Jee (A) Sample Paper

Paper Code
ENGLISH
(1001CJA102118048) )1001CJA102118048)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)
JEE (Main + Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE

SCORE : I
Test Type : PART TEST Test Pattern : JEE-Advanced
TEST DATE : 18 - 11 - 2018
Time : 3 Hours PAPER – 1 Maximum Marks : 180
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 28 pages and
that all the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/18-11-2018/Paper-1
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
E-2/28 1001CJA102118048
Enthusiast Course/Score-I/18-11-2018/Paper-1
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX questions.
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
1. According to Bohr's theory, for a hydrogen-like atom of atomic number Z, the :-
(A) Radius of an orbit is inversely proportional to Z.
(B) Radius of an orbit is directly proportional to Z2.
(C) Energy of electron in an orbit is directly proportional to Z2.
(D) Energy of the electron in an orbit is directly proportional to Z.
1001CJA102118048 E-3/28
2. In a hypothetical hydrogen-like atom, the wavelength in Å for the spectral lines for transitions
1500p2
from n = p to n = 1 are given by l = , where p = 2, 3, 4 ...... (Take : hc = 12400 eV-Å)
p2 - 1
Choose the CORRECT option(s) :
(A) The ratio of wavelength of the least energetic and most energetic photon of this series
4
is
3
(B) Energy of electron in ground state is 8.27 eV.
(C) Wavelength of 1st Balmer line is approximately 12800 Å.
(D) Photon of wavelength 3000 Å will be absorbed by atom in ground state.
222 a-decay 218
3. Radon decays to polonium according to the decay scheme given by 88 Rn ¾¾¾¾
3.8 days
®84 Po . State
which of the following statement(s) will be true in respect of this decay : (Given : ln2 = 0.693)
(A) If the original mass of radon in a closed container was 1mg, the amount of radon left after
11.4 days will be 0.125 mg.
A0
(B) Activity of radon after 7.6 days will be where A0 is original activity of sample at t = 0.
4
(C) If the original number of radon in a closed container was 8 atoms, the number of radon
left after 7.6 day will be 2 atoms.
(D) P0 is more stable than Rn.
4. A partition divides a container having insulated walls into two compartments I and II. The
same gas fill the two compartments whose initial parameters are given. The partition is
conducting wall which can move freely without friction. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are CORRECT, with reference to the final equilibrium position ?
P,V,T 2P,2V,T
I II
(A) The pressure in the two compartments are equal.

3V
(B) Volume of compartment I is .
5
3V
(C) Volume of compartment II is .
5
5P
(D) Final pressure in compartment I is .
3
E-4/28 1001CJA102118048
5. If a solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and radius are heated to the same
temperature. Choose the CORRECT statement(s) :
(A) The initial rate of heat radiated per unit time is same.
(B) The initial rate of heat absorbed per unit time is same.
(C) The rate of cooling will be same for both the spheres.
(D) The two spheres will have same temperature at any instant.
6. Graphs give the temperature along an x-axis that extends directly through a wall consisting
of three layer with different non-zero and finite coefficient of thermal conductivities. The air
temperature on both sides of wall are different and uniform. Out of the situations as shown
by the graph, which is/are impossible?
T T
(A) (B)
x x
A B C A B C
T T
(C) (D)
x x
A B C A B C
1001CJA102118048 E-5/28
SECTION–I(ii) : (Maximum Marks : 12)
This section contains TWO paragraphs.
Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Paragraph for Questions 7 and 8
We can express a and b decay as
A
Z X ¾¾® A -4
Z- 2 Y +42 He a decay
r
A
Z X® A
Z +1 Y+ e- + v ù b-
( electron ) ( antineutrino )
ú
A
X ® A
Y + e +
+ v b + ú
Z Z -1
( Positron ) ( neutrino ) ú b decay
A - A ú
Z X + e ®Z -1 Y + v electron ú
( orbital electron ) capture ú
úû
It is possible to determine feasibility of spontaneous decay of a nucleus by applying the law of
conservation of mass-energy to the decay process. In this context, we define a quantity called
'disintegration energy' Q. For any nuclear reaction or process, it is defined as the energy
equivalent to mass difference, where mass difference = total initial mass of system – total
final mass of systems. It can be shown that a positive value of Q implies that the
reaction/process happens, assuming initial kinetic energy to be negligible, the disintegration
energy Q is shared among the decay products in a manner consistent with the various
mechanical conservations laws. Let us apply these concepts to determine feasibility of different
decays in the following cases. Also whenever any decay is feasible, we may also determine
other quantities of interest. You may use the information given in the table to answer the
following questions.
Some atomic masses
Element Atomic mass (amu)
4
2 He 4.002603
25
12 Mg 24.985837
25
13 Al 24.990429
222
86 Rn 222.017571
226
88 Ra 226.025403
E-6/28 1001CJA102118048
7. We first consider the possibility of a decay of 226

88 Ra (radium). If this nucleus decays by
a-emission, the process could be described as
226
88 Ra ¾¾® 222
86 Rn + 4
2 He
(Radium nucleus) (Radon nucleus) (a-particle)
Is the a-decay of 226
88 Ra energetically possible ?
(A) Yes, because Q value is positive.
(B) No, because Q value is negative.
(C) It cannot be predicted because Q value is uncertain.
(D) No, though Q value is postive but it is more positive for the reverse process.
8. Consider the following processes:
(i) b– decay of 25
12 Mg nucleus : 25
12 Mg ¾¾® 25
13 Al + e– + v
(ii) b+ decay of 25
13 Al nucleus : 25
13 Al ¾¾® 25
12 Mg + e+ + v
We know that v and v (neutrino and antineutrino) are chargeless and massless particles.
Which of the following decays is/are energetically possible in a spontaneous manner ?
(A) Both (i) and (ii) (B) (i) only
(C) (ii) only (D) This cannot be predicted
1001CJA102118048 E-7/28
The density of the Earth's atmosphere, r(z), varies with height z above the Earth's surface.
Assume that the "thickness" of the atmosphere is sufficiently small so that it is in a uniform
gravitational field of strength g. In a static atmosphere, each parcel of air has an internal
energy DEi and a gravitational potential energy DEg. To a very good approximation, the air in
the atmosphere is an ideal gas with constant specific heat. Using this assumption and classical
thermodynamics. [In the given options T is the temperature, P0 is the pressure at the Earth's
CP
surface, µ is the molar mass, CP is the molar specific heat at constant pressure, and g = C is
V
the ratio of specific heats.]
9. The total energy in a vertical column of atmosphere of cross-sectional area A is given by
P0 P0
ACP 2ACP
(A) E º Ei + Eg =
mg ò T ( P ) dP
0
(B) E º Ei + Eg =
mg ò T ( P ) dP
0
P0 P0
ACP ACP
(C) E º Ei + Eg =
2mg ò T ( P ) dP
0
(D) E º Ei + Eg =
mg ò T ( P ) dP
2
Eg
10. The ratio of energies is is given by :
Ei
(A) g – 2 (B) g – 1 (C) 1 – g (D) None of these
E-8/28 1001CJA102118048
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT questions.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-
off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) by darken the corresponding bubbles
in the ORS.
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the bubbles as follows.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. The equivalent degree of freedom of a gaseous sample containing 5 moles of O2 & 3 moles of
He at room temperature is. (Assume both gases to behave as ideal gas)
2. A refrigerator converts 50g of water at 30°C into ice at –20°C in one hr. The quantity of heat
removed per min is (in cal/minute)
3. A uniform rod is rotating about one of its end with a constant angular velocity w in gravity
free space. The ratio of strain produced in two halves is k (k > 1). The value of k is.
1001CJA102118048 E-9/28
4. A long cylindrical vessel having a linear coefficient of expansion a is filled with a liquid upto
a certain level. On heating, it is found that the height of liquid in the cylinder remains the
same. The coefficient of volume expansion of liquid is given by b × 10–g. Fill g + b in OMR
sheet. (b & g are smallest possible integers) [Given : a = 5 × 10–7/°C]
5. Light of wavelength l from a small 0.5 mW He-Ne laser source is used in the school laboratory
to shine on perfectly absorbing surface of a space craft of mass 1000 kg. The time needed for
the space craft to reach a velocity of 1 km/s from rest is given by a × 10b sec in scientific
notation. Find the value of (b – 2a).
6. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of
A
the gas is , where T is temperature in Kelvin & P is pressure. Fill the value of A in OMR
T
sheet.
E-10/28 1001CJA102118048
p
7. A rod of length m is rotated about one of its end with angular velocity w0 as shown in
2
r0 sin x
diagram. The density of the rod varies as r = and the cross-section of the rod is uniform.
x
Young's modulus of the rod varies such that it is equally likely for the rod to fail from any
point and is given by Y = Y0sin(ax + b), Y0 is a constant quantity, a is least possible positive
integer and b is lowest possible positive quantity. The elongation in the rod is given by
c × 10–11 m. Find the value of a + b + c. [Given : r0 = 2kg/m3, w0 = 2 rad/s and Y0 = 4 × 1011N/m2]
w0
(p/2) m
8. In the shown planar fame made of thin uniform rods, the length of section AB and EF is l1
and its linear thermal expansion coefficient is a1. The length CD is l2 and its linear thermal
expansion coefficient is a2. CB and DE are of same length having thermal linear coefficient of
a2
expansion is a2. It is given that = 3.5. Points A, B, E and F reside on same line, that is,
a1
l
section AB and EF overlap. Find the ratio of 2 for which the distance between end A and F
l1
remains same at all temperatures.
D C
A
B
F
E
1001CJA102118048 E-11/28
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
1. CORRECT statement(s) in the following ?
(A) Rate of sulphonation of C6H6 and C6D6 are equal.
O
CH 3
O – C – CH3
(B) Rate of halogentation of is faster than
OH
(C) on reaction with Br2 / H2O forms tribromoderivative.
(D) on reaction with Cl2 at 500°C will give electrophilic substitution reaction.
CH3
E-12/28 1001CJA102118048
2. Following statement(s) is/are true for D-glucose :
(A) It shows Schiff’s reagent test
(B) It is C-2 epimer of D-mannose
(C) Can be oxidised by Br2 / H2O to form saccharic acid
(D) Shows mutarotation.
3. Which of the following is/are CORRECT order for decreasing boiling point.
(A) H2O > HF (B) CH4 > GeH4
(C) D2 > H2 (D) NH3 > AsH3
4. Dipole moment of which of the following molecule/s remains same when it undergoes lewis
acid-base interaction with F – ion.
(A) XeF4 (B) ClF3 (C) PF5 (D) BF 3
5. The vapour pressure of the solution of two liquids A(P = 80 mm) and B(P0 = 120 mm) is found
0
to be 100 mm when XA = 0.4. The result shows that

(A) Solution exhibits ideal behaviour
(B) Solution shows positive deviation
(C) Solution shows negative deviation
(D) Solution will show positive deviation for lower concentration and negative deviation for
higher concentration.
6. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT ?
(A) During electrophoresis, colloidal particle move under influence of electric field
(B) Higher is the coagulating power of an electrolyte, higher is its coagulation value.
(C) Less is the gold number, better is protective power of lyophilic colloid
(D) Sorption process is a combination of adsorption and absorption process.
1001CJA102118048 E-13/28
is correct.
Amino acids are high melting crystalline solids and amphoteric in nature, depending on the
pH of solution amino acid can donate or accept proton.
O O O
+ +
NH3 – CH – C – OH NH3 – CH – C – O NH2 – CH – C – O
R R R
Cation Zwitter ion Anion
(Low pH) (Neutral form) (High pH)
when amino acids are placed in electric field positive ions move towards cathode, negative
ions towards anode and dipolar ions do not move towards any electrode. The pH at which
amino acids show no tendency to move towards any electrode is known as isoelectric point.
a-amino acids on heating loose water and form cyclic diamides on heating.
+
7. NH3 – CH – COOH (R = –CH2 – COOH)
R (A)
pKa values for 3-acidic groups for above cationic form of amino acids are 4.5, 10 and 2.5. Then
isoelectric point will be :
(A) 7.25 (B) 8.5 (C) 7 (D) 3.5
NH2
8. CH3 – CH on heating form cyclic diamides. Total number of cyclic diamides formed
COOH
(including stereoisomer)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
E-14/28 1001CJA102118048
Fajan's rule is very important for qualitative analysis of covalent character in ionic bond.
According to this rule as the polarising power of cation and polarisibility of anion increases
then covalent character in ionic bond increases.
Basis of Fajan's rule is also useful to predict various properties of ionic salt like nature of
oxide, melting point, thermal stability and colour of ionic salt etc.
9. Select INCORRECT order of thermal stability.
(A) Li3N > Na3N > K3N (B) LiCl < NaCl < KCl
(C) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 (D) GeCl4 > SnCl4 > PbCl4
10. Select the CORRECT order of basic strength.
(A) CaO < ZnO (B) ZnO < HgO (C) PbO > Ag2O (D) Fe2O3 > FeO
1001CJA102118048 E-15/28
in the ORS.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
1. Number of oxygen atoms present in 1 molecule of b-D-2-deoxyribose
2. Number of reaction(s) which are correctly represented?
Mild basic
(1) N2Cl + OH N=N OH
Medium
(Organge red coloured dye)

Me Me
(2) N2Cl + N N=N N
Me Me
(Butter yellow)
Me Me
(3) N2Cl + N N
Me Me
N (Yellow)
N
Ph
(4) N2Cl + N=O N=N NO2

O
N = N – Ph
OH OH
(5) + PhN2Cl
Mild basic
medium
(1) NaNO2 / HCl (0 – 5°C)

(6) NH2
(2) H3PO2 / D
(1) NaNO 2/HCl (0 – 5°C)

(7) NH2 COOH
(2) CuCN/HCN/D
(3) H / H2O
E-16/28 1001CJA102118048
3. Count number of polymers which are condensation polymers as well as co-polymers :

(1) Nylon-6 (2) Nylon-6, 6 (3) Nylon-6, 10 (4) Dacron
(5) Bakelite (6) Melamine formaldehyde resin (7) Polyisoprene
(8) Styrene-butadiene rubber (9) PAN (10) Teflon
4. If gold number for a protective colloid is 0.08 then how many milligrams would be needed
to protect 50 ml of a standard gold sol from being coagulated on addition of 5 ml of 10 % NaCl
solution ?
1001CJA102118048 E-17/28
5. In 2.24 litre container at 273K, H2 gas is adsorbed on 'Pt' surface (having total area = 10 2 cm2),
so that its partial pressure is reduced from 2 atm to 1 atm. If No. of active sites per unit
area = 1020 cm–2, then find no. of H2 molecules adsorbed per active site. (NA = 6 × 1023)
6. 0.35 molal aqueous solution of Na x A has freezing point of – 3.255ºC. If K f of water is
1.86 K kg mol–1, the value of x is : (Assume complete ionisation of salt Na xA)
E-18/28 1001CJA102118048
7. Consider following molecular species :
XeF4, ClO4- , XeO3, IF4+ , ClF3, SF6, SF4, PCl 6- , XeO46- , S3O62-
(x + y)
and calculate .
z
x = Total number of molecular species in which all bond lengths are not equal
y = Total number of species in which 'd' orbital which having zero nodal plane participate in
hybridisation
z = total number of planar species
8. In [B4O5(OH)4]2–, find total number of boron atoms which participate in back bonding.
1001CJA102118048 E-19/28
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
1. If nth term of an A.P. is Tn = (a – 2)n2 + 3n + 5 " n Î N, then which of the following is/are true
(where Sn denotes sum of n terms of an A.P.)
(A) T4 = 17 (B) S10 = 215
(C) a + S5 = 70 (D) T6 = 23
2. Let z1 satisfy the condition |z – 3| = 2 and z2 satisfy the equation |z – 1| + |z + 1| = 3.
If |z1 – z2|min = m and |z1 – z2|max = M, then which of the following is/are true -
9 81
(A) M + m = (B) M2 + m2 + Mm =
2 4
169 13
(C) M2 + m2 + Mm = (D) M + m =
4 2
E-20/28 1001CJA102118048
3. Let ƒ : (–¥, 1] ® R and ƒ(x) = 9x – 3x + 1. If the maximum and minimum values of ƒ(x) are
m and M respectively, then which of the following is/are true -
2 2 215
(A) M + 4m = (B) M + 4m = 10
4
205
(C) M2 – 16m2 = 40 (D) M2 + 4m2 =
4
4. Let M be a 3 × 3 matrix satisfying M3 = 0, then which of the following is/are true -
(A) |M2 – M + I| ¹ 0 (B) |M2 – M + I| = 0
M2 M2
(C) +M+I ¹0 (D) +M+I =0
2 2
5. Let A be a square matrix of order 2 with real entries such that |A|¹ 0 and |A + |A|adjA| = 0,
where adjA denotes adjoint of matrix A. If the value of |A – |A|adjA| is l, then l is less than
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
(1 + i)(1 + 2i)(1 + 3i)......(1 + ni)

6. If z = ,n Î N , then principal argument of z can be -
(1 - i)(2 - i)(3 - i).....(n - i)
p p
(A) 0 (B) (C) – (D) p
2 2
1001CJA102118048 E-21/28
is correct.
æ z3 - 1 ö p
Let z be a complex number satisfying arg ç 3 ÷= on the argand plane.
è z +1ø 2
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :
7. Length of the arc of the locus of z for which Re(z) > 0 and Img(z) < 0 is equal to
p p p p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 9 4
8. Length of the arc of the locus of z for which Re(z) > 0 is equal to
p p 2p 5p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 3 6
E-22/28 1001CJA102118048
Let A = [a ij]3×3 be upper triangular matrix of order 3 and its characteristic equation is
A3 + aA2 + bA – I = 0, where aij Î {–1, 0, 1}. (where a,b are scalars)
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :
9. Sum of all the possible values of a is -
(A) 3 (B) –3 (C) –2 (D) 2
10. If a = –3, then value of b is -
(A) –3 (B) 3 (C) –1 (D) 0

1001CJA102118048 E-23/28
in the ORS.
+ – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
1 1 1 p2 ¥
1 l
1. Let + + + ...... + ¥ = . If the value of p2 + å 3 is l then the value of equals
12 22 32 6 n =1 n (n + 1)
3
4
2a1 b1 c1 c2 2a 2 b2
2. If A1 = 2a2 b2 c2 and A 2 = 2c3 4a3 2b3 , then (A1 – A2) equals
4a3 2b3 2c3 c1 2a1 b1
E-24/28 1001CJA102118048
¥
cos nx
3. If the range of the expression å 3n
is [a, b], then (b – a) equals
n= 0
æ pö
4. If q1, q2, q3 Î ç 0, ÷ , then the minimum value of expression
è 2ø
(tanq1 + tanq2 + tanq3)(cotq1 + cotq2 + cotq3) equals
5. If (x2 – x + 1) is a factor of 2x6 – x5 + ax4 + x3 + bx2 – 4x – 3, then the value of æç a - b ö÷ equals

è4 ø
1001CJA102118048 E-25/28
1 eip / 3 eip / 4
[ -l ]
6. Let eiq = cosq + isinq. If the value of e-ip / 3 1 ei2p / 3 is l, then equals
4
e- ip / 4 e-i2p / 3 1
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
7. Number of real ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation x2 – y2 – i(2x + y) = 2i, is
8. Let 1 + 2x + 3x2 + 4x3 + ........ + ¥ > 4. If the least value of x is l, then l equals
E-26/28 1001CJA102118048
1001CJA102118048 E-27/28
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
17. Each part has two sections as detailed in the following table.
Que. No. Category-wise Marks for Each Question Maximum
Section Type of Full Partial Zero Negative Marks of the
Que. Marks Marks Marks Marks section
+4 +1 0 –2
One or more If only the bubble(s) For darkening a bubble If none In all
I(i) correct corresponding corresponding to each of the other
option(s) 6 to all the correct correct option, provided bubbles is cases 24
option(s) is(are) NO incorrect option darkened
darkened darkened
Paragraph +3 0 –1
Based If only the bubble If none In all
I(ii) (Single 4 corresponding to — of the other 12
correct the correct option bubbles is cases
option) is darkened darkened
+3 0
Numerical If only the bubble In all
II Value Type 8 corresponding — other — 24
(Up to second to correct answer cases
decimal place) is darkened
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................
FORM NO. .............................................
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
and shall abide by them. number of the candidate, and that question
paper and ORS codes are the same.
____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA 324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
E-28/28 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE 2019 1001CJA102118048

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JEE (Main + Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :

DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

Space for Rough Work

(A) The pressure in the two compartments are equal.

Space for Rough Work

7. We first consider the possibility of a decay of 226

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(C) on reaction with Br2 / H2O forms tribromoderivative.

Space for Rough Work

to be 100 mm when XA = 0.4. The result shows that

(Organge red coloured dye)

(4) N2Cl + N=O N=N NO2

(1) NaNO2 / HCl (0 – 5°C)

(1) NaNO 2/HCl (0 – 5°C)

3. Count number of polymers which are condensation polymers as well as co-polymers :

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(1 + i)(1 + 2i)(1 + 3i)......(1 + ni)

Space for Rough Work

On the basis of above information, answer the following questions :

9. Sum of all the possible values of a is -

(A) 3 (B) –3 (C) –2 (D) 2

10. If a = –3, then value of b is -

(A) –3 (B) 3 (C) –1 (D) 0

Space for Rough Work

(tanq1 + tanq2 + tanq3)(cotq1 + cotq2 + cotq3) equals

5. If (x2 – x + 1) is a factor of 2x6 – x5 + ax4 + x3 + bx2 – 4x – 3, then the value of æç a - b ö÷ equals

Space for Rough Work

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................

FORM NO. .............................................

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