QuestionPaper Clat Mock

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LST CLAT Mock–15 (New Pattern)
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
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Directions for questions 1 to 29: The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the mostappropriate answer to each question.
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Passage – 1
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When I was little, children were bought two kinds of ice cream, sold from those white wagons with canopies made of silvery metal: either the two-cent cone or
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the four-cent ice-cream pie. The two-cent cone was very small, in fact it could fit comfortably into a child's hand, and it was made by taking the ice cream from
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its container with a special scoop and piling it on the cone.
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The four-cent pie was made by a special little machine, also silvery, which pressed two disks of sweet biscuit against a cylindrical section of ice cream. First
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you had to thrust your tongue into the gap between the biscuits until it touched the central nucleus of ice cream; then, gradually, you ate the whole thing, the
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biscuit surfaces softening as they became soaked in creamy nectar.
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I was fascinated, however, by some of my peers, whose parents bought them not a four-cent pie but two two-cent cones. These privileged children advanced
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proudly with one cone in their right hand and one in their left; and expertly moving their head from side to side, they licked first one, then the other. This liturgy
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seemed to me so sumptuously enviable, that many times I asked to be allowed to celebrate it. In vain. My elders were inflexible: a four-cent ice, yes; but two
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two-cent ones, absolutely no.
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As anyone can see, neither mathematics nor economy nor dietetics justified this refusal. The pathetic, and obviously mendacious, justification was that a boy
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concerned with turning his eyes from one cone to the other was more inclined to stumble over stones, steps, or cracks in the pavement. I dimly sensed that
there was another secret justification, cruelly pedagogical, but I was unable to grasp it.
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Today, citizen and victim of a consumer society, a civilization of excess and waste (which the society of the thirties was not), I realize that those dear and now
departed elders were right. Two two-cent cones instead of one at four cents did not signify squandering, economically speaking, but symbolically they surely
did. It was for this precise reason, that I yearned for them: because two ice creams suggested excess. And this was precisely why they were denied to me:
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because they looked indecent, an insult to poverty, a display of fictitious privilege, a boast of wealth. Only spoiled children ate two cones at once, those
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children who in fairy tales were rightly punished, as Pinocchio was when he rejected the skin and the stalk. And parents who encouraged this weakness,
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appropriate to little parvenus, were bringing up their children in the foolish theatre of "I'd like to but I can't." They were preparing them to turn up at tourist-
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class check-in with a fake Gucci bag bought from a street peddler on the beach at Rimini.
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Nowadays the moralist risks seeming at odds with morality, in a world where the consumer civilization now wants even adults to be spoiled, and promises
them always something more, from the wristwatch in the box of detergent to the bonus bangle sheathed, with the magazine it accompanies, in a plastic
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envelope. Like the parents of those ambidextrous gluttons I so envied, the consumer civilization pretends to give more, but actually gives, for four cents, what
is worth four cents.
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Q 1. 60249206 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

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a) Today's society is more extravagant than the society of the 1930s.

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b) The act of eating two ice cream cones is akin to a ceremonial process.
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c) Elders rightly suggested that a boy turning eyes from one cone to the other was more likely to fall.
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d) Despite seeming to promise more, the consumer civilization gives away exactly what the thing is worth.
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Q 2. 60249206 In the passage, the phrase "little parvenus" refers to

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a) naughty midgets. b) old hags. c) arrogant people d) young upstarts.

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Q 3. 60249206 The author pined for two two-cent cones instead of one four-cent pie because
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a) it made dietetic sense. b) it suggested intemperance. c) it was more fun. d) it had a visual appeal.
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Q 4. 60249206 What does the author mean by "nowadays the moralist risks seeming at odds with morality"?
a) The moralists of yesterday have become immoral today. b) The concept of morality has changed over the years.
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c) Consumerism is amoral. d) The risks associated with immorality have gone up.
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Q 5. 60249206 According to the author, the justification for refusal to let him eat two cones was plausibly
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a) didactic. b) dietetic. c) dialectic. d) diatonic.

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Passage – 2
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Language is not a cultural artifact that we learn the way we learn to tell time or how the federal government works. Instead, it is a distinct piece of the
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biological makeup of our brains. Language is a complex, specialized skill, which develops in the child spontaneously, without conscious effort or formal
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instruction, is deployed without awareness of its underlying logic, is qualitatively the same in every individual, and is distinct from more general abilities to
process information or behave intelligently. For these reasons some cognitive scientists have described language as a psychological faculty, a mental organ,
a neural system, and a computational module. But I prefer the admittedly quaint term "instinct". It conveys the idea that people know how to talk in more or
less the sense that spiders know how to spin webs. Web-spinning was not invented by some unsung spider genius and does not depend on having had the
right education or on having an aptitude for architecture or the construction trades. Rather, spiders spin spider webs because they have spider brains, which
give them the urge to spin and the competence to succeed. Although there are differences between webs and words, I will encourage you to see language in
this way, for it helps to make sense of the phenomena we will explore.
Thinking of language as an instinct inverts the popular wisdom, especially as it has been passed down in the canon of the humanities and social sciences.
Language is no more a cultural invention than is upright posture. It is not a manifestation of a general capacity to use symbols: a three-year-old, we shall see,
is a grammatical genius, but is quite incompetent at the visual arts, religious iconography, traffic signs, and the other staples of the semiotics curriculum.
Though language is a magnificent ability unique to Homo sapiens among living species, it does not call for sequestering the study of humans from the domain
of biology, for a magnificent ability unique to a particular living species is far from unique in the animal kingdom. Some kinds of bats home in on flying insects
using Doppler sonar. Some kinds of migratory birds navigate thousands of miles by calibrating the positions of the constellations against the time of day and
year. In nature's talent show, we are simply a species of primate with our own act, a knack for communicating information about who did what to whom by
modulating the sounds we make when we exhale.
Once you begin to look at language not as the ineffable essence of human uniqueness hut as a biological adaptation to communicate information, it is no
longer as tempting to see language as an insidious shaper of thought, and, we shall see, it is not. Moreover, seeing language as one of nature's engineering
marvels - an organ with "that perfection of structure and co-adaptation which justly excites our admiration," in Darwin's words - gives us a new respect for
your ordinary Joe and the much-maligned English language (or any language). The complexity of language, from the scientist's point of view, is part of our
biological birthright; it is not something that parents teach their children or something that must be elaborated in school - as Oscar Wilde said, "Education is
an admirable thing, but it is well to remember from time to time that nothing that is worth knowing can be taught." A preschooler's tacit knowledge of grammar
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is more sophisticated than the thickest style manual or the most state-of-the-art computer language system, and the same applies to all healthy human
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beings, even the notorious syntax-fracturing professional athlete and the, you know, like, inarticulate teenage skateboarder. Finally, since language is the
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product of a wellengineered biological instinct, we shall see that it is not the nutty barrel of monkeys that entertainer-columnists make it out to be.
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Q 6. 60249206 According to the passage, which of the following does not stem from popular wisdom on language?
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a) Language is a cultural artifact. b) Language is a cultural invention.
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c) Language is learnt as we grow. d) Language is a psychological faculty.
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Q 7. 60249206 Which of the following can be used to replace the "spiders know how to spin webs" analogy as used by the author?
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a) A kitten learning to jump over a wall b) Bees collecting nectar
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c) A donkey carrying a load d) A horse running a Derby
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Q 8. 60249206 According to the passage, which of the following is unique to human beings?
a) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.

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b) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.

c) Ability to communicate information to other members of the species.
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d) Ability to use sound as means of communication.

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Q 9. 60249206 According to the passage, complexity of language cannot be taught by parents or at school to children because
a) children instinctively know language.

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b) children learn the language on their own.

c) language is not amenable to teaching.
d) children know language better than their teachers or parents.
Q 10. 60249206 Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
a) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.

b) Language is neither learnt nor taught.
c) Language is not a cultural invention or artifact as it is made out.
d) Language is an instinctive ability of human beings.
Passage – 3
Human Biology does nothing to structure human society: age may enfeeble us all, but cultures vary considerably in the prestige and power they accord to the
elderly. Giving birth is a necessary condition for being a mother, but it is not sufficient. We expect mothers to behave in maternal ways and to display
appropriately maternal sentiments. We prescribe a clutch of norms or rules that govern the role of a mother. That the social role is independent of the
biological base can be demonstrated by going back three sentences. (giving birth is certainly not sufficient to be a mother but, as adoption and fostering
show, it is not even necessary!)
The fine detail of what is expected of a mother or a father or a dutiful son differs from culture to culture, but everywhere behaviour is coordinated by the
reciprocal nature of roles. Husbands and wives, parents and children, employers and employees, waiters and customers, teachers and pupils, warlords and
followers: each makes sense only in its relation to the other. The term 'role' is an appropriate one. because the metaphor of an actor in a play neatly
expresses the rule-governed nature or scripted nature of much of social life and the sense that society is a joint production. Social life occurs only because
people play their parts (and that is as true for war and conflicts as for peace and love) and those parts make sense only in the context of the overall show.
The drama metaphor also reminds us of the artistic license available to the players. We can play a part straight or,we can ham it up.
The American sociologist Frying Goffman built an influential body of social analysis on elaborations of the metaphor of social life as drama. Perhaps his most
telling point was that it is only through acting out a part that we express character. It is not enough to be evil or virtuous: we have to be seen to be evil or
virtuous.
There is distinction between the roles we play and some underlying self. Here we might note that some roles are more absorbing than others. We would not
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be surprised by the waitress who plays the part in such a way as to signal to us that she is much more than her occupation. We would be surprised and
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offended by the father who played his part 'tongue in cheek'. Some roles are broader and more far-reaching than others. Describing someone as a clergyman
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or faith healer would say far more about that person than describing someone as a bus driver.
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Q 11. 60249206 What is the thematic highlight of the passage?
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a) In the absence of strong biological linkages, reciprocal roles provide the mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.
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b) In the absence of reciprocal roles, biological linkages provide the mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.
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c) Human behaviour is independent of biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
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d) Reciprocal roles determine normative human behaviour in society.
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Q 12. 60249206 Which of the following would have been true if biological linkages structured human society?
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a) The role of mother would have been defined through her reciprocal relationship with her children.
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b) We would not have been offended by the father playing his role 'tongue in cheek'.
c) Women would have adopted and fostered children rather than giving birth to them.
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d) Even if warlords were physically weaker than their followers, they would still dominate them.
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Q 13. 60249206 It has been claimed in the passage that "some roles are more absorbing than others". According to the passage, which of the
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following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?

A. Some roles carry great expectations from the society preventing manifestation of the true self.
B. Society ascribes so much importance to some roles that the conception of self may get aligned with the roles being performed.
C. Some roles require development of skill and expertise leaving little time for manifestation of self.
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a) A only b) B only c) C only d) A & B
Q 14. 60249206 Select the synonym of 'enfeeble'
a) Debilitate b) Bolster c) Ascend d) Invigorate
Passage – 4
A remarkable aspect of art of the present century is the range of concepts and ideologies which it embodies. It is almost tempting to see a pattern emerging
within the art field - or alternatively imposed upon it a posteriori - similar to that which exists under the umbrella of science where the general term covers a
whole range of separate, though interconnecting, activities. Any parallelism is however - in this instance at least - misleading. A scientific discipline develops
systematically once its bare tenets have been established, named and categorized as conventions. Many of the concepts of modern art, by contrast, have
resulted from the almost accidental meetings of groups of talented individuals at certain times and certain places. The ideas generated by these chance
meetings had twofold consequences. Firstly, a corpus of work would be produced which, in great part, remains as a concrete record of the events. Secondly,
the ideas would themselves be disseminated through many different channels of communication - seeds that often bore fruit in contexts far removed from
their generation. Not all movements were exclusively concerned with innovation. Surrealism, for instance, claimed to embody a kind of insight which can be
present in the art of any period. This claim has been generally accepted so that a sixteenth century painting by Spranger or a mysterious photograph by Atget
can legitimately be discussed in surrealist terms. Briefly, then, the concepts of modern art are of many different (often fundamentally different) kinds and
resulted from the exposures of painters, sculptors and thinkers to the more complex phenomena of the twentieth century, including our ever increasing
knowledge of the thought and products of earlier centuries. Different groups of artists would collaborate in trying to make sense of a rapidly changing world of
visual and spiritual experience. We should hardly be surprised if no one group succeeded completely, but achievements, though relative, have been
considerable. Landmarks have been established - concrete statements of position which give a pattern to a situation which could easily have degenerated
into total chaos. Beyond this, new language tools have been created for those who follow - semantic systems which can provide a springboard for further
explorations.
The codifying of art is often criticized. Certainly one can understand that artists are wary of being pigeon-holed since they are apt to think of themselves as
individuals - sometimes with good reason. The notion of self-expression, however, no longer carries quite the weight it once did; objectivity has its defenders.
There is good reason to accept the ideas codified by artists and critics, over the past sixty years or so, as having attained the status of independent existence
- an independence which is not without its own value. The time factor is important here. As an art movement slips into temporal perspective, it ceases to be a
living organism - becoming, rather, a fossil. This is not to say that it becomes useless or uninteresting. Just as a scientist can reconstruct the life of a
prehistoric environment from the messages codified into the structure of a fossil, so can an artist decipher whole webs of intellectual and creative possibility
from the recorded structure of a 'dead' art movement. The artist can match the creative patterns crystallized into this structure against the potentials and
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possibilities of his own time. As T.S. Eliot observed, no one starts anything from scratch; however consciously you may try to live in the present, you are still
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involved with a nexus of behaviour patterns bequeathed from the past. The original and creative person is not someone who ignores these patterns, but
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someone who is able to translate and develop them so that they conform more exactly to his - and our - present needs.
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Q 15. 60249206 Many of the concepts of modern art have been the product of
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a) ideas generated from planned deliberations between artists, painters and thinkers.
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b) the dissemination of ideas through the state and its organizations.
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c) accidental interactions among people blessed with creative muse.
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d) patronage by the rich and powerful that supported art.
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Q 16. 60249206 In the passage, the word 'fossil' can be interpreted as
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a) an art movement that has ceased to remain interesting or useful.
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b) an analogy from the physical world to indicate a historic art movement.
c) an analogy from the physical world to indicate the barrenness of artistic creations in the past.
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d) an analogy from the physical world to indicate the passing of an era associated with an art movement.
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Q 17. 60249206 In the passage, which of the following similarities between science and art may lead to erroneous conclusions?
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a) Both, in general, include a gamut of distinct but interconnecting activities.

b) Both have movements not necessarily concerned with innovation.
c) Both depend on collaborations between talented individuals.
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d) Both involve abstract thought and dissemination of ideas.
Q 18. 60249206 The range of concepts and ideologies embodied in the art of the twentieth century is explained by
a) the existence of movements such as surrealism.

b) landmarks which give a pattern to the art history of the twentieth century.
c) new language tools which can be used for further explorations into new areas.
d) the fast-changing world of perceptual and transcendental understanding.
Q 19. 60249206 The passage uses an observation by T.S. Eliot to imply that
a) creative processes are not 'original' because they always borrow from the past.
b) we always carry forward the legacy of the past.
c) past behaviours and thought processes recreate themselves in the present and get labeled as 'original' or 'creative'.
d) 'innovations' and 'original thinking' interpret and develop on past thoughts to suit contemporary needs.
Passage – 5
To summarize the Classic Maya collapse, we can tentatively identify five strands. I acknowledge, however, that Maya archaeologists still disagree vigorously
among themselves in part, because the different strands evidently varied in importance among different parts of the Maya realm; because detailed
archaeological studies are available for only some Maya sites; and because it remains puzzling why most of the Maya heartland remained nearly empty of
population and failed to recover after the collapse and after re-growth of forests.
With those caveats, it appears to me that one strand consisted of population growth outstripping available resources: a dilemma similar to the one foreseen
by Thomas Malthus in 1798 and being played out today in Rwanda, Haiti and elsewhere. As the archaeologist David Webster succinctly puts it, "Too many
farmers grew too many crops on too much of landscape." Compounding that mismatch between population and resources was the second strand: the effects
of deforestation and hillside erosion, which caused a decrease in the amount of useable farmland at a time when more rather than less farmland was needed,
and possibly exacerbated by an anthropogenic drought resulting from deforestation, by soil nutrient depletion and other soil problems, and by the struggle to
prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.
The third strand consisted of increased fighting, as more and more people fought over fewer resources. Maya warfare, already endemic, peaked just before
the collapse. That is not surprising when one reflects that at least five million people, perhaps many more, were crammed into an area smaller than the US
state of Colorado (104,000 square miles). That warfare would have decreased further the amount of land available for agriculture, by creating no-man's lands
between principalities where it was now unsafe to farm. Bringing matters to a head was the strand of climate change. The drought at the time of the Classic
collapse was not the first drought that the Maya had lived through, but it was the most severe. At the time of previous droughts, there were still uninhabited
parts of the Maya landscape, and people at a site affected by drought could save themselves by moving to another site. However, by the time of the Classic
collapse the landscape was now full, there was no useful unoccupied land in the vicinity on which to begin anew, and the whole population could not be
accommodated in the few areas that continued to have reliable water supplies.
As our fifth strand, we have to wonder why the kings and nobles failed to recognize and solve these seemingly obvious problems undermining their society.
Their attention was evidently focused on their short-term concerns of enriching themselves, waging wars, erecting monuments, competing with each other,
and extracting enough food from the peasants to support all those activities. Like most leaders throughout human history, the Maya kings and nobles did not
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heed long-term problems, insofar as they perceived them.Maya kings sought to outdo each other with more and more impressive temples, covered with
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thicker and thicker plaster - reminiscent in turn of the extravagant conspicuous consumption by modern American CEOs. The passivity of Maya kings in the
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face of the real big threats to their societies completes our list of disquieting parallels.
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Q 20. 60249206 According to the passage, which of the following best represents the factor that has been cited by the author in the context of
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Rwanda and Haiti?
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a) Various ethnic groups competing for land and other resources b) Various ethnic groups competing for limited land resources
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c) Various ethnic groups fighting with each other d) Various ethnic groups competing for political power
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Q 21. 60249206 By an anthropogenic drought, the author means
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a) a drought caused by lack of rains.
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b) a drought caused due to deforestation.
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c) a drought caused by failure to prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.
d) a drought caused by actions of human beings.
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Q 22. 60249206 According to the passage, the drought at the time of Maya collapse had a different impact compared to the droughts earlier
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because
a) the Maya kings continued to be extravagant when common people were suffering.
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b) it happened at the time of collapse of leadership among Mayas.

c) it happened when the Maya population had occupied all available land suited for agriculture.
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d) it was followed by internecine warfare among Mayans.
Q 23. 60249206 According to the author, why is it difficult to explain the reasons for Maya collapse?
a) Copan inhabitants destroyed all records of that period.

b) The constant deforestation and hillside erosion have wiped out all traces of the Maya kingdom.
c) Archaeological sites of Mayas do not provide any consistent evidence.
d) It has not been possible to ascertain which of the factors best explains as to why the Maya civilization collapsed.
Q 24. 60249206 Which factor has not been cited as one of the factors causing the collapse of Maya society?
a) Environmental degradation due to excess population

b) Social collapse due to excess population
c) Increased warfare among Maya people
d) Obsession of Maya population with their own short-term concerns
Passage – 6
To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science, consider first how the historian isolates the particular loci of commitment that have
been described as accepted rules. Close historical investigation of a given specialty at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-standard
illustrations of various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. These are the community's paradigms, revealed in its
textbooks, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying them and by practicing with them, the members of the corresponding community learn their trade.
The historian, of course, will discover in addition a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in doubt, but the core of solved problems
and techniques will usually be clear. Despite occasional ambiguities, the paradigms of a mature scientific community can be determined with relative ease.
That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When undertaking it, the historian must compare the community's paradigms with each
other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his object is to discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that community
may have abstracted from their more global paradigms and deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has attempted to describe or analyze the
evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily have sought accepted principles and rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he will have met with at
least partial success. But, if his experience has been at all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult and less satisfying than the
search for paradigms. Some of the generalizations he employs to describe the community's shared beliefs will present more problems. Others, however, will
seem a shade too strong. Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he can imagine, they would almost certainly have been rejected by some members of
the group he studies. Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be understood in terms of rules, some specification of common ground in
the corresponding area is needed. As a result, the search for a body of rules competent to constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a source of
continual and deep frustration.
Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its source. Scientists can agree that a Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein has
produced an apparently permanent solution to a group of outstanding problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the particular
abstract characteristics that make those solutions permanent. They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even
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attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack of a standard interpretation or of an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a
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paradigm from guiding research. Normal science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of paradigms, a process that is often aided by but does
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not depend upon the formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a paradigm need not even imply that any full set of rules exists.
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Q 25. 60249206 What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?
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a) Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
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b) How a historian would isolate a particular 'loci of commitment'
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c) How a set of shared beliefs evolves into a paradigm
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d) Ways of understanding a scientific tradition
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Q 26. 60249206 The term 'loci of commitment' as used in the passage would most likely correspond with which of the following?
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a) Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
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b) Loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories
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c) Loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
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d) Loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry
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Q 27. 60249206 The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?
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a) Paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition.
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b) A group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by defining a set of rules.
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c) Acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm to emerge.
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d) Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition.
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Q 28. 60249206 As used in the passage, the word 'penumbral' is most similar in meaning to:
a) An additional piece of information that is not very important.

b) An important piece of information that can alter reality.
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c) The central opinion around which the argument revolves.

d) A shadowy area between complete illustration and darkness.
Q 29. 60249206 Select the antonym of 'ambiguity'.
a) Equivocation b) Ambivalence c) Limpidity d) Abstruseness

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CURRENT AFFAIRS INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

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Passage – 1
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The Supreme Court struck down the curb on crypto currency trade in India. "SC rules curb on crypto currency trade illegal," the report said while adding that
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the order lifted ban on trading in virtual currency, crypto currency and (1). (1), the most valued crypto currency in the world, was down 0.39 per cent at
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$8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion.

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The (2) had virtually banned crypto currency trading in India as in a circular issued on April 6, 2018, it directed that all entities regulated by it shall not deal in
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virtual currencies or provide services for facilitating any person or entity in dealing with or settling those.
92 06
02
0
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Regulated entities that were already providing such services were told to exit the relationship within three months. A three judge bench of Justices Rohinton
06
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Nariman, Aniruddha Bose and V Ramasubramanian pronounced the judgment. IMAI had argued that crypto currency is not strictly currency and was more in
6
the nature of commodity, and the (2) does not have powers to impose such ban in the absence of a law in that regard prohibiting crypto currency.
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The (2) gave entities three months to snap all banking relationships with individuals or businesses dealing in virtual currency. That ban was aimed at "ring-
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6
fencing" the country's financial system from the private virtual currencies, deemed illegal by the government. (1)'s 11-year history is replete with fast ascents
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and equally rapid plunges. In late 2017, it rose three and a half times in just 35 days to reach almost $20,000. It then slumped 70 per cent in seven weeks.
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Such wild and often inexplicable swings are why (1) faces a struggle to become a functioning currency. While many regulators around the world have been
60
warning against trading in (1), some have backed it. In 2017, Japan accepted (1) as legal currency and even officially recognised exchanges dealing in the
crypto currency.
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6
(1) became the first crypto currency after launching in 2009, and has since remained at the forefront of the market. (1) essentially removed the "middleman"
2
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who controlled currency and replaced it with advanced blockchain technology. About three-fourths of all (1) has already been mined - meaning its value
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should become more predictable moving forward.
Q 30. 60249206 Which of the following is the most valued (market capitalization) crypto currency in the world which is redacted with (1) in the
06 60 24 20 6
above passage?
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a) Bitcoin b) Ethereum c) Litecoin d) Ripple
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Q 31. 60249206 Which of the following had banned crypto currency trading in India in April 2018 redacted with (2) in the above passage?
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a) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal b) Reserve Bank of India
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c) Ministry of Finance d) Securities and Exchange Board of India
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Q 32. 60249206 On 4 March 2020, Supreme Court struck down a ban imposed by the (2) on banks from allowing their systems to be used for
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cryptocurrency related payments in April 2018. A cryptocurrency can be defined by which of the following feature/features?
1. It is based on a distributed ledger meaning that records of its ownership are held across thousands of computers simultaneously, rather than
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any centralised system.
2. It is not issued by a centralised authority such as a central bank.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

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a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 33. 60249206 Which of the following countries was the first country to launch a central bank digital currency (CBDC) the 'E-dinar'?
a) Tunisia
24 92 6 b) Chile c) Egypt d) Uganda
Q 34. 60249206 In 2019, which of the following countries became the first country to legalize salary payments in crypto currencies (BTC)?
a) Australia b) Brazil c) New Zealand d) Russia
Passage – 2
The Kalapani is a 35 square kilometre area, which is claimed by both India and (1). River Mahakali, earlier known as river Kali, flows through Kalapani, which
is situated on the eastern bank of the river. Both India and (1) claim Kalapani as an integral part of their territories India as part of (2) and (1) as part of the
Darchula district.
Kalapani is also a tri-junction point, where the India, (1) and Tibet (Chinese) borders meet. The region has been manned by the Indo-Tibetan Border Police
since 1962.The (3) was signed between British India and (1), defined river Mahakali as the western border of (1). River Mahakali has several tributaries, all of
which merge at Kalapani.
India claims that the river begins in Kalapani as this is where all its tributaries merge. But (1) claims that it begins from (4), the origin of most of its tributaries. "
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(1) has laid claim to all areas east of the Lipu Gad - the rivulet that joins the river Kali on its border, a tri-junction with India and China,".Lipu Gad is one of the
06 60 24 20 6 6 02 92
major tributaries that merge into the main river at Kalapani. "The (1) contention is that the Lipu Gad is, in fact, the Kali river up to its source to the east of the
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(4),". The Indian side contends that river Mahakali begins where Lipu Gad meets the Kalapani springs.
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Q 35. 60249206 The Kalapani is a disputed area between India and (1). Which of the following countries is redacted with (1) in the above
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passage?
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a) Bhutan b) Bangladesh c) Nepal d) Pakistan

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Q 36. 60249206 India and (1) claimed Kalapani as an integral part of their territories, India as part of (2) and (1) as part of the Darchula district.
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Which of the following is redacted with (2) in the above passage?

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a) Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district b) Uttarakhand's Chamoli District

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c) Uttar Pradesh's Maharajganj district d) Bihar's Madhubani District

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Q 37. 60249206 Which of the following treaties was signed between British India and (1) in 1816, redacted with (3) in the above passage?
a) Treaty of Punakha b) Treaty of Sinchula c) Treaty of Segauli d) Treaty of Yandabo

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Q 38. 60249206 Which of the following mountain passes is redacted with (4) in the above passage?
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a) Lipulekh Pass b) Mana Pass c) Auden's Col d) Traill's Pass

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Q 39. 60249206 Which of the following statements is not true about the country (1) in the above passage?
(1) It adopted new constitution in 2015.
(2) Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism, was born in Lumbini in southern (1).
(3) It is a landlocked country in South Asia.
Choose the correct statements using the codes given below:
a) Both (1) and (2) b) Both (2) and (3) c) Both (1) and (3) d) All of the above
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6
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Q 40. 60249206 Which of the following rivers flowing through India does not originate in (1)?
60
a) Kali Gandaki b) Sarayu c) Ghaghara d) Rapti River
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Passage – 3
The (1) was formally launched three months ago by the US, Australia and Japan - all part of the 'Quad' where India is the fourth member - and is an across-
the-board certification process for all aspects related to an infrastructure project and centred on transparency and sustainability. To explain that, a little
backing up is needed to June 2019, when Department of Defense (DoD) published its 'Indo-Pacific Strategy Report'. This had some 91 references to China,
and one section on the newly set up 'US International Development Finance Corporation' (DFC) with the mandate to mobilise private finance for infrastructure
investment in small countries. This advisory process is interesting to say the least. Earlier, advice from an unnamed group of US experts led to (2)
renegotiating a deal with China on the deep-water Kyaukpyu port much to Beijing's annoyance.
The whole effort is being undertaken by a multitude of US departments with separate budgets, and acronyms. But the objective is clear: to push back on
Chinese influence in the region. That is also an objective for India's security managers, but not one that New Delhi can do much about. Given the reality of
proximate Chinese power, officials have preferred to keep the door open on BRI, even while going ahead with as much regional connectivity as possible
under a limited budget. Indian enterprise has not stepped up to take the slack either.
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In sum, this new initiative delivers on two fronts. First, in pushing back rising Chinese influence; and second, it addresses India's grouse that the 'Indo-Pacific'
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thrust is far too focussed on security. This initiative is about development, to harness what US officials estimate at about $70 trillion of potential investment
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waiting in the wings. There is no doubt that Beijing is well aware of the dangers, with dismissing the (1) as 'delusional' in its ability to oppose the BRI.
24
Q 41. 60249206 Which of the following networks was launched by the US, Australia, Japan and India redacted with (1) in the above passage?
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a) Blue Dot Network b) Red Dot Network
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c) Silver Dot Network d) Black Dot Network
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Q 42. 60249206 Kyaukpyu port is a deep-sea model project in China-(2) BRI cooperation. Which of the following countries is redacted with (2) in
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the above passage? 6
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0
a) Maldives b) Myanmar c) Mauritius d) Thailand
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06
Q 43. 60249206 China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) name was coined in:
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6
a) 2007 b) 2009 c) 2011 d) 2013
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20
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6
Q 44. 60249206 "The String of Pearls" is a geopolitical theory related to potential Chinese intentions in the Indian Ocean region, which extend
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9
from the Chinese mainland to _____________Port.
a) Pakistan b) South Africa c) Sudan d) Egypt

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20
Q 45. 60249206 Which of the following ports is not being built by China under BRI initiative?
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a) Piraeus Port in Greece b) Hambantota Port in Sri Lanka c) Gwadar Port in Pakistan d) Sabang Port in Indonesia
2
Passage – 4
2
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9
(1) unveiled a plaque to its (2) ice sheet, first of the country's hundreds of glaciers to melt away due to climate change. Scientists see the shrinking of glaciers
as one of many warning signs that the earth's climate is lurching toward dangerous tipping points. A ceremony to unveil the plaque was attended by scientists
6
and locals at the glacier in west-central (1), which in 2014 no longer fulfilled the criteria to be classified as a glacier after melting throughout the 20th century.
6
"This will be the first monument to a glacier lost to climate change anywhere in the world,". (1) loses about 11bn tonnes of ice per year, and scientists fear all
of the island's 400-plus glaciers will be gone by 2200, according to Howe. Glaciers cover about 11% of the country's surface.
Glaciologists stripped (2) its glacier status in 2014, a first for (1). In 1890, the glacier ice covered 16sq km (6.2 square miles) but by 2012 it measured just
0.7sq km, according to a report from the University of (1) in 2017.About 100 years ago, the glacier covered almost 6 square miles of a mountainside in
western (1) and measured more than 160 feet thick. The English name of the glacier is "Ok glacier."
6
"All of the Nordic countries comprise Arctic territories, where climate change has gone from theoretical predictions of the future to everyday reality,""The
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International Union for Conservation of Nature estimates that nearly half of the world's heritage sites could lose their glaciers by 2100 if greenhouse gas
24 2 6
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emissions continue at the current rate.

0
Q 46. 60249206 (1) unveiled a plaque to its (2) ice sheet, the first of the country's hundreds of glaciers to melt away due to climate change.
2
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Which of the following countries is redacted with (1) in the above passage?
9
0
a) Finland b) Ireland c) Sweden d) Iceland

06
9
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Q 47. 60249206 Name the ice sheet of (1) whose name has been redacted with (2) in the above passage?
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a) Okjokull b) Vatnajokull c) Mýrdalsjökull d) Langjökull

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Q 48. 60249206 Where is the headquarters of International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) located at present?
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06 60
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a) Mons, Belgium b) Gland, Switzerland c) Lyon, France d) Cologne, Germany

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6
6
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Q 49. 60249206 Which of the following countries is not among the "Nordic Countries"?
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06
49
9
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06 60
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06 60
9
24
24
a) Belgium b) Norway c) Sweden d) Finland
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6
60
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60
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Q 50. 60249206 Which among the following is a Carbon Negative country in the world (as on February 2020)?
02 9
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4
24
a) Fiji b) Switzerland c) Nepal d) Bhutan
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2
Passage – 5
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The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. The US and its NATO allies agreed to
0
6
2
withdraw all troops within 14 months if the militants upheld the deal. Under the accord, some 5,000 (1) prisoners and 1,000 Afghan security force prisoners
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are meant to be exchanged by 10 March, when talks between the (1) and the government are due to start. Although the US-(1) deal provides for the prisoner
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swap, a separate US-Afghan declaration commits the government in Kabul only to participating in talks on the "feasibility" of such a release. But
02
6
Afghanistan's President (2) said that his government had agreed to no such release. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that
0
by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.
6
The (1), which refers to itself as the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan is a Islamic organization that operates in Afghanistan, a country in Central/South Asia. The
4
(1) emerged in 1994, taking advantage of the power vacuum that was left following the aftermath of the Afghan Civil War.
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6
The US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3) figures linked to the 9/11
6
attacks. The (1) were removed from power but became an insurgent force that by 2018 was active in more than two-thirds of the country.
0
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Q 51. 60249206 The US and the (1) signed an "agreement for bringing peace" to Afghanistan after more than 18 years of conflict. Which of the
02 49 06
following is redacted with (1) in the above passage?
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2
a) Taliban b) Afghanistan Government c) Houthi d) Chechenya
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02 9
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4
Q 52. 60249206 Name the present President of Afghanistan whose name is redacted with (2) in the above passage?
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a) Abdullah Abdullah b) Ashraf Ghani c) Zalmai Rassoul d) Qutbuddin Hilal
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9
2
Q 53. 60249206 As on February 2020, how many member states from North America and Europe form an international alliance NATO?
0
4
06
a) 11 b) 15 c) 29 d) 33
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2
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6
4
Q 54. 60249206 US attacked Afghanistan in October 2001 to oust the (1), whom they said were harbouring Osama bin Laden and other (3)
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figures linked to the 9/11 attacks. Which terrorist organization is redacted with (3) in the above passage?
6
9
a) Al Qaeda b) Al-Nusra Front? c) Lashkar-e-Taiba d) ISIS

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9
Q 55. 60249206 The Afghan Civil War was started in the year:
60
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a) 1958 b) 1965 c) 1984 d) 1992

2
9
Passage – 6
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Marine archaeology in India is all set to get a boost with the government deciding to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site
2
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9
on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat.

0
The museum will also be an independent research centre of (2) for reconstruction of maritime history, archaeology of boat building and materials traded. It will
9
have on display salvaged material from shipwreck sites in the Indian Ocean waters. The museum is being set up with technical help from the Portuguese
Maritime Heritage Museum. The central government has appointed the first Director General for the museum which will be attached to the Maritime Board of
the Gujarat government. (1) is the site of one of the oldest ports in India dating to the Bronze Age.
(2) is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports, shipwrecks and studying proxy records of maritime
activity from archaeological excavations as well as archival and historical records. There are an estimated three million undiscovered shipwrecks lying on the
ocean floor, according to the UNESCO.
In India, shipwreck studies were initiated in 1989 off Sunchi Reef in Goa waters. Later on, shipwreck were excavated and studied off St George's Reef, Amee
Shoals of Goa as well as in Poompuhar, Konark and Lakshadweep waters by the marine archaeology centre at the (3)-based CSIR-National Institute of
Oceanography (NIO).
Studying sunken ships could also fill the gaps in India's maritime history and trade links with other countries. Some shipwrecks are of great of historical
importance, researchers said. The Dart Mouth belonging to the East India Company, for instance, was carrying treasure when it is said to have sunk off
6
Masulipatnam in 1719. Governor Keating, carrying King's Stores sank in a storm in 1812 near Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. Some Indian ships are also lying in
20
foreign waters, such as P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri
Lankan waters.
49
Q 56. 60249206 The government has decided to establish a National Maritime Heritage Museum at (1), a Harappan site on the Saurashtra coast
20 6
2
in Gujarat. Which of the following Harappan sites is redacted with (1) in the above passage?
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60
92
a) Bhagatrav b) Surkotada c) Lothal d) Daimabad

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06
24
6
92
60
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02 49
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Q 57. 60249206 Which of the following is a specialized branch of archaeology that involves recovering submerged remains such as ports and
60
06 60 24 20
shipwrecks is redacted with (2) in the above passage?
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24
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a) Underground archaeology b) Underwater archaeology c) Prehistoric archaeology d) Classical archaeology
6
60
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6
Q 58. 60249206 The CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) is headquartered at (3). Which place is redacted with (3) in the above
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passage?
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06
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a) Panaji b) Vizag c) Kochi d) Kandla
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6
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Q 59. 60249206 The full form of CSIR mentioned in above passage is:
24
6
a) Centre of Scientific and Institutional Research b) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
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9
c) Cooperation between Scientific and Industrial Research d) Council of Science and Indian Research
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2
Q 60. 60249206 P&O Liner Indus which carried the Buddhist sculptures of Bharhut stupa and is known to have sunk in 1882 to the seabed of Sri
9
Lankan waters. Bharhut stupa was made in:
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a) Andhra Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Telangana
Passage – 7
9
2
The ZBNF (1) is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices. The ZBNF method also promotes soil aeration, minimal
watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep ploughing. (1) is a set of farming methods, and also a
grassroots peasant movement, which has spread to various states in India. It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian
state of (2) where it first evolved.
According to the Economic Survey, more than 1.6 lakh farmers are practising the ZBNF in almost 1,000 villages using some form of state support, although
the method's advocates claim more than 30 lakh practitioners overall. Large-scale training camps were organised to educate farmers in the method.
According to a survey carried out in those early years, ZBNF farmers all owned small plots of land, had some access to irrigation and owned at least one cow
of their own.
In June 2018, (3) rolled out an ambitious plan to become India's first State to practise 100% natural farming by 2024. It aims to phase out chemical farming
over 80 lakh hectares of land, converting the State's 60 lakh farmers to ZBNF methods. It was originally promoted by Maharashtrian agriculturist and Padma
02 49 06
Shri recipient (4), who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution's methods driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and
24 0692 60 24 20 6 6 02 92
intensive irrigation.
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Q 61. 60249206 The (1) is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices. Which is redacted with (1) in the
20 6 6 02 92 06
above passage?
6 24 02 20 6 6 02 92 06 60
a) Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) b) Zero budget neutral farming (ZBNF)
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c) Zero balance natural farming (ZBNF) d) Zero brillence natural farming (ZBNF)
02 9 06 60 4 20
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60 4 20
Q 62. 60249206 Which of the following Indian states is redacted with (2) in the above passage where the (1) has been evolved at first?
02 49
06
a) Kerala b) Karnataka c) Tamil Nadu d) Sikkim
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6
Q 63. 60249206 Which of the following states has rolled out an ambitious plan to become India's first State to practise 100% natural farming by
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20
2024 redacted with (3) in above passage?

6
a) Maharashtra b) Madhya Pradesh c) Andhra Pradesh d) Nagaland

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Q 64. 60249206 The (1) was originally promoted by Maharashtrian agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient (4). Who among the following has been
60 24
redacted with (4) in the above passage?

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60
a) Subhash Palekar b) Sharad Anantrao Joshi c) Aditya Deshmukh d) Anantraje Chiplunkar

6
0
Q 65. 60249206 Which is the first fully organic state of India?
a) Nagaland b) Sikkim c) Meghalaya d) Assam

20 606 6 49 20
60 92 4 6
LEGAL REASONING
Direction for questions 66 to 103: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the
most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external
92 06
knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

24 92
06
Passage – 1
0
24
A spate of brutal attacks against doctors has prompted the Union Health Ministry to float a law for the protection of healthcare professionals. "The Ministry
60
20
24
6
20
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02 9 0
24
24
has proposed to formulate a legislation to address the issue of violence against the healthcare service professionals and damage to property of clinical
24 2
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49
establishments. A draft legislation titled - 'The Healthcare Service Personnel and Clinical Establishments (Prohibition of violence and damage to property) Bill,
49
06 60
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02 9 06 60
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2019 has been prepared," a note released by the Health Ministry stated.
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02
20 6 6 02
6
6
The draft bill proposes to make acts of violence against healthcare professionals a cognizable and a non-bailable offence. It also seeks to provide
49
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6
compensation for injury to healthcare service personnel - namely nurse, midwife, doctors, medical students, ambulance drivers and helpers or for causing
92
02
0
damage or loss to property of a clinical establishment - namely a hospital, a clinic, a dispensary, a sanatorium, an ambulance or even a mobile unit.
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2
6
The draft bill proposes imprisonment of between six months to three years, with a fine of between Rs 50,000 to Rs 5 lakh for whoever commits violence or
60
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6
abets violence. If the accused is convicted for causing grievous hurt, then the imprisonment shall be between three years to ten years and with a fine
6
between Rs 2 lakh to Rs 10 lakh. If a convicted person does not pay the compensation then the sum shall be recovered as an arrear of land revenue under
6
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the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890.
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If an aggrieved person healthcare service personnel gives a written complaint against an attack, the owner of the clinical establishment will have to inform the
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officer in-charge of the concerned police station to file a first information report. The draft bill also stated that in addition to the punishment, the convicted
60
0
6
person shall also have to pay an amount, twice the amount of fair market value of damaged property or loss caused, as determined by the court. As the draft
9
has been placed in public domain for comments, a 73-year-old doctor in Assam was allegedly lynched to death in a tea garden and died on Monday. "It has
been decided to solicit objections and suggestions from public with regard to the draft before finalisation of the bill. These can be forwarded within 30 days
from issue of the notice," said the note.
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6
(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Attacks on doctors, hospitals may attract 10-year jail term', article published in Business Line, published on
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September 3, 2019)
Q 66. 60249206 What, according to the passage, is the motive behind the introduction of the draft Healthcare Service Personnel and Clinic
06 60 24 20 6
Establishment Bill ?
0
92 06 60 49 20
a) Doctor is a dignified profession and deserve respect.
6
b) To afford protection to doctors and other persons associated with medical fraternity.
0
6
24 92 6
c) To provide insurance cover to each doctor in case of his/ her accidental death.
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d) To provide a monthly pension to all doctors and nurses.
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Q 67. 60249206 What does the draft Bill propose incase say a person, X, after being ordered by a court to pay a compensation of Rs. 50,000
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4
06
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refuses to do so ?
a) Rs. 50,000 will be recovered as arrears of land revenue. b) Rs. 50,000 will be recovered from the bank account of X.
4
2
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c) X will be asked to undergo 6 months imprisonment. d) X will be asked to pay the amount with interest.
0
9
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Q 68. 60249206 Suppose the draft Bill is passed in its present form. Ajay met with an accident. He is taken to X Hospital. He is declared brought
dead. Ajay's relatives damage the hospital property besides causing serious injury to the attending doctors. Determine the liability, if any.
9
60
a) Ajay is liable for minimum 2 Lakhs fine and 3 years imprisonment.

2
6
9
b) Ajay's relatives are liable for minimum 10 Lakhs fine and 10 years imprisonment.
c) Ajay's relatives are liable for minimum 2 Lakhs fine and 3 years imprisonment.
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d) Ajay's relatives are not liable as the hospital staff were negligent in treating Ajay.
9
Q 69. 60249206 Suppose the draft Bill is passed. A private clinic is damaged by a person, X, who was unhappy with the attitude of the doctor.
The loss is valued at Rs. 1 Lakh in the market. Decide.
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a) Court cannot intervene as this is a private matter between X and the doctor.
2
b) The doctor and X have to jointly bear the loss.

c) X is not liable to pay.
d) Court can ask X to pay Rs. 2 Lakhs to the doctor.
Q 70. 60249206 Suppose the draft Bill is passed. An ambulance driver is beaten for arriving late in a health emergency case. Decide.
a) The person who beat the driver is liable under the Bill.
b) The person who beat the driver is not liable under the Bill.
c) Ambulance driver is not a medical professional and therefore out of the ambit of this Bill.
d) The ambulance driver arrived late in an emergency case. This would naturally create anger amongst the ailing person/s.
Passage – 2
There is a huge gap in generation and treatment of waste which is endangering the environment and adversely affecting public health, the National Green
Tribunal (NGT) has said while directing that continued failure will result in liability of every local body to pay penalty of Rs 10 lakh per month for the population
of above 10 lakh. The green panel also directed that an "Environment Monitoring Cell" may be set up in the office of chief secretaries of all states and Union
Territories within one month.
Observing that the issue of solid and liquid waste needs to be taken seriously, a bench headed by NGT Chairperson said it was a matter of serious concern
that legacy waste remediation has not even commenced at most of the sites even though rules contemplate outer limit for completion of such process by April
7, 2021. "Current processing of waste generated and collected is also not taking place on regular basis. For any person travelling by train, hot spots of
scattered garbage and overflowing sewage are common sights. Satisfactory sewage management also remains far cry. This unsatisfactory state of affairs
must be remedied at the earliest and in a time-bound manner by initiative at the highest level. Accountability needs to be fixed and consequences for failure
clearly provided and enforced," the bench said.
The tribunal said that if the local bodies are unable to bear the financial burden, the liability will be of the state governments with liberty to take remedial action
against the erring local bodies. "Apart from compensation, adverse entries must be made in annual confidential reports of CEO of the said local bodies and
other senior functionaries in the department of Urban Development etc., who are responsible for compliance of order of this tribunal, if there is negligence in
waste management," it said. The NGT also asked the chief secretaries of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Chandigarh to ensure that its directions on plastic
waste, bio-medical waste, construction and demolition waste are complied with.
The chief secretaries of UP, Punjab and Chandigarh may remain present in person for further review on August 24, the NGT said. The green panel had
earlier expressed concern over the implementation of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, saying the situation was highly unsatisfactory. The tribunal
was hearing a petition seeking compliance of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016.
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(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Upto Rs 10 Lakh Fine On Local Bodies For Not Clearing Waste: Green Tribunal', article published on ndtv.com ,
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dated January 18, 2020)
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Q 71. 60249206 What, according to the passage, is the reason behind NGT imposing a find on local bodies ?
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a) The Central government requested the National Green Tribunal to take such action against local bodies.
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b) Solid Waste Management is very robust in India and the fine will only be imposed on the erring local bodies.
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c) There is an abysmal implementation of waste management in India.

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d) The local bodies intentionally pollute their own area.
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Q 72. 60249206 With which of the following actions would the concerns of NGT be attenuated ?
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a) The Central government announces Rs. 1 Lakh Crore special package for solid waste management in India.
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b) The State government issues an small advisory in a local newspaper asking people to generate lesser waste.
c) Ram encourages his family to segregate waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
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d) Sita stops taking items in plastic bags and instead carries her own cloth bag.
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Q 73. 60249206 A fine of Rs. 10 lakhs is imposed on Y Municipality of Karnataka. The Municipality is already under a debt. What is the most
60
likely action in this case ?
a) The State of Karnataka will file an appeal against the NGT order.
b) The Y Municipality will be given a leeway and asked to pay the fine on a later date.
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c) The Y Municipality will file an appeal against the NGT order.

d) The State of Karnataka will have to pay the fine amount.
Q 74. 60249206 Mr. Pratap is the CEO of a local body. The local body is fined by NGT for its abhorrent apathy towards solid waste treatment in
the city. What additional steps, if any, can be taken in this case ?
a) Mr. Pratap will be asked to personally pay half the fine amount.
b) An adverse remark can be made against Mr. Pratap in the annual confidential report.
c) Mr. Pratap will be transferred to some other department.
d) Mr. Pratap can be sentenced to imprisonment.
Q 75. 60249206 A Municipality X with a population of 6 lakhs generates toxic liquid waste which is discharged into a nearby stream without prior
treatment. Determine the applicability of the present NGT order in this case.
a) X Municipality is liable to pay a fine of Rs. 10 lakhs.

b) X Municipality's officials in-charge can be prosecuted for negligence.
c) The present NGT order does not apply to X Municipality.
d) X Municipality will be dismissed.
Passage – 3
Kerala has filed a suit in the Supreme Court seeking to declare the CAA as unconstitutional. Kerala has invoked Article 131, which confers exclusive
jurisdiction on the top court to adjudicate disputes between two or more States, or between States and the Centre. This means no other court can entertain
such a dispute. It is well-known that both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the State and Central
governments. In particular, the validity of any executive or legislative action is normally challenged by way of writ petitions - under Article 226 of the
Constitution in respect of High Courts, and, in respect to fundamental rights violations, under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.
Kerala's suit asks for a declaration that the CAA, 2019, is violative of the Constitution, and against the principle of secularism that is a basic feature of the
Constitution. Simultaneously, it challenges the validity of notifications issued under the Foreigners (Amendment) Order, in 2015-16 which had given
exemption to persons belonging to minority communities in Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan - namely, Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and
Christians who were compelled to seek shelter in India due the fear or actual religious persecution and entered India on or before December 31, 2014,
without valid documents - from the purview of the laws against illegal entry of foreigners into India. Another reason is that the term "religious persecution" is
not found in the CAA, but it mentions that those exempted from the Foreigners' Act under the 2015 and 2016 notifications will not be treated as "illegal
migrants".
One of the issues to be decided is whether such a suit involves a question "on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends". Does Kerala's
objection to the CAA involve one of its "legal rights"? A BJP leader has sought to intervene in the matter against the Kerala government's plea, contending
that Kerala has raised a dispute that does not involve any legal right, but is only a political question. And that, therefore, it cannot file a suit under Article 131
based on political questions. However, possibly in anticipation of such an objection, Kerala's suit points out that under Article 256 of the Constitution, the
State would be compelled to comply with the CAA and rules and orders passed by the Centre. As it believes that these laws and rules are arbitrary,
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unreasonable, and violative of fundamental rights, a dispute involving law and fact has indeed arisen between Kerala and the Centre.
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(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Can States challenge the validity of central laws?', article published in The Hindu, dated January 19, 2020)
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Q 76. 60249206 Based on the passage, what is the legality of Kerala government's approaching the Supreme Court under Article 131 of the
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Constitution ?
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a) Depends. If the dispute is political, the suit would fail. However, if a legal question is involved, it will be maintainable.
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b) The suit will be maintainable.

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c) The suit will fail.
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d) State government does not have jurisdiction to approach the Supreme Court in any matter against the Central Government.
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Q 77. 60249206 Can the State of Kerala approach the Kerala High Court for resolution of the dispute, mentioned in the passage, with the
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Central government ?
a) Yes, under Article 226 High Courts have jurisdiction. b) Yes, under Article 131 High Courts have jurisdiction.
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c) No, under Article 32 only Supreme Court has jurisdiction. d) No, under Article 131 only Supreme Court has jurisdiction.
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Q 78. 60249206 A dispute arose between Tamil Nadu and Karnataka over sharing of Kaveri river water. Which is the appropriate forum to
resolve this dispute ?
60
a) High Courts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. b) High Court of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Supreme Court.
c) Supreme Court only. d) Central government.
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Q 79. 60249206 The Central government ruled by a national political party decided to restructure its party cadre in the State of West Bengal. The
move was done in order to perform better in the upcoming State Assembly elections. Can the State of West Bengal challenge this in courts ?
a) Yes, under Article 131, a State has the power to challenge Central government's executive actions.
b) Yes, a State has the right to dissent.
c) No, as the question involved is purely political in nature.
d) No, as State cannot challenge any action of the Central government.
Q 80. 60249206 Presume that under the Indian Constitution, a state has all the powers over production and transport of intoxicating liquor. The
Central government passes a law which places certain conditions on transport of liquor. Decide.
a) The Centre has overarching powers to legislate on state matters.

b) The State cannot raise this matter under Article 131.
c) nullThe present case does not involve any legal question.
d) A legal dispute has arisen between Centre and State.
Passage – 4
The Chhattisgarh government moved the Supreme Court against the National Investigation Act, 2008 stating it is violative of the Constitution. In its civil suit,
the government told the apex court the NIA should have no power over state policing matters. The law governs the functioning of India's premier counter-
terror agency. It was introduced by then home minister P Chidambaram in the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terrorist attacks and was passed in Parliament with
very little opposition.
The Act makes the National Investigation Agency the only truly federal agency in the country, along the lines of the FBI in the United States, more powerful
than the CBI. It gives the NIA powers to take suo motu cognisance of terror activities in any part of India and register a case, to enter any state without
permission from the state government, and to investigate and arrest people.
In its petition, the Chhattisgarh government said the Act is "ultra vires the Constitution" and "beyond the legislative competence of the Parliament". According
to the state, the 2008 Act allows the Centre to create an agency for investigation, which is a function of the state police. 'Police' is an entry in the State List of
the Constitution's 7th Schedule.
The 2019 NIA Amendment Act expanded the type of offences that the investigative body could investigate and prosecute. The agency can now investigate
offences related to human trafficking, counterfeit currency, manufacture or sale of prohibited arms, cyber-terrorism, and offences under the Explosive
Substances Act, 1908. The amendment also enables the central government to designate sessions courts as special courts for NIA trials. The Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Amendment (UAPA), also passed in 2019, allows an NIA officer to conduct raids, and seize properties that are suspected to be linked
to terrorist activities without taking prior permission of the Director General of Police of a state. The investigating officer only requires sanction from the
Director General of NIA.
Chhattisgarh has sought a declaration that the NIA Act, 2008, is unconstitutional on the ground that it is "beyond the legislative competence of Parliament". It
argues that 'Police' is a subject reserved for the States, and having a central police agency, which has overriding powers over the State police, with no
provision for consent from the State government for its operations, is against the constitutional division of legislative powers between the Centre and the
States. And that it is against the federal spirit of the Constitution.
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(Extracted, with edits and revisions, from 'Explained: What is National Investigation Agency Act, and why is Chhattisgarh challenging it?', article in The Indian
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Express, January 17, 2020)
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Q 81. 60249206 What, according to the passage, is the main reason for the annoyance of the Chhattisgarh government with the NIA Act, 2008
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and subsequent amendments in 2019 ?
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a) The Act takes away the power to tax from the State government.
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b) The Act violates federalism as mandated in the Indian Constitution.

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c) The Act empowers the state police.
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d) Chhattisgarh state is ruled by a political party which is different from the party ruling at the centre.
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Q 82. 60249206 With which of the following amendments to the NIA Act, the government of Chhattisgarh is most likely to agree ?
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a) NIA will not apply to crimes committed in the Capital of Chhattisgarh.

b) All officers of the NIA must be appointed after consultation with the CBI.
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c) Any investigation under the NIA is any state would require prior sanction from such state.
d) NIA can do all police function if it is so directed by the Home Ministry.
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Q 83. 60249206 Nakab was an absconder in a terrorist offence. On a tip off, he is traced in Gujarat. The NIA sends a team to arrest him and
bring to Delhi. Choose the most appropriate option.
a) Nakab is a terrorist and absconding. He can be arrested only by Gujarat police as he is traced in Gujarat.
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b) NIA cannot send a team to Gujarat without the state's consent.

c) NIA can send a team to arrest Nakab as he is an absconder.
d) NIA can send a team to arrest Nakab without the state of Gujarat's consent.
Q 84. 60249206 An IED-bomb blasts at Mumbai Railway Station killing 10 persons. The Mumbai police starts investigation. NIA dispatches a
team to look into the matter. Decide.
a) NIA's action is justified.

b) Mumbai police is already investigating. A parallel team of NIA would only overlap and may delay nabbing the accused.
c) Mumbai police cannot start investigation without NIA's permission.
d) NIA cannot send a team without State of Maharashtra's consent.
Q 85. 60249206 A large tranche of Rs.2000 fake Indian currency notes is seized at India-Nepal border in the Maharajganj district of Uttar
Pradesh. NIA takes suo motu cognisance in the matter and starts investigation. Decide.
a) NIA can conduct investigation as the matter pertains to fake notes.

b) NIA cannot conduct investigation as the matter falls within Uttar Pradesh police's jurisdiction.
c) NIA cannot conduct investigation as the matter is not related to terrorism.

d) NIA can investigate in any matter it deems fit.
Passage – 5
The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (NCDRC) and other consumer courts have regularly dismissed complaints on mere technical
grounds and without condoning marginal delays. The NCDRC dismissed the appeal, filed by the flat buyer against a construction firm, on failure to file the
rejoinder and evidence. The order was based on the conditional order dated 16th November 2018 requiring the appellants to file a rejoinder and evidence
within a period of four weeks, failing which the complaint was to stand dismissed automatically. Therefore, on 15th February 2019 the court dismissed the
appeal observing that it is perhaps because the appellants do not have any merit in the case, that there was a delay in filing a rejoinder and evidence.
The Appellant appealed to the Supreme Court of India against the said Order of NCDRC. On 10th May 2019 Supreme Court of India, made an observation
regarding the dismissal of consumer complaints on small technical grounds. While setting aside the said Order of NCDRC, the Hon'ble Bench observed that
Orders like such not only detracts from the very purpose for which the NCDRC was established but the dismissal of consumer complaints on technical
grounds adds to the burden of litigation and fails to ensure justice in consumer fora. The Hon'ble Bench also stated that the main motive behind the setup of
NCDRC is protection of the rights of consumers by helping them to seek access to justice under the Consumer Protection Act.
The Court held that drawing an inference regarding the delay being caused by the appellant because of lack of merit in the case, was totally unwarranted.
The marginal delays, which are caused, needs to be condoned in order to safeguard the purpose of the Act. The Court went further to state that while not
condoning marginal delays on grounds that the Act stipulates a period within which the consumer complaint has to be disposed off, the Courts need to keep
in mind that complaints cannot be disposed off due to non-availability of resources and therefore it is harsh to penalize a bona fide litigant for marginal delays
that may occur in judicial process.
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This Judgment has paved the way for justice for consumers by clarifying that there is a need of condoning marginal delays to ensure that the ends of justice
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are not defeated and no bona fide litigant shall be denied justice because of the same.
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Q 86. 60249206 According to the passage select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the author's reasoning:
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a) The practice of condoning delays in consumer courts has set a commendable precedent.
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b) The practice of condoning delays in consumer courts is a rare legal incident.
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c) The practice of condoning delays in consumer courts is derogatory to the tenets of justice.
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d) The practice of condoning delays in consumer courts has far reaching legal benefits.
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Q 87. 60249206 Which of the following fact is true with respect to the context of the case mentioned in the passage?
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a) It was held that the main motive behind the setup of NCDRC is to lessen the burden on civil courts.
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b) It was held that the main motive behind the setup of NCDRC is to shun away capitalism.
c) It was held that the main motive behind the setup of NCDRC is to decrease the hegemony of the trail courts.
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d) It was held that the main motive behind the setup of NCDRC is uphold the rights of consumers.
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Q 88. 60249206 Which of the following comes within the purview of 'technical grounds' for rejecting the complaint?
60
a) Failure to comply with the deadline for submitting evidence in court.

b) Approaching the court not having proper jurisdiction.
c) Giving false evidence in court on oath.
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d) All of the above
Q 89. 60249206 A filed a case in the consumer forum against a showroom manager from whom he brought a mobile phone. Despite of the
phone being in warranty the manager had refused to change the phone which had caused monetary loss to A. The forum gave one week's time
to A to produce the warranty card before it. As A had lost the warranty card, he searched for it in his house and due to this was able to produce
the card after 10 days. The forum rejected his complaint on the ground of such delay. Decide.
a) The rejection of complaint is justified as the period of one week had lapsed.
b) The rejection of complaint is justified as a failed to comply with the order of the forum.
c) The rejection of complaint is unjustified.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 90. 60249206 A filed a complaint in the consumer court against a car dealer B for forging him by selling a second hand car despite of charging
him the price for a new car. On being asked by the court about the details of the car A stated that he bought the model X for ? 10 lakhs when in
reality he had bought model Z for ? 8 lakh. The court rejected the complaint as a result of the faulty statement made.
a) The rejection of complaint is justified.
b) The rejection of complaint is unjustified as it was a technical error.

c) The rejection of complaint is unjustified as such an error has to be condoned.
d) Both (b) and (c).
Passage – 6
The High Court of Bombay in the case of Popat Bagiananth Kesar v State of Maharashtra passed a Judgment dated 16.04.2019 whereby, the Court held that
driving a vehicle at a high speed in thickly populated and busy road is considered rash and negligent driving.
In the above case the Applicant was speeding in a busy road which lead to the death of a seven-year-old boy for which the Applicant was convicted under
Section 304A and Section 279 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 as amended thereof (the Code). The Trial Court in its Judgment dated 13.03.2006 convicted
the Applicant under the following provisions:
1. Awarded sentence of one year for the offence punishable under Section 304A of the Code and
2. Inflicted one-month imprisonment for the offence under Section 279 of the Code and
3. Awarded a sentence of one month and fine for the offence under Section 184 and 183(1) of Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 as amended thereof (the Act)
Later, upon an appeal to lower Appellate Court, the Applicant was acquitted for the offence under Section 279 of the Code and Section 184 of the Act.
However, the lower Appellate Court approved the conviction of the Applicant for the offence punishable under Section 304A of the Code and punishment was
reduced from one year to three months imprisonment.
Soon after, the Applicant filed a Review Petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the said Judgement dated on 21.12.2006. Herein the High Court
observed that even though speeding of the vehicle is one of the factors that indicate that the driver was driving in the most rash and negligent manner but it is
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not the sole criteria to determine that there is negligence or rashness on the part of driver as it always depends on facts and circumstances of each case. But
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in this case the driver had the knowledge that the place of occurrence of the accident was heavily populated and that it was a busy road but he still drove the
02 49 06
vehicle at a high speed. Thus, the Court held such an act to be rash and negligent under the Code.
24
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a) The driver was held liable for rash driving as he using the public path.
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b) The rashness of the driver is always the sole criteria for determining the liability.
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c) The driver was held not liable as he had no knowledge that the area was accident prone.
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d) The driver was held liable as in addition to his act being rash, he also had knowledge that his act might result in an accident.
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Q 92. 60249206 Under which of the following sections was the driver charged by the trail court?
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a) Section 304 of I.P.C. b) Section 279 of I.P.C c) Section 183 (1) of I.P.C d) All of the above
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Q 93. 60249206 A was on a hunting spree in the endangered area of the forest. He was carrying a licensed rifle and shot at what appeared to be
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a running animal. The bullet hit a tribesmen B who instantly died as a result of the wound.
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a) A is liable as his act was rash and negligent.

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b) A is liable as he should not have been hunting in the endangered area of the forest.
60
c) A is not liable as his act was neither rash and nor negligent.
d) A is not liable as his rifle was licensed.
Q 94. 60249206 A was driving a car at a speed of 80 km/h on a national highway when he hit B, a pedestrian who was crossing the road. B died
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on the spot because of the impact injury caused by the collision. Decide the liability of A.
a) A is liable as he was driving rashly. b) A is liable as he was negligent.

c) A is not liable. d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 95. 60249206 A was driving a car at a speed of 80 km/h on a narrow and busy lane in the heart of the city when he hit B, a pedestrian who
was crossing the road. B died on the spot because of the impact injury caused by the collision. Decide the liability of A.
a) A is liable as he was driving rashly. b) A is liable as he was negligent.

c) A is not liable. d) Both (a) and (b)
Passage – 7
As per Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution every Individual has the right to freedom of speech. But there is a very thin line which when crossed will turn out to
be defamation as it may hinder the fundamental right of other individuals. Defamation as per the law is damaging reputation of someone in public. For
example, sting operations done by the media are often defamatory as they show the concerned person in poor light. When such operations are done for the
welfare of public at large it will not be considered as defamation.
As per the recent Judgment of Delhi High Court in which a sting operation was done against the Petitioners wherein one of their employees was caught on a
hidden camera saying that the company mixed prohibited chemicals in the milk which was supplied by them. The Media Company took a stand that the
intention for broadcasting this video was not to defame someone but to bring out the truth to the public as to the malpractices followed by these companies It
was further contended by them that the story cannot be termed as defamatory as it was carried in good faith and for public good and is covered and protected
by First, Second, Third and Ninth exception to Section 500 of IPC and that the defendants rely on the fair comment and truth as a defense. The thing which
has to be noted was that the sting operation was not against the Company but the Individual. Strangely the Company instead of taking action against the
employee filed a law suit.
In Indian Express case, it was held that in today's free world, freedom of press, is the heart of social and political intercourse; the press has now assumed the
role of the public educator; the purpose of the press is to advance the public interest by publishing facts and opinions without which a democratic electorate
cannot make responsible judgments; the authors have to be critical of the actions of the Government in order to expose its weaknesses; that such
publications become an irritant or even a threat to power and the Governments naturally take recourse to suppress such publications in different ways but it is
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the primary duty of all the national courts to uphold the said freedom and invalidate all laws or administrative actions which interfere with it, contrary to the
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constitutional mandate.
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Q 96. 60249206 According to the passage select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the author's reasoning:
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a) All sting operations necessarily fulfil the ingredients of defamation.
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b) All sting operations gain legitimacy solely by the exceptions of defamation.
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c) There exists a thin line which when crossed during a sting operation, defamation is established.
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d) Sting operations and defamation are different side of the same coin and run parallelly with each other.
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a) The sting operation was conducted on the employee and not on the company.
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b) The act of sting operation was protected under the exceptions of defamation.
c) There was publication of the 'alleged' defamatory material by the media company.
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d) All of the above.
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Q 98. 60249206 Which of the following observation was not made in the Indian Express case?
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a) The role of the media is presenting facts in an unbiased manner.

b) The government's intrusion into the working of media should be prevented.
c) It is the duty of the courts to uphold the right to freedom of speech of the media.
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d) The media should be granted unfettered freedom of speech.
Q 99. 60249206 A worked as a reporter for a new channel named ZTV. A found out that there was allegation of corruption against a minster B. A
morphed the image of B portraying him of taking bribe in order to expose him. Decide.
a) A is liable for defamation.

b) A is not liable for defamation as the act was in public interest.
c) A is not liable for defamation as he stated the truth.
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q 100. 60249206 A fixed a hidden camera in B's factory and got the footage of B committing food adulteration. He broadcasted the clip on all
local news channels and B's factory was shut down by the authorities. B sued A for defamation.
a) A is liable for defamation.

b) A is not liable for defamation as the act was in public interest.
c) A is not liable for defamation as he stated the truth.
d) Both (b) and (c)
Passage – 8
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 aims to expand access of women to safe and legal abortion services on therapeutic, eugenic,
humanitarian or social grounds. The proposed amendments include substitution of certain sub-sections and insertion of certain new clauses under some
sections in the existing Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, with a view to increase the upper gestation limit for termination of pregnancy under
certain conditions and to strengthen access to comprehensive abortion care, under strict conditions, without compromising service and quality of safe
abortion.
“It is a step towards safety and well-being of the women and many women will be benefitted from this. Recently, several petitions were received by the courts
seeking permission for aborting pregnancies at a gestational age beyond the present permissible limit on grounds of foetal abnormalities or pregnancies due
to sexual violence faced by women," an official statement said.
“The proposed increase in gestational age will ensure dignity, autonomy, confidentiality, and justice for women who need to terminate pregnancy," it said.
“The bill will strengthen the reproductive rights of women. They should have a decision of their own if they want to take their pregnancy to full term or not.
Earlier, the mortality of pregnant women was about 8% higher due to unsafe abortions. In the case of rape, the woman is weak or underage. Such girls didn’t
even know they were pregnant and would fall prey to unsafe abortion practices. The bill will help women getting access to safe abortion," said Prakash
Javadekar, minister for environment and information and broadcasting after a cabinet meeting.
Other amendments proposed in the bill are the requirements for the opinion of one doctor for termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation, and
introducing the requirement of the opinion of two doctors for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation.
The bill also proposed enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women, which will be defined in the amendments to
the MTP Rules and would include vulnerable women including survivors of rape, victims of incest and other vulnerable women (like differently-abled women,
minors) etc.
“Upper gestation limit will not apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by Medical Boar(d) The composition functions and other details of
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Medical Board is to be prescribed subsequently in Rules under the Act. Name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall
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not be revealed except to a person authorized in any law for the time being in force," the proposed bill states.
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24
Q 101. 60249206 Which of the following statements does not express the need for the amendment of the Bill according to the author?
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a)
In India, due to a number of cases of rape leading to pregnancy, the victims need protection under the act to utilize their right to terminate the
6
pregnancy.
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b) Considering the fact that child marriages and pregnancies are still prevalent in India, underage women need to be protected in this aspect.
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c) Encouraging female foeticide.
2
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d) Both (b) and (c)
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Q 102. 60249206 Which of the following is not a requirement under the Bill to terminate a pregnancy?
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4
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a) The opinion of two doctors on the health of the foetus to increase the upper limit to more than 20 weeks
2
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b) substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by Medical Board.

c) Health of the women
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d) None of the above.

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Q 103. 60249206 Choose the most relevant statements from the given options with respect to the passage given above.
0
a) The MTP Amendment Bill falls into the category of social legislation as it aims to protect the health of pregnant women.
2
b)
9
The MTP Amendment Bill falls into the category of economic legislation to ensure that the hospitals collecting revenues out of abortions are
06 60 24 92 6
regularised.
6
c)
6
The MTP Amendment Bill falls into the category of penal law as any person forcing the pregnant women to undergo abortion would be punished.
d) Both (a) and (c)
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LOGICAL REASONING
20 6
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Directions for questions 104 to 125: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage.
2
6
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the
ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most
accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
6
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Passage – 1
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02 9
20
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"Irresponsible and frankly naive." That's how the then Senator Hillary Clinton described the foreign policy approach of then Senator Barack Obama in 2007.
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And we all know how that turned out.

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If you're a politics watcher, you'd be forgiven for experiencing a bit of deja vu over the last 48 hours courtesy of the Clinton campaign. Just like she did during
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92
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20
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the 2008 primary cycle, former Secretary of State Hillary Clinton is characterizing her opponent's foreign policy positions - and particularly his stance toward
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Iran - as insufficiently thought-through, attempting to unmask him as a novice who is in over his head. _____________________.
02 4992 066 6002 2449

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Q 104. 60249206 Which of the following is the most appropriate choice as the last sentence of the passage?
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0224 4992 066 6002

a) And she knows everything, of course b) It's not any likelier to work this time around
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c) Will it work this time? d) Well, once bitten twice shy
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Q 105. 60249206 Which of the following will weaken the author's argument?
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6
a)
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Obama and Hillary are from the same party and Trump is from the rival party; so attacking Obama led to discontent and party rank and file turned
against Hillary. 6
06
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b) Obama was feted as an expert on foreign affairs and attacking him on foreign policy was not well received by the public.
2
c) Obama was recognised as a world leader; whereas this opponent has been the object of ridicule by major leaders of the world.
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d) Obama is known to give a very detailed, microcosmic analysis and solution of major world issues in his address to the American public.
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Q 106. 60249206 Which of the following CANNOT be inferred about politics and electioneering from the above passage?
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a) Politics is about opportunism and making the most of your opponent's weaknesses.
60
b) During elections it is paramount to attack your opponents at their weakest link.

2
6
c) The same winning strategy can be deployed in different elections at different times.
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d) During elections, the campaign strategy should be devised keeping the opponent in mind.
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Q 107. 60249206 Which of the following can be inferred about the author's opinion of Hillary?
0
a) S/He thinks that Hillary is erroneously portraying herself as an expert in foreign policy.
b) S/He thinks that Hillary fails to realise that the American public does not care about the foreign policy while voting.
c) S/He believes that Hillary does not have the acumen to devise an effective election strategy.
d) S/He believes that Hillary is weak in assessing her opponent's weaknesses and is not showing signs of learning from her mistakes.
Q 108. 60249206 Which of the following is unlikely to be a reason for Hillary's strategy not getting the author's approval?
a) It shows her as smug and snobbish.

b) It goes against the political ethos of American consciousness.
c) It is deprecating and vague without any pointed, logical arguments.
d) It is unlikely to resonate with voters as a clinching argument.
Passage – 2
06 60 24 20 6
A person's words do determine if the speaker is being truthful or deceptive. The reason these techniques work is that people's words will betray them. There
92 06 60 49 20
are usually several ways you can phrase a statement. People will always word their statement based on all their knowledge. Therefore, their statement may
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include information they did not intend to share. It is nearly impossible to give a lengthy deceptive statement without revealing it as a lie.
Q 109. 60249206 Which of the following would weaken the author's argument most?
02
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a) Lawyers give long depositions in the court room for hours, and they mostly alter the truth without batting an eyelid.
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b) Politicians make long speeches full of spurious promises none of which they believe in.
c) The deposition made by the minister was accepted by all as the truth till additional evidence was found that proved it to be a fabrication.
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06
d) All of the above

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Q 110. 60249206 Which of the following is the author likely to agree with?
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a) The bigger the lie the longer the statement. b) A deceptive statement can always be discovered.
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06
c) There are no perfect liars in the world. d) A long statement will contain a few lies.
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Q 111. 60249206 The author's argument depends on which of the following assumption?
92
a) Listeners or readers are capable of identifying the deception in a lengthy statement of an expert liar.
24
b) Liars tend to forget the different lies they have said in different contexts and thus make a mistake.
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6
20
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c) All arguments can be categorised as truth or lies and there are no half truths.
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d) Deception is not an easy art to practice.
60
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Q 112. 60249206 Which of the following will strengthen the author's argument?
06 60
a) While making a long statement anyone can forget or miss or wrongly recall some pertinent facts which may be deemed as lies.
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b) Human beings are prone to lie and therefore have a natural instinct for sensing deception.
c) Facts have a singular narrative of description and deviation is probably because of an intention to deceive.
24 92
d) If we pay keen attention to a long story, we will able to identify the areas where the speaker has deviated from the facts.
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Q 113. 60249206 Which of the following lies may not be caught as per the author's argument?
60
a) Irrelevant points in a narrative b) Well practiced lies
c) Vague statements which can have multiple interpretations. d) Briefly worded statements with vague references.
Passage – 3
We are brought up in the ethic that others, any others, all others, are by definition more interesting than ourselves; taught to be diffident, just this side of self-
effacing. ("You're the least important person in the room and don't forget it," Jessica Mitford's governess would hiss in her ear on the advent of any social
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occasion; I copied that into my notebook because it is only recently that I have been able to enter a room without hearing some such phrase in my mind) Only
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the very young and the very old may recount their dreams at breakfast, dwell upon self, interrupt with memories of beach picnics and favorite Liberty lawn
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dresses and the rainbow trout in a creek near Colorado Springs.
24
Q 114. 60249206 Which of the following can be the logical corollary of the given passage?
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a) The rest of us are expected, rightly, to affect absorption in other people's favourite dresses, other people's trout.
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b) While the others have no right to present their own thoughts in front of others.
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c) But people like us were not supposed to speak up in front of others as we were told to be the "least important" people.
6
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d) And we were always supposed to act by the "ethic" that others were more interesting than ourselves.
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Q 115. 60249206 Which of the following can be inferred from the last statement?
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a) People of certain age have the leeway to talk about themselves while others are penalised for the same.
06
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b) Reasons may vary, but the reception to the thoughts expressed by the very old and very young is same.
c) Certain norms of acceptable social behaviour may not apply consistently to everyone.
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d) Statements made by the old and young are not taken seriously by others as these are highly self-absorbed.
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Q 116. 60249206 Which of the following will weaken the author's argument?
60
a) People are generally interested in listening to others' life stories and thoughts.
b) One can talk about oneself as long as he/she does not indulge in self-aggrandizement.
c) Everyone is naturally hesitant and shy when talking about themselves.
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d) One is expected to be an interesting speaker as well as a keen listener.
Q 117. 60249206 Which of the following is the author likely to agree with?
a) Being too diffident can make a person timid and lose confidence in social meetings, leading to one becoming a recluse.
b) Self-expression is not a social mistake and one should not inhibit oneself too much.
c) Unless one talks about oneself, others may not show an interest in one's personality.
d) Everyone is equally entitled to talk about themself freely, irrespective of age.
Q 118. 60249206 Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?
a) Being diffident has wrongly been portrayed as a sign of being respectful and courteous.
b) Being shy enhances one's social profile.
c) People of certain age are expected to be self-effacing.
d) One needs to be true to one's personality and not adhere blindly to social norms.
Passage – 4
Several years ago, I watched a documentary musical, LatchoDrom, about the migration of the Romany people from India to Egypt, Turkey, Romania Hungary,
Slovakia, France and Spain. The beautiful transition of music as the central theme of their cultural migration is sketched in my mind. Recent studies in
genetics also point to genetic similarity that shows the same migration pattern.
The other interesting correlation is between musical ability and genetics. There are some people who seem to have an inbuilt musical ability. Like wealth,
music has been carefully preserved and proliferates in certain families; in the gharanas of the Hindustani music tradition, such as Patiala, Agra, Gwalior and
Jaipur, for instance. Interestingly, in the Carnatic tradition, many of the musicians are brahmins. This shows that genes have a possible impact at two levels:
on musical ability and the kind of music that one takes to.
In the 1970s, Luigi Luca Cavalli-Sforza, a geneticist at Stanford University in California, argued that combining genetics with fields such as linguistics and
demography could help trace human ancestry. Floyd Reed, a population geneticist at the University of Maryland in College Park, worked on this further.
When Floyd compared the graph with a database of genotypes from more than 3,000 people in Africa, he found a correlation between genes and songs. In
other words, cultures that had grouped together musically tended to share genetic markers.
The link was stronger than the correlation between songs and geography: cultures next door to each other weren't as likely to sing the same tunes as were
cultures with similar genotypes. Music reveals deeper biological connections between people than characteristics such as language, that change when one
culture meets another.
Moving to inherent musical abilities, Miriam Mosing of the Karolinska Institute, Sweden, suggests that practising music without the right genes to back up that
practice is indeed useless. To prove this she took a fairly large sample size of 1,211 pairs of identical twins (who share all their genes) and 1,358 pairs of
fraternal twins (who share half) born between 1959 and 1985 and concluded that genes have a profound effect on their musical ability.
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Music is ingrained and while it may be true that some of us have the talent, others can enjoy listening to it. Given my love for music, it is possible that I could
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have done well had I bothered to practice. Perhaps, it is not too late.
24
Q 119. 60249206 Which of the following can be inferred regarding the study conducted by Floyd Reed?
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a) There is a strong correlation between geography and culture.
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b) Cultures that share musical similarities tend to share genetic structures as well.
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c) Transition of music across various geographies mirrors the actual migration of people.
6
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d) Though genes impact the musical ability of a person, the kind of music one takes up is an individual choice.
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Q 120. 60249206 Which of the following can be concluded regarding genes and learnability of music?
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a) Music is only second to language in terms of correlation with similarity in genetic strains.
06
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b) Genetic similarity may be displayed in choice of music but not the way people sing it.
c) Musical similarity is as much influenced by geographical proximity as genetic similarity.
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d) Musical ability is strongly influenced by genetic composition and training is useless unless one has the right genes.
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Q 121. 60249206 Which of the following supports the author's argument?

60
a) A bushman who has never heard any music before immediately responded to the jungle strains of a faraway tribe.
b) An aurally challenged child became a top musician after years of rigorous practice.
c)
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A survey revealed that most of the top musicians of a particular country have never received any formal training in music and yet are able to
compose wide varieties of music.
d)
A survey revealed that most of the people are able to become good musicians after years of training and there is no apparent cultural or scientific
explanation of the same.
Q 122. 60249206 All of the following will strengthen the author's argument EXCEPT:
a) Folksongs across India are almost same in their lyrics, meaning and musical tones.
b)
Indian classical musicians who have achieved fame without belonging to any gharana, are mostly orphans who have grown up in foster homes
and whose ancestry is unknown.
c)
Villagers of a remote south Indian hamlet who have displayed genetic similarities with tribes in northern India also follow the same musical style
as the tribe.
d)
A section of the population of northern India that is believed to have migrated from Central Asia millenia ago uses a musical instrument very
similar to one found during excavation in Central Asia.
Q 123. 60249206 Which of the following will the author disagree with in terms of the connection between music and genetic similarity?
a) Music is an activity which can be learnt, and the practices of a population are an indicator of its origin.
b) Music in terms of usage and ability can connect dispersed population segments as belonging to the same genetic origin.
c) Even within one population strain there can be different forms of music being practiced.
d) Not everyone in a group with same genetic ancestry will have the same musical ability.
Passage – 5
02 9 06
In casual conversation, people experience little psychological discomfort in admitting that they have some particular character flaw, but only if they consider
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trivial the flaw to which they admit. Therefore, if in casual conversation an individual readily admits that he or she has some particular character flaw, the
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individual must not consider that flaw to be serious.
24
Q 124. 60249206 Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the argument?
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a) Most character flaws are considered trivial by those who have them.
60
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b) People admit to having only those character flaws that most other people consider trivial.
02 9 06
06 60 24 20
c) In casual conversation, people admit to having character flaws only when they must.
6
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d)
6
In casual conversation, people most readily admit to having a character flaw only when that admission causes them little psychological
49 20
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discomfort.
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06
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02 6 9 24 0692 6
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Passage – 6
0
60
This semester Professor Popkin will commute to Montreal by plane, leaving every Tuesday and returning to Toronto every Friday. She instructs her travel
02 6 9 24 0692 6
agent to schedule for her one round-trip that departs from Toronto on the first Tuesday and returns to Toronto on the last Friday of the semester and
additional roundtrips that depart from and return to Montreal for each weekly commute in between.
Q 125. 60249206 Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain Professor Popkin's instructions to her travel agent regarding the
4902 0 92 6 06
grouping of her flights into roundtrips?

0
a)
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Professor Popkin's round-trip tickets are least expensive if each trip is scheduled so that at least one Saturday night intervenes between the
06 60 24 20
departing flight and the returning flight.

24 92 6
6
b)
A ticket for a round-trip in which the departing flight and the returning flight are separated by several months will cost Professor Popkin more than
92 06
2
a ticket for a round-trip in which they are separated by less than one week.
4
c)
06
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Professor Popkin will be eligible to travel in the first-class section of the plane at no extra charge after she has completed a specified number of
roundtrips.
60 24 920
d) If all Professor Popkin's tickets are paid for at one time, she will be eligible for a frequent-traveler discount.
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Directions for questions 126 to 128: In each of the questions given below, a statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
0
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
60
assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement. Give answer:

246 92 6
(a) if only assumption I is implicit

(b) if only assumption II is implicit
(c) if both I and II are implicit
9620 06
(d) if neither I nor II is implicit

Q 126. 60249206 Statement: "A Honda city is required on rent" - a display on a billboard .
2
Assumptions:
I. All types of vehicles are available for hire.
6
II. People will respond to the advertisement.

06
069026 60 66024 2042 204290 060666 6002 2492 20 6 6 0220 9626 024 92 06 6022
92 6
6
020
02 49 0062 9 06 60 49
06 60 4 20
a) b) c) d)
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92
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6006602462042920942906 26066 6002 24492 92006 6 6 02 49626 00624 92 06 602
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6
02 9
Q 127. 60249206 Statement: "If you trouble me, I will slap you". - A teacher warns her student.
49 0
24
60
Assumptions:
02
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I. The teacher is a violent person.
9
II. The student is a naughty child who likes to irk all teachers.
24
06
06
a) b) c) d)
60
6
92
2
Q 128. 60249206 Statement: It is not always true that the adoption of the latest management practices ensures growth and productivity.
2
Assumption:
24
02 9 06
0
I. It is possible to prove whether the growth has been due to the adoption of latest management practices or not.
6
0
60
2
II. Growth can be achieved only by discontinuing the present practices.
49 20
6
02 9
60 4 20
a) b) c) d)
24
6
60
066 2 620 92 942 6 260 606 249 920 6 60 49 2600 49 20
2
Directions for questions 129 to 131: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
4
9
Amar, Bhumi, Champa, Dinesh, Eshwar, Farah, Girish and Hitesh are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Dinesh sits adjacent to Amar but not
6
2
adjacent to Hitesh. Bhumi sits adjacent to Farah and fourth to the left of Dinesh. Eshwar sits adjacent to Hitesh and third to the right of Farah. Champa is
neither adjacent to Amar nor to Girish.
49 240
Q 129. 60249206 Which of the following statements is wrong?
6
902 66 24 2 06 6 24 2 6
2
92294206 0260 660 49 9220 06 60 49 20

a) Bhumi is to the immediate left of Hitesh. b) Hitesh is to the immediate left of Eshwar.
4
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c) Dinesh is right of Champa. d) Amar is on the immediate right of Girish.
62
Q 130. 60249206 Which of the following persons do not face each other? 6
6
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9
a) Dinesh, Bhumi b) Amar, Hitesh c) Farah, Eshwar d) Champa, Farah

6
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20 6
2
02
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Q 131. 60249206 Which of the following groups has the second person sitting between the first and the third persons?
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2
6
6
9
a) Amar-Farah-Eshwar b) Girish-Amar-Dinesh c) Bhumi-Eshwar-Hitesh d) Hitesh-Farah-Bhumi
2
6 6 24 2 6
60 4 20
Directions for questions 132 and 133: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
2
02 2449 9206 6
92 6 066 24 204 9429 6 602 24 92 6
02 49
2
Five events - A, B, C, D and E - are held in different months from August to December. The events are sponsored by five different production houses - P, Q,
0
R, S and T - not necessarily in the same order. P sponsors event B but it is not held after October. Q sponsors event A in the month of October and R
02
sponsors the event held in August, which is not event C or D. S does not sponsor the last event and event D is held immediately after event A.
6
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Q 132. 60249206 Which event is sponsored by S and in which month?
6
a) C, December b) E, September c) Either C or D, November d) D, November

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6
Q 133. 60249206 Which production house sponsors the event immediately after event B and which event does it sponsor?
6
0
6
a) Q, A b) P, E c) S, D d) T, C
660 4 20
0
20 6
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
2
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4
2
6
6
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A, B and C are three workers who work together to complete a piece of work.
0
24620492 9429 6 260

02
0292049 2066 02 492
• B takes three times as long as A and C together to complete the work.

2
0
• C takes twice as long as A and B together to complete the same piece of work.
2
• The three men working together complete the work in 10 days.

02
Q 134. 60249206 How long would B take by himself to complete the same piece of work?
66
4
6 60
6
a) 24 days b) 30 days c) 40 days d) 36 days

6
2
4
6
Q 135. 60249206 How long would A and B together take to complete the same piece of work?
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0
6
0
a) 12 days b) 20 days c) 18 days d) 15 days

9
06 20 6
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6
0
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0
Q 136. 60249206 How long would B and C together take to complete the same piece of work?
6
0
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6 24 0292
0
0
a)
2
4
2
2
60 6 4
60
0602
6
b) 21 days
9
4
2
2
c) 18 days
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0
6
4
6
6
06
9
02 6 49
4
6
4902 20 92
066
92 49 6
6 060
02 6 49 24 0
06 2 6
60 4 02
24 0 2
24
02
d) 14 days
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2
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60
60
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The table given below shows the schedule of train from Delhi to Sasaram and number of passengers boarding from each station.
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6
2
2
0
6
9
24 02 2 49 6
4
60 6 4 2 20
6
2
6
2
02 60 9
0
24
9
60
0
6
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06 60 24 20 6 6 02 492
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Q 137. 60249206 What is the distance travelled by the train from Kanpur to Banaras?
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a) 176 km 02 49 06 60
b) 188 km c) 183 km d) 193 km
4
2
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Q 138. 60249206 How much time does the train take to reach Mughalsarai after departing from Amethi (including the halt time)?
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06 60 4 20
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a) 1 hr 59 min b) 1 hr 17 min c) 1 hr 35 min d) 1 hr 15 min
24 2 9
Q 139. 60249206 What is the ratio between the number of passengers boarding from Aligarh and from Mughalsarai in the train?
4
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a) 21 : 17 b) 13 : 9 c) 21 : 19 d) 15 : 13
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06
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Q 140. 60249206 If the halt time (stopping time) of the train at Lucknow is decreased by 2 minutes and increased by 23 minutes at Mughalsarai.
0
At what time will the train reach Sasaram?

6
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a) 6.10 a.m. b) 6.01 p.m. c) 6.05 a.m. d) 6.50 p.m.
6
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9
6
0
9
60
The pie charts given below show the distribution of the traded volume (in lots) and the turnover of six base metals traded on the Commodity Market Exchange
(CMX) on a particular day. Turnover is defined as the product of the average traded price and the number of lots traded.
60 4 20
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9
9
2
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92
06
24
24
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Q 141. 60249206 If the average traded price per lot for Aluminum, Copper, Zinc, Nickel, Lead and Tin was A, C, Z, N, L and T respectively,
06 60 24 20 6
which of the following is true?
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06 60 24 20 6 6 02
a) C > N > L > Z > A > T b) N > C > L > A > Z > T c) C > N > L > A > T > Z d) C > N > L > A > Z > T
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60 24 920 6 6 02 492 06
6
Q 142. 60249206 If the traded volume (in lots) of Aluminum was 30000 and the average traded price per lot of Aluminum was Rs. 1.05 lakh, find
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the approximate turnover (in Rs. lakhs) of Zinc.
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a) 21000 b) 19500 c) 20000 d) 21500
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Q 143. 60249206 If the total turnover of Commodity Market Exchange (CMX) on a particular day was Rs.36,000 lakh and total number of lots
06
60 24 920 6 6
traded was 7200, then find the average traded price of Copper.
a) Rs.6 lakh b) Rs.7.5 lakh c) Rs.2.5 lakh d) Rs.7.2 lakh
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Q 144. 60249206 If the total turnover (in Rs. lakhs) of Nickel was 3704 and the total volume (in lots) of all the six metals put together was 50000,
60 24
find the average traded price (in Rs.) per lot of Lead.
a) 4000 b) 40000 c) 45000 d) 20000
60
Q 145. 60249206 If the traded volume (in lots) of Copper was 35000 and the average traded price per lot of Copper was Rs.2.05 lakh, the
turnover of Nickel is what approximate percent of the turnover of Tin?
24 92 6
a) 133.33% b) 33.33% c) 75% d) 121.67%
The bar graph given below represents the average monthly sales (in thousands) of "The Two Wheeler Industry" during the period 2012-13 to 2018-19 across
five categories of two wheelers.
20 6 6 02 92 06
24 92
02 49 06
02 9 06 60 4
Q 146. 60249206 Which of the following categories of two-wheelers witnessed a decrease in sales from 2015-16 to 2016-17?
02
24 92 6
a) Only Step Thrus b) Scooters and Mopeds

60 4 20
60 24 920 6 6
c) Step Thrus and Mopeds d) Mopeds, Step Thrus and Scooters

06
0
Q 147. 60249206 On an average how many two-wheelers were sold annually during the period FY 2012-13 to FY 2015-16?
6
24 92
24 92 6
20
a) 3009250 b) 3009.25 c) 36111000 d) 36111

6
06 60 24
Q 148. 60249206 In which year was the percentage increase in the number of the scooters sold the maximum as compared to the previous year
92 06
92 06 60
during the period FY 2012-13 to FY 2018-19?

24 2
a) 2013-14 b) 2015-16 c) 2016-17 d) 2014-15

06
92 06
49 20
9
60 4
6
Q 149. 60249206 What is the approximate percentage decrease in the sales of scooters from 2012-13 to 2018-19?
24 92
02
0
a) 40.4% b) 35.6% c) 50.5% d) 60.3%

6
24
6
6
60
20
6
6
60 24
92 0
6
6
60 24 92
Q 150. 60249206 What is the difference (in thousands) between the number of Ungeared scooters sold in the years when the sales of Step
92 06
60
24 92
06
Thrus was the highest and second highest?
60
60 24
24 92
60 24
a) 19 b) 27 c) 32 d) 20
06
06 60
92 06
24 92
60 24
60

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LST CLAT Mock–15 (New Pattern)

Q 1. 60249206 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a) Today's society is more extravagant than the society of the 1930s.

Q 2. 60249206 In the passage, the phrase "little parvenus" refers to

a) naughty midgets. b) old hags. c) arrogant people d) young upstarts.

a) didactic. b) dietetic. c) dialectic. d) diatonic.

a) A kitten learning to jump over a wall b) Bees collecting nectar

a) Ability to use symbols while communicating with one another.

b) Ability to communicate with each other through voice modulation.

d) Ability to use sound as means of communication.

a) children instinctively know language.

b) children learn the language on their own.

Q 10. 60249206 Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

a) Language is unique to Homo sapiens.

d) Reciprocal roles determine normative human behaviour in society.

following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?

a) A only b) B only c) C only d) A & B

Q 14. 60249206 Select the synonym of 'enfeeble'

a) Debilitate b) Bolster c) Ascend d) Invigorate

a) Both, in general, include a gamut of distinct but interconnecting activities.

d) Both involve abstract thought and dissemination of ideas.

a) the existence of movements such as surrealism.

b) it happened at the time of collapse of leadership among Mayas.

d) it was followed by internecine warfare among Mayans.

a) Copan inhabitants destroyed all records of that period.

a) Environmental degradation due to excess population

a) Paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition.

d) Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition.

a) An additional piece of information that is not very important.

c) The central opinion around which the argument revolves.

Q 29. 60249206 Select the antonym of 'ambiguity'.

a) Equivocation b) Ambivalence c) Limpidity d) Abstruseness

CURRENT AFFAIRS INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

$8,815. The market cap of the currency stood at $161 billion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

a) Australia b) Brazil c) New Zealand d) Russia

a) Bhutan b) Bangladesh c) Nepal d) Pakistan

Which of the following is redacted with (2) in the above passage?

a) Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district b) Uttarakhand's Chamoli District

c) Uttar Pradesh's Maharajganj district d) Bihar's Madhubani District

a) Treaty of Punakha b) Treaty of Sinchula c) Treaty of Segauli d) Treaty of Yandabo

a) Lipulekh Pass b) Mana Pass c) Auden's Col d) Traill's Pass

Choose the correct statements using the codes given below:

a) Pakistan b) South Africa c) Sudan d) Egypt

emissions continue at the current rate.

a) Finland b) Ireland c) Sweden d) Iceland

a) Okjokull b) Vatnajokull c) Mýrdalsjökull d) Langjökull

a) Mons, Belgium b) Gland, Switzerland c) Lyon, France d) Cologne, Germany

a) Abdullah Abdullah b) Ashraf Ghani c) Zalmai Rassoul d) Qutbuddin Hilal

a) Al Qaeda b) Al-Nusra Front? c) Lashkar-e-Taiba d) ISIS

a) 1958 b) 1965 c) 1984 d) 1992

on the Saurashtra coast in Gujarat.

a) Bhagatrav b) Surkotada c) Lothal d) Daimabad

2024 redacted with (3) in above passage?

a) Maharashtra b) Madhya Pradesh c) Andhra Pradesh d) Nagaland

redacted with (4) in the above passage?

a) Subhash Palekar b) Sharad Anantrao Joshi c) Aditya Deshmukh d) Anantraje Chiplunkar

Q 65. 60249206 Which is the first fully organic state of India?

a) Nagaland b) Sikkim c) Meghalaya d) Assam

knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.