Khan
Lodi
Anawer.B

43. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari?

(A) Abul Fazal
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Anawer.A

44. Match List-I with List-Il and

select the correct answer by
using the codes given below the
lists-
List-I List-II
(a) Peshwas 1. Nagpur
(b) Gaekwads 2. Pune
(c) Bhonsles 3. lndore
(d) Holkers 4. Baroda
Codes:
(zi) (b) (C) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Anawer.A

45. Which reformer from Mahara-

shtra was known as Lokhitavadi

(A) Pandit Ramabai

(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Anawer.D

46. ’Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a

success because-
(A) After Akbar, it was not
patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept
other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected
to the masses
(D) All the above
Anawer.D

47. Who was the author of the book

’My Experiments with Truth’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Anawer.C

48. Give the correct chronological

order of the following events-
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Un-
touch ability League .
3. Formation of All India Trade
Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4,1, 3 (B) 3, 4, 1, Z
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Anawer.D

49. 80% of the coal in India comes

from-
(A) Iharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
Anawer.A

50. Dry zone agriculture in India con-

tributes nearly 40% of the total-
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Anawer.D

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Solved Multiple Choice Questions
Free Online Quiz With answers
Practice Quiz For GK in SSC

1. The precipitation consisting of a

mixture of snow and rain is-
(A) Sleet (B) Smog
(C) Snow-line (D) Fog
Anawer.A

2. ’Operation Flood’ was launched

in 1970 to-
(A) Control floods
(B) Increase milk production
(C) Improve water sources
(D) Construct more dams
Anawer.B

3. Photogrammetry is
(A) Portraying gradient
(B) Movement of setlines
(C) A method of solving geo-
metrical problems
(D) Use of photography in
surveying and mapping
Anawer.D

4. The spice State of India is-

(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Anawer.D

5. jog Falls is found across the

river-
(A) Cauvery (B) Kabini
(C) Krishna (D) Sharavati
Anawer.D

6. Which of the following sea ports

of India is the main outlet for
export of Tea ?
(A) Mumbai (B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla (D) Chennai
Anawer.B

7. The International Date Line

passes through the-
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Anawer.A

8. Which of the following is not a

form of precipitation ?
(A) Rainfall (B) Snowfall
(C) Fog (D) Hail
Anawer.C

9. Which of the following is a Great

Circle Y
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
Anawer.C

10. Tides in the sea have stored in

them-
(A) Hydraulic energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Gravitational potential energy
(D) A combination of all the
above
Anawer.D

11. Which component of blood is

considered as the guard cell of
our body ?
(A) R.B.C. (B) Platelets
(C) Plasma (D) W.B.C.
Anawer.D

12. Camel can walk easily in the

desert, because-
(A) It has thick skin
(B) It can maintain water level
in the body
(C) It has a layer of fat under
the skin to combat heat
(D) It has long legs with padded
paws
Anawer.D

13. The function of arteries in our

body is to-
(A) Carry blood away from the
heart
(B) Purify the blood
(C) Manufacture White Blood
Corpuscles
(D) Carry blood back to the
heart
Anawer.A

14. Plants climb by means of-

(A) Tendrils (B) Roots
(C) Pistil (D) Branches
Anawer.A

15. This term is associated with the

Biology of silkworms.
(A) Apiculture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Sylviculture
(D) Pisciculture
Anawer.B

16. Pick out the correct sequence of a

simple land food chain :
1. Deer
2. Grass
3. Tiger
(A) 1-2-3 (B) 3—2—1
(C) 1-3-2 (D) 2-1-3
Anawer.D

17. Sex in human beings is deter-

mined by-
(A) Vitamins
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Hormones
(D) Nutrients
Anawer.B

18. Deficiency of fluorine in drinking

water causes-
(A) Dental caries (cavity)
(B) Dental fluorosis
(C) Skeletal fluorosis
(D) Goiter
AnawerA

19. In man,urea is formed in-

(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Nephron
(D) Urinary Bladder
Anawer.B

20. The most important function of

perspiration is-
(A) Get rid of the body wastes
(B) Regulate body temperature
(C) Regulate body wastes
(D) Lubricate the skin
Anawer.B

21. ECG is the instrument that

records-
(A) Potential different of cardiac
muscles
(B) Rate of respiration
(C) Rate of glomerular filtration
(D) Volume of blood pumped
Anawer.A

22. Hot spot is an area having-

(A) Wide variety of species
(B) Wealth of endemic species
(C) Rich variety of flora and
fauna
(D) Conserving species in
natural habitat
Anawer.B

23. Electromagnet is used in a—

(A) Calling bell
(B) Computer
(C) Motor
(D) Washing machine
Anawer.A

24. Kilo Watt Hour represents the

unit for—
(A) Force (B) Power
(C) Time (D) Energy
Anawer.D

25. A transformer is used to-

(A) Convert mechanical energy
into electrical energy
(B) Convert alternating current
into direct current
(C) Convert direct current to
alternating current
(D) Transform alternating cur-
rent voltage
Anawer.D

26. Clear nights are colder than

cloudy nights because of—•
(A) Conduction
(B) Condensation
(C) Radiation
(D) lnsolation
Anawer.C

27. A stick partly dipped in water

appears broken due to-
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Diffraction
Anawer.B

28. What is condensation ?

(A) Change of gas into solid
(B) Change of solid into liquid
(C) Change of vapour into liquid
(D) Change of heat energy into
cooling energy
Anawer.C

29. Kinetic energy is converted into

electrical energy in-
(A) Electric Motor
(B) Dynamo
(C) Electromagnet
(D) Ammeter
Anawer.B

30. Floppy disk is an example of—

(A) Read Only Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Cache Memory
(D) Secondary Storage Memory
Anawer.D

31. Which of the following com-

pounds are sprayed over clouds
to cause artificial rain ?
(A) Ice (B) NaOH
(C) Agl (D) NH4C1
Anawer.C
32. Iodine deficiency in diet is
known to cause~—
(A) Rickets (B) Obesity
(C) Scurvy (D) Goiter
Anawer.D

33. The refrigeration of the food

articles keeps them fresh,
because-
(A) Water forms crystals
(B) Chemical reaction is slowed
down
(C) Chemical reaction take place
faster
(D) Bacteria are killed
Anawer.A

34. Which substance is called the

’liquid gold’ ?
(A) Gold as a liquid form
(B) Sodium as a liquid form
(C) Mustard oil
(D) Petroleum oil
Anawer.D

35. Percentage of silver in German

silver is-
(A) 25% (B) 0%
(C) 75% (D) 80%
Anawer.B

36, Which type of compounds are

sugar and common salt ?
(A) Both are organic compounds
(B) Both are inorganic com•
pounds
(C) Sugar is an organic com-
pound and common salt is an
inorganic compound
(D) Sugar is inorganic com-
pound and common salt is an
organic compound
Anawer.C

37. The chemical name of Vitamin

’E’ is-
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Retinol
(C) Tocopherol
(D) Thiamine
Anawer.C
38. Which of the following gases has
bleaching property
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen
Anawer.C

39. The heaviest body of our Solar

system is
(A) Sun (B) Uranus
(C)j]upiter (D) Saturn
Anawer.A

40. From amongst the following;

name the famous Indian ornithologist»
(A) Dr. Salim Ali
(B) Dr. Gopalasamudram N.
Ramachandran
(C) Dr.J. B. S. Haldane
(D) Dr. H. G.Khorana
Anawer.A

41. Who performed the longest

space journey in the year 2007
(A) Venus Williams
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Sunita William
(D) Sir lohn William
Anawer.C

42. ’The Lost Child’ was written by-

(A) Nirad C. Chowdhury
(B) Mulk Raj Anand
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Annie Besant
Anawer.B

43. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan has dist•

inguished himself in which of the
following fields 7
(A) Nuclear Physics
(B) Agriculture
(C) Astrophysics
(D) Medicine
Anawer.B

44. The Headquarters of UNESCO is at-

(A) Rome (B) Geneva
(C) Paris (D) New York
Answer.C
45. ]anuary 15 is celebrated as the—
(A) Arrny Day
(B) Martyr’s Day
(C) Independence Day
(D) Ugadhi
Anawer.A

46. Bijapur is known for its-

(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Rock Temple
(C) GolGumbaj
(D) Statue of Gomateshwara
Anawer.C

47. The Americans are also known as-

(A) Kiwis
(B) Yankees
(C) Tories
(D) None of the above
Anawer.B

48, India lifted the ONGC Nehru Cup, 2009 after defeating in the final-
(A) Syria
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh
Anawer.A

49. An element which does not react with oxygen is-

(A) Chlorine (B) Iodine
(C) Helium (D) Nitrogen
Anawer.C

50. During sleep, man’s blood pressure

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Fluctuates
(D) Remains constant
Anawer.B