CSE (P) Test Series-2020
Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
General Studies
Test - 1 (Module-1)
1. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The official reason
given for the decision was that Bengal with a
population of 78 million had become to big too 3.
administer.
Statement 2 is correct: The partition of
Bengal infuriated people all over India. All
sections of the Congress– the Moderates
and the Radicals – opposed it. Large public
meetings and demonstrations were organised
and novel methods of mass protest developed.
The struggle that unfolded came to be known
as the Swadeshi movement, strongest in
Bengal but with echoes elsewhere too – in
deltaic Andhra for instance, it was known as
the Vandemataram Movement.
Statement 3 is not correct: It was decided to
annul the partition of Bengal in 1911 mainly
to curb the menace of revolutionary terrorism.
2. (a)
Extremism or militant nationalism became a
predominant philosophy of Indian national
movement from 1905 to 1917. Many factors
contributed to the rise of extremism or
militant nationalism. One such factor was
the opposition of certain early nationalists
in the strategy and technique adopted by the
moderates’ expression of faith in the fairness
of the British, mendicancy and appealing to the
4.
British government.
The extremist leaders were Bal Gangadhar
Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal,
Aurobindo Ghosh. The moderates were of
the view that their political rights could be
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Test Code: 200901
Detailed Explanations
Sectional Test:
Modern History of India, Geography and CA
won by persuasion The Moderate leaders
were: Dadabhai Naoroji, W.C Bonnerjee, S. N
Banerjee, Pherozshah Mehta.
(d)
Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General
from 1848 to 1856.
Statement 1 is correct: The Court of Directors
of East India Company in London sent an
educational despatch to the Governor-General
in India in 1854. Issued by Charles Wood,
the President of the Board of Control of the
Company, it has come to be known as Wood’s
Despatch. Outlining the educational policy
that was to be followed in India, it emphasised
once again the practical benefits of a system
of European learning, as opposed to Oriental
knowledge.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1853, Dalhousie
opened the first telegraphic line from Calcutta
to Agra and also introduced the postal service
in India.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the
doctrine of lapse, if any Indian ruler dies
without leaving a male heir, his kingdom
would automatically pass over to the British.
Satara, Sambhalpur, Udaipur, Nagpur and
Jhansi were some states which were annexed
by the Company under this doctrine.
(b)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Karachi
session, 1931 became memorable for its
resolution on Fundamental Rights and the
National Economic Programme. Even though
the Congress since inception had fought for the
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
economic interests, civil liberties and political
rights of the people, this was the first time that
the Congress defined what Swaraj would mean
for the masses.
Statement 3 is not correct: In 1938, the
Congress appointed a national planning
committee to work out programmes for
industrialization and development of rural
society. Development of Khadi and village
industries was considered integral to
industrialization of India.
5. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Pabna revolt was
against the Zamindars and not against the
British government. The unrest was caused by
the efforts of the zamindars to enhance rent
beyond legal limits and to prevent the tenants
from acquiring occupancy rights under ‘Act X
of 1859’. 7.
Statement 2 is correct: The agrarian leagues
kept within the bounds of law, used the legal
machinery to fight Zamindars, and raised no
anti-British demands.
6. (c)
Dayanand Saraswati (l824-1883) founded the
Arya Samaj in 1875.
Statement 1 is not correct: It held that the
Vedas contained all the knowledge imparted to
man by God and essentials of modern science
could also be traced in them. However, they
were against the supremacy of priestly class
and priesthood.
Statement 2 is correct: It is opposed to
8.
idolatry, ritual and priesthood, particularly
to the prevalent caste practices and popular
Hinduism as preached by the Brahmins.
Statement 3 is not correct: As educational
dimension the Arya Samaj is credited with
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developing a new system of education which
deviated prominently and significantly from
the existing British model of education. Swami
Dayanand stressed on religious text and
Sanskrit grammar but he emphasised on the
study of English, because it became the state
language. He favored the study of science too.
He also realized that industrialization would
lead to the wealth of nation and so he favored
industrial training too and wanted Indian young
man to be sent to Germany for such training.
He also wanted the students to study different
branches of mathematics, geography, geology,
astronomy, space science and much else.
Statement 4 is correct: Arya Samajis opposed
child marriages and encouraged remarriage
of widows. It made rapid progress in Punjab,
Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
(d)
The suggestion of Sir John Simon (to convene
a conference of the representatives of both
British India and the Indian states to take a
final decision on the question of constitutional
reforms for India) was accepted by the British
cabinet (at that time Ramsay MacDonald was
British Prime Minister). Subsequently Lord
Irwin, the governor general of India made his
famous declaration, known as the 'Deepavali
Declaration'(October 31,1929) according to
which the objective of British policy was to
grant Dominion status to India and a round
table conference would be held in London after
the Simon commission had reported.
(a)
Statement 1 is correct: Some Indian
revolutionaries who were operating from
Berlin, and who had links with the Ghadar
leader Ram Chandra in America, continued,
with German help, to make attempts to organize
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a mutiny among Indian troops stationed abroad.
Raja Mahendra Pratap and Barkatullah tried to
enlist with the help of the Amir of Afghanistan
and even set up a Provisional Government in
Kabul, but these and other attempts failed to
record any significant success.
Statement 2 is correct: Madam Bhikaji Cama
along with Ajit Singh operated from Paris and
Geneva and brought out the journal Bande
mataram.
Statement 3 is not correct: It was Shyamji
KrishnaVerma who in 1905 set up the Indian
Home Rule Society and India House and
brought out the journal 'The Sociologist' in
London. Madan Lal Dhingra in 1909 murdered
Curzon Wylliee, post which London became
too dangerous a place for revolutionaries.
9. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Rash Behari Ghosh
presided Surat session of 1907 in which there
was a split in Congress into the Moderates and
Extremists.
Statement 2 is not correct: Subhash Chandra
bose presided in Haripura (1938) and Tripuri
(1939). However, later he resigned and
Rajendra Prasad took over as president.
Statement 3 is correct: In 1926, S. Srinivas
Iyengar presided over Congress session in
Guwahati which is the only session in North
East.
10. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Haipou Jadonang
(cousin of Rani Gaidinliu), who was then
leading a socio-political movement called
Heraka. After his death, at the age of 16, Rani
Gaidinliu took the leadership.
Statement 2 is not correct: She was given the
tiitle "Rani" by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
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Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
Statement 3 is not correct: She was released
from Tura Jail on October 14, 1947, after India
became independent.
11. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The Cripps Mission
was formulated under the stewardship of Sir
Stafford Cripps, the Lord Privy Seal in the
Home Government, on 30 March 1942, as
a preventive measure to thwart all attempts
at withdrawal of support to Britain in World
War-II.
Statement 2 is correct: The bleakness of the
possibility of Allied victory in World War II,
prompted Gandhi to remark that the Cripps
Mission was like a post-dated cheque upon a
falling bank.
Statement 3 is not correct: Five months after
the announcement of the Cripps Mission, on 8
August 1942, the Bombay session of the All
India Congress Committee (AICC) passed the
‘Quit India’ resolution and thus triggered off a
movement that surpassed almost all the earlier
‘Gandhian’ movements in terms of widespread
and popular participation
12. (a)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Release of
all political prisoners (except those guilty
of violence) and withdrawal of emergency
ordinances were the conditions included in
Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Gandhiji was impressed
with Irwin’s sincerity and on behalf of the
Indian National Congress agreed to discontinue
the Civil Disobedience movement.
Statement 3 is not correct: It did not contain
any provion related to the reservation of seats
in legislature.
13. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Second World
War was instrumental in the formation of a
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
specific collective consciousness both in the
RIN as well as among the Madras working
classes. The most obvious economic impact of
war on Madras city was a steep rise in prices
of commodities. The price of paddy and rice
continued to advance and the rise was more
marked in the case of paddy.
Statement 2 is not correct: The civilians
of Madras became involved in the RIN
demonstrations. The reports in the newspapers
from February 19 onwards were avidly read by
the civilians in Madras. On 21st, they watched
the Madras ratings driving trucks, shouting
slogans, marching around the city and chasing
all Europeans out of sight. The stimulation of
popular involvement began on that day and
general tension mounted in the city.
Statement 3 is correct: The Communist Party
of India was directly involved in the hartal and
strikes. M. R. Venkata Raman, Secretary of
Tamil Nadu Committee of CPI, on behalf of
the Communist party, appealed to the leaders
of the Congress to come forward to help and
build up the growing unity sentiment amongst
the masses.
14. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Satyashodhak
Samaj (Truth seeker's Society) was a social
reform society founded by Jyotiba Phule in
1873 and not by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
Statement 2 is correct: He founded the samaj
against upper class domination and for the
propagation of caste equality. Phule founded
the Satyashodhak Samaj with the objectives of
social service and spread of education among
women.
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15. (b)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Vernacular
Press Act 1878, was designed for better control
of the vernacular press and effectively punish
and repress seditious writing.
Other provisions of this act were:
(i) The District Magistrate was empowered to
call upon the printer and publisher of any
vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond
with Government Undertaking
(ii) The Magistrate action was final and no
appeal could be made in a court of law.
The Act came to be nicknamed as the
Gagging Act and the worst features of this
act were discrimination between English
and Vernacular and no right of appeal.
Statement 3 is not correct: There was strong
opposition to this and the Act was repealed
in December 1881 under the regime of Lord
Rippon.
16. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Wahabi movement
was essentially an Islamic revivalist movement
founded by Syed Ahmed of Rai Bareilley
whereas Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was an Indian
educator and politician, and an Islamic reformer
and modernist. Sir Syed in the aftermaths of
1857 rebellion pioneered modern education for
the Muslim community in India by founding
the Muhammedan Anglo-Oriental College,
which later developed into the Aligarh Muslim
University.
Statement 2 is correct: The Wahabi movement
was a part of the Indian freedom struggle and
in the wake of 1857 revolt, it turned into armed
resistance. The movement posed one of the
first challenges to British Empire as it offered a
serious threat to British supremacy in India in
the 19th century.
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17. (d)
Statement 1 is correct: The number of
elected member in the Imperial Legislative
Council and Provincial Legislative council
were increased. The number of members in
the Central Legislative Council was raised
from 16 to 60 whereas the number of members
in the Provincial Legislative council was not
uniform.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act gave the
Muslims representation disproportionate to
their population. This was done on the excuse
of the political importance of the Muslim
community. Separate representation was also
given to Presidency Corporations, Universities,
Chambers of Commerce, and the Land-holders.
Statement 3 is correct: Satyendra Nath Sinha
became the first Indian to join the Viceroy's
Executive council. He was appointed as the
Law Member.
18. (a)
In 1787, Lord Cornwallis gave limited criminal
judicial powers to the company's revenue
collectors, who had already served as civil
magistrates. Most importantly, the collector
was divested of judicial and magisterial powers
and entrusted with the duty of administration
of revenue. In 1790, the company took over
the administration of justice from the Nawab,
and Cornwallis introduced a system of circuit
courts with a superior court that met in Calcutta
and had the power of review over circuit court
decisions. However, most of the judges were
non-native. Lord Cornwallis had initiated
efforts to harmonize different codes existing at
that time. By the time of his departure in 1793,
the harmonized code, known in India as the
Cornwallis Code, was substantially complete.
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Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
19. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: E.V. Ramaswamy laid
the foundation of a dynamic social movement
that has come to be styled as the Self-
Respect Movement. It was not a mere social
reformist movement. It aimed at destroying
the existing Hindu social order in its totality
and creating a new, rational society without
caste, religion and God. So it was considered
a socially revolutionary movement which had
been destroying and creating, i.e., creative
destruction or creation through destruction.
Statement 2 is not correct: It was a non-
Brahmin movement in south India and it was
in favor of popularizing tamil language and
culture instead of sanskrit which was prevalent
in the society. The objective mentioned in the
question is wrong as it had nothing to do with
legislature and jobs.
Statement 3 is correct: A large Tamil
population was residing in Malaysia and
Singapore at that time and the movement had
a wide base in dravidian belt and hence it was
influential in these countries also.
20. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Dominion status
(and not Self-government) for India was one of
the proposals under the August offer.
Statements 2 and 4 are correct: Setting up of
a Constituent Assembly after the war in which
mainly Indians would decide the Constitution
according to their social, economic and
political conceptions subject to fulfillment of
the obligation of the government regarding
defence, minority rights, treaties with states
and All India Services.
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
Statement 3 is correct: Also one of the
proposals made in the offer was that 'No future
Constitution to be adopted without the consent
of minorities'. The Congress rejected the
offer. The muslim League welcomed the Veto
assurance given to the league and reiterated its
position that partition was the only solution to
the deadlock.
21. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Asteroids, Comets
and Meteoroids all revolve around the Sun.
23. (a)
Statement 2 is correct: Generally, a celestial
body bigger than 10 m orbiting the Sun is called
an Asteroid. However, bodies similar to an
asteroid, but significantly smaller (less than 10
meter) consisting mostly the debris of comets,
or that of asteroids is called as Meteoroid.
Statement 3 is correct: Asteroids are rocky
bodies orbiting around the Sun. Comets are
objects composed mostly of ice and dust that
grow tails when they approach the sun. All
comets have a nucleus, which is the hard rock/
ice object.
22. (a)
Atmosphere consists of different layers
with varying density and temperature. The
column of atmosphere is generally divided
into five different layers depending upon the
temperature conditions.
These are: Troposphere, Stratosphere,
24. (d)
Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Troposphere: It is the lowermost layer of
atmosphere (average height 13 km). The
temperature in this layer decreases at the rate
of 1 degree Celsius for every 165m increase
in height.
Stratosphere: It lies above tropo-pause and
extends up to the height of 50km. Generally,
© Copyright: (6 – A)
temperature in this layer increases with
increase in height.
Mesosphere: It lies above stratosphere and
extends upto a height of 80 km. In this layer
temperature starts decreasing with increase in
altitude.
Thermosphere: It is located between 80 and
400 km above the mesopause. Temperature in
this layer starts increasing with height. This
layer is also called as Ionosphere.
Statement 1 is correct: The rotation of Earth
around its axis affects the direction of winds.
This force is called Coriolis force. The wind
gets deflected to the right direction in the
northern hemisphere and to the left in the
southern hemisphere. The deflection is more
when the wind velocity is high.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Coriolis
force acts perpendicular to the pressure
gradient force. The pressure gradient force is
perpendicular to the Isobar. The higher the
pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity
of wind and higher will be the deflection in the
direction of wind.
Statement 3 is not correct: The Coriolis force
is directly proportional to the angle of latitude.
It is maximum at the poles and absent at the
equator.
Statement 1 is not correct: Duncan Passage
is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48
km wide and it separates Rutland Island to the
north, and Little Andaman to the south.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Coco channel,
part of the Andaman and Nicobar Ridge and the
Asian continental shelf, separates Myanmar’s
Coco Islands from India’s Andaman Islands.
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Statement 3 is not correct: St George’s
Channel is a sea channel connecting the Irish
Sea to the north and the Celtic Sea to the
southwest.
25. (a)
Moving from South to North Bhubaneswar-
Raipur-Kolkata-Ranchi.
26. (a)
Nathu La: It is located in the Himalayas at
the India-China Border in Sikkim. The Pass,
at 4310m above sea level, forms the part of
offshoot of the ancient silk road.
Jelep La: This pass located in Eastern
Himalayas connects Sikkim with Lhasa in
Tibet. It passes through Chumbi valley.
Zoji La: It is located in Zanskar range at an
altitude of 3850 m above sea level, it joins
Srinagar with Kargil and Leh.
27. (b)
Chicken’s Neck refers to the Siliguri Corridor,
a narrow strip of land, which has several vital
installations around it. It is narrow strip of land
connecting Sikkim and West Bengal states of
India.
28. (b)
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The
Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and
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Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
the Manjra are principal tributaries of River
Godavari and not Mahanadi.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Hiran is the only
major tributary of Narmada that joins on right
bank.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Seonath is the
left bank tributary of Mahanadi not Godavari.
29. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Extra Tropical
cyclones cover a larger area and can originate
over the land and sea, whereas Tropical
cyclones originate only over the seas and on
reaching land they dissipate.
Statement 2 is correct: The wind velocity
in Tropical cyclones is much higher than that
in Extra Tropical cyclones and thus tropical
cyclones are more destructive.
Statement 3 is correct: The Extra Tropical
cyclones move from west to east but Tropical
cyclones move from east to west.
30. (c)
The transformation of water vapour into water
is called condensation. After condensation
the water vapour or moisture in the air takes
one of the following forms- Dew, Frost, Fog,
Mist and Clouds. The process of continuous
condensation in the free air helps the condensed
particles to grow. When the resistance of
the air fails to hold them against the force of
gravity, they fall on the earth’s surface. So
after condensation of water vapour the release
of moisture is known as precipitation. Different
forms of precipitation are- Rain, Snow, Hail,
Sleet and Drizzle.
31. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: International Date
Line also called Date Line, is an imaginary
line extending between the North Pole and the
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
South Pole. It corresponds along most of its
length to the 180 degree meridian of longitude
but deviates from it at certain places, which
are- Bering Strait, Fiji, Tonga and other islands.
This has been done to prevent confusion of day
and date in some of the island groups that are
cut through by the meridian.
Statement 2 is correct: The 180° line
of longitude is approximately where the
International Date Line passes. The time at
this longitude is exactly 12 hours from the 0°
longitude, irrespective of one travels westward
or eastward from the Prime Meridian. We
know that time decreases east of the Prime
Meridian and increases to its west. Hence, for
a person moving east of the Prime Meridian,
the time would be 12 hours less than the time
at 0° longitude. For another person moving
westward, the time would be 12 hours more
33. (b)
than the Prime Meridian. For example, a
person moving eastward on Tuesday will count
the day as Wednesday once the International
Date Line is crossed.
32. (d)
The sun’s radiant energy is mostly converted
to heat at the earth’s surface level and that heat
tends to warm the air closest to the ground first.
The warm air rises and cools as it disperses
in the atmosphere. Sometimes, usually on
clear nights with calm winds, the surface
temperature drops rapidly when the sun goes
down. Since the air doesn’t conduct heat very
well, the surface gets cool while some of the
34. (d)
air above remains warm. This is a temperature
inversion.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: During the
winter, temperature inversions are stronger
and more common. This is generally when air
quality suffers most as a result of temperature
© Copyright: (8 – A)
inversions. The warm air on top of the cool
air acts as a lid, trapping pollution such as car
emissions and smoke from fireplaces close to
the ground. This results in hazy skies and poor
air quality.
Statement 2 is correct: While a temperature
inversion sounds like something that might
make the atmosphere unstable, it actually has
the opposite effect. Temperature inversions
can keep thunderstorms from forming. Most
thunderstorms happen during hot and humid
weather at the surface, but they are unable to
strengthen if the tops of the storms are unable
to rise and retain their heat energy. When
the typical temperatures are applied to the
atmosphere with cooler temperatures at higher
altitudes, it actually forms an unstable air layer
that is ideal for the formation of thunderstorms.
Statement 1and 3 are correct: Two conditions
necessary for cloud formation are: (i) Air
must be saturated; (ii) there must be presence
of sufficient quantity of very small particles
called as hygroscopic condensation nuclei
around which liquid droplets/ice crystals can
be formed when vapor condenses.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is not necessary
that dew point must be below 0 degree Celsius.
When dew point is below 0 degree Celsius, then
vapour in the air sublimates into ice crystals
however, when dew point is above 0 degree
Celsius, then vapor condenses into liquid droplets.
Statement 1 is not correct: Earthquake waves
are basically of two types- Body waves and
Surface waves. Body waves are generated due
to the release of energy at the focus and move
in all directions travelling through the body of
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the earth. Hence, the name body waves. The
body waves interact with the surface rocks and
generate new set of waves called surface waves.
These waves move along the surface. There are
two types of body waves. They are called P and
S-waves.
Statement 2 is not correct: An important
fact about S-waves is that they can travel only
through solid materials. This characteristic of
the S-waves is quite important. It has helped
scientists to understand the structure of the
interior of the earth. Reflection causes waves to
rebound whereas refraction makes waves move
in different directions.
35. (d)
Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over
warm tropical oceans. The conditions favorable
for the formation and intensification of tropical
cyclones are:
• Large sea surface with temperature higher
than 27 degree Celsius;
• Presence of Coriolis force;
• Small variations in the vertical wind speed;
• A pre existing weak low pressure area or low
level cyclonic circulation;
• Upper divergence above the sea level system.
36. (c)
Himalayas are also divided in terms of Eastern
and Western Himalayas.
Statement 1 is not correct: The North South
extension of Western Himalayas is around 400
KM consisting of three parallel ranges. These
three ranges appear to merge in the East. The
North South extension of Eastern Himalayas is
around 150 Km.
Statement 2 is correct: During rainfall the
Western Himalayas receive rainfall due to the
Western Disturbances. The Eastern Himalayas
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Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
receive no or very little rainfall during the
winters. Thus, Western Himalayas receive
more rainfall during winter than the eastern
Himalayas.
Statement 3 is correct: The height of
the mountains from the plains in Western
Himalayas rises in a number of stages. Further,
the high mountain ranges are at a long distance
from the plains. In contrast, Eastern Himalayas
rise abruptly from the plains. As a result,
the peaks are not far away from the plains
(Example: Kanchenjunga).
37. (b)
Statement 1 not correct: Western Ghats
are almost perpendicular to the south-west
monsoons coming from the Arabian Sea
but Eastern Ghats is almost parallel to the
monsoons coming from the Bay of Bengal.
Statements 2 is correct: While the Western
Ghats are almost continuous, the Eastern Ghats
are broken and uneven.
Statements 3 is correct: Western Ghats
are locally known by different names such
as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills
and Cardamom hills in Kerala.
38. (d)
Factors influencing temperature are: Latitude,
altitude, continentality, ocean currents and
winds, slope, shelter and aspect, natural
vegetation and soil.
39. (d)
Factors that influence the mechanism of south-
west monsoons:
1. Intense heating of Tibetan plateau during
summer months.
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
2. Permanent high pressure cell in the
South Indian Ocean (east to north-east of
Madagascar in summer).
3. Subtropical Jet Stream (STJ).
4. Tropical Easterly Jet (African Easterly Jet).
5. Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.
40. (b)
Options 1 and 4 are correct: Afforestation
and limiting the practice of shifting cultivation
are the measures which can be taken for soil
conservation.
Option 2 is not correct: Crop rotation is
effective measure for soil conservation. It
should be encouraged.
Option 3 is not correct: Use of chemical
fertilizers is not an appropriate measrue for
soil conservation as it decreases soil’s natural
productivity with time.
41. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare (MoHFW) has established
the network of 18 Population Research Centres
(PRCs) spread over 17 major States/UTs, with
the mandate to provide, inter alia, critical
research based inputs related to the Health
and Family Welfare programs and policies at
the national and state levels. The PRCs are
autonomous in nature and administratively
under the control of their host University/
Institutions.
Statement 2 is not correct: An overall
outlay of Rs. 2381.84 crore for the scheme
will be spent during the Fourteenth Finance
Commission period 2017-18 to 2019-20 and
would be funded 100% by Central Government
Budgetary support.
© Copyright: (10 – A)
42. (b)
Members of this quadrilateral arrangement,
QUAD – the United States, India, Australia,
and Japan – are a group of democratic countries
advocating a free and open Indo-Pacific region
for shared peace and prosperity. The idea of
the QUAD could be originally attributed to
Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe. It got
operationalized in 2007, but failed to gain any
traction as then-Australian Prime Minister
Kevin Rudd backed out on the grounds of
antagonizing China even as India too remained
reticent.
43. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The OIC’s mission
statement bills it as the collective voice of the
Muslim world that works to protect the interests
of the Muslim world. It was established by 24
member states in 1969. Today, with 57 member
states from four continents, the OIC is the
second-largest intergovernmental organisation
in the world after the United Nations, with a
collective population reaching over 1.8 billion.
Statement 2 is correct: In this, majority
of the member states are Muslim-majority
countries, while others have significant
Muslim populations, including several African
and South American countries such as Guyana
and Suriname.
44. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Siachen glacier,
located in the eastern Karakoram Range is one
of the five largest glaciers in the Karakoram,
situated at an average altitude of 18,000 ft
above sea level. At 78 km long, it is the longest
glacier in the Karakoram and second longest in
the world’s non-polar areas.
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Source Channel
https://t.me/visionpt3652019
Statement 2 is correct: The Nubra River is
a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh. It is
a tributary of the Shyok River (a part of the
Indus River system) and originates from the
Siachen Glacier.
Statement 3 is correct: Operation Meghdoot,
was in support of the Indian Army and
paramilitary forces in Northern Ladakh, to
secure control of the heights predominating the
Siachin glacier, also referred to as the world’s
third pole and potentially a dangerous flash
point on the disputed Northern borders.
45. (a)
Mt Etna in Sicily (Italy), locally called
“Mongibello”, is Europe’s largest and most
active volcano. Its frequent eruptions are often
accompanied by large lava flows, but rarely
pose danger to inhabited areas. Etna is one of
the volcanoes with the longest historic records
of eruptions, going back more than 2000 years.
46. (b)
The Financial Literacy Week is an initiative of
RBI to promote awareness on key topics every
year through a focused campaign. Financial
Literacy Week 2019 was observed from June
3-7 on the theme of “Farmers” and how they
benefit by being a part of the formal banking
system.
47. (a)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: ‘UdChalo’
is a travel portal, that caters for the personal
travel of the military and paramilitary forces
personnel by aggregating defence fares and
getting exclusive discounts. The Army’s
Paraplegic Rehabilitation Centre (PRC) has
joined hands with UdChalo with an aim to
empower the disabled military veterans.
© Copyright: (11 – A)
Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
Statement 3 is not correct: It is an initiative
by UpCurve Business Services Private
Limited, a company registered under Ministry
of Corporate Affairs (MCA), Government of
India.
48. (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The target groups
include: Socio-economically backward and
educationally disadvantaged groups of rural/
urban population. Main target includes non-
literate, neo-literates, person education upto
8th standard, school dropouts, in the age group
of 15-35 years. Priority given to women, SC,
ST, OBC and Minorities in rural areas and
urban slums.
Statement 2 is not correct: Jan Shikshan
Sansthans (formerly known as Shramik
Vidyapeeth) are institutions which provide
vocational skills to non-literate, neo-literates
as well as school dropouts by identifying
skills that have a market in the region of their
establishment. The Scheme of Jan Shikshan
Sansthan has been transferred from Ministry
of Human Resource Development to Ministry
of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in
July-2018.
49. (b)
Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has
launched a Fiscal Performance Index (FPI) to
assess the budget at state and central levels.
According to the CII, the Index incorporates
qualitative assessments of revenue expenditure,
capital expenditure, revenues, fiscal prudence
and the level of public debt to arrive at a more
holistic picture of fiscal performance than the
fiscal deficit to GDP ratio.
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
50. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: BrahMos is a
supersonic cruise missile being developed
by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture
between Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) of India and NPO
Mashinostroeyenia (NPOM) of Russia. The
missile can be launched against ships and
land-based targets. The missile is named after
two rivers, the Brahmaputra in India and the
Moskva in Russia.
Statement 2 is not correct: BrahMos is
powered by a two-stage propulsion system.
Initial acceleration is provided by a solid-
propellant booster and supersonic cruise speed
is provided by a liquid-fuelled ram-jet system.
The air-breathing ramjet propulsion is more
fuel-efficient in comparison with conventional
rocket propulsion. It provides the BrahMos
with a longer range over similar missiles
powered by rocket propulsion.
Statement 3 is correct: The missile has a “fire
and forget” principle of operation. It means
the missile guidance does not require further
guidance after the launch and still hit the target
without the launcher being in line-of-sight of
the target.
51. (b)
The concept of Swadeshi Samaj was presented
by Rabindra Nath Tagore. He believed that in
India, society is the provider of welfares not the
kingdoms or empires. This belief in the primacy
of the society and restriction of the functions of
the state is consistent with Tagore’s faith in the
worth and ability of the individual.
52. (b)
Following are the features of the Trade Union
Act, 1926:
© Copyright: (12 – A)
• The Act recognised trade unions as legal
associations.
• It laid down conditions for registration and
regulation of trade union activities.
• It secured immunity, both civil and
criminal, for trade unions from prosecution
for legitimate activities, but put some
restrictions on their political activities.
53. (c)
Statements 1 is not correct: Pahariyas’
Rebellion by the martial Pahariyas (1778; Raj
Mahal Hills) was against the British expansion
on their lands.
Statements 2 is correct: Chuar Uprisings by
the Chuar aboriginal tribesmen (1776) was
against rise in demands and economic privation
by the British.
Statements 3 is correct: Kol Uprisings by the
Kols of Chottanagpur led by Buddho Bhagat
(1831) was against the expansion of British
rule on their lands and transfer of their lands to
outsiders; the revolt was suppressed.
54. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Tilak’s demands
included swarajya, formation of linguistic
states and education in the vernacular.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Besant League
was confined to Bombay, Madras and certain
pockets of the U. P. and Bihar and made little
headway outside these areas.
55. (b)
First world war — 1914-1918
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre – 1919
Lucknow session of Congress - 1916
Khilafat movement - 1919-24
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56. (b)
Statement 1 not correct: In 1914, Ghadar
Movement was influenced by arrest of Lala har
Dayal not Rash Behari Bose.
Statement 2 is correct: Ghadar Movement
was also influenced by Komgata Maru Incident
as it hurt the sentiments of overseas Indians.
Statement 3 is correct: The most important
development that made the Ghadra Revolution
imminent was the outbreak of world war I.
Statement 4 is not correct: Bal Gangadhar
Tilak was ready to assume leadership of Home
rule movement not Ghadar Movement after his
release in June 1914.
57. (d)
Factors which led to growth of militant
nationalism included;
• Self-confidence, self-reliance (atma shakti)
and self-respect increased among youth.
• Increase in awareness because of education
and increase in rate of unemployment as
there were no enough jobs for the educated
Indians.
• Reaction to increasing westernisation.
• Dissatisfaction with the achievements of
moderates as petitions and memorials were
not making any big change.
58. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: He filed petitions
and sent memorials to the South African
Legislature, the Colonial Secretary and
British Parliament on behalf of Indians facing
discrimination in South Africa.
Statement 2 is not correct: He set up Natal
Congress and started a paper called Indian
Opinion. India House was an informal Indian
nationalist organization set up in London by
Shyamji Krishna Varma.
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Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
Statement 3 is correct: He used the method
of passive resistance or civil disobedience and
formed the Passive Resistance Association.
59. (c)
Rowlatt Act was aimed at severly curtailing the
civil liberties in the name of curbing terrorist
violence. It was treated as an insult by whole
of political India, especially as it came at the
end of the war when substantial constitutional
concessions were expected. Mahatama Gandhi
stepped in and suggested launch of satyagraha
sabha as constitutional protests have failed.
60. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: All India Harijans
Sevak Sangh founded by Mahatama Gandhi in
1923 started numerous schools for the Harijan
including residential vocational schools.
Statement 2 is correct: The first upper caste
temple to openly welcome Dalits was the
Laxminarayan Temple in Wardha.
Statement 3 is not correct: Ramosi revolt was
of Ramosi tribe in western Ghats who raised
against British rule and plundered the country
around Satara.
61. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: He repealed the
controversial Arms Act which was passed
during the tenure of Lord Lyton.
Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Lyton
introduced a law which reduced the maximum
age of civil services exam from 21 to 19.
Statement 3 is correct: Local self-government
act was passed which established panchayat
and municipal boards. He is known as father of
self-governance in India.
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
62. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Mahatama Gandhi got
the Kaiser-i-Hind in 1915.
Statement 2 is not correct: Lord Hardinge
awarded Gandhi ji with title of Kaiser-i-Hind
for his ambulance corps in Zulu War and Boer
War not in World War I.
Statement 3 is correct: Mahatama Gandhi
returned this title in protest against Jaliawala
Bagh massacre. The reason was stated in his
letter addressed to Lord Chelmsfod in 1920.
He was very saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh
massacre.
63. (b)
Reasons for rise of extremism during Swadesi
Movement were many such as:
Statement 1 is correct: Emergence of trained
leadership in form of Bal Gangadhar Tilak,
Lala Lajpat Rai and Aurbindo Ghosh etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Reactionary policies
of Curzon such as passing of Calcutta
Corporation Act, Universities Act, Official
Secrets Act, partition of Bengal.
Statement 3 is not correct: The defeat of the
Italian army by Ethiopians (1896), the Boer
wars (1899- 1902) where the British faced
reverses and Japan’s victory over Russia (1905)
demolished myths of European invincibility.
Defeat of Russian Empire in Crimean War was
reason for rise of militant activities during 1857
freedom struggle and not during the Swadeshi
Movement.
Statement 4 is correct: Recognition of true
nature of British rule and their repressive
policy. The Natu brothers were deported
without trial and Tilak and others, imprisoned
on charges of sedition.
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64. (d)
Option 1 is correct: Charter Act 1813 directed
the company to sanction one lakh rupees
annually for promoting knowledge of Modern
Sciences.
Option 2 is correct: Lord Macaulay’s Famous
Minute concluded that limited government
resources were to be devoted to teaching of
western sciences.
Option 3 is correct: In 1854, Charles Wood
prepared a despatch on an educational system
in India also known as Magna Carta of English
education in India.
65. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Extremists wanted
to take the movement outside Bengal but
Moderates opposed it.
Statement 2 is correct: There was a great
deal of public debate and disagreement among
moderates and the radicals in the year 1905-07,
even when they were working together against
the portioning of Bengal. The radicals wanted
to extend the swadeshi and boycott movement
from Bengal to rest of the country. The
moderates wanted to confine the boycott part
of the movement to Bengal and were totally
opposed to its extension. Matters nearly got
worst at the Calcutta Congress in 1906 over
the question of its presidentship. The split was
avoided by choosing Dadabhai Nairoji, who
was respected by all the nationalists as a great
patriot. However, In Surat Session (1907),
extremists wanted Lala Lajpat Rai or Tilak as a
President candidate of congress and Moderates
supported Dr. Rashbihari Ghosh to be the
President. Lala Lajpat Rai stepped down and
Dr. Rashbihari Ghosh became the President.
The British Government immediately
launched a massive attack on the extremists
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and Extremist newspapers were suppressed.
Lokmanya Tilak, their main leader, was sent to
Mandalay jail for six years.
66. (a)
Natal Indian Ambulance Corps: Gandhi
encouraged the recruitment of Indian soldiers
for service in South Africa with his organization
of the Indian Ambulance Corps despite his
sympathies for the Boer cause. The objective
of Gandhi’s service to the British Crown in
the Anglo- Boer War was to force the British
to recognize Indians as equal citizens of the
British Empire.
Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association:
It was founded by Gandhiji in 1918. It was
perhaps the largest single trade union of the
time.
All India Khilafat Committee: Initially the
Khilafat movement had two broad trends:
a moderate trend headed by the Bombay
merchants and a radical trend led by the
younger Muslim leaders, like Muhammad Ali,
Shaukat Ali, Maulana Azad and the ulema.
The former group preferred to proceed through
the familiar constitutional path of sending a
delegation to the viceroy or ensuring Muslim
representation in the Paris Peace Conference.
The latter group on the other hand, wanted a
mass agitation against the British on the basis
of unity with the Hindus.
67. (b)
Bharat Dharma Mahamandala: An all
India Organisation of the orthodox educated
Hindus. It stood for a defence of Orthodox
Hinduism against teachings of Arya samajist,
the theosophist, and the RamKrishna Mission.
Deoband School: It was organised by orthodox
section among muslim ulema as a revivalist
movement.
© Copyright: (15 – A)
Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
Seva Sadan: It was founded by a Parsi
Reformer Behramji Malabari in 1885. The
Organisation specialised in taking care of those
women who were exploited and then discarded
by society.
68. (a)
Statement 1 is economic cause: Complete
destruction of traditional handicraft industry
as Indian Artisans and handicraftsmen lost the
patronage by Princes and Nobility.
Statement 2 is economic cause: Heavy
taxation under new revenue settlements was
also one of economic causes for revolt of 1857.
Statement 3 is economic cause: British
imposed a policy of one-way free trade on
India after 1813
Statement 4 is not an economic cause: Issue
of new gunpowder cartridges for the Enfield
rifle in 1857 is religious cause for the revolt
of 1857.
69. (c)
The Lex Loci Act gave the Christian converts
the right to inherit their ancestral properties.
The act, the Hindus widely believed, would
open floodgates to Christian conversion. Option
(a) is related to Vernacular Press Act 1878,
was directed against vernacular newspapers.
Option (b) is related Ilbert Bill Proposed to
give Indian district magistrates and sessions
judges the power to try European offenders.
70. (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Aim of the Swarajist
was to derail the Constitution by obstructing
the functioning of the Council from within it.
The Swarajists are driven to concentrating all
their energy on breaking Gandhiji’s hold on
the Congress.
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
Statement 2 is correct: The no-changers,
whose effective head was Gandhiji, argued
for the continuation of the full programme
of boycott and non-cooperation, effective
working of the constructive programme and
quiet preparations for the resumption of the
suspended civil disobedience.
71. (c)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Tropical
Deciduous are the monsoon forests found in
the large part of India, northern Australia and
in central America. These regions experience
seasonal changes. Trees shed their leaves in the
dry season to conserve water. The hardwood
trees found in these forests are sal, teak, neem
and shisham. Hardwood trees are extremely
useful for making furniture, transport and
constructional materials.
72. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Movement of water
caused by meteorological effects are called
surges. These are not regular like tides.
Statement 2 is correct: As a wave approaches
the beach, it slows down. This is due to the
friction occurring between the dynamic water
and the sea floor. When the depth of water is
less than half the movements of ocean water
wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks.
Statement 3 is not correct: The boundary
region, from where there is a rapid decrease of
temperature, is called the thermocline. About
90 per cent of the total volume of water is
found below the thermocline in the deep ocean.
In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C.
73. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Salinity changes
with depth, but the way it changes depends
upon the location of the sea. Salinity at the
© Copyright: (16 – A)
surface increases by the loss of water to ice or
evaporation, or decreased by the input of fresh
waters, such as from the rivers.
Statement 2 is correct: Salinity at depth is
very much fixed, because there is no way that
water is lost, or the salt is ‘added.’ There is a
marked difference in the salinity between the
surface zones and the deep zones of the oceans.
The lower salinity water rests above the higher
salinity dense water. Salinity, generally,
increases with depth and there is a distinct zone
called the halocline, where salinity increases
sharply.
74. (b)
The pattern of the movement of the planetary
winds is called the general circulation of the
atmosphere. The pattern of planetary winds
largely depends on:
(i) latitudinal variation of atmospheric
heating.
(ii) emergence of pressure belts.
(iii) the migration of belts following apparent
path of the sun.
(iv) the distribution of continents and oceans
(v) the rotation of earth.
75. (d)
The Larsen Ice Shelf is a long ice shelf
in the northwest part of the Weddell Sea,
extending along the east coast of the Antarctic
Peninsula from Cape Longing to the area just
southward of Hearst Island. It is surrounded by
Bellinghaushen Sea from the other side.
76. (c)
Mediterranean Climatic Biome: Entirely
confined to the western portion of continental
masses, between 30° and 45° north and
south of the equator. The basic cause of this
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type of climate is the shifting of the wind
belts. Clear skies and high temperatures; hot,
dry summers and cool, wet winters. Mean
annual precipitation ranges from 35 – 90 cm.
Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of
this type of ‘winter rain climate’. The best
developed form of this climatic type is found
in central Chile. Other Mediterranean regions
include: California (around San Francisco),
the south-western tip of Africa (around Cape
Town), southern Australia, and south-west
Australia (Swanland). The Mediterranean lands
are also known as the world’s orchard lands.
A wide range of citrus fruits such as oranges,
lemons, limes, citrons and grapefruit are
grown. They are, in short xerophytic [drought
tolerant], a word used to describe the drought-
resistant plants in an environment deficient in
moisture. Many local winds, some hot, others
cold are common around the Mediterranean
Sea.
77. (d)
Five basic factors that control the formation of
soils are:
(i) parent material; (ii) topography; (iii)
climate;(iv) biological activity; (v) time.
In fact, soil forming factors act in union and
affect the action of one another.
78. (b)
Statement 1 is correct: Barchans are crescent
shaped sand dunes that occur identical or in
groups.
Statement 2 is not correct: Inselberg are
residual hills raising above the ground which
are typical features of many desert and arid
landscapes because of wind erosion.
Statement 3 is not correct: A yardang is a
streamlined protuberance carved from bedrock
or any consolidated or semiconsolidated
© Copyright: (17 – A)
Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
material by the dual action of wind abrasion
by dust and sand, and deflation which is the
removal of loose material by wind turbulence.
79. (c)
Types of Earthquakes:
1. The most common are the tectonic
earthquakes. These are generated due to
sliding of rocks along a fault plane.
2. A special class of tectonic earthquake
is sometimes recognised as Volcanic
earthquake.
3. In the areas of intense mining activity,
sometimes the roofs of underground mines
collapse causing minor tremors.
4. Ground Shaking may also occur due
to the explosion of chemical or nuclear
devices. Such tremors are called explosion
earthquakes.
5. The earthquakes that occur in the areas of
large reservoirs are referred to as reservoir
induced earthquakes.
The following are the immediate hazardous
effects of earthquake:
1. Ground shaking
2. Avalanches
3. Tsunami
4. Land and mud slides etc.
80. (c)
The water at the ocean surface is moved
primarily by winds that blow in certain patterns
because of the Earth’s spin and the Coriolis
Effect. Gyres flow clockwise in Northern
Hemisphere oceans and counterclockwise in
Southern Hemisphere oceans because of the
Coriolis Effect. Planetary winds pull ocean
waters pole wards and Westwards and warm
the eastern cost of the continent. Difference in
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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
temperature of poles and equator region results
in flow of currents. Warm water is lighter and
raise up where as cold water is denser and
heavy hence sinks down. Salinity decides water
density, and hence the upwards and downward
movement of water. Moon’s gravitational
pull has no impact on ocean currents. Land
constantly obstructs and diverts the currents.
81. (a)
The course of a river is generally divided into
three stages which are: The Upper or Mountain
Course (the stage of youth); The Middle or
Valley Course (the stage of maturity), The
Lower or Plain Course (old-age stage of river).
Each of these three stages of river is associated
with certain outstanding features. Some of
these features associated with different stages
can be listed as under:
1. The Upper or Mountain Course has features
such as: River Capture, Rapids, Cataracts
and Waterfalls.
2. The Middle or Valley Course has features
such as: Meanders, River cliffs and slip-off
slopes and Interlocking spurs.
3. The lower or Plain Course has features such
as: Flood Plains Ox-bow lakes and Delta.
82. (c)
Nebula is an interstellar cloud of dust, hydrogen,
helium and other ionized gases. It can be dark
nebula, emission nebula and reflection nebula.
A cigar-shaped matter having thicker middle
portion and thinner ends ejected from primitive
sun by the gravitation force of the intruding
star was named filament by James Jeans.
Small celestial particles detached from
photosun due to massive gravitational pull
exerted by a giant intruding star are called
planetesimals.
© Copyright: (18 – A)
Explosion of a star caused by gravitational
collapse resulting in increased luminosity of
star as much as 20 magnitudes and most of
the times leaving behind a dense core is called
supernova.
83. (a)
Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Mohorovicic
Discontinuity, or “Moho,” is the boundary
between the crust and the mantle.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The
Gutenberg discontinuity marks the boundary
between the lower mantle and outer core. It is
located about 2900 km below the Earth surface.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Conrad
discontinuity is a boundary within the
Earth’s continental crust that can be detected
seismically at about 10–12 km depth, although
exploratory deep drilling has failed to locate it.
The boundary separates the crust into a lower,
basic layer and an upper, granitic layer.
84. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: It is propounded
that mid oceanic ridges are situated on the
rising thermal convection currents coming up
from the mentle. The oceanic crust moves in
opposite direction from the mid-oceanic ridges
and thus there is continuous upwelling of new
molten materials along the mid-oceanic ridges.
Statement 2 is not correct: The sea floor
spreads along the mid-oceanic ridges. The
expanding crusts are destroyed along the
oceanic trenches.
85. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Almost all of the
weather phenomena like rainfall, fog, dew etc.
occur in troposphere.
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 Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)

Statement 2 is correct: The height of Option (c) is not correct: Narmada river lies
troposphere increases from poles towards the to the north of Satpura range.
equator. Its average height is 16 km over the Option (d) is not correct: Western Ghats run
equator and 6 km over the poles. form south of the Tapi valley till the southern
Statement 3 is not correct: Height of tip of Indian Peninsula.
troposphere increases during summer and
89. (b)
decreases during winter.
Following rivers of India cut Tropic of Cancer
86. (d) -Sabarmati, Mahi, Kali, Betwa, Chambal,
Statement 1 is correct: Commercial planes Damodar.
fly in lower layer of stratosphere to avoid
turbulence and bad weather.
Statement 2 is correct: Temperature decreases
with increasing height in mesosphere. At
uppermost limit of mesosphere temperature
becomes 80 degree Celsius.
Statement 3 is correct: Thermosphere extends
between 80-400 km. This layer helps in radio
transmission. In fact, radio waves transmitted
from the earth are reflected back to the earth
by this layer. 90. (a)
87. (b) Only Damodar and Tapi rivers flow through
Statement 1 is not correct: The earth receives rift valley. The Damodar occupies the eastern
most of its energy from the sun through margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it
shortwave solar radiations. flows through a rift valley and finally joins the
Hugli. The major river systems of the Peninsular
Statement 2 is correct: The earth radiates
drainage are – the Mahanadi the Godavari,
energy received from sun, out of its surface
the Krishna and the Kaveri. Peninsular rivers
into the atmosphere through longwave.
are characterised by fixed course, absence of
Statement 3 is not correct: The amount of
meanders and non- perennial flow of water.
scattering of radiation is inversely proportional
The Narmada and the Tapi which flow through
to fourth power of its wavelength.
the rift valley are, however, exceptions.
88. (a)
91. (c)
Option (a) is correct: Their average elevation
Statement 1 is not correct: Spice bomb,
is 900–1600 metres and are higher in Southern which stands for Smart, Precise Impact, Cost-
region. Effective, comes equipped with a family of
Option (b) is not correct: Anaimudi is highest weapons used for air-to-ground operations.
peak in Western ghats. India has been using SPICE-2000 bombs

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CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020
since 2015 on French-developed fighter jets,
Mirage-2000. The Spice-2000 bombs have
been acquired from Israel which is one of the
main weapon and ammunition supplier of the
Air Force.
Statement 2 is not correct: These sophisticated
bombs are difficult to detect on radars. Due to
their small size, they can be used from standoff
range to destroy targets. Also, heavy cloud
cover or bad weather has little effect on their
outcome.
Statement 3 is correct: Spice bomb has a
standoff range of 60 kilometres.
92. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: To curb growing
menace of air pollution through the vehicles
emission, the Government of India has decided
to leapfrog from the exiting BS – IV norms to
the BS- VI, thereby skipping the BS – V norms,
and to implement the BS – VI norms with effect
from 1st April 2020. The major difference
between the existing BS-IV and forthcoming
BS-VI norms is the presence of sulphur in the
fuel. While the BS-IV fuels contain 50 parts
per million (ppm) sulphur, the BS-VI grade
fuel only has 10 ppm sulphur content.
Statement 2 is not correct: While the
application of a stricter emission norm may
sound good, especially amidst the mounting
concerns over the ever-rising pollution levels
in the country, there’s a lot more to it than just
that. It takes years for automakers to develop a
new kind of an engine or to tweak around with
the current ones used in their vehicles.
93. (a)
Statement 1 is correct: India has launched
the indigenously developed National Common
Mobility Card (NCMC) to enable people
© Copyright: (20 – A)
to pay multiple kinds of transport charges,
including metro services and toll tax, across
the country. Dubbed as ‘One Nation One
Card’, the inter-operable transport card would
allow the holders to pay for their bus travel,
toll taxes, parking charges, retail shopping and
even withdraw money.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is indigenously
developed.
Statement 3 is not correct: Ministry of
Housing & Urban Affairs brought to the fore
the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)
to enable seamless travel by different metros
and other transport systems across the country
besides retail shopping and purchases.
94. (c)
SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and
military organisation. The SCO’s main goals
are as follows: strengthening mutual trust
and neighbourliness among the member
states; promoting their effective cooperation
in politics, trade, the economy, research,
technology and culture, as well as in education,
energy, transport, tourism, environmental
protection, and other areas; making joint efforts
to maintain and ensure peace, security and
stability in the region; and moving towards the
establishment of a democratic, fair and rational
new international political and economic order.
Currently, SCO has 8 Member States - China,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan,
Uzbekistan, India and Pakistan; 4 Observer
States - Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and
Mongolia and 6 Dialogue Partners - Azerbaijan,
Armenia, Cambodia, Nepal, Turkey and Sri
Lanka.
95. (d)
The Kimberley Process is a joint initiative
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involving Government, international diamond
industry and civil society to stem the flow of
Conflict Diamonds. Conflict Diamonds means
rough diamonds used by rebel movements
or their allies to finance conflict aimed at
undermining legitimate governments. India
is one of the founder members of Kimberley
Process Certification Scheme and is the Chair
of Kimberley Process for the year 2019 with
Russian Federation as Vice Chair.
96. (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: NASA’s OSIRIS-
REx will be the first U.S. mission to bring
an asteroid sample to Earth. The spacecraft
is currently orbiting asteroid Bennu and will
spend two years mapping it before collecting a
sample and returning to Earth. It is the first U.S.
attempt to gather asteroid samples for return to
Earth, something only Japan has accomplished
so far. It consists of only orbiter and not lander.
Statement 2 is correct: The spacecraft is on a
seven-year journey to study the asteroid Bennu
that runs between the orbits of Earth and of
Mars. Osiris-Rex aims to collect at least 60g
of dust and gravel. The spacecraft won’t land,
but rather use a 10-foot (3-metre) mechanical
arm in 2020 to momentarily touch down and
vacuum up particles. The sample container
would break loose and head toward Earth in
2021.
97. (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Pradhan Mantri
Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) is
a campaign launched by the Department of
Pharmaceuticals to provide quality medicines
at affordable prices to the masses (not only BPL
population). PMBJP stores have been set up to
© Copyright: (21 – A)
Modern History of India, Geography and CA (M1)
provide generic drugs, which are available at
lesser prices but are equivalent in quality and
efficacy as expensive branded drugs.
Statement 2 is correct: It was launched by the
Department of Pharmaceuticals in November
2008 under the name Jan Aushadi Campaign.
Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the
implementation agency for PMBJP.
Statement 3 is correct: State Governments
or any organization / reputed NGOs / Trusts
/ Private hospitals / Charitable institutions /
Doctors / Unemployed pharmacist/ individual
entrepreneurs are eligible to apply for new Jan
Aushadhi stores. The applicants shall have
to employ one B Pharma / D Pharma degree
holder as Pharmacist in their proposed store.
98. (d)
The armies of India and Myanmar carried
out a three-week-long coordinated operation
in their respective border areas, targeting
several militant groups operating in Manipur,
Nagaland and Assam. The first phase of
“Operation Sunrise” was conducted earlier in
2018 along the Indo-Myanmar border, during
which a number of camps of north-east-based
militant groups were busted.
Myanmar is one of the strategic neighbours
of India and shares a 1,640-km border with a
number of north-eastern states, including the
militancy-hit Nagaland and Manipur.
99. (b)
Bt cotton remains the only GM crop allowed to
be cultivated in the country. Developed by US
giant Bayer-Monsanto, it involves insertion of
two genes viz ‘Cry1Ab’ and ‘Cry2Bc’ from
the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into
cotton seeds. This modification codes the plant
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 CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2020

to produce protein toxic to Heliothis bollworm
(pink bollworm) thus making it resistant to
their attack. The commercial release of this
hybrid was sanctioned by the government in
2002.
100.(c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Bonn Challenge
is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares
of the world’s deforested and degraded land
under restoration by 2020, and 350 million
hectares by 2030.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, India made
a Bonn Challenge commitment to place into
restoration 13 million hectares (Mha) of
degraded land by 2020 and an additional 8
Mha by 2030. India’s Nationally Determined
Contributions (NDCs) have also pledged
to sequester 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2
equivalent additionally by 2030 through
enhanced tree cover.
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