PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE

INSTRUCTION. Select the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write the letter of your
choice in the examination booklet.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

CO1 Discuss the different laws affecting the practice of architecture in the Philippines.
1. Which of the following must be secured by foreign nationals allowed to practice under a
temporary /special permit?
a. Professional liability insurance c. performance bond
b. Comprehensive insurance d. professional competence insurance

2. What does the PRC issue to all practicing professionals which shows an evidence of registration
and is renewable every three years?
a. Professional Identification Card c. PRC Registration Certificate
b. PRC ID Certificate d. PRC Certificate of Registration

3. Which among the following is not a required qualification of Board Member of the Professional
Regulatory Board of Architecture?
a. Be a citizen of the Philippines and a resident thereof
b. Holder of a degree in Bachelor of Science in Architecture
c. Be an architect
d. Not be a faculty member of architecture
e. None of the above

4. Which of the following is not considered an unprofessional or dishonourable conduct and hence
not a ground for the revocation of certificate?
a. Signing and sealing plans not prepared under his supervision
b. Bribing to secure a certificate of registration
c. Falsely impersonating a practitioner
d. Aiding in the practice of architecture any person not duly authorized to practice architecture
in the Philippines
e. None of the above

5. Which of the following is not a prohibition in the practice of architecture?

a. Practicing architecture without being registered
b. Using the seal of another architect
c. Forging evidence to secure certificate of registration
d. Supervising the preparation of contract documents

6. With respect to responsibilities to colleagues and subordinates, which of the following is

unethical practice for the architect?
a. Affixes signature to plans prepared by another person or entities
b. Refrains from associating himself with any enterprise of doubtful character
c. Inspires loyalty of employees
d. Refrains from participating at competitions where he has involvement in its programs
7. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to issue
corresponding certificates of payment and final certificate of completion?
a. Client b. contractor c. manufacturers/dealers d. public

8. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to provide
adequate and just compensation to employees?
a. Client b. contractor c. colleagues/subordinates d. public

9. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to provide for
arbitration as a method for settlement of disputes?
a. Client b. contractor c. colleagues/subordinates d. public

10. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to give every
reasonable aid to enable him to fully understand the contents of the Contract Documents by
furnishing clear, definite and consistent information in all pertinent contract documents to avoid
unnecessary mistakes that may involve extra cost?
b. Client b. contractor c. colleagues/subordinates d. public

11. What requirement regulates the entry of foreign nationals to the practice of architecture?
a. Reciprocity b. bilateral agreement c. unilateral agreement d. parallel

12. As per PD 1096, under what classification shall factories and workshops using less flammable or
non-combustible materials be classified?
a. Industrial b. assembly c. business and mercantile d. accessory

13. For residential occupancies, how many percent of an interior lot is open space?
a. 25% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%

14. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear ceiling height for mezzanine floors above and below
it?
a. 1.70m b. 1.80m c. 1.90m d. 2.00m

15. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum dimension of a court?

a. 1.20m b. 1.80m c. 2.00m d. 2.10m

16. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clearance between the established grade of a street
and/or sidewalk and the lowest undersurface of any part of a projecting balcony?
a. 2.00m b. 2.40m c. 2.80m d. 3.00m

17. As per PD 1096, what is the maximum distance of accessible parking area for the physically
handicapped from facility being served?
a. 40m b. 50m c. 60m d. 70m

18. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of wood construction with protective fire
resistant materials and one-hour fire-resistive throughout?
a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
19. Minimum ceiling height measured from the floor to the ceiling of habitable rooms with natural
ventilation
a. 2.0m b. 2.4m c. 2.7m d. 3.0m

20. Rooms for human habitations shall have a minimum area of ____________ with a least
dimension of ____________.
a. 4sqm;2m b. 6sqm;2m c. 6sqm;3m d. 9sqm.;3m

21. An unoccupied space other than a yard bounded on three sides by building lines with one side
bounded by another open space whether public or private.
a. Inner court b. open court c. through court d. private court

22. Failure to commence the work within a period of ____ months from the date of issuance of
permit is a basis for non-issuance, suspension or revocation of a Building Permit.
a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12

23. As per PD 1096, what is referred to as the total number of persons that may occupy a building or
a portion thereof at any one time?
a. Building occupancy b. occupant load c. building usage d. unit capacity

24. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum ceiling height of the first storey of a habitable room
provided with artificial ventilation?
a. 2.00m b. 2.10m c. 2.40m d. 2.70m

25. As per PD 1096, how many percent of parking requirements may be provided if adequate public
parking lots/multi-floor parking garages are available within 200 meters of the proposed
building/structures?
a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%

26. As per PD 1096, what is the classification of buildings of masonry and wood construction with a
one-hour fire-resistivity throughout and exterior walls of incombustible fire-resistive
construction?
a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

27. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum clear width for Group A dwelling stairs?
a. 0.71m b. 0.75m c. 0.80m d. 0.90m

28. What is referred to in works to buildings/structures involving changes in the materials used,
partitioning, location/size of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and equipment but does
not increase the building height and/or floor area?
a. Alteration b. conversion c. repair d. renovation

29. As per PD 1096, what is the size of automobile parking slots for perpendicular or diagonal
parking?
a. 2 x 5 m b. 2.5 x 5m c. 2.15 x 6m d. 3 x 5m

30. As per PD 1096, what is the minimum front setback for a Residential R-1 lot?
 a. 3.00m b. 3.50m c. 4.00m d. 4.50m

31. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors?

a. 0.71m b. 0.81m c. 0.90m d. 0.91m

32. As per PD 1185, what is the unit of exit width used to measure means of egress?
a. 50cm b. 55cm c. 60cm d. 65cm

33. Separated from other spaces of the building or structure by construction or equipment to
provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge?
a. Fire lane b. Horizontal Exit c. Fire Exit d. Vestibule

34. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum number of exits for Class A places of assembly with a
capacity of more than 1,000 persons?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

35. As per BP 344, a level area of not less than how many meters shall be provided at the top and
bottom of any ramp?
a. 1.4m b. 1.5m c. 1.8m d. 1.9m

36. As per BP 344, how much is the parking slot width for handicapped drivers and passengers
providing sufficient clear space between parked cars to allow them to transfer to a wheelchair?
a. 3.6m b. 3.7m c. 3.8m d. 3.9m

37. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately the same floor level?
a. Fire lane b. Horizontal Exit c. Public way d. Vestibule

38. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly if not protected by
automatic fire suppression system?
a. 46m b. 56m c. 61m d. 71m

39. A bar which extends across at least one-half of each door leaf, which will open the door if
subjected to pressure.
a. Flush bolt b. Door jamb c. Door handle d. Panic hardware

40. As per PD 1185, dwelling units in row apartments shall be separated from each other by partition
walls having a fire resistance rating of how many hours?
a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 4 hours

41. As per PD 1185, buildings over this height shall be required throughout with automatic fire
sprinkler system.
a. 10m b. 12m c. 15m d. 18m

42. As per PD 1185, what is the minimum opening width of doors?

b. 0.71m b. 0.81m c. 0.90m d. 0.91m

43. As per BP 344, what is the required minimum walkway width to permit a person in wheelchair to
traverse it with safety?
 a. 1.10m b. 1.20m c. 1.25m d. 1.5m

44. As per BP 344, accessible public washrooms and toilets shall permit easy passage of wheelchair
and must allow how much turning space for wheelchairs?
a. 1.50sqm. b. 1.70sqm. c. 2.0sqm. d. 2.25sqm.

45. As per BP 344, what is the maximum distance between reststops of turn-around spaces in
walkways?
a. 5m b. 6m c. 10m d. 12m

46. As per BP 344, what is the maximum length of a ramp if the ramp gradient is 1:12?
a. 4m b. 6m c. 8m d. 10m

47. As per BP 344, how long is the extension of handrails which shall be provided from the start and
end of ramps and stairs?
a. 150mm b. 200mm c. 250mm d. 300mm

48. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both connected to a source of

extinguishing agent or medium which when actuated by its automatic detecting device
suppresses fire?
a. Fire protective assembly b. fire alerting system c. automatic fire suppression system

49. Passageway from one building to another or around a wall in approximately the same floor level?
b. Fire lane b. Horizontal Exit c. Public way d. Vestibule

50. As per PD 1185, what is the maximum travel distance for places of assembly if not protected by
automatic fire suppression system?
a. 46m b. 56m c. 61m d. 71m

CO2 Explain the laws used in the planning of subdivisions, condominiums and
economic and socialized housing.

51. As per PD 957, what is the minimum width for roads right-of-way for residential condominium
projects?
a. 6m b. 8m c. 10m d. 12m

52. As per PD 957, what is the maximum block length without an alley?
a. 250m b. 300m c. 350m d. 400m

53. As per PD 957, what is the minimum area for a single park/playground in a residential
condominium project?
a. 50 sqm. B. 100sqm. C. 150sqm. D. 200 sqm.

54. As per PD 957, what is the minimum floor area for a condominium unit?
a. 18 sqm. b. 20 sqm. c. 25 sqm. d. 30 sqm.

55. As per BP 220, what is the minimum clear width of stairways?

 a. 0.60m b. 0.70 c. 0.71m d. 0.75m

56. As per BP 220, what is the maximum length of an alley in a residential block?
a. 20m b. 40m c. 60m d. 80m

57. What is the minimum lot area for single detached socialized housing units as provided for in BP
220?
a. 54 sqm. B. 62sqm. C.64sqm. d. 72sqm.

58. As per BP 220, how many percent of the gross subdivision area shall be allocated for community
facilities if the density is not more than 150 dwelling units per hectare in socialized housing?
a. 1% b. 1.5% c. 2% d. 2.5%

59. As per BP 220, what is the minimum distance between two buildings wherein the taller building
has 3 or 4 storeys?
a. 4m b. 5m c. 6m d. 7m

60. What is the minimum lot frontage of a regular lot for single-detached units as provided for in BP
220?
a. 4m b. 6m c. 8m d. 10m

CO3 Explain the Standards of Professional Practice in the delivery of Pre-design

and Regular Design services of an Architect.

61. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by government agencies or private
institutions undertaking a project?
a. Architectural competition c. direct selection
b. Comparative selection d. bidding
62. Which method of selecting an architect is often used by an individual undertaking a relatively
small project?
a. Architectural competition c. direct selection
b. Comparative selection d. bidding
63. Which of the following describes the architectural competition in selecting an architect?
a. Based on personal acquaintances c. limited to relatively small projects
b. Used for only government projects d. most expensive and time consuming
64. Which compensation method for architect’s services is made by adding all costs of technical
services and uses a multiplier to take care of overhead and profit?
a. Multiple of direct personnel expenses c. per diem
b. Percentage of construction cost d. professional fee plus expenses
65. Which compensation method for architects’ services is flexible and any change will not affect
owner-architect agreement?
a. Multiple of direct personnel expenses c. per diem
b. Percentage of construction cost d. professional fee plus expenses
66. Which of the following does not describe the multiple of direct personnel expenses method of
compensation?
a. Based on value of creative design c. applicable to supervision work
b. Multiplier depends on project complexity d. applicable to pre-design services
67. Which of the following describes the percentage of construction cost compensation method for
architects’ services?
a. Related to size and type of project c. applicable to supervision work
b. Uses multiplier for overhead and profit d. applicable to pre-design services
68. Among the methods for compensation for architects’ services, which is considered the most fair
to both architect and client?
a. Percentage of construction cost c. lump sum or fixed fee
b. Multiple of direct personnel expenses d. professional fee plus expenses
69. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase does preparation of forms for
contract letting, invitation/instruction to bidders, and bidders’ proposals fall?
a. Construction phase c. schematic design phase
b. Design development phase d. contract document phase
70. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase does submission of
probable/preliminary project construction cost fall?
a. Schematic design phase c. contract document phase
b. Design development phase d. construction phase
71. In the architect’s regular design services, under which phase shall the preparation of construction
drawings, specifications and Bill of Quantities fall?
a. Schematic design phase c. contract document phase
b. Design development phase d. construction phase
72. Which of the following activities of an architect does not fall under Construction phase?
a. Checking of samples of materials c. checking of billing
b. Checking of progress of work d. checking of salaries of workers
73. Upon completion of contract documents phase, what percentage of the fee is expected to have
been given to the architect by the owner?
a. 65% c. 70%
b. 85% d. 90%
74. If the architect’s professional fee is P200,000.00, which of the following amount shall be paid to
the architect upon signing of the Agreement?
a. 10,000.00 c. 15,000.00
b. 20,000.00 d. 5,000.00
75. For a residential project worth P 3,000,000.00, which of the following amount shall be the
architect’s professional fee if the method of compensation used is percentage of construction
cost and the rate is based on UAP Schedule of Minimum Basic Fee?
a. 300,000.00 c. 200,000.00
b. 100,000.00 d. 400,000.00
76. An architect has done the renovation of a residence in Valenzuela. Project construction cost is
P 3,000,000.00. Using UAP Standards, how much does the architect expect to receive as a
minimum basic fee from his client?
a. 450,000.00 c. 600,000.00
b. 200,000.00 d. 300,000.00
77. If the architect’s fee is 3,000,000.00, how much is he expected to receive upon completion of the
project, assuming that he has been compensated fully for the first three phases of his services?
a. 450,000.00 c. 400,000.00
b. 200,000.00 d. 150,000.00
78. What percentage of construction cost is the architect’s minimum basic fee for monumental
buildings/other facilities requiring consummate design skills/precise detailing?
a. 20% c. 15%
 b. 12% d. 10%
79. What is generally the basis of the architect’s minimum basic fee?
a. Owner’s offer c. architect’s professional/community standing
b. Type of structure d. project construction cost
80. In a typical owner-architect agreement, who is responsible for payment of taxes on professional
services (exclusive of income taxes)?
a. Architect c. owner
b. Contractor d. project manager

81. In a typical-owner agreement, which of the following is chargeable to the owner?

a. Structural/electrical/sanitary engineering c. miniature models
b. Drafting fee d. five sets of contract documents
82. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following is not part of architects’
professional fees?
a. Structural/electrical engineering c. sanitary engineering
b. Special interior design d. five sets of plans
83. Under the owner-architect agreement, which of the following include (s) the contract document
phase of architect’s basic services?
a. Assistance in securing government approval c. all listed items
b. Preparation of General Conditions d. preparation of construction drawings
84. Who is responsible for payment of professional services required by architect such as normal
structural, electrical, plumbing, and mechanical engineering services?
a. Architect c. project manager
b. Owner d. contractor
85. Which of the following is not included in the Project Construction Cost?
a. Plumbing c. architect’s fee
b. Sprinkler d. salaries of construction inspector
86. Which of the following must be paid separately by the Owner to the Architect if designed and
planned by the architect?
a. Landscaping c. architectural
b. Structural d. electrical
CO4 Explain the different provisions of the General Conditions.

87. Who is responsible for insurance for liabilities on materials, workmanship, labor and property?
a. Architect c. contractor
b. Construction manager d. owner
88. For every day of delay in construction time, contractor is obligated to pay the owner. What do
you call this payment?
a. Performance bond c. liquidated damages
b. Retention fee d. security
89. Under the owner-contractor agreement, who pays for taxes, licenses, permits and fees?
a. Project manager c. architect
b. Contractor d. owner
90. In a typical owner-general contractor agreement, which of the following is generally NOT
included?
a. Contract amount c. labor contingent
b. Performance/payment bond d. insurance/other conditions
91. Under what condition may owner exercise the right to terminate a contract?
 a. After 10 days’ notice c. after 5 days’ notice
b. Bankruptcy/insolvency of contractor d. after 15 days’ notice
92. Under General Conditions, who is generally responsible for payment of permits, taxes and
licenses?
a. Architect c. owner
b. Building supervisor d. contractor
93. Within what period is the effectivity of a contractor guarantee bond ensuring all
materials/workmanship installed are of good quality?
a. Three years c. one year
b. Two years d. five years
94. Within how many days from receipt of request for payment must the architect check the billing
of the contractor?
a. 10 days c. 15 days
b. 20 days d. 30 days
95. Within how many days from receipt of written notice by the owner must the contractor rectify
defective work?
a. 10 days c. 15 days
b. 20 days d. 30 days

96. Which of the following is not a requirement for the release of final payment?
a. Certificate of Occupancy c. Keying Schedule
b. Guarantee Bond d. retention
97. Which of the following cannot be considered Act of God?
a. Earthquakes c. flood
b. Typhoon d. mutiny
98. Which of the following is not a valid reason for suspension or termination of contract by
Contractor?
a. Issuance of temporary restraining order
b. Failure of architect to act on the billing of contractor
c. Failure of the owner to pay the contractor
d. Failure of the architect to provide necessary details requested by contractor
99. Who shall be responsible for the death or injury of any employee or laborer of the Contractor?
a. Architect c. site engineer
b. Owner d. contractor
100. What do you call the amount of money that is being deducted from the contractor every billing
until 50% of the contract has been accomplished and which shall be released 3 months after the
date of final payment?
a. Guarantee c. retention
b. Performance bond d. security

CO5 Explain the Standards of Professional Practice in the delivery of

Comprehensive Design services of an Architect.

101. In master development plan formulation, which component is concerned with movement of
people/goods from one place to another?
a. Economic c. physical
b. Socio-cultural d. transport
102. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which category does the architect prepare
plans of contiguous sites for industrial estates, tourist center, housing subdivisions and the like?
a. Landscape design c. interior design
b. Industrial planning d. physical planning
103. In the architect’s specialized allied services, under which category does the architect prepare
schedule of shrubs, trees and other plants and other landscaping elements?
a. Environmental planning c. landscape design
c. Industrial planning d. physical planning
104. Which of the following conditions:
1. 10 percent maximum excess over guaranteed maximum cost
2. Savings on project construction cost divided equally between architect and client
3. 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost divided equally between architect and
client
4. More than 10 percent excess of guaranteed maximum cost paid by architect
5. All items listed
Describe the design-build services on guaranteed maximum cost?
a. 1,2,3 c. 1,3,4
b. 2,3,4 d. 5
105. Which of the following specialized allied services describes landscape design?
a. Master development planning
b. Furniture layout/provision of fixtures and decorative items
c. Sound control design/electronics and communication systems
d. Land use/siting of buildings and communication routes
106. Which of the following post construction services is concerned with the monitoring of security
and janitorial services?
a. Building and equipment maintenance
b. Building and grounds administration
c. Post-construction evaluation
d. None of items listed
107. Under the architect’s specialized allied services, under what category does the architect lead
the formulation of a master development plan consisting of several planning components?
a. Physical Planning c. Comprehensive Planning
b. Landscape Design d. Design Development
108. A component to be considered in the formulation of a Master Development Plan is a
a. Legal and administrative component c. competition component
b. Construction component d. social component
109. Which of the following is a study to determine the viability of a project?
a. Economic Feasibility Studies
b. Financial Feasibility Studies
c. Commercial Feasibility Studies
d. Income-expense studies
110. For the preparation of detailed engineering drawings and specifications on roads, drainage,
sewerage, power and communication system, an additional fee of how many percent of the cost
of the development is to be charged?
a. 2% c. 4%
b. 3% d. 5%