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AIRCRAFT TECHNICAL & GENERAL

1. Synthetic hydraulic fluid is coloured:

a. blue
b. light straw
c. red

2. The purpose of an accumulator in the hydraulic system is to:

a. prevent cavitation at the pump

b. provide, in an emergency, a supply of fluid for the pump
c. assist in damping out system pressure fluctuations

3. A visco-static fluid is one which:

a. maintains a constant viscosity at all working temperatures

b. maintains a constant viscosity at a specific working temperature
c. will not form sludge or thicken when it is stationary in the system

4. The component in a hydraulic system that will be set to the highest pressure is the

a. pressure relief valve

b. accumulator
c. non-return valve

5. If air has leaked into the lines of a foot operated hydraulic brake system

a. the brake pedal will experience no resistance as it travels to the floor

b. the brakes will feel “spongy”
c. application of light foot pressure will cause the brakes to grab

6. The purpose of a shimmy damper is to

a. eliminate vibration of the tailwheel

b. eliminate vibration of the main wheels
c. reduce nose wheel vibration during ground operations

7. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by:

a. the main engine pump

b. booster pumps
c. fuel tank vents.

8. Fuel system booster pumps are normally:

a. engine driven
b. electrically operated
c. air operated.

9. Why is it desirable to leave an aircraft with full fuel tanks if parking it overnight?

a. Prevention of condensation of water in the tanks

b. Prevention of drying out and cracking of fuel lines
c. Ensure correct grade of fuel has been loaded

10. The octane rating of fuel is an indication of its

a. calorific value
b. volatility
c. resistance to detonation

11. The volatility of a fuel is its

a. anti-detonation resistance
b. mass per unit volume
c. vapor forming tendency

12. If fuel of the specified octane rating cannot be attained it is permissible to use
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a. fuel of the next lower octane rating

b. fuel of the next higher octane rating
c. a mixture of the next lowest and the next highest grade

13. AVGAS l00LL is colored

a. clear
b. blue
c. green

14. A fuel has a rating of 100/130. The 100 indicates

a. the proportion of iso-octane and neoheptane blended in the fuel

b. the percentage of maximum manifold pressure that can be used in lean mixture
c. the anti-detonation rating of the fuel in lean mixture

15. The purpose of an electric boost pump is to

a. provide extra power at take-off

b. transfer fuel from one tank to another
c. guard against vapor locking

16. The use of a lower than specified grade of fuel in an engine is likely to

a. cause lead fouling of the spark plugs

b. result in an over-lean mixture
c. result in detonation

17. Aircraft heaters which draw on hot air fro m around the exhaust manifold

a. are used only in twin-engined aircraft

b. may cause carbon monoxide poisoning
c. are unlikely to cause carbon monoxide (ie poisoning as exhaust gases are easily detected by smell)

18. The capacity of a battery is rated in

a. volts
b. watts
c. ampere-hours

19. Circuit breakers are fitted:

a. in parallel with the load

b. in series with the load
c. in parallel with the fuses

20. Load shedding will cause the:

a. current to increase
b. voltage to increase
c. current to reduce

21. The valves of a four stroke piston engine will each:

a. open twice during the normal "Otto" cycle

b. open once during the normal "Otto" cycle
c. open four times during the normal "Otto" cycle

22. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates:

a. at twice the speed of the crankshaft.

b. at half the speed of the crankshaft.
c. at the same speed as the crankshaft.

23. Tappet and rocker arm clearance is essential:

a. to allow lubrication between the contact surface.

b. to allow for valve operation by the cam.
c. to allow for expansion throughout the working temperature range of the engine.
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24. Valve "Dwell" is:

a. the period a valve remains open.

b. the period a valve remains closed.
c. the period taken by the rocker to take up the clearance gap before operating the valve.

25. Valve overlap occurs:

a. at the end of the power stroke.

b. at the end of the exhaust stroke.
c. at the end of the induction stroke.

26. The weight of charge induced into a piston engine cylinder during normal operation:

a. is increased by closing the exhaust valve before TDC.

b. is reduced by closing the inlet valve after BDC.
c. is increased by delaying the closing of the inlet valve.

27. The exhaust valve of a piston engine:

a. normally has a hollow stem partially filled with sodium.

b. is normally manufactured from metallic sodium to assist with cooling.
c. normally has a hollow head filled with sodium.

28. Valve springs are primarily duplicated to:

a. to ensure a gas tight seal when the valve is closed.

b. to prevent the valve dropping into the cylinder in the event a spring breaks.
c. to reduce valve bounce.

29. When the piston of a four stroke piston engine is towards the end of the power stroke:

a. the gas temperature will be at its highest.

b. the gas temperature will be reducing.
c. the gas temperature will remain constant until BDC.

30. The compression ratio of a piston engine is the:

a. ratio of the cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder volume when at TDC.
b. difference in pressure generated when the piston is at BDC to that generated at TDC.
c. variation between the volume of the combustion chamber and the swept volume.

31. The majority of aircraft piston engine lubrication systems are of the:

a. self lubricating type.

b. wet sump type.
c. dry sump type.

32. A dry sump lubrication system:

a. maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank.

b. maintains a reserve of oil in the sump.
c. requires no reserve of oil.

33. The pressure pump of a dry sump lubrication system:

a. has a greater capacity than the scavenge pump.

b. has less capacity than the scavenge pump.
c. is driven on a common shaft and has the same capacity as the scavenge pump.

34. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system is:

a. located between the pressure pump and tank.

b. located after the pressure pump.
c. located between the scavenge pump and the tank.

35. The by-pass valve of a dry sump lubrication system is:

a. normally activated during low temperature engine starting.

b. normally activated during high temperature engine starting.
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c. is a relief valve excess oil pressure.

36. Normally on most piston engines the lubrication oil of a dry sump system is cooled:

a. on leaving the pressure pump.

b. before returning to the oil tank.
c. before returning to the sump.

37. The reserve of lubricating oil of a wet sump piston engine is stored in:

a. the sump.
b. a separate tank.
c. the pipe system.

38. The oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system has a space above the oil to provide for:

a. jack ram displacement.

b. pressurisation.
c. expansion of the oil and frothing.

39. The oil cooler of a dry sump lubrication system is normally cooled by:

40. water.
41. compressor oil.
42. ram air.

43. The magnetic field in a magneto is provided by:

a. battery current.
b. an excitation field circuit.
c. a permanent magnet.

44. Excessive arcing across the contact breaker points of a magneto when the points are open is prevented by:

a. a diode being fitted.

b. a condenser being fitted.
c. insulation of the contacts.

45. On a four stroke engine the ignition spark will occur:

a. once each revolution of the engine.

b. once every fourth revolution of the engine.
c. once every two revolutions of the engine.

46. On engine start up, the generator warning light fails to extinguish, this will result in:

a. the engine stopping when the battery is totally discharged.

b. failure of the initial excitation of the magneto.
c. the engine continuing to run normally.

47. The distributor rotor on a four stroke engine rotates at:

a. the same speed as the engine.

b. twice the speed of the engine.
c. half the speed of the engine.

48. With increase of engine speed, ignition timing:

a. will advance.
b. will retard.
c. will remain constant.

49. If the fuel pressure warning light comes on in flight the:

a. pumps must be isolated.

b. main fuel pump must be isolated.
c. electrical pumps must be switched on.

50. Fuel pump delivery is normally:

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a. supplied at a constant flow rate to the engine.

b. supplied at a constant pressure, controlled by a pressure relief valve.
c. supplied at a constant volume.

51. In an air-cooled piston engine:

a. fins are incorporated to increase the cylinder and head surface areas.
b. air is ducted through drillings in the cylinder head walls.
c. oil is used to cool the oil cooler.

52. Air is directed over the cylinder wall fins by:

a. cowl gills.
b. baffles.
c. air deflection plates.

53. Engine temperature is normally indicated by:

a. cylinder head temperature gauge.

b. the engine master temperature gauge.
c. the engine lubrication system temperature gauge.

54. Cooling air is normally provided by:

a. airflow from a supercharger.

b. airflow from a compressor bleed.
c. ram air.

55. In a liquid cooled engine cooling system:

a. temperature is controlled by a thermostat.

b. temperature is controlled by a master pump.
c. fuel is used to cool the coolant.

56. An alternative name sometimes given to the choke is the:

a. butterfly.
b. venturi.
c. intake controller.

57. To prevent fuel starvation due to sudden opening of the throttle:

a. the enrichment jet is fitted.

b. the pressure balance duct is fitted.
c. the accelerator pump is fitted.

58. Carburettor anti-icing is normally provided by:

a. hot air from the cooling system.

b. hot air from the engine exhaust system.
c. spray mat heater elements.

59. During the power stroke of a piston engine, as the piston descends the cylinder the temperature will:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain relatively constant.

60. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates at:

a. half the speed of the crankshaft

b. the same speed as the crankshaft
c. twice the speed of the crankshaft.

61. Piston engine valve 'dwell' is the:

a. period a valve remains open

b. period between valve overlap
c. period when both inlet and exhaust valves are closed.
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62. The purpose of valve springs are to:

a. ensure the valves close

b. obtain a close fit with the cam face
c. ensure a gas tight seal when the valves are closed.

63. An over-rich mixture after starting a piston engine may he due to:

a. boost reversal
b. the hand priming pump plunger in the out position
c. the timing being retarded.

64. At low engine RPM, black smoke from the exhaust of a piston engine may indicate:

a. oil leaking past the piston rings

b. contaminated fuel
c. a rich mixture.

65. The helix angle is:

a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.

b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the incidence angle.
c. The angle of advance.

66. The blade angle is:

a. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.

b. Equal to the angle of advance plus the helix angle.
c. Equal to the angle of attack plus blade incidence angle.

67. A variable pitch constant speed propeller is designed primarily to:

a. Maintain the engine at a constant RPM.

b. Maintain the propeller at a constant thrust.
c. Maintain the propeller at a constant pitch.

68. A variable pitch constant speed propeller:

a. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to engine RPM.

b. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to propeller pitch.
c. Eliminates the need for constant changes to mixture setting.

69. The pitch is controlled on a constant speed variable pitch propeller:

a. By the RPM lever.

b. By the throttle.
c. By the C.S.U.

70. Prior to engine starting:

a. Coarse pitch is selected to give maximum cooling airflow.

b. Extra fine pitch is selected to reduce the load on the engine.
c. Extra fine pitch is selected to increase cooling airflow to the engine.

71. In the feathered position:

a. The leading edge of the blade faces forward.

b. The trailing edge of the blade faces forward.
c. The thrust face faces forward.

72. The angle of advance of a propeller is:

a. The same as the helix angle.

b. The same as the blade angle.
c. The same as the angle of attack.

73. If the Pitot Head and Static Vent were blocked by ice, which instruments would be affected?

a. ASI, Altimeter, Turn indicator

b. AH, DI, Turn and slip indicator
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c. ASI, Altimeter, VSI

74. If the static vent became blocked during a descent the ASI would read:

a. Zero
b. High
c. Low

75. If the Pitot opening is blocked, which instruments would be affected (separate static vent)?

a. ASI, Altimeter and VSI.

b. ASI and VSI.
c. ASI only.

76. An aircraft is maintaining FL 120 in cloud. The ASI reading falls to zero. The most probable cause is:

a. Static vent blocked by ice

b. Pitot head and static vent blocked by ice.
c. ASI system malfunction.

77. Pressure altitude 10000 feet OAT + 3 C. What is Density Altitude?

a. 11000 ft
b. 12300 ft
c. 9200 ft

78. Airfield Elevation 4000 ft, OAT+15C, QNH995hPa. What is Density Altitude?

a. 5000 ft
b. 5600 ft
c. 6200 ft

79. The location of the static vent which could provide the most accurate measurement of static pressure under
variable flight conditions is:

a. At the Pitot head which encounters relatively undisturbed air

b. In the cockpit where it is not influenced by a variable angle of attack.
c. One on each side of the aircraft where the system will compensate for variation of aircraft attitude.

80. Pressure Altitude at an airfield is indicated by an altimeter when the barometric sub-scale is set to:

a. QNH
b. QFE
c. 1013.25 hPa

81. If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the aircraft,
with the cabin pressure being lower than static, the following variations in instrument indication would be expected:

a. the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed will not change and the vertical-speed indicator will
momentarily show a descent;
b. the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal and the vertical-speed indicator
will momentarily show a climb;
c. the altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal and the vertical-speed indicator will
momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

82. Assume that an aeroplane at 17000 FT AMSL has a cabin pressure equal to an altitude of 7000 FT. If the pitot static
tubes break at a point within the cockpit, the altimeter would read:

a. 10000 FT (7000 ft + 3000 ft) which is the allowance for pressure differential;
b. 17000 ft;
c. The cabin pressure altitude, i.e. 7000 ft.

83. If an altimeter indicates 3500 feet with QNH 1005 hPa set, what is the pressure altitude?

a. 3755 ft
b. 3500 ft
c. 3160 ft

84. An aircraft flies from Johannesburg (QNH 1020) to Durban (QNH 995) at FL 100. In the cruise the aircraft is:
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a. Descending
b. Climbing
c. Maintaining altitude

85. An aircraft levels out after a rapid descent. The altimeter would:

a. Read correctly.
b. Overread for a brief period.
c. Underread for a brief period.

86. An airfield, elevation 3000 feet, has a pressure altitude of 3500 feet. What is the QNH?

a. 1029hPa
b. 1013 hPa
c. 996 hPa

87. Ambient static pressure is fed to the ASI in flight to:

a. Cancel dynamic pressure in the pitot tube.

b. Subtract the static pressure from the dynamic pressure.
c. Cancel static pressure entering the instrument diaphragm through the pitot tube.

88. The static vent is blocked. If the glass covering the VSI is broken, the instrument will:

a. Read correctly.
b. Read zero under all conditions.
c. Readings will be reversed.

89. The reported QNH of a given station is the:

a. actual barometric pressure measured at the station;

b. actual barometric pressure measured at sea level;
c. Station's barometric pressure corrected to mean sea level pressure.

90. The Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator incorporates an accelerometer unit. The pistons of the accelerometer
unit are connected:

a. directly to the VSI needle to give an instantaneous deflection when a climb or a descent is initiated;
b. directly to the capsule by a leaf spring which exerts or relieves pressure on the capsule when a climb or a
descent is initiated;
c. to the static pressure tube leading to the capsule and their movement creates an immediate pressure
change inside the capsule when a climb or descent is initiated.

91. If the static pressure ports iced over while descending from altitude, the airspeed indicator would read:

a. High
b. Low
c. Correctly.

92. The rigidity of a spinning wheel is directly proportional to:

a. the speed of rotation and indirectly proportional to the mass of the rotor;
b. the moment of inertia and inversely proportional to the speed of rotation;
c. the speed of rotation and inversely proportional to the moment of inertia.

93. Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a:

a. 90 degree turn;
b. 180 degree turn;
c. 270 degree turn.

94. When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level flight, or at take-off, what inherent precession
characteristic will be displayed on the attitude indicator?

a. The miniature aircraft would indicate a descent.

b. The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.
c. The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb and bank.

95. What is the approximate angle of bank for a rate one turn at 110 knots?
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a. 18 degrees
b. 25 degrees
c. 30 degrees

96. The Turn and Slip indicator pre-flight check consists of:

a. Aircraft level, ball central, turn needle central.

b. Aircraft level, turn needle central, ball central, fluid in tube.
c. Aircraft not level, turn needle and ball displaced.

97. What indications should you get from the Turn and Slip indicator during taxi?

a. The needle and ball should move freely in the direction of the turn.
b. The ball moves opposite to the turn and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
c. The ball deflects opposite to the turn and the needle remains central.

98. The angle of tilt of the rate gyro in a turn indicator is due to:

a. the force in the horizontal plane generated by secondary precession balancing the tilt caused by primary
precession;
b. the tension of the control spring opposing the angular tilt of the gyro;
c. primary precession which is generated by an aeroplanes rate of turn.

99. The rigidity of a gyro is directly proportional to:

a. Rotor speed and to rotor mass.

b. Gyro inertia and inversely proportional to rotor speed.
c. Gyro inertia and rotor speed.

100. A warning flag appears on an electrical Turn and Slip indicator, this means:

a. Total instrument failure.

b. Turn indicator failure. Slip indicator serviceable.
c. Turn indicator under reads, slip not affected.

101. The principle of rigidity is used for the operation of the following gyroscopic instruments:

a. Directional Gyro and Artificial Horizon.

b. Directional Gyro and Turn indicator.
c. Artificial Horizon and Turn indicator.

102. An Artificial Horizon employs a;

a. Tied gyro
b. Earth gyro
c. Rate gyro

103. One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the:

a. Resistance to deflection of the gyro rotor.

b. Ability to resist precession at 90 degrees to an applied force.
c. Position of the gyro axis relative to the Earth's axis.

104. If a vacuum gauge indicates the pressure to be lower than the minimum limit, the air-operated instruments that would
be affected, are:

a. pressure altimeter;
b. heading indicator (DGI), AH;
c. vertical-speed indicator.

105. The DGI, Artificial Horizon and Turn indicator are:

a. Rate, Earth and Tied gyros respectively.

b. Tied, Rate and Earth gyros respectively.
c. Tied, Earth and Rate gyros respectively.

106. You are turning right from 150 (C) onto 220 (C) in the Southern Hemisphere. On what compass heading would you
roll out of the turn?

a. 210 (C)
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b. 220 (C)
c. 230 (C)

107. An aeroplane heading 030 (C) in the Southern Hemisphere turns left onto 340 (C) using a direct reading magnetic
compass. The roll out of the turn should be initiated on a compass heading off:

a. 360 (C)
b. 330 (C)
c. 300 (C)

108. Compass deviation is caused by:

a. The difference in the location of the Earth's Magnetic and Geographic Poles.
b. The angle of magnetic dip.
c. Aircraft magnetism distorting the Earth's magnetic field.

109. A magnetic compass will show an apparent turn to the North in the Southern Hemisphere when:

a. The aircraft accelerates on 000 (C).

b. The aircraft accelerates on 090 (C).
c. The aircraft decelerates on 270 (C).

110. Select the true statement regarding the magnetic compass in the southern hemisphere.

a. If on a westerly heading and the aircraft's speed is decreased, the aircraft will indicate a turn to the
north.
b. If on a northerly heading a turn is made toward the west, the compass will indicate a turn in the opposite
direction.
c. If on an easterly heading the aircraft is accelerated, the compass will indicate a turn to the north.

111. A compass swing should be conducted:

a. with the radio equipment off.

b. with the engine shut down.
c. with the engine running and radio’s on.

112. When a magnet cannot be made any more magnetic, it is said to be:

a. Impermeable.
b. Permeable.
c. Saturated.

113. In a direct reading magnetic compass, the effect of dip is counteracted by:

a. Low center of gravity above a high pivot point.

b. Compass liquid that promotes pendulicity.
c. Two powerful saturated magnets.

114. Tire creep is most likely to occur during:

a. Whilst taxiing with deflated tires

b. When the tires are over-inflated
c. During normal landings

115. Tire wear on the center of the tire is an indication of:

a. Hard landings
b. Over-inflated tires
c. under-inflated tires