20 - 03 - 2020 Batch : EVEN BATCHES Version

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT II - B B1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
441
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 5. A proton of mass m and charge +e is

1. Equal currents i is flowing in the three
infinitely long wires along positive x,y
and z directions. The magnetic field at
a point  0, 0, a  would be
moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic
field with energy 1 MeV. What should
be the energy of  -particle (mass =4m
and charge =+2e), so that it can revolve
in the path of same radius?

1) 1 MeV 2) 4 MeV
1)
2a
 
 0i ˆ ˆ
j i 2)
2a
 
 0i ˆ ˆ
i j
3) 2 MeV 4) 0.5 MeV

 0i ˆ ˆ  0i ˆ ˆ ˆ 6. The magnetic field at the centre ‘0’ in

3)
2a
 
ij 4)
2a

i  j k  the given figure is

2. The magnetic field at the centre of a


circular loop of area A is B . Then the
magnetic moment of the loop will be

BA 2 BA A
1) 2)
0  0
3 0I 7 0I
1) 2)
BA A 2BA A 10 R 14 R
3) 4)
0  0 
0I 5 0I
3. A long straight wire of radius ‘a’ carries 3) 4)
12R 12 R
a steady current I. The current is
uniformly distributed over its cross 7. A proton of mass 1.67×10-27 kg and
section. The ratio of the magnetic fields charge 1.6×10-19C is projected with a
a speed of 2×106 m/s at an angle of 600
B and B , at radial distances and to the X-axis. If a uniform magnetic
2
field of 0.104 Tesla is applied along Y-
2a respectively from the axis of the axis, the path of proton is
wire is
1) 1 2) 4 1) A circle of radius = 0.2 m and time
period 107 s
1 1
3) 4) 2) A circle of radius = 0.1 m and time
4 2
period 2  10 7 s
4. The shunt required to send 10% of the
main current through a moving coil 3) A helix of radius = 0.1m and time
galvanometer of resistance 99  is period 2   10 7 s
1) 99  2) 9.9 
4) A helix of radius =0.2 m and time
3) 10  4) 11  period 4  10 7 s
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
8. A proton is travelling along the X- 12. The equivalent inductance of two
direction with velocity 5  106 m / s . The inductances is 2.4 henry when
connected in parallel and 10 henry
magnitude of force experienced by the
when connected in serie s. The
proton in a magnetic field
 difference between the two inductances

B  0.2iˆ  0.4kˆ  tesla is is

1) 2 henry 2) 3 henry
1) 3.2 1013 N 2) 3.2  1013 N
3) 4 henry 4) 5 henry
3) 3.5  10 12 N 4) 6.3  10 13 N
13. A step-down transformer is used on a
1000V line to deliver 20A at 120 V at
9. Two long parallel wires carrying equal the secondary coil. If the efficiency of
current separated by 1m, exert a force the transformer is 80% the current
of 2×10 -7 N/m on one another. The drawn from the line is
current flowing through them is
1) 3A 2) 30 A
1) 2.0 A 2) 2.0×10-7A
3) 0.3 A 4) 2.4 A
3) 1.0A 4) 1.0 ×10-7 A
14. An oscillator circuit consists of an
10. What is the net force on the square inductance of 0.5 mH and a capacitor
coil? of 20F . The resonant frequency of the
circuit is nearly

1) 15.92 Hz 2) 159.2 Hz

3) 1592 Hz 4) 15910 Hz

15. A virtual current of 4 A and 50 Hz flows

1) 25×10-7 N moving towards wire in an Ac circuit containing a coil. The
power consumed in the coil is 240 W.
2) 25×10-7 N moving away from wire If the virtual voltage across the coil is
100 V its inductance will be
3) 35×10-7 N moving towards wire
1 1
4) 35×10-7 N moving away from wire 1) H 2) H
3 5
11. Current i is carried in a wire of length
L. If the wire is turned into a circular 1 1
coil, the maximum magnitude of torque 3) H 4) H
7 9
in a given magnetic field B will be
16. The magnetic flux through a coil varies
LiB2 Li 2 B
1) 2) with time as   5t 2  6t  9 . The ratio
2 2
of emf at t =3s to t = 0s will be

L2iB Li2B 1) 1:9 2) 1:6

3) 4)
4 4
3) 6:1 4) 9:1
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

17. A square loop of area 2.5  10 3 m 2 and 20. A long solenoid with 40 turns per cm
carries a current of 1A. The magnetic
having 100 turns with a total
energy in (J/m 3 ) stored per unit
resistance 100  is moved out of a volume is
uniform magnetic field of 0.40T in 1sec
with a constant speed. Find the 1) 3.2  2) 32 
workdone in pulling the loop
3) 1.6  4) 6.4 

21. A bar magnet i s allowed to fall

vertically through a copper coil placed
in a horizontal plane. The magnet falls
with a net acceleration

1) 1 mJ 2) 1J

3) 0.1 mJ 4) 10J

18. The network shown in figure is a part

of a complete circuit. What is the
potential difference VB-V A, when the
current I is 5A and is decreasing at a
1) a  g 2) zero
rate of 103A/s?
3) < g 4) > g

22. A jet plane of wing span 20m is

travelling towards west at a speed of
1) 5V 2) 15V 400 m/s. If the earth’s total magnetic
field is 4×10-4 T and the dip angle is
3) -5V 4) 10V 30 0 , at that place, the voltage
difference developed across the ends
19. In the given circuit find the ratio of i1 of the wing is
and i2, where i1 is the initial (at t = 0)
1) 3.2 V 2) 6.4 V
current, and i2 is steady state (at t   )
current through the battery 3) 1.6 V 4) 0.8 V

23. The effective value of current

i  2sin100t  2 cos 100t  300  is

1) 2A

2) 2 2A

1 4
1) 2) 1
5 5 3) A
2
3 6
3) 4) 4) 2A
5 5
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
24. A coil of self inductance L=5H and 28. The average power dissipated in a pure
r esi s t a n c e R  55 is connected in inductor is
series to the mains of an alternating
1) VI2 2) Zero
v o l t ag e o f f r e q u e n c y f  50Hz i n
series. If the power dissipated has
to remain,unchanged,the non zero 1 VI 2
3) VI 4)
capacitance to be connected in series 2 4
with the coil  2
 10 
29. A lamp consumes only 25% of the peak
power in an AC circuit. The phase
1) 1 F 2) 3 F difference between the applied voltage
and the current is
3) 1m F 4) 3m F
 
25. For a series LCR circuit the power loss 1) 2)
6 3
at resonance is

 
V2 V2 3) 4)
1) 2) 4 2
L  1 / C C
30. The readings of ammeter and voltmeter
3) I 2  C 4) I 2 R in the following circuit are respectively

26. In an osci llating LC circuit the

maximum charge on the capacitor is
Q. The charge on the capacitor when
the energy stored in capacitor is twice
that stored in magnetic field is

Q
1) Q 2)
2

Q 2
3) 4) Q
3 3 1) 2.7A,220V 2) 1.2 A, 120V

27. A transformer of 100% efficiency has 3) 2.2A,220V 4) 1.5 A,100V

200 turns in primary and 40000 turns
in the secondary. It is connected to a
220 V main supply and the secondary
feeds to a 100k resistance. Calculate
the power delivered to load
1) 19.36 KW
2) 20.56 KW
3) 14.39 KW
4) 18.36 KW
31. A parallel plate capacitor made of
circular plates each of radius R = 6 cm
has capacitance C =100 pF. The
capacitance is connected to a 230 V
AC supply with an angular frequency
of 300 radian per second. The rms
value of conduction current will be
1) 9.6A 2) 6.9A
3) 25.7A 4) 4.8 A
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
32. According to maxwell’s equation the 37. Identify the mismatched pair
velocity of light in any medium is
expressed as 1) Micro waves - Air craft navigation
2) Radio waves - Cellular phone
0 0 1
1) 2) 3) Gamma rays - Klystron
 
4) Infra red waves - Remote switches

 0 38. The magnetic force per unit length on

3) 4) a wire carrying a current of 10A And
0  0 
making an angle of 45 0 with the
direction of a uniform magnetic field
The dimension of   0 0 
1/2
33. is of 0.20 T is

1)  L T 
1/2 1/ 2
2)  L T 
1 2
1) 2 2 N / m 2) N/m
2
3)  LT  4)  L T 
1 1/ 2 1/ 2

2
34. An electromagnetic wave is propagating 3) N/m 4) 4 2 N / m
2
along x-axis. At x =1 m and t =10 s, its
 39. If a current flows in an n -sided regular
electric vector E  6V / m then the polygon inscribed in a circle of Radius
magnitude of its magnetic vector is R. What is the magnetic field at the
centre?
1) 2  108 T 2) 3 107 T
 0 I.n tan   / n   0 I.n cot   / n 
3) 6 108 T 4) 5  107 T 1) 2)
2R 2R
35. An EM wave is propagating is a medium

with a velocity v  viˆ . The 0 I.n sin   / n   0 I.n cos   / n 
3) 4)
instantaneous oscillating electric field 2R 2R
of this em wave is along +y axis. Then
the direction of oscillating magnetic 40. If the radius of the dees of cyclotron is
field of the em wave will be along r, then the kinetic energy of a proton
of mass m accelerated by the cyclotron
1) - z direction 2) +z direction at an oscillating frequency  is
3) -y direction 4) -x direction
1) 4  2 m 2  2 r 2 2) 4  2 m2 r 2
36. An electromagnetic wave of intensity I
is incident on a non reflecting surface. 3) 2  2 m2 r 2 4)  2 m  2 r 2
If C is the speed of light in free space,
41. A group of electric lamps having a total
I
then the ratio is same as power rating of 1000 watt is supplied
C by an AC voltage E= 200 sin (310t +600).
1) momentum Then the r.m.s. value of the circuit
current is
2) force
3) pressure 1) 10A 2) 10 2A

4) pressure per unit area 3) 20 A 4) 20 2A

FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
42. A radio can tune into any station in CHEMISTRY
the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. The
corresponding wavelength band of it is 46. In a first order reaction takes 32
minutes for 75% completion, the time
1) 45 m to 65 m 2) 25 m to 40m required for 50% completion is : (log 4
= 0.6021)
3) 10 m to 25 m 4) 45 m to 75 m 1) 32 min 2) 16 min
43. In a plane electromagnetic wave 3) 8 min 4) 4 min
electric field varies with time having
47. What is the activation energy for a
an amplitude 1Vm-1. The frequency of
reaction if its rate doubles when the
wave is 0.5×10 15 H z. The wave is
temperature is raised from 20°C to
propagation along X-axis. What is the
35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K, log 2 = 0.3)
average energy density of magnetic
field? 1) 3470 kJ mol–1 2) 34.7 kJ mol–1

1) 1.1×10-12 Jm-3 2) 2.2×10-12 Jm-3 3) 3.47 kJ mol–1 4) 347 kJ mol–1

48. In a zero order reaction for every 10°
3) 3.3 ×10-12 Jm-3 4) 4.4×10-12 Jm-3
rise of te mperature, the rate is
doubled. If the temperature is
44. A circular loop o f area 3m 2 and
increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate
resistance 3 is lying in Y-Z plane. of the reaction will become
The magnetic induction at the location
of the loop varies with time t as 1) 64 times 2) 512 times

B(t)   2t 3  6t 2  ˆi  3t ˆj T . 3) 256 times 4) 128 times

49. The given reaction 2NO  O 2 

 2NO 2
The magnitude of maximum current in
the loop during the interval from t = 0 is an example of
to t =2s 1) first-order reaction

1) 3.5 A 2) 12 A 2) second order reaction

3) third order reaction
3) 4A 4) 6A
4) none of these
45. In a uniform magnetic field of induction
B, a wire in the form of a semicircle of 50. For the reaction 2NO 2  F2 
 2NO 2 F
radius r rotates about the diameter of
following mechanism has be en
the circle with angular frequency  .
provided
If the total resistance of the circuit is
R, the mean power generated per
NO 2  F 2 
slow
 NO 2 F  F
period of rotation is

NO 2  F 
Fast
NO 2 F
 Br 2 2
B r 2 
1) 2) Thus, rate expression of the above
2R 8R reaction can be written as

1) r  K  NO 2   F2  2) r  K  NO 2  F2 
2

 Br   Br  2 2
2

3) 4)
2R 8R 3) r  K  NO 2  4) r  K  F2 
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
51. The rate of elementary reaction, 54. In a first order reaction A  B , if K is
2NO  O2  2NO2 , when the volume of the rate constant and initial
the reaction vessel is doubled concentration of the reactant is 0.5 M,
then half-life is
1) will grow eight times of initial rate
n 2 n 2
2) reduce to one-eighth of its initial 1) 2)
k k 0.5
rate

3) will grow four times of its initial rate log10 2 0.693

3) 4)
k 0.5 k
4) deduce to one-fourth of its initial
rate
55. The rate constants k 1 and k 2 for 2
52. Ethylene is produced by cyclobutane different reactions are 1016 e–2000/T and
as 10 15 e –1000/T , respectively. The
temperature at which k1 = k2 is

C 4 H 8   2C 2 H 4 . The rate constant is
2000
4 1 1) 2) 2000 K
2.48  10 sec . In what time will the 2.303
molar ratio of the ethylene to
cyclobutane in reaction mixture attain
1000
the value 1? 3) 4) 1000 K
2.303
1) 27.25 min 2) 28.25 min
56. Higher order reactions (> 3) are rare
3) 25 min 4) 20 min due to :

53. In the reation 1) Low probability of simultaneous

collision of more than three reacting
species
P + Q 
R S
2) Increase in entropy and activation
energy as more molecules are involved

3) Shifting of equilibrium towards

reactants due to elastic collision

4) Loss of active species on collision

57. The EAN of nickel in [Ni(CO)4] is

the time taken for 75% reaction of P 1) 36 2) 38

is twice the time taken for 50%
reaction of P. The concentration of Q 3) 28 4) 54
varies with reaction time as shown in
the figure. The overall order of the 58. The hybridisation involved in [CoF6]3–
reaction is is

1) 2 2) 3 1) d2sp3 2) d3sp2

3) 0 4) 1 3) dsp3 4) sp3d2
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
59. The ionization isomer of 64. If the crystal field splitting energy for
oct ah ed r al com p l ex es i s  0 and for
 Cr(H 2 O) 4 Cl  NO 2   Cl is
tetrahedral complexes is t , the two
are related as
1)  Cr  H 2 O 4  O 2 N   Cl 2
4 1
1) t  0 2) t  0
2)  Cr  H 2 O 4 Cl2   NO 2  9 2

3)  Cr  H 2 O 4 Cl  ONO   Cl 1 4
3)  0  t 4)  0  t
2 9
4)  Cr  H 2 O 4 Cl 2  NO 2  .H 2 O
65. The ligand which is not bidentate
60. The number of geometric isomers that
can exist for square planar 1) gly 2) dmg

3) dien 4) all
 Pt(Cl)(py)(NH 3 )(NH 2OH) 

is (py =
pyridine): 66. The IUPAC name of the complex
1) 2 2) 3  Pt  NH 3  2 Cl  NH 2 CH 3   Cl is

3) 4 4) 5
1) Diammine (methanamine) chlorido
61. The magnetic moment (spin only) of platinum (II) chloride.

 NiCl4 
2
is 2) Bisammine (methanamine) chlorido
platinum (II) chloride
1) 1.82 BM 2) 5.46 BM

3) 2.82 BM 4) 1.41 BM 3) Diammine chlorido (amino methane)

platinum (II) chloride
62. Which is not a  -bonded complex?
4) Diamminechlorido (methanamine)
1) Zeises salt platinum (II) chloride
2) Ferrocene
67. Out of TiF62 , CoF63 , Cu 2 Cl 2 and NiCl24  (Z
3) Dibenzene chromium
of Ti = 22, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28)
4) Tetraethyl lead the colourless species are

63. The d-electron configurations of Cr2+,

Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+ are d4, d5, d6 and 1) CoF63 and NiCl 24
d7 respectively. Which of the following
will exhibit minimum paramagnetic
2) TiF62 and CoF63
behaviour?

2 2
1)  Cr  H 2 O 6  2)  Mn  H 2 O 6  3) Cu 2 Cl 2 and NiCl 24 

3)  Fe  H 2 O 6 
2
4)  Co  H 2 O 6 
2 4) TiF62  and Cu 2 Cl2
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

68. Which of the following is a homoleptic 73. Which represents calcination?

complex?
1) 2Ag  2HCl   O 
 2AgCl  H 2O
1) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)]
2) [Cr(NH3)3 (H2O)3]Cl3
2) 2Zn  O 2 
 2ZnO
3) [Co  NH 3 5  CO 2 ]Cl3
3) 2ZnS  3O 2 
 2ZNO  2SO 2
4)  Co  en 3  Cl3

69. Fac-Mer isomerism is associated with 4) MgCO 3 

 MgO  CO 2
which of the following types of
complexes? 74. During bessemerisation of copper, the
reaction taking place in the bessemer
1)  MA 3B3  2)  M  A  A 3  convertor is

3)  M  A  A  2  4) [MABCD] 1) Cu 2S  2Cu 2 O 
 6Cu  SO 2

(M is the central metal. A–A is a

symmetrical bidentate ligand. A, B, C 2) Cu 2 O  FeS 
 Cu 2S  FeO
& D are monodentate ligands)
70. What are the units of k for the rate 3) FeO  SiO 2 
 FeSiO 3
law : Rate = k[A] [ B] 2 , when the
concentration unit is mol/L? 4) None of the above
1) s–1 2) s 75. Which of the following pairs of metal
3) L mol–1s–1 4) L2 mol–2 s–1 is purified by Van Arkel method?

71. In the cyanide extraction process of 1) Ni and Zn

silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing
and reducing agents used are 2) Ga and In

1) O2 and CO respectively 3) Zr and Ti

2) O2 and Zn dust respectively
4) Ag and Au
3) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively
76. Before introducing Fe O in blast
4) HNO3 and CO respectively furnace, it is converted to Fe 2O 3 by
roasting so that
72. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is
achieved by
1) it may not be removed as slag with
1) Electrolytic reduction silica

2) Roasting followed by reduction with 2) it may not evaporate in furnace

carbon
3) presence of it may increase the m.p.
3) Roasting followed by reduction with of charge
other metal
4) Roasting followed by self reduction 4) none of the above
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
77. Sulphide ores of metals are usually 81. Z in the following sequence of reaction
concentrated by Froth floation process. is
Which one of the following sulphide
ores offer an exception and is C6 H 6 
HNO3 / H2SO4
Heat
 W 
Zn / HCl
X
concentrated by leaching?

NaNO2
HCl
 Y 
H 2 O/ H3 PO2
Z
1) Argentite

2) Copper pyrite COOH

3) Sphalerite 1)

4) Galena

78. Which one of the following is correct?

2)
1) A mineral can not be an ore

2) An ore can not be mineral OH

3) All minerals are ores 3)

4) All ores are minerals

79. Which of the following statements is Cl

incorrect?
4)
1) Silver glance mainly contains silver
sulphide

2) Gold is found in native state 82. Which of the following is the strongest
base?
3) Zinc blende mainly contain zinc
chloride 1) NH2

4) Copper pyrites is CuFeS2

80. The metal that cannot be obtained by 2) NHCH3

electrolysis of the aqueous solution of
their salts is

3) NH2
1) Ag
CH3
2) Mg

3) Cu
4) CH2NH2
4) Cr
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
85. The correct order of basicity of the
83. CH 3 NH 2  CHCl3  KOH 
 Nitrogen
following compounds is

containing compound + KCl + H2O. The NH

nitrogen containing compound is
I) CH3 C
NH2
1) CH 3  C  N 2) CH 3 NHCH 3
II) CH 3CH 2 NH 2
   
3) CH3  N  C 4) CH 3 N  C III)  CH 3  2 NH

84. The major product obtained when Br2/ O

Fe is treated with:
IV) CH3 C NH2
HN O
1) II > I > III > IV
H 3C CH3
is 2) I > III > II > IV
3) III > I > II > IV
4) I > II > III > IV
HN C O 86. The compound which reacts most
H3C CH3 readily with NaOH to form methanol
is
1)
1)  CH3 4 N I
 
2) CH3OCH3
Br

3)  CH 3  SI 4) (CH3)3CCl
HN C O 3

CH3
87. HCONHR 
POCl3
Pyridine
A  H 2O . A in the
2) above reaction is

1) R–N = C = O
Br
2) R – CH = N–OH

HN C O 3) R–C  N

H3C CH3  
4) R  N  C
3)

Br 88. LiAlH4/ether reduces methyl cyanide

into

HN C O 1) methyl amine

H3C CH3 2) ethyl amine

4)
3) methyl imine

4) ethyl imine
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
89. Which among the following will not BIOLOGY
form Zwitter ion?
91. Which of the following is considered
as the root of any breeding program
SO3H
1) Genetic variability
2) Cross bybridization

1) 3) Hybrid vigour
4) Heterosis
NH2
92. In 1960 to 2000, wheat production
increased from A tonnes to B tonnes
while rice production was from C
COOH
tonnes to D tonnes.
Here A to D refers to

2) 1) A-11 million, B-75 million, C-35

million, D-89.5 million
NH2 2) A-14 million, B-80 million, C-40
million, D-92.5 million

NH2 3) A-35 million, B-89.5 million, C-11

million, D-75 million
3)
CH2 CH COOH
4) A- 40million, B-92.5 million, C- 14
million, D-80 million
4) NH2 – CH2 – COOH
93. SCP production is based on industrial
90. Identify the final product Z effluents so it helps to minimize
1) Environmental pollution
CONH2
2) Production of diseased crop
 X  Y
Br2 /KOH
H2O/
CHCl3 /KOH
3) Nutrient medium for tissue culture
4) All of the above


H2 /Ni
Z 94. Which one of the following combination
would a sugarcane farmer look for in
the sugar cane crop?
NH2 CH2 NH2
1) Thick stem, long internodes, high
sugar content and disease resistant
1) 2)
2) Thick stem, high sugar content and
profuse flowering

NHCH3 CH3 3) Thick stem, short internodes, high

sugar content, disease resistant
3) 4) 4) Thick stem, low sugar content,
disease resistant
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 13
95. The Indian A gricultu ral Research
Institute, New Delhi has released
several fortified vegetable crops that
are rich in vitamins and minerals.
They are
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
97. Given below are a few statements
regarding somatic hybridisation
A) Usually protoplasts of different cells
of the same plant are fused

A) Vitamin-A enriched: Carrot, spinach B) Protoplasts from cells of different

and pumpkin species can be fused

B) Vitamin-C enriched: bitter gourd, C) Treatment of cell with cellulase and

bathua, mustard and tomato pectinase is mandatory

C) Iron and calcium enriched: Spinach D) The hybrid protoplast contains

and bathua characters of only one parental
protoplast
D) Protein enriched: broad beans,
Choose the correct option
french bean and garden pea
1) A and B
Choose the correct option
2) A and C
1) A, B, C and D
3) B and C
2) A, C and D
4) C and D
3) B, C and D
98. To meet the demands of the society,
4) None of these in vitro production of a large number
of plantlets in a short duration is
96. Which of the fo llowing disease practised in forticulture and
resistance enhancement was horticulture industry today. It is called
introduced by mutation in ‘mung bean’
1) Somatic hybridisation
A) Yellow Mosaic virus
2) Micropropagation
B) Powdery mildew
3) Hybridoma technology
C) Black rust 4) Somaclonal variation

Choose the correct option 99. Pomato is somatic hybrid between

1) A and B 1) Tomato and Brinjal

2) A and C 2) Tomato and Bean

3) B and C 3) Potato and Brinjal

4) A, B and C 4) Tomato and Potato

FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
100. Ide ntify the correct pair of 104. Which is incorrect about fermentation?
combinations
1) Toddy is prepared by fermenting
A) Pusa sawani - Resistance to Jassids palm sap
- Okra
2) Propionibacte rium is used in
B) Pusa sem 2 - Resistance to aphids - fermentation of cheese
Brassica
3) Pulled up appearance of dough is
C) Pusa Gaurav - Resistance to aphids due to production of CO2
- rape seed mustard
4) Fermentation in muscles produces
D) Pusa A-4 - Resistance to shoot and alcohol
fruit borer - Bhindi
105. Which one is wrongly matched
1) A and B 2) C and D
1) Detergent - Lipase
3) A and C 4) B and D
2) Fruit juice - Pectinase
101. Which of the following can be used for
cultivation of SCP (like spirulina)? 3) Alcohol - nitrogen
1) Straw 4) Textile - amylase
2) Sewage 106. What woul d happe n if oxyge n
availability to activated sludge flocs is
3) Waste water from potato processing reduced?
plants
1) It will slow down the rate of
4) All of the above
degradation of organic matter
102. The majority of Baculoviruses are used
2) The centre of flocs will become
as biological control agent as
anoxic, which would cause death
1) They are species specific
3) Flocs would increase in size as
2) They have no negative impacts on anaerobic bacteria would grow around
non targets flocs

3) Beneficial insects are being 4) Protozoa would grow in large number

conserved
107. Activated sludge have the ability to
4) All the above settle quickly so that it can

103. Lactic acid bacteria grow in milk and 1) be rapidly pumpe d back from
convert it to curd incre asing its sedimentation to aeration tank
nutritional value by increasing
2) absorb pathogenic bacteria present
1) Vitamin A in waste water, while sinking to the
bottom of the settling-tank
2) Vitamin B6
3) be discarded and anaerobically
3) Vitamin B12 digested

4) Both 1 and 3 4) absorb colloidal organic matter

FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 15
108. Which of the following helps in
absorption of phosphorus from soil by
plants?
1) Nostoc
2) Anabaena
3) Glomus
4) Yeast
109. Which o f the following is most
important characteristics that
Rhizobium, Azospirillum, Azactobacter,
Oscillatoria, Nostoc share?
1) They all are eukaryotes
2) They all forms mycorrhiza
3) They can fix atmospheric nitrogen
4) They are free living atmospheric
nitrogen fixer
110. Which of the following statements is
incorrect about cheese?
1) Cheese is one of the oldest items in
which microbes were used
2) Different varieties of cheese are
known by their characteristic texture,
flavour and taste
3) The requefort cheese are ripend by
growing a specific bacterium on them
4) Large holes in ‘swiss cheese’ are
due to propionibacterium sharmanii
111. A patient brought to a hospital with
myocardial infractio n is normally
immediately given
1) Streptokinase
2) Cyclosporin-A
3) Statins
4) Pencillin
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
112. The main reason why antibiotics could
not solve all the problems of bacterial
diseases is
1) Inactivation of antibiotics of bacterial
enzymes
2) Decreased efficiency of the immune
system
3) The development of mutant strains
resistant to antibiotics
4) Insensitivity of the individual
following long exposure to antibiotics
113. Which of the following is mainly
produced by the activity of anaerobic
bacteria on sewage?
1) Laughing gas
2) Propane
3) Mustard gas
4) Marsh gas
114. G iven below are four state me nts
pertaining to se paration of DNA
fragments using gel electrophoresis.
Identify the incorrect statements
A) DNA is negatively charged molecule
and so it is loaded on well moves
towards the cathod terminal
B) DNA fragments travel along the
surface of the gel whose concentration
does not affect movement of DNA
C) Smaller the size of DNA fragment
large r is the distance it travel s
through it
D) Pure DNA can be visualized directly
by exposing UV-radiation
1) A, C and D
2) A, B and C
3) B, C and D
4) A, B and D
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1]
115. In order to induce the bacterial uptake
of plasmids, the bacteria are made
‘competent’ by first treating with
1) Sodium chloride
2) Potassium chloride
3) Magnesium chloride
4) Calcium chloride
116. The first recombinant DNA was
constructed by linking an antibiotic
resistance gene with the native
plasmid of
1) Escheritia coli
2) Salmonella typhimurium
3) Clostridium butylicum
4) Bacillus thuringiensis
117. Which of the following is used as vector
for cloning genes into higher
organisms?
1) Baculo virus
2) Salmonella typhymurium
3) Rbizopus nigricans
4) Retrovirus
118. A bacterial cell was transformed with
a recombinant DNA that was
generated using a human gene.
However, the transformed cells did not
produce the desired protein. Reason
could be
1) Human gene may have intron which
cannot process
2) Amino acids codons for humans and
bacteria are different
3) Human protein is forme d bu t
degraded by bacteria
4) All of the above
16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
119. How many fragments will be generated
on the digestion of a closed circular
DNA molecule with a re striction
enzyme having six recognition sites on
the DNA?
1) 5 2) 7
3) 6 4) 9
120. Which of the following statements is
not correct regarding EcoRI restriction
endonuclease enzyme?
1) It is isolated from Escherichia coli
RY 13
2) Its re cognition se quence is
5  GAATTC  3
3  CTTAAG  5
3) It produces complementary blunt
ends
4) None of these
121. If you want to recover many copies of
the target DNA, you will choose a
vector
1) Which doe s not have origin of
replication
2) Which has antibiotic genes
3) Whose origin supports high copy
number
4) Which has only one restriction site
122. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
1) Palindromes are group of letters that
form the same words when read both
forward and backward
2) Transformation is a procedure
through which a recombinant DNA is
introduced in to host bacterium
3) Retrovirus in animals have the
ability to transform normal cells in to
cancerous cells
4) DNA is indirectly injected into the
nucleus of a plant cel l by micro-
injection
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
123. When a typical restriction enzyme cuts 126. Which of the following is not used to
a DNA molecule, the cuts are uneven, transfer the recombinant DNA in to the
so that the DNA fragments have single host?
stranded ends. These ends are useful
in recombinant DNA work because 1) Micro-injection method

2) Gene gun method

1) They serve as starting points for
DNA replication 3) Bioreactors

2) Only single stranded DNA segments 4) Disarmed pathogen vectors

can code for proteins
127. Stirred-tank biore actors have
3) They enable researchers to use the advantages over shake flasks because
fragments as molecular probes they

1) Provide high temperature and pH

4) The fragments will bond to other
fragments with complementary ends 2) Provide better aeration and mixing
properties
124. Match the entries in column-I with
those of column-II and choose the 3) do not allow the entry of CO2
correct answer
4) are easy to operate

128. In a polymerase chain reaction after

Column I ColumnII the denaturation step why the mixture
a)
Restriction
i)
Kohler and needs to cool down to a lowe r
endonuclease Milstein temperature?
Polymerase chain
b) ii) Alec Jeffreys
reaction 1) To permit specific annealing of the
c) DNA finger printing iii) Arber primers
d) Monoclonal antibodies iv) Karry Mullis
2) To give a halt to the reaction mixture

3) To increase the activity of enzyme

1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i taq polymerase

2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i 4) To obtain the multiple copies of the

DNA
3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
129. Select the correct statement regarding
4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i an improved variety of transgenic
basmati rice ie, golden rice
125. During isolation of genetic material,
1) It doe s not re quire the use of
the chemical used to precipitate out
chemical fertilisers
the purified DNA is
2) It is completely resistant to all
1) Bromophenol blue insect pest and diseases
2) Chilled ethanol 3) It gives high yie ld but no
characteristic aroma
3) Ethidium bromide
4) It gives high yield and is rich in
4) Both 1 and 3 vitamin A
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
130. Though green revolution has been a 134. Which part of the tobacco plant is
re sounding successor in te rms of infected by Meloidegyne incognitia?
agricultural production, yet it has
failed in its overall social objectives 1) Leaf 2) Stem
because
3) Root 4) Flower
1) It has not succeeded in making
India totally and permanently self- 135. Which of the following is commonly
sufficient in food used as a vector for introducing a DNA
fragment in human lymphocytes?
2) Use agrochemicals becomes very
expensive for Indian farmers as well 1) Retrovirus
as these have harmful effects on
2) Ti plasmid
environment

3) Further increases in yield with 3)  phage

existing varieties are not possible using
conventional breeding 4) pBR322

4) All of these 136. A dicotyledonous plant forms crown gall

when
131. First genetically modified plant
commercially released in India is 1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens comes
in contact with the plant
1) Golden rice
2) Agrobacterium rhizogenes comes in
2) Flavr savr contact with the plant

3) Bt brinjal 3) A specific part of DNA from the Ti

plasmid gets integrated with the plant
4) Bt cotton chromosome

132. Genetically engineered human insulin 4) A specific part of DNA from the Ri
is synthesized with the help of plasmid gets integrated with the plant
chromosome
1) Rhizopus
137. RNA interference which is employed
2) Rabbit/guinea pig in making tobacco plant resistant to
Meloidogyne incognita is essentially
3) E-coli involved in
4) Pseudomonas 1) Preventing the process of replication
of DNA
133. The slow ripening transgenic tomato
was developed in USA by using 2) Preventing the proce ss of
translation of mRNA
1) Antisense RNA technology
3) Preventing the process of splicing of
2) Ribozyme technology
hnRNA
3) Cosuppression silencing approach
4) Preventing the proce ss of
4) Transgene silencing approach transcription
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1]
138. One of the advantages of transgenic
mice is that it is very useful
1) to study vaccine safety
2) introducing new varieties of mice
3) in gene targeting
4) in developing a show piece example
139. Adenosine deaminase deficiency can
be permanently cured by which of the
following methods?
1) Bone marrow transplantation
19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
142. Which of the following molecul ar
diagnostic technique is used to detect
the presence of a pathogen in its early
stage of infection ?
1) Gel electrophoresis
2) Enzyme replacement technique
3) Gene therapy
4) Polymerase chain Reaction(PCR)
143. Which of the following bacteria is not
a source of restriction endonuclease

2) Enzyme replacement therapy 1) Haemophilus influenza

3) Gene therapy at early embryonic
2) Escherichia coli
stages

4) All of these 3) Entamoeba coli

140. Which Indian plants have either been 4) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens

patented or attempts have been made
to patent them by western nations for 144. The site of production of ADA in the
their commercial use? body is

1) Basmati rice 1) Erythrocytes

2) Turmeric 2) Lymphocytes

3) Neem 3) Blood plasma

4) All of these have been targeted
4) Osteocytes
141. Match the following
145. Which of the following steps should be
performed by a person in order to
Column I Column II visualize the bands of DNA fragments
a) Lepidopterans i) Meloidegyne incognitia by using gel electrophoresis ?
b) Dipterans ii) tobacco bud worm, army worm
1) Exposure of DNA fragments to UV
c) Coleopterans iii) Flies, mosquitoes radiations
d) Nematode iv) Beetles
2) Staining with bromophenol blue
followed by exposure to UV radiations
abcd abcd
1) 2) 3) Staining with ethidium bromide
ii iii iv i i ii iii iv
followed by exposure to UV radiations

a bcd a bcd 4) Person can see the bands without

3) 4) staining
iv ii i iii ii iv iii i
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
146. What would happen if vasa deferentia 151. The contraceptive device diaphragm is
of man are cut? never used to :
1) Asthenospermia 2) Azoospermia 1) Insert into the female reproductive
tract
3) Oligospermia 4) Teratospermia
147. During the process of oogenesis, each 2) Cover the cervix during coitus
primary oocyte get surrounded by more
layer of granulosa cells and theca 3) Prevent conception
layer, then called
4) Increase the fertilizing capacity of
1) Graafian follicle sperm

2) Tertiary follicle 152. Find out correct pair

3) Secondary follicle 1) Aqua culture  Pisces, shell fish,
4) Primary follicle aquatic plants

148. At the time of birth female ovary 2) Poultry  Typically includes chicken,
contains: Emu, Ostrich etc

1) Oogonia and primary oocyte 3) Apiculture  Most common species

is Apis dorsata
2) Primary oocyte arrested at
prophase-I stage 4) 70% of World Livestock Population
is in India and England
3) Secondary oocyte arrested at
metaphase 153. Arrange the following events of human
female reproductive cycle in the proper
4) Oogonia, primary follicle, secondary order
follicle, teritiary follicle and graafian
follicle. a – Secretion of FSH, b – Growth
of corpus lute um, c – Growth of
149. How many eggs do you think were
follicle and oogenesis, d – Ovulation,
released if the mother gave birth to
e – Sudden increase in level of LH
identical twins?
1) One 2) Two 1) a – c – e – d – b

3) Three 4) Four 2) c – a – d – b – e

150· Find out the mismatch 3) a – d – c – e – b

1) LH  ovulation and corpus luteum 4) b – a – c – d – e
formation
154. A temporary endocrine gland present
2) FSH  sertoli cells which helps in
in a human female
spermiogenesis
3) Androgen  stimulate 1) Corpus Albicans

spermatogenesis 2) Corpora Cardiaca

4) Progesterone  stimulate follicular 3) Corpus luteum

development
4) Corpora Allata
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
155. Though all persons are vulnerable to
160. Which one of the following events
STDs, their incidences are reported to
immediately follows after the entry of
be very high among persons in the age
a sperm into a secondary oocyte
group of
1) An increase in the permeability of
1) 12 – 18 years 2) 18 – 21 years
the oocyte membrane
3) 21 – 35 years 4) 15 – 24 years
2) First polar body will be released
156. In mammals the ovary is primarily
concerned with 3) A decrease in the metabolic rate of
the oocyte
1) Production of hormone
4) Thickening of the zona pellucida
2) Production of ovum and sex
hormones 161. The layer of uterus which is eroded
during parturition due to placental villi
3) Development of secondary sexual
is
characters
1) Perimetrium
4) All of the above
2) Endometrium
157. Ovulation does not occur during
pregnancy in a human female because 3) Myometrium
1) The follicles are not influenced by 4) Enteron
the level of progesterone in the blood
162. Fraternal twins in man are produced
2) The corpus luteum and placenta when
produce large amount of progesterone
1) Two sperms fertilize an ovum and
3) The corpus luteum generates the first two blastomeres separate from
luteinising hormone each other
4) The embryo produces hormones 2) One sperm fertilizes an ovum and
which retard the production of maternal first two blastomeres separate from
follicle stimulating hormones each other
158. In mammals growing oocytes are 3) Egg develops parthenogenetically
surrounded by nutritive cells called and first two blastomeres separate
from each other
1) granulosa cells 2) Nurse cells
4) Two ova are fertilized simultaneously
3) Germ Cells 4) Tunica
163. Fertilization restores
159. During fertilization, which centriole of
the sperm helps to initial cleavage 1) Haploidy from diploidy
1) Proximal centriole 2) Diploidy from polyploidy
2) Distal centriole 3) Polyploidy from diploidy
3) Ring centriole 4) Diploidy from Haploidy
4) Both 1 and 2
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
167. Which one of the following is the most
164. Which one of the following is the effect
likely root cause why menstruation is
of slightly higher pH on the sperms
not taking place in regularly cycling
1) Sperms become sluggish with short human female?
life
1) Maintenance of the hypertrophical
2) Sperms become less active with endodermal lining
short life 2) Maintenance of high concentration
of sex hormones in the blood stream
3) Sperms become more active with
longer life 3) Retention of well developed corpus
luteum
4) No effect
4) Fertilization of primary oocyte
165. Match the hormones in column I with
168. The technique cal led game te
their function in column II intrafallopian transfer is recommended
for those females

1) Who cannot produce an ovum

Column I Column II
Prepare endometrium 2) Who cannot retain the foetus inside
a FSH 1 uterus
for implantation
Developes female 3) Who cannot provide suitable
b LH 2 secondary sexual
environment for fertilization
characters
Contraction of 4) Whose cervical canal is too narrow
c Progesterone 3
uterine wall to allow passage for the sperms
Development of 169. CuT, LNG-20 and Cu 7 are examples
d Estrogen 4
corpous luteum
for
Maturation of
5
graafian follicle 1) surgical methods of sterilization

2) Intra- uterine devices

1) a-5, b-1, c-4, d-2 3) Contraceptive pills

2) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-2 4) Assisted reproductive technology

3) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-5 170. Find the incorrect match :

4) a-4, b-5, c-2, d-1 1) Amniotic fluid  Protects embryo

from mechanical shock
166. polar bodies are formed during
2) Inner cell mass  Becomes
1) Oogenesis the embryo

2) Spermatogenesis 3)Secondary spermatocyte  Product

of first meiotic division
3) Somatic hybridization
4) Antrum  Fluid filled cavity
4) Spermiogenesis inside the secondary follicle
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
171. During spermatogenesis, at the end of 174. Important component of diary farm
first meiotic division : management

1) spermatogonium will be formed

i) selection of disease resistant breeds
2) four spermatids will be formed
ii) proper feed and water
3) three polar bodies will be formed

4) secondary spermatocytes will be iii) selection of breeds having high

formed yielding potential

172. Consider the following statements iv) cleanliness and hygiene

a) The secretions of bulbourethral
glands help in the lubrication of the 1) i, ii, iii only
penis
2) i, ii, iii, iv
b) The enlarged end of penis called the
glans penis is covered by a loose fold
of skin called foreskin 3) ii, iii, iv only

c) The male sex accessory glands 4) i, iii, iv only

include rete testis, vasa efferentia,
epididymis and vas deferens.
175. Which of the following does not take
d) The male germ cells undergo meiotic place before ovulation :
divisions finally leading to sperm
formation 1) Development of graafian follicle
1) ‘a’ is true, all others are false
2) Proliferation of endometrium
2) ‘a’ and ‘b’ are true, others are false
3) Secretion of FSH by anterior pitu-
3) ‘c’ is false, all others are true
itary
4) All are true
4) Secretion of progesterone by ovary
173. Which of the following group of
reproductive tract infections are
176. In Assisted Reproductive Technology,
completely curable if detected early
the method in which sperm directly
and treated properly?
injected into ovum is known as
1) Chancro id, gonorrhoea, serum
hepatitis 1) IUI

2) PID, Still birth, HIV infection

2) GIFT
3) Trichomoniasis, genital warts,
chlamydiasis 3) ICSI

4) Chl amydiasi s, genital herpes,

syphilis 4) IUT
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

177. Given below is a schematic represen- 179. As long as the mother breast feeds the
tation of hormonal control of male re- infant fully the chances of conception
productive system. Here a, b and c re- are almost nil. Which of the following
spectively are is a suitable explanation?

1) Excess presence of milk ejecting

hormone blocks ovulation and therefore
menstrual cycles do not occur

2) Excess presence of prolactin inhibits

gonadotropin release and therefore
menstrual cycles do not occur

3) Excess presence of thyroxine and

OT inhibit ovulation and therefore
1) GnRH, FSH, LTH menstrual cycles do not occur

2) ICSH, LH, FSH

4) Excess presence of progesterone
3) GnRH, FSH, ICSH inhibits ovulation and the refore
menstrual cycles do not occur.
4) GnRH, LH, FSH
180. Which of the following statement is
178. Which of the following is incorrect
correct about test tube baby?
about male reproductive system

1) The male sex accessory ducts 1) Both fertilization and development

include rete testis, vasa efferentia, are done outside the body
epididymis & vas deferens

2) Primary spermatocytes undergo 2) Rearing of premature baby in an

mitotic divisions finally leading to incubator
sperm formation

3) The male accessory glands include 3) Fertilization and development are

paired seminal vesicles, a prostate done inside the body
gland, & paired bulbourethral glands
4) Fertilization occurs outside the body
4) The secretions of bulbourethral
but development occurs inside the
glands helps in the lubrication of the
womb
penis
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PHYSICS

1. 1

2. 4

3. 1 Magnetic field at a point inside the wire at a distance r  a / 2, from the axis
0 I I a I
of wire is B  r 0 2  0
2a 2
2a 2 4a

Magnetic field at a point outside the wire at distance r = 2a, from the axis of
wire is

0 I  0 I 1  0 I B
B1   .  ; 1
2r 2 2a 4a B 1

 Ig  10 0.1I  0.1 
4. 4 S  G; Ig  I  0.1I G  99  ; S  .99    99  11
 I  Ig  100 I  0.1I  0.9 

5. 1

 0 I 5 5 0 I
6. 4 B 
4R 3 12R

7. 3
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

8. 1    
F  q  V  B  ; F  1.6  1019 5 106 ˆi  0.2iˆ  0.4kˆ ;  3.2  1013 ˆi N


F  3.2  1013 N

9. 3

10. 1

11. 3

12. 1
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

13. 1

14. 3

15. 2

16. 3

NB 2 E2 N 2 B2  4
17. 3   NBv  ;W  t; W 
t R Rt

18. 2

19. 2 initially the inductor offers infinite resistance hence i1  1A

At steady state inductor offers zero resistance and current i2 is 1.25 A is the
battery

20. 1 n =40 turns/cm =4000 turns/m I=1A; B   0 nI

1 B2 1   0 nI 
2
0 n 2 I2
magnetic energy per unit volume ; U B   
2 0 2 0 2

 2 107   4  103   12  3.2 Jm 3

2

21. 3
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

22. 3 e  BV  V  Bsin  v

23. 4 equation of current can be written as

i  2sin100t  2sin 100  120  ; Phase diff  1200

I Peak  2 2  2 2  2 2  cos 120  2A

Ipeak 2
effective value of current ; Irms    2A
2 2

24. 1

25. 4 at resonance XL=XC; Z=R; Pav= I2R

 
2
Q 2 2
Q 2 2 Q/ 3 2
26. 4 U max  capacitor   ; U cap  2U ind   ; U cap   Q
2C 2c 3 2c 3

n  40000
27. 1 n p  200 n s  40000 E p  220V; E s   s  E p   220  44KV
n 200
 p 

Power delivered to load = E s  Is ;

E s Es 2  44000 V 
2

Es     19360 W  19.36 KW
Rs Rs 100  103 

28. 2

29. 2 Power consumed = 25% of peak power

V0 I0 25 VI 1 
cos   V0 I0 ; 0 0 cos   V0 I0 ;cos   1 / 2;  
2 2 100 2 4 3

220
30. 3 VL  VC  50V; I   2.2A
100

dQ dv cv0 300
31. 4 Q  cV i  c  c v 0 cos t ; i rms2  1010   230  4.8 A
dt dt 2 2
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
32. 2

33. 3


  E 6
34. 1 E  6 v / m; B    2 108 T
C 3  10 8

  
35. 2 V  EB

36. 3

37. 3

F 2
38. 2 F  I B sin ;  Bsin   10  0.2  sin 41  N/M
 2

39. 1 The contribution of B at the centre due to any one side is

 2 
  
I n   
B1  0  cos   cos   ;       
4r 2 2 n


 0 I 2sin  
0I        n
B1   cos     cos     
 2 n  2 n   4R cos   
4R cos      
n n


 0 In. tan
Bnet  nB, Bnet  n
2R

 2m  r 2 ; 22 m 2 r 2
2
q 2 B2 r 2 qB
40. 3 K  ;qB  2m; K 
2m 2m 2m
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

41. 2

42. 2

43. 2

44. 4

2 rms  Br 2   1  Br 

22 2
d Br 2
45. 2    sin t; Pav     
dt 2 R  2 2  R 8R

CHEMISTRY

2.303  a 
46. 2 K= log  , when a = 100, x = 75, t = 32
t  a  x 

2.303  100  1
K= log10    0.0433 min
32  25 

0.693 0.693
Time for 50% completion (t1/2) =   16 min
K 0.0433

K2 Ea  1 1  Ea  1 1 
47. 2 log     ; log 2 = 
K1 2.303R  T1 T2  2.303  8.314  293 308 


Ea 15
0.3 = 
2.303  8.314 293  308

0.3  2.303  8.314  293  308

Ea =  34673 Jmol1  34.7 J mol 1
15
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

r t 10 r
 2 for each 10° rise in temperature.  100   2   512
9
48. 2
rt r10

49. 3 Rate = K[NO]2 [O2]1;  O.R  2  1  3

50. 2 Slowest step of mechanism decides the rate expression. Thus rate = K[NO2]
[F 2 ]

51. 2 Rate = K[NO]2 [O2]1

1
Concentration of each species are reduced by on increasing volume to 2
2
times and thus, rate becomes 1/8 times of initial rate.


52. 1 C 4 H 8   2C 2 H 4 ;

Mole at t = 0 a 0

Mole at t = t (a-x) 2x

2x a 2.303 a
when  1, then x  ; t = log
ax 3 K ax

2.303 a
log  1635.2sec  27.25 min
= 2.48  10
4
a
a
3

53. 4  R + S; Given T75% = 2  T50%  for P  . Since t1/2 is independent of

P + Q 
concentration and thus it is first order for P. From graph it is clear that the
reaction is of zero order with respect to Q. [Q]t = [Q]0 - Kt

So overall order will be = 1 + 0 = 1

2.303 log10 2
0.693 ln 2
54. 1 For I order reaction, K = t1 ; t1  
2
2 K K

55. 3 K1  1016 e 2000/T ; K 2  1015 e 1000/T ; if K1 = K2 then, 1016 e 2000/T  1015 e 1000/T

2000 1000 1000

or log10 -  or T  K
T T 2303

56. 1

57. 1 Effective atomic no. (EAN) = at.no.of central atom – oxidation state + 2 
(no. of ligands) = 28 – 0 + 2  4 = 36
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
58. 4 Electronic configuration of CO3+ in [CoF6]3– is

3d 4s 4p 4d
xx xx xx xx xx xx

sp3d2

xx Electron pair donated by F–


59. 2 Cr  H 2O 4 Cl  NO 2   Cl 
  Cr  H 2 O 4 Cl  NO 2    Cl 


Cr  H 2O 4 Cl 2  NO 2 
 Cr  H 2 O 4 Cl 2   NO2

60. 2 All the ligands are monodentate ligand and thus general formula is Ma, b, c, d
having 3 geometrical isomers.

Cl Py Cl NH3
Pt Pt

HOH2N NH3 HOH2N Py

Cl Py
Pt

H3N NH2OH

61. 3 In the paramagnetic and tetrahedral complex [NiCl4]2–, the nickel is in +2

oxidation state and the ion has the electronic configuration 3d8

3d 4p
Ni2+, [Ar]3d8 4s

xx xx xx xx
[NiCl 4 ] 2–

sp3 - hybrid orbitals

 B.M.  n  n  2   2  2  2   8  2.82 B.M.

FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
62. 4 Tetraethyl lead is organometallic compound

63. 4 H2O is weak field ligand, thus Co2+ has only 3 unpaired electron.

64. 1 The crystal field splitting energy in case of tetrahedral complexes where
only four ligands approach the central metal ion causing weak field around
it, is smaller than the crystal field splitting energy of octahedral complexes
where six ligands approach the central metal ion and create a strong field
4
around it. The two are related as  t  0
9

65. 3 Dien is tridentate

H2C H CH2
N

H2C CH2

NH2 NH2

66. 4

67. 4 Ti4+, 3d0 and Cu+, 3d10 can not show d-d transition and thus colourless

68. 4

69. 1

70. 4

71. 2  2Na  Ag  CN  2   Na 2S
Ag 2S  4NaCN 

4Na 2S  5  O 2   2H 2 O 
 2Na 2SO 4  4NaOH  2S

2Na  Ag  CN  2   Zn 
 Na 2  Zn  CN 4   2Ag 

72. 2

73. 4 Calcination involves decomposition of ore to remove volatile impurities

74. 1 This is auto reduction of copper sulphide

75. 3

76. 1 FeO can form slag with SiO2, SiO2 + FeO  FeSiO3

77. 1 Ag, Au are obtained by complex formation

FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
78. 4

79. 3 Zinc blende is ZnS

80. 2 Mg2+ ions are not discharged. On the contrary H+ are discharged

81. 2

NO2 NH2 N2Cl


HNO3 /H 2SO 4
Heat
 
Zn / HCl

NaNO 2 / HCl

H 3 PO 2 / H 2 O

Nitrobenzene Aniline (Y)

(W) (X)

(Z)

82. 4 The lone pair of electron on the nitrogen atom is not involved in any
conjugation

83. 4 The compound is CH 3 N   C  also represented as CH3 N C

84. 1 Bromination (electrophilic substitution) is expected to take place in the left

ring. The electron pair on NH group is expected to activate the ortho and
para positions. As the ortho position in the ring is already blocked by CH3
group, Br atom is likely to come to the para position

85. 2 Compound (1) is maximum basic because the acid formed by accepting H+ is
resonance stabilised to the maximum.

NH2
NH NH2
CH3 C 
H 
 CH3 C 
 CH3 C NH2 

NH2 NH2
NH2

CH3 C NH2

Compound (3) is more basic than compound (2) because the former is
secondary amine while latter is primary amine. The compound (4) is the
least basic in nature.
FT20R/TP/MOD/NEET/[B1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
86. 1 Due to greater electronegativity of N compared to S, compound (a) is more
readily attacked by OH– ion of NaOH compared (C). Both (B) and (D) do not
react with NaOH.


OH   CH 3  N  CH 3 3 I  
 CH3OH   CH3 3 N  NaI  NaOH 

 
87. 4 HCONHR 
POCl3
Pyridine
R  N  C : H2O

88. 2 CH 3CN 

LiAlH 4
 CH 3CH 2 NH 2
ethyla min e

89. 2

90. 3
BIOLOGY
91. 1 106. 2 121. 3 136. 3 151. 4 166. 1

92. 1 107. 1 122. 4 137. 2 152. 1 167. 2

93. 1 108. 3 123. 4 138. 1 153. 1 168. 1

94. 1 109. 3 124. 1 139. 3 154. 3 169. 2

95. 1 110. 3 125. 2 140. 4 155. 4 170. 4

96. 1 111. 1 126. 3 141. 1 156. 2 171. 4

97. 3 112. 3 127. 2 142. 4 157. 2 172. 3

98. 2 113. 4 128. 1 143. 3 158. 1 173. 3

99. 4 114. 4 129. 4 144. 2 159. 1 174. 2

100. 2 115. 4 130. 4 145. 3 160. 4 175. 4

101. 4 116. 2 131. 4 146. 2 161. 2 176. 3

102. 4 117. 4 132. 3 147. 3 162. 4 177. 4

103. 3 118. 1 133. 1 148. 2 163. 4 178. 2

104. 4 119. 3 134. 3 149. 1 164. 3 179. 2

105. 3 120. 3 135. 1 150. 4 165. 2 180. 4