18/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 02 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )
Topics Covered :
Physics : Properties of Bulk Matter, Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Behaviour of Perfect Gas and
Kinetic theory, Oscillations & waves
Chemistry : Redox Reaction, Hydrogen, s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals), p-block elements(Group
13 & 14), Organic Chemistry–(Some Basic Principles & Techniques), Hydrocarbons, Environmental
Chemistry.
Biology : The Cell: The Unit of Life, The Cell Cycle and Cell Division, Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition;
Photosynthesis in Plants; Respiration in Plants, Plant Growth & Development, Digestion and Absorption,
Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Respiration)., Body fluids and Circulation, Excretory products and
their Elimination; Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control and Coordination, Chemical Coordination
and Integration (Regulation)
English and Comprehension :
Logical and Quantitative Reasoning :

Instructions :
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(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each answer with correct response shall be awarded ONE mark. Zero mark will be given for the question NOT answered.
There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Wires A and B are made from same material. A has 3. Two rods of different materials having coefficient of
twice the diameter and three times the length of B. linear expansion 1, 2 and Young’s module Y1 and
If the elastic limits are not reached, when each is Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive
stretched by the same tension, the ratio of energy walls. The rods are heated such that they undergo
stored in A to that in B is the same increase in temperature. There is no
bending of rods. If 1 : 2 = 2 : 3, the thermal
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
stresses developed in the two rods are equal provided
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 12 : 1 Y1 : Y2 is equal to
2. The increase in length of a wire on stretching is (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
0.025%. If its Poisson’s ratio is 0.4, then the (3) 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 9
percentage increase in diameter is 4. The isothermal bulk modulus of a gas at
atmospheric pressure is :
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (1) 1 mm of Hg (2) 13.6 mm of Hg
(3) 0.03 (4) 0.04 (3) 1.013 × 105 N/m2 (4) 2.026 × 105 N/m2
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
5. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of 11. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 in
steel and brass wires in the figure a, b and c is vacuum combine under isothermal conditions. The
respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase resulting bubble has a radius equal to
in their lengths would be r1  r2
(1) (2) r1r2
2
Steel r1r2
(3) r  r (4) r12  r22
M 1 2
Brass 12. If the length of a tube is less and cannot
2M accommodate the maximum rise of liquid, then
(1) Liquid will form a mountain
2a 2c 3a
(1) (2) (2) Liquid will not rise
b 2b 2c
(3) The meniscus will adjust itself so that the water
2ac 3c does not spill
(3) (4)
b2 2ab 2 (4) None of these
6. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface 13. A body floats with one third of its volume outside
tension of water is 75 dyne per cm and area of each water and 3/4th of its volume outside another liquid.
plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance The density of another liquid is (in g/cc)
between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force 9 4
applied to separate the two plates is (1) (2)
4 9
(1) 102 dyne (2) 104 dyne 8 3
(3) (4)
3 8
(3) 105 dyne (4) 106 dyne
14. An open vessel containing water is given a constant
7. A spherical liquid drop of radius R is divided into eight acceleration a in the horizontal direction. Then the
equal droplets. If the surface tension is T, then work free surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal
done in the process will be at an angle  is given by

(1) 2R2T (2) 3R2T 1 ⎛ a ⎞ 1 ⎛ g ⎞

(1)   tan ⎜ ⎟ (2)   tan ⎜ ⎟
⎝g ⎠ ⎝a⎠
(3) 4R2T (4) 2RT2
1 ⎛ a ⎞ 1 ⎛ g ⎞
8. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in a capillary tube (3)   sin ⎜ ⎟ (4)   cos ⎜ ⎟
g
⎝ ⎠ ⎝a⎠
and mercury falls to a depth of 3.42 cm in the same
capillary tube. If the density of mercury is 15. Calculate the value of h in U-tube shown in the
13.6 kg/m3 and angle of contact is 135°, the ratio of following figure.
surface tension for water and mercury is (Angle of Density of oil = 0.9 g/cm3
contact for water and glass is 8°) Density of carbon tetrachloride = 1.6 g/cm3
(1) 1 : 0.5 (2) 1 : 3 Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3
Carbon
(3) 1 : 6.5 (4) 1.5 : 1 tetrachloride
9. At which of the following temperatures, the value of
surface tension of water is minimum? Oil h
20 cm
(1) 4°C (2) 50°C

(3) 25°C (4) 75°C Mercury

10. The property utilized in the manufacture of lead shots
is
(1) Specific weight of liquid lead
(2) Specific gravity of liquid lead
(3) Compressibility of liquid lead
(4) Surface tension of liquid lead
(2)
(1) 18.9 cm (2) 20.9 cm
(3) 16.0 cm (4) 14.9 cm
16. With increase in temperature the viscosity of
(1) Both gases and liquids increase
(2) Both gases and liquids decrease
(3) Gases increase and liquids decrease
(4) Gases decrease and liquids increase
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)
17. A rectangular vessel when full of water takes 23. A refrigerator works between 27°C and 47°C. It is
10 minutes to be emptied through an orifice in its required to remove 1200 calories of heat every
bottom. How much time will it take to be emptied second in order to keep the temperature of the
when half filled with water? refrigerated space constant. The power is (Take 1 cal
= 4.2 Joules)
(1) 9 minutes (2) 7 minutes
(1) 336 W (2) 3.36 W
(3) 5 minutes (4) 3 minutes
(3) 33.6 W (4) 3360 W
18. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids of density 
and 2 are filled in a vessel as shown in figure. Two 24. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as
small holes are punched at depth h/2 and 3h/2 from the working substance. If during adiabatic expansion
part of the volume of the gas increases from V to
the surface of lighter liquid. If V1 and V2 are velocities
32V, the efficiency of the engine is
of efflux at these two holes, then V1 / V2 is
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.99
h  v1
25. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible
engine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is
h 2 v2
T

1 1 2T0
(1) (2)
2 2 2

1 1
(3) (4)
4 2 T0
19. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed S
mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that S0 2S0
the gas molecules gives out 30 J of heat and 20 J
1 2
of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal (1) (2)
energy of the gas was 50 J, then the final internal 3 3
energy will be 1 1
(3) (4)
2 4
(1) 40 J (2) 50 J
26. In a mercury thermometer the ice point (lower fixed
(3) 30 J (4) 60 J point) is marked as 20° and the steam point (upper
fixed point) as 140°, at 40°C temperature, what will
20. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process this thermometer read?
is
(1) 68° (2) 78°
(1) Infinite (2) Zero (3) 58° (4) 66°
(3) Negative (4) Remain constant 27. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts
completely. Only one half of the heat produced is
21. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets
100 K does 6 R joules of work adiabatically. If the converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is
ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant (Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10 5 J/kg and
pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, the final g = 10 N/kg)
temperature of gas will be
(1) 34 km (2) 544 km
(1) 102.4 K (2) 97.6 K (3) 136 km (4) 68 km
(3) 104 K (4) 96 K 28. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to
t + t, its moment of inertia increases from I to
22. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K I + I, if  be the coefficient of linear expansion of
has work output of 1000 J per cycle. What is the
I
amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the rod, than the value of is
source per cycle? I
(1) 2t (2) t
(1) 1800 J/cycle (2) 1000 J/cycle
t t
(3) (4)
(3) 2000 J/cycle (4) 1600 J/cycle  2
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
29. A block of ice at –10°C is slowly heated and 33. According to the kinetic theory of gases, at absolute
converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the following temperature
curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively?
(1) Water freezes
Temperature (2) Liquid helium freezes

(1) (3) Molecular motion stops

(4) Liquid hydrogen freezes

Heat Supplied 34. If the degree of freedom of a gas is f, then the ratio
of two specific heats Cp / Cv is given by
Temperature

2 2
(1) 1 (2) 1 
f f
(2)
1 1
(3) 1  (4) 1 
f f
Heat Supplied
35. A metal rod of length 2 m has cross sectional areas
2 A and A as shown in figure. The ends are
Temperature

maintained at temperature 200°C and 140°C. The

temperature at middle point C is
(3)
200°C C
140°C
Heat Supplied 2A A

1m 1m
Temperature

(1) 160°C (2) 180°C

(4) (3) 170°C (4) 190°C

36. The wavelength of maximum intensity of radiations

Heat Supplied emitted by the sun and the moon are 0.5 × 10–6m
and 10–4m respectively, the ratio of their temperature
30. Volume, pressure and temperature of an ideal gas
is
are V, P and T respectively. If mass of its molecule
is m, then its density is [k = Boltzmann’s constant]
1 1
(1) (2)
P 100 200
(1) mkT (2)
kT
(3) 100 (4) 200
P Pm
(3) (4)
kTV kT 37. A black body radiates energy at the rate of E W/m2
31. Under which of the following conditions is the law at a high temperature T K. When the temperature is
PV = RT obeyed most closely by a real gas? reduced to T/4 K, the radiant energy will be
(1) High pressure and high temperature
(1) 256 E (2) 16 E
(2) Low pressure and low temperature
(3) Low pressure and high temperature E E
(3) (4)
(4) High pressure and low temperature 16 256
32. The r.m.s. speed of oxygen is v at a particular 38. A body takes 5 minutes to cool from 180°C to
temperature. If the temperature is doubled and 120°C. If the temperature of surrounding is 40°C, the
oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms, the time taken by it to cool from 120°C to 60°C will be
r.m.s. speed becomes
(1) 5 minutes (2) 8 minutes
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) 2v (4) 4v (3) 11 minutes (4) 15 minutes
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)
39. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres 44. A simple pendulum is executing SHM with a time
of radii a and b, and kept at temperatures T1 and T2, period T. If the length of the pendulum is increased
respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in a by 44%, the percentage increase in the time period
substance between the two concentric spheres is of the pendulum is
proportional to
(1) 10% (2) 20%

(3) 30% (4) 40%

45. Two springs of force constant K and 2K are

a connected to a mass as shown below. The
b
frequency of oscillation of the mass is
k 2k
m
ab
(1) (2) b – a 1 K 1 2K
ba (1) (2)
2 m 2 m
ba ⎛b⎞
(3) (4) ln ⎜ ⎟ 1 3K 1 m
ab ⎝a⎠
(3) (4)
40. The motion of a particle is given by x = Asint + 2 m 2 K
Bcost. 46. The resultant of two rectangular SHM of the same
The motion of the particle is frequency and unequal amplitudes but differing in
(1) Not simple harmonic 
phase by is
2
(2) Simple harmonic with amplitude A + B
(1) SHM (2) Circular
A  B
(3) Simple harmonic with amplitude (3) Elliptical (4) Parabolic
2
(4) Simple harmonic with amplitude A2  B 2 47. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a
particular point to move from maximum displacement
41. When the potential energy of a particle executing
to zero displacement is 0.25 s. The frequency of
SHM is one fourth of its maximum value during the
wave is
oscillation, the displacement of the particle from the
equilibrium portion in terms of the amplitude a is (1) 1 Hz (2) 1.5 Hz
a a (3) 0.5 Hz (4) 2 Hz
(1) (2)
4 3
48. The temperature at which the speed of sound in air
a 2a becomes double of its value at 27°C is
(3) (4)
2 3
(1) 300 K (2) 546 K
d 2y
42. The equation of motion of a particle is  Ky  0 (3) 1200 K (4) 0 K
dt 2
where K is positive constant. The time period of the
49. A progressive wave y = A sin(kx – t) is reflected by
motion is given by
a rigid wall at x = 0. Then the reflected wave can be
2 represented by
(1) (2) 2K
K
(1) y = Asin(kx + t) (2) y = Acos(kx + t)
2
(3) (4) 2 K (3) y = – Asin(kx – t) (4) y = – Asin(kx + t)
K
43. A particle is executing an SHM. Its maximum 50. A transverse wave is described by the equation
acceleration is  and maximum velocity is . Then ⎛ x⎞
y  y 0 sin2 ⎜ ft  ⎟ . The maximum particle
its time period is ⎝  ⎠
 velocity is six times the wave velocity if
2
(1) (2)
  y 0 y 0
(1)   (2)  
2  2 6 3
(3) (4)
 2 (3)   6y 0 (4)   3y 0
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
51. Two waves coming from two coherent sources having 57. Three similar wires of frequency n1, n2 and n3 are
different intensities interfere. The ratio of maximum joined to make one wire. Its frequency will be
intensity to minimum intensity is 16. The intensities (1) n = n1 + n2 + n3
of the sources are in the ratio
1 1 1 1
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 16 : 9 (2) 2
 2 2 2
n n1 n2 n3
(3) 25 : 9 (4) 5 : 3
1 1 1 1
52. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes (3) n  n  n  n
1 2 3
5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per 1 1 1 1
(4)   
second when the tension in the piano string is n n1 n2 n3
slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string
58. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a
before increasing the tension was
fundamental frequency f0 in air. The tube is dipped
(1) 261 Hz (2) 258 Hz vertically into water such that half of its length is
inside water. The fundamental frequency of the air
(3) 254 Hz (4) 251 Hz
column now is
53. The equation of stationary wave along a stretched
3f0
 (1) (2) f0
string is given by y  5 sin x cos 40t , where x and 4
3
y are in cm and t in second. The separation between f0
two adjacent nodes is (3) (4) 2f0
2
(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm 59. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and the
other coming in with equal speed of 4 m/s. If they
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 4 cm
sound their whistles, each of frequency 240 Hz, the
54. Beats are produced by two waves given by y1 = asin number of beats heard by the man (velocity of sound
4000t and y2 = asin 4016t. The number of beats in air = 320 m/s) will be equal to
heard per second is
(1) 0 (2) 3
(1) Eight (2) Zero (3) 6 (4) 12
(3) One (4) Four 60. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centre are
55. A standing wave having four nodes and 3 antinodes initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each other as
is formed between two atoms having a distance shown in the figure. The speed of each pulse is
1.5 Å between them. The wavelength of standing 2 cm/s. After 2 s, the total energy of the pulse will
wave is be

(1) 1 Å (2) 1.5 Å

(3) 0.5 Å (4) 3 Å
56. Standing waves are produced in a 6 m long 8 cm
stretched string. If the string vibrates in 3 segments (1) Zero
the wave velocity is 40 m/s, the frequency is
(2) Purely kinetic
(1) 2 Hz (2) 10 Hz (3) Purely potential
(3) 4 Hz (4) 5 Hz (4) Partly kinetic and partly potential

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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY
61. For the redox reaction, 68. Para and ortho hydrogen differ in
y (1) Atomic number (2) Atomic mass
xCu  yH  zNO3  xCu2  H2O  zNO
2 (3) Spin of protons (4) Number of neutrons
The value of x, y and z in the reaction respectively 69. Which of the following is electron-deficient hydride?
is (1) CH4 (2) NH3
(1) 3, 2 and 8 (2) 3, 8 and 2 (3) HF (4) B2H6
(3) 2, 3 and 4 (4) 4, 3 and 2 70. When zeolite, (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate)
is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are
62. MnO4 is a good oxidising agent in different medium
exchanged with
as follows :
(1) H+ ion (2) Ca2+ ion
2+
Mn
1
2 2– (3) SO24 ion (4) OH– ion
MnO4 3
MnO4
71. Which of the following is not correct?
4 MnO2
Mn2O3 (1) Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and HOCl
Changes in oxidation number of Mn in 1 to 4 medium (2) NH3 is less stable than PH3
respectively, are (3) NH3 is a weak reducing agent compared to PH3
(1) 1, 3, 4, 5 (2) 5, 4, 3, 2 (4) Nitric oxide in solid state exhibits diamagnetic
(3) 5, 1, 3, 4 (4) 2, 6, 4, 3 property
63. What is the average oxidation number of Fe atom in 72. The volume strength of decinormal solution of H2O2
Fe3O4? is
(1) + 3 (2) + 2 (1) 5.6 (2) 0.56
8 3 (3) 11.2 (4) 56
(3)  (4) 
3 8 73. Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be made by which of
64. Which of the following oxide of chlorine does not the following processes?
show disproportionation reaction? (1) Reaction of methane with steam
(1) ClO3 (2) ClO2 (2) Mixing natural hydrocarbon of high molecular
weight
(3) ClO4 (4) ClO (3) Electrolysis of water
65. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the (4) Reaction of salts like hydrides with water
following half reaction are given against each half
reaction 74. The molecular formula of Calgon which is used as
water softner is
Zn2+(aq) + 2e–  Zn(s); – 0.762 V
(1) Na2[Na4(PO3)6] (2) Na4[Na2(PO3)6]
Cr3+(aq) + 3e–  Cr(s); – 0.740 V
(3) Na2[Na4(PO4)5] (4) Na2[Na4(PO3)4]
2H+(aq) + 2e–  H2(g); 0.00 V 75. A water molecule can form maximum possible
Fe3+(aq)+ e– Fe2+(aq); 0.770 V number of hydrogen bond in ice is
Which is the strongest reducing agent? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Zn(s) (2) Cr(s) (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) H2(g) (4) Fe3+(aq.) 76. 100 volume H2O2 solution means
66. The compound having + 2 as the given as oxidation (1) 17.86 N (2) 30.36% H2O2
state of oxygen is
(3) 8.93 M (4) All are correct
(1) H2O2 (2) CO2
77. An inorganic compound containing (3c – 2e) and
(3) F2O (4) MnO2
(2c – 2e) bonds when reacts with NH3 at a certain
67. Last traces of H2O molecules are removed from H2O2 temperature, gives a compound ‘X’ which is
by isostructural with benzene and when reacts at high
(1) Crystallisation temperature, forms a substance ‘Y’. The substance
(2) Evaporation ‘Y’ is
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure (1) B2H6 (2) B3N3H6
(4) Electrolysis (3) Inorganic graphite (4) B2H62NH3
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
78. How many sp2 and sp3 boron atoms in borax are 89. Which of the following hydroxide is amphoteric in
present? nature?
(1) 3, 1 (2) 1, 3 (1) B(OH)3 (2) Al(OH)3
(3) 4, 0 (4) 2, 2 (3) Ga(OH)3 (4) Ti(OH)
79. In the alumino-thermite process, Al acts as 90. Which of the following hydrides is covalent and
(1) An oxidising agent exists as polymeric form?
(2) A flux (1) BeH2 (2) MgH2
(3) Solder (3) CaH2 (4) SrH2
(4) A reducing agent 91. A gaseous hydrocarbon has 85% carbon and vapour
80. Which one of the following is the strongest base? density of 28. The possible formula of the
(1) AsH3 (2) SbH3 hydrocarbon will be
(3) PH3 (4) NH3 (1) C3H6 (2) C2H4
81. How many number of  bonds and lone pairs are (3) C2H2 (4) C4H8
present in N2O3? 92. The bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most
(1) 4, 6 (2) 4, 8 easily is
(3) 8, 4 (4) 6, 4 (1) C – O (2) C – C
82. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in (3) C – H (4) O – H
liquid NH3 at low temperature, which one of the
93. The most suitable method for separation of 1 : 1
following does not occur?
mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols is
(1) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(1) Sublimation (2) Chromatography
(2) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
(3) Crystallisation (4) Steam distillation
(3) Liquid NH3 solution becomes good conductor of
electricity 94. In the following structure, which is the better site of
(4) Liquid NH3 solution remains diamagnetic protonation?
83. The volume of ammonia gas obtained when 6 dm3 of
H 2 reacts with excess of nitrogen (all volumes O NH
measured at STP) would be
(1) Nitrogen
(1) 2 dm3 (2) 3 dm3
(3) 4 dm3 (4) 6 dm3 (2) Oxygen

84. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a neutral (3) Double bond
oxide? (4) Single bond C – C atom
(1) NO (2) N2O3
O
(3) NO2 (4) N2O5 ||
95. Test tube A contains CH3  C  CH3 and test tube B
85. On heating a solution of NH4NO3 (acidified with HCl)
produces contains CH3CHO. Only one test is allowed to make
distinction between them. Best way is
(1) NO (2) N2O
(3) NO2 (4) N2O3 (1) Iodoform test (2) Azo dye test
86. The shape of XeO3 is (3) DNP test (4) Tollen’s test
(1) Linear (2) Planar 96. Which of the following decolourises Br2 water and
(3) Pyramidal (4) T-shaped also gives colour with FeCl3 solution?
87. Which of the following is an explosive compound?
(1) XeOF4 (2) XeOF2 (1) CH3 – CH = CH2 (2) OH
(3) XeF2 (4) XeO3
88. Sodium thiosulphate is used in photography to (3) OH (4) CH 2Cl
(1) Reduce the AgBr grains to metallic Ag
(2) Convert the metallic Ag to Ag salt 97. Mixture of calcium cyanamide and carbon
(3) Remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble silver [CaCN2 + C] is commercially known as
thiosulphate complex (1) Oleum (2) Inorganic graphite
(4) Remove reduced silver
(3) Nitrolium (4) Borazene
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)
98. The coordination number of Al in the crystalline state 104. Correct order of pK a value for following listed
of AlCl3 is compounds is
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 7 , ,
99. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity? (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(1) F– (2) OH–
(3) (iii) > (i) > (ii) (4) (i) < (iii) < (ii)
(3) CH3– (4) NH2–
105. In which of the following compound, resonance is not
100. Compound possible?
Cl C2H5 + Me
(1) CH2 = CH – N Me (2)
C=C
Me N
F C3H7 +
OH2
has the following prefix
(1) E (2) Z (3) (4)
N
(3) Trans (4) Anti H
106. Identify the product (D) in the following sequence of
101. What will be the decreasing order of stability of
reactions
following carbocations?
CH3
+ + +
CH2 CH2 Br2 Sn/HCl NaNO2/HCl H2O/H3PO4
A B C D
+ 273 – 278 K
HC  C +

NO2
+ + – CH3
NO2 N2Cl
N(CH3)3
(1) (2) Br
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(1) (iii) > (v) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)
(2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (v) > (iv) CH3 NO2
(3) (4)
(3) (v) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
107. In the case of homologous series of alkene, which
(4) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (v) one of the following statements is incorrect?
102. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in (1) The members of the series are isomers of each
other
O (2) The members of the series have similar chemical
||
(1) NH2  C  NH  NH2HCl properties
(3) The members of the series have the general
(2) NH2NH2HCl formula CnH2n, where n is an integer
O (4) The difference between any two successive
|| member of the series corresponds to 14 unit of
(3) NH2  C  NH2 relative atomic mass

(4) C6H5NHNH2HCl 108. Ethanoic acid is subjected to reduction with

hydroiodic acid in the presence of red P, the product
103. The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon atom formed is
in following compound respectively is (1) Ethane (2) Propane
+ (3) Butane (4) Ethene
109. The disappearance of the characteristic purple colour
of KMnO4 in its reaction with an alkene is the test
for unsaturation. It is known as
(1) 4, 2 (2) 5, 1 (1) Markownikov’s test (2) Bayer’s test
(3) 2, 4 (4) 1, 5 (3) Wurtz’s test (4) Tollen’s test
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
110. For effective monitoring of toxic gases emission in 117. Which of the following is having lowest pKb value?
around Taj Mahal location, government has made a
plan for “Taj Trapezium” area. This belt covers
(1) Towns of Agra, Firozabad, Mathura and (1) N (2)
N
Bharatpur H
(2) Towns of Agra, Sikandrabad, Tappal and O
Bharatpur
(3) (4)
(3) Towns of Agra, Bulandshahr, Bharatpur and
Mathura NH2 NH2

(4) Towns of Agra, Mirzapur, Meerut and Hapur 118. Acid rain is caused by or recent reports of acid rain
in some industrial cities are due to the effect of
111. Which of the following is most readily nitrated? atmospheric pollution by
(1) Benzene (2) Phenol (1) Excessive release of CO2 by burning of fuels like
wood and charcoal, cutting of forests and
(3) Chlorobenzene (4) Nitrobenzene
increased animal population
112. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis (2) Excessive release of NO 2 and SO 2 in
gives two moles of an aldehyde having molecular atmosphere by burning of fossil fuel
mass of 44 u. The alkene is
(3) Excessive release of NH3 by industrial plants
(1) Ethene (2) Propene and coal gas
(3) 1-Butene (4) 2-Butene (4) Excessive release of CO in atmosphere by
incomplete combustion of coke, charcoal and
113. Which one of the following has the smallest heat of
other carbonaceous fuel in presence of oxygen
hydrogenation per mole of double bond?
119. Choose the correct statement(s) among the following
(1) 1-Butene (2) Trans-2-Butene
CH3 H H CH3
(3) Cis-2-butene (4) 1, 3-Butadiene
114. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration (1) C=C and C=C
(HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne would be H CH3 CH3 H
O are enantiomers
||
(1) CH3CH2  C  CH3 (2) CH3CHO on reaction with HCN gives meso -
compound
(2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
C2H5 C2H5
(3) CH3CH2CHO + HCHO
(4) CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH CH3 — C — H and H — C — OH
(3)
115. Propyne when passed through hot iron tube at OH CH3
400°C produces are enantiomers
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene (4) CH 3 – CH = NOH shows geometrical
(3) Xylene (4) Mesitylene isomerism

116. Which of the following group of gases cause 120. Which of the following catalysts is used for
photochemical smog? conversion of alcohols directly into gasoline?

(1) O3, PAN and CO (2) HC, NO and PAN (1) NiCoMoX / Cr2O3 (2) Al(C2H5)3 + TiCl4

(3) O2, PAN and NO2 (4) O3, PAN and NO2 (3) ZSM–5 (4) Pd + BaSO4

(10)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)

BIOLOGY
121. Match the following 127. Select the incorrect event w.r.t. telophase of mitosis.
Column I Column II (1) Chromosomes cluster at spindle poles and
loses their identity.
a Rudolf Virchow (i) Discovered nucleus
(2) Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
b George Palade (ii) Golgi apparatus
(3) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
c Robert Brown (iii) Chromatin chromosome clusters.
d Camillo Golgi (iv) Omnis-cellula-e-cellula (4) Reformation of nucleolus, golgi complex and
e Walther Flemming (v) Ribosomes endoplasmic reticulum.
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(ii), e(iii) 128. In which of the following stages, bivalent
chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads?
(2) a(v), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(i)
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
(3) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iii)
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
(4) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), e(i) 129. Select the incorrect statement.
122. Select odd one out w.r.t. membrane bound (1) Porins proteins form huge pores in the outer
organelles. membrane of the plastids, mitochondria and
(a) Microbodies (b) Centrioles some bacteria.
(c) Lysosomes (d) Ribosomes (2) Diffusion is the only means for gaseous
movement within the plant body.
(1) a, b & c (2) b & d only
(3) Net direction and rate of osmosis depend on
(3) b, d & c (4) a & b only pressure gradient and concentration gradient.
123. Which of the following is major site of lipid (4) Imbibition is a type of diffusion, where water
synthesis? moves against the concentration gradient.
(1) Golgi apparatus 130. Select the odd one out w.r.t. facilitated diffusion.
(2) Ribosomes (1) It requires special membrane proteins
(3) Mitochondria (2) It is highly selective process
(3) It is a uphill transport process
(4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) It transports saturates.
124. Select the incorrect option.
131. Which of the following layer is impervious to water
(1) Nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin because of the presence of casparian strip?
(2) Cilium, flagellum and centriole have 9 + 2 (1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis
organisation
(3) Exothecium (4) Hypodermis
(3) Centromere and satellite are primary and 132. What is the orientation of cellulose microfibrils which
secondary constriction of the chromosome aids the opening of stoma?
respectively
(1) Longitudinal (2) Tangential
(4) Both cilium and flagellum emerge from basal
(3) Radial (4) Peripheral
body
133. Select the correct option w.r.t. the conclusion and
125. A cell has 8pg DNA and 10 chromosomes at G1 inference of girdling experiment.
phase. Then, after S phase DNA content and
(1) It shows unidirectional transport of water
chromosome number, respectively would be
(2) It shows bidirectional transport of water
(1) 16pg, 20 (2) 8pg, 10 (3) It shows unidirectional translocation of food
(3) 16pg, 10 (4) 24pg, 40 (4) It shows bidirectional translocation of food
126. Duplication of centrioles in animal cell, takes place 134. ______________ are activators of RuBisCO and
during alcohol dehydrogenase respectively.
(a) G2 phase (b) S phase (1) K+ & Cl– (2) Na+ & Zn2+
(c) G1 phase (d) Interkinesis (3) Mn2+ & Fe2+ (4) Mg2+ & Zn2+
135. Which element is used in synthesis of thiamine,
Choose the correct option
biotin and coenzyme A?
(1) (a) & (b) (2) Only (b)
(1) Iron (2) Sulphur
(3) (b) & (d) (4) (c) & (d) (3) Magnesium (4) Potassium
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
136. Deficiency of magnesium results into symptoms like 142. Which of the following options is correct w.r.t end
(1) Chlorosis & inhibition of cell division products of aerobic respiration?
(2) Delayed flowering & necrosis (1) Carbon dioxide + NADH2 + ATP + Pyruvate
(3) Chlorosis & necrosis (2) Pyruvate + ATP + O2
(4) Stunted growth & inhibition of cell division (3) Water + ATP + NADPH+
137. Which of the following bacteria aids denitrification? (4) Water + Carbon dioxide + Energy
(1) Azospirillum & Nitosomonas 143. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t Glycolysis.
(2) Nitrococcus & Beijerinckia
(a) It was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof
(3) Nitrobactor & Nitrosomonas and Jakub Parnas
(4) Pseudomonas & Thiobacillus (b) Phosphoenol pyruvate is the final product of
138. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t cyclic glycoloysis
photophosphorylation.
(c) Molecules of ATP & NADH produced are 4 & 2
(1) It takes place in stroma lamellae respectively
(2) Stroma lamellae lacks PS II & NADP reductase (d) 3 ATPs are consumed per glycolytic pathway
enzyme
(e) It is the only respiratory process in anaerobes
(3) Excited electron is passed on to NADP+ and
then cycled back (1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (b) & (d)
(4) It results in the synthesis of ATP (3) (b), (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (c)
139. What is the first product of Calvin cycle? 144. Net ATP and NADH2 molecules produced during
(1) Oxaloacetic acid gateway reaction are _____ & _____ respectively.
(2) Phosphoenol pyruvate (1) 2, 2 (2) 1, 1
(3) Malic acid (3) 3, 2 (4) 0, 2
(4) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid 145. Electron transport system is present in
140. In which of the following plants, photorespiration does (1) Intermembrane space of mitrochondria
not occur?
(2) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(1) Mango (2) Sugarbeets
(3) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Corn (4) Tobacco
(4) Mitrochondrial matrix
141. Match the following
146. _______ acts as the final hydrogen acceptor in ETS.
Column I Column II
a T.W. Engelmann (i) Showed that sunlight is (1) Water (2) NADH dehydrogenase
essential for green (3) Cytochrome oxidase (4) Oxygen
plants to release 147. Select the incorrect match.
oxygen
(1) Cytokinin–Cell division
b Joseph Pristley (ii) Inferred O2 evolved
(2) Gibberellins–Bolting
from H2O in green
plants (3) Ethylene–Delayed senescence
c Cornelius van Niel (iii) Showed chlorophyll is (4) Auxin–Apical dominance
located in special 148. Read the following statements w.r.t ethephon.
bodies (a) Most widely used source of ethylene which after
d Jan Ingenhousz (iv) Experimented on being absorbed, is transported within the plant
Cladophora and and releases ethylene
bacteria to detect site
(b) It delays flowering in cucumbers
of O2 evolution
(c) It hastens fruit ripening in apples
(e) Julius von Sachs (v) Discovered O2 in 1774
(d) It accelerates abscission in flowers of cotton and
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(i), e(iii)
cherry
(2) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii), e(i)
Select the correct option.
(3) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i), e(iii)
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) a(v), b(ii), c(iv), d(i), e(iii) (3) (a) & (c) only (4) (a), (c) & (d)
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)
149. Which of the following is referred as “stress 158. Chemosensitive area in brain, which is involved in
hormone”? regulation of respiration is sensitive to
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxin (1) Decrease in O2 concentration
(3) Gibberellins (4) Abscisic acid (2) Increase in HCO3 concentration only
150. Select the odd one out w.r.t biennials which show
vernalisation. (3) Both H+ and CO2 concentration
(1) Sugarbeet (2) Carrot (4) Increase in O2 concentration
(3) Rye (4) Cabbage 159. Inflammatory mediators like histamine, serotonin
heparin etc. are released by which of the following
151. Chylomicrons are formed in
cells?
(1) Intestinal lumen
(1) Neutrophil (2) Basophil
(2) Intestinal mucosa cells
(3) Platelets (4) RBC
(3) Lacteals
160. Erythroblastosis foetalis condition usually occurs
(4) Blood vessels in villi
(1) When mother is Rh+ and foetus is Rh– during
152. Chymotrypsinogen is a proenzyme, which is first pregnancy.
activated by
(2) When mother is Rh– and foetus is Rh+ during
(1) Trypsinogen (2) Enterokinase first pregnancy.
(3) HCl (4) Trypsin (3) When mother is Rh– and foetus is Rh+ during
153. Oesophagus open into __A__ portion of stomach second pregnancy.
while __B__ portion of stomach open into duodenum (4) When mother is Rh+ and foetus is Rh– during
A B second pregnancy.
(1) Fundic Cardiac 161. Which of the following enzymes is required for
(2) Cardiac Pyloric conversion of fibrinogen to fibrins?
(3) Fundic Pyloric (1) Thrombin (2) Thrombokinase
(4) Pyloric Cardiac (3) Prothrombin (4) Carbonic anhydrase
154. How many among the following enzymes are not 162. First heart sound is associated with :
present in pancreatic juice before pouring into
duodenum? (1) Opening of semilunar valves
(2) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
Rennin, Enterokinase, Nucleosidase,
Trypsin, Chymotrypsin (3) Opening of bicuspid and tricuspid valves

(1) Three (2) Zero (4) Closure of semilunar valves

(3) Four (4) Two 163. Which of the following is correct match between
155. Which of the following structures is supported by column I and column II?
incomplete cartilaginous rings? Column I Column II
(1) Tertiary bronchi (2) Terminal bronchioles (1) Parasympathetic Increases heart beat
(3) Alveoli (4) Both (1) & (2) neural signal
156. Which of the following is not included while (2) Cardiac arrest When heart is not
calculating vital capacity? pumping blood effectively
(1) Tidal volume to meet the need of body
(2) Expiratory reserve volume (3) A-V node Pace maker
(3) Residual volume (4) P-wave in ECG Depolarisation of atria
(4) Inspiratory capacity 164. In kidney extension of cortex between medullary
157. Which of the following is an incorrect statement pyramids is known as
regarding partial pressure and solubility of CO2 and
O2 in blood and tissue? (1) Columns of Bellini (2) Renal calyces
(1) Partial pressure of both CO2 and O2 are higher (3) Columns of Bertini (4) Renal pelvis
in alveoli as compared to atmosphere. 165. Juxta glomerular apparatus is a sensitive region
(2) Solubility of CO2 in plasma is 20-25 times higher which is mainly formed by cellular modification in
than that of O2. __A__ and __B__ at the location of their contact.
(3) Partial pressure of CO 2 remains same in A B
pulmonary vein and systemic arteries while that (1) DCT Afferent arteriole
of oxygen decreases. (2) DCT Efferent arteriole
(4) There is a difference of about 5 mmHg between (3) PCT Afferent arteriole
pCO2 in oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. (4) PCT Efferent arteriole
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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
166. In hemodialysis the dialysing fluid contains all the 173. Which of the following structure of brain is involved
constituents as in plasma, except in regulation of emotional reaction and motivation?
(1) Ions (2) Urea (1) Limbic lobe (2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Carbohydrate (4) Proteins (3) Cerebellum (4) Medulla oblongata
167. Maximum reabsorption of nutrient occurs in 174. When all three types of cones in eye of human are
(1) PCT (2) DCT stimulated equally, then they will produce a
sensation of
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Collecting duct
(1) Black light (2) White light
168. Functional unit of contraction in a cardiac muscle is
(3) Red light (4) Dark blue light
(1) Myofibril (2) Sarcomere
175. Organ of Corti rest on which of the following
(3) Muscle fibre (4) Fascicle membranous structure?
169. Red muscle fibre can be distinguished from white (1) Reissner’s membrane
muscle fibre on the basis of following features,
(2) Tympanic membrane
except
(3) Basilar membrane
(1) High myoglobin content
(4) Tectorial membrane
(2) Large number of mitochondria
176. Which of the following hormones is not synthesized
(3) Large number of sarcoplasmic reticulum by pituitary gland?
(4) Depends on aerobic process for energy (1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin
170. Which of the following is an example of saddle joint? (3) Leutinizing hormone (4) Growth hormone
(1) Joint between humerus and pectoral girdle 177. Which of the following glands degenerates in old
individual?
(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(1) Adrenal cortex (2) Pancreas
(3) Knee joint
(3) Thymus (4) Thyroid gland
(4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
178. Which of the following hormones helps in maintaining
171. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? diurnal rhythm of the body?
(1) Unmyelinated nerve fibres in PNS are enclosed (1) Melatonin (2) Melanin
by Schwann’s cells (3) Thymosin (4) Cortisol
(2) Nissl’s granules are absent in axon 179. Which of the following hormones does not act via
(3) Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from effector secondary messenger?
organ to CNS (1) FSH (2) Insulin
(4) Unipolar neurons are found at embryonic stage (3) T3 (4) Glucagon
180. Which of the following is incorrect match between
172. Na+/K + pump maintains the ionic gradient across
hormonal disorder and its cause?
resting membrane of neuron by
Hormonal disorder Cause
(1) Pumping 3Na+ inside and 2K+ outside cell
(1) Cretinism Hyperthyroidism
(2) Pumping 4Na+ inside and 1K+ outside cell (2) Dwarfism Deficiency of GH
(3) Pumping 3Na+ outside and 2K+ inside cell (3) Diabetes mellitus Deficiency of Insulin
(4) Pumping 3Na+ outside and 3K+ inside cell (4) Osteoporosis Hyperparathyroidism

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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)

LOGICAL AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

181. In an election between two candidates, one got 55%
of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes were
invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, the
number of valid votes that the other candidate got
(1) 2500 (2) 2700
187. Out of the given figures, three are similar in a certain
way. One figure is not like the other three, that
means three figure form a group. The question is
which one of the figures does not belong to this
group?

(3) 2900 (4) 3100

182. Which number replaces the question mark? 1 2 3 4

(1) 1 (2) 2
8
2 20 (3) 3 (4) 4

188. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as

SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code.

44 (1) CHRONRD (2) DSOESPI

(3) ESJTPTF (4) ESOPSID

189. Select a figure from the answer figures. Which will

92 continue the same series as established by the five
?
188 problem figure.

Problem Figure
(1) 520 (2) 380

(3) 120 (4) 720

183. A is the son of B. C, B’s sister has a son D and a A B C D E

daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is A Answer Figure
related to D?

(1) Cousin (2) Nephew

1 2 3 4
(3) Uncle (4) Brother

184. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best

relation between profit, dividends and bonus? (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (2)
190. Ravi ranks 7th from the top and 28th from the bottom
in a class. How many students are there in the
class?
(3) (4)
(1) 37 (2) 36

185. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, (3) 35 (4) 34
his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of his son is

(1) 20 (2) 21

(3) 22 (4) 23

186. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If

P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y,
is P?

(1) North (2) South

(3) South-East (4) South-West

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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

ENGLISH AND COMPREHENSION

Directions (Q91 to Q193): Read the given passage and 192. The tradition of folklore led to all of the following
answer the questions that follow. EXCEPT
Native American Indian groups in North America (1) Chronicling history of the Native Americans for
lived in different cultural regions, each of which developed posterity
its own customs and traditions. A custom is the particular
(2) Recording the history of the Native Americans
way in which a group of people does few actions. This can
include how foods are prepared, what clothing is preferred, (3) Storing teachings and values of the Native
the kinds of activities, celebrations they practice and much Americans
more. The set of customs developed and shared by a cul- (4) Evolution of written language
ture over time is said to be their tradition. A culture’s cus-
193. In Desert Southwest region cloth weaving developed
toms are often determined by the natural resources found
in their environment. In the Desert Southwest region, cloth as a custom due to
weaving developed as a custom. The area has fewer large (1) Limited natural resources in the region
animals whose skins can be used for making clothing or
(2) Absence of basic requirement of animal skins in
blankets. Cloth weaving was a way of meeting the need for
clothing without using animal skins. In the Eastern Wood- winters
lands area, however, hunting and fishing were practiced as (3) Presence of fewer large animals whose skin
daily activities. Since it was easy to get animal skins, de- could be used for making clothes or blankets
veloping skills like weaving were less important. The tradi-
(4) Requirement of meeting the needs of the
tional roles of men and women in the native tribes varied as
surroundings
well. In hunting cultures, men were often away from home
during the day to hunt animals for food. Women did many Directions (Q194 to Q196): The following sentences have
chores around the village while they were gone. In cultures been divided into three parts and each part is numbered
where crops were grown, it was usually the men who tended as (1), (2) and (3) respectively. Identify which part
them. contains a grammatical error. If there is no mistake, then
Folklore flourished as a tradition among Native choose ‘No Error’.
American cultures due to the lack of a written lan-
194. Whenever he visits our /
guage. In order to store their teachings, experiences
(1)
and values they used oral tradition of storytelling and
singing which helped in recording their history for the home he usually is talking /
use of future generations. Religion was also an im-
(2)
portant part of Native American cultures. The celebra-
tion of the tribe’s faith and worship often involved spe- about his trips and tours. / No Error
cial ceremonies. Harvest ceremonies were a common (3) (4)
way to give thanks to the tribe’s gods for a good crop.
Other ceremonies combined religious songs and 195. I feel proud of my teammates as /
dances with social activities. These ceremonies rein- (1)
forced the people’s trust in their leaders’ ability to pro-
vide for their needs. Thus, the best way to study the they performed to the /
history of development of a society is through the (2)
study of its tradition and culture.
191. The author studies the tradition and culture of the best of their abilities. / No Error
Native Americans Indian groups by studying (3) (4)
(1) The gender parity and their occupational habits
(2) The patterns of their livelihood and teachings of 196. Having punished / the child for his misbehaviour, /
folklore (1) (2)
(3) The history and development of a society
his parents were informed. / No Error
(4) The harvest ceremonies and their religious
(3) (4)
practices
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Test-02 (Code A)
Directions (Q197 & Q198): Identify the meaning of the P: Before she was ten years old, she’d visited
underlined idiom/phrase based on the usage in the London, Paris, and Rome
sentence. Q: Although her family supported education, they
197. The offer on this product holds good for three days were not at all supportive of her desire to be a
only. professional artist

(1) Remains true (2) Remains valid R: Her family valued education and believed that
travelling was a wonderful way to learn
(3) Is surmountable (4) Is valuable
(1) PQR
198. The fate of the accused hangs in the balance until
the court decides to hear his plea. (2) RQP

(1) Remains undecided (3) RPQ

(2) Remains virtual (4) QRP

200. S1: When planting seeds for the vegetable garden,
(3) Remains predisposed
P: _______________________________
(4) Remains skeptical
Q: _______________________________
Directions (Q199 & Q200): The following paragraphs have
been divided into parts. The first part of the paragraph is R: _______________________________
given to you as (S1) and the last part of the paragraph is S5: To allow the young plant to reach the light
given as (S5). The remaining parts (P, Q and R) are given easily.
in a jumbled order. Rearrange the jumbled parts to form a
meaningful paragraph that is logically correct. Choose the P: And that the seed is placed near enough to the
option that gives the correct sequence of the jumbled parts. surface

199. S1: Artist Mary Cassatt was born in Allegheny City, Q: You should be sure that they receive the proper
Pennsylvania, in 1844. amount of moisture,

P: _______________________________ R: That they are sown at the right season to receive

the right degree of heat,
Q: _______________________________
(1) QRP
R: _______________________________
(2) PQR
S5: But that didn’t stop her from studying art both
in the U.S. and abroad. (3) RPQ
(4) QPR

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Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

18/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 02 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )
ANSWERS
1. (2) 41. (3) 81. (2) 121. (3) 161. (1)
2. (1) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (2) 162. (2)
3. (3) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (4) 163. (4)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (2) 164. (3)
5. (2) 45. (3) 85. (2) 125. (3) 165. (1)
6. (3) 46. (3) 86. (3) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (3) 47. (1) 87. (4) 127. (2) 167. (1)
8. (3) 48. (3) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (2)
9. (4) 49. (4) 89. (2) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (4) 50. (2) 90. (1) 130. (3) 170. (4)
11. (4) 51. (3) 91. (4) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (3) 53. (1) 93. (4) 133. (3) 173. (1)
14. (1) 54. (1) 94. (2) 134. (4) 174. (2)
15. (1) 55. (1) 95. (4) 135. (2) 175. (3)
16. (3) 56. (2) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (1)
17. (2) 57. (3) 97. (3) 137. (4) 177. (3)
18. (4) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (1)
19. (1) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (3)
20. (1) 60. (2) 100. (1) 140. (3) 180. (1)
21. (4) 61. (2) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (2) 142. (4) 182. (2)
23. (1) 63. (3) 103. (2) 143. (2) 183. (1)
24. (3) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (4) 184. (2)
25. (1) 65. (1) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (3)
26. (1) 66. (3) 106. (2) 146. (4) 186. (4)
27. (4) 67. (1) 107. (1) 147. (3) 187. (4)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (1) 148. (4) 188. (1)
29. (1) 69. (4) 109. (2) 149. (4) 189. (1)
30. (4) 70. (2) 110. (1) 150. (3) 190. (4)
31. (3) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (3)
32. (3) 72. (2) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (4)
33. (3) 73. (4) 113. (4) 153. (2) 193. (3)
34. (1) 74. (1) 114. (1) 154. (2) 194. (2)
35. (2) 75. (4) 115. (4) 155. (1) 195. (2)
36. (4) 76. (4) 116. (4) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (4) 77. (3) 117. (1) 157. (1) 197. (2)
38. (3) 78. (4) 118. (2) 158. (3) 198. (1)
39. (1) 79. (4) 119. (4) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (4) 80. (4) 120. (3) 160. (3) 200. (1)

(18)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A)

18/05/2017 Code - A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Test Series : Test – 02 (Objective) Time : 150 Min.

(for JIPMER - 2017 )

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 2T
Pressure difference across the surface =
rA = 2rB, LA = 3LB, YA = YB, FA = FB d
Area of each plate wetted by water = A
1 (Stress)2
W  × volume Force F required to separate the two plates is given
2 Y
by :
WA LA r2 3 F = Pressure difference × Area
 × B2 
WB LB rA 4
2T
2. Answer (1)  A  105 dyne
d
3. Answer (3) 7. Answer (3)
l = lt 8. Answer (3)
l
Thermal stress = Y rgh
l T 
2cos 
 Y11T  Y2 2 T
rg × 10
4. Answer (3) For water T1   5rg
2cos 
5. Answer (2)
rg × 3.42 × 13.6
For mercury T2   6.5 × 5rg
Fl 2cos135
l 
AY
T1 1
lS FS L  
A Y 3M 1 1 T2 6.5
 × S × B × B  ×a× 2 ×
lB FB LB AS YS 2M b c
9. Answer (4)
3a
 2 10. Answer (4)
2b c
6. Answer (3) 11. Answer (4)

Since, the bubbles coalesce in vacuum and there is

no change in temperature.

 Surface energy does not change

 4r12  4r22  4R 2

Thickness d of the film = 0.12 mm
d
or R 2  r12  r22
Radius R of the cylindrical face =
2 12. Answer (3)
(1)
Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
13. Answer (3) 21. Answer (4)
Weight = upthrust R Ti  Tf 
W 
2  1
V g  V w g
3 R (100  Tf )
6R 
1 ⎛5 ⎞
V g  V L g ⎜ 3  1⎟
4 ⎝ ⎠
2 or Tf = 96 K
L 3 8 22. Answer (3)
  
w 1 3
T1  T2 W
4  
T1 Q
14. Answer (1)
T1
15. Answer (1) Q ×W
T1  T2
Pressure of h cm of oil + pressure of (20 – h) cm
600
of mercury = pressure of 20 cm of carbon = × 1000
tetrachloride 600  300
= 2000 J
h × 0.9 × g + (20 – h) × 13.6 × g = 20 × 1.6 × g 23. Answer (1)
h = 18.9 cm
Q2 T2
 
16. Answer (3) W T1  T2
17. Answer (2) 24. Answer (3)
t1  H P
A
H T1
t2 
2 B

10 H 10 T2
 or t2   7 minutes D
t2 H/2 2 C
18. Answer (4) V

⎛h⎞ TB = T1, TC = T2,  = 1.4

v1  2g ⎜ ⎟  gh
⎝2⎠ VB = V ; VC = 32 V
From Bernoulli’s theorem TBVB1  TCVC1
1 1
h 1 TC T2 ⎛ VB ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ 1
gh  2g  (2)v 22  ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 
2 2 TB T1 ⎝ VC ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ 4
 V2  2gh T2 3
  1   0.75
T1 4
v1 1
  25. Answer (1)
v2 2
T
19. Answer (1)
Q = – 30 J 2T0
Q3 Q1
W = – 20 J
Q = (Uf – Ui) + W
 – 30 = (Uf – 50) – 20 T0
or Uf = 40 J Q2
S
20. Answer (1) S0 2S0
In isothermal process, T = 0 1 3
Q1  T0S0  T0 S0  T0 S0
Q 2 2
 C ⇒ Ciso  
mT Q2  T0S0 and Q3  0
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A)

W Q1  Q2 Q 35. Answer (2)

   1 2
Q1 Q1 Q1 Let  be the temperature of middle point C In series
rate of heat flow is same
2 1
 1   k(2A) (200 – ) = kA( – 140°)
3 3
26. Answer (1)  400 – 28 =  – 140
  = 180°C
T  20 40  0
 36. Answer (4)
140  20 100  0
T = 0.4 × 120 + 20  mT  constant
= 68° T1  2 104
   200
27. Answer (4) T2 1 0.5 × 105
37. Answer (4)
mgh
 mL 4
2 ⎛ 4 ⎞
E1 ⎛ T1 ⎞ ⎜T ⎟
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
2L
 h= = 68 km
E2 ⎝ T2 ⎠ ⎜T ⎟
g ⎝4 ⎠
28. Answer (1) E
 E2 
256
1
M.I. of a rod I = ML2 38. Answer (3)
12
180  120 ⎧180  120 ⎫
1 K⎨  40 ⎬
 I = M (2L L) 5 ⎩ 2 ⎭
12
6
I 2L  12  K × 110 or K 
 55
I L
120  60 6 ⎧120  60 ⎫
L = L  t and  ⎨  40 ⎬
t 55 ⎩ 2 ⎭
I
  2t t = 11 minutes
I 39. Answer (1)
29. Answer (1) In steady state
30. Answer (4)
dr
PV = nRT r
W
PV  RT a
M
b
PM W
 
RT V
P × M P × M × NA Pm Pm dQ dT
    H  KA
RT RT ⎛ R ⎞ kT dt dr
⎜ ⎟T
N
⎝ A⎠ dT
= K 4r 2
31. Answer (3) dr
b T
At low pressure and high temperature real gases dr 4k 2
behave like ideal gas. ∫ r 2  H ∫ dT or
a T 1
32. Answer (3) dQ 4kab
H  (T1  T2 )
3RT dt ba
v rms  40. Answer (4)
M
41. Answer (3)
' 3R(2T )
v rms   2v rms 1 2
M /2 ky
U 1 y2 a
33. Answer (3)  2 ⇒  2  y
Umax 1 4 a 2
ka2
34. Answer (1) 2
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Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
42. Answer (3) 51. Answer (3)
Comparing with standard equation
Imax  a  b 
2

d 2y   16
 02 y  0 Imin  a  b 2
2
dt
a + b = 4a – 4b
2
 02 = k  T  3a = 5b
k
43. Answer (3) a 5 I1 a2 25
  
w2 A =  b 3 I2 b 2 9
wA =  52. Answer (4)
 2 53. Answer (1)
w ⇒T 
  54. Answer (1)
44. Answer (2)
Number of beats per second = n1 ~ n2
If initial length l1 = 100
then l2 = 144 1 = 4000 = 2n1  n1 = 2000
2 = 4016 = 2n2  n2 = 2008
T l
55. Answer (1)
T1 l1 100
 T  l  144 =1Å
2 2
T2 = 1.2 T1 N A N A N A N
% increase = 20%
45. Answer (3) 1.5 Å
1 keffective 1 k  2k 1 3k 56. Answer (2)
f   
2 m 2 m 2 m String vibrates in three segments
46. Answer (3)
3
 6
y1 2
Let y1 = a sint or sint = a
1 v 40
Hence,     10 Hz
then y2 = a2 sin(t + /2) = a2 cost  4
57. Answer (3)
y2
or cost = a 1 T
2 n ⇒ n1l1  n2l 2  n3 l3  k
2l m
y12 y 22
sin2 t  cos2 t    1 i.e. Ellipse k k k k
a12 a22 l1  l 2  l3  l ⇒   
n1 n2 n3 n
47. Answer (1)
Time required to more from maximum to zero 1 1 1 1
   
n n1 n2 n3
T 1
displacement is t   58. Answer (2)
4 4n
1 v
f   1Hz nopen 
 2l open
4 × 0.25
48. Answer (3) v v
nclosed    nopen
v T 4lclosed 4lopen
2
2v T 59. Answer (3)
  or T = 1200 K
v 300
⎛ v ⎞ 320
49. Answer (4) napproaching  n ⎜ ⎟  240 ×  243 Hz
⎝ v  v s ⎠ 320 4
50. Answer (2)
⎛ v ⎞ 320
Maximum particle velocity (vmax)particle = y0(2f) nreading  n ⎜ ⎟  240 ×  237 Hz
⎝ v  v s ⎠ 320 4
vwave = f 
 beats = 243 – 237 = 6
y 0 60. Answer (2)
 y0(2f) = 6f    
3
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY

61. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)

(1 (–3) = – 3) × 2 NH3 is more stable than PH3 because of shorter
N – H bond length and orbital energy.
Cu + H+ + NO3– Cu2+ + H2O + NO 72. Answer (2)
Volume strength = 5.6 × normality
[1 (+ 2) = + 2] × 3
1 1
Volume strength = 5.6 × ∵N 
3Cu + 8H + 2NO + –
3
2+
3Cu + 4H2O + 2NO 10 10
= 0.56
62. Answer (3)
73. Answer (4)
Hydrides are instant sources of hydrogen of higher
4 purity.
3 They react with H2O forming H2 gas.
1
+5 CaH2 + 2H2O  Ca(OH)2 + 2H2 
+7 – +6 2– +4 +3 74. Answer (1)
MnO4 Mn2+ MnO4 MnO2 Mn2O3
Calgon is sodium hexametaphosphate Na 2[Na 4
So changes in oxidation states are : (PO3)6]
+7 +2 +6 +4 +3 75. Answer (4)
Through X-ray spectroscopy, it has been found that
four of water molecules are associated in ice through
63. Answer (3) hydrogen bonding.
3x – 8 = 0 76. Answer (4)
8 1 L of 100 volume H2O2 solution on decomposition
x
3 will give 100 L of oxygen at NTP
64. Answer (3) 2H2O2  2H2O  O2
68 g 22.4 L
In ClO4 , Cl is in its highest oxidation state (+7)
 100 L of O2 at NTP will obtain from H2O2 =
65. Answer (1)
68 × 100
Higher the negative value of SRP (standard reduction = 303.6 g
22.4
potential) will signify the reducing power of the Thus, volume strength of H2O2 = 303.6 g/L
species.
303.6 × 100
66. Answer (3) % volume strength =  30.36%
1000
Florence is more electronegative than oxygen.
Strength 303.6
67. Answer (1) Normality of H2O2 = 
eq. wt. 17
Last trace of water is removed from H 2 O 2 by
Normality 17.86
crystallisation. Molarity of H2O2 = 
2 2
68. Answer (3) = 8.93 M
Allotropes of hydrogen are orthohydrogen (o-H2) (in 77. Answer (3)
which proton spin is and in same direction) and B2H6 contains (3c – 2e) and (2c – 2e) bonds
para - hydrogen (p-H2) (in which proton spin and in Low Temp.
opposite direction) B2H6 + 2NH3  B2H6  2NH3
69. Answer (4) 200C
B3N3H6
B2H6 is the electron deficient hydride. Inorganic benzene
70. Answer (2) High Temp.
B2H6 + NH3  (BN)x
2M2+ + Na2[Na4(PO3)6]  Na2[M2(PO3)6] + 4 Na+ (Y)
where [M2+ = Ca2+ or Mg2+] Inorganic graphite
(5)
Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
78. Answer (4) 87. Answer (4)
Borax (Na2B4O710H2O) 88. Answer (3)
OH Sodium thiosulphate is used to remove
3
sp undecomposed AgBr.
B–
2 O O 2
89. Answer (2)
sp sp
OH B O3 B OH Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in nature.
O sp O
–
90. Answer (1)
B
BeH2 is covalent and exists as polymeric form.
OH H H H
2sp3 and 2sp3 atoms
Be Be Be Be
79. Answer (4)
H H H
In the alumino-thermite reaction 91. Answer (4)
Fe2O3  2Al  Al2O3  2Fe 85 15
C:H= :  1: 2
The aluminium is oxidized and give its electron to the 12 1
iron. Hence it acts as a reducing agent.
Empirical formula = CH2
80. Answer (4)
Empirical formula wt. = 12 + 2 = 14
NH3 is the strongest base due to smaller size of N
atom. The ability to act as electron donor decreases 56
Mol. wt. = 2 × VD = 2 × 28 = 56  n =
on descending in group 15 14
81. Answer (2) n=4
MF = n × empirical formula = 4 × CH2 = C4H8
O 92. Answer (4)
ON–N
O Greater the difference in electronegativity of bonded
atoms, easier will be heterolytic cleavage.
Number of  bond = 4
93. Answer (4)
Lone pair = 8
82. Answer (4) o-Nitrophenol because of chelation, exists as
monomer and hence, is steam volatile.
Due to free movable electron, liquid ammonia
becomes paramagnetic 94. Answer (2)
83. Answer (3) Oxygen is the better site of protonation, since it
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) gives oxonium ion which is stabilised by resonance.

3V of H2 produces  2V of NH3 +
O O–H OH OH OH
2 +
+
 6V of H2  × 6  4 dm3 H
3 +
N N N + N N
84. Answer (1)
NO is a neutral oxide of nitrogen. H H H H H
85. Answer (2) 95. Answer (4)
N2O is formed on heating NH4NO3 (acidified with HCl Tollen’s reagent (Ammonical solution of AgNO 3)
solution) cannot reduce ketones.
HCl
NH4NO3 (aq.) 
Heat,

 N2O(g)  2H2O(l)  37kJ/mol 96. Answer (2)
170  240C
Phenol reacts with Br 2 water giving 2, 4, 6
86. Answer (3) tribromophenol and also reacts wth FeCl3
Shape of XeO3 is pyramidal 97. Answer (3)
It is a nitrogenous fertilizer and synthesised by
Xe passing nitrogen over calcium carbide at suitable
O O high temperature.
O
(6)
Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A)
98. Answer (2) 105. Answer (1)
In the crystalline state of AlCl3, the ion formCl–
space lattice with Al3+ ion occupying octahedral Me
+
voids. Hence, the coordination no. of Al in the CH2 = CH – N Me all orbitals has been
crystalline state of AlCl3 is 6. Structure of AlCl3 in Me
solid state is shown as below accommodated in bonding methyl.
106. Answer (2)
Al
Cl CH3 CH3 CH3
Cl Cl Br Sn/HCl
Br
Br2
Al Al
Cl Cl C. N.  6
Cl NO2 NO2 NH2
Al

99. Answer (3) 273 – 278 K NaNO2/HCl

Due to low electronegativity of carbon in CH3

CH3 CH3
100. Answer (1)
Br Br
1 2 H2O/H3PO4
Cl C2H5
C=C (D)
N  NCl
–

2 +
F C3H7 107. Answer (1)
1
101. Answer (4) Two successive members of any homologous series
+ + + can’t be isomer to each other.
CH2 CH2
108. Answer (1)
+
HC  C+ red P
CH3  COOH  6HI   CH3  CH3  2H2O  3I2
Ethane

+ NO2 109. Answer (2)

N(CH3)3
Fact
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Aromatic –I –R sp2 JP 110. Answer (1)
102. Answer (2) Fact
Some compounds like hydrazine (NH2NH2) do not 111. Answer (2)
respond Lassaigne’s test because they do not have Due to +R effect of OH group in phenol.
any carbon and hence NaCN is not formed. 112. Answer (4)
103. Answer (2) Molecular mass of aldehyde is 44 u. So it is
CH3CHO.
2
+ sp
1. O2
sp
2
sp
2 CH3  CH  CH  CH3 
2. Zn/H O
 2CH3CHO
2
(2 Butene)
2 2
sp sp 113. Answer (4)
3
sp H H
3
1
H 2C = C – C = CH 2 more stable alkene lesser
Total sp2 hybridised carbon atom = 5 would be heat of hydrogenation.
sp3 hybridised carbon atom = 1 114. Answer (1)
104. Answer (4)
sp2 sp3 CH3  CH2  CH  CH 
4 2 4

HgSO H SO

⎡ OH ⎤ O
, ⎢ | ⎥ ||
non-aromatic anti-aromatic non-aromatic ⎢CH3  CH2  C  CH3 ⎥ CH3  CH2 CCH3
(i) (ii) (iii) ⎢ | ⎥
Acidic strength : (i) > (iii) > (ii) ⎣⎢ OH ⎦⎥
Hence : pka  (i) < (iii) < (ii) Addition of water follows Markovnikov’s rule.
(7)
Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017
115. Answer (4) 118. Answer (2)
SOX and NOX promote acid rain by reaction with
CH3
H2O.
Hot iron tube
3CH3  C  CH 
400C
 119. Answer (4)
H3C CH3 CH3 OH CH3

116. Answer (4) C=N C=N

Fact H H OH
anti syn
117. Answer (1)
120. Answer (3)
ZSM-5 converts alcohols into gasolene directly.
Basic strength of will be greatest amongst
N
given compound hence it will have lowest pKb value.

BIOLOGY

121. Answer (3) 137. Answer (4)

122. Answer (2) 138. Answer (3)
Centrioles and ribosomes are not bounded by Excited electron donot pass on to NADP+ and is
membrane. cycled back to PS-I complex.
123. Answer (4) 139. Answer (4)
124. Answer (2) 140. Answer (3)
Cilia and flagella are membrane bound extentions of In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur.
plasma membrane having 9 + 2 arrangement but
141. Answer (3)
centriole has 9 + 0 arrangement.
142. Answer (4)
125. Answer (3)
143. Answer (2)
126. Answer (3)
Pyruvic acid is the final product of glycolysis and
127. Answer (2) 2 ATPs are consumed during the process.
Splitting of centromere & separation of chromatids 144. Answer (4)
take place during anaphase of mitosis.
145. Answer (2)
128. Answer (3)
146. Answer (4)
129. Answer (4)
147. Answer (3)
In imbibition, water moves along the concentration
gradient. Cytokinin - Shows delayed senescence.

130. Answer (3) 148. Answer (4)

It is a downhill transport (along the concentration 149. Answer (4)

gradient) 150. Answer (3)
131. Answer (2) 151. Answer (2)
132. Answer (3) Chylomicrons are protein coated fat globules which
133. Answer (3) are formed in intestinal mucosa cells and are further
transported by lacteals.
134. Answer (4)
152. Answer (4)
135. Answer (2)
153. Answer (2)
136. Answer (3)
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Test Series for JIPMER - 2017 Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A)
154. Answer (2) 164. Answer (3)
Rennin is a part of gastric juice while nucleosidases 165. Answer (1)
and enterokinase are part of intestinal juice, Trypsin 166. Answer (2)
and chymotrypsin are formed after activation of
Urea is absent in dialysing fluid, but present in high
proenzymes in duodenum.
amount in blood plasma. This causes the movement
155. Answer (1) of urea down its concentration gradient in dialysing
156. Answer (3) fluid.
Vital capacity = Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve 167. Answer (1)
volume + Expiratory reserve volume 168. Answer (2)
Inspiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Inspiratory 169. Answer (3)
reserve volume
170. Answer (4)
157. Answer (1)
171. Answer (3)
Partial pressure of oxygen is 159 mmHg in
Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from receptor
atmosphere while 104 mmHg in alveoli, so pO2
organ to CNS.
decreases in alveoli.
172. Answer (3)
158. Answer (3)
173. Answer (1)
Chemosensitive area in brain is sensitive to H+ and
CO 2. As high CO 2 concentration, increases the 174. Answer (2)
amount of carbonic acid, hence H+ ion concentration 175. Answer (3)
also increases.
176. Answer (1)
159. Answer (2)
Oxytocin is synthesized by hypothalamus
160. Answer (3)
177. Answer (3)
Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs due to Rh
178. Answer (1)
incompatibility between Rh– mother and Rh+ foetus,
during second pregnancy. As mother gets sensitized 179. Answer (3)
by Rh+ foetus blood at time of parturition of first Thyroid hormone can cross the plasma membrane
baby. and bind to its receptor present in the nucleus.
161. Answer (1) 180. Answer (1)
162. Answer (2) Cretinism is caused by deficiency of thyroid
163. Answer (4) hormone during pregnancy.

LOGICAL AND QUANTITATIVE REASONING

181. Answer (2) 185. Answer (3)

182. Answer (2) Let the son’s present age be X years.
2×2+4=8 Then man’s present age = (x + 24) years.
8 × 2 + 4 = 20 (x + 24) + 2 = 2(x + 2)
20 × 2 + 4 = 44 186. Answer (4)
44 × 2 + 4 = 92 187. Answer (4)
92 × 2 + 4 = 188 The arrow is moving clockwise 90°. In figure 4, it has
moved 45° only.
188 × 2 + 4 = 380
188. Answer (1)
183. Answer (1)
189. Answer (1)
184. Answer (2)
190. Answer (4)
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Answers & Hints of Test-02 (Code A) Test Series for JIPMER - 2017

ENGLISH AND COMPREHENSION

191. Answer (3) ‘have performed’ is the correct tense form.
192. Answer (4) 196. Answer (3)
193. Answer (3) A subject is required in the clause – ‘the teacher
194. Answer (2) informed his parents’.

‘talks’ is the correct tense form instead of ‘is 197. Answer (2)
talking’. 198. Answer (1)
195. Answer (2) 199. Answer (3)
200. Answer (1)

(10)