RecrvitMENT OF Enforcfment OFFic Ek/tccouns OFPic IN EMALoyEES Proménr Furs Deganisptiow CEP Fo DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. ; GRS-A-TNS Test Booklet Series Serial No. TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY TEST Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 1 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OP THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF 80, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it ia the candidate's responsibility to emcode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in'the OMR Answer Shect. Any omission/discropancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions) in two Parts : PART—A and PART—B, Bach item in PART—B is printed both in Hind! and English. Each item comprises four responses {ansuers) You wall select the response which you want @ mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you fecl that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. in any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses GNLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided, See directions in the Answer Sheet. ‘6. AIL items carry equal marks. 7. Belore you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator oniy the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for raugh work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end, 10, Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS, {i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, ome-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if onc of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, (iil) Ifa question is left blank, ic., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question, DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO ara & - seat an fee Saran ea glera % feet ya vem BhPART—A 1, Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital lettera «in the sentence, © “The FUNDAMENTAL character of an individual defines his entire life"? (a) Productive (>) Essential, (@) Suecesstul (a) Effective 2. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “She has the habit of using HACKNEYED and redundant examples from her past even while dealing with the future generation”? (a) Indifferent (b) Imaginative fe) Cliched i@} Impressive ‘GRS-A~TNS/68-A, 3. Which one of the following is the synanym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “She is an IMMACULATE soul whose presence makes all the difference"? (a) Spotless fo) Excited (@) Extraordinary (@} Unparalleled 4. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital Jetters in the sentence, “There is a great deal of ENMITY"? (@) Amity () Cooperation i) Dispute (a)8. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “She was RELUCTANT to sell her car"? (a) Anxious (b) Happy {ce} Bager (4) Unwilling 6. Which one af the following is the antonym of the word written in capital letters in the sentence, “I cannot comply with the QUEER regulations of your land"? fa) Strange fb) Nimble (co) Everyday (a) Customary 7. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “As you know that the ignorant are easily duped", has an error? fa) As you know {) that the ignorant fe) are easily duped (@) No error GRS-A-TNS/68-4, 8, Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “After a lot of argument I brought him forward to my point of view", has an error? fa) After e lot of argument fo) I brought him forward fe) t@ my point of view fa} No error 9. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, “Don't ask him how he is ‘because if he starts talking about his ‘health you'll never get off from him”, has ‘an. error? (a) Don't ask him how he is because (b) if he starts talking about his health you'll never fo) get off from him [d) No error 10. Which one of the following words can be used as a substitute for the phrase, “vA nursery where children of working parents are cared for while their parents are at work"? fa) Sculler () Créche f) Dormitory (dl) Refectory [P.T.0,11. Which one of the following words can be 14. Which one of the following phrasal verbs used as a substitute for the phrase, may be used in the blank space in the “That which cannot be taken by force’’? sentence, “He is fond of art and seems —— (suited) to be an artist"? (a) Impossible fa) fit out Improbable Be (6) bring out fo} Impeccable (o) cut out (2) Tetpeeguable (2) suit out 12. Which one of the following is the 15. Which one of the following phrasal verbs appropriate question tag in the may be Used in the blank space in the sentence, “Take a seat, ___*? sentence, “We were happy in the beginning, but new all the troubles have {a) shall you? —, fa) crapped (o) can’t you? apse ap {b) come about (6) won't you? {o} come out (@} would you? (d) rushed in 13. Which one of the following is the appropriate question tag in the 16. Which one of the following phrasal verbs sentence, “Anyone can make mistakes, may be used in the blank space in the i sentence, “No one knows how it all (happened)"? fq) isn't it? {a} came across fb) shall they? (b} came about fe) can’t they? fe) came into @ isi (a) came forward ‘GRS-A-TNS/6B-A 417. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used in the blank space in the sentence, “I have to ___ (finish) this work before I leave tomorrow morning”? fo) clear up fo) clean up fo) finish up fa) do away with 18. Which one of the following. prepositions may be used in the blank: space in the sentence, “He lived a hand mouth existence, surviving on just a few rupees a week"? f@ in ) fo) for (@) inside GRS-A-TNS/68-A 18. Which one of the following can be used as @ substitute for the words written in capital letters in the sentence, “There is no meaning ta CRY OVER THE SPILT MILK since the matter is over"? (@) No use of worrying about (6) No use of spilling now (6) No use of celebration (4) No use of asking for 20. Which one of the following can be used a8 a substitute for the words written in capital letters in the sentence, “Serving the sufferers is true YEOMAN'S. SERVICE"? (a) A tisk job fb) An amusing job () An excellent work fd) An unwanted job 1P.T.0.PART—B 21. Who is the author of the work, The Euolution of Provineiell Finance in British India : A Study in the Provincial Decenwatization of Imperial Finance? fa} Dadabhai Naoroji fo) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar fe) MN. Roy (a) Jawaharlal Nehru 22. In the context of internations affairs, which one of the following is correct about Lord Curzon? (a) He advocated a pacifist policy. (o) He wanted to establish a British sphere af influence over the Persian Gulf and Seistan. () He wanted England and Russia to become friends against China, (@) He wanted to lead a flag-waving mission to the USA. 28. Which one of the following is correct about Assam in British India? (a) \t was a part of the North-East Frontier Agency, (6) It was made a province in 1865. (@) It was separated from Bengal in 1874, and along with Sylhet made into @ Chief Commissioner's province. (@) It was a Princely State ruled by Ahom kings. GRS-A~INS/68-A 24. What were the peasant associations set up in Kerala in the 1930s called? fa} Kisan Sabha fb) Kirti Kisan (@) Karshaka Sangam (aj Kisan Morcha 28. Why did the Congress declare 9th May to be ‘Ethiopia Day’? (@) Because the Ethiopians declared ‘their support for the cause of Indian independence from British mule, (o) Because Ethiopia bbeeame. independent from Britain on that day. (c) Because Ethiopia was attacked by ttaly in early 1936 and their ‘resistance was considered freedom struggle. (@) Because Ethiopian — leaders. denounced Mussolini. 26. Who set up the Bharat Stree Mahamandal which first met in Allahabad in 1910? (a) Annie Besant () Mcherbai Tata (e) Saraladevi Chaudhurani (d) Tarabai ShindeamI—B an, & paegre oie wife goeia sa fife fiw sv eat ga & lifter digester ole peiftore sige 3 cas aha BP fa) eon shih (o) So Ae sme reset fe) We Be wa (ey SaTETET Ae 22. singe act dal 9, oi ah Bat # Ferfetan fase oH wet BY (a) 388 sie SA an cesarean ) 35 ora Forel in die fafa eae ania ST TET TY 704 % fee, ets oh Fa a Pr 3F SETI aT (a) 76 USA % fog eH ea ae Fi Gaara fie) a aga eet eat al 23. fren ten am % sen See A Geferiad dame al 87 fa) Te GR viva stir Ge He Gieh) wa fee an (8) 1965 9 8 ain ar cal fear em fo) 1874 8 98 sioner & orem frm Tem ote Toe #1 ee are Pern geet sage ‘ain an Rar ra (@) we ae cane aro enfe ee teh THT a GRS-A-TNS/68A, . 1930 3 awe Hae A eahea pee ah A Hel ATA NT fe) Peart ar (o) fd Ra fe) Sie (ay Peart 25. 9 4h % fea w) wie 4 ‘sfedifie faa’ ait siti Pen? fq) Wife eRehiernfeal 3 Bee me a srectia eaten at ore aaa ot aieon i (oy ifs eiehfrat sa fis Be A a am fo) HM 1936 % sty gech 4 fachien 3 ae fen an sth ee fate = earn & feng eed ara aT aN | (a) athe seat & Fast A AREA A Fra At ef 26. se 8 merce, fire wee =x 1910 4 wenger 4 asa gf ch, ft eon feat Fh a? (a) rate @) een za fe) Breet sty ia) ama HR IP. 7.0,27. Which one of the following is not a feature of the — Non-Cooperation Movement? {al Economic boycott was intense and successful. fol The middle class participated in very large numbers in the movement. fo) It was marked by uneven geographical spread and regional variations. (a) Along with Nen-Cooperation, other Gandhian social reform movements like the antiliquor campaign achieved some success, 28. Which one of the following publications was started by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1928? (a) Pakhwun (bo) Khudai Khidmatgar (e) Young aia (a) india Awakens 29. Who among the following was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s? fa} Swami Dayananda Saraswati (o) Swami Vivekananda (e) Pandita Ramabai (d@) Ramabai Ranade 80. Who among the following is considered to be the first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty as a journalist? (a) Mahatma Gandhi fe) Rabindranath Tagore fe) Lokmanya, Tilak (d) Surendranath Banerjee GRS-A-TNS/68-A 31. Which of the following was/were the reason/reasons for the lack of ecanomic development in India in the 19th century? 1. Officially the British Government was committed to a policy of lnisser-faire, but it was actually a policy of discriminatory inter- vention. 2, European entrepreneurs had connections to banks and agency houses, while Indians had to rely on kin, family and caste men. 3. When plantations were transferred to individual capitalist ownership, native investors were deliberately ignored, Select the correct answer using the code given below, fa) 1 only (2) 2 and 3 only (} 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 32. Which social reformer’s autobiography, entitled Looking Back, describes his experiences in setting up schools for women in Poona in the 1890s? (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve fo) K.P. Telang (o} Jyotirao Phule (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkara7. Frafafion 8 a wal wee Pdr stadia sitter Fi ae 8? fq) aide ahem dia a ae ar () 3 vider aga aah dea A wean wf 3mm fern fe) sfraita sities fara otk ate faim, gee) ger Pree et iQ) seein site Aas “yistardl antics gure arctan, Ba A Patel afer, 8 fl pe wee Fes 28.9 Hq eR GM EM wy 1928 F ‘fefates 44 a-m o wer are feat ern? (a) THRE (bp were Reema fe) ar sear (a) #0 spe 29, 1880 % ae & sre Fo sad lke wer A caren wae & Pee ore A ort et (a) avi ware sea (op eave feta (eo) Wem rene fay CE ae 30. ea 8 fie’ ter wee sre arn ara 8, BRE ee an 3: 0 one ed a ge AT wait fa) Here Tit tb) carrera 2 Cop aeons (a) Gaara at GRS-A-TNS/68A Bi, Loe wel A, sree A nels ferera fm aRiteta Wi statin, et ear Ba eh Bi (o) @ aieRae & cea aes we varie A ferkert neta fafte sear srftenen ah (@) fed A ese A en gta eT fate sears wiftraor ay arfrea 2) 38. TER a sem am, a aia rier ana seater sifdersen &7 (a) Fae 16 (b) ya 17 te) 9g 19 (a) sige 23 [P.7.0.39. Which one of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is not correct? (a) The Constituent Assembly was composed of tembers who had been elected indirectly by the Members of the Provincial Legislative Assembly. fb) The Constituent Assembly held its first sitting on 9th December, 1946. fo} The seats in each province were distributed among the three main communities—Mustim, Sikh and General, in proportion to their respective populations. [d) The method of selection in the case of representatives of Indian States was to be determined by the Governor-General of India, 40. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body? (a) The Election Commission of India (6) The Finance Commission (co) The Official Languages Commission (di) The National Commission for Women 41. Which one of the following is not a feature of monopolistic competition? (a) Large number of buyers and sellers in the market (b} Differentiated products constitute the market (c} Product in the market is homogeneous: (dj Selling costs are used for sale promotion GRS-A-TNS/68-A, 42, Social cost is higher than economic cost because (a) society is bigger than cconomy (b) society includes polity, while economy does not include it {6} cost borne by bystanders is positive (a) society includes both consumers and producers 43, Cess on coal at ¥ 100 per ton is a type of fa} carbon tax (b) carbon subsidy fc) carbon incentive for technology fd} carbon ineentive for selling carbon permit 44. Core inflation is different from headline inflation because the former (a) ignores articles of volatile nature in the price index () considers articles of volatite nature in the price index fe) is not based on commodity price index (@) considers only core items of ‘consumption in the price index 45, Who among the following is the author of the book, Choice of Techniques? fa) AK Sen ) KN. Raj fe) VK RIV, Rao (@} Sukhamey Chakravarty39, nea Ah Sirs aor 3 say B Fae Ha tan we er are aE BY (a) ioe wna eee A aren ae en, Sata fer gH & wee ato sisrag eat Galea ge ay 6) Sur wn A uch tes 9 fern, 1946 at arretfarg At art af) fy were via Aa de ger UyeM— afm, fae ot amr 4, oe ore ree arareh & stare Bawa nay (a) San % Teal & fae ame Fa A) fale area 3 ies ara fate ot art ty 40, Refeftea ad aaa om wifes Pere et a fa) STG a raha sari fb) Fre FIP fe} rape seri fa) coger sien srt 4a, Gefatr i a rah om fem often raat Hh ore er fa) Sam A wteat sie Sahar At at wen (op atin gerd 8 ara aan & (op TR A zeae eeroreia Siem (a) Fe Fas > fore Ro oot or aT ‘esa aren & GRS-A-TNS/68A, 13 2a ere A get A mens ara afta Sie 81 gee are ae 8 fo) Tara, oworeeen A aat B (@) we A osa-saen effi t, wah sederaen 3 ae afthites wi & toy wish (rected) ao aca ft ort cera search ee & (a) Waa A sain ok seoes, BH ‘afeafert Bra 43. Hee 7 100 aft aa aa Pefefed a 8 Pree arora sre 8? (a) Sra fo) arts ea fe) Srna 3 few area ee fay sara ace oY Res Rae, areha steerer 44. 4s (an) greta, gaa (Sacre) BATT fit, aif a area fa) Soe quae 3 sfen weg FA) aes Bh shen om Beh S fo) Foe Gain A Br aes A eH Bl afters we er 8 fey ver siren apparent orrentea wal ht (a) Se qeeie i aan A eae eT meget tet after wal & 48, Fo oa cige aie domiow Gorr w Goe e (a) Wo Ho By fo) Bo we va (o} Wo Fe se who Ta (oy err sae [P.T.0.46. Which one of the follwing bodies has formulated the ‘National Student Startup Policy’, launched by the President of India in November 2016? fa) UGC Q) Neert fe) ALU (@) AICTE 47. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Working Group for determining the methodology for construction of Producer Price Index (PPI) in India (2014)? (a) Saumitra Chaudhury {b) D. V, Subbarao (@) Abhijit Sen fd} BN. Goldar 48. Which one of the following schemes is aimed at all-round development of adolescent girls in the age group of 11-18 years and making them self- reliant? fa} RGSEAG () 1GMSY fe) NMEW (a) RMK GRS-A-TNS/68-4 14 49. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 permits self governance of natural resources by (a) Gram Sabha (>) Gram Panchayat (c) the Chairman of Gram Panchayat (d) forest dwellers of a village situated in the areas mentioned in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India 50. Which one of the following countries is not a member of WTO? (a) Japan (bo) China. fo) Iran fa) Russia 51. A StandUp enterprise can be established in farming sector 2. manufacturing sector 3. service sector 4, trading sector Select the correct answer using the code given below. ia) jb) 1,3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 ff) 1,2 and3 (4) 2,3 and 446. frfaiaa Pari 4 a fea ee a ere Ree 49, tae (agafie Sai a) fem) fafa, rds aifeal’ ten #1, ee area 3 oeeh 1996 4 uigite dened 3 ea sifleraa At aim Faer 2016 § efea fen ra? guia Pee a) ei 8? f@ vec (a) Ima (o) NCERT ol fo) are Waa I VET fo} AU (@) sr % die A see sgh A (a) AICTE ‘afeare Grit 3 fern fareh ota & rare 80, Frafefica 4 8 ata 2m WTO w Tas TET 47. wi H arres Wet ANAT (PPI (2014) AR x wma & fon fraratt Pathe eet are aries a) aeag Say a ata a? fa) ST (aj) shea shyt (o) 4A (by lo ho area aon id) ee fo afta ta (a) he We there 51, we eser sem wel ene Feat a ae Be 1. eft ae 2. fatain oa 48. frafefaa #8 fea eis a1 ate 11-18 aE 3. tag sageerl mt fartited a aehtgeh frre wer tc 8 anenP fe aa 8? mea 8 ag ae ve RA Se PAT fa) RGSEAG fa) 1, 29m 4 ) IGMSY or ace Ge fe) 1,293 (4) RMK (a) 2, 334 GRS-A~INS/68A, 15 [P.T.0,52. Who among the following were conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2016? 1. Jina Rai 2. Dipa Karmakar 3. PV, Sindhu 4, Sakshi Malik Select the correct answer using the cade given below. (ay (oP fe) tand 4 only (a 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1,2, 3and4 53. ISRO in August 2016 successfully test Jaunched Supersonic Combustion Ramjet (Scramjet) Engine. Which of the following statements with regard to Scramjet Engine is/are correct? 1. It ean efficiently operate bath in subsonic and — supersonic combustor modes, 2. India is the first country to demonstrate the flight testing of a Scramjet Engine. Select the correct answer using the code given below, fa) (b) 2 only 1 only (@} Both | and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 GRS-A-TNS/68-8 16 84. Startup Hubs are agreed to be set up in 1 ITs 2, IISERs 3. NITs 4. Central Universities Select the correct answer using the code given below, (@) 1,2 and 3 fb) 1 and 4 only fe) Sand 4 only (a) 1,3 end 4 55. StandUp India Programme envisages each bank branch to give loan between F 10 lakh to € 100 lakh 1. to at least one SC/ST borrower 2. to at least one woman borrower to at least one rural unemployed youth borrower Select the correct answer using the cade given below. (a) 1 only (®) 2 and 3 () Land 3 (a) 1 and 252. =f 2016 4 fy wa ahh daw een afr famed a wen fen rr ae 1. agar 2, da aa 3. the te faq 4. me nie 8 fom ae a ei a we a SP fa) Fess () Bae 2, a a4 i Fae 1 aia @ 1,2,.3e4 53. ISRO 4 area 2016 4 woeafie aE Trike (arte) Ge a erearpis vem fier aT) tae Pee wy a efaes Fa arar/a wer ae BE? 1, Wi aaete Gage) ak create (grater) at wera waft @ greens sentra fara ar cam 2) 2. ane fh eee tr sem Tha a walifs aa} are weet 2a) he fee ge ae ae a ae eR GPa (a a1 (ey ea 2 fo} 132 aA (a amiskate GRS-A-TNS/68A 17 84, Troy wat wef we eat ow aide A wenit BE 87 1, ITs 2. MSERs 3. ITs 4. Sia fates art fram gz an sain ae TT fa) 1,233 (bp Fare) ai fo) Bam ssi (dj 1, 334 55. Geog gen adam, ume fe oT oer f10 awe a F100 we aH am ‘Fraferon 4 2 fet fe ae fear een cg 1. ea-8-aq GF SC/ST 30h 2. maa um afew 3. wd en unt ate gar ach WP fee re ge nel a Hel aR GPR (a a1 ) 24K3 i) ates ia 132 [P.T.0,56. In case of gold, revenue is recognized in the accounting period in which the gold is (a). delivered (b) sold fo) mined (a) identified to be mined 57. As per the traditional approach, the expense to be matched with revenue is based on (@) original cost (b} opportunity cost (©) replacement cost (a) cash cost 58. Preliminary expenses are the examples of (a) capital expenditure (o) capital gain (c) deterred revenue expenditure {@} revenue expenditure /expense 59. Depreciation of fixed assets is example of (@) deferred revenue expenditure (6) capital expenditure (c) capital gain: (@) revenue expenditure/expense an 60, In the context of accounting, the term IFRS stands for (@) Intemational Financial Reporting Standards &) Indian Standards (6) Indian Financial Reporting System (@) International Financial Reporting System Financial Reporting GRS-A-TNS/68-A 18 61, From the information given below, calculate the sum insurable Date of fire—01.03.2016 Turnover from 01.03.2015 to 29,02.2016—F 88,00,000 Agreed GP ratio—20% Special circumstances clause provided for the increase of turnover by 10% (a) F 19,368,000 fb) ¥ 48,409,000 fo) * 10,32,000 (a) ¥ 24,20,000 62. Income and Expenditure Account is (a) Real Account () Personal Account fe) Nominal Account (a) Capital Account 63. Legacies are generally (a) capitalized and taken to Balance Sheet (6) tweated as income () treated as expenditure (@) capitalized and taken to Suspense Account57. 58. 59, 60. GRS-A-TNS/68A eet Sara A, ge Saree sale rvee a ara 2) are 8, Fars (a) PTA aE BY om (ty EA Pa A ah fo Fira fe ae (4) oS earl A wear a ot ate 61. rite gieaie & sigan, wae & ore ae at feed omer gifts frase 8? (al aR fey Preera ee fey steer ra (a) ee eA guftre aa free sree 87 (a) sina re (0) eter em fo) aRaita TH a fa) Tea aed “ear afta a1 ape Para saree 4? fa) area ost Sra fey Tatra =r to) ‘phn em (ey "Te wena 63, Para % vad #, va ERS Peeve wets 8? (oj SeCrere wetter Peer Cees (oj eos oretirae Retin egal (oy “efce corestraer Potten freer (a) eter weir fen feet 19 . aR eh qa 8 doe ohh A eT A, 2mm erat fiahe—o1.03.2016 es 01.03.2015 A 29.02.2016 Fe Fe feaht—? 88,00,000 Bera GP ATT —20% aatan win 10% 9 ge fee oe fare arate at fa) € 19,36,000 () ¢ 48,40,000 fo) © 10,32,000 (a) % 24,20,000 a ih ae Gee ae tem BF fa) Safa era (b) Safe er (co) ara-ore Sen (a) ara cen seers ertarcorcen (a) thitea anf cen gerea a of ort & () aes a ae anh fo wae ea hot ot (a) Sellar Br) 8 cen sae ce Hoh al & [Pt 0.64. The abnormal loss on consignment is 67. Branch Account under Debtors System is credited to fa) Real Account (aj Profit and Loss Account @ fo) Consignee’s Account (b) Personal Account (c) Consignment Account fe) Nominal Account [d) Income and Expenditure Account i Hebtiep wocoust 65. When goods are purchased for the Ji Venture, the amount is debited to 68. The cost of clectric power should be apportioned over different departments (a) Purchase Account according to (b) Joint Venture Account ay -Bodiapaven Ae aaedte Venturer's Capital Account " (b) number of light points (a) Profit and Loss Account fe) horsepower multiplied by machine hours. 66. Consider the following information : (d) machine hours Rate of gross profit—25% on cost of goods sold Sales—f 20,00,000 69, Under which Schedule of the Companics Which one of the following is the Act, 2013, the formats of financial amount of gross profit? statements are prescribed? fa) Schedule 1 fa) © 5,00,000 fb) 6,285,000 4} Behodule fe © 3,75,000 fe) Schedule IL fa -Aogoon (a) Schedule 1V GRS-A-TNS/68-A 2064. cir (Fa GU a) we ST a fea Ga a Hite Hart BF fay ae ath ei en (oy Veh Sra (torte fay LS I Se 6s. 3 age am & fie aye wt art Bo cafe fee ha a or 8? (a) Fa Ben fb) Wye sem cet fo) Stan shiva aay (a) am stem der 66. frafatien qm Aan APM: re aA a — Ah ne egal AY “SPIE 25% ‘faii—F 20,00,000 ree are Al fet Preafeiftaa 4 a ahaa B? fa) ¥5,00,000 fb} %6,25,000 fo) %3,75,000 (a) ® 4,00,000 ORS-A-TNS/6BA 67. eof weft 3 stevia wren ater & fa) tof oar fo) Saft aren fo) -ara eran (@) tan aor 68, fees A arm fle fart a Aa sagan sania & art aren (a) et a eter fb) saere Pargett At erent fo) Baar a aa aS ge (a) ee 69, HeTh afta, 2015 A fa ap sieia ‘Paefin arcit wes Fain Fe or 87 (a) ag 1 fo) a fo} qq OO (ay aR IV [P-7. 0.70. In the absence of any provision in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared by the partners (a) in the ratio of the capital of partners (®) equally (e)_ in the ratio of loans given by them to the partnership firm (@) in the ratio of the initial capital introduced by the partners ‘71. Works Committee, Safety Committee and Canteen Management Committee are the examples of (a) workers! management participation in {b) workers’ education schemes fe) workers’ cooperatives (a) workers’ suggestion schemes 72. Which one of the following is not part of the aims and purposes of the ILO as per Philadelphia Declaration? f@) Labour is not a commodity. (b) Freedam of expression and of association are essential to Sustained progress. fe) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger to prosperity everywhere, (d) The war against want requires to be carried on with unrelenting vigour within each nation and is solely the responsibility of the government. ‘GRS-A-TNS/68-A, 73. Which one of the following is an exception from the five functional types of unionism identified by Robert Hoxie? fa) Business Unionism () Predatory Unionism (6) Revolutionary Unionism (@) Evolutionary Unionism ‘74. Which one of the following is the proces: in which representatives of workmen and employer involved in an industrial dispute are brought together before a third person or group of persons who facilitates/facilitate through mediation mutually satisfactory to reach a agreement? (a) Arbitration (b) Adjudication fe) Conciliation fd) Collective negotiation 78. Questions relating to the application or interpretation of a standing order certified under the —_Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 may be referred to (a) Industrial Tribunal (6) Labour Commissioner (ce) Labour Court (@) Industrial Employment Court70. aga aR a aE wae a ee et fea A Weer) om ere st etal wt att (ay erat oA eB on (o) “@RR-ae, fe) SR re arefiend wah wy Re ary aT orga fay arden eter ah ata at aaa 71. Gein-erd off, qua aff sie tts wer ‘atsta Fars sere FP (a) 389 9 sree A oehert (oy soreenr) oAh Fhtent aoe fo) TUT A weed SR (a) errr = are TT 72, fretiven shen agen, Safafea i 8 iar wi ILO & ae ak ae st vm oat BF te) ioe wee ag Te BL ) sires A estan ste a A tae sect Rrra tq saad fo) fei Aer wm ati, KR UE GH sewer & fore ae #1 (a) teh & floc an & fey ae stare & Fe eter ag ater gee Fee sree B wa ar, fh fe ah me a aE aafira @1 GRS-A-TNS/6BA 23. 73. Ua wef ert fafka dea % oe eros werd #8 Pefofisa 4 @ aan ew sae at (a) PR aT @) Pfenten sare fey wiftonrt) iar (a) Faremeardh eraare 74. Prafetam 2 8 ae sta we wna 8, fred fed stile faa a mie wert og Pree & sft = we det cafe a afte & ayR was wH ate ren srt 2 at cat mer wa 8 see acho ara Tage a? fa) sre (by) Fara (Re (a) ae area 75. sities Rritan (ean ear) sfeften, 1946 sivia wena fleeh earch order aga a fretera wilt weed at fered fee Shon ‘wae 27 (ap eatPre: saftrron (Oo) AH ATER (ay area (ay atehfiee fatarr eararcr (P.T.0,76. A union whose membership may cover 79. Which one of the following is not a trade workers employed in many industries, union security measure? employment and crafts is known as fa) Closed shop system fa} industrial union (b) Agency shop system {bo} general union fe) Open shop system fo} craft union (@) Union shop system (a) region-cum-industry level union 80, Which one of the following is statutory 77. Which one of the following perspectives machinery functioning at the central of industrial relations is based on the level? assumption that both the parties strive and have opportunity) to exercise fa} Central Implementation and economic (wages and benefits) as well as Evaluation Committee political (control) power? (®) Central Board for Workers’ (a) Pluralistic perspective Education fb) Unitary perspective fe) Standing Labour Committee (c) Radical perspective i (a) Employee's State Insurance ‘Corporation (a) Trusteeship perspective 81, Which one of the following explains the 78. The provision of workers" participation in ‘citizen concept’ of labour? management of industries is provided under {a} Labour is largely regarded by the employers as operating [a] Article 39A of the Constitution of ‘organizations in industry. India (®) Labour is affected by the law of fb] Article 434 of the Constitution of demand and supply, India (ec) Labour has a right to be consulted fo} Article 42 of the Constitution of in regard to the terms and India conditions under which they are supposed te work, (a) Article 43B of the. Constitution of India (d) Labour is a cog in the machine. GRS-A-TNS/68-A 2476, tea et eee arm t Bee meer A age asd, dem sie fev 4 eri ea are ‘sare at eniret farar aren 8? (a) reife da () WA a fret (@) Mauger atte aio TT. side a a Aafafen 3 a ean vides ra sieerar eo oneita & fe aH ee anf (arg she mm) ate are at are cusehfes (Pan) afi faq ware aa @ (sit a ve sere thet 2)? fo) gee afte () Taree HR fo) ange ufterderard) sities (a) arften afer 78. Sat i iF speed A) wenn an ae fas seria fea rn et? (fa) sc % vifawrs a oiyRBe 39K (oy ue Sar aes 434 (fo) sn ea oat aged a2 (Qa dea a aga 438 GRS-A-TNS/68A, 28 79, 80, 81. fefafia 43 eae ww, 9 aa qa ages at 8? fo) da-aee vie oeret (o) Fea-aEe sf wereh () HrpR aR wore fq) Ha-aatia vfoer sone sam wT a et ae aiff da ‘farcifeaftaa & @ ayaa 8? fq) Fae frees ain yeise atta to) Reha atten Pra he fo) Sarr atten afar (a) fend Te alte Pere afre @) AMiE aeeey' fates a a ‘fears goer afta eit Be (a) en 7 Raters mt ae = gore aicerer Bret ea A ree ar By (oy ate she eng & Regia after wire ‘arent (eo) sii wae safer & Pe fier Pet at aril & aiaia aA orm we 8, A aie 3 aed went fran ame (a) aftrn, weit Aon ga Bh IpTo.82, Who among the following can be appointed as the Chairman of the Central Advisory Board constituted by the Central Government under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948? (a) Onc of the independent members of the Board f) One of the employers’ represen- tatives of the Board (@) One of the employees’ represen- fatives of the Board (@) A functionary of the Central Government nominated by the Government 83, Which one of the following comes under the ‘State List’ under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? (a) Relief of the unemployable disabled and {o) Regulation of labour and safety in mines (c) Regulation and manufacture, istribution of salt control of supply and (a) Social social insurance security and 84. The assumption that “man is selfish and self-centered, and always tries to achieve his own ends cven at the cost of others" explains which theory of labour ‘welfare? fa) Placating theory fo) Police theory fe} Religious theory (4) Philanthropic theory GRS-A~TNS/68-4 26 Dr, Aykroyd's formula is associated with determination of (a) fair woee () minimum wage fe) living wage (a) real wage 86. “Everyone as a member of the socicty has the right ta social security, and is entitled to realization through national efforts and international cooperation and in accordance with the organization and resources of each state of economic, social and cultural rights indispensable for his dignity and free development of his personality.” This statement which is emphasizing the importance of social security has been expressed in which of the following? fa) Universal Declaration of Human Rights [b) Philadelphia Declaration of the ILO () Report of the Firat National Commission on Labour {d) Direetive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution For the first time in India, medical benefit as a non-cash benefit was provided under fa) the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 (b) the Factories Act, 1948 (c]_ the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (a) the Mines Act, 195282, =aTa meh afafem, 1948 % shia et Fen wo tena Ste waren a & stag eo a faterfad 88 fea Page fr a sat 87 (ay at deter ae A a fo) Se % Petal & ofariial Fe ang ao fo) ate % ats & afahafeat |B ag od (a) Fea Ge wie ee wR a Oe vetfirrrt 83. an} ae A are) aga & atc ‘goa qa & ok aren fig Peete Fa ata-ar 87 fa) seit of safe et pra (b) Tere afies ote quan a faba (FRR sare, an ah Rae a arreera PrtTT (a) wont gen srecamnfine ao 94. ap oer fe ager eee] oh waa 8, head ae fe ve ed A Sea Th eT san ard Sqn ed wr ee ao 8” af eam & fee fein A care ph 8 fa) erm Reaia (sere aN) fo) ya Pasian de) ifies Fare (a) Sierra Freie GRS-A-TNS/68A 85. ee semis waa rah ful a ay com 86, & (a) aia Rh i (e) Frate worgt (ety area A “aur um acer & ea A unde caf at apni: quan aa after 8, afi wets oa Hans wad dna agen an ugla wah oh siege ain mem &, set safe & ea Pee oft od) om-rafer & fem, ater anit, wenfien afk wieght afin A uft we ae gaan 81" anni Rae wee A wa Bae we wer ‘freifataa 8S fara sqfirers fin men 8? (a) Fora caftreer At arity Str (b) Lo 8 Rareeea de fo) Sern afta am sort 36 Pt (a) weer & he Bre A 7 87. iaret am % ey 4 fafa om, se F veel an flea storia mera fee ae? (a) sari ase ten afteem, 1948 b) Seed afte, 1948 fo Tafa wefan afer, 1961 fd) wr after, 1952 [P. 7.0.88. Which one of the following is the correct set ‘of contingencies identified by William Beveridge in his comprehensive social security scheme? ia) i) i) te) Want, disease, ignorance, squalor and idleness Want, sickness, disability, squalor and idleness Want, disease, old age, squalor and unemployment Disease, invalidity, old age, whemployment and ignorance 89. Which one of the following statements is not correct for Atal Pension Yojana? a ®) to a) There is guaranteed minimum monthly pension forthe subscribers ranging between F 1,000 and 5,000 per month. The benefit of minimum pension would be guaranteed by the Government of India, Government of India co-contibutes 50% of the subscriber's contri- bution or © 1,000 per annum, whichever is lower. It is applicable to all citizens of India aged above 40 years. 90. Which one of the following is the amount of annual premium of the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) for accident and disability cover up to ° 2,00,0002 fa} fb) fe) fap F100 ° 50 * 20 ria GRS-A-TNS/68-A 28 Directions : ‘The following twe (2) items consist of two statements, Statement | and Statement Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. (2) Both the statements are idually true and Statement I! is the correct explanation of Statement | {b) Both statements are dividually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement | (@) Statement Lis true but Statement II is false (@) Statement | is false but Statement His truc 91. Statement 1: ‘The force on Moon due to Earth is the action, while the force on Earth due to ‘Moon is the reaction. Statement Hl: To every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, 92, Statement I It is @ comman observation that if we place a glass of ice-water on a table at room temperature, the ice-water will get warmer, Statement IT Heat is energy that flows between a system and its environment because of temperature difference between them.8. faftan aafea am ore ar are erarhie Aten then & otha otra fine ae orate rit ar at ag eae AS ees 87 fa) saa, 7m, serra, wea at Rifai () 3oa, aot, seme, eft ate fafoeam fe) soma, 2m, Feeen, eh ste Aero (a) 1, omen, gare, Ader she aafigen 89. sce tha deen & du 9 fiefs | a shea Us se ada 8? fa) Fae aiftemnsit Ht € 1,000 4 € 5,000 vafe are oe ee EA aTftees Ger aCe a1 (o) 7eRe RR I RT TER aT oma dn) fo) She wean after & ahrert er 50% sway ¢ 1,000 wie ad, st sf aa ah, a7 steer af fa) 40 at} alee ong aes we arrest ee ary 8) 90, gica sik armat 2 ¢2,00,000 ae at fy were gan fi ahr (PMSBY) oat: fhn-fea 4 oR ‘Faeaferftos 3 aha 87 (a) 100 fe) 750 fo} 720 fd) 712 GRS-A-TNS/68A, ‘fein: Frafetaa a (2) sez A a wer 2, eT she He 1 St ser an creartgis tear Aifirg site aa rom ye aves arm ga: Re: fa) Si em aes a 8, ai wT aa ae eae ee TR (b) tive aera ae $, Peg eT a aft entire em EEE fo) FRR Dae 2, Fg wee I oer id) Fr 1 saa 8, fg a Ia 8 91. BHI: yeh pre sie vc ered aren zer fie B, vate ser Ste yeh w aA aN Fa coffin B1 WRI: yee Gear ft oe scat ote fata ofan etl 92, WAT: %e wn were sacha @ fe ait or oH freva forse es Ba ac eat & oR Te &, @ Ruse ater F aren) eR I: wen we sal 8S) Ge wore ste sees ararney ahs wens el & aif sre the ‘We wr sie eer BI [PTO93. Which one of the following materials is not diamagnetic at Standard ‘Temperature and Pressure (STP)? (ay (>) fe) (a) Nitrogen Sodium chloride Water Iron 94. Which one of the following gases has the highest solubility in water? (a) Chlorine (4) Ammonia (@) Carbon dioxide (a) Nitrogen 95. Bleaching powder contains a} nitrogen (b) iodine fe) chlorine (d) bromine 96. What is the ‘Chikungunya? causal agent of {a} Non-chlorophyllcus bacterium (b) Nematode (ce) Virus {d) Fungus GRS-AINS/68-A 30 97. Bio-remediation is a technology which is being extensively utilized in controlling (a (be) (ch (ay global warming melting of glaciers ozone depletion heavy metal pollutions: 98. Beauty of same historical monuments is greatly affected by the growth of certain living organisms. These living organisms belong to which one of the following groups? (a) (b) fe (ay Amphibious plants Lichens Bacteria Viruses. 99. Which one of the following has the characteristies of both an animal as well as a plant? (ay (b) fo} (a) Fern Moss Earthworm Euglena 100, In order to save the stored food grains from insects, farmers usually mix with them (a) (e) (eh (a) Neem leaves Mango leaves Peepal leaves Orange leaves93, 5 a sh ga (sre) Reef 8 97. ana TH Tats tye Tes a Pr-er wm afieghenhts ard wat A? Sar Rae fess Free % ferme ar TAT 2 (a) are 5 fa) acta a aif aes # ib) ferret an fereat a ie fo sian sae (ay iret fa) mda a 94. ont # caren dem at fe, Peat He 9B. gw Mnfee emal geen, ge wie sh wat 87 A Fe Fare aE wefan STs 2) a aT ‘ita Preafertiaa 3 fare ag cade TA HP al fo) sere ares anita “ hy te (ere) ie) ara agate io hey ay sree 2) Peng 98. fates pi fan erent? 99, Prafefere 48 Pert ee aig & aeana we seg a oft Petra BP (a) Te a) me) site he wm fo) Baa fay Bh (a) eter 96. feerafeT 1 SUT wR HT ET 100. sarta arenat st otal 3 ware wah eq fee ra: Se wre wen Be 28 BP fa) Aaah sary i awh om &) aaa fo Pag fe) tree wh a ae a) AoA GRS-A-TNS/68A a1 [PTO101. CD-ROM is a (a) () @ @ secondary memory sagnetio memory memory register semiconductor memory 102, WAP stands for (aj (Bh fe) (a) Wireless Addition Protacol Wireless Automation Protocal Wireless Adaption Protocol Wireless Application Protocol 103; Bluetooth technology allows (ai (by (o (a) sending of files within the range of 10 km sending an e-mail wireless connection between various devices/equipments over short distances downloading of movies from Internet 104, Which one among the following is not a basic function of a computer? fa) () eh (a) Accept and process data Store data Scan text ‘Accept input ‘ORS-ACTNS/68-A 105. Which one of the following is hardware? fa) Power point (®) Control unit (e) Printer driver (4) Operating system 106. Two vehicles which are 100 km apart fire mumning towards each other in a straight line. In how much time will they meet each other provided they follow a uniform speed of 45 km per hour and 80 km per hour respectively? fa) 60 minutes (b) 55 minutes fe) 48 minutes (ay 45 minutes 107. The price of an article is increased by 20%, Further, there is a tax of 5% on ‘the increment. If the article casts 1,331 to the customer, then what was the price of the article before the increase in price? fa) ® 1,000 (oy 1,064 f 1,100 (a) ¥ 1,200 108. A cricket bat is purchased at 20% discount, If the selling price of the bat is ¥ 1,000, what was the original price of the bat? (@ 1,100 for © 1,200 fo) 1,225 (a) 1,250101. CD-ROM wa 8? 108. fraferiaa #8 waa ee preter 87 fa) awl ohh fa) Tate wy fee fot @) eae Te toy fier green fe) Bh saree (a) REN Ren (a) Raebeaet Se 106, 4 area, fh ais Fal 100 kin &, Raa Bahco ahd ta Fog a A we wa 02, war feat ferent ¢? eo ag 4 fon we ot, a a a 45m wt dar sit a0 km wih dar At secon aR wea wa Te? ) Tae stain teeta (y 60 fre fe) arn Bee ebeTe thy 58 frie (a) TIGR chen teste fo 48 fre (a) 45 Bre Be a 107, et aq BTM 20% FETT AL TR aA, fa) 10 tem Ah ato a preer at rt am 4g afew 5% aA ct 8) fe ares frm mg Arm ¢ 1331, ama ga (0) §-te hR Wee Wey FT HT en? (eo) Ba et we We PAR Ht se fa) * 1,000 Seater tag ae tb) © 1,064 (@) sete 8 waft serie at aT fe} F 1,100 id) 1,200 104. Frefafia 18 te-m we Fea et og, ua fie de 20% feria se tir an 81 oe wen ae Popeye 1,000 8, we Az 7 (fq) ate an) saron en ote aha eT sats ge a ei? fa} ® 1,100 wee a eas fo) TR Ba Fe fe) 71,225 (dj Fe eR eT (a) 1,250 GRS-A-TNS/68A, a [P.T.9,109, Whieh one of the following diagrams is most appropriate to the statement, “Tea-producing places are either in ‘Assam or in Bengal”? ED #[ DL] (d ie) > (aj a 110. Suppose, the remainder obtained while dividing x by 61 is 2, What is the remainder obtained while dividing x7 by 612 fa} 2 ) 4 © s (a) 6 111. What is the maximal number of spherical ‘balls of radius 1 em each that can be placed inside a cubical box of height 10 cm? fa) 25 fe) 128 fe) 250 (a) 1000 GRS-A-TNS/68-A 112, In a city, 80% population cat rice and 90% of the rice eaters are non- vegetarians. Then what percent of the population are vegetarian rice eaters? (a) 72 fb) 8 (9 fa) 10 113. Two vehicles A and B travel with uniform speed 30 km per hour and 60 Jem per hour respectively in the same direction, ‘Thcy start at the same time and from the same place fora distance of 120 km. The faster vehicle B reaches the destination and travels back with the same speed. Assume that the loss of time to change the direction is negligible. If x is the distance travelled by the slower vehicle A before the two vehicles cross each other, then x is (a) 70 km (o) 75 km fe) 80 km (a) 90 km 114. The price of a bottle of cold drink is © 10. ‘One bottle of cold drink can also be bought by returning 10 empty botiles. A person has 1,000 and 19 empty bottles. Assuming that the person can consume any number of bottles he buys, what will be the number of empty bottles he possesses at the end if he buys maximum number of bottles of cold drink and consumes all? fa) 0 ib) 1 & 2 id) 310g, “aya sere een a ah ore a8 ar aime A" 112. fl we % 80% orart waa wel & sh We ee & fee Pefaied 4 8 sta ata ‘Tae GA Tet A 90% wien #1 aA aaltre ayes 8? 7a sieht rarer saat aa after Per bP (a) 72 fo 9 ofp o te \e) ia) 113. 2a 4 sik Bw a fen 8 wa 90 ken «(OD 110, 4F chy fe x #61 8 feria Faw Drea 2 en 2) x? 61 4 ech ee Theat Seat BIT? fa) 2 @ 6 114, ALL. 10cm Serf 3 we ete alan & sie veh ‘wet arch teh) renee Fel oft afters Hem awh, set was Fe A feat 1 cm 4? fa) 25 fh) 125 (6) 250 (a) 1000 GRS-A-TNS/68A a5 aft at sit 60 km wf dar ft Gar ae Saat aw da aoe ae 120 km Fl gl & fee Paseit t1 aera FM Te Be oe UTA eK TH ATS a area fies error Bae efifere eRe seat 48 art wa At eh ame 8) aft oat amet aro Ta IR BG A eet Rae ae ane A RT Ta A eh ae x 8, at ae fa) 70 kan fb) 75 km (} 80 km (d) 90 kam ee ee 10 are stret aa chzae of sive fee at wm airs etre an wed 8) we ees TT % 1,000 sit 19 wareht aters 81 ara etter fe cag softy fare oft atom 3 za Steet a7 air at wer & fore set aden Bh, ch ee a caret arch atacl fi ae tea en deft wt ae veafes aro anftres 8 aaftne ate atte sit ot eae TUT Bee BT THRE TT A TE? (a) 0 @) 1 (2 td) 3 [P.T.0,118. If the radius of the new spherical © 118. Consider the following figure = container is double the radius of the old spherical container, then the ratio of the 7——|_ volume of the new container and the volume of the old container ig ‘Object Mirror (Plane) fa) 25a Which one of the following is the image ) 451 of the object in the mirror? —— cj) 8:1 o ‘a fd) 2:1 oT, 116. A container is filled with 300 litres of {c) > hydrogen gas. The first day it loses —— 100 litres of hydrogen gas and everyday it loves one-third of the valume it lost in @ —L_. the previous day, Then the container (a) loses entire hydrogen gae in 3 days 119. Three persons 4, Hand Crun a business together and their shares are 17%, 37% fb) loses entire hydrogen gas in and 46% respectively, Any profit they: 10 days carn is distributed according to the proportion of their shares. If the fc) loses 150 litres of hydrogen gaa diterence of the poole of Band A on in 10 days a given date is ® 1,000, what is the {q) possesses at least 150 litres of profit of Con that day? hydrogen gas on 100th day fa) ® 2,300 fo) © 2,350 117. The area of the smallest circle which 1 Paseo contains a square of area 4. cm? inside 1) Fa,000 120. The circumference of a circle is 2n cm. 2 fa) = cm’ Then the area of a square inscribed in the circle is (0) 20 em™ (a) em? 2 fe) anem? 1) Lem (cl) 2xem? id) 4nem? (dj 2em? GRS-A-TNS/68-A 36.118, 38 wm Aa sRererne Fee A From GA HER Lae, RQ kena oe Pare Sify feat A fren A ty 2, aa feet anaes fe eh Fe As rae a argo FL, : fa) 220 7 a (rt) fo act ee pin dag wits fie 3a ean BP — fa) Ons 0 | (o} 116. we fed 4 300 feet megiee fe wa mE) wea fq gud @ 100 fret wegion te Ft enh Bone sit wee fea gall a gael fea hy a I~ 7a ae ue-fref one HR eo “an cu Fa s —« a3 at ga fa wh 2 je Sore 119. dh aftr 4, 8 sit cw oe fom (oes 10 Ra Sant meas tere satan sort 8, fie sen fren oa 1756, 37% 3 46% 8) wane Be ve (@) eer 10 Ra 4 10 faze medi fa ah od ot coe oat fel eg eager net au sare 81 ft frm fare fs WB ae A (ay fed 4 1008 Ra aH 150 Ret ST a LD hae AO Sm ta ware Fora @ fa) ® 2,300 (bh) F 2,350 117. Bat OR za ga a Save eM he, free alae fo} 2,450 Som? Sama a on al antiga BF (a) © 4,600 (@) nem? 120. aq Fi WRT ancm B1 aH % aie aif (ass) vin dana t () 2xcm? fa) Fem? i) 3ecm? A toed fo) 2ncm? (a) axem? td) 2 cm? GRS-A-INS/6BA 37 1p. 7.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK GRS-A~TNS/68-A 38SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK dete GRS-A-TNS/68A, 39 7BS—s"G3"Wa wm ancel ae afew gfe ate el a wT ATE Wa ae Fleet aia. : GRS-A-TNS aden git aaa wa eT udlernt yfedtent RTT AeA THtATTT aAa : Boe gute: 100 RE eh gfe aC ene A fey my whew a onus ore organ again safer aren SA eT re, ae ga her gir Aa oe sree a fis gee wg Ror wer, wera BT sn esteem seri anf oA AR Ref, a gee tan gfe A ee gram va fe OMR setune d, afta care a, tor want ath wlan yf oegaN A, B, Cm D ai, vara 8d fen fare aan on Pariah ord ath gene a A rch gate A 1 Reh of oeoe A eRe eh ee ser-sraes ve et Rear PTT fern Behe yer sn OF ee va ater gfe #120 nein (fa) & eth Fee es ema ste eB) ww A wee weater Feet afte sso Seat A wa Be wee sev A TC eee (See) ere RL ea a ee gE a GS, fF Re sift re wet) a onyat ar ot Pires @ ew aegae aa, at se aegE ifs Loree ahem TN see weit & ty wear we A we GT A) aa See BM orga are Ba Te Sere we A aif we OL otter A fee re Bide Ba wh meal & si er HI ‘pad cea Fe ong shee. gfe & Pie wet A weg cece on fea Oa YK FE, see we on-as & aTE Sica sate & sere ge fra seer HB am 2 woh aegne a sects | wea are en vem ae mera ae Arena Tetra Sieflann a Ag S) STE oT “ara wees Bren & A A oe BL ya ae fe ee wham ofa Hi ort A sem F y. ren et fire euE aeghte wae A metres arn fey re re Set we fee ave er ore (i) wee em a farm ae Senfeten gee Bh mafic mer wee wes % flee Ree, wee eM Te Bs fere wer Sa Fee fe, ay sie a arf eee & es A aI TET! Se Remy ore oF, ta rere ar am rom, waRe Fa rg Sed A A GH sa HE em B, were & fem aafegen et ah oe ar avs fem aT (8 eet rer net nc er sre | wa aH anret ae whan glee Gre wl a wat WIE aa WH a GT Wote : English version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Beoklet.