1. What kind of physiological method doing only on people?

A. Examination.
B. Acute experiment
C. Chronic experiment
D. Observation.
2. What kind of physiological method doing only on animals with anesthesia?
A. Observation.
B. Chronic experiment.
C. Acute experiment.
D. Examination.
3. What kind of physiological methods doing only on animals without anesthesia?
A. Observation, acute experiment.
B. Acute experiment, chronic experiment.
C. Examination, acute experiment.
D. Chronic experiment, observation.
4. Іn the nerves cells during the resting membrane potential:
A. K+ goes from the cells; Na+ goes into the cells.
B. Na+ and K+ go from the cells.
C. Na+ and K+ don‘t move.
D. Na+ go into the cells, K+ go from the cells
5. Іn the nerves cells during the local response:
A. Na+ go into the cells.
B. Na+ and K+ go into the cells
C. Na+ and K+ go from the cells.
D. Na+ goes into the cells; K+ goes from the cells.
6. Іn the nerves cells during the depolarization:
A. Na+ and K+ go into the cells..
B. K+ goes into the cells; Na+ goes from the cells.
C. Na+ goes into the cells; K+ goes from the cells.
D. Na+ intensively go into the cells.
7. Іn the nerves cells during the repolarization:
A. K+ intensively go from the cells.
B. Na+ intensively goes into the cells.
C. Na+ goes into the cells; K+ goes from the cells.
D. K+ goes into the cells; Na+ goes from the cells.
8. During the spike in the nerves cells:
A. Na+ and K+ go into the cells.
B. Na+ and K+ go from the cells.
C. Na+ intensively goes into the cells.
D. Na+ and K+ go from the cells.
9. In the nerves cells during the after-hyper polarization:
A. Na+ intensively goes into the cells.
B. Na+ goes into the cells; K+ goes from the cells.
C. K+ go into the cells, Na+ go from the cells.
D. Na+ and K+ go into the cells.
10. What are the more sensitive to epinephrine kind of receptors?
A. a1-adrenergic
B. b2-adrenergic
C. a2-adrenergic.
 D. b1-adrenergic.

11. What are sensitive to epinephrine and norepinephrine kind of receptors?

A. a1-adrenergic.
B. Adrenergic.
C. a2-adrenergic
D. b2-adrenergic
12. What are sensitive to acetylcholine kind of receptors?
A. a-adrenergic.
B. b-adrenergic.
C. cholinenergic
D. nicotinic.

13. What is the kind of inhibition in the case of increase of potassium ions in outer side of
membrane?
A. Presynaptic
B. Postsynaptic
C. Lateral
D. Opposite
14. What is the main ions take place in the development of active potential?
A. Na+.
B. Ca2+
C. K+.
D. Cl-.
15. What is the inhibitory mediator of interneurons of spinal cord?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Glycin
C. Epinephrine
D. Glutamine acid
16. What energetic process will provide the muscles of a runner with enough energy, so he
would be able to run for 7-8 seconds:
A. Oxidizing phosphorilising
B. Disintegration of ATP.
C. Anaerobic glicolysis.
D. resynthesis of ATP from phosphocreatine.
17. What is an obligatory condition in order for muscles to contract?
A. decrease of concentration of ATP in mioplasm
B. Activity of calcium pump.
C. Increase of concentration of Ca ions in mioplasm.
D. Increase of concentration of ATP in mioplasm
18. What is the main excitive mediator of neurons?
A. Glycin
B. Glutamine acid
C. Acetylcholine
D. Epinephrine

19. In what phase K+ get to the out cellular space and detain a peak slump?
A. Track depolarization
B. Depolarization
 C. Repolarization
D. Track hyperpolarization
20. It is known, that the foxglove drugs block the work of Na+/K+-pump in cardiomiocytes.
What processes will take place in the cells of cardiac muscle if the patient uses these
drugs regularly?
A. Intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase;
B. An electrochemical gradient of transmembranal flow of Na+ will decrease;
C. Activity of the Na+- Ca++ exchange will decrease;
D. Concentration of intracellular Ca++ will increase;

21. As a result of co-operation of lygand with receptors there is education:

A. Second messengers
B. Substance P
C. Acetyl cholinesterase
D. Phospholipase C
22. Power, that develops a muscle, is insufficient for rising of definite weight. What type of
contraction of muscle in this case takes place?
A. All answers are incorrect.
B. Tetanic;
C. Isotonic;
Isometric;
23. What is the state of sodium and potassium channels of membrane of excitable cage, if
there is rest potential on her?
A. Sodium is opened, potassium is closed
B. Potassium is opened
C. Potassium is opened, sodium is closed
D. Sodium is closed

24. In a nerve axon, which phase of the action potential is caused by the inactivation of the
Na+ channels?
A. Upstroke
B. Downstroke
C. Absolute refractory period
D. Undershoot
25. At action of metabolotropic mediators on a postsynaptic membrane by activating of
specific enzymes there is activating:
A. Second messengers
B. Mediators
C. Na+ channels
D. K+ channels
26. The depolarization answer of neuron for excitation is named:
A. Potential of eventual plate
B. Potential of initial segment
C. Excitability postsynaptic potential
D. Rest potential
27. The place of primary generation of action potential is in a neuron:
A. Axon
B. Eventual plate
C. Dendrites
 D. Axon hillock
28. The role of the reverse braking consists in:
A. Creating a contrast in the sensory systems.
B. Self-regulation of excitation of neurons.
C. concerted work of motoneurons of muscles-antagonists
D. Complete exception of information to the neuron
29. It is known, that pupilar reflex (narrowing of eye pupil) can be caused by not only a light
irritant but also by pain action. What principle of spreading of excitation arises here?
A. Divergence.
B. Irradiation.
C. oclusion.
D. Convergence.
30. The features of transmission of excitation in central synapses are:
A. One-sided conducting, transformation of rhythm, irradiation
B. Bilateral conducting, slow conducting, sumation
C. One-sided conducting, slow conducting, sumation
D. One-sided conducting, slow conducting, concentration
31. After a neuron theory, a brain is considered to be a functional union of neurons. What
structural element of neuron provides such an important function of nerve system as
memory and study?
A. Presynaptic end of axon
B. Dendrits.
C. Axons.
D. Soma of the cell.
32. The nervous ending part of muscle fiber and crack make together between them:
A. Neuromotor unit
B. Synapse
C. Reflect arc
D. Nervous center
33. What is a mediator of presynaptic braking?
A. Adrenalin
B. GABA.
C. Serotonin
D. Acetilcholin
34. What principle of spreading of excitation makes it possible that the quantity of sensible
neurons on which this excitation gets to CNS about 20 times exceeds the quantity of
motive neurons at the level of spinal cord?
A. oclusion.
B. Divergence
C. Irradiation.
D. Convergence.
35. Education in which information is spread due to the transmition of bioelectric signal
from cell to cell is?
A. Electric synapse
B. Neuromotor unit
C. Sincitive
D. Chemical synapse
36. How is an active spreading of excitation in CNS called:
A. oclusion.
 B. Divergence.
C. Irradiation.
D. Convergence

37. How is the circulation of excitation on the reserved chains of neurons called?
A. Reverberation.
B. Divergence.
C. oclusion.
D. Dominant.
38. During the experiment on the „spinal frog” the posterior roots of spinal cord were cut.
The lengthening of posterior extremity on the side of the cut was noticed. What type of
reflexes disappears here?
A. Skin reflex
B. Tendon reflex;
C. miotatic reflex;
D. Rhythmic reflex;
39. What receptors are the initial link of brake reflexes which prevent an extra contraction
of muscles, which could result in the break of tendon?
A. Muscular fibres;
B. Goldgi Organs in tendons;
C. Receptors in joints
D. Receptors in joints and muscles
40. Which one of propriospinal reflexes of a man is the most informing after the damage of
spinal cord in the level of ІІІ - IV segments of lumbar section?
A. Reflex from an caviar tendon;
B. Reflex from the tendon of m.flexor antebrachii
C. Reflex from the tendon of tricipital muscle of shoulder
D. Knee reflex;
41. During the stretch of muscle as a result of irritation (a hit of a neurological hammer on a
tendon) the reaction is observed and muscle contracts, that results in reduction of its
stretch. What receptor parts of motive analyzer become excited?
A. Receptors in joints;
B. Goldgi Organs in tendons
C. Muscular fibers;
D. Receptors in muscles
42. What mediator that is synthesized by the neurons of black matter provides motive
activity and regulation of plastic tonus of muscles?
A. Dopamin;
B. Acetylholine
C. GABA
D. Noradrenalin
43. Decerebrative rigidity is the state with the sharp rise of tonus of extensors. What roots
of spinal cord must be cut, in order to vanish this rigidity? Why?
A. Posterior roots. Impulsation from gamma-motoneurons to the intrafusal fibres
is stopped;
B. Anterior roots. Impulsation from motoneurons to the extrafusal fibres is
stopped;
C. Anterior and posterior roots. Eferent and aferent impulsation is stopped;
D. Middle roots. Efferent and afferent impulsation is stopped
44. While conducting an experiment, after the damage of motive cortex of an animal, the
paralysis of muscles on the opposite (to the hemisphere of the brain) side of body was
observed. What tract provides the transmission of impulses from the cerebral cortex to
the muscles of opposite side of body?
A. Spino-thalamic;
B. Rubro-spinal;
C. Pyramid;
D. Thalamo-cortical;
45. Why in the gyrus precentralis over 50 % of surface reflects the motion centers of facial
muscles and fingers of hands?
A. there are plenty of muscles-antagonists;
B. Because there are plenty of muscles;
C. Because muscles execute difficult functional motions;
D. All answers are faithful
46. The layer of connective tissue that separates the muscle tissue into small sections is
called the ______________.

a. aponeuroses
b. epimysium
c. perimysium
d. endomysium

47. The segment of a myofibril that is called a sarcomere runs from _______________.
A. one Z line to the next Z line
B. one H zone to the next H zone
C. one A band to the next A band
D. one end of a skeletal muscle to the opposite end

48. The ______________ are an invagination of the muscle cell's sarcolemma.

a) sarcoplasmic reticula
b) transverse (T) tubules
c)cisternae
d) microtubules
49. Into what does the neuron release its neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

a) motor end plate

b) cytoplasm of the muscle cell
c) cisternae
d) synaptic cleft
50. A motor unit is made up of _______________.

a) all the muscle fibers within a given muscle

b) a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
c) all the neurons going into an individual section of the body
d) a fascicle and a nerve

51. The crossbridges involved in muscle contraction are located on the ________________.
 a) myosin myofilaments
b) actin myofilaments
c) tropomyosin
d) dystrophin

52. Which of the following does not belong with the others?
a) multinucleated
b) skeletal
c) striated
d) involuntary

53. Each muscle fiber is directly surrounded by connective tissue called the _____.

a) perimysium
b) fascia
c) endomysium
d) epimysium

54. Which description of muscle contraction means that all of the fibers within a muscle are
fully contracted?

a) all-or-none law
b) summation
c) tetanic
d) muscle twitching

55. Muscles that are not used, may degenerate or undergo a process of _____.

a) Atrophy
b) Hypertrophy
c) Fatigue
d) tetany

56. Saltatory conduction:

a. occurs in unmyelinated nerve fibers.

b) may reach up to 120 meter / second.
c) occurs by jumping from one neuron to another
d) decreases gradually with distance till it disappears.

57. In all or non rule:

a) A minimal stimulus produces a maximal response.
b) The response in a single nerve fiber increases with increase intensity of stimulus.
c) The nerve trunk either respond maximally or not respond at all.
d) Minimal stimulus produces minimal response
58. Muscle fatigue is due to:

a) Inability of the action potential to spread over the muscle.

b) Failure of transmission in the motor nerve.
 c) Failure of neuro-muscular transmission.
d) Depletion of energy stores.

59. Ca ions involved in contraction of skeletal

muscle enters the sarcoplasm from
a. from the intercellular space
b. from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. of the vesicles of the nerve endings
d. from the synaptic cleft
60. Pessimum -
a) fatigue
b) inhibition
c) reduction of a long summation
d) reduction of the residual after the operation

61. The role of cholinesterase in the

Neuromuscular junction
a) cleaves acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft
b) promotes the synthesis of acetylcholine
c) interaction with acetylcholine provides chemoreceptors
g) inactivates chemoreceptors

62. Which muscle tissue physiological regeneration takes place in the form of
compensatory hypertrophy?

a) the smooth muscle tissue;

b) cardiac muscle tissue;
c) skeletal muscle tissue;
d) of the myoepithelial muscle tissue.

63. Smooth Muscle is not cross striated because:

a. Myosin and actin in the myofibril
b) Myofibrils are in register with each other
c) Myofibrils are not in register with each othe
d) It has gap junctions

64. The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood
pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the:

a) hypothalamus
b) pons
c) cerebru
d) medulla oblongata
65. Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:

a) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

b) the thalamus
c) the hypothalamus
d) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
66. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to
innermost layers of the meninges:

a) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

b) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
c) arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
d) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater

67. Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the:

a) lumbar plexus
b) sacral plexus
c) femoral plexus
d) obturator plexus

68. The peripheral nervous system consists of:

a) the spinal and cranial nerves

b) the brain and spinal cord C) spinal nerves only
c) cranial nerves only
d) the brain only

69. The cerebrospinal fluid:

a. enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid
space
b. is secreted by the arachnoid villi
c. is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles
d. is continually formed mostly by the choroid plexuses

70. The term central nervous system refers to the:

a) spinal cord and spinal nerves

b) brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
c) brain and cranial nerves
d) brain and spinal cord

71. Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc:

a) receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, integration center, effector

b) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
c) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
d) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor

72. Which of the following sensory receptors is a touch receptor:

a) Golgi tendon organ

b) Pacinian corpuscle
 c) Meissnerʹs corpuscle
d) muscle spindles

73. The gray matter of the spinal cord:

a) surrounds the white matter of the spinal cord
b) surrounds the central canal
c) contains myelinated fiber tracts
d) always carries sensory information to the brain

74. The subarachnoid space lies directly between the:

a) arachnoid mater and cerebellum

b) arachnoid mater and cerebrum
c) skull and arachnoid mater
d) arachnoid mater and pia mater

75. Which of the following is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord?
a) Dopamine
b) Glycine
c) Gama-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
d) Acetylcholine
76. The major excitatory transmitter in the spinal cord is which of the following?
a) Gama-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
b) Glycine
c) Aspartate
d) Glutamate

77. Inhibitory neurotransmitters increase the post synaptic conductance of which of the
following?
a) Magnesium
b) Sodium
c) Chloride
d) Calcium

78. What kind of peripheral nerve fiber carries motor impulses outward to smooth muscles
and glands of internal organs?
a. general somatic efferent fibers
b. general visceral efferent fibers
c. general somatic afferent fibers
d. general visceral afferent fibers

79. Which tract would be most likely to carry sensory impulses from the skin and joints to
the brain?
a. fasciculus gracilis
b. corticospinal tracts
c. reticulospinal tracts
d. rubrospinal tracts

80. The cell body of all sensory neurons is located within the:
 a. brain
b. spinal cord
c. dorsal root ganglion
d. dorsal gray horn

81. The ___________ is the outermost meninx, and forms supportive and protective
partitions between some portions of the brain.
A) dura mater
B) arachnoid mater
C) pia mater
D) denticulate mater

82. The portion of the brain involved in understanding speech and using words is
located in the ____________ of the cerebrum.
A) frontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe

83. When a person thinks and solves problems, which area of the cerebrum is involved?
A) frontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe

84. The _________________ is a portion of the brain that maintains homeostasis by linking activities of
the endocrine and nervous systems together.
A) thalamus
B) hypothalamus
C) infundibulum
D) mammillary body

85. Which of these nuclei is not located entirely within the medulla oblongata?
A) cardiac center
B) vasomotor center
C) respiratory center
D) reticular formation

86. The smallest pair of cranial nerves that arise from the midbrain and carry motor impulses to the
superior oblique muscles of the eye are the ______________ nerves.
A) trochlear
B) abducens
C) facial
D) optic

87. Which pair of cranial nerves are mixed nerves that supply the chest and abdomen with autonomic
nerves?
A) trigeminal nerves
 B) accessory nerves
C) vagus nerves
D) hypoglossal nerves

88. Which structures would not be innervated by the sympathetic nervous system?
A) skeletal muscle
B) glands
C) smooth muscle
D) cardiac muscle

89. Parkinson disease tremors are the result of which condition?

A) dopamine excess
B) norepinephrine deficiency
C) epinephrine excess
D) dopamine deficiency

90. The connection between the third and fourth ventricle is called the _____.
A) interventricular foramen
B) cerebral aqueduct
C) foramen of Monro
D) hypothalamu

91. Breathing centers accessory to the medulla are located in which brain area?
A) cerebellum
B) pons
C) hypothalamus
D) midbrain

92. Where are visual and auditory reflexes centered?

A) medulla
B) pons
C) diencephalon
D) midbrain

94. Which brain area acts to regulate body temperature?

A) thalamus
B) cerebrum
C) hypothalamus
D) cerebellum

95. Which brain area acts to screen all incoming sensory data?
A) cerebral cortex
B) medulla
C) cerebellum
D) thalamus

96. Emotional responses and attitudes are associated with which brain area?
 A) limbic system
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebellum
D) cerebrum

97. Which brain area coordinates skeletal muscle movements?

A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) medulla
D) hypothalamus

98. Heavy pressure and vibrations stimulate ________________.

A) proprioceptors
B) baroreceptors
C) Meissner'scorpusles
D) Pacinian corpuscles

99. What type of somatic receptor lies within tendons close to the point of attachment to
muscles and is stimulated by increased muscular tension?
A) Golgi tendon organ
B) muscle spindle
C) free nerve ending
D) Meissners corpuscle

100. Why do odors sometimes alter our moods?

A) Because sensory input from olfaction is routed through the limbic system.
B) Because odors act as neurotransmitters and alter brain chemistry.
C) Because odors are satisfying to our sense of hunger.
D) Odors do not alter mood.

101. The ability to sense body position is related to _____ receptors.

A) general
B) pain
C) pressure
D) proprioceptors

102. The area of the brain that integrates proprioceptor data is the:
A) cerebrum
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebellum
D) medulla oblongata

103. Which cranial nerve does not innervate eye muscles?

A) III
B) trochlear
C) abducens
D) II

104. The actual receptors for hearing and balance are the _____.
 A) mechanoreceptors
B) otoliths
C) cochlear cells
D) hair cells

105. Abrupt changes in personality due to a head injury would most likely be related to
A) damage in the occipital lobe.
B) damage in the temporal lobe.
C) damage in the frontal lobe.
D) damage in the parietal lobe.

106. A conscious, awake adult is subjected to an electroencephalograph. An excessively high

number of delta waves are observed. This may indicate
A) severe emotional distress.
B) brain damage.
C) relaxation.
D) concentration.

107. A lack of fear may be associated with injury to

A) the caudate nucleus.
B) Broca's area.
C) the amygdala.
D) theseptal nuclei.

108. The ability to convert short-term memories to long-term memories depends on the
actions of
A) the hypothalamus.
B) the medial temporal lobe.
C) the corpus callosum.
D) prefrontal cortex.

109. Melatonin is secreted by a gland found in the

A) epithalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) neurohypophysis.
D) thalamus.

110. Ataxia results due to damage of the

A) corporaquadrigemina.
B) pons.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.

111. Fine sensations of touch are transmitted by the

A) anteriorspinothalamic tract.
B) posteriorspinocerebellar tract.
C) fasciculus gracillis.
D) lateralspinothalamic tract.
112. Thermal sensations from the left foot may not be detected if
A) the right thalamus was ablated.
B) the left cervical spinal cord was damaged.
C) the left medulla oblongata was damaged.
D) all of the above.

113. Movements of the eyes would be affected by damage to the

A) abducens nerve.
B) oculomotor nerve.
C) trochlear nerve.
D) all of the above.

114. Motor impulses are transmitted by

A) dorsal roots of spinal nerves.
B) dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves.
C) ventral roots of spinal nerves.
D) none of the above.

115. Reflex arcs

A) require the actions of the brain.
B) require the actions of the peripheral nervous system.
C) always include an interneuron.
D) all of the above.

116. Which of these is not a method the body uses to regulate its hormonal releases?
A) negative feedback
B) direct nervous stimulation
C) release of tropic hormones
D) degradation of the endocrine glan

117. Where are the posterior pituitary hormones manufactured?

A) inneurosecretory cells that originate in the hypothalamus
B) in the posterior pituitary
C) in the anterior pituitary
D) in the brain stem

118. There are several types of cells in the anterior pituitary. Which ones secrete growth
hormone?
A) mammatropes
B) gonadotropes
C) corticotropes
D) somatotropes

119. Which one of these anterior pituitary hormones shows increased secretion in response to
stress?
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) luteinizing hormone
 D) prolactin

120. Drinking alcoholic beverages on hot days is not safe because alcohol inhibits the release of
____________ which normally helps to conserve water during dehydration.
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) oxytocin
C) thyroxine
D) triiodothyronine

121. The thyroid hormones are responsible for regulating metabolic rate and calcium and
phosphate ion concentration in the blood. Which thyroid hormone lowers calcium and
phosphate ion concentration in the blood?
A) thyroxine
B) triiodothyronine
C) calcitonin
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone

122. Hypothyroidism in infants can result in _______________.

A) Grave's disease
B) cretinism
C) Hashimoto's disease
D) myxedema

123. The hormone _______________, which is secreted by the adrenal _______________,

causes the kidney to conserve sodium and excrete potassium ions and indirectly helps to
maintain systemic blood pressure.
A) aldosterone; cortex
B) angiotensin I; medulla
C) cortisol; cortex
D) epinephrine; medulla

124. Sex hormones are secreted by ________________.

A) all endocrine tissues of the body
B) the inner cortex of the adrenal medulla
C) the inner cortex of the adrenal medulla and the gonads
D) the gonads

125. In the pancreas, ______________ cells secrete insulin, which ____________ blood levels
of glucose.
A) delta; raises
B) alpha; lowers
C) beta; raises
D) beta; lowers

126. The endocrine gland responsible for the body's circadian rhythm is the ______________
gland.
A) thymus
B) pineal
C) parathyroid
 D) pituitar

127. Which of these is not an endocrine property?

A) hormones reach targets through the blood
B) effects are slow and cyclic
C) rapid acting effects
D) effects caused by chemicals

128. Which of these is not an endocrine gland?

A) pancreas
B) testes
C) salivary gland
D) parathyroid

129. Which is not a function of the hypothalamus?

A) affect heart rate
B) control temperature
C) affect water balance
D) *secrete FS

130. Which of these hormones is made by the posterior pituitary?

A) FSH
B) LH
C) ACTH
D) ADH

131. Which hormone directly affects blood pressure?

A) ADH
B) insulin
C) PTH
D) ACTH

132. The hormone _____ causes the contractions of labor.

A) prolactin
B) estrogen
C) oxytocin
D) progesterone

133. Which hormone has the greatest influence on the ability to secrete milk?
A) oxytocin
B) estrogen
C) prolactin
D) progesterone

134. Which hormone causes excessive skeletal growth or giantism?

A) somatotropin
B) testosterone
C) insulin
D) somatostatin
135. Which of these does not directly stimulate the gonads?
A) FSH
B) TSH
C) LH
D) ICSH

136. Which hormone has the greatest effect on metabolism?

A) GH
B) thyroxine
C) TSH
D) ACTH

137. The primary sex organ in the male is the _____.

A) penis
B) testis
C) scrotum
D) epididymis

138. Where do the testes originate in a fetus?

A) scrotal sac
B) pelvic cavity
C) abdominal cavity
D) retroperitoneal space

139. Spermatogenesis is a function of the _____.

A) tunicaalbuginea
B) rete testis
C) seminiferous tubule
D) seminal vesicle

140. What is the source of the male sex hormones?

A) epididymis
B) vas deferens
C) seminiferous tubules
D) interstitial cells

141. Which structure contains lysosomal-like enzymes?

A) Sertoli cells
B) sperm head
C) acrosome
D) sperm tai

142. The main function of the prostate seems to be _____.

A) spermatogenesis
B) production of glycogen
C) secretion of alkaline mucus
D) maturation of sperm cells
143. Infertility could develop when the sperm cells display _____.
A) a count of 120 million per ml semen
B) increased acrosomal activity
C) normal morphology
D) a count of less than 20 million per ml semen

144. How many oocytes are there in the ovaries of an adult?

A) fewer than 400
B) 10 million
C) 50 million
D) 400,000

145. The female Bartholin glands correspond to the male _____.

A) prostate
B) Cowper's
C) seminal vesicle
D) glan

146. Which hormone stimulates the secondary female sex organs?

A) FSH
B) LH
C) GnRH
D) estroge

147. Which of these is not a function of estrogen?

A) decreases adipose
B) breast development
C) increased skin blood vessels
D) enlarges clitoris

148. What area experiences the greatest changes in a menstrual cycle?

A) vagina
B) perimetrium
C) cervix
D) endometrium

149. Which factor causes the act of ovulation?

A) blood pressure
B) LH levels
C) FSH levels
D) estrogen

150. Where is the majority of progesterone produced?

A) Graafian follicle
B) corpusluteum
C) secondary follicle
D) adrenal cortex

151. Which hormone is produced throughout a menstrual cycle?

 A) FSH
B) estrogen
C) LH
D) progesterone

152. What factor will inhibit LH secretion?

A) FSH
B) progesterone
C) estrogen
D) LH

153. Which of the following is the most accurate sequence of hormones?

A) FSH, LH, estrogen, progesterone
B) LH, FSH, estrogen, progesterone
C) FSH, estrogen, LH, progesterone
D) FSH, estrogen, progesterone, LH

154. Which hormone thickens the lining of the uterus?

A) FSH
B) *estrogen
C) LH
D) progesterone

155. Which hormone causes the uterus to increase glycogen?

A) progesterone
B) FSH
C) LH
D) estrogen

156. The shedding and bleeding of the decidua during menses is directly caused by low levels of
_____.
A) FSH
B) LH
C) sex steroids
D) GnRh

157. Which of the following is not a result of menopause?

A) loss of hormones
B) reduction in breast mass
C) increase in calcium deposition
D) psychological changes

158. When are HCG levels the highest?

A) before pregnancy
B) first days of gestation
C) second month of pregnancy
D) end of pregnancy
159. What is the source and function of HCG?
A) uterus; cause labor
B) ovary; stimulates FSH
C) placenta; inhibits LH
D) placenta;

160. Which of these is not produced by the placenta?

A) estrogen
B) relaxin
C) progesterone
D) lactogen

161. Which hormone initiates and sustains labor contractions?

A) estrogen
B) HCG
C) relaxin
D) oxytocin

162. The contraction of the myoepithelial breast cells is stimulated by _____.

A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) oxytocin
D) prolactin

163. The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as
__________ while the shallow grooves are termed __________.
A) sulci; gyri
B) tracts; ganglia
C) ganglia; gyri
D) gyri; sulci

164. Lobe movements:that contains the primary motor area that enables voluntary control of
skeletal muscle

A) frontal lobe
B) occipital lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) diencephalon
165. The area of the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is
the:
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) reticular activating system (RAS)
D) pineal gland E) limbic system

166. Afferent nerves are called __________, and motor nerves are called __________.
A) peripheral nerves; cranial nerves
B) sensory nerves; efferent nerves
C) cranial nerves; peripheral nerves
D) motor nerves; sensory nerves

167. Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the:

A) hypothalamus
B) cerebrum
C) midbrain
D) cerebellum

168. The olfactory area is found within the:

A) occipital lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) frontal lobe
D) temporal lobe

169. The nerve that contains sensory fibers that are involved in hearing is:
A) cranial nerve VIII
B) cranial nerve II
C) cranial nerve IX
D) cranial nerve III

170. Preparing the body for the ʺfight-or-flightʺ response during threatening situations is the
role of the:
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) somatic nervous system
C) cerebrum
D) afferent nervous system

171. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes:

A) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood
pressure
B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood
pressure
C) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood
pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood
pressure
172. Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system:
A) increases metabolic rate
B) stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration
C) decreases heart rate
D) decreases urine output

173. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the:
A) diencephalon
B) brain stem
C) pineal gland
D) hypothalamus
174. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord,
going from superior to inferior:
A) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
B) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
C) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
D) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves

175. The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath around the:

A) nucleus
B) cell body
C) axon
D) nodes of Ranvier

176. Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions
associated with the:
A) thalamus
B) cerebellum
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla oblongata

177. What is the primary purpose of the spinal cord ?

a) To transmit electrical signals between the brain and the rest of the body
b) To transmit electrical signals around the brain
c) To produce CSF
d) To facilitate the communication between the two hemispheres

178. What is the purpose of the blood-brain barrier ?

a) It protects the peripheral nervous system

b) It transmits potentially hazardous chemicals into the brain safely
c) It supplies nutrients while pretending hazardous chemicals from reaching the brain
d) It transmits electrical signals between neurons

179. The corpus callosum separates and joins which two structures ?

a) the meninges
b) the autonomic and somatic nervous system
c) the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
d) the left and right hemispheres of the brain

180. The parasympathetic nervous system attempts to restore which of the following ?

a) CSF
b) Excitation
c) Homeostasis
d) Fight
181. The sensory, or afferent, division of the peripheral nervous system transmits
information from the __________ to the CNS.

1. heart

2. kidney

3. stomach

4. skin

182. Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?

1.Abducens
2.Hypoglossal
3. Olfactory
4. Vagus

183. When we are awake and very alert, what types of waves does the EEG normally show?

1. Delta
2. Beta
3. Alpha
4. Theta

184. Which of the following occurs during slow wave sleep?

1. Increased release of melatonin

2. Increased blood flow to the cerebral cortex
3. Increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
4. Increased skeletal muscle tone

185. Typically, when does the first period of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occur after the
onset of slow wave sleep?

1. 15 minutes
2. 30 minutes
3. 60 minutes
4. 90 minutes

186. As sleep cycles progress over the course of an average night, the amount of time spent in
REM sleep?

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Becomes zero (REM sleep eventually drops out of the sleep cycle)
4. Doesn't change much

187. What hormone is released in high amounts during the first few hours of sleep?

1. Cortisol
2. Growth hormone
3. Testosterone
4. Melatonin

188. In a new born baby, how much of their daily sleeping time is spent in REM sleep?

1. None, as REM sleep does not occur until the baby is much older
2. 10 percent
3. 25 percent
4. 50 percent

189. In old age, what type of sleep shows the greatest decline, and may drop out of the sleep
cycle completely?

1. Slow wave sleep stage 2

2. REM sleep
3. Slow wave sleep stage 1
4. Slow wave sleep stages 3 and 4

190. Where abouts in the brain would you find the reticular formation?

1. Cerebellum
2. Brainstem
3. Thalamus
4. Hypothalamus

191. When Frederic Bremer made a lesion to the base of the brainstem where it joined the
spinal cord, what did he find?

1.It had no effect on cycles of sleep and waking

2.It increased the proportion of slow wave sleep during sleeping
3.Animals slept at the "wrong" time of the day
4.It abolished the cycles of sleep and waking.

192. Where in the brain would you find the locus coeruleus?

1. The thalamus
2. The medulla
3. The pontine region of the brainstem
4. The ventral tegmental region
193.
The raphe nuclei contain neurons that contain what neurotransmitter?

1.Noradrenaline
2. Serotonin
3. Acetylcholine
4. Histamine

194.
When we are awake, our EEG shows what type of activity?

1. Alpha and beta waves

2. Delta and theta waves
3. Alpha and theta waves
4. Delta and beta waves

195. Which of the following occurs during slow wave sleep?

1. Increased blood flow to the cerebral cortex

2. Increased parasympathetic activity
3. Increased sympathetic activity
4. Decreased parasympathetic activity

196.
When people are woken up during REM sleep, what do they generally report?

1. Dreaming
2. That they were awake but dozing
3. Feeling dizznes
4. Feeling sadness

197. How many stages of slow wave sleep are there?

1. Six
2. Four
3. Eight
4. Twelve

198.
In new born babies, the proportion of their sleep which is REM sleep is approximately?

1. 50%
2. 5%
3. 85%
4. 95%

199.
Early research by Jouvet indicated that damage to the locus coeruleus abolished what type of
sleep?
1. REM sleep
2. Slow wave sleep
3. Both
4. No wave sleep

200.
What brain structure has been implicated in the fatal condition of familial insomnia?

1. The medulla
2. Anterior thalamus
3. Cerebellum
4. Hypothalamus

201. The disorder where people experience sudden attacks of sleep is known as?

1.Insomnia
2. Catalepsy
3. Narcolepsy
4. Night apnoe

202. What is the name of the pathway that conveys light information to the pineal gland in
humans?

1. Optic radiations
2. Superior cervical ganglion
3. Vagus
4. Cerebral cortex

203. Taste receptors are called

1. taste buds.
2. gustatory receptors.
3. olfactory receptors.
4. taste pores.

204. The muscle responsible for the change of the shape of the lens is the

1. arrector pili muscle.

2. orbicularis oculi.
3. ciliary muscle.
4. superior rectus muscle.
205. The layer that contains photoreceptors is the
1. iris.
2. retina.
3. sclera.
4. cornea.

206. The area containing the highest concentration of cones is the

1. fovea centralis.
2. optic disc.
3. macula lutea.
4. iris.

207. The clear jellylike substance behind the lens of the eye is the
1. aqueous humor.
2. cellular body.
3. ciliary body.
4. vitreous humor.

Sounds are
detected by
_____-
208.
receptors.
Achemo
)
1. mechano
2. thermo
3. mechano

4. photo
 209. A nociceptor is a type of _____ receptor.
1. mechano
2. photo
3. chemo
4. pain
35.210. Pressoreceptors respond to changes in stimuli such as
_____.
1. pressure around the arms
2. pressure within a vessel
3. intensity of light variations
4. increases in sound levels
211. Sensory adaptation occurs when stimuli become _____.
1. gradually ignored
2. increased in intensity
3. lessened in intensity
4. forgotten
212. Stimulation of a _____usually results in pain.
1. Meissner corpuscle
2. Pacinian Corpuscle
3. visceroceptor
4. free nerve ending

213. Light skin touch is sensed by _____ receptors.

1. Pacinian
2. Meissner
3. free nerve endings
4. nociceptor
214. At a temperature of 50 degrees C, the most likely
perception of a skin sensation is one of _____.
1. cold
2. heat
3. pain
4. freezing
215. The following are usual causes of pain except which one.
1. kinins
2. hypoxia
3. ischemia
 4. polypeptides
216. Of the following, which can least likely undergo
adaptation.
1. thermoreceptors
2. mechanoreceptors
3. photoreceptors
4. pain receptors
217. Which of the following is not likely to cause a headache.
1. school stress
2. high blood pressure
3. a full stomach
4. food flavorings such as MSG
218. Pain in the left arm caused by lack of blood to the heart is
a type of _____ pain.
1. imaginary
2. psychological
3. referred
4. generalized

219. The best explanation for referred pain is that the nerves
that are responsible are _____.
1. shared between visceral and somatic pathways
2. somehow confused within the brain
3. over-stimulated
4. under-stimulated
220. Pain originating in the parietal pericardium is _____ by the
brain.
1. ignored
2. referred
3. usually intensified
4. felt directly
221. Which does not belong with the other items?
1. chronic pain
2. acute pain
3. A-delta fibers
4. spinothalamic tract
222. An analgesic is a drug which usually _____ pain impulses.
1. increases
 2. decreases
3. has no effect on
4. decreases the threshold for
223. The _____of the brain seems to give one a crude
awareness of pain.
1. cerebral cortex
2. hypothalamus
3. thalamus
4. hippocampus
224. Which of the following cannot block pain in the brain.
1. endorphin
2. enkephalin
3. acetylcholine
4. serotonin
225. The movements in breathing can be detected by the
_____ in the tendons of the thorax.
1. spindles
2. Golgi organs
3. Golgi bodies
4. free nerve endings
226. A stretch reflex occurs when the intrafusal fibers of a
_____ are stimulated.
1. muscle spindle
2. muscle fiber
3. Golgi tendon organ
4. motor unit
227. The _____ are the actual areas that respond to chemical
stimulations for the sense of smell.
1. olfactory lobes
2. olfactory mucous membrane cells
3. cilia on olfactory cells
4. olfactory organs
228. The olfactory receptor cells are examples of _____
neurons.
1. sensory
2. multipolar
3. association
4. bipolar
229. Which area allows one to perceive the aroma of a pizza.
1. olfactory bulb
2. olfactory lobe
3. olfactory cortex
4. olfactory tracts
230. Which sense is most likely to adapt rapidly?
1. taste
2. smell
3. hearing
4. vision
231. A person aged 21 will probably lose _____ of their smell
at.
1. none
2. 50%
3. 1%
4. 5%
232. The visible elevations on the tongue, that contain the
receptors for taste are the _____.
1. taste buds
2. taste pores
3. papillae
4. gustatory cells
233. Which of the following could be detected on the back of
the tongue?
1. sweet
2. sour
3. salty
4. bitter
234. Which of these does not belong with the rest?
1. strychnine
2. nicotine
3. alkaline
4. alkaloid
235. The nerves, which convey taste sensations, are the
following except which one?
1. VII
2. VIII
3. IX
 4. vagus
236. The gustatory cortex is located within the _____lobe.
1. temporal
2. parietal
3. occipital
4. frontal
237. Which of these does not belong with the others?
1. pinna
2. external ear
3. ceruminous glands
4. malleus
238. The purpose of the auricle is to _____sound waves.
1. dampen
2. increase the intensity of
3. act as a collector of
4. vibrate in response to
239. The first structure to vibrate in response to sounds is
_____.
1. auricle
2. malleus
3. organ of Corti
4. tympanic membrane
240. The following belong together except which one?
1. incus
2. tympanic cavity
3. middle ear
4. cochlear duct

241. The purpose of the ossicles is to _____ the incoming

vibrations.
1. lessen the intensity of
2. increase the force of
3. change the wavelength of
4. move with
242. The stapes sends its vibrations to the _____.
1. incus
2. tympanic membrane
3. oval window
 4. round window
243. Which of these does not belong with the others?
1. tympanic reflex
2. stapedius
3. increase sound
4. decrease sound
244. The auditory tube acts to equalize pressure between the
middle ear and _____.
1. throat
2. inner ear
3. outer ear
4. cochlea
245. The term labyrinth refers to the appearance of the _____.
1. outer ear
2. inner ear
3. middle ear
4. vestibule
246. The membranous labyrinth contains _____fluid.
1. cerebrospinal
2. plasma
3. endolymph
4. perilymph
247. The portion of the inner ear, which detects sounds, is the
_____.
1. semicircular canals
2. osseous labyrinth
3. vestibule
4. cochlea
248. Reissner's membrane separates the cochlear duct from
the _____.
1. round window
2. scala vestibuli
3. scala tympani
4. basilar membrane
249. Vibrations from the _____ reach the scala vestibuli first.
A) round window
B) scala tympani
C) oval window
 D) cochlear duct
250. The cells that convert vibrations into neurological
impulses are the _____ cells.
A) hair
B) otolith
C) basilar membrane
D) crista acoustica
251. The connection between the cochlear hair cells and the
VIII cranial nerve are made by _____.
A) direct contact
B) release of neurotransmitter
C) the axons in contact
D) the dendrites in contact
252. The intensity of sounds is measured in units of _____.
A) mv
B) amperes
C) daltons
D) dB
253. The auditory perception center is located within the
_____.
A) medial geniculate body of thalamus
B) midbrain
C) temporal lobe
D) medulla oblongata
254. Which type of deafness can be treated by a cochlear
implant.
A) presbycusis
B) conductive
C) sensorineural
D) otosclerosis

255. The following belong together except which one?

A) dynamic equilibrium
B) vestibule
C) static equilibrium
D) utricle
256. The maculae can be found in the _____.
A) cochlear duct
 B) saccule
C) semicircular canals
D) 4. semicircular ducts
257. Stimulation of the crista ampullaris results in _____.
A) deafness
B) loud sounds
C) feeling of motion
D) a sense of body position
258. The term for eyelid is _____.

A) conjunctiva
B) sclera
C) levator palpebrae
D) palpebra
259. Tears drain into the openings of the _____.
A) puncta
B) lacrimal sac
C) canaliculi
D) nasolacrimal duct
260.Movement of the eyeball is effected by muscles
innervated mainly by the _____nerve.
A) VI
B) IV
C) oculomotor
D) vagus
261. The outer covering of the eye is called the _____.
A) vascular tunic
B) conjunctiva
C) sclera
D) choroid layer
262. The suspensory ligaments attach to the _____.
A) lens
B) sclera
C) canal of Schlemm
D) iris
263. The process of adjusting vision from a near to a distant
object is called _____.
A) adaptation
 B) accommodation
C) amblyopia
D) cataracts
264. An increase in aqueous fluid pressure is a symptom of
_____.
A) cataract
B) migraine
C) glaucoma
D) hyperopia
265. Which of the following is the first to come into contact
with light?
A) rods
B) bipolar neurons
C) cones
D) ganglion cells
 266. The point of sharpest retinal vision is called the _____.
A) fovea centralis
B) macula lutea
C) vitreous body
D) optic disk
267. Which of the following is decomposed under light?
A) vitamin A
B) retinene

C) rhodopsin
D) iodopsin

268. The bending of light that happens at the cornea and lens is
a. accommodation.
b. reflection.
c. contraction.
d. refraction.

269. Which of the following belongs to the middle ear?

a. cochlea
b. ossicles
c. ampullae
d. vestibule

270. The receptors for hearing are located in the

a. semicircular canals.
b. cochlea.
c. sacculae.
d. vestibule.

271. The senses for dynamic equilibrium are located in the

a. utricle.
b. Organ of Corti.
c. cochlea.
d. semicircular canals.

272. The most common cause of blindness in the United States is

a. vertigo.
b. cataracts.
c. glaucoma.
d. macular degeneration.
273. In terms of volume, the largest part of the brain is:
a. The hippocampus
b. The frontal lobe
c. The cerebral cortex
d. The cerebellum
274. Which lobe contains the primary visual cortex?
a. The hippocampal lobe
b. The temporal lobe
c. The frontal lobe
d. The occipital lobe
275. Damage to which lobe can produce disruptions to social and emotional behaviour?
a. The frontal lobe
b. The occipital lobe
c. The temporal lobe
d. The partietal lobe
276. Post-central gyri is the location for which brain function?
a. Primary somatosensory cortex
b. Primary motor cortex
c. Auditory centre
d. Visual centre
277. Which lobe is primarily responsible for somatosensation and reaching?
a. The limbic lobe
b. The parietal lobe
c. The occipital lobe
d. The frontal lobe

278. The primary cortex for which sense is found in the temporal lobe?
a. Vision
b. Olfaction
c. Audition
d. Gustation
279.The auditory cortex is found in the:
a. Occipital lobes
b. Parietal lobes
c. Frontal lobes
 d. Temporal lobes
280. The part of the brain extending from the pons and responsible for the execution of
movement and maintaining posture is called the:
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Medulla
d. Diencephalon
281. What is the purpose of the thyroid gland?

a. It releases thyroxin and insulin to stimulate growth

b. It releases aldosterone and cortisol to convert proteins into sugars
c. It releases dopamine and promotes homeostasis of noradrenaline

d. It releases thyroxin and calcitonin to regulate the rate of growth, metabolism and
calcium levels in the blood
282. Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called ________.

a. autocrine

b. paracrine

c. endocrine

d. neuron

283. How many hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 6

284. When blood calcium levels are low, PTH stimulates ________.

a. urinary excretion of calcium by the kidneys

b. a reduction in calcium absorption from the intestines

c. the activity of osteoblasts

d. the activity of osteoclasts

285. Endocrine glands ________.

a. secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs

b. release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft

c. secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream

d. include sebaceous glands and sweat glands

286. Which of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone?

a. ADH

b. oxytocin

c. TSH

d. cortisol

287. The adrenal glands are attached superiorly to which organ?

a. thyroid

b. liver

c. kidneys

d. hypothalamus

288. Which of the following responses is not part of the fight or flight response?

a. pupil dilation

b. increased oxygen supply to the lungs

c. suppressed digestion

d. reduced mental activity

289. What cells secrete melatonin?

a. melanocytes

b. pinealocytes

c. suprachiasmatic nucleus cells

d. retinal cells

290. The gonads produce what class of hormones?

a. amine hormones

b. peptide hormones

c. steroid hormones

d. catecholamines

291. The production of FSH by the anterior pituitary is reduced by which hormone?

a. estrogens
 b. progesterone

c. relaxin

d. inhibin

292. If an autoimmune disorder targets the alpha cells, production of which hormone
would be directly affected?

a. somatostatin

b. pancreatic polypeptide

c. insulin

d. glucagon

293. What are male gametes called?

a. ova
b. sperm
c. testes
d. testosterone

294. Leydig cells ________.

a. secrete testosterone
b. activate the sperm flagellum
c. support spermatogenesis

d. secrete seminal fluid

295.Which hypothalamic hormone contributes to the regulation of the male reproductive

system?

a. luteinizing hormone
b. gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c. follicle-stimulating hormone
d. androgens

296. What is the function of the epididymis?

a. sperm maturation and storage

b. produces the bulk of seminal fluid
c. provides nitric oxide needed for erections

d. spermatogenesis

297. From what structure does the corpus luteum originate?

a. uterine corpus
 b. dominant follicle
c. fallopian tube

d. corpus albicans

298. Where does fertilization of the egg by the sperm typically occur?

a. vagina
b. uterus
c. uterine tube
d. ovary

299. What controls whether an embryo will develop testes or ovaries?

a. pituitary gland
b. hypothalamus
c. Y chromosome

d. presence or absence of estrogen

300. What is the name of the specialized area of a sensory neuron that detects a specific
stimulus ?

a. Tract

b. Receptor

c. Dorsal root

d. Node of Ranvier

301. Photoreceptors detect

a. Heat

b. Acid

c. Light

d. Tissue distortion

302. This structure is attached to the lens , causing its shape to be changed

a. Retina

b. Iris

c. Cornea

d. Suspensory ligaments

303.Which of the following is least related to the retina ?

a. Rods and cons

 b. Fovea centralis

c. Cornea

d. Macula lutea

304. The cerebral lobe is concerned primarily with vision

a. Precentral gyrus

b. Postcentral gyrus

c. Occipital

d. Corpus callosum

305. Which of the following structures secretes tears ?

a. Lacrimal gland

b. Optic disc

c. Canal of Schlemm

d. Ciliary body

306. Myopia , farsightness , and astigmatism are

a. Errors of refraction

b. Infections of the eye

c. Types of strabismus

d. Conditions of elevated intraocular pressure

307. This layer of the eyeball supplies blood to the retina

a. Choroid

b. Iris

c. Rods and cones

d. Sclera

308. Which of the following is located in the posterior cavity of the eyeball ?
a. Vitreous humor
b. Cornea
c. Ciliary muscle
d. Lens
309. Which of the following is least related to the optic nerve ?
a. Cranial nerve II
b. Sensory nerve
c. Conveys information from the retina to the occipital lobe
d. Innervates the extrinsic eye muscles

310. The conjunctiva

a. Covers the cornea
b. Is a mucous membrane
c. Contains blood vessels that nourish the retina
d. Secretes aqueous humor

311. which of the following is one of the special senses ?

a. touch
b. pain
c. balance
d. proprioception

312. Olfacation refers to the sense of

a. Vision
b. Taste
c. Smell
d. Equilibrium
313. What is the location of the semicircular canals and the cochlea?
a. Inner ear
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. Pharynx
314.These hairlike recptors are located in the cochlea
a. Ossicles
b. Rods and cones
c. Organ of Corti
d. Adenoids
315. This structure seperates the outer ear from the middle ear
a. Tympanic membrane
b. Pinna
c. Round window
d. Oval window
316. This cerebral lobe is concerned primarily with hearing
a. Occipital
b. Cerebellum
c. Corpus callosum
d. Temporal lobe
317. Which of the following is one of the special senses?
a. Touch
b. Pain
c. Balance
d. Proprioception
318. The eustachian tube connects the pharynx (throat) with this structure
a. Cochlea
b. Semicircular canals
c. Middle ear
d. External auditory meatus
319. What is another name for tympanic membrane?
a. Eardrum
b. Stirrup
c. Oval window
d. Organ of Corti
320. A nociceptor detects
a. Pain
b. Light
c. Radiation
d. [H+]
321. What is the name of the tube that connects the pharynx and middle ear?
a. Vestibule
b. Oval window
c. Eustachian
d. Cochlea
322. This ossicle sits in the oval window
a. Malleus
b. Hammer
c. Stapes
d. Incus
323. The semicircular canals are concerned with
a. Secretion of cerumen
b. Equalizing pressure across the tympanic membrane
c. Balance
d. Smell
324. What is the function of the vestibule and the semicircular canals?
a. Hearing
b. Smell
c. Balance
d. Touch and pressure
325. Which is the last structure to vibrate in this sequence?
a. Malleus
b. Oval window
c. Incus
d. Stapes