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Chemistry Problem JEE PDF
Chemistry Problem JEE PDF
Chemistry Problem JEE PDF
PROBLEM BOOK
for JEE
Note to the Student
Wiley Chemistry Problem Book is specifically designed to meet the needs of engineering (JEE) aspirants and give an edge to their
preparation. The book offers complete coverage of the chemistry curriculum (Physical, Inorganic, Organic) for JEE. It is enriched with
unique elements and features that help students recapitulate the concepts, build problem-solving skills and apply them to solve all
question-types asked in the engineering entrance examinations. The book is a valuable resource for both JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced)
aspirants. The chapter flow of the book is aligned with JEE Main syllabus and its coverage in the classroom. However, topics specific to
JEE (Advanced) and advanced level questions are also covered both as solved examples and practice exercises.
We will now walk you through the target examinations and some key features of the book that enhance the learning experience.
TARGET EXAMINATION
Admission to Undergraduate Engineering Programs at NITs, IITs and other Center and State (participating) funded Technical Institutions
use the Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) score as eligibility/merit criteria. The JEE (Main) is also an eligibility test for the Joint
Entrance Examination Advanced [JEE (Advanced)], which is mandatory for the candidate if he/she is aspiring for admission to the under-
graduate program offered by the IITs. The JEE (Advanced) scores are used as an eligibility criteria for admission into IITs.
An effective exam strategy for success in these examinations can be based on the detailed analysis of previous years question papers and
planning your preparation accordingly. The Chemistry Question Paper of these examinations is a judicious mix of easy, moderate and
tough questions. The analysis of question distribution over the three sections of chemistry for these examinations is given below. The
detailed analysis for each topic is offered at the beginning of each chapter.
JEE Main
Year
Subject
2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
Physical Chemistry 19 16 13 16 14 14 15 13 11 8
Inorganic Chemistry 13 7 7 4 7 6 6 7 10 13
Organic Chemistry 7 12 10 10 6 10 9 10 9 9
JEE Advanced
Year
Subject
2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
Physical Chemistry 12 16 13 17 19 14 12 15 12 13
Inorganic Chemistry 9 13 9 13 8 10 11 9 12 11
Organic Chemistry 12 16 17 16 13 13 12 12 14 12
A. Chapter Opener
6 Thermodynamics
Each chapter starts with exam analysis (question number and concept distribu-
tion) for the topic in previous ten years JEE papers.
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 First Law of Thermodynamics, Gibb’s Free energy Gibb’s Free energy
2008 Enthalpy, Gibb’s Free energy Second law of thermodynamics, Gibb’s Free energy
2009 Thermochemistry, Gibb’s Free energy Fundamental of thermodynamics, Enthalpy
Fundamental of thermodynamics, Pressure-Volume
2010 Thermochemistry, Gibb’s Free energy
work, Enthalpy
2011 Entropy Enthalpy
2012 Gibb’s Free energy Entropy, Pressure-Volume work
2013 First Law of Thermodynamics Thermochemistry, Pressure-Volume work
2014 Enthalpy, Thermochemistry, Entropy Pressure-Volume work, Entropy
2015 Gibb’s Free energy Entropy, Pressure-Volume work, Gibb’s Free energy
2016 Enthalpy, Gibb’s Free Energy, Pressure Volume Work Entropy
B. Summary
Chapter-6.indd 1 6/11/2016 2:03:51 PM
Summary for recapitulating all concepts as per the JEE curriculum, enriched
with figures, graphs, schematic representations, and, tables. Important points to
remember
2 about
Chapter concepts
11 The highlighted as tip.
p-Block Elements
SUMMARY
1. The elements in which the highest energy electron enters the outermost p orbital are known as p-block elements. There are six
groups (ns2 np1−6) of p-block elements in the periodic table, named as Group13–18 as shown below.
Group 13 14 15 16 17 18
First element Boron (B) Carbon (C) Nitrogen (N) Oxygen (O) Fluorine (F) Helium (He)
Electronic configuration ns2 np1 ns2 np2 ns2 np3 ns2 np4 ns2 np5 ns2 np6
(He: 1s2)
Group oxidation state +3 +4 +5 +6 +7 +8
Other oxidation states +1 +2, −4 +3, −3 +4, +2, −2 +5, +3, +1, −1 +6, +4, +2
2. This occurrence of an oxidation state two units below the Group oxidation state is sometimes attributed to the inert pair effect. The
term refers to the resistance of a pair of s electrons to be lost or to participate in covalent bond formation.
3. General properties of Group13 elements
Ionization enthalpy
(kJ mol−1)
Atomic Electronic Oxidation m.p. b.p.
Elements Occurrence number configuration states 1st 2nd 3rd (çC) (çC)
B Concentrated deposits of borax 5 [He] 3 801 2427 3659 2180 3650
Na2[B4O5(OH)4] ⋅ 8H2O and 2s2 2p1
kernite Na2[B4O5(OH)4] ⋅ 2H2O
Al Aluminosilicate rocks, such as 13 [Ne] 1, 3 577 1816 2744 660 2467
feldspars and micas 3s2 3p1
Ga 31 [Ar] 1, 3 579 1979 2962 30 2403
3d10 4s2 4p1
In Occur as sulphides, in trace 49 [Kr] 1, 3 558 1820 2704 157 2080
amounts 4d10 5s2 5p1
Tl 81 [Xe] 1, 3 589 1971 2877 303 1457
4f14 5d10 6s2 6p1
(a) The metallic radii of the atoms do not increase regularly on descending the Group. The ionic radii for M3+ increase down the Group.
(b) The electronegativity decreases from B to Al due to difference in atomic sizes of the elements.
(c) The ionization enthalpies increase as expected (first ionization enthalpy < second ionization enthalpy < third ionization enthalpy).
The ionization enthalpy values do not decrease smoothly down the Group. The decrease from B to Al is the usual trend on
descending a Group associated with increased size. The poor shielding by d electrons and the resulting d-block contraction affect
the values for the later elements.
(d) The melting points of the Group13 elements do not show a regular trend.
(e) Boron has an unusual crystal structure while Al, In and Tl all have close-packed metal structures. Gallium has an unusual structure
with an incredibly low melting point of gallium of 30°C and also because the liquid expands when it forms the solid, that is, the
solid is less dense than the liquid.
(f) The boiling point of B is unusually high, but the values for Ga, In and Tl decrease on descending the Group as expected.
(g) The densities of elements increase down the Group.
(h) The electropositive or metallic nature of the elements increases from B to Al, but then decreases from Al to Tl.
4. Chemical properties of Group13 elements
FM.indd 4 (a) Oxidation state 8/8/2016 6:20:21 PM
(i) The elements all have three outer electrons. Apart from Tl, they normally use these to form three bonds, giving an oxidation
Tip
Work and heat conventions:
q is (+) Heat is absorbed by the system. q is (−) Heat is released by the system.
w is (+) Work is done on the system. w is (−) Work is done by the system.
+FeCl3 cat.
−H2
LiOH NaNHR
NaL3Cl(s)
CH3Li Na+(am) + e− (am)
LiNHR
+H2O ∆ Solved Examples 15
+RNH2
+CH3I Na2O2
Li2O −H2 +L = chelate
−RI +NH3 +Cl−
+RNH2
LiR −H2 pV g = constant +O2 +H2O
+O2 −H2O2
where g = Cp,m+RX
/CV,m. −
H2 +e
T2
NaCl(l) Na NaOH
14. Kirchoff’s law
Li +H2
∫ ∫
−LiX for temperature dependence of enthalpies: d( ∆H ) = ∆C p dT
H1 T1 +H2O
LiH +H2 −H2
+e− ( ∆H2 − ∆H1) = ∆C p (T2 − T1)
+ROH +Mg(UO2)3OA
−H2 NaH
q
LiCl(l) change:
15. Entropy ∆S = rev +N2
+ROH
+MCl +C222
−HT2 NaOR −NaCl
Li3N= ∆H
16. Change in Gibb’s free energy: ∆Gsystem system − T ∆Ssystem
+Na[Mg(UO2)3OAc9](s)
LiOR DrG and DGç at equilibrium: ∆rG ° = − RT ln K = −2.303
17. Relationship between K, log
M =RT K
Rb, Cs [NaC222]+Na−
18. Relation between equilibrium constant to enthalpy change and entropy: ∆ rG ° = ∆r H ° − T ∆ r S ° = − RT ln K = −2.303RT log K
19. Free energy change for a multicomponent system: dG = Vdp − SdT + ∑ mi dni
i
∂m
(a) Variation of m as a function of temperature: i = − Si
∂ T p ,n
Chapter-10.indd 7 i 6/11/2016 3:05:50 PM
∂m
(b) Variation of m as a function of pressure: i = −Vi
∂ p T ,n
i
20. Van’t Hoff equation: The variation in equilibrium constant K with temperature
∆G ° = − RT ln K
K − ∆H T2 − T1
log 2 =
K1 2.303R T1T2
D. Solved Examples
21. Van’t Hoff isochore:
∂ lnK ∆E
=
∂T RT 2 V2 V3
Topic-wise solved problems suitable for JEE (Main); including
22. Total work done during the one complete Carnot cycle: w = mRT1 ln − mRT2 ln .
T V1 V4 solved questions
23. Efficiency of the Carnot’s engine: h = 1− 2
from previous 10 years JEE Main T1 (AIEEE) papers.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
First Law of Thermodynamics 100°C. (Given: Molar enthalpy of vapourization of water at
1 bar and 373 K = 41 k J mol−1 and R = 8.3 J mol−1 K−1) will be
1. (∆H − ∆U) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its (a) 4.1 k J mol−1
elements at 298 K is (R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1) (b) 3.7904 k J mol−1
(a) −1238.78 J mol−1 (c) 37.904 k J mol−1
(b) 1238.78 J mol−1 (d) 41.0 k J mol−1
(c) −2477.57 J mol−1 (AIEEE 2007)
(d) 2477.57 J mol−1
(AIEEE 2006) Solution
(c) The reaction involved is H2O(l) → H2O(g), where ∆ng =
Solution
1 mol, ∆vapH = 41 k J mol−1. Now,
(d) H = U + pV ; ∆H = ∆U + ∆(pV) ⇒ ΔH − ΔU = Δ(pV)
Also, ∆(pV) = ∆ngRT for an ideal gas, therefore, ΔH − ΔU ∆U = ∆H − ∆ngRT
= ∆ngRT
= 41 kJ mol−1 − 1× 8.3 × 10 −3 kJ K −1 mol−1 × 373 K
∆ng = 2 for the reaction O2 (g) + 2C(s) → 2CO(g)
= 41− 3.096 kJ mol−1 = 37.904 kJ mol−1
∆H − ∆U = 1 × 8.314 × 298 = 2477.57 J mol −1 3. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly
from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant temperature of 37.0°C.
2. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal gas, the internal energy As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The value of q and w for
(∆U) when 1 mol of water is vapourized at 1 bar pressure and the process will be (R = 8.314 J mol−1 K−1) (ln 7.5 = 2.01)
f
2 2
= 2.11 × 10 J = 21.1 k J
f
4
vacant. There is no d-orbital of suitable energy in boron Oxidation state of sulphur in compounds (A), (B), (C) and
ADVANCED LEVEL
atom. So, it PROBLEMS
can accommodate only one additional elec- (D) are as follows:
tron pair in its outermost shell. NaHSO3 = (+1) + (+1) + x + 3(−2) = +4
1. The direct conversion of A to B is difficult; hence it is carried Na2SO3 = 2(+1) + x + 3(−2) = +4
2. For the reaction,
+ B(OH)
H2O shown
out by the following path:
3 OH+2 The oxidation state of S in Na2S2O3 is +6, and −2.
2CO + O2 → 2CO2 ; ∆H = −560 kJ
Base CAcid DB− −2
Two moles of CO and one mole ofSO 2 are taken in a container
HO OH of volume 1 L. They completely O− form
OH S+6 two moles of CO2, the
gases deviated appreciably from− ideal O behaviour. If the pres-
O
− + sure in the vessel changes from 70 to 40 atm, find the magni-
A B 4] + H
[B(OH)
∆U atof +5 kand
The oxidation
tude (absolute value) of state 500S in
K. Na 4O6 =is0.1
(1 L2Satm J) 0.
Given (IIT-JEE 2006)
29. (CH3)2 SiCl2 on hydrolysis produces O O
∆ S
(a) (CH3)2Si(OH)2 (A → C) = 50 eu(b) (CH3)2Si O Solution
+5 0 0 +5
(c) [ O (CH3)2Si∆S(CO→D)]n= 30 eu(d) (CH3)2SiCl(OH) From the definition O−ofSenthalpy,
S S S O−
∆ S = 20 eu ΔH = ΔU + Δ(pV) ⇒ ΔH = ΔU + VΔp + pΔV (at constant
Solution (B→D)
volume ΔV = 0)
O O
(c) e.u.
where It appears at the
is entropy first
unit, sight
then ∆S(A that Me SiCl2 on hydrolysis will 31. ΔU = ΔHof− VΔp
Which = −560 + 1 isomers
the following × 30 × 0.1 of=phosphorus
−557 k J are thermo-
→B) is 2
produce Me2Si(OH)2 which ultimately upon loss of water, dynamically least and most stable?
(a) +100
willeuform Me2Si O. But silicon (b) +60 eu because of its very 3. For the process H2O(L , 1 bar , 373 K) → H2O(g, 1 bar, 373 K),
atom,
the (a) White
correct set (least),
of thermodynamic (b) Yellow
Red (most)parameters is (least), Red (most)
(c) −100 eu size in comparison(d)
large −60 eu is unable to form π
to oxygen, (c) =Red
(a) ∆G S = + veWhite (most) (d) White (least), Black (most)
0, ∆(least),
(IIT-JEE 2006)
bond. Thus, the product of hydrolysis is polymeric in (b) ∆G = 0, ∆S = −ve
Solution Solution
nature. (c) ∆G = + ve , ∆S = 0
(b) ∆SA →B = ∆SA → C + ∆S(C→D) − ∆SB→D (d) Black phosphorous is most layered because it has lay-
SO2 Na2 CO3 Elemental I (d) ∆G = −ve , ∆S = + ve
30. Na2CO3 = ered structure, whereas white is the(IIT-JEE least because it is
50+→ )
30 (−A20 =+
60 eu→ (B) Sulphur
/∆
→ (C ) 2 → (D) 2007)
very reactive and catches fire in air (so, it is stored under
Identify the compounds (A), (B), (C), (D), and give oxidation water).
state of sulphur in each compound.
32. A pale blue liquid obtained by equimolar mixture of two
Solution
gases at −30°C is
Chapter-6.indd 23 Na2CO3 + 2SO2 + H2O → 2NaHSO3 + CO2 (a) nitric oxide (b) nitrogen trioxide 6/11/2016 1:00:47 PM
(A) (c) nitrogen tetroxide (d) nitrogen pentoxide
2NaHSO3 + Na2CO3 → 2Na2SO3 + H2O + CO2
F. Practice Exercise (B )
Solution
(b) N2O3 can only be obtained at low temperatures. It can be
Na2SO3 + S → 2Na2S2O3
made by condensing equimolar of NO and NO2 together.
Graded as Level I (JEE Main)(C) and Level II (JEE Advanced).
2Na2S2O3 + I2 → 2Na2S4 O6 + 2NaI
All
This gives a blue question
liquid or solid which types
is unstableas
and per
dis-
sociates into NO and NO2 at −30°C.
JEE (Main and Advanced)(Dcovered.)
NO + NO2 → N2O3
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 5. Salicylic acid reacts with ICl vapour to produce
(a) iodinated product. (b) chlorinated product.
Single Correct Choice Type (c) mixture of both. (d) virtually no reaction.
32 Chapter 6 Thermodynamics
1. Which of the following is not a peroxy acid? 6. Which of the following has the smallest bond angle?
(a) Caro’s acid (b) Marshall’s acid (a) H2S (b) H2O (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
(c) Thiosulphuric acid (d) Sulphurous acid
66. Which of the following sets show the7.intensive The mostproperties?
stable hydrate of noble72. gases
When is 2 mol of NO2 change into equilibrium mixture with
2. Which of the following pairs (a) ofTemperature and pressure
species are non-linear? (a) Kr ⋅ 4H2O (b) NKr
2O 4, then
⋅ 6H 2O ∆G° is
−
(a) OCN and Br3 − (b) Viscosity and surface
(b) (SCN)2 and I5 − tension (c) Xe ⋅ 4H O
Practice
2
Exercise 31 (d) Xe
(a) ⋅ 6H2O k J
−5.40 (b) +5.40 k J (c) −6.24 k J (d) 6.24 k J
(c) NCN2− and N3− (c) Refractive index
(d) HN3 and (CN)and specific heat
8. Which of the following is an organo silicon
Answer Key
polymer? 33
2 73. When 1 mol of N2O4 changes into equilibrium mixture with
∆H2 3 (d) Volume and heat capacity p (a) Silica (b) Orthosilicic acid Answer Key 33
(a) ∆ f H = − ∆H1 −
3. Xenon difluoride 2
− ∆H3
is
2 (c)
A Silicon
B carbide
NO2, then
(d) Silicic acid
∆G° is
∆H2change
78.(b) The
(a) entropy
linear.
∆fH = ∆H1 + − ∆H367.
3
Which
in an of the
adiabatic
(b) following
process
angular. is process1 atm
take(s)83.
place withthe
Match decrease
process in (a) −5.40 k J (b) 0.84 k J
with the expression. (c) −0.84 k J (d) 6.24
(a)
(c) zero.
trigonal.
2 2
entropy?(d) pyramidal. 9. How many peroxy linkages are present in pyrophosphoric
∆H2 3
(c) ∆ f H = ∆H1 − − ∆H3
(b) always 2positive. 78. The entropy change Column
in acid?
an I
adiabatic process is 74.
ColumnSelect II out the
83.correct
Matchstatement.
the process with the expression.
2 (a) 3CO2(g) → 2O3(g) 0.5 atm C
4. (c)The reagent ∆used
H2 3to distinguish between
always negative. H (a)
O and O is
zero. (a)(a)For
0 spontaneous (b) 1 (c) (a)
2 The conversion(d) 3 of N2O4 into 2NO2 is spontaneous.
(d) ∆ f H = − ∆H1 + + ∆H3 (b) Sugar + Water 2 2 → Solution3 ∑ ∆ bondH (reactants) − ∑ ∆bond
(p) (b)
(d)
(a) sometimes
PbS.
2 2
positive (c) (b) starchnegative.
and sometimes and
(b) iodine.
always 10. A + SbF5 → B V ColumnofI 2NO2 into N2O4 is non-spontaneous.
The conversion Column II
54. Find the maximum work available, in 2SO
kilojoules, from +O
(g)the oxi- → 2SO3positive.
2(g)powder. (g) + + X−(c)
H (products)
(c) KMnO . (d) 2 bleaching (c)→always negative.
20 L
B + 40 L
tert-butane → [tert-butyl] + H2The attainment
(a) For of equilibrium from N2O4 and from NO2
spontaneous
+ (p) ∑ ∆ bondH (reactants) − ∑ ∆bond
4 octane, C H (l), (d) Hat (g) Cl
79.dation of 1 mol
If water in ofan insulated by oxygen
8 18 vessel −10°C
to give 2(g)
COsuddenly
(g) 2HCl(g)
freezes,
(a) the
The entropy change (b) For endothermic
for the overall process is 0 (zero).
and H2O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm. Given that free 2
and sometimes negative. (q) ∆r H =are ∆ rboth equally spontaneous.
2 U
entropy
(∆ f G°) inchange
k J mol−1 isofC8the
H18(g)system
energy of forma-
will be (d) sometimes
(b) ΔH > ΔU forpositive
the overall process.
= +17.3, O 2(g) = 0, CO2(g) = q. = 0 and dq < 0, then for H (products)
−168. In a given process on an (d)
tion (c) ideal gas,wdw
Total work, The attainment of equilibrium from 2 mol of NO2 with
(a) +10andJ K
= −394.359 H2−1O(l)mol
= −237.2. (d) Total work = − 620.77 J.
(c) Bond dissociation (r) ∆G < 0
the gas 79. If water in an insulated vessel at −10°C suddenly freezes, Nthe 2O4 is more spontaneous than the conversion
(b) −10 J K mol k J (c) −5277 k J (d) −3327 k J 60. An adiabatic process involvesenergy
(a) −5307 k J (b)−1−2575−1 (b) For endothermic (q) ∆ r H of
= ∆2NO
rU 2
(c) zero. (a) the volume entropy will increase.change of the system will be into N2O4.
(a) no exchange of heat. (d) For solids and liquids (s) ∑ H (products) > ∑Bond
(c) H (reactants) dissociation (r) ∆G < 0
Level
Chapter-11.indd 39 II
(d) equal to that of surroundings. (b) the temperature (a) +10 will K−1 mol
(b) Jexchange
decrease. −1 with
of heat change in volume.
in ain thermochemical 6/13/2016 1:55:11 PM
(c) work −1 done equal−1 to change internal energy. Paragraph for Questions energy 75 to 77: Enthalpy of neutralization is
Multiple Correct Choice Type (c) the pressure will remain (b) −10 J K mol
constant.
in temperaturereaction
80.When The amelting point ofadiabatically
a (d)
solidthe isagainst
300 K and
(d) increase
its zero.
latent heat of
of the system under reversible
defined as the enthalpy change when 1 mol of H+ in dilute solution
55. real gas expands internal (c)
a finiteenergy will decrease.
compression. (d) For solids and liquids (s) ∑ H (products)
fusion is 600 cal mol−1. The entropy change for
pressure, the fusion of combines with 1 mol of OH− to give rise to undissociated water, > ∑ H (reactants)
(a) its internal energy increases. (d) 61.equal
Whichto that
of the of surroundings.
following statement(s) is/are correct?
84. in a thermochemical
(b)1 its
mol of the
internal energysolid (in −1
cal K ) at
Passage
decreases. Typethe same temperature wouldof constant entropy and constant volume will that is, H (aq) + OH (aq) → H2O(l) ∆H = −57.54 k J mol−1 or −13.7
(a) The system
+ −
(c)be attain the equilibrium in a state of minimum energy. −1 reaction
its temperature always decreases. 80. The melting point Column
of a solid I
is 300 K and its latent kcalColumn
mol
heat . ofIIWhen 1 mol of strong monoprotic acid is mixed with
(b) Paragraph for
(c) Questions 69
(b) toThe71: Figure −1below is a volume vs.
(d)(a)
its entropy entropy of the universe is increasing.
200 always remains 2constant. 0.2 fusion(d) is 60020 process
cal mol . The entropy change 1 mol ofwstrong
of base, log the(pabove neutralization reaction takes place.
(c) (a) Reversible U,V < for
isothermal0, the fusion
(p) = −2.303nRT 2/p1)
The would be spontaneous when (∆S)
temperature plot forkJ;one mole(∆U) ofS,Vgas.
weak84.
56. For the C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2 (g) reaction; ΔH o = +131
> 0. −1) at the same temperature
1 mol of the solid (in cal K process When would a acid/base reacts with a strong base/acid, the
Matrix-Match
ΔSo = +134 J K−1 Type (d) The process would be spontaneous when (∆S)U,V > 0,
−1
Mark out the correct statement(s). beA (∆U)BS,V < 0.
(b) Reversible adiabatic (q) w = 0 release of heat is lessColumn than 57.54 I k J mol . It is because of theII fact
Column
20 L
81.(a)Match the
Reaction column correctly:
is spontaneous even at room temperature. (a) 62.
200 (b) 2statementsprocess
Which of the following (c) 0.2
are correct? that20
(d) these acids/bases are not completely ionized in the solution.
(b) Reaction is not spontaneous at room temperature. (a) When ∆G = 0, the system is at equilibrium. (a) Reversible isothermal (p) w = −2.303nRT log (p2/p1)
(c)Column
Reaction isI spontaneous above 705°C. Column II Some heat is consumed in ionizing them.
(b) When ∆G < 0, the process(c)willIrreversible
be spontaneous. adiabatic (r) w = −2.303nRT log (V process
2/V1)
(d) ΔH outweighs the entropy factor TΔS at Matrix-Match
room Type
(c) When ∆G is negative, the process is said to be exergonic.
V
(a)temperature.
Extensive properties 10 (p)
L Density (at constant process is said to be 75. When 1 g equiv.
p, V,is positive, theprocess of NaOH reacts with 0.33 g equiv. of HCl,
and C
(d) When ∆G (b) Reversible adiabatic (q) w = 0
T)
81. Match the column correctly:
endergonic.
(d) mole
Irreversible enthalpy change is −4.6 cal. When 0.66 g equiv. of HCl is fur-
gas isothermal (s) w = nCV , m (T2 − T1) process
57. Choose the incorrect combination(s).
Graph for one
(b) Closed system (q) Bursting 63. When a solid melts there will be
of tire process ther added, enthalpy change would be
ΔH ΔS Temperature (T) Spontaneity Column I (a) an increase in enthalpy. Column II (c) Irreversible = −2.303nRT
(c)+ Path
− function (r) Additive in nature (b) a decrease in free energy. (a) −13.7 cal (b) −9.2 cal 13.7 cal (r)(d)w 9.2
(c) adiabatic cal log (V2/V1)
(a) Any T Non-spontaneous
(a) 200Extensive
K(c) no400changeproperties
K in enthalpy. (p) Density (at constant (t) w = p,−V,popp (V2 − V1) process
(b) − −
(d) Adiabatic Low T Non-spontaneous
(s) U ≠ constant (d) a decrease in internal energy.
and T) 76. In the following reaction involving neutralization of HF
T (d)NaOH
Irreversible
(c) + +
(e) Intensive
Low T Spontaneous
(t) Heat 64. Which statements areIntegercorrect forType neutralization of a strong (a weak acid) with (a strongisothermal
base). (s) w = nCV , m (T2 − T1)
(d) − + Anyproperties
T 69. The process A (b)
Spontaneous → B isClosed strong alkali in aqueous solution(q)
acid by asystem Bursting of tire
at 25°C. process→ NaF(aq) + H O(l)
(a) It is an endothermic process. HF(aq) + NaOH(aq) 2
82.One Match the
an signs of ∆H and (a)
gas (C∆S
isobaric.
with the nature (c) of Path
(b) function
the Itreaction. (b) isochoric.
85. Standard
can be represented as H3O (aq) + OH + Gibbs energy
(r) (aqAdditive
− change
) → 2H2O(l) in nature for a reaction is zero. The value
the heat of neutralization is −68.6 k J mol−1.(t)Thisw value is (V2 − V1)
58. mole of ideal diatomic V = 5 cal) was trans- = − popp
formed from initial 25°C and 1 L to(c) isothermal.
the state when temper- (c) The enthalpy (d) change
adiabatic. ofmole
per equilibrium
of H2O formed constant
is inde- is ___.
ature is 100°C and volume 10 L. Then for this process (R = (d) pendent of the acid or alkali used. (s) U ≠ constant
Adiabatic much higher than the heat of neutralization of strong acid
Column I
cal mol−1 K−1) (take calories 70.
as unitThe
Column II for2 86. A gas expands against a constant external pressure so that −1
with strong base (= −57.3 k J mol ). This is because
pressure at C is
of energy and kelvin (d) Some sort of energy is consumed to make the acid or Integer Type
(a) 3.284 atm (e) Intensive onlyalkali properties work (t) Heat
temperature). Mark out thenegative
correct one(s). (p) Spontaneous completely ionized.
(a) Negative and at
1
low(b) 1.642the atm done is 607.8 J. The work (a) done in litre atmosphere
in aqueous solution, HF is behaves as a strong acid.
(a) ∆H = 525 65. C(s) + O2 → CO(g); ∆H ° = − 26 kcal mol−1
(c) 0.0821 temperature.
atm 2 (d) 0.821___. atm (b) there is85. hydration of F−Gibbs
Standard ion inenergy
aqueous solution,
change for aand pro- is zero. The value
reaction
(b) ∆S = 5 ln
373
+ 2 ln 10 82. Match the signs 1 of ∆H and ∆S with the nature of the reaction.cess when
is exothermic.
(b) Negative 298 and positive (q) Spontaneous only CO(g)at+ high
O2 (g) → CO87.2 (g); The∆amount H ° = − 68 kcalofmol
−1
ice (in g) that remains 52ofgequilibrium
of ice is constant is ___.
(c) ∆U = 525 71. Work done in the process C 2 A is
temperature. → addedColumn to 100 g II (c)
of water at 40°C is ___. non-solubility of HF in water.
(d) ∆G of the process cannot be(a) zero using givenColumn
calculated I is/are correct
Which
(b) statement(s)?
8.21
of COL atm −1
(d) formation 86.ofAhydrogen
gas expands against
bonding amonga constant external pressure so that
HF molecules.
(c)information.
Positive and positive (r) Spontaneous (a) Heat at of formation
all 2 is −68 kcal mol
(c) 16.2 L atm (a) Negative (b) Heat ofand combustion 88.of C(s)
(d)negative
cannot One isbe
−26mole of −1monatomic perfect
predicted
(p) Spontaneous
kcal mol only atgas,
lowinitially at 1.0 theatm
workpres-
done is 607.8 J. The work done in litre atmosphere is
temperature.
59. Mark out the correct one(s) about the pV plot system shown (c) Heat of combustion of CO(g) is −68
sure and at 300 kcal mol −1
K is heated77. Heat to
reversibly of 400
dissociation
K at constant CH3COOH is 0.005 kcal g−1; hence,
of vol-
in below figure. Paragraph for Questions 72 (d) to
Heat74: Consider
of formation of CO(g)theis −26following temperature.
−1
kcal mol reac- ___.
(d) Positive and negative (s) Non-spontaneous at all ume. Calculate the change in internal enthalpyenergy
change andwhen 1 mol of Ca(OH)2 is completely neu-
the work
tion N2O4(g) →2NO (g). The
2(b)
temperature. Gibbsand
Negative energy of the
positivedone.reaction occur-
(q) Spontaneous only at high by CH
tralized 87.3COOH
The amount
is of ice (in g) that remains when 52 g of ice is
ring at 298 K and 1 atm has been plotted against the fraction of
temperature. (a) −27.4 kcal added to 100 g(b) −13.6atkcal
of water 40°C is ___.
N2O4 dissociated as shown in below figure.
(c) Positive and positive (r) Spontaneous at(c) −26.8
all kcal (d) −27.1 kcal
88. One mole of monatomic perfect gas, initially at 1.0 atm pres-
Chapter-6.indd 31
temperature. Paragraph for Questions
6/11/2016 1:01:36 PM
78 toat80: The
K isthermodynamic property
ANSWER KEY 6
that measures
sure and 300 heated reversibly to 400 K at constant vol-
5
(d) Positive and negative (s) Non-spontaneous at all the extent ume.ofCalculate
molecular disorder
the changeis in
called entropy.
internal energy and the work
temperature. The direction of a spontaneous
done. process for which the energy is
∆G° (kJ mol−1)
Level I constant is always the one that increases the molecular disorder.
∆G° = 5.40 kJ
4
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)Entropy change of phase transformation can be calculated using
6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 3 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b)Trouton’s formula (∆S = ∆H/T). In the reversible adiabatic pro-
12. (c)
cess, however, ∆S
18. (a) be zero. The rise in temperature in isobaric
will
2 ANSWER KEY
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c)and isochoric conditions 24. (b) is found to increase the randomness or
FM.indd 6 25. (b) 26. (a) 1 27. (d) 28. (b)
N O 29. (d)entropy of the system. 30. (a) 8/8/2016 6:20:25 PM
2 4
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34.kJ
0.84 (a) 35. (d) 36. (a)
2 1
(a) Extensive properties (p) Density (at constant p, V, process
and T) (d) Irreversible isothermal (s) w = nC (T − T )
V ,m 2 1
(b) Closed system (q) Bursting of tire process
(c) Path function (r) Additive in nature (t) w = − popp (V2 − V1)
(d) Adiabatic (s) U ≠ constant
Integer Type
(e) Intensive properties (t) Heat
82. Match the signs of ∆H and ∆S with the nature of the reaction. 85. Standard Gibbs energy change for a reaction is zero. The value
of equilibrium constant is ___.
Column I Column II 86. A gas expands against a constant external pressure so that
(a) Negative and negative (p) Spontaneous only at low the work done is 607.8 J. The work done in litre atmosphere is
temperature. ___.
(b) Negative and positive (q) Spontaneous only at high
temperature.
87. The amount of ice (in g) that remains when 52 g of ice is
added to 100 g of water at 40°C is ___.
Note to the Student vii
(c) Positive and positive (r) Spontaneous at all 88. One mole of monatomic perfect gas, initially at 1.0 atm pres-
temperature. sure and at 300 K is heated reversibly to 400 K at constant vol-
(d) Positive and negative (s) Non-spontaneous at all ume. Calculate the change in internal energy and the work
G. Answer Key temperature. done.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (a)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a)
34 Chapter 6 Thermodynamics
Level II
55. (b), (c), (d) 56. (b), (c), (d) 57. (b), (c) 58. (a), (b) 59. (a), (d) 60. (a), (b),(c)
61. (a), (b), (d) 62. (a), (b), (c), (d) 63. (a), (b) 64. (b), (c) 65. (c), (d) 66. (a), (b), (c)
11. (b) The larger the value of bond enthalpy, the stronger the 21. (b) Polymerization reaction nCH2 CH2 → (CH2 CH2)n
bond. 1 mol of C C bond is broken and 2 mol of C C bonds
12. (c) As ΔG = −ve for spontaneous change and ΔG = ΔH − TΔS, are formed per mole of ethylene.
we have ∆H = 590 − 2 × 331 = 590 − 662 (590 is spent, and 2 × 331
∆H 4000 is formed).
T ∆S > ∆H ⇒ T > ⇒T > ⇒ T > 400 K = −72 k J mol−1 of ethylene.
∆S 10
Colligative Properties of Dilute Solutions 554 Properties, Classification and Purification of Colloids 662
Molecular Weight Calculations 556 Protection of Colloids 663
Advanced Level Problems 557 Emulsions 664
Hints and Explanations 738 Test for Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Alcohols 834
Solved JEE 2016 Questions 741 Physical Properties of Phenols 835
Chemical Properties of Phenols 835
Preparation of Ethers 840
Chapter 24 Coordination Compounds 743 Chemical Properties of Ethers 840
Summary 744 Cleavage of Epoxides 841
Solved Examples 754 Advanced Level Problems 842
Terminology Used 754
Practice Exercise 847
Werner's Theory 755
IUPAC Nomenclature of Mononuclear Coordination Answer Key 852
Compounds 756 Hints and Explanations 852
Isomerism in Coordination Compounds 757 Solved JEE 2016 Questions 858
Structure, Hybridization of Mononuclear Coordination
Compounds 759
Valence Bond Theory 759 Chapter 27 Aldehydes and Ketones 859
Crystal Field Theory 761 Summary 860
Bonding in Metal Carbonyls 763 Tools for Problem Solving 870
Applications of Coordination Compounds 763 Some Synthetic Connections of Aldehydes, Ketones and
Advanced Level Problems 763 Other Functional Groups 870
Practice Exercise 768 Solved Examples 871
Methods of Preparation of Aldehydes and Ketones 871
Answer Key 771
Chemical Reactions of Aldehydes and Ketones 872
Hints and Explanations 771 Chemical Tests to Distinguish Aldehydes and Ketones 877
Solved JEE 2016 Questions 776 Advanced Level Problems 878
Practice Exercise 887
Chapter 25 Organic Compounds
Answer Key 894
Containing Halogens 779
Hints and Explanations 895
Summary 780
Solved JEE 2016 Questions 902
Tools for Problem Solving 792
Reactions of 1° Alkyl Halides 792
Electrophilic Substitution Reaction of Haloarenes 793 Chapter 28 Carboxylic Acids and Its
Solved Examples 793
Derivatives 903
Structure of Alkyl Halides 793
General Methods of Preparation of Alkyl Halides 793 Summary 904
General Methods of Preparation of Aryl Halides 795 Tools for Problem Solving 913
Reactions of Alkyl Halide 795 Some Synthetic Connections of Carboxylic Acids and their
Reactions of Haloarenes 798 Derivatives 913
Advanced Level Problems 800 Solved Examples 913
Structure and Properties 913
Practice Exercise 802
General Methods of Preparation 914
Answer Key 808 Chemical Properties 915
Hints and Explanations 808 Advanced Level Problems 917
Solved JEE 2016 Questions 814 Practice Exercise 921
Answer Key 923
Chapter 26 Alcohols, Phenols and Hints and Explanations 924
Ethers 815 Solved JEE 2016 Questions 926
Summary 816
Tools for Problem Solving 831 Chapter 29 Organic Compounds
Reactions of Phenols and Related Aromatic Compounds 831
Containing Nitrogen 929
Solved Examples 831
Preparation of Alcohols 831 Summary 930
Chemical Properties of Alcohols 832 Tools for Problem Solving 938
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 Mole Concept
2009 Concept of Atoms, Molecules and Ions
2010 Representation of Physical Quantities
Concentration Terms, Stoichiometry of
2011 Concentration Terms
Reactions
2012 Concentration Terms Concentration Terms
2013 Concentration Terms
Mole Concept, Empirical and Molecular Formula
2014 Representation of Physical Quantities
Determination, Concentration Terms
2015 Mole Concept, Stoichiometry of Reactions
2016 Stoichiometry of Reactions, Concentration Terms
SUMMARY
1. Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass. It exists in three physical states – solid, liquid and gas. Classification of matter
can be summarized as shown in figure below:
Matter
Solutions Heterogeneous
(homogeneous mixtures
Elements Compounds
composition–one (two or more
phase) phases)
(ii) Density (d ) is a physical characteristic of a substance and can be used to identify a substance.
Mass g g
d= = or
Volume mL cm3
Tip Since the volume of a substance (especially liquids and gases) varies with temperature, it is important to state the
temperature along with the density.
(d) Temperature
(i) It is usually measured with a thermometer. Thermometers are graduated in degrees according to any one of the two tem-
perature scales – Celsius and Fahrenheit. Both scales use as reference points the temperature at which water freezes and the
temperature at which it boils.
(ii) On the Celsius scale water freezes at 0°C and boils at 100°C. On the Fahrenheit scale, water freezes at 32°F and boils at 212°F.
(iii) The SI unit of temperature is the kelvin (K), which is the degree unit on the Kelvin temperature scale. The kelvin is exactly
the same size as the Celsius degree. The only difference between these two temperature scales is the zero point.
(iv) The zero point on the Kelvin scale is called absolute zero and corresponds to nature’s coldest temperature. It is 273.15
degree units below the zero point on the Celsius scale, which means that 0°C equals 273.15 K, and 0 K equals −273.15°C.
Tip The two temperature scales (Celsius and Fahrenheit) can be converted using the following equation:
5
°C = (°F − 32)
9
7. In measurement, for representing numbers that are very small or very large, scientific notation is used. It is a method of writing a
number as the product of a number between 1 and 10 multiplied by 10 raised to some power. For example, 24989 can be written as
2.4989 × 104 and 0.0325 can be written as 3.25 × 10−2.
Tip (a) Positive exponent (like in the above case) indicates decimal was moved to the left.
(b) Negative exponent indicates decimal was moved to the right.
(c) For multiplying and dividing two scientific notations, the numerals are multiplied or divided, while the exponents
are added or subtracted.
(d) For adding or subtracting two numbers, the exponents must be made the same, so that they can be taken out
as a common factor.
8. Significant figures
(a) Significant figures (or significant digits) are digits in a number that results from a measurement which are known with certainty.
24.3°C 24.32°C
Rule 2: All zeros between non-zero digits are significant. For example, 204 has three significant figures (2, 0, 4).
Rule 3: All zeros at the end of a number that includes a decimal point are significant. For example, 0.400 has three significant
figures (4, 0, 0).
Rule 4: All zeros before the first non-zero digit are not significant. These zeros are used to locate a decimal point. For example,
0.0035 has two significant figures (3, 5).
Rule 5: Some numbers are called exact numbers and have an infinite number of significant figures. For example, amount of
Rs 25 or 12 inches in a foot, etc.
(c) Mathematical operations and significant figures
(i) For addition and subtraction, the answer should have the same number of decimal places as the quantity with the fewest
number of decimal places.
3.247
41.36
+ 125.2 (This number has only 1 decimal place)
169.8 (The answer has been rounded to 1 decimal place)
(ii) For multiplication and division, the number of significant figures in the answer should not be greater than the number of
significant figures in the least precise measurement.
3.14 × 2.751
= 13
0.64
2 sig. figures
10. Dimensional analysis (also known as factor-label method or unit factor method) is a system used in numerical problems to help
perform the correct arithmetic operations. In these methods, we treat a numerical problem as one involving a conversion of units
from one kind to another.
(Given quantity) × (Conversion factor) = (Desired quantity)
1 g hydrogen 2 g hydrogen
9 g water 18 g water
8 g oxygen 16 g oxygen
(c) Law of multiple proportions was given by Dalton in 1803. It states that whenever two elements form more than one com-
pound, the different masses of one element that combine with the same mass of the other element are in the ratio of small whole
numbers.
Suppose a molecule of sulphur trioxide contains one sulphur and three oxygen atoms, and a molecule of sulphur dioxide con-
tains one sulphur and two oxygen atoms. If we had just one molecule of each, then our samples each would have one sulphur
atom and, therefore, the same mass of sulphur. Now, on comparing the oxygen atoms, we find that they are in a numerical ratio
of 3:2. However, because all the oxygen atoms have the same mass, the mass ratio must also be 3:2.
(d) Law of reciprocal proportion states that if two different elements combine separately with the same mass of a third element,
the ratio of the masses in which they do so are either the same or a simple multiple of the mass ratio in which they combine.
For example, oxygen and sulphur react with copper to give copper oxide and copper sulphide respectively. Suphur and oxygen
also react with each other to give SO2.
In CuS, Cu:S = 63.5:32, in CuO, Cu:O = 63.5:16, therefore, the ratio of S:O = 32:16 or 2:1. Now in SO2, S:O = 32:32 or 1:1, Therefore,
2 1
the ratio between the two ratios is : = 2 : 1
1 1
(e) Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volume states that when measured at the same temperature and pressure, the ratios of the vol-
umes of reacting gases are small whole numbers. For example, H2 and O2 combine to form water vapour in a volume ratio of
2:1. Similarly, H2 and Cl2 react to form HCl in a volume ratio of 1:1; and H2 and N2 react to form NH3 in a volume ratio of 3:1.
H2 H2 + O2 H2O H2O
(f) The Avogadro’s law states that equal volumes of different gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the same num-
ber of molecules.
By Avogadro’s law, equal volumes of hydrogen and chlorine at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of
molecules. On a volume basis, hydrogen and chlorine react as:
Hydrogen + Chlorine →
Hydrogen chloride
1 volume 1 volume 2 volumes
12. Atomic, molecular and formula masses
(a) Atomic mass
(i) It is impossible to measure the absolute mass of a single atom, however, we can measure the relative masses of different
atoms through experimental means. The standard used to calibrate these measurements is the carbon-12 (12C), which is
an isotope of carbon.
(ii) The unit in which atomic mass measurements are reported is the atomic mass unit (amu).
(iii) This weighted average of all the naturally occurring isotopes of an atom is known as the atomic mass of the element.
Tip One atomic mass unit is equal to 1/12th of the mass of one 12C atom. Nowadays, amu has been replaced by u which
stands for unified mass.
The equivalent mass of acids, bases and oxidizing/reducing agents can be obtained as follows:
(i) Equivalent mass of an acid: The ratio of molecular weight of acid to basicity of acid or the ratio of molecular weight of acid
to the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one molecule of the acid.
(ii) Equivalent mass of a base: The ratio of molecular weight of base to acidity of acid or the ratio of molecular weight of base
to the number of replaceable OH− atoms in one molecule of base.
(iii) Equivalent weight of an oxidizing or reducing agent: The ratio of molecular weight of the substance to the number of
electrons gained or lost by one molecule in a redox reaction.
13. Mole concept
A mole is the amount of a substance which contains as many entities as there are atoms in 0.012 kg of 12C. It is the SI unit for the
amount of substance. The number of particles in a mole is known as Avogadro’s constant.
1 mol of element X = gram atomic mass of X
1 mol of X = 6.022 × 1023 units of X
Tip (a) Molarity of dilution: The relation between molarity before and after dilution is given by
M1V1 = M2V2
(b) Molarity of mixing: When three solutions (containing same solvent and solute) of molarity M1, M2, M3 are mixed
in volumes V1, V2, V3 respectively, the molarity of mixing can be given as:
M1V1 + M2V2 + M3V3 = MTotal (V1 + V2 + V3 )
(f) Molality
It is defined as the number of moles of solute per mass of solvent measured in kilograms. The symbol of molality is m and it is
expressed as:
Number of moles of solute
Molality =
Mass of solvent in kg
Caution: Molality (m) should not be confused with molarity whose symbol is capital M. Neither the mass nor volume of the sol-
vent is used to define molarity. The combined volume of the two components (solute and solvent), the volume of the solution,
is used for molarity.
(g) Normality
It is defined as the number of gram equivalents of a solute dissolved per litre of solution. Mathematically, it is expressed as
Number of gram equivalents
N= × 1000
Volume in mL
where number of gram equivalents can be found as follows:
Given weight
Number of gram equivalents =
Equivalent weight
Milliequivalents of the solute can be found as
Weight of solute
Milliequivalent of solute = N × V(in mL ) = ×1000
Equivalent weight of solute
(h) Strength of a solution
It is defined as the amount of solute (in grams) dissolved per litre of solution. Mathematically, it is expressed as
Weight of solute (g)
S= = N × Equiv. wt. = M × Mol. wt.
Volume of solution (L)
nA and xB = nB
xA = nA + nB
nA + nB
x A nA Moles of solute w A × MB
= = =
xB nB Moles of solvent wB × MA
1 d M
Relationship between molality and molarity: = − B ;
m M 1000
x × 1000 × r
Relation between molarity and mole fraction M = B ;
x A MA + xB MB
Normality Molecular mass
Relationship between normality and molarity: = =n
Molarity Equivalent mass
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Representation of Physical Quantities 0.0025 (2 and 5); 208 (2, 0 and 8); 5005 (5, 0, 0 and 5);
126,000 (1, 2 and 6); 500.0 (5, 0, 0 and 0), 2.0034 (2, 0, 0, 3
1. How many significant figures are present in the following: and 4).
0.0025, 208, 5005, 126,000, 500.0, 2.0034?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 2 (b) 2, 3, 4, 3, 4, 5 2. Which one of the following measurements possesses the
(c) 3, 2, 4, 4, 3, 5 (d) 3, 4, 2, 4, 3, 3 greatest accuracy?
(a) 90 ± 1 (b) 900 ± 1
Solution
(c) 1.80 ± 0.02 (d) 9.000 ± 0.001
(b) The digits that are significant figures in a quantity are
those that are known (measured) with certainty plus the Solution
last digit, which contains some uncertainty. (d) The greatest accuracy is in 9.000 ± 0.001.
3. Five students obtain the following grades on an exam. What is But, one atom of S = 32 u. Now, 3.4 u of sulphur is present in
the average score on this exam for these students: 88, 69, 81, 100 u of insulin.
92, 79? Therefore, 32 u of sulphur will be present in insulin
(a) 81.8 (b) 82 (c) 68 (d) 81.80 100
= × 32 = 941.2 u
Solution 3.4
(b) The average is (88 + 69 + 81 + 92 + 79)/5 = 81.8 ≈ 82 with Mole Concept
two significant digits.
8. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will
4. An electronic balance used in the mailroom displays tenths of a contain 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms?
kilogram from 0 to 140 kg. How many significant figures should (a) 0.02 (b) 3.125 × 10−2
be used to express the mass of any packages whose mass is (c) 1.25 × 10−2 (d) 2.5 × 10−2
between 80.2 and 83.5 kg? (AIEEE 2006)
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2
Solution
Solution
(b) One mole of Mg3(PO4)2 contains 8 oxygen atoms
(a) Since there are 3 significant digits in 80.2 and 83.5 so the n moles contain 8n oxygen atoms
answer should also contain 3 significant digits. Therefore, for 0.25 moles, 0.25 = 8n
Concept of Atoms, Molecules and Ions 0.25
⇒n = = 3.125 × 10 −2
8
5. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is
taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole 9. In the reaction,
of substance will 2Al(s) + 6 HCl(aq) → 2Al3+ (aq) + 6Cl− (aq) + 3H2 (g)
(a) decrease twice.
(b) increase two fold. (a) 11.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole of HCl(aq)
(c) remain unchanged. consumed.
(d) be a function of the molecular mass of the substance. (b) 6 L HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3 L H2(g) produced.
(c) 33.6 L H2(g) produced regardless of temperature and
Solution pressure for every mole Al that reacts.
(a) The relative atomic mass is expressed as (d) 67.2 L H2(g) at STP is produced for every mole of Al that
reacts.
Mass of one atom of the element
Relative atomic mass = (AIEEE 2007)
1/ 12th part of the mass of one
Solution
atom of carbon
(a) According to the given reaction, for each mole of HCl
If 1/12 is replaced with 1/6, then we have reacted, 0.5 mol of H2 gas is formed at STP.
Mass of one atom of the element 1 mol of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 L at STP.
Relative atomic mass = Volume of H2 gas formed at STP per mole of HCl reacted
1/ 6 th part of the mass of one
atom of carbon = 22.4 × 0.5 = 11.2 L
Now, 1 mol of substance = 6.023 × 1023 atoms. If we con- 10. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gas-
sider the mass of 1 mol in kg then it will remain the same, eous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of number of their molecule is
and in relative atomic mass units, it will become half times (a) 1:4 (b) 7:32 (c) 1:8 (d) 3:16
the original. (JEE Main 2014)
6. Naturally occurring zinc is 48.6% 64Zn atoms (63.9291 u), 27.9% Solution
66Zn atoms (65.9260 u), 4.1% 67Zn atoms (66.9721 u), 18.8%
(b) Let the mass of oxygen be x and that of nitrogen be 4x.
68Zn atoms (67.9249 u) and 0.6% 70Zn atoms (69.9253 u).
So, the number of moles of oxygen is x/32 and that of
Calculate the atomic mass of zinc. nitrogen is 4x/28 = x/7
(a) 60.4 u (b) 66.4 u (c) 68.4 u (d) 65.4 u x 7 7
The required ratio is × = .
Solution 32 x 32
(d) The atomic mass of zinc is 0.486(63.9291 u) + 0.279 11. The amount of oxygen in 3.6 moles of water is
(65.9260 u) + 0.041(66.9721 u) + 0.188(67.9249 u) + (a) 115.2 g (b) 57.6 g
0.006(69.9253 u) = 65.4 u. (c) 28.8 g (d) 18.4 g
7. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur. Calculate the minimum molecu- (JEE Main Online 2014)
lar mass of insulin. Solution
(a) 925 u (b) 941 u (c) 983 u (d) 931 u (b) Weight = n × Molecular weight
O in 1 mol of H2O = 1 mol
Solution
3.6 moles of H2O = 3.6 moles of O atom
(b) Minimum molecular mass of insulin will be the mass con- Weight of 1 mol of O atom = 16 g
taining at least containing one atom of sulphur. Therefore, weight of 3.6 moles of O atom = 16 × 3.6 = 57.6 g
Quick Tip/Alternate solution 17. MnO2 on ignition converts into Mn3O4. A sample of pyro-
lusite having 75% MnO2, 20% inert impurities and the rest
Mass of one molecule of K5 = 173.21 u water is ignited in air to constant weight. What is the percent-
76.27
Therefore, the mass of carbon in it = 173.21× = 132.1 u age of Mn in the ignited sample? [At. mass of Mn = 55]
100
(a) 69.6% (b) 49.9% (c) 55.24% (d) 72.05%
Mass of one atom of carbon is 12 u, so the number of carbon
132.1 Solution
atoms in one molecule = = 11
12 (c) Let the weight of sample be x g. Therefore, weight of
MnO2 is 0.75x g
15. Which of the following contains the maximum number of 0.75 x
atoms? Moles of MnO2 =
87
(a) 16 g of oxygen atoms
(b) 16 g of methane gas 0.75 x
Weight of Mn = × 55 = 0.474 x
(c) 48 g of ozone 87
(d) All contain the same number of atoms The reaction is 3MnO2 → Mn3O 4 + O2 ; Mn3O4 = 229 g
mol−1
Solution 0.75 x 1
16 Weight of Mn3O4 produced = × × 229 = 0.658 x g
(b) Number of atoms in16 g O atoms = × NA = NA 87 3
16 Total weight of residue = 0.658 x + 0.2 x (wt. of impurities)
16 0.474 x
Number of atoms in16 g CH4 = × NA × 5 = 5NA % of Mn in residue = × 100 = 55.24%
16 0.858 x
18. A sample of mercury (II) sulphide contains 82.6% mercury by Empirical formula = NH2; Molecular formula = n (empirical
mass. The mass of HgS that can be made from 30 g of mercury formula)
is [At. wt. of Hg = 201, S = 32] Molecular weight 2 × V .d 2 × 16
n= = = =2
(a) 34.8 g (b) 36.3 g (c) 4.8 g (d) 24.8 g Empirical formula weight 16 16
Solution Thus, the molecular formula is = 2(NH2) = N2H4
201
(a) The percentage of Hg in pure HgS = × 100 = 86.2% 21. The compound X2O3, contains element X and oxygen com-
233
bined in a ratio of 2.167 g of X to 1.0 g of oxygen. Another
This is more than the given percentage of Hg it implies
compound of X and oxygen gave a different analysis and
that the sample is not pure. So, we cannot use given per-
properties. A 2.5 g sample of this second compound contains
centage to calculate mass of pure HgS produced by 30 g
1.3 g of element X. The formula of the second compound is
Hg.
(a) X13O12 (b) XO3 (c) X6O15 (d) XO6
Consider x g of HgS can be obtained from 30 g of Hg. It
indicates 30 g Hg is the 86.2% of x g HgS. Solution
86.2 (b) In second compound, 1.2 g of oxygen combines with 1.3 g
⇒x× = 30 ⇒ x = 34.8 g of X, so 1 g oxygen would combine with 1.3/1.2 = 1.08 g of X
100
Mass ratio of X and O in first compound = 2.167:1
19. A sample of a liquid with a mass of 8.657 g was decomposed Mass ratio of X and O in second compound = 1.08:1
into its elements and gave 5.217 g of carbon, 0.9620 g of Applying the law of multiple proportions, we get
hydrogen, and 2.478 g of oxygen. What is the percentage Ratio of masses of X in both compounds = 2.167/1.08 ≅ 2:1.
composition of this compound? Therefore, the number of X atoms in the second compound
(a) 99.99 % (b) 99.98% is just half of the first compound.
(c) 99.97 % (b) 100% Therefore, the formula of the second compound is XO3.
Solution
Quick Tip/Alternate solution
(a) The mass of whole sample here is 8.657 g, so we take
each element in turn and perform the calculations. For the first compound,
nX mX / MX 2 M 2.167 M 2 ×1
5.214 g C = ⇒ = O× ⇒ O=
For C : × 100% = 60.26% C nO mO / MO 3 MX 1 MX 3 × 2.167
8.657 g sample For the second compound,
0.9620 g H nX mX MO 1.3 2 1
For H : × 100% = 11.11% H = × = × × = 0.333
8.657 g sample nO mO MX 1.2 3 2.167
23. Predict the formula of the compound produced when 1.00 g Since these two mole amounts are the same, the empirical
of chromium metal reacts with 0.923 g of oxygen, O2. formula is N0.0373O0.0931; to have the empirical formula in
(a) CrO (b) CrO2 (c) Cr2O (d) CrO3 whole numbers, first divide by the smaller number of moles:
Solution N 0.0373 O 0.0931 which is NO2.5, now to have whole numbers,
0.0373 0.0373
(d) Based on the given data, we have
multiply the subscripts by 2: N2O5.
Given Atomic Moles of the Simplest
Element 27. After determining the empirical formulas of two different
mass mass element molar ratio
compounds that were CH2Cl and CHCl, a student mixed up
1.00/51.996 0.0192/0.0192 the data for the molecular masses. However, the student knew
Cr 1.00 g 51.996
= 0.0192 =1 that one compound had a molecular mass of 100 g mol−1 and
(0.923×2)/ the other had a molecular mass of 289 g mol−1. What are the
0.0577/0.0192
O 0.923 g 16 31.998 likely molecular formulas of the two compounds?
=3
= 0.0577 (a) C2H4Cl2 and C5H5Cl6 (b) C3H4Cl2 and C6H5Cl6
Therefore, the predicted formula for the compound is CrO3. (c) C3H6Cl2 and C6H6Cl6 (d) C2H4Cl2 and C6H6Cl6
Solution
24. Styrene, the raw material for polystyrene foam plastics, has
an empirical formula of CH. Its molecular mass is 104 g mol−1. (d) To find the molecular formula, divide the molecular
What is its molecular formula? mass by the formula mass of the empirical formula, then
(a) C8H8 (b) C6H12 (c) C8H16 (d) C6H14 multiply the subscripts of the empirical formula by that
value.
Solution Formula mass of CH2Cl: 49.48 g mol−1
(a) For the empirical formula, CH, the formula mass is 12.01 Formula mass of CHCl: 48.47 g mol−1
+ 1.008 = 13.02 100 289
To find how many CH units weighing 13.02 are in a mass For CH2Cl: = 2.02 and = 5.84
49.48 49.48
104 100 289
of 104, we divide = 7.99 For CHCl: = 2.06 and = 5.96
13.02 48.47 48.47
Rounding this to 8, Styrene, therefore, is C8H8.
The CH2Cl rounds better using the molecular mass of
25. If 3.54 g of an oxide of lead contains 3.22 g of lead. Identify 100, therefore multiply the subscripts by 2 and the for-
the formula of this oxide from the following: mula is C2H4Cl2.
(a) PbO3 (b) PbO (c) Pb3O4 (d) PbO2 For CHCl, the molecular mass of 289 gives a multiple of 6,
therefore, the formula is C6H6Cl6.
Solution
(c) From the given data, we have Concentration Terms
Atomic Relative number 28. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g mL−1.
Symbol % Simple ratio
mass of moles The molality of the solution is
Pb 90.9 207.2 90.9/207.2 1×3=3 (a) 1.14 mol kg−1 (b) 3.28 mol kg−1
= 0.4343 (c) 2.009 mol kg−1 (d) 0.44 mol kg−1
(AIEEE 2006)
O 9.1 16 9.1/16 = 0.56875 1.3 × 3 = 3.9 4
Solution
Thus, the formula is Pb3O4. Number of moles ( m /w ) moles
(c) Molality = =
26. A 2.012 g sample of a compound of nitrogen and oxygen has kg of solvent kg of solvent
0.522 g of nitrogen. Calculate its empirical formula. Now, assume 1 L of solution. We need to convert the
(a) NO2 (b) N2O (c) N2O5 (b) NO5 molarity units from mol L−1 to mol kg−1.
Solution 2.05 mol 1mL 1L 1000 g
Molality = × × × = 2.0098 mol kg−1
(c) We first determine the number of mol of each element 1L 1.02 g 1000 mL 1kg
as follows:
29. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol CH3OH is
1 mol N supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the
mol N = (0.522 g N) = 0.0373 mol N
14.01 g N solution?
(a) 0.190 (b) 0.086 (c) 0.050 (d) 0.100
We need to know the number of grams of O. Since there (AIEEE 2011)
is a total of 2.012 g of compound and the only other
element present is N, the mass of O = 2.012 g – 0.522 g Solution
= 1.490 g O. (b) We know that
Mole fraction of methyl alcohol
1 mol O
mol O = (1.490 g O ) = 0.0931 mol O Number of moles of methyl alcohol
16.00 g O =
Total number of moles
30. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of 34. The amount of BaSO4 formed upon mixing 100 mL of 20.8%
urea (molar mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water is 1.15 g mL−1. BaCl2 solution with 50 mL of 9.8% H2SO4 solution will be:
The molarity of the solution is (Ba = 137, Cl = 35.5, S = 32, H = l and O = 16)
(a) 0.50 M (b) 1.78 M (c) 1.02 M (d) 2.05 M (a) 23.3 g (b) 11.65 g (c) 30.6 g (d) 33.2 g
(AIEEE 2012) (JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution Solution
(d) Molarity of solution is defined as (b) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → Ba2SO4 + 2HCl
Number of moles of urea Weight of BaCl2 = 20.8 g; Weight of H2SO4 = 9.8%
M= × 1000 = 4.9 mL
Volume of solution in mL
Given mass of urea 120 20.8 4.9
Now, number of moles of urea = = nBaCl2 = = 0.1; nH2 SO4 = = 0.05 mol
Molar mass of urea 60 208 98
Also, density of solution = Mass of solution/Volume of BaCl2 + H2SO4→ BaSO4 + 2HCl
solution (1) 0.1 0.05 0.05
where mass of solution = mass of urea + mass of water Weight of BaSO4 = 0.05 × 233 = 11.65 g
= 120 + 1000 = 1120 g
35. Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed
Substituting values in Eq. (1), we get
in the following manner. 480 ml of 1.5 M first solution
1120 1120 + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. What is the molarity of
1.15 = ⇒ Volume = = 973.9 mL
Volume 1.15 the final mixture?
120 / 60 (a) 1.20 M (b) 1.50 M (c) 1.344 M (d) 2.70 M
Therefore, M = × 1000 = 2.05 M
973.9 Solution
31. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of (c) According to molarity equation, we have
0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2(M) HCl will be M3 (V1 + V2 ) = M1V1 + M2V2
(a) 1.00 M (b) 1.75 M
(c) 0.975 M (d) 0.875 M M3 = ( 480 × 15
. + 520 × 12
. )/1000 = 1.344 M
(JEE Main 2013) 36. 25 mL of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with
Solution 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a litre value of
35 mL. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was
(d) M1V1 + M2V2 = MV
(a) 0.07 (b) 0.14 (c) 0.28 (d) 0.35
M1V1 + M2V2 0.5 × 750 + 2 × 250
M= = Solution
V 1000
M = 0.875 M (b) Using the molarity equation, we have
32. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aque- M1V1 = M2V2 (HCl)
ous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solu- 35
M1 = 0.1 × = 0.14
tion with pH of 2? 25
(a) 0.9 L (b) 2.0 L (c) 9.0 L (d) 0.1 L
37. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its
(JEE Main 2013)
solution. The concentration of urea solution is
Solution (a) 0.001 M (b) 0.1 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.01 M
(c) Initial pH = 1 ⇒ [H+] = 10−1 = 0.1 M and New, pH = 2 Solution
⇒ [H+] = 10−2 = 0.01 M
(d) 6.02 × 1023 molecule makes 1 mol
In case of dilution, M1V1 = M2V2
So, 6.02 × 1020 molecules make 1/1000 = (10–3) mol
0.1 × 1 = 0.01 × V2 ⇒ V2 = 10 L
Volume of water added = 9.0 L number of moles
concentration =
volume (in litres )
33. Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of
water gave a solution of density 1.12 g mL−1. The molarity of 10 −3
= = 0.01 M
the solution is 100 / 1000
(a) 1.00 M (b) 2.00 M (c) 2.50 M (d) 4.00 M Now, concentration = number of moles/volume (in litres)
(JEE Main Online 2014) = 10–3/100/1000 = 0.01 M
38. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution The limiting reagent in the reaction is O2, since it will be
of phosphorous acid (H3PO3), the volume of 0.1 M aqueous consumed completely in the reaction. Therefore,
KOH solution required is 6
Mass of water produced = × 1.5 × 18 = 32.4 g
(a) 10 mL (b) 60 mL (c) 40 mL (d) 20 mL 5
Solution 42. Ammonium nitrate detonates above 300°C according to the
chemical equation given below:
(c) Using the molarity equation, we have
n1 × M1 × V1 (H3PO3 ) = n2 × M2 × V2 (KOH) NH4NO3 (g) → N2 (g) + O2 (g) + H2O(g)
2 × 0.1 × 20 = 1 × 0.1 × V2 Select the correct statement from the following.
2 × 0.1 × 20 (a) The volume change is approximately 3.5 times the initial
V2 = = 40 mL volume at STP.
0.1
(b) The volume change is approximately 1.5 times the initial
Stoichiometry of Reactions volume taken at 323°C.
39. A + 2B + 3C = AB2C3 (c) On explosion of 80 g of ammonium nitrate, 78.4 L of total
Reaction of 6.0 g of A, 6.0 × 1023 atoms of B, and 0.036 mol volume is obtained at STP.
of C yields 4.8 g of compound AB2C3. If the atomic mass of A (d) 100 g of NH4NO3 produces volume of 215.3 L of the total
and C are 60 and 80 amu, respectively, the atomic mass of B gases at 323°C and 1 atm pressure.
is (Avogadro no. = 6 × 1023): Solution
(a) 70 amu (b) 60 amu (c) 50 amu (d) 40 amu
(d) The balanced form of equation is:
(JEE Main Online 2015)
2NH4NO3 (s) → 2N2 (g) + O2 (g) + 4H2O(g)
Solution
Since the reactant is in solid state, so the volume occu-
(c) A + 2B + 3C → AB2C3 pied by it is negligible.
The moles are approximately 3.5 times, but the volume
t=0 0.6 g 6 × 1023 0.036 mol 0
= 0.1 mol atoms = 1 mol is not 3.5 times. At STP, water is liquefied so volume is
reduced and corresponds to the gaseous moles left.
t =t 4.8 g
Taking 80 g of NH4NO3 (one mole) will produces 3.5 mol
But at STP, gaseous moles are 1.5 mol, so volume pro-
C is the limiting reagent, hence, 0.036 mol of C will be duced is approximately 1.5 × 22.4 L = 33.6 L
0.036
completely consumed, therefore = 0.012 mol of 100
3 100 g of NH4NO3 contains = 1.25 mol
AB2C3 80
Mass
Number of moles of AB2C3 = Therefore, gaseous moles appeared at given condition
Molar mass = 3.5 × 1.25 = 4.375 mol
4.8 The volume of gases,
0.012 =
60 + MB × 2 + 80 × 3 nRT 3.5 × 1.25 × 0.082 × 600
V= = ≈ 215.3 L
300 + 2 MB = 400 ⇒ MB = 50 amu p 1
43. Nitrogen monoxide forms as follows.
40. In the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g) how many moles
of O2 are needed to produce 6.76 moles of SO3? 4NH3 + 5 O2 → 4NO +6H2O
(a) 2.95 mol (b) 3.08 mol How many grams of nitrogen monoxide can form if a mixture
(c) 2.56 mol (d) 3.38 mol initially contains 30.00 g of NH3 and 40.00 g of O2?
Solution (a) 25.35 g (b) 30.01 g
1 mol O2 (c) 28.36 g (d) 32.05 g
(d) mol O2 = (6.76 mol SO3 ) = 3.38 mol O2
2 mol SO3 Solution
41. Under the right conditions, ammonia can be converted (b) First determine the number of grams of O2 that would
to nitrogen monoxide, NO, by the following reaction be required to react completely with the given amount
NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O of ammonia. Amount of O2
How many grams of H2O could be formed from a mixture of 1 mol NH3 5 mol O2
= (30.00 g NH3 )
17.03 g NH3 4 mol NH3
51 g of NH3 and 48 g of O2?
(a) 32.4 g (b) 81 g (c) 27 g (d) 54 g
32.00 g O2
Solution 1 mol O
2
(a) First of all we need balanced chemical equation for these
types of calculations. = 70.46 g O2
4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O
Since this is more than the amount that is available, we
51 48
Moles = 3 mol = 1.5 mol conclude that oxygen is the limiting reactant. The rest
17 32
of the calculation is therefore based on the available Also, 1 mol H2S 5 mol of H2SO 4 (from stoichiometry of
amount of oxygen: reaction)
Amount of NO = ( 40.00 g O2 ) 1 5
or mol of H2S mol of H2SO 4
2 2
1 mol O2 4 mol NO 30.01 g NO 2.5
32.00 g O 5 mol O 1 mol NO = M × VL ⇒ VL = = 25.0 L
2 2 0.1
= 30.0 g NO 47. H3PO4 is an acid and one of its salt is NaH2PO4. What volume
of 1 M NaOH solution should be added to 12 g of NaH2PO4 to
44. Silver nitrate, AgNO3, reacts with iron(III) chloride, FeCl3, to convert it into Na3PO4?
give silver chloride, AgCl, and iron(III) nitrate, Fe(NO3)3. A (a) 100 mL (b) 200 mL (c) 80 mL (d) 300 mL
solution containing 18.0 g of AgNO3 was mixed with a solu-
tion containing 32.4 g of FeCl3. How many grams of which Solution
reactant remain after the reaction is over? (b) The reaction involved is
(a) 22.9 g (b) 30.1 g (c) 35.9 g (d) 26.7 g
NaH2PO 4 + 2NaOH → Na3PO 4 + 2H2O
Solutions
From the reaction, 1 mol NaH2PO4 reacts with 2 mol
(d) 3AgNO3 + FeCl3 → 3AgCl + Fe(NO3)3 NaOH
The amount of FeCl3 that is required to react completely 12
Number of moles of NaH2PO4 = = 0.1 mol
with all of the available silver nitrate is 120
= (18.0 g AgNO3) Therefore, number moles of NaOH = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 mol
Given that molarity of NaOH = 1 M, so
1 mol AgNO 3 1 mol FeCl3 162.21 g FeCl3
169.87 g AgNO 3 mol AgNO 1 mol FeCl 0.2
3 3 3
1= × 1000 ⇒ V = 200 mL
V
= 5.73 g FeCl3
Since more than this minimum amount is available, 48. 20 mL of a solution containing 0.2 g of impure sample of
FeCl3 is present in excess, and AgNO3 must be the limit- H2O2 reacts with 0.316 g of KMnO4 in presence of H2SO4 as
ing reactant. per the following reaction.
We know that only 5.73 g FeCl3 will be used. Therefore, KMnO 4 + H2O2 + H2SO 4 → MnSO 4 + O2 + H2O
the amount left unused is:
Find the purity of H2O2 solution.
32.4 g total – 5.73 g used = 26.7 g FeCl3 (a) 85% (b) 82% (c) 86% (d) 83%
45. If 20 g CaCO3 is added to 20 g HCl, select the true statement. Solution
(a) CaCO3 is limiting reagent. (a) The complete balanced reaction is
(b) HCl is limiting reagent.
(c) Both are consumed completely. 2KMnO 4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO 4 → 2MnSO 4 + K 2SO 4 + 5O2 + 8H2O
(d) There is no reaction.
From the balanced reaction, we have
Solution 5 mol of H2O2 2 mol of KMnO4
(a) CaCO3 is a limiting reagent. The reaction involved is 0.316
Moles of KMnO4 =
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O 158 5 0.316
20 g 20 g So, moles of H2O2 required = ×
20 g 2 158
Moles of CaCO3 = = 0.2 moles of CaCO3 5 0.316
100 Grams of H2O2 = × × 34 = 0.17 g
20 2 158
Moles of HCl required in reacction = 0.17
73.1 Thus, % purity of H2O2 = × 100 = 85%
= 0.27 mol of HCl 0.2
49. Chlorophyll present in leaves of green plants has the formula
We are giving more moles of HCl than CaCO3. HCl is in C55H72MgN4O5. It is synthesized using carbon dioxide and
excess and some of it will remain unreacted when the magnesium present in plant cells. If a plant cell contains 0.0033
reaction is over. So CaCO3 is the limiting reagent and grams of magnesium, the amount of carbon required to com-
controls the amount of product. pletely react with it to form chlorophyll will be
46. What volume of 0.1 M H2SO4 will be required to produce (a) 0.030 g (b) 0.090 g
17.0 g of H2S by the following reaction? (c) 0.060 g (d) 0.0090 g
24 g of Mg = 1 mol 55
0.0001375 mol of Mg ⇔ × 0.0001375 = 0.0075 mol of carbon
0.0033 g Mg = 0.0001375 mol 1
or
= 0.0075 × 12
One mole of magnesium required 55 moles of carbon,
therefore, = 0.090 g of carbon
9. 100 g of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 aqueous solution of density 1.5 g cm−3 (b) In a solution of 100 mL 0.5 M acetic acid, one g of active
is mixed with 100 g of 0.1 M H2SO4 of density 1.1 g cm−3. charcoal is added, which absorbs acetic acid. It is found
Which of the following statements is not correct about the that the concentration of acetic acid becomes 0.49 M. if
final mixture? surface area of charcoal is 3.01× 102 m2 , calculate the
(a) Final solution is neutral with [H+] ≅ 10−7 M. area occupied by single acetic acid molecule on surface
(b) The final calcium ion concentration, [Ca2+] ≅ 0.04 M. of charcoal.
(c) The final sulphate ion concentration, [SO24− ] ≅ 0.06 M.
Solution
(d) Ca(OH)2 is the limiting reagent in the reaction.
(a) Given that side of the square = 40 mm and diameter of
Solution marbles = 10 mm. The number of marbles along an edge
(a) Ca(OH)2 + H2SO 4 → CaSO 4 + 2H2O of the square with their centers within the square = 5
Moles of Ca(OH)2 taken = Molarity × Volume 10 mm
Mass
= Molarity ×
density
100
= 0.1× mmol = 6.66 mmol
1.5
100
Similarly, moles of H2SO 4 taken = 0.1 × mmol
1.1
= 9.09 mmol 40 mm
Therefore, Ca(OH)2 is the limiting reagent and it cannot
Maximum no. of marbles per unit area = 5 × 5 = 25.
neutralize the acid completely.
(b) The number of moles of acetic acid in 100 mL (before
The final volume of solution = 66.6 mL + 90.9 mL = 157.5 mL
adding charcoal) = 0.05
mmol of Ca2+ ions 6.66 The number of moles of acetic acid in 100 mL (after add-
[Ca2 + ] = = = 0.04 M
total volume 157.5 ing charcoal) = 0.049
9.09 The number of moles of acetic acid adsorbed on the sur-
[SO24− ] = ≈ 0.06 M face of charcoal = 0.001 (0.05 − 0.049)
157.5
The number of molecules of acetic acid adsorbed on the
2 × (9.09 − 6.66 ) surface of charcoal = 0.001 × 6.02 × 1023 = 6.02 × 1020
[H+ ] = = 0.03 M
157.5 Given that the surface area of charcoal = 3.01 × 102 m2.
Therefore, the final mixture is not neutral as equivalents of Hence, the area occupied by single acetic acid molecule
acid and base are not equal. 3 × 102
on the surface of charcoal is = 5 × 10 −19 m2
10. Manganese trifluoride, MnF3, can be prepared by the follow- 6.02 × 1020
ing reaction 12. Calculate the amount calcium oxide required when it reacts
with 852 g of P4O10.
MnI2 (s) + F2 (g) → MnF3 ( s) + IF5 (l)
Solution
If the percentage yield of MnF3 is always approximately 56%,
how many grams of IF5 can be expected if 10 grams of each The required reaction is: 6CaO + P4 O10 → 2Ca3 (PO 4 )2
reactant is used in an experiment? Moles of P4O10 = 852/284 = 3 and that of CaO = 3 × 6 = 18.
[At. wt: I = 127, Mn = 55, F = 19] According to the reaction, we have
(a) 8.0 g (b) 4.0 g (c) 14.3 g (d) 10.0 g 1 mol of P4O10 reacts with 6 mol of CaO
So, 3 mol of P4O10 reacts with (3 × 6) = 18 mol of CaO.
Solution Thus, the amount of calcium oxide required = 18 × 56
(a) Balanced chemical equation: = 1008 g.
2 MnI2 (s) +13 F2 (g) → 2MnF3 (s) + 4IF5 (l)
13. Find the molarity of water. Given: d = 1000 kg m−3.
10 10
Moles of MnI2 taken = mol, Moles of F2 taken = Solution
mol, 309 38
Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute present/
In this reaction, MnI2 is the limiting reagent, so, theoreti-
volume of solution in litres.
10 20 Given, 1 L of water = 1 kg = 1000 g (because density
cal yield of IF5 = ×2 = mol
309 309 = 1000 kg m−3). Therefore, the number of moles of solute
20 1000 (given mass)
Thus experimental yield = × 222 g ≈ 8.0 g
309 present = = 55.55 mol of H2O
18 (molecular mass of water)
11. (a) Marbles of diameter 10 mm are to be put in a square So, the molarity is 55.55 mol L−1 = 55.55 M.
area of side 40 mm so that their centers are within this
area. Find the maximum number of marbles per unit 14. At 100 °C and 1 atm, if the density of liquid water is 1.0 g cm−3
area and deduce an expression for calculating it. and that of water vapour is 0.0006 g cm−3, then the volume
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 7. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium
chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver chloride and 8.5 g of
Single Correct Choice Type sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is true?
1. How many significant figures, respectively, are there in (a) 15 g (b) 16 g (c) 17 g (d) 18 g
73.000 g, 0.0503 g and 2.001 g? 8. 40% w/V NaCl solution (specific gravity = 1.12) is equivalent to
(a) 3, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 5 (c) 2, 5, 4 (d) 5, 3, 4 (a) 3.57 × 105 ppm (b) 3.57 × 106 ppm
(c) 1 × 106 ppm (d) 4 × 105 ppm
2. How many moles of sulphuric acid, H2SO4, are needed to react
with 0.366 mol of NaOH by the following reaction? 9. 2 mol of H2S and 11.2 L of SO2 at STP react according to the
following equation:
2NaOH(aq) + H2SO 4 (aq) → Na2SO 4 (aq) + 2H2O SO2 + 2H2S → 2H2O + 3S
(a) 0.195 mol (b) 0.169 mol What will be the number of moles of sulphur formed in the
(c) 0.183 mol (d) 0.158 mol reaction?
(a) 1.5 (b) 3 (c) 11.2 (d) 6
3. Which one contains the greatest number of oxygen atoms?
(a) 1 g of O 10. Aluminum sulphate is analyzed and it is determined that
(b) 1 g of O2 the sample contains 0.0774 mol of sulphate ions. How many
(c) 1 g of O3 moles of aluminum does the sample contain?
(d) All have the same number of atoms (a) 0.0421 mol (b) 0.0529 mol
(c) 0.0458 mol (d) 0.0516 mol
4. Which response gives the correct number of significant fig- 11. A compound contains 84.2% boron and 15.7% hydrogen.
ures for all three of the following measurements: 7.103 cm, Its molecular mass was calculated from its vapour density as
0.00005 inch, and 1.3400 × 10−4 dm3? 76.7 g. What is its molecular formula?
(a) 3, 5 and 4 (b) 3, 1 and 3 (a) B6H6 (b) B6H12 (c) BH3 (d) B2H6
(c) 4, 1 and 3 (d) 4, 1 and 5
12. An organic compound weighing 0.6672 g is decomposed
5. Use the data given in the following table to calculate the molar giving 0.3481 g carbon and 0.0870 g hydrogen. What are the
mass of naturally occurring argon isotopes: percentages of hydrogen and carbon in this compound?
(a) 13.04%, 52.2% (b) 10.5%, 35.9%
Isotope Isotopic molar mass Abundance
(c) 18.9%, 60.2% (d) 15.6%, 45.2%
36Ar 35.96755 g mol−1 0.337% 13. The density of 1 M solution of NaCl is 1.0585 g mL−1. The
38Ar 37.96272 g mol−1 0.063% molality of the solution is
(a) 1.0585 (b) 1.00
40Ar 39.9624 g mol−1 99.600% (c) 0.10 (d) 0.0585
(a) 39.35 g mol−1 (b) 40.35 g mol−1 14. H3PO4 is an acid and one of its salts is NaH2PO4. What volume
(c) 37.35 g mol−1 (d) 38.35 g mol−1 of 1 M NaOH solution should be added to 12 g of NaH2PO4 to
convert it into Na3PO4?
6. The number of significant figures in 10.3106 g is (a) 100 mL (b) 200 mL
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 4 (c) 80 mL (d) 300 mL
15. Weight of oxygen in Fe2O3 and FeO is in the simple ratio 26. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of ele-
(a) 3:2 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 3:1 ment X (atomic mass 10) and 50% of element Y (atomic mass
20) is
16. The sterile saline solution used to rinse contact lenses can (a) XY (b) X2Y (c) XY3 (d) X2Y3
be made by dissolving 400 mg of NaCl in sterile water and
diluting to 100 mL. What is the molarity of the solution? 27. Oxygen gas can be produced in the laboratory by decompo-
(a) 0.0685 M (b) 0.0312 M sition of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2):
(c) 0.0212 M (d) 0.0418 M
2H2O2 (aq) → 2H2O + O2 (g)
17. In dilute nitric acid, HNO3, copper metal dissolves according
to the following equation. How many kilograms of O2 can be produced from 1.0 kg of
H2O2?
3Cu(s) + 8HNO3 (aq) → 3Cu(NO3 )2 ( aq) + 2NO(g) + 4H2O
(a) 0.47 kg (b) 0.35 kg (c) 0.54 kg (d) 0.29 kg
How many grams of HNO3 are needed to dissolve 11.45 g of 28. 0.2 M H2SO 4 (1 mL) is diluted to 1000 times of its initial vol-
Cu according to this equation? ume. The final normality of H2SO 4 is
(a) 25.36 g (b) 30.28 g (c) 42.5 g (d) 19.5 g
(a) 2 × 10−4 (b) 2 × 10−3
−4
18. Calculate the number of moles left after removing 1021 mol- (c) 4 × 10 (d) 2 × 10−2
ecules from 200 mg of CO2.
(a) 3.02 × 10−3 mol (b) 1.35 × 10−3 mol 29. A white solid used to whiten paper has the following per-
(c) 2.88 × 10−3 mol (d) 3.25 × 10−3 mol centage composition: Na, 32.4%; S, 22.6%. The unanalyzed
element is oxygen. What is the compound’s empirical
19. An oxide of iodine (I = 27) contains 25.4 g of iodine for 8 g of formula?
oxygen. Its formula could be (a) Na2SO2 (b) Na2SO3
(a) I2O3 (b) I2O (c) I2O5 (d) I2O7 (c) Na2S2O2 (d) Na2SO4
20. The reaction of hydrazine, N2H4, with hydrogen peroxide, 30. 12.78 g of an organic compound containing C, H and O and
H2O2, has been used in rocket engines. One way these com- undergoes combustion to produce 25.56 g of carbon dioxide
pounds react is described by the equation and 10.46 g of water. Empirical formula of the organic com-
pound is
N2H4 + 7H2O2 → 2HNO3 + 8H2O
(a) CHO (b) CH2O
According to this equation, how many grams of H2O2 are (c) CH4O (d) C2H4O
needed to react completely with 852 g of N2H4?
31. How many moles of H2 and N2 can be formed by the decom-
(a) 7052 g (b) 5486 g (c) 6330 g (d) 4256 g
position of 0.145 mol of ammonia, NH3?
21. Chlorine is prepared in the laboratory by treating manga- (a) 0.245 mol, 0.0589 mol (b) 0.325 mol, 0.0639 mol
nese dioxide (MnO2) with aqueous hydrochloric acid accord- (c) 0.169 mol, 0.0685 mol (d) 0.218 mol, 0.0725 mol
ing to the following reaction: 32. Oxygen gas can be produced in the laboratory by decompo-
4HCl(aq) + MnO2(s) → 2H2O(l) + MnCl2(aq) + Cl2(g) sition of potassium chlorate (KClO3)
The grams of HCl that react with 5.0 g of manganese dioxide 2KClO3 (s) → 2KCl(s) + 3 O2 (g)
will be (at. mass of Mn = 55)
(a) 84 g (b) 0.84 g (c) 8.4 g (d) 4.2 g How many kilograms of O2 can be produced from 1.0 kg of
KClO3?
22. If 30 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 90 mL of O2 for (a) 0.25 kg (b) 0.56 kg (c) 0.78 kg (d) 0.39 kg
complete combustion and 60 mL of CO2 is formed in the pro-
cess, the molecular formula of hydrocarbon will be 33. Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid according to the follow-
(a) C2H2 (b) CH4 (c) C2H4 (d) C2H6 ing equation:
3Cu(s) + 8HNO3(aq) → 3Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO(g) + 4H2O(l)
23. Titanium metal is obtained from the mineral rutile, TiO2. How
many kilograms of rutile are needed to produce 100.0 kg of Ti? If a copper penny weighing 3.045 g is dissolved in a small
(a) 166.8 kg (b) 132.4 kg (c) 11.4 kg (d) 14.3 kg amount of nitric acid and the resultant solution is diluted to
50.0 mL with water, what is the molarity of the Cu(NO3)2?
24. How many mole of lead(II) chloride will be formed from a (a) 0.958 M (b) 0.278 M
reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g of HCl? (c) 0.145 M (d) 0.312 M
(a) 0.0356 mol (b) 0.0119 mol
(c) 0.0563 mol (d) 0.029 mol 34. A 100 mL solution of 0.1 N HCl was titrated with 0.2 N NaOH
solution. The titration was discontinued after adding 30 mL
25. A metal oxide has 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the of NaOH solution. The remaining titration was completed by
metal is adding 0.25 N KOH solution. The volume of KOH required for
(a) 12 g equiv. (b) 16 g equiv. completing the titration is
(c) 24 g equiv. (d) 48 g equiv. (a) 70 mL (b) 32 mL (c) 35 mL (d) 16 mL
35. An inorganic substance has the following composition: 43. Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide as follows:
N = 35%, H = 5%, O = 60%. On being heated, it yielded a H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
gaseous compound containing N = 63.3% and O = 36.37%.
Which of the following reaction can be suggested based on When 1 L of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to react with
the given data? 1 L of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium
(a) 2HNO3 → N2O5 + H2O sulphate formed and its molarity in the solution obtained is
(b) NH2OH + HONO → N2O + 2H2O (a) 0.1 mol L−1 (b) 7.10 g
(c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O (c) 0.025 mol L−1 (d) 3.55 g
(d) 2HNO2 → N2O3 + H2O
44. PF3 reacts with XeF4 to give PF5.
36. Manganese trifluoride can be prepared by the following
2PF3 (g) + XeF4 (g) → 2PF5 (g) + Xe(g)
reaction:
MnI2(s) + F2(g) → MnF3 + IF5 If 100.0 g of PF3 and 50.0 g of XeF4 react, then which of the
following statements is true?
What is minimum number of grams of F2 that must be used
(a) XeF4 is the limiting reagent.
to react with 12.0 g of MnI2 if overall yield of MnF3 is no more
(b) PF3 is the limiting reagent.
than 75%?
(c) 1.137 mol of PF5 are produced.
(a) 12.78 (b) 9.2 (c) 6.1 (d) 7.4
(d) 0.482 mol of PF5 are produced.
37. How much quantity of zinc will have to be reacted with
45. Which of the following solutions have the same
excess of dilute HCl solution to produce sufficient hydrogen
concentration?
gas for completely reacting with the oxygen obtained by
(a) 20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution.
decomposing 5.104 g of potassium chlorate?
(b) 0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution.
(a) 8.124 g (b) 81.24 g
(c) 40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution.
(c) 0.08 g (d) 812.4 g
(d) 20 g of KOH in 200 mL of solution.
38. The reaction of powdered aluminum and iron(III) oxide,
46. One gram of Mg is burnt in a closed vessel that contains 0.5 g
2Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2 Fe of O2. It means
(a) equivalent of MgO is equal to that of magnesium (1 g/12).
produces so much heat the iron that forms is molten. (b) equivalent of MgO is equal to that of oxygen (0.5 g/8).
Because of this, railroads use the reaction to provide (c) equivalent of oxygen = equivalent of magnesium
molten steel to weld steel rails together when laying track. = equivalent of MgO in the reaction.
Suppose that in one batch of reactants 4.20 mol of Al was (d) moles of oxygen = moles of magnesium = moles of MgO
mixed with 1.75 mol of Fe2O3. Calculate the number of in the reaction.
grams of iron that can be formed from this mixture of
reactants. Passage Type
(a) 195 g (b) 254 g (c) 135 g (d) 201 g Paragraph for Questions 47 to 49: Oleum is a mixture of H2SO4
39. Calculate the number of moles of phosphorus in 15.95 g of and SO3 (i.e., H2S2O7). It is produced by passing SO3 in H2SO4 solu-
tetraphosphorus decaoxide, P4O10. tion. In order to dissolve free SO3 in oleum, dilution of oleum is
(a) 0.02247 mol (b) 2.247 mol done, in which oleum converts into pure H2SO4. It is shown by the
(c) 0.2247 mol (d) 0.0658 mol reaction as under:
H2SO4 + SO3 + H2O → 2H2SO4 (Pure)
Level II
Multiple Correct Choice Type SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 (Pure)
40. One of the statements of Dalton’s atomic theory is given When 100 g sample of oleum is diluted with desired amount
below: “Compounds are formed when atoms of different ele- of H2O (in grams), then the total mass of pure H2SO4 obtained
ments combine in a fixed ratio”. Which of the following laws after dilution is known as percentage labeling in oleum. Through
is not related to this statement? this process, the percentage composition of H2SO4, SO3 (free), and
(a) Law of conservation of mass SO3 (combined) is calculated.
(b) Law of definite proportions If oleum sample is labeled as “109% H2SO4,” that is, 100 g of oleum
(c) Law of multiple proportions on dilution with 9 g of H2O provides 109 g pure H2SO4, in which
(d) Avogadro’s law all free SO3 in 100 g of oleum is dissolved.
41. 1 mol of H2SO4 will exactly neutralize 47. For 109% labeled oleum, if the number of moles of H2SO4
(a) 2 mol of ammonia (b) 1 mol of Ca(OH)2 and free SO3 be x and y, respectively, then what will be the
(c) 0.5 mol of Ba(OH)2 (d) 2 mol NaOH value of x2 + y2?
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.42 (c) 0.62 (d) 0.80
42. Which of the following quantities are dependent on
temperature? 48. The percentage of combined SO3 in the given oleum
(a) Molarity (b) Normality sample is
(c) Molality (d) Mole fraction (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 48.98% (d) 51%
49. The percentage composition of free SO3 and H2SO4 in the (c) 0.0025 (r) 1
oleum sample, respectively, are (d) 204 (s) 3
(a) 60%, 40% (b) 30%, 70%
54. Match the number of moles with their amount.
(c) 85%, 15% (d) 40%, 60%.
Column I Column II
Paragraph for Questions 50 to 51: 1.00 g of a mixture having (a) 0.1 mol (p) 4480 mL of CO2 at STP
equal number of moles of carbonates of two alkali metals required (b) 0.2 mol (q) 0.1 g atom of iron
44.4 mL of 0.5 N HCl for complete reaction. Atomic weight of one (c) 0.25 mol (r) 1.5 × 1023 molecules of
of the metals is 7.00. oxygen gas
(d) 0.5 mol (s) 9 mL of water
50. The number of moles of each metal carbonate are
(t) 200 mg of hydrogen gas
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.0111 (c) 0.0055 (d) 0.00275
Integer Type
51. The number of equivalents of HCl used is
55. The number of moles and equivalents in 196 g of H3PO4 are ___
(a) 0.222 (b) 2.22 (c) 22.22 (d) 0.0222
(Given n-factor = 3).
Matrix-Match Type 56. In the reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(g), the number of
52. Match the concentration terms with the factors affecting the moles of H2 required to react completely with 2 mol of CO is
concentrations. ___.
Column I Column II 57. Two moles of 50% pure Ca(HCO3)2 on heating forms 1 mol of
(a) Molarity (M) (p) Temperature CO2. The percentage yield of CO2 is ____.
(b) Molality (m) (q) Pressure 58. The number of significant figures in Avogadro’s constant
(c) Mole fraction (x) (r) Dilution (6.023 × 1023) is ___.
(d) Normality (s) Volume
59. The number of gram atoms in 24 g of magnesium is ___.
53. Match the numbers with the number of significant figures
60. 4.48 L of ammonia at STP is neutralized using 100 mL of a
they contain.
solution of H2SO4. The molarity of acid is ___.
Column I Column II
(a) 62.01 (p) 2 61. Molecular formula of acetic acid is CH3COOH. The number of
(b) 100 (q) 4 atoms present in its empirical formula is ___.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c)
Level II
40. (a), (d) 41. (a), (b), (d) 42. (a), (b) 43. (b), (c) 44. (a), (d) 45. (a), (b)
46. (b), (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (d)
52. (a) → p, r, s; (b) → r; (c) → q, r; (d) → r, s 53. (a) → q; (b) → r; (c) → p; (d) → s
54. (a) → q, t; (b) → p; (c) → r; (d) → s 55. (2), (6) 56. (4) 57. (100) 58. (4)
59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (4)
4. (d) 7.103 = four significant digits (7, 1, 0, 3) Empirical formula mass = 10.8 × 1+ 2 × 1 = 12.8 g
0.00005 = one significant digit (5)
Molecular mass 76.7
13.400 × 10−4 = five significant digits (1, 3, 4, 0, 0) n= = =6
Empirical formula mass 12.8
5. (a) From the values given in the table, we get Therefore,
Molecular formula = Empirical formula × 6 = BH2 × 6 = B6H12
0
0..337
337 37.96272 × 0 0..063
063
Molar
Molar mass
mass of argon =
of argon = 35 96755 ×
35..96755 × 100 + + 37.96272 × 100 0.0870 g H
100 100 mass H
12. (a) % H = × 100% = × 100%
90 .60 total mass 0.6672 g total
+ 9624 ×
39..9624 90.60 g mol−1 −1
+ 39 × 100 g mol = 13.04%
100
−1 mass C 0.3481 g C
= [ 0 .121 + 0 .024 + 36 .206
= [0.121+ 0.024 + 36.206] g mol−1 ] g mol %C= × 100% = × 100%
total mass 0.6672 g total
=
= 39
39..351
351 gmol−−11
g mol
= 52.17%
6. (c) 10.3106; there are 6 significant figures. It is likely that the compound contains another element
since the percentages do not add up to 100%.
7. (c) Given that mass of sodium chloride = 5.85 g, mass of
w m
silver chloride = 14.35 g, mass of sodium nitrate = 8.5 g. 13. (b) m = and r = ⇒ m = 1 molal
Let the mass of silver nitrate be m. Now, according to M × W (kg) V
law of conservation of mass,
Total mass of reactants = Total mass of products 14. (b) The reaction involved is
NaH2PO 4 + 2NaOH → Na3PO 4 + 2H2O
Mass of silver nitrate + Mass of sodium chloride = Mass
of silver chloride + Mass of sodium nitrate From the reaction, 1 mol NaH2PO4 reacts with 2 mol
NaOH
m + 5.85 g = 14.35 g +8.5 g 12
Number of moles of NaH2PO4 = = 0.1 mol
m = (14.35 g + 8.5 g) − 5.85 g = 22.85 g − 5.85 g = 17 g 120
Therefore, number moles of NaOH = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 mol
8. (a) For 40% w/V NaCl solution, 100 mL of solution contains Given that molarity of NaOH = 1 M, so
40 g of NaCl. 0.2
1= × 1000 ⇒ V = 200 mL
Given density (specific gravity) = 1.12 g mL−1 V
100 mL solution (=112 g) contains 40 g NaCl or 112 g of 15. (d) The weight of oxygen is
solution contains 40 g of NaCl.
Fe2O3 : FeO = 48 : 16 = 3 : 1
106 g of solution contains x g of NaCl.
or 3 × 16 : 1× 16
40
x= × 106 = 3.57 × 105 ppm Weight of oxygen is in the ratio = 3:1
112
16. (a) Molecular mass of NaCl is 58.5.
9. (a) The reaction is as follows:
1 molar solution contains 58.5 g in1000 L
SO2 + 2H2S → 2H2O + 3S
11.2 L 2 mol 2 mol 3 mol 1 molar solution contains 5.85 g in100 mL
Now, 1 molar contains 5.85 g
1 mol of SO2 gives 3 mol of sulphur atoms.
1 3 Given that x molar contains 400 × 10 −3 g
mol of SO2 will give mol of sulphur atom.
2 2
400 × 10 −3
10. (d) In aluminum sulphate, Al2(SO4)3, aluminum is Al3+. Therefore, x = = 0.0685 M
5.85
Number of moles of Al3+ = 0.0774 mol
17. (b) The amount of HNO3 required is
2 mol Al3+
SO42– = 0.0516 mol g HNO3 = (11.45 g Cu) ×
3 mol SO 4 2−
1 mol Cu 8 mol HNO3 63.013 g HNO3
11. (b) Calculation of empirical formula 63.546 g Cu 3 mol Cu 1 mol HNO
3
30. (d) CO2 = 25.56 g, H2O = 1046 g So, the remaining 40 mL 0.1 N HCl is now neutralized by
0.25 N KOH
1 mol
Number of moles of C = × 25.56 g (HCl) N1V1 = N2V2 (KOH)
44 g
= 0.581mol (6.97 g) 0.1 × 40 = 0.25 × V2 ⇒ V2 = 16 mL
2 mol 35. (c) From the question, we have
Number of moles of H = × 10.46 g
18 g Simplest
= 1.162 mol (1.16 g) Relative Simplest whole
Percent- no. of ratio of number
Mass of oxygen = 12.78 − 6.97 − 1.16 = 4.65 g Element Symbol age moles moles ratio
= 0.291mol 35 2.5
Nitrogen N 35 = 2.5 = 1× 2 2
14 2.5
Relative number of Simplest whole
Element Moles moles number ratio 60 3.75
Oxygen O 60 = 3.75 = 1.5 × 2 3
0.581 16 2.5
C 0.581 2 2
0.291 5 5
Hydrogen H 5 =5 = 2×2 4
1.162 1 2.5
H 1.162 4 4
0.291 Therefore, empirical formula N2H4O3.
0.291 N2H4O3 is nothing but NH4NO3.
O 0.291 1 1
0.291
36. (a) 2MnI2 + 13F2 → 2MnF3 + 4IF5
Thus, the empirical formula is C2H4O. 2( 55 + 2 ×127 ) g (13 × 38 ) g
= 618 g = 494 g
31. (d) Based on the balanced equation: 12 g ?
2 NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) 618 g of MnI2 reacts with 494 g of F2 to form MnF3; 12 g
From this equation the conversion factors can be of MnI2 reacts with x g to form MnF3.
written:
494 × 12
1 mol N2 3 mol H2 x= = 9.59 g of F2
618
2 mol NH and 2 mol NH
3 3 Given that yield should be 75%. Therefore,
To determine the moles produced, simply convert from
9.59
starting moles to end moles: Actual requirement = × 100 = 12.78 g of F2
75
1 mol N2
mole N2 = 0.145 mol NH3 = 0.0725 mol N2
2 mol NH 3 37. (a) The reactions are
The moles of hydrogen are calculated similarly: 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
3 mol H2 245 g 96 g
mole H2 = 0.145 mol NH3 = 0.218 mol H2 5.104 g ? (x) g
2 mol NH3 96 g
x= × 5.104 g = 2 g of O2
32. (d) kg O2 = 1.0 kg KCIO2 × 245 g
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
1000 g KClO3 1 mol KClO3 3 mol O2 4g 32 g
1 kg KClO 122.6 g KClO 2 mol KClO × ? 2g
3 3 3
4g
32.00 g O2 1 kg O2 x= × 2 g = 0.25 g of H2
1 mol O 1000 g O 32 g
2 2
= 0.39 kg O2 Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 ↑
65 g 2g
? 0.25 g
Molecular weight × Volume required
33. (a) Molarity = 65 g
Weight required ×1000 x= × 0.25 g = 8.125 g
2g
57.8 × 50
= = 0.958 M 38. (a) First determine the amount of Fe2O3 that would be
3.045 × 1000
required to react completely with the given amount of Al
34. (d) Volume of HCl neutralized by NaOH = (Caustic soda) = V1
1 mol Fe2O3
mol Fe2O3 = ( 4.20 mol Al) = 2.10 mol Fe2O3
(HCl) N1V1 = N2V2 (NaOH) 2 mol Al
0.1 × V1 = 0.2 × 30 ⇒ V1 = 60 mL
Since only 1.75 mol of Fe2O3 are supplied, it is the lim- But only 0.05 mol of H2SO4 is involved in the reaction.
iting reactant. This can be confirmed by calculating Therefore,
the amount of Al that would be required to react com- Number of moles of Na2SO 4 = 0.05 mol = 0.05 × 142 g = 7.10 g
pletely with all of the available Fe2O3
and
2 mol Al Number of moles of Na2SO 4 0.05 mol
mol Al = (1.75 mol Fe2O3 ) 3.50 mol Al Molarity = =
1 mol Fe2O3 Liters of solution 2L
Since an excess (4.20 mol – 3.50 mol = 0.70 mol) of Al is = 0.025 mol L−1
present, Fe2O3 must be the limiting reactant, as deter- 44. (a), (d) 2 PF3(g) + XeF4(s) → 2 PF5(g) + Xe(g)
mined above.
1 mol PF3 2 mol PF5
2 mol Fe 55.847 g Fe 100.0 g PF3 × × = 1.137 mol PF5
g Fe = (1.75 mol Fe2O3 ) 87.968 g 2 mol PF3
1 mol Fe2O3 1 mol Fe
1 mol XeF4 2 mol PF5
= 195 g Fe 50.0 g XeF4 × × = 0.482 mol PF5
207.28 g 1 mol XeF4
39. (c) XeF4 produces fewer moles of PF5; therefore, it is the limiting
1 mol P4 O10 4 mol P reagent and 0.482 mol of PF5 would be produced.
(15.95 g P4 O10 ) × × 1 P O = 0.2247 mol
283.886 g P O
4 10 4 10 45. (a), (b)
(a) 20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution
Level II Weight required × 1000 20 × 1000
0
M= = M
Molecular weight × Volume required 40 × 200
Multiple Correct Choice Type
= 2.5 M
40. (a), (d)
(a) Law of conservation of mass: During any chemical change, (b) 0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution
the total mass of the products remains equal to the total Number of moles 0.5
M= = = 2.5 M
mass of the reactants. Volume of solution 0.2 L
(b) Law of definite proportion: A chemical compound always (c) 40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution
contains same elements combined together in same propor- Weight required × 1000 40 × 1000
0
tion by mass. M= = = 10 M
Molecular weight × Volume required 40 × 100
(c) Law of multiple proportions: When two elements combine (d) 20 g KOH in 200 mL of solution
with each other to form two or more than two compounds, the Molecular weight of KOH = 56 g
masses of one of the elements that combine with fixed mass of
20 × 1000
the other bear a simple whole number ratio to one another. M= = 1.785 M
56 × 200
(d) Avogadro’s law: Equal volumes of all gases under similar
Hence, options (a) and (b) are the same concentration.
conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal num-
ber of molecules. 46. (b), (d) The reaction involved is
41. (a), (b), (d) 2Mg + O2 →
2MgO
Number of equivalent of H2SO4 = Moles × n-factor = 1 × 2 = 2 2 × 24 g 32 g 80 g
0.5 × 32 g
Number of equivalent of Ca(OH)2 = 1 × 2 = 2 (neutralized) = 16 g
Number of equivalent of NaOH = 2 × 1 = 2 (neutralized)
(b) 1 g Mg is burnt in 0.5 g of O2. That is, 24 g of Mg is burnt in
Number of equivalent of NH3 = 2 × 1 = 2 (neutralized)
0.5 × 32 g of oxygen.
The required reactions are
24 g of Mg is burnt in 16 g of oxygen.
H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO4 + 2H2O Therefore, equivalent of MgO is equal to that of oxygen
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O = 0.5/8
(d) Moles of oxygen = Moles of magnesium = Moles of MgO
2NH3 + H2SO4 → 2NH+4 + SO2−
4
in the reaction
Therefore, 1 mol = 6.023 × 1023 atoms or molecules.
42. (a), (b) Molarity and normality are dependent on tempera-
ture, since molarity and normality involve the use of volume Passage Type
of solution. Molality and mole fraction do not depend on
47. (c) Therefore, 109% labeled oleum will contain 9 g H2O,
temperature.
40 g free SO3, 60 g H2SO4; as 109% means diluting 100 g
43. (b), (c) The reaction involved is of oleum gives 109 g of H2SO4.
40 g (free) SO3 = Moles of SO3 (free) = 0.5 = y
H2SO 4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO 4 + 2H2O 60 g (H2SO4) = 0.6122 mol H2SO4 = x
1 L, 0.1 M 1 L, 0.1 M
0.1 mol 0.1 mol Therefore, x2 + y2 = 0.25 + 0.37 = 0.62
48. (c) 98 g H2SO4 contains 80 g SO3 (c) Zeroes to the left of the first non-zero digit in the number
80 × 60 are not significant. For example: 0.0025 has only 2 significant
60 g H2SO4 contains = = 48.98 g figures
98
% of combined SO3 in oleum = 48.98% 54. (a) ã q, t; (b) ã p; (c) ã r; (d) ã s
(p) 4480 mL of CO2 at STP
49. (d) In 100 g oleum sample,
1 mol
SO3 + H2O → H2SO 4 × 4480 mL = 0.2 mol
0.5 mol
22400 mL
Therefore, SO3 = 0.5 mol = 40 g (q) 0.1 g atom of iron = 0.1 mol
Weight of SO3 = 40 g (r) 1.5 × 1023 molecules of oxygen gas
Weight of H2SO4 = 60 g
1 mol
% of SO3 = 40% × 1.5 × 1023 = 0.25 mol
% of H2SO4 = 60% 6 × 1023
(s) 9 mL H2O
50. (b) 1 mol of alkali metal carbonate would require 2 mol of
HCl. As 1 mol
× 9 mL = 0.5 mol
18 mL H2O
M2CO3 + 2HCl → MCl2 + H2O + CO2
(t) 200 mg hydrogen gas
Hence, number of equivalents of each metal carbonates
= 0.0111 1 mol
× 0.2 g = 0.1 mol
So, number of moles of metal carbonates = 0.0055 2g
as n-factor = 2.
Hence, number of equivalents of HCl required to neu- Integer Type
tralize metal carbonates = 0.0222.
Since alkali metal carbonates are equimolar, the num- 196
55. (2), (6); n = =2
ber of equivalents of HCl required to neutralize each 98
metal carbonates = 0.0222/2 = 0.0111.
Equivalents = Moles × n-Factor = 2 × 3 = 6
51. (d) Number of equivalents of acid is equal to
56. (4) From the reaction, we have 1 mol of CO reacts with 2 mol
44.4
N × V (L) = 0.5 × = 0.0222 of H2; so, 2 mol of CO will react with 2 × 2 = 4 mol of H2.
1000
1 mol
57. (100) Ca(HCO3 )2
→ CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 ↑
Matrix-Match Type 1 mol 1 mol
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
SUMMARY
1. Properties of subatomic particles
Mass
Particle Electric charge (C) Symbol Discoverer Location
Kilograms (kg) Atomic mass units (u)
Electron −1.60 × 10−19 9.109 382 × 10−31 5.485799 × 10−4 e− J. J. Thomson Outside the nucleus
Proton +1.60 × 10−19 1.672 622 × 10−27 1.007276 p Goldstein Inside the nucleus
Neutron 0 1.674 927 × 10−27 1.008665 n Chadwick Inside the nucleus
2. Atomic models
(a) Thomson model of atom
(i) In this model of the atom, the electrons are negatively charged particles embedded in the atomic sphere of approximate
radius 10−10 m.
(ii) The sphere also contains an equal number of positive charges to make atom electrically neutral.
(iii) The positive charge was assumed to be spread throughout the atom, forming a kind of pudding in which the negative elec-
trons were suspended like plums.
Limitation
• The model could not account for the distribution of mass.
(b) Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom
(i) The positive charge and most of the mass of the atom is concentrated in a small region of the atom and vast majority of the
volume of an atom is, therefore, empty space.
(ii) The electrons surround the nucleus and move around the nucleus in circular paths called orbits.
(iii) The electrons and nucleus are held together by the electrostatic forces.
Limitations
• It could not explain the stability of the atom.
• It was not able to explain the line spectra for various elements.
• This model was unable to explain the energies of electrons and their distribution around the nucleus.
Tip The chemical properties are dependent on the number of electrons which in turn depends on the number of protons. The
number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines the identity of the atom. So, all isotopes show similar chemical properties.
As a result, all atoms of an element must have the same number of protons. But they do not have to contain the same number of
neutrons.
(Continued)
Wave number n The wave number n = 1/l is the reciprocal of the wave- meters (m−1)
length
The energy associated with regions of the electromagnetic
spectrum is related to wavelengths and frequency by the
hc
Energy E equation: E = hn = Joules (J)
l
where E = energy of the radiation in joules; h = Planck’s
constant, 6.626 × 10−34 J s; ν = frequency of radiation in Hz
and c = velocity of light, 2.998 × 108 ms−1.
c
Tip Wavelengths, in meters, are related to the frequency, v, in Hertz (cycles per second) by the equation n = .
l
6. Blackbody radiation
A body which can emit or absorb radiation of all frequencies is known as blackbody and the radiation emitted by it is known as the
blackbody radiation.
7. Photoelectric effect
It is the phenomenon in which electrons are emitted from a metal surface when radiation of sufficient energy falls on it.
Einstein’s photoelectric theory
An electron absorbs a quantum of energy (hv) from light and if the energy absorbed is greater than the minimum energy (hv0)
required by an electron to escape from the metal surface (known as the work function W0), then the electron is ejected from the
metal surface with some kinetic energy.
1
hv = K.E. + hv 0 = mv 2 + hv 0
2
K.E. = hv − W0
where K.E. is the kinetic energy of the electron that is emitted, hv is the energy of the photon of frequency v and hv0 is the minimum
energy needed to eject the electron from the metal’s surface.
Tips
(a) Spectroscopy is a study of either emission or absorption spectra.
(b) Atomic spectroscopy is an important technique for studying the energy and the arrangement of electrons in atoms. Each
element has its own unique atomic spectrum that is its characteristic fingerprint, and can be used to identify the element.
1 1
Lyman series Ultraviolet Lyman n = R 2 − 2 n = 2, 3, 4 , 5,…
1 n
1 1
Paschen series Infrared Paschen n = R 2 − 2 n = 4 , 5, 6 , 7,…
3 n
1 1
Brackett series Infrared Brackett n = R 2 − 2 n = 5, 6 , 7, 8 ,…
4 n
1 1
Pfund series Infrared Pfund n = R 2 − 2 n = 6 , 7, 8 , 9 ,…
5 n
Tip The limiting line of any spectral line in hydrogen spectrum is the line when n2 = ∞. The limiting line will have the shortest
wavelength and the largest wave number.
(c) The difference in energy observed when the frequency of radiation is absorbed or emitted is given by the Bohr frequency rule
∆E E2 − E1
as follows: n = = .
h h
nh
(d) When an electron remains in its orbit or stationary state, the angular momentum is given by mevr = .
where n = 1, 2, 3, …. 2p
(e) The integral numbers n = 1, 2, 3, …, are the principal quantum numbers and correspond to the permitted stationary states for
the electron in an atom.
∈ n2h2
(f) Radius of Bohr orbits in hydrogen r = 0 2
p me Z
Bohr radius can be also be expressed as rn = n2a0, where a0 = 52.9 pm.
nh Ze2
(g) Velocity of electron: v = =
2p me r 2 ∈0 nh
− Z 2m e 4
(h) Energy of electron in hydrogen atom: E total = 2 2e 2
8n h ∈0
−13.6 1
(i) Energy of electron: E = 2 eV En = − RH 2 n = 1, 2, 3
n n
where RH is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen and its value is 2.18 × 10−18 J.
(j) Energy change for an electron undergoes a transition from initial state ni to final state nf is given by
1 1
∆E = E2 − E1 = 2.18 × 10 −18 − J atom
−1
(nf ) (ni )2
2
Tip When an electron moves from one orbit to another, it should give a single sharp line in the spectrum, corresponding precisely to
the energy difference between the initial and final orbits. If the hydrogen spectrum is observed with a high resolution spectrometer, it
is found that some of the lines reveal “fine structure”. This means that a line is really composed of several lines close together.
2.18 × 10 −18
En = − J atom−1 (for hydrogen)
n2
2.18 × 10 −18
En = − Z 2 J atom−1 (for hydrogen-like species)
n2
(d) Limitations of Bohr’s model
(i) It accounts for the line spectra of only one-electron systems such as H, He+ and Li2+.
(ii) It does not explain splitting of spectral lines by magnetic fields (Zeeman effect) and electric fields (Stark effect).
(iii) The energy of the spin of electron is not taken into account in Bohr’s theory.
(iv) Bohr assumes that the angular momentum of an electron in an atom of hydrogen is an integral multiple of h/2p but his
theory does not explain the reason for this assumption.
(v) Using this theory, we are able to find the position of an electron and its velocity in an atom of hydrogen. This contradicts with
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(vi) It does not take into account the wave nature of the electron.
14. Bohr–Sommerfeld model
(a) Orbits containing electrons revolving around the nucleus to be elliptical instead of being circular with definite energy levels.
(b) It described the atom using two quantum numbers instead of one, that is, n and k where k is called azimuthal quantum number.
It is equal to 1, 2,…n but k ≠ 0.
(c) It stated that the angular momentum of electron in closed elliptical paths is quantized, that is Lk = k(h/2p)
(d) The ratio of n to k is numerically equal to the ratio of the length of major axis to that of minor axis. On increasing k, the path
becomes more eccentric, whereas if n/k = 1, then the path is circular.
Limitations:
• It was restricted to one-electron systems only, and could not explain the spectrum and electron–electron repulsions of pol-
yelectron systems.
• It was unable to explain the de Broglie equation, even though it indicated that momentum in closed elliptical paths is
quantized.
15. Dual nature of matter
(a) de Broglie equation
According to de Broglie, matter also exhibits wave like behaviour. The wavelength of a matter wave, l is given by the equation
h h
l= =
mv p
where h is Planck’s constant, m is the particle’s mass, v is its velocity and p is the momentum.
If the charged particle (electron) is accelerated with a potential of V, then the kinetic energy is given by:
1 2
mv = eV ⇒ m2v 2 = 2eVm ⇒ mv = 2eVm
2
Then from de Broglie’s relation, we have
h h
l= =
mv 2eVm
For any charged particle of charge q,
h
l=
2qVm
de Broglie wavelengths for subatomic particles
Particle Electron Proton Neutron `-particle Gas molecule
8p 2 m
∇2y + (E − V )y = 0
h2
Acceptable solutions to the wave equation, that is, solutions which are physically possible, must have certain properties:
(i) y must be continuous; (ii) y must be finite; (iii) y must be single valued.
+∞
∫−∞ y
2
(e) The probability of finding an electron at a point x, y, z over all space: dx dy dz = 1.
8p 2 m
(f) The solution of the equation ∇2y + (E − V )y = 0 is of the form y = R(r ) ⋅ Θ(q ) ⋅ Φ(f ) which can be rewritten as
y = R(r )nl ⋅ Aml h2
where R(r) the radial function, which depends on the quantum numbers n and l and Aml the total angular wave function, which
depends on the quantum numbers m and l.
(g) Important features of quantum mechanical model
(i) The energy of electrons in an atom is quantized.
(ii) All the information about a particle (electron) in a given energy level is contained in the wave function y.
(iii) The probability of finding an electron in an atom is proportional to |y |2 .
(iv) The wave function and its square |y |2 have values for all locations about the nucleus. The probability of finding the elec-
tron is the maximum near the nucleus and decreases as the distance from nucleus increases. The value becomes extremely
small with increasing distance but at no point, it becomes zero.
(v) In multi-electron atoms, the electrons are filled in various orbitals in increasing order of energy.
(vi) For a given type of atom, there are a number of solutions to the wave equation which are acceptable, and each orbital may
be described uniquely by a set of three quantum numbers, n (principal quantum number), l (azimuthal quantum number)
and ml (magnetic quantum number).
17. Quantum numbers
(a) The quantum numbers specify the shape and direction of the orbital in which the probability of finding the electron is the high-
est. The set of four quantum numbers are principal quantum number (n), angular quantum number (l) and magnetic quantum
number (ml) and spin quantum number (ms).
Information obtained from four quantum numbers
Principal quantum number (n) Azimuthal quantum number (l) Magnetic quantum number (ml) Spin quantum number (ms)
4p r 2R 2(r )
4p r 2R 2(r )
2 2
4
1 1
1s 2s 2p
0 0 0
5 10 5 10 5 10
+
x
y
1s
(b) In p orbitals the electron density is equally distributed in two regions on opposite sides of the nucleus. There are thus two
“lobes” of one p orbital. Between the lobes is a nodal plane where electron density of zero. The size of the p orbitals also
increases with increasing n. A p subshell consists of three orbitals of equal energy with each orbital have their maximum elec-
tron densities oriented at 90° to each other, corresponding to the axes of an imaginary xyz coordinate system. The individual p
orbitals they are often labeled as px, py and pz.
z z z
+ +
− + x − x x
−
y y y
2px 2py 2pz
(c) There are five orbitals in a d subshell.
(i) Four of the five d orbitals have the same shape and consist of four lobes of electron density. These four d orbitals each have
two perpendicular nodal planes that intersect the nucleus. These orbitals differ only in their orientations around the nucleus
(their labels come from the mathematics of wave mechanics).
y z z y
+
− + − + − +
−
x x x x
−
+ − + − + −
+
(ii) The fifth d orbital, labeled dz 2 , has two lobes that point in opposite directions along the z axis plus a doughnut-shaped ring
of electron density around the center that lies in the xy plane. The two nodes for the dz 2 orbital are conic surfaces whose
peaks meet at the nucleus.
z
−− x
3dz 2
1s
2s 2p
3s 3p 3d
4s 4p 4d 4f
5s 5p 5d
6s 6p 6d
7s
(iii) The energy of the orbital is given by (n + l) rule. Lower the (n + l) value for an orbital, lower is the energy. If the value of (n + l)
for two orbital is same, then the orbital having higher value of n has higher energy.
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(i) This states that no two electrons in one atom can have all four quantum numbers the same.
(ii) By permutating the quantum numbers, the maximum number of electrons which can be contained in each main energy
level can be calculated.
(a) The elements from scandium to copper (Note: Cr and Cu have only one electron in the 4s orbital.) have two electrons in the 4s
level and an incomplete 3d level, and all behave in a similar manner chemically. Such a series of atoms is known as a transition
series. A second transition series starts after the 5s orbital has been filled, at strontium, because in the next element, yttrium,
the 4d level begins to fill up. A third transition series starts at lanthanum where the electrons start to fill the 5d level after the 6d
level has been filled with two electrons.
(b) A further complication arises here because after lanthanum, which has one electron in the 5d level, the 4f level begins to fill up,
giving the elements from cerium to lutetium with one to 14f electrons. These are sometimes called the inner transition ele-
ments, but are usually known as the lanthanoids or rare earth metals.
(c) The distribution of electrons in the outer shell or the valence shell of the atom (the occupied shell with the largest value of n)
are called valence electrons. These are the ones that are exposed to other atoms when the atoms react. The inner electrons of
an atom, called the core electrons, are buried deep within the atom and normally do not play a role when chemical bonds are
formed.
21. Stability of completely filled and half-filled subshells
Half-filled and completely filled subshells (particularly the latter) have some special stability. The stability of half-filled and com-
pletely filled subshells can be attributed to the following:
(a) The half-filled and completely filled shells have symmetrical distribution of electrons, and therefore, are more stable as symme-
try is associated with greater stability.
(b) When two or more electrons are present in degenerate orbitals of a subshell with the same spin, they tend to exchange their
positions. The energy released during this exchange is known as the exchange energy.
(c) Electronic configurations with half-filled shells permit maximum number of exchanges between electrons of same spin, and
thus maximum exchange energy is released which contributes to the stability of the state.
For example, two important exceptions are for chromium and copper. Following the rules, we would expect the
configurations to be
Cr: [Ar] 3d4 4s2 Cu: [Ar] 3d9 4s2
However, the actual electronic configurations, determined experimentally, are
Cr: [Ar] 3d5 4s1 Cu: [Ar] 3d10 4s2
For chromium, an electron is “borrowed” from the 4s subshell to give to 3d subshell that becomes exactly half-filled. For copper
the 4s electron is borrowed to give a completely filled 3d subshell. A similar thing happens with silver and gold, which have
filled 4d and 5d subshells, respectively.
Ag: [Kr] 4d10 5s2 Au: [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2
Similar irregularities occur among the lanthanoid and the actinoid elements.
22. Magnetic properties
(a) The magnetic moment (m) can be measured from spin-only formula, which assumes that the magnetic moment arises entirely
from the unpaired electron spin.
(b) The spin magnetic moment is expressed as ms = n(n + 2)
where n is the number of unpaired electrons and the magnetic moment is expressed in Bohr Magneton.
(c) If the species has unpaired electrons, it is paramagnetic and if all the electrons are paired, it is said to diamagnetic.
K.E. = hn − W
2 2
∈0 n h
4. Radius of Bohr orbits in hydrogen r =
p me2 Z
Bohr radius can be also be expressed as rn = n2a0, where a0 = 52.9 pm.
nh Ze2
5. Velocity of electron: v = =
2p me r 2 ∈0 nh
− Z 2 me e 4
6. Energy of electron in hydrogen atom: E total =
8n2h2 ∈20
−13.6 1
7. Energy of electron: E = eV En = − RH 2 n = 1, 2, 3,….
n 2 n
8. Energy change for an electron undergoes a transition from initial state ni to final state nf ,
1 1
∆E = E2 − E1 = 2.18 × 10 −18 − J atom
−1
(nf ) (ni )2
2
− Z 2R
9. Energy of the electron in any one-electron system is given by E = 2
n
h h
10. de Broglie equation l = =
mv p h
11. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle ∆x ⋅ ∆p x ≥
4p 8p 2 m
12. Solution to the Schrödinger’s wave equation for hydrogen atom: ∇2y + (E − V )y = 0
h2
13. Radial and angular wave functions
y = R(r ) ⋅ Θ(q ) ⋅ Φ(f )
y = R(r )nl ⋅ Aml
+∞
∫y
2
14. The probability of finding an electron at a point x, y, z over all space is = dxdydz = 1
−∞
15. Spin magnetic moment is expressed as ms = n(n + 2)
16. Summary of Relationships among the quantum numbers n, l, and ml
Value of n Value of l Value of ml Subshell Number of orbitals
1 0 0 1s 1
2 0 0 2s 1
1 −1, 0, 1 2p 3
3 0 0 3s 1
1 −1, 0, 1 3p 3
2 −2, −1, 0, 1, 2 3d 5
4 0 0 4s 1
1 −1, 0, 1 4p 3
2 −2, −1, 0, 1, 2 4d 5
3 −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3 4f 7
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation (a) 8.041 × 10−40 J (b) 2.680 × 10−19 J
(c) 1.640 × 10−18 J (d) 6.111 × 10−17 J
1. A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wave- (JEE Main Online 2014)
lengths. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm, the other is at Solution
(a) 325 nm (b) 743 nm (c) 518 nm (d) 1035 nm
(AIEEE 2011) (c) The energy is given by E = hv = 6.626 × 10−34 × 2.47 × 1015
= 16.366 × 10−19 J ≈ 1.64 × 10−18 J
Solution
(b) The wavelength of absorbed radiation is related to those 3. Ionization energy of gaseous Na atoms is 495.5 kJ mol−1. The
of emitted radiation as lowest possible frequency of light that ionizes a sodium atom
is (h = 6.626 × 10−34 J s, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol−1)
1 1 1
= + (a) 7.50 × 104 s−1 (b) 4.76 × 1014 s−1
labsorbed l1 l2
(c) 3.15 × 1015 s−1 (d) 1.24 × 1015 s−1
1 1 1 (JEE Main Online 2014)
Therefore, = +
355 680 l2 Solution
Solving, we get l2 = 743 nm. (d) The ionization energy is given by E = NAhv
E = 495.5 × 103 = 6.022 × 1023 × 6.626 × 10−34 × n
2. Excited hydrogen atom emits light in the ultraviolet region at
2.47 × 1015 Hz. With this frequency, the energy of a single photon is: 495.5 × 103
n= = 1.24 × 1015 s −1
(h = 6.626 × 10−34 J s) 6.022 × 6.626 × 10 −11
10. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a photo electron 5h 2.5h
Since n = 5, we get mvr = =
of zero velocity from the surface of the metal, the wavelength 2p p
of incident light should be
14. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 J mol−1.
(a) 2700 Å (b) 1700 Å (c) 5900 Å (d) 3100 Å
The energy required to excite the electron in the atom from
Solution n = 1 to n = 2 is
(d) hv = hv 0 + K.E. (a) 8.51 × 105 J mol−1 (b) 6.56 × 105 J mol−1
For zero velocity K.E. = 0 where hv0 is work function. So, (c) 7.56 × 105 J mol−1 (d) 9.84 × 105 J mol−1
(AIEEE 2008)
hv = hv 0 .
Solution
Given that hv = 4 eV. Therefore,
hc h × c 6.626 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 (d) The energy for stationary states n = 1 and n = 2 are,
= 4 eV ⇒ l = = = 3100 Å respectively,
l 4 eV 4 × 1.6 × 10 −19
1.312 × 106 1.312 × 106
11. If l0 and l be the threshold wavelength and wavelength of E1 = and E2 = −
(1)2 (2)2
incident light, the velocity of photoelectron ejected from the
metal surface is Therefore,
2h 2hc 1.312 × 106 1.312 × 106
(a) ( l0 − l ) (b) ( l0 − l ) ∆E = E2 − E1 = − 2
−−
m m 2 1
v1 − v 0 (K.E.)1 / h
From Eq. (1), we have
or v 2 − v 0 = 2v1 − 2v 0 9
(E1)Li2+ = −19.6 × 10 −18 × = −4.41× 10 −7 J atom−1
Hence, v 0 = 2v1 − v 2 = ( 4 × 1016 ) − (3.2 × 1016 ) = 8 × 1015 Hz 4
Z2
Bohr’s Atomic Model 16. Energy of an electron is given by E = −2.178 × 10 −18 J .
n2
13. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in an hydro-
electron in 5th orbit is gen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2 will be (h = 6.62 × 10−34 J s
(a) 25h/p (b) 1.0h/p and c = 3.0 × 108 m s−1)
(c) 10h/p (d) 2.5h/p (a) 2.816 × 10−7 m (b) 6.500 × 10−7 m
(AIEEE 2006) −
(c) 8.500 × 10 m7 (d) 1.214 × 10−7 m
Solution (JEE Main 2013)
(d) According to Bohr’s postulate of quantization of angu- Solution
hc 1 1
lar momentum, the angular momentum of an electron (d) E = = 2.178 × 10 −18 × 12 2 − 2 = 1.634 J
nh l 1 2
should be an integral multiple of h/2p, that is, mvr =
2p ⇒ l = 1.214 × 10 −7 m
17. If m and e are the mass and charge of the revolving electron Solution
in the orbit of radius r for hydrogen atom, the total energy of 1 1 1
(a) Using the formula, = R 2 − 2
the revolving electron will be l 1
n n 2
1 e2 e2 me2 1 e2 Substituting n2 = infinity (given) and n1 = 1, we get,
(a) (b) − (c) (d) −
2 r r r 2 r 1 1
= 1.097 × 107 × [1] or l = = 91 nm
(JEE Main Online 2014) l 1.097 × 107
Solution
22. How far from the nucleus is the electron in a hydrogen atom
(d) Total energy of e− is one half of potential energy
if it has energy of −0.850 eV.
1 Ze2 1 e2 (a) 7342 Å (b) 8464 Å (c) 7535 Å (d) 6590 Å
E=− =− (Since Z = 1 for H atom)
2 r 2 r Solution
18. Based on the equation: Z2
(b) According to Bohr’s theory, En = − × 2.18 × 10 −19
1 1 n2
∆E = −2.0 × 10 −18 J 2 − 2 where En is the total energy of electron in that shell.
n2 n1 Substituting −0.850 eV, we get
the wavelength of the light that must be absorbed to excite Z2
hydrogen electron from level n = 1 to level n = 2 will be: − × 2.18 × 10 −19 = −0.85 × 1.6 × 10 −19 ⇒ n = 4
n2
(h = 6.625 × l0−34 J s, c = 3 × 108 m s−1)
(a) 1.325 × 10−7 m (b) 1.325 × 10−10 m Substituting n = 4 for Z = 1, we get
(c) 2.650 × 10−7 m (d) 5.300 × 10−10 m n2 16
(JEE Main Online 2014) r= × 52.9 pm = × 52.9 pm = 8464 Å
Z 1
Solution
23. Calculate the energy of radiation emitted for the elec-
hc 1 1
(a) E= = −2.0 × 10 −18 J 2 − 2 tronic transition from infinity to ground state for hydro-
l n2 n1 gen atom. Given c = 3 × 108 m s−1, RH = 1.09678 × 107 m−1,
1 −2.0 × 10 −18 1 1 h = 6.6256 × 10−34 J s−1.
= −34 8
× 2 − 2 (a) 2.18 × 10 −18 J (b) 3.25 × 10 −18 J
l 6.625 × 10 × 3 × 10 n2 n1
(c) 4.05 × 10 −18 J (d) 2.39 × 10 −18 J
1 2 10 −18 1 2 3 1 ⇒ 1.325 × 10 −7
=− × −26 − 1 = × × Solution
l 19.8 10 4 19.8 4 10 −8
(a) According to Rydberg equation, we have
19. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited 1
1 1
state of hydrogen? v = = RZ 2 2 − 2
(a) − 6.8 eV (b) −3.4 eV l n1 n2
(c) + 6.8 eV (d) +13.6 eV where Z = 1, R = 1.09678 × 107 m−1, n1 = 1 and n2 = ∞.
(JEE Main 2015) 1 1 1
Solution Therefore, = 1.09678 × 107 −
Z2 l 1 ∞
(b) Energy of hydrogen atom En = −13.6 × 2 eV 1
n or l = = 0.911× 10 −7 = 9.11 × 10 −8 m
where Z = 1 and n = 2. Substituting, we get 1.09678 × 107
1 The energy is given by
E = −13.6 × = −3.4 eV
4 hc 6.6256 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108
20. In Bohr series of lines hydrogen spectrum, the third line E= = = 2.18 × 10 −18 J
l 9.11× 10 −8
from the red end corresponds to which one of the following
inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of 24. Calculate the ratio of the radius of Be3+ ion in third energy
hydrogen? level to that of He+ ion in the second energy level.
(a) 3 → 2 (b) 5 → 2 (c) 4 → 1 (d) 2 → 5 (a) 8 : 9 (b) 8 : 7
(c) 9 : 8 (d) 9 : 7
Solution
Solution
(b) Line from the red end belongs to Balmer series for which
n2
n1 = 2 and n2 = 3, 4, 5 for first, second and third lines (c) From the expression r ∝ where n is the principal shell
respectively. Z 2
r n Z
and Z is the atomic number, we have 1 = 1 2
21. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in hydrogen r n Z
2 2 1
atom electron transition from infinity to stationary state 1,
Substituting n1 = 3, n2 = 2, Z1 = 4 for Be3+ and Z2 = 2 for
would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097 × 107 m−1)
2
(a) 91 nm (b) 9.1 × 10−8 nm r1 3 2 9
He+, we get = × =
(c) 406 nm (d) 192 nm r2 2 4 8
25. Consider the transition from energy level n = 6 to n = 4 for n = 5. Thus, the energy difference is minimum, and so the
He+, the wavelength observed is the same as the transition in wavelength of emitted photon will be maximum.
[consider no reduced mass effect]
(a) Li2+ from n = 6 to n = 4 (b) B4+ from n = 6 to n = 4 Dual Nature of Matter
(c) H from n = 3 to n = 2 (d) Be3+ from n = 12 to n = 8 27. Uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10−31
Solution kg) moving with a velocity 300 m s−1, accurate upto 0.001%,
1 1 1 will be
(c) Using Rydberg formula = RH × Z 2 2 − 2 , we have:
l n1 n2 (a) 19.2 × 10−2 m (b) 5.76 × 10−2 m
−2
(c) 1.92 × 10 m (d) 3.84 × 10−2 m
For transition from energy level n = 6 to n = 4 for He+ is −34
(where h = 6.63 × 10 J s)
1 1 1
= RH × 22 2 − 2 (AIEEE 2006)
lHe + 4 6
This can be expressed in terms of following transitions: Solution
1 1 1 1 1 (c) According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle
= RH × 22 2 − 2 = RH 2 − 2
lHe + 4 6 2 3
h
∆x ⋅ ∆p ≥
⇒ same as in H from n = 3 → 2 4p
1 1 1 1 1 h
= RH 2 − 2 = RH × 32 2 2 − 2 2 or ∆x ≥ (as ∆p = m∆v ) .
lHe + 2 3 3 ×2 3 ×3 4pm∆v
1 1 Also, ∆v = 0.001% of 300. Substituting, we get
= RH × 32 2 − 2
6 9 6.63 × 10 −34
∆x = = 0.01933 m
⇒ same as in Li2 + from n = 9 → 6 0.001
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10 −31 × 300 ×
1 1 1 1 1 100
= RH 2 − 2 = RH × 4 2 2 2 − 2 2 ∆x = 1.93 × 10−2 m
lHe + 2 3 4 ×2 4 ×3
1 1 28. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m s−1
= RH × 4 2 2 − 2 with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty with which the position
8 12
of the electron can be located is (h = 6.6 × 10−34 kg m2 s−1,
⇒ same as in Be3+ from n = 12 → 8 mass of electron me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg)
1 1 1 1 1 (a) 1.52 × 10−4 m (b) 5.10 × 10−3 m
= RH 2 − 2 = RH × 52 2 2 − 2 2 −3
(c) 1.92 × 10 m (d) 3.84 × 10−3 m
lHe + 2 3 5 ×2 5 ×3
(AIEEE 2009)
1 1
= RH × 52 2 − 2 Solution
10 15 h
(c) Using Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, ∆x ⋅ m∆v =
⇒ same as in B4 + from n = 15 → 10 h 4p
Hence, the wavelength is the same in the case of H from ⇒ ∆x =
4p m∆v
n = 3 to n = 2.
Given that ∆v = 0.005% of 600 m s−1, so
26. Which of the following electron transitions in hydrogen atom 0.005
∆v = 600 × = 0.03 ms −1
will produce photon with maximum wavelength? 100
(a) n = 5 to n = 1 (b) n = 4 to n = 2 Hence,
(c) n = 6 to n = 4 (d) n = 6 to n = 5
6.6 × 10 −34
Solution ∆x = = 1.92 × 10 −3 m
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10 −31 × 0.03
(d) The energy of photon is calculated as the energy differ- 29. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with
ence of the orbits, a proton moving at 1.0 × 103 ms−1 (mass of proton = 1.67 ×
Ephoton = En2 − En1 = ∆E 10−27 kg and h = 6.63 × 10−34 J s).
(a) 0.032 nm (b) 0.40 nm
hc hc
Hence, Ephoton = = ∆E ⇒ l = (c) 2.5 nm (d) 14.0 nm
l ∆E (AIEEE 2009)
So, emitted photon’s wavelength is inversely propor-
tional to the energy difference of energy levels. Since Solution
1 1 (b) Using de Broglie relationship
∆E ∝ 2 − 2 , moving away from nucleus the gap
n2 n1 h 6.63 × 10 −34
l= = = 0.4 0 nm
between successive energy levels is suppressed. So for . × 10 −27 × 103
mv 167
the transition from highest energy level to lower energy
level will produce lowest energy photon. 30. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 6.63 g moving
For n = 6 to n = 5, transition is taking place from the with a velocity of 100 ms−1 is:
highest energy level, n = 6 to just lower energy level, (a) 10−33 m (b) 10−35 m (c) 10−31 m (d) 10−35 m
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution 1 h
h 6.626 × 10 −34 ∆v x =
(a) Wavelength is given by l = = 2 2m p
mv 6.63 × 100 × 10 −3
= 10 −33 m 34. If l1 and l2 denote the de Broglie wavelengths of two par-
ticles with same masses but charges in the ratio of 1:2 after
31. Calculate the wavelength of a particle of mass 3.1 × 10−31 kg
they are accelerated from rest through the same potential
that is moving with a speed of 2.21 × 107 m s−1. (Use h = 6.626
difference, then
× 10−34 J s)
(a) l1 = l2 (b) l1 < l2 (c) l1 > l2 (d) l1 ≠ l2
(a) 6.59 × 10 −11 m (b) 7.52 × 10 −11 m
Solution
(c) 8.62 × 10 −11 m (d) 9.67 × 10 −11 m h
(c) l = ; where K.E. is in eV.
2m K.E.
Solution
(d) The wavelength of the particle can be computed using Given that the mass is same, but charges are in the ratio
de Broglie’s equation l = h/mv. 1:2, therefore, K.E.2 > K.E.1.
Given that mass of the particle (m) = 3.1 × 10−31 kg,
l1 K.E.2
velocity of particle = 2.21 × 107 m s−1, h = 6.626 × 10−34 J s Now, = ⇒ l1 > l2
= 6.626 × 10−34 kg m2 s−1. l2 K.E.1
Substituting values in equation, we get
Quantum Numbers and Rules for Filling Electrons
6.626 × 10 −34 kg m2 s −1 −11
l= = 9.67 × 10 m 35. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents
(3.1× 10 −31 kg) × (2.21× 107 m s −1)
the highest energy of an atom?
32. The uncertainty for the calculation of radius of the first Bohr (a) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
orbit is 2% for the hydrogen atom. What will be the uncer- (b) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
tainty in velocity of electron in the first Bohr orbit. (Given that (c) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = +1/2
h = 6.626 × 10−34 J s and m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg.) (d) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(AIEEE 2007)
(a) 5.47 × 107 m s −1 (b) 6.02 × 107 m s −1
Solution
(c) 4.71× 107 m s −1 (d) 6.85 × 107 m s −1 (c) According to (n + l) rule, more is the value of (n + l)
Solution more is the energy. Hence, when n = 3 and l = 2, then
(n + l) = (3 + 2) = 5.
(a) We know that r = 0.529 × 10−10 m. If uncertainty is 2%, we
get 36. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l
2 (I) n = 4, l = 1 (II) n = 4, l = 0
∆x = 0.529 × 10 −10 × = 1.06 × 10 −12 m
100 (III) n = 3, l = 2 (IV) n = 3, l = 1
From Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, we have can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
(a) (III) < (IV) < (II) < (I) (b) (IV) < (II) < (III) < (I)
h
∆x ⋅ m∆v ≥ (c) (II) < (IV) < (I) < (III) (d) (I) < (III) < (II) < (IV)
4p (AIEEE 2012)
where ∆x is the uncertainty in position and ∆v is the Solution
uncertainty in velocity. Thus, we have
(b) Using n + l rule, that is, lower the n + l value, lower will be
6.626 × 10 −34 its energy. In case n + l value is the same, then the one
∆v ≥
4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10 −31 × 1.06 × 10 −12 having lower n value will be lower in energy.
⇒ ∆v ≥ 5.47 × 107 m s −1 (I) n = 4, l = 1, n + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5
(II) n = 4, l = 0, n + 1 = 4 + 0 = 4
33. If uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in momen- (III) n = 3, l = 2; n + 1 = 3 + 2 = 5 (here the value of n is
tum, then uncertainty in velocity will be lower).
h 1 h (IV) n = 3, l = 1; n + 1 = 3 + 1 = 4 (here the value of n is
(a) (b) lower, so it is lower in energy).
p 2m p
Thus, the order is IV < II < III < I.
1 1 h
(c) h (d)
2m 2 2m p 37. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence
Solution electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
(d) Using the following formulas for uncertainties (a) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 (b) 5, 1, 0, +1/2
(c) 5, 1, 1, +1/2 (d) 5, 0, 1, +1/2
∆x⋅∆px = h/4p ⇒ ∆x⋅∆vx = h/4p m (JEE Main 2014)
Since ∆x is twice ∆px, Solution
2∆px⋅∆vx = h/4p m or ∆px⋅∆vx = h/8p m (a) For Rb (Z = 37), the electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6
But, p = mv. So, m⋅∆vx⋅∆vx = h/8p m. 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 5s1
(∆vx)2 = h/8p m2. Therefore, ∆vx = (h/8p m)1/2
Solution 45. In a chromium atom, how many electrons have zero azi-
muthal quantum number?
(b) This is because for s orbital, l = 0.
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
41. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for Solution
an electron in 4f orbital?
(a) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +(1/2) (c) The electronic configuration of chromium is 1s2 2s2 2p6
(b) n = 3, l = 2, m = −2, s = +(1/2) 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1.
(c) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +(1/2) The number of electrons in s-orbitals is 7, for which azi-
(d) n = 4, l = 4, m = −4, s = −(1/2) muthal quantum number is zero.
46. Out of the following, which element is not paramagnetic in The quantum number set given in the question
its ground state? [Given: atomic number of Cu = 29, Cd = 48, belongs to second electron in 4s orbital, so, first elec-
Se = 34, Au = 79] tron’s can be considered for anyone electron in 4s-
(a) Cu (b) Se (c) Cd (d) Au orbital in Zn. Thus the only impossible quantum number
1
Solution set is n = 4 , l = 1, ml = −1, s = + which is for electron in
2
(c) Copper: The electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4p-orbital.
3p6 3d10 4s1. It contains one unpaired electron, so it is
49. The quantum numbers of +1/2 and −1/2 for the electron spin
paramagnetic.
represent
Selenium: The electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s2
(a) rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise
4p4, so it contains two unpaired electrons and will show
direction, respectively
paramagnetism.
(b) rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise
Cadmium: The electronic configuration is [Kr] 4d10 5s2,
direction, respectively
so no unpaired electrons exist; hence, it will not be
(c) magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and
paramagnetic.
down, respectively
Gold: It belongs to the copper family, so the electronic
(d) two quantum mechanical spin states that have no classi-
configuration is [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s1. This one unpaired
cal analog.
electron will show paramagnetism.
Solution
47. Which of the following electronic configuration is not
possible? (a) An electron in its motion in an orbit may rotate or spin
(a) [Kr] 4d8 5s1 (b) [Kr] 3d7 4s2 about its own axis and spin may be clockwise and anti-
(c) [Xe] 4f14 5d7 6s2 (d) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 clockwise. Assuming this spin to be quantized there are
two possible values of s, that is, s = +1/2 and s = −1/2,
Solution depending upon whether the electron spins are in one
(b) The electronic configuration follows Aufbau principle, direction or in the other.
that is, electrons should be filled in increasing order 50. When the value of the azimuthal quantum number is 3, the
of energy. In [Kr], the configuration 3d7 4s2 is already maximum and the minimum values of the spin multiplicities
included with [Kr], the correct one is [Kr] 4d7 5s1 for Ru. are
All other configurations are written correctly. (a) 4, 3 (b) 8, 1 (c) 1, 3 (d) 8, 2
1 Solution
48. Consider n = 4 , l = 0 , ml = 0 , s = − is the set of four quan-
2 (d) Spin multiplicity is 2S + 1. l = 3 corresponds to s, p, d,
tum numbers for outermost electron in an atom. Which of
and f orbitals. Maximum multiplicity for the f orbitals
the following quantum set is not possible for other electrons
7
available in this atom? (7 electrons) = 2S + 1 = 2 × + 1 = 8
1 2
(a) n = 4 , l = 0 , ml = 0 , s = + Minimum multiplicity for the f orbital (1 electron)
2
1 1
(b) n = 3, l = 2, ml = −2, s = + = 2S + 1 = 2 × + 1 = 2
2 2
1 51. The number of d electrons in Cu+ (atomic number = 29) that
(c) n = 4 , l = 1, ml = −1, s = +
2 can have the spin quantum (−1/2) is
1 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 7
(d) n = 2, l = 1, ml = 1, s = −
2 Solution
Solution
(a) Cu+ = [Ar ]3d10 4 s0
(c) Outermost electron belongs to 4s orbital, so, we can 1
Five d-electrons have + spin
consider all set of quantum numbers for orbitals filled 2
before it. The set of quantum number is not possible 1
which belongs to the orbital filled after 4s orbital. Five d-electrons have − spin
2
Potential energy = −Ze2/r and kinetic energy = Ze2/2r. Dividing 5. The orbital angular momentum quantum number of the state
the two, we get Vn/Kn = −2. S2 is
Total energy = −Ze2/2r or rn ∝ E−1 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Angular momentum = nh/2p. For n = 0, angular momentum Solution
is zero. (b) Azimuthal quantum number for S2 = 1
From the expression rn = aon2/Z, therefore, rn ∝ Z−1
For S2, radial node = 1, so 1= n − l − 1 or l = n − 2
2. Match the entries in Column I with the correctly related quan-
Z2
tum number(s) in Column II. ES2 = −13.6 × = EH in ground state = −13.6
n2
Column I Column II 9
or E = −13.6 × 2 ⇒ n = 3
(a) Orbital angular momentum (p) Principal quantum n
of the electron in a hydro- number So, the state in S1 is 2s and S2 is 3p.
gen-like atomic orbital
6. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal
(b) A hydrogen-like one- (q) Azimuthal quantum
quantum number, n = 3, a spin quantum number, ms = −(1/2) is
electron wave function number
___.
obeying Pauli principle
(IIT-JEE 2011)
(c) Shape, size and orientation (r) Magnetic quantum Solution
of hydrogen like atomic number
orbitals (9) For n = 3, the total number of orbitals = n2 = 9. This means
18 electrons can be accommodated in 9 orbitals in which
(d) Probability density of (s) Electron spin quan-
9 will have spin clockwise (ms = +1/2) and 9 will have anti-
electron at the nucleus in tum number
clockwise (ms = −1/2).
hydrogen-like atom
7. The work function (W0) of some metals is listed below. The
(IIT-JEE 2008)
number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when
Solution
light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is ___.
(a) ã q; (b) ã s; (c) ã p, q, r; (d) ã p, q, r
Azimuthal quantum number determines the orbital angular Metal W0 (eV) Metal W0 (eV)
momentum of electron. It also determines the shape of the Li 2.4 Ag 4.3
orbital.
Na 2.3 Fe 4.7
Pauli’s exclusion principle states that an orbital can contain
maximum of two electrons. K 2.2 Pt 6.3
Principal quantum number determines the size of the orbital. Mg 3.7 W 4.75
Magnetic quantum number determines the orientation of the Cu 4.8
orbital.
(IIT-JEE 2011)
Three of the quantum number (principal, azimuthal, magnetic)
Solution
together represents the probability density of electron.
(4) Given that wavelength is l = 300 nm = 300 × 10−9 m
Paragraph for Questions 3 to 5: The hydrogen-like species Li2+ = 3 × 10−7 m. Therefore, energy is
is in a spherically symmetric state S1 with one radial node. Upon hc 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108
absorbing light, the ion undergoes transition to a state S2. The E = hn = = = 6.6 × 10 −19 J
l 3 × 10 −7
state S2 has one radial node and its energy is equal to the ground
state energy of the hydrogen atom. 6.6 × 10 −19
= = 4.1 eV
(IIT-JEE 2010) . × 10 −19
16
3. The state S1 is For a metal to show photoelectric effect, its work function
(a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 2p (d) 3s has to be less than or equal to 4.1 eV. So, the number of met-
als having work function less than 4.1 eV are Li, Na, K and Mg.
Solution
(b) For S1 (spherically symmetrical), node = 1, or n − 1 = 1 8. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a
⇒n=2 hydrogen atom is (a0 is the Bohr radius).
h2 h2
4. Energy of the S1 in units of the hydrogen atom ground state (a) 2 2
(b)
energy is 4p ma0 16p 2 ma02
(a) 0.75 (b) 1.50 (c) 2.25 (d) 4.50 h2 h2
(c) 2
(d)
Solution 32p ma02 64p 2 ma02
(c) The relations between energy in S1 state and that of (IIT-JEE 2012)
ground state of hydrogen atom is Solution
ES1 −13.6 × 9
= = 2.25 (c) According to Bohr’s postulate, the angular momentum of
EH 4 × ( −13.6 ) an electron is quantized, that is,
nh nh 13. The energy of the electron in the second and the third
mvr = ⇒v = Bohr’s orbits of the hydrogen atom is −5.42 × 10−12 ergs and
2p 2p mr
−2.41 × 10−12 ergs, respectively. Calculate the wavelength of
the emitted radiation when the electron drops from the third
Now, substituting the above expression in the kinetic
to the second orbit.
energy expression (1/2) mv2, we get
1 nh
2 Solution
K.E. = m (1)
2 2p mr The energy of the emitted radiation is
Solution Solution
1 h
From the expressions mu2 = eV and l = , we get (b) The radius of the hydrogen-like species is calculated and
2 mv compared with that of hydrogen.
1 h2 1 h2 0.529 n2
m 2 2 = eV ⇒ V = rn = Å
2 m l 2 ml 2e Z
Substituting values, we get 0.529 × 12
r1(H) = = 0.529 Å
1× (6.62 × 10 −34 )2 1
V= = 63.3 V 0.529 × 22
2 × 9.108 × 10 −31
× (1.54 × 10 −10 )2 × 1.602 × 10 −19 r2 (Be3+ ) = = 0.529 Å
4
24. The solution of the Schrödinger wave equation for hydrogen 27. The number of radial nodes in 3p and 4s orbitals, respec-
atom is tively, are
3/2 (a) 1, 3 (b) 3, 1
1 1 r −r / a
y 2s = 2 − a e (c) 2, 2 (d) 2, 1
1/2 a
4(2p ) 0 0
Solution
where a0 is Bohr’s radius. Let the radial node in 2s be at r0. (a) The number of radial nodes = n − l − 1. Now, for 3p, n = 3,
Then find r in terms of a0. l = 1. Substituting, we get
Solution n−l−1=3−1−1=1
The probability of finding 2s electron will be For 4s, n = 4, l = 0. Substituting, we get n − l − 1 = 4 − 0 − 1 = 3
3 2
1 1 r 28. Ratio of time period of electrons in the second orbit of H and
y 22s dV = 2 − e −2r / a0
32p a0 a0 first orbit of He+ would be
Node is a point where probability of finding an electron is (a) 1 : 32 (b) 32 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
zero. Thus, y 22s dV = 0 when r = r0. Therefore, Solution
2 2 2p rn n2 n n3
1 1 r (b) We have time period(T ) = ∝ × ∝ 2
2 − 0 e −2r / a0 = 0 vn Z Z Z
32p a0 a0
Therefore, the ratio of time period of electrons in the
r second orbit of H and first orbit of He+ is
The only factor that can be zero is 2 − 0 = 0 ⇒ r0 = 2a0
a0
TH 23 / 13 23 22
25. What is the maximum number of electrons that may be pres- = 2 2 = 2 × 3 = 32
THe + 1 / 2 1 1
ent in all the atomic orbitals with principle quantum number
3 and azimuthal quantum number 2? 29. Naturally occurring boron consists of two isotopes whose
atomic weights are 10.01 and 11.01. The atomic weight of
Solution natural boron is 10.81. Calculate the percentage of each iso-
For n = 3 and l = 2 (i.e., 3d orbital), the values of m varies from tope in natural boron.
−2 to +2, that is, −2, −1, 0, +1, +2 and for each m there are
Solution
2 values of s, that is, +1/2 and −1/2. The maximum number
of electrons in all the five d-orbitals is 10. Average mass = Mass of isotopes’ mole fraction + Mass of iso-
topes’ mole fraction
26. Which hydrogen-like species will have same radius as that of 10.81 = 11.01x + 10.01 (1 − x) ⇒ 10.81 = 11.01x + 10.01 − 10.01x
Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom? ⇒ x = 10.81 − 10.01 = 0.80
(a) n = 2, Li2+ (b) n = 2, Be3+ Therefore, the percentage of each isotope in natural boron is
(c) n = 2, He+ (d) n = 3, Li2+ 80% and 20%.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I (a) [He] 2s12p3 (b) [Kr] 3d74s2
(c) [He] 2s22p4 (d) [Xe] 4f145d86s1
Single Correct Choice Type
3. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one that
1. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be
gives an absorption line of maximum wavelength is
(a) ns → np → (n − 1)d → (n − 2)f
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 3 to n = 8
(b) ns → (n − 2)f → (n − 1)d → np
(c) n = 2 to n = 1 (d) n = 8 to n = 3
(c) ns → (n − 1)d → (n − 2)f → np
(d) ns → (n − 2)f → np → (n − 1)d 4. In which block will copper (atomic number 29) be placed if the
Aufbau principle is not followed for filling the electrons?
2. Which one is correct among the following electron configura- (a) s-block (b) p-block
tions for atoms in their ground states? (c) d-block (d) f-block
5. The electron energy in hydrogen atom is given by E = 17. A compound of vanadium possesses a magnetic moment of
(−21.7 × 10−12)/n2 ergs. Calculate the energy required to 1.73 BM. The oxidation state of vanadium in this compound is
remove an electron completely from the n = 2 orbit. What is the (a) 1 (b) 2
longest wavelength (in cm) of light that can be used to cause (c) 4 (d) cannot be predicted
this transition?
18. The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of
(a) 385 nm (b) 309 nm (c) 367 nm (d) 350 nm
the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom?
6. During the emission spectrum, the first line of Lyman series of (a) He+ (n = 2) (b) Li2+ (n = 2)
hydrogen atom occurs as l = x Å. The wavelength of the first 2+
(c) Li (n = 3) (d) Be3+ (n = 2)
line of Lyman series of He+ ion will occur at
19. An ion that has 18 electrons in the outermost shell is
(a) 4/x (b) x/4 (c) 3/x (d) 4x
(a) Cu+ (b) Th4+ (c) Cs+ (d) K+
7. Which of the following combination of quantum numbers is 20. When the frequency of light incident on a metallic plate is
not allowed? doubled, the K.E. of the emitted photoelectron will be
(a) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0 (b) n = 4, l = 4, ml = 0 (a) doubled.
(c) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1 (d) n = 3, l = 3, ml = 1 (b) halved.
8. The first line in the Balmer series in the hydrogen atom will (c) increased but more than double of the previous KE.
have the frequency (d) remains unchanged quantum number.
(a) 4.57 × 1014 s−1 (b) 3.29 × l015 s−1 21. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg
(c) 8.22 × 1015 s−1 (d) 8.05 × 1013 s−1 constant (RH ) is given by the expression
9. If the kinetic energy of a proton is increased 9 times, the wave- (a) RHhc (b) RHc
length of the de Broglie wave associated with it would become
(a) 3 times (b) 9 times (c) 2RHhc (d) RHhcNA
(c) 1/3 times (d) 1/9 times 22. The wavelength associated with a golf ball weighing 200 g
10. The total spin resulting from a d7 configuration is and moving at a speed of 5 m h−1 is of the order
(a) 3/2 (b) 1/2 (c) 2 (d) 1 (a) 10−10 m (b) 10−20 m (c) 10−30 m (d) 10−40 m
11. Four different sets of quantum numbers for four electrons are 23. For which of the species, Bohr’s theory is not applicable?
given below: (a) Be3+ (b) Li2+ (c) He2+ (d) H
E1 = 4, 0, 0, 1/2 E2 = 3, 1, 1, 1/2 24. Find the number of spectral lines that are emitted by atomic
E3 = 3, 2, 2, 1/2 E4 = 3, 0, 0, 1/2 hydrogen excited to (n + 1) the energy level.
The order of energy of E1, E2, E3, and E4 is:
(a) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (b) E4 > E3 > E2 > El (a) n(n +1) (b) 1 n(n − 1)
(c) E3 > E1 > E2 > E4 (d) E2 > E3 > E4 > E1 2 2
1
(c) (n + 1)(n + 2) (d) 1 (n − 1)(n − 2)
12. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in 2 2
the Balmer series appears at 25. The energy associated with the first orbit in the hydrogen
9RH 7RH atom is −2.18 × 10−18 J/atom. What is the radius and energy
(a) cm−1 (b) cm−1 associated with the fifth orbit?
400 144
3RH 5RH (a) 1.3225 nm, −5.63 × 10 −20 J
(c) cm−1 (d) cm−1
4 36 (b) 1.3225 nm, −8.72 × 10 −20 J
13. Atomic number of chromium is 24, then Cr 3+ will be (c) 2.36 nm, −8.72 × 10 −20 J
(a) diamagnetic. (b) paramagnetic. (d) 3.265 nm, −5.63 × 10 −20 J
(c) ferromagnetic. (d) none of these. 26. Magnetic moments of V (Z = 23), Cr (Z = 24), Mn (Z = 25) are
14. Correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence (outer- x, y, z. Hence,
most) electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is: (a) x = y = z (b) x < y < z
(a) 5, 0, 0, +1/2 (b) 5, 1, 0, + 1/2 (c) x < z < y (d) z < y < x
(c) 5, 1, 1, + 1/2 (d) 6, 0, 0, +1/2. 27. The kinetic energy, E, of an electron is related to the kel-
3
15. Which of the following postulates does not belong to Bohr’s vin temperature through the equation, E = kT where k =
model of the atom? 2
1.38 × 10−23 J particle−1 K−1. You are given an electron with a
(a) Angular momentum is an in the orbit is stable of h/2p. de Broglie wavelength of l = 76.3 nm. What is the kelvin tem-
(b) The electron stationed in the orbit is stable. perature of electron?
(c) The path of an electron is circular. (a) 0.50 (b) 1.00 (c) 1.50 (d) 2.00
(d) The change in the energy levels of electron is continuous.
28. According to Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, which of the
16. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is following is quantized for an electron?
determined by the following: (a) Angular momentum (b) Angular acceleration
(a) 2n2 (b) 4l + 2 (c) 2l + 1 (d) 4l − 2 (c) Acceleration (d) Velocity
29. The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits is 42. How many photons having a wavelength of 3.00 mm would
(a) 1 : 0.5 : 0.33 (b) 1 : 2 : 3 have to be absorbed by 1.00 g of water to raise its tempera-
(c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 8 : 27 ture by 1.00°C?
(a) 5.36 × 1025 (b) 6.32 × 1022
30. The maximum number of electrons that may be present in
(c) 4.29 × 1025 (d) 8.64 × 1022
all atomic orbitals with principle quantum number 3 and azi-
muthal quantum number 2 is 43. In the spectrum of hydrogen, there is a line with a wave-
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 4 length of 410.3 nm. Use the Rydberg equation to calculate
the value of n for the higher energy Bohr orbit involved in
31. For the shortest and longest value of l of Lyman series, the
the emission of this light. Assume the value of n for the lower
type of transition is
energy orbit equals 2.
(a) n2 = 5, n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, n1 = 1.
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 8
(b) n2 = ∞ , n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, n1 = 1.
44. How fast would an electron have to be moving to eject an
(c) n2 = 1, n1 = ∞ and n2 = 1, n1 = 2. electron from an atom of neon, which has a first ionization
(d) n2 = ∞ , n1 = 2 and n2 = 2, n1 = 1. energy equal to 2080 kJ mol−1?
32. The velocity of electron in a certain Bohr’s orbit of H-atom (a) 2.754 × 106 m s−1 (b) 3.021 × 107 m s−1
bears the ratio 1:275 to the velocity of light. What is the value
(c) 1.265 × 108 m s−1 (d) 4.012 × 105 m s−1
of quantum number (n) of the orbit?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 45. The removal of an electron from the hydrogen atom cor-
responds to raising the electron to the Bohr orbit that has
33. The ratio of radii of first orbits of H, He+, and Li2+ is
n = ∞. On the basis of this statement, calculate the ionization
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 6 : 3 : 2 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 9 : 4 : 1
energy of hydrogen in units of joules per atom.
34. For an electron, the product v × n (velocity × principal quan- −20
(a) 3.01 × 10 −19 J (b) 4.25 × 10 J
tum number) will be independent of the
(a) principal quantum number. (c) 2.85 × 10 −15 J (d) 2.18 × 10 −18 J
(b) velocity of the electron
(c) energy of the electron
(d) frequency of its revolution. Level II
35. Degenerate orbitals are those that contain Multiple Correct Choice Type
(a) same wave function. (b) same orientation.
46. Which of the following is the nodal plane of dxy orbital?
(c) same energy. (d) both (a) and (b).
(a) xy (b) yz
36. The angular momentum of an electron is h/p. The Bohr’s (c) zx (d) All of these
orbit in which the electron is revolving is ___.
47. Which of the following statements are correct for an electron
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
that has n = 2 and ml = 0?
37. If 10 −17 J of light energy is needed by the interior of human (a) The electron may be in a d-orbital.
eye to see an object, then photons of green light (l = 550 nm) (b) The electron may be in f-orbital.
needed to see the object are (c) The electron may be in a p-orbital.
(a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d) The electron may have the spin quantum number = +1/2.
38. In a hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is −3.4 eV. 48. Find the ratio of la and lb for the Balmer series in the
Then, the kinetic energy of the same orbit of hydrogen atom is atomic spectra of hydrogen.
(a) +3.4 eV (b) +6.8 eV 80 90 40 20
(c) −13.6 eV (d) +13.6 eV (a) (b) (c) (d)
108 108 54 27
39. For the energy levels in an atom, which one of the following
statements is incorrect? 49. Which of the following orbitals are associated with the angu-
(a) There are 7 principal electron energy levels. lar nodes?
(b) The second principal energy level can have 4 energy (a) s-orbitals (b) p-orbitals
sublevels and contain a maximum of 8 electrons. (c) d-orbitals (d) f-orbitals
(c) The 4s energy sublevel is of higher energy than the 3d 30
50. Five valence electrons of 15 P are labeled as
energy sublevel.
(d) Both (a) and (c) are correct. pq x y z
40. When the electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from the n = 4 3s 3p
to the n = 1 state, the number of spectral lines emitted is If the spin quantum number of q and z is +(1/2), the
(a) 15 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4 group of electrons with three of the quantum numbers
41. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is same are:
(a) 146 C , 157 N, 179 F (b) 12 14 19
6 C , 7 N, 9 F (a) pq (b) (xyz),(pq)
14 14 17 14 14 19
(c) (pq),(xyz),(pz) (d) (pq),(xyz),(qy)
(c) 6 C , 7 N, 9 F (d) 6 C , 7 N, 9 F
51. Many elements have non-integral atomic masses because magnetic field. The paramagnetism is expressed in terms of mag-
(a) they have isotopes. netic moment.
(b) their isotopes have non-integral masses.
59. Which of the following ions has the highest magnetic
(c) their isotopes have different masses.
moment?
(d) the constituents neutrons, protons, and electrons com-
(a) Fe2+ (b) Mn2+ (c) Cr3+ (d) V3+
bine to give fractional masses.
60. Which of the following ions has magnetic moment equal to
52. In which of the following pairs the ions are isoelectronic?
that of Ti3+?
(a) N3−, Cl− (b) Al3+, O2−
+ 2− (a) Cu2+ (b) Ni2+ (c) Co2+ (d) Fe2+
(c) Na , O (d) Na+, Mg2+
53. The angular momentum of electron can have the value(s) 61. In which of the following options do both constituents of the
pair have the same magnetic moment?
h h 2h 5 h
(a) (b) (c) (d) × (a) Zn2+ and Cu2+ (b) Co2+ and Ni2+
2p p p 2 2p 4+
(c) Mn and Co 2+ (d) Mg2+ and Sc+
54. The quantum numbers that are derived from the solution of Paragraph for Questions 62 to 63: For one-electron species, the
Schrodinger’s wave equation are wave number of radiation emitted during the transition of elec-
(a) Principal quantum number tron from a higher energy state (n2) to a lower energy state (n1) is
(b) Azimuthal quantum number given by:
(c) Magnetic quantum number 1 1 1
(d) Spin quantum number n = = RH × Z 2 2 − 2 (1)
l 1
n n2
55. The well-known Schrodinger equation is
2p me k 2e 4
8p 2 m where RH = is Rydberg constant for hydrogen atom.
∇2y + (E − V )y = 0. h3c
h2 Now, considering nuclear motion, the most accurate measure-
The acceptable solutions of this wave equation, which are phys- ment would be obtained by replacing mass of electron (me) by the
ically possible, must have which of the following properties? reduced mass (m ) in the above expression, defined as
(a) y must be continuous. m × me
(b) y must be finite. m= n
mn + me
(c) y must be single valued.
(d) The probability of finding of the electron over the space where mn = mass of nucleus. For Lyman series, n1 = 1 (fixed for all
from +∞ to −∞ must be equal to one. the lines) while n2 = 2, 3, 4…. For Balmer series: n1 = 2 (fixed for all
the lines) while n2 = 3, 4, 5….
Passage Type
62. If proton in hydrogen nucleus is replaced by a positron hav-
Paragraph for Questions 56 to 58: Heisenberg gave the principle ing the same mass as that of an electron but same charge
that there is uncertainty in simultaneous measurement of position as that of proton, then considering the nuclear motion, the
and momentum of small particles. If any one of these two quan- wavenumber of the lowest energy transition of He+ ion in
tities is measured with higher accuracy, the measurement of the Lyman series will be equal to
other becomes less accurate. The product of the uncertainty in (a) 2 RH (b) 3 RH (c) 4 RH (d) RH
position (∆x) and uncertainty in momentum (∆p) is always constant 3 2 5
and is equal to or greater than h/4p, where h is Planck’s constant. 63. The ratio of the wave numbers for the highest energy transi-
tion of electron in Lyman and Balmer series of hydrogen atom
56. The uncertainty in position of an electron (m = 9.1 × 10−28 g) is
moving with a velocity 3 × 104 cm s−1 accurate upto 0.001% (a) 4 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 9 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
will be
(a) 3.84 cm (b) 1.92 cm (c) 7.68 cm (d) 5.76 cm. Matrix-Match Type
57. If uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in momen- 64. Match the orbitals with the number of nodes/quantum num-
tum, then uncertainty in velocity will be bers present in them.
h 1 h Column I Column II
(a) (b) (a) 2p orbital (p) Number of spherical nodes = 0
p 2m p
(b) 3d orbital (q) Number of nodal plane = 0
1 1 h (c) 2s orbital (r) Orbital angular momentum number = 0
(c) h (d)
2m 2 2m p (d) 4f orbital (s) Azimuthal quantum number = 0
58. If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero, the uncer-
65. Match the quantum number with the property it represents.
tainty in its momentum would be
(a) zero. (b) <h/4p (c) >h/4p (d) infinite. Column I Column II
(a) Principal quantum number (p) Orientation of the orbital
Paragraph for Questions 59 to 61: The substances that contain (b) Azimuthal quantum number (q) Energy and size of orbital
species with unpaired electrons in their orbitals behave as par- (c) Magnetic quantum number (r) Spin of electron
amagnetic substances. Such substances are weakly attracted by (d) Spin quantum number (s) Shape of the orbital
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d)
Level II
46. (b), (c) 47. (c), (d) 48. (a), (c), (d) 49. (b), (c), (d) 50. (a), (b) 51. (a), (c)
52. (c), (d) 53. (a), (b), (c) 54. (a), (b), (c) 55. (a), (b), (c), (d) 56. (b) 57. (d)
58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a)
64. (a) → p; (b) → p; (c) → q, r, s; (d) → p 65. (a) → q; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → r
66. (a) → q, r; (b) → q, r, s; (c) → p, q, s; (d) → q, s 67. (a) → r, t; (b) → p; (c) → q, s; (d) → q
68. (2) 69. (5) 70. (4) 71. (6) 72. (6) 73. (0)
74. (3)
1 2E 55. (a), (b), (c), (d) All are acceptable solutions of wave equation
44. (a) E = mv 2 ⇒ v = by postulates of the Schrödinger wave equation.
2 m 1 mol
E = (2080 × 103 J mol−1) 23 Passage Type
6.022 × 10 particles
= 3.454 × 10–18 J/particle h 6.6 × 10 −27
56. (b) ∆v = = = 1.92 cm
4p m∆v 4 × 3.14 × 9.1× 10 −28 × 0.3
2(3.454 × 10 −18 J)
v= = 2.754 × 106 m s−1 h h 1 h
9.109 × 10 −31 kg 57. (d) ∆x × ∆p = ⇒ 2( ∆p )2 = ⇒ ∆p =
4p 4p 2 ×2 p
45. (d) This corresponds to the special case in the Rydberg
1 h
equation for which n1 = 1 and n2 = ∞. For a single atom, Therefore, ∆v =
we have 2 2m p
1 1 1 58. (d) When ∆x = 0, ∆p = ∞
=109,678 cm−1 × 2 − 2 =109,678 cm−1 × (1− 0 )
l 1 ∞ 59. (b) Magnetic moment = n(n + 2) , where n = number of
= 109,678 cm−1 unpaired electrons.
The configuration of Fe2+ is 3d 6 .
l = 9.12 × 10−6 cm = 91.2 nm.
Therefore, n = 4.
Converting to energy, we have
Magnetic moment = 4( 4 + 2) = 4.89 BM
hc
E= Electronic configuration of Mn2+ is 3d 5 .
l
−34 8 −1 Therefore, n = 5.
(6.626 × 10 Js)(3.00 × 10 ms )
= = 2.18 × 10 −18 J Magnetic moment = n(n + 2) = 5(5 + 2) = 5.91 BM
(91.2 × 10 −9 m)
Electronic configuration of Cr3+ is 3d 3 .
Level II Therefore, n = 3.
Magnetic moment = n(n + 2) = 3(3 + 2) = 3.812 BM
Multiple Correct Choice Type
46. (b), (c) Conceptual Electronic configuration of V3+ is d 2 .
Therefore, n = 2.
47. (c), (d) If the electron has n = 2, then the value of l = 0, 1.
Thus, if the electron has n = 2, then the electron may be in a p Magnetic moment = 2(2 + 2) = 8 = 2.82 BM
orbital and it must have the spin quantum number +1/2. Therefore, Mn2+ has the highest magnetic moment.
48. (a), (c), (d) For all these cases, the minimum ratio is 20/27. 60. (a) The electronic configuration of Ti3+ is d1
49. (b), (c), (d) Angular nodes are only associated with direction
orbitals. Therefore, n = 1.
50. (a), (b) Conceptual Magnetic moment = n + (n + 2) = 11
( + 2) = 1.73 BM
51. (a), (c) Conceptual The electronic configuration of Cu2+ is d 9
52. (c), (d) Ions having same number of electrons but different
magnitude of nuclear charge are called isoelectronic ions. Therefore, n = 1.
Na+ and O2− have 10 electrons each. Na+ and Mg2+ have 10 Magnetic moment = 11
( + 2) = 1.73 BM
electrons each.
N3− has 10 electrons and Cl− has 18 electrons, hence not isoe- 61. (c) The electronic configuration of Mn4+ is d 3
lectronic ions.
Al3+ has 10 electrons and O− has 9 electrons, hence not isoe-
lectronic ions. Therefore, n = 3.
The electronic configuration of Co2+ d7
53. (a), (b), (c) Angular momentum of the electron is given as
h
mvr = n , where n = 1, 2, 3, …
2p Therefore, n = 3.
h
If n = 1, then mvr = Magnetic moment = 3(3 + 2) = 3.872 BM
2p
2h h 62. (b) Rydberg’s constant value will change.
If n = 2, then mvr = =
2p p Rnew ( me 2) 1
= =
4 h 2h Rold me 2
If n = 4, then mvr = =
2p p
54. (a), (b), (c) Conceptual 1 R 1 1
= v = H Z2 2 − 2
l 2 n1 n2
3
No. of Questions
2 JEE (Main)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
SUMMARY
1. Periodic table is the arrangement of elements in a tabular form on the basis of their properties that facilitates the systematic study
of properties of elements.
80
Cs
60 Rb
Atomic volume, cm3
40 Ba
Na Ca V I
CI Sr VI
III Sb Te
IV Br
I P S
20 II Zr In Sn La
Mg As Se
Li Si Mo
AI V Fe Nb Cd Nd
Be Zn Ru Rh
C Co Cu
0
10 30 50 70 90 110 130 150
Atomic mass, amu
He proposed that the physical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights and this formed the basis of
Mendeleev’s periodic table, which was also presented around the same time.
(d) Mendeleev’s periodic table: It stated that the physical and chemical properties of elements are the periodic function of their
atomic weights.
(i) Merits
• Study of properties of elements became more systematic and easier.
• Several vacant positions guided the discovery of new elements.
(ii) Demerits
• Some of the elements are wrongly placed though their atomic weights are larger compared to the next one.
• Though the isotopes have different mass yet they don’t have any different (significant) position in the periodic table.
• Placement of sub-group elements in same group inspite of lack of sufficient similarities .
• Position of hydrogen is uncertain (either in Group I A or VII B).
• Placement of all rare earth elements (4f and 5f series) in Group III A.
• The classification of metals and non-metals is not done in this table.
• Placement of three elements in Group VIII.
(e) Characteristics of modern version of Mendeleev’s short periodic table.
(Characteristics of modern version of Mendeleev's short periodic table)
Third period: 8 elements and is Group V B elements are called Coinage metals: Cu, Ag and Au
known as second short period as pnicogens
Fourth period: 18 elements and Group VI B elements are Noble metals (very low reactivity):
is known as first long period called as chalcogens Ag, Au, Pt and Hg
Fifth period: 18 elements and is Group VII B elements are Transuranium metals:
known as second long period called as halogens Elements beyond U (92)
Sixth period: 32 elements and is Group 0 elements are called as Bridging elements: elements of
known as very long period inert gases third period
(f) Moseley’s work: He performed an experiment in which he bombarded high speed electrons on different metal surfaces and
obtained X-rays. He observed that there existed a systematic mathematical relationship between the wavelengths of the X-rays
produced and the atomic numbers of the elements. Mathematically, it is expressed as
v ∝Z
3. Modern periodic law: According to the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic
functions of their atomic number.
The long form of modern periodic table and its segments is shown on the next page.
Chapter-3.indd 66
s-Block (ns) d-Block, (n-1)d p-Block (np), (nonmetals)
Chapter 3
Group 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Peroid IA IIA IIIB IVB VB VIB VIIB VIIIB IB IIB IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA VIIIA
1 H Transition metals H He
(1s) 1 (d-block) 1 2
2 Li Be B C N O F Ne
(2s, 2p) 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 Na Mg AI Si P S Cl Ar
(3s, 3p) 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
4
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
(4s, 3d,
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
4p)
5
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
(5s, 4d,
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
5p)
6
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg TI Pb Bi Po At Rn
(6s, 4f,
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
5d, 6p)
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
*Lanthanide (Lanthanoid) Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
series (4f ) 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Period : 6
**Actinide (Actinoid) Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
f-block
series (5f) 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
Period :7
8/8/2016 2:12:12 PM
Summary 67
dA−A
where, dA−A is the internuclear distance between the two same atoms.
• For a heteronuclear diatomic molecule AB is dA −B = rA + rB − 0.09 ∆c
A B
dA−B
where, dA−B is the internuclear distance between A and B, rA and rB is the covalent radius of A and B expressed in A° and ∆c
is the difference in the electronegativity.
When rA and rB are expressed in picometers, then the equation is given by
dA −B = rA + rB − 9 ∆c
Later stage, the above equation was modified by Pauling and Stevenson as
dA −B = rA + rB − CA c A − CB c B
where, CA and CB are constants for two different atoms.
(ii) Metallic radius: It is defined as half of the internuclear distance separating two adjacent metal atoms in a metallic lattice.
dM−M
dM −M
It is given by rM =
2
where dM−M is the internuclear distance between two metal atoms in their metallic lattice
(iii) van der Waals radius: The sum of the van der Waals radii of two atoms is the shortest distance between two immediately
adjacent atoms (either of same or different elements) in the structure of the solid compound in which they are not bonded
to each other.
dA−A
dA − A
It is given by rV =
2
(iv) Periodic variation of atomic radii
• Variation in a period: There is a general decrease of atomic radius in a period for s-and p-block elements because the
effective nuclear charge (Zeff ) increases across a row.
For van der Waals radii: Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F > Ne
For covalent radii:
Ne > Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F
Third series
Atomic radius
Second series
First series
Atomic number
• Variation in a group: For s- and p-block elements, the atomic radii increases down the group due to successive use of
orbitals with principal quantum number (n) one higher than the last.
For d-block elements, the trend in atomic radii is: r3d series < r4d series ≈ r5d series. It is because the radius increases as the shell
number increases. The radius of elements of 4d- series is about the same as elements of 5d series. This is due to the lanth-
anoid contraction that causes increase in Zeff value due to poor shielding of fourteen f electrons.
Exception: Sc < Y < La as there is no 4f electron in the electronic configuration of La.
(b) Ionic radius: Formation of positive and negative ions from an atom is shown below. The order of radius is: A− > A > A+
(i) Ionic radius depends upon following factors:
• If the charge of cation increases, the ionic radius decreases.
• If the charge of anion increases, the ionic radius increases.
• For isoelectronic species, as the number of protons increases the radius of ion decreases.
−e −e −e −e −e
A IE→ A + IE→ A2 + IE→ A3+ IE→ IE→ A n +
1 2 3 4 n
(d) Electron affinity: It is the energy released when one mole of electron is added to one mole of an element in its isolated gaseous
state (ground state). It is also called electron gain (eg) enthalpy.
+e
A(g) → A − ∆H = − x kJ mol−1
The electron affinity for the first electron is greater than that of the second electron, that is, EA1 > EA2
+e +e
A → A − → A2 −
+e
O → O − ∆Heg 1 = ( − )ve
+e
O − → O2 − ∆Heg 2 = ( + )ve
+2 e
O → O2 − Heg Total = ( + )ve
(ii) Mulliken scale: In this scale, the electronegativity is given by the relation
c A ∼ c B = 0.102 ∆ A −B
where IE and EA are expressed in eV atom−1. The values of electronegativity are about 2.8 times larger than the Pauling
cM
values. The relation is c P = ; more accurately c P = 0.336 c M − 0.2
2.8
(iii) Allred Rochow scale: Allred defined electronegativity as the attractive force between nucleus and an electron at a dis-
tance equal to covalent radius. In this scale, the electronegativity is given by
0.359 Z eff
c AR =
r2
The following equation gives the correlation of c AR with c P
c P = c AR + 0.744
(f) Application of electronegativity
Percentage ionic character in a bond can be calculated using Haney–Smith equation.
(h) Hydration energy (enthalpy): It is the energy released when an isolated gaseous ion gets hydrated and it is measured in terms
of kJ mol−1 or kJ ion−1.
(i) Hydration number: It is the number of water molecules associated to a particular ion when it is hydrated.
(i) Ionic mobility: It is defined as the ability of an ion to move in an aqueous solution.
1
Ionic mobility ∝
Hydrated radius of ion
+e +e
ns1 → ns2 ns2 → ns2np1
• Fully-filled electronic configuration is achieved. • Fully-filled electronic configuration is disturbed.
• ∆Heg is ( − ) ve • ∆Heg is ( + ) ve
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Modern Periodic Table For the group number:
For p-block element:
1. Similarity in chemical properties of the atoms of elements in a Total number of valence shell electron + 10 = 6 + 10 = 16
group of the periodic table is most closely related to
(a) atomic numbers. 3. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in
(b) atomic masses. properties of elements is related to their
(c) number of principal energy levels. (a) atomic masses (b) nuclear masses
(d) number of valence electrons. (c) atomic numbers (d) nuclear neutron−proton
(JEE Main 2014) number ratios
Solution Solution
(d) Chemical properties of elements in group are closely (c) Because modern periodic law states that atoms or ele-
related because they have same number of valence ments are arranged according to their atomic numbers.
electron. 4. Which of the following elements belongs to Group 1 of the
periodic table?
2. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell elec-
(a) Beryllium (b) Aluminium
tronic configuration of 5s2 5p4 corresponds to the element
(c) Gallium (d) Rubidium
present in:
(a) Group 16 and period 6 (b) Group 17 and period 5 Solution
(c) Group 16 and period 5 (d) Group 17 and period 6 (d) Be: Group 2 (s-block); Al: Group 13 (p-Block); Ga: Group 13
(JEE Main 2015) (p-Block); Rb: Group 1 (s-block)
Solution
5. In which of the following sets of atomic numbers, all the ele-
(c) The highest principal quantum number available in the elec-
ments do not belong to the same group?
tronic configuration is the period number of that element,
(a) 3, 11, 37 (b) 12, 38, 56
therefore, the period for given electronic configuration is 5.
(c) 8, 16, 24 (d) 10, 18, 54
As ionization energy (IE) decreases down the group from C to Pb, 15. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the
the metallic character increases. Pb having large size, has low IE, elements B, P, S and F (lowest first) is
(a) F < S < P < B (b) P < S < B < F (c) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (d) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+
(c) B < P < S < F (d) B < S < P < F (AIEEE 2009)
(AIEEE 2006) Solution
Solution
(b) This is because in a period, the ionic radius decreases as
(d) The Zeff increases in a period, hence IE increases. But in case we move from left to right because of increase in nuclear
of P and S, P has higher ionization enthalpy as it contains charge and also the value of principal quantum number
half-filled electronic configuration while S achieves half- remains the same. Whereas, in a group, the size increases
filled electronic configuration on the loss of one electron. as we move from top to bottom with increase in atomic
16. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chem- number, as the atom gets larger due to increase in the
ical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are given. number of shells.
Which of these statements gives the correct picture? 20. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not
(a) The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases strictly according to the property written against it?
in the halogens with increase in atomic number down (a) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2: increasing oxidizing power.
the group. (b) HF < HCl < HBr < HI: increasing acid strength.
(b) In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemi- (c) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3: increasing basic strength.
cal reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number (d) B < C < O < N: increasing first ionization enthalpy.
down the group. (AIEEE 2009)
(c) Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic num- Solution
ber down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens.
(c)
(d) In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halo-
For option (a): Increasing oxidizing power: CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2
gens it decreases with increase in atomic number down
< PbO2. This is because Pb in (+ 4) oxidation
the group.
state is the strongest oxidizing agent.
(AIEEE 2006)
Solution PbO + 4HCl → PbCl + Cl2 + H2O
(d) The alkali metals are highly reactive because their first For option (b): Increasing acid strength: HF < HCl < HBr < HI.
ionization potential is very low and hence they have Higher bond dissociation energy, lower is the
great tendency to lose electron to form unipositive ion. degree of ionization and hence weaker is the acid
While the reactivity of halogen decreases on moving and the bond dissociation energy is highest for HF.
down the group due to their increase in effective nuclear For option (c): Increasing order of basic strength: SbH3 < AsH3 <
charge. PH3 < NH3. As the size of central atom increases,
the electron density on the central metal atom
17. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is decreases and consequently its tendency to donate
maximum for a pair of electrons decreases. Hence, the basic
(a) K+ (b) Rb+ strength decreases as we move from NH3 to BiH3.
(c) Li + (d) Na+ For option (d): Increasing ionization enthalpy: B < C < O < N.
(AIEEE 2006) Nitrogen has half-filled orbitals which have
Solution extra stability so removal of electron is difficult
(b) On going down the group the ionic radii of metal ions as compared to B, C, O.
goes on increasing but the size of hydrated ion goes 21. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the
on decreasing. Therefore the movement of larger ion in ionic radii of the elements is
aqueous solution is easier than the movement of smaller (a) O2− > F− > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
ion in aqueous solution. Thus, ionic mobility increases on (b) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F− > O2−
going down the group. (c) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2− > F−
(d) Na+ > F− > Mg2+ > O2− > Al3+
18. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelec-
(AIEEE 2010)
tronic species?
Solution
(a) C22 − , O2− , CO, NO (b) NO + , C22 − , CN− , N2
(a) For isoelectronic species, radii would be different because
(c) CN− , N2 , O 22 − , CO22 − (d) N2 , O2− , NO + , CO of different nuclear charges. The cation with the greater
(AIEEE 2008) positive charge will have smaller radius because of the
greater attraction of electron to the nucleus. Anions with
Solution greater negative charge will have larger radius because
−
(b) NO+, C2−
2 , CN and N2. here the net repulsion of electrons will outweigh the
The number of electrons is nuclear charge and ion will expand in size.
NO + = 7 + 8 − 1 = 14; C2− = 6 + 6 + 2 = 14 ; CN− = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14;
22. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelec-
N2 = 7 × 2 = 14 tronic species is:
(a) Cl−, Ca2+, K+, S2− (b) S2−, Cl−, Ca2+, K+
19. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is: + −
2+
(c) Ca , K , Cl , S 2− (d) K+, S2−, Ca2+, Cl−
(a) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+ (b) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(AIEEE 2012)
Solution 26. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3−, O2− and F− are, respectively,
1 (a) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40 (b) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
(c) Size ∝
( Z /e ) (c) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 (d) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
Ca2+ K+ Cl− S2 − (JEE Main 2015)
Z 20 19 17 16 Solution
e 18 18 18 18 (b) All of these are isoelectronic species, that is, they contain
Size is increasing
→ the same number of electrons.
←
(
Z/e ncreasing
) is i As the negative charge increases, ionic radius increases
Also, the size of anion is greater than the parent atom and in the order N3− > O2− > F−.
the size of the cation is smaller than the parent atom. 27. In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT
23. Which of the following represents the correct order of according to the property indicated against it?
increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar? (a) Al3+ < Mg2 + < Na+ < F − Increasing ionic size
(a) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(b) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (b) B < C < N < O Increasing first ionization
(c) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar enthalpy
(d) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (c) I < Br < F < Cl Increasing electron gain
(AIEEE 2013) enthalpy
Solution (d) Li < Na < K < Rb Increasing metallic radius
1 (with negative sign)
(b) IE ∝
size Solution
Ionization enthalpy increases moving from left to right and (b) The Zeff increases in a period, hence IE increases. Thus,
decreases moving from top to bottom in a periodic table. the correct order is B < C < O < N.
Thus the correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy N has half-filled electronic configuration and hence
is Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar. higher IE values, while O achieve half-filled configuration
24. Which of the following series correctly represents relations on loss of one electron.
between the elements from X to Y? 28. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection
X→Y of isoelectronic species?
(a) 3Li → 19K: Ionization enthalpy increases. (a) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+ (b) N3−, F−, Na+
(b) 9F → 35Br: Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign (c) Be, AI , CI
3+ − (d) Ca2+, Cs+, Br
increases.
(c) 6C → 32Ge: Atomic radii increases. Solution
(d) 18Ar → 54Xe: Noble character increases. (b) Isoelectronic species contain same number of electrons.
(JEE Main 2014) For N3− number of electrons = 7 + 3 = 10
Solution For F− number of electrons = 9 + 1 = 10
For Na+ number of electrons = 11−1 = 10
(c) 3 Li → 19K: Ionization enthalpy decreases.
9 → 35Br: Electron gain enthalpy with negative sign
F 29. Which one of the following ions has the highest value of
decreases. ionic radius?
6 C → 32Ge: Moving top to bottom atomic radii increases. (a) Li+ (b) F– (c) O2– (d) B3+
18 Ar → 54Xe: Noble character decreases not increases.
Solution
25. Which of the following arrangements represents the increas-
(c) The value of ionic radius depends upon electron/proton
ing order (smallest to largest) of ionic radii of the given spe-
ratio (e/p) ratio.
cies O2−, S2−, N3−, P3−?
For O2–, the ratio is 10/8 = 1.25 which is highest among
(a) O2− < N3− < S2− < P3−
others.
(b) O2− < P3− < N3− < S2−
(c) N3−< O2− < P3− < S2− 30. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collec-
(d) N3− < S2− < O2− < P3− tion of isoelectronic species?
(JEE Main 2014) (a) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl– (b) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
Solution (c) K+, Cl−, Mg2+, Sc3+ (d) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
(a) With increase in charge, size increases. For an isoelec- Solution
tronic species, species with higher Z/e ratio has smaller
(a) Isoelectronic species contains same number of electrons.
size.
2− 3− 2− 3−
For K+ number of electrons are 18 (19 − 1)
O N S P For Ca2+ number of electrons are 18 (20 − 2)
Z 8 7 16 15 For Sc3+ number of electrons are 18 (21 − 3)
e 10 10 18 18 For Cl− number of electrons are 18 (17 + 1)
31. Of the following sets which one does NOT contain isoelec- Solution
tronic species? (d)
(a) PO34− , SO24− , CI4− (b) CN , N2 , C22 −
−
Element Atomic Number Number of Electrons
(c) PO24− , CO23 − , NO3− (d) BO33 − , CO23 − , NO3− Cl 17 17
Solution P 15 15
Solution F− 9 10
(d) Calcium has electronic configuration of [Ar]4s2 and The order of ionic sizes is C4− > N3− > O2− > F−. For the isoe-
since it has filled s-orbital, it does not show a tendency lectronic species, greater the nuclear charge (number of
to attract electrons and has the least negative electron protons), lesser is the ionic or atomic size.
gain enthalpy. In a period, the electron gain enthalpy
with negative sign increases from left to right, and thus 38. The electronegativity of H, O and X are 2.1, 3.5 and 0.7, respec-
increases from carbon through oxygen to fluorine. tively. The correct nature of compound X−O−H is
(a) acidic. (b) basic.
34. If electronegativity of A is 2.0 and that of B is 3.0, what is the
(c) amphoteric. (d) cannot be predicted.
covalent character percentage of the bond A−B?
(a) 19.5% (b) 80.5% (c) 46% (d) 54% Solution
Solution (b) The polarity of X−O bond greater than O−H bond
(b) Percentage of ionic character = 16( cA − cB) + 3.5(cA − cB)2 because the electronegativity difference of X−O bond
= 16(1) + 3.5(1)2 = 19.5% (3.5 − 0.7 = 2.8) is greater than that of O−H bond (3.5
% covalent character = 100 − 19.5 = 80.5% − 2.1 = 0.4). Hence, X−O bond will be broken first, thus
X−O−H is basic in nature.
35. The four elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl are to be arranged in the
order of their increasing atomic sizes. Which of the following 39. Which of the following set of species are isoelectronic in
orders is correct? nature (i.e. having same number electrons)?
− −
(a) Cl < P < Mg < Ca (b) P < Cl < Ca < Mg (a) NO3 , BO3 (b) NO2− , BO3−
2− 2−
(c) Ca < Mg < Cl < P (d) Mg < Ca < P < Cl (c) SO 4 , SO3 (d) H2S, HCl
47. The electronegativities of two elements A and B are cA and cB 50%. Thus, H−X bond is 50% ionic and 50% covalent
respectively and the relationship between them is given by and hence is represented as H−X.
cA ∼ cB = 0.102 ∆ (ii) When (cH − cX) < 1.7, the amount of ionic character in
A −B
where ∆A–B is the resonance energy expressed in kJ mol–1. H−X bond is less than 50% and that of covalent char-
If ∆A–B is zero, then which of the following statements is acter is more than 50%. Thus, H−X bond is predomi-
true? nantly covalent.
(a) cA > cB (b) cA < cB (iii) When (cH − cX) > 1.7, the amount of ionic character
(c) cA = cB (d) Cannot be predicted in H−X bond is more than 50% and that of covalent
character is less than 50%. Hence, H−X bond is pre-
Solution dominantly ionic and is represented as H+X−.
(c) It is mathematically correct to predict that cA = cB when
∆A–B is zero. Chemical Reactivity
48. Ease of formation of the anion is favoured by 52. Which one of the following order represents the correct
(a) lower value of ionization potential. sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given oxides?
(b) lower value of electron gain enthalpy. (a) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O
(c) higher value of electron gain enthalpy. (b) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(d) lower value of electronegativity. (c) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(d) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
Solution (AIEEE 2011)
(c) Ease of formation of the anion is favoured by higher value
Solution
of electron gain enthalpy. Halogens have the maximum
negative electron gain enthalpies in their respective peri- (d) Across a period, metallic strength decreases, and hence
ods. So, they easily form anions. the basic character also decreases.
49. On moving from left to right in a period in transition metals, 53. Which of following set of oxides are amphoteric in nature?
their atomic size (a) N2O5, B2O (b) BeO, Al2O3
(a) decreases. (c) K2O, Al2O3 (d) B2O3, SiO2
(b) increases. Solution
(c) remains the same.
(b) Be and Al shows diagonal relationship and both oxides
(d) none of these.
BeO and Al2O3 are amphoteric in nature
Solution Similarly K2O : basic = oxides of metals are in general basic.
(a) Generally, the atomic size of transition elements in a N2O5 : Acidic = Oxides of non-metals are in general acidic.
series decrease on moving from left to right in a period, B2O3 : Acidic = Oxides of non-metals are in general acidic.
but the decrease in atomic size is small after midway. SiO2 : Acidic = Oxides of non-metals are in general acidic.
50. Increasing order of atomic radii is 54. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct order of acid
(a) Mg2+ < Na+ < F− < O2− strength is
(b) Na+ < F− < Mg2+ < O2− (a) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(c) Mg2+ < F− < Na+ < O2− (b) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2
(d) Na+ < Mg2+ < O2− < F− (c) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3
(d) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
Solution
(a) Ionic radii ∝ 1/(Z/e), where Z is nuclear charge and e is Solution
number of electrons. (b) In a periodic table, on moving from left to right the acidic
2+ + − 2− strength of oxides increases.
Mg Na F O
Z 12 11 9 8 55. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?
(a) CaO (b) CO2 (c) SiO2 (d) SnO2
e 10 10 10 10
Zle 12/10 1110
/ 9/10 8/10 Solution
(d) CaO is basic and CO2 and SiO2 are acidic in nature while
All the given ions are isoelectronic in nature. Mg2+ having
SnO2 is amphoteric in nature.
the highest nuclear charge (12 units) has the smallest size
whereas O2− ion having the smallest nuclear charge (8 56. The acidic character of the following oxides of non-metals
units) has the largest size. (S, Cl and Si) follows the order:
51. A molecule H−X will be 50% ionic if electronegativity differ- (a) SO2 < ClO2 < SiO2 (b) SiO2 < SO2 < ClO2
ence of H and X is (c) ClO2 < SiO2 < SO2 (d) SO2 < SiO2 < ClO2
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.4 (c) l.5 (d) 1.7 Solution
Solution (b) Since the oxidation state of all central atoms is the same,
(d) (i) When (cH − cX) = 1.7, the amount of ionic character in hence as the electronegativity difference between two
H−X bond is 50% and that of covalent character is also elements decreases (for oxides), acidic character increases.
57. Which of the oxides given below in the most basic? (b) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
(a) Li2O (b) Na2O (c) K2O (d) MgO (c) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2
(d) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
Solution
(c) Li, Na and K belong to the same group. The basic char- Solution
acter in the group increases from top to bottom in a (c) In a period of the representative elements, the basic
group. So, K2O is the most basic. As far as MgO is con- character of the oxides decreases while acidic character
cerned, it is less basic than Na2O as Mg comes after Na increases. However, the oxides of the elements midway in
in a period. On moving from left to right across a period, a period are amphoteric in nature. The trend in the oxides
the metallic character of the element decreases and the of the elements of the third period is shown as:
oxides of elements become less basic.
Na2O, MgO Al2O3 , SiO2 P2O5 , SO2 , Cl2O7
58. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2, the correct order of acid Basic Amphoteric Acidic
strength is
(a) P2O3 < Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 Hence, the correct order of acid strength is Al2O3 < SiO2
< P2O5 < SO2.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I (a) Dobereiner. (b) Newland.
(c) Lothar Meyer. (d) Mendeleev.
Single Correct Choice Type
10. Who presented the law of octave?
1. The modern Mendeleev’s periodic table consists of _____
(a) Dobereiner (b) Newland
groups.
(c) Lothar Meyer (d) Mendeleev
(a) seven (b) eight (c) nine (d) ten
11. The number of elements in fifth period of periodic table is
2. How many elements were known when Mendeleev presented (a) 8. (b) 32. (c) 18. (d) 19.
the periodic table?
(a) 63 (b) 80 (c) 92 (d) 102 12. Variable valency is a general feature of
(a) s-block elements. (b) p-block elements.
3. The basis of periodic law presented by Mendeleev was (c) d-block elements. (d) f-block elements.
(a) valency. (b) atomic mass.
(c) atomic number. (d) atomic volume. 13. The radii F, F−, O and O2− are in the order of
(a) F− > O2− > F > O. (b) F > F− > O > O2−.
4. Diagonal relationship is not shown by (c) O2− > F− > O > F. (d) F > O > F− > O2−.
(a) Li and Mg. (b) C and P.
(c) B and Si. (d) Be and Al. 14. Which of the following ion has the highest value of ionic
radius?
5. The group number of element in periodic table indicates (a) Li+ (b) F− (c) O2− (d) B3+
(a) valency with respect to hydrogen.
(b) the atomicity. 15. The diagonal relationship between Li and Mg is due to
(c) the number of electrons in the outermost shell. (a) similarity of ionization potential.
(d) the atomic radii. (b) similarity of electronegativity.
(c) similarlity of ionic radii.
6. Which of the following is correct? (d) dissimilar atomic radii.
(a) rionic ∝ Z (b) rionic ∝ Zeffective
(c) rionic ∝ 1/Zeffective (d) None of these 16. The elements with atomic numbers 58 to 71 are called
(a) normal elements. (b) transition elements.
7. Which of the following relation is correct? (IP: Ionization poten- (c) lanthanides. (d) actinides.
tial; EA: Electron affinity: EN: Electronegativity)
(a) 2 IP − EA − EN = 0 (b) 2 IP − EN + EA = 0 17. Correct electronic configuration of Cr is
(c) 2 EN − IP − EA = 0 (d) EN − IP − EA = 0 (a) 1s22s22p63s23p23d44s1.
(b) 1s22s22p63s23d64s0.
8. Which of the following pairs has both members from the same (c) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1.
group of periodic table? (d) 1s22p22p63p03d5.
(a) Mg, Ba (b) Mg, Na (c) Mg, Cu (d) Mg, Cl
18. The elements on the right side of the periodic table are
9. The attempt for classifying elements by plotting the atomic (a) metals. (b) metalloids.
masses of elements against the volumes was made by (c) non-metals. (d) transition elements.
19. ns2np4 (n-outermost orbit) represents the valence electrons. List-I List-II
The corresponding group elements would be i. 19 p. p-block
(a) F, Cl, Br (b) N, P, As ii. 22 q. f-block
(c) O, S, Se (d) C, Si, Ge iii. 32 r. d-block
iv. 64 s. s-block
20. The electronic configuration of an element C is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6.
The formula of substance containing only C will be i ii iii iv
(a) C8. (b) C4. (c) C2. (d) C. (a) p q r s
21. The electronic configuration of an element A is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, (b) s r p q
3s2 while of the element B is 1s2, 2s2, 2p5. The formula of sub- (c) s p r q
stance containing A and B will be (d) q p r s
(a) AB. (b) A2B. (c) AB2. (d) A2B6. 33. Ionization potential does not depend upon
22. The halogen that is most easily reduced is (a) atomic size.
(a) F2. (b) Cl2. (c) Br2. (d) I2. (b) type of electron .
(c) nuclear charge.
23. Which pair is different from the others?
(d) type of bonding in crystal lattice.
(a) Li−Mg (b) Na−K (c) Ca−Mg (d) B−Al
34. The correct order of increasing order of oxidizing power is
24. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classifica-
(a) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2. (b) I2 < F2 < Cl2 < Br2.
tion of element is
(c) Br2 < I2 < F2 < Cl2. (d) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2.
(a) The properties of elements are periodic functions of
their atomic numbers. 35. Ionization potential of phosphorus is greater than that of sul-
(b) Non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metal- phur because
lic elements. (a) of its smaller size.
(c) Electronegativity of the elements along the period from (b) of more penetrating power of p-orbitals.
left to right increases in a regular manner. (c) its nuclear force of attraction on electrons.
(d) For transition elements the d-subshells are filled with (d) half-filled orbitals are more stable.
the electrons monotonically with increase in atomic
36. The correct order of ionization enthalpy for comparing car-
number.
bon, nitrogen and oxygen is
25. The electronic configuration (a) C < N > O. (b) C > N < O.
1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p6, 4d10, 5s2 is for (c) C > N > O. (d) C < N < O.
(a) f-block element. (b) d-block element.
(c) p-block element. (d) s-block element. 37. Electropositive or metallic character
(a) increases in a period.
26. Which of the following oxides is neutral? (b) decreases in a group.
(a) SnO2 (b) CO (c) Al2O3 (d) Na2O (c) decreases in a period and increases in a group.
27. Which of the following element has the maximum first ioni- (d) of an element is reflected in its tendency to form cova-
zation potential? lent compounds.
(a) V (b) Ti (c) Cr (d) Mn 38. The electronic configuration of the element which is just
above the element with atomic number 43 in the same peri-
28. Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number of the odic group is
elements. The experiment which proved the significance of (a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s2.
the atomic number was (b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p5.
(a) Mulliken’s oil drop experiment. (c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6, 4s1.
(b) Moseley’s work on X-ray spectra. (d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1, 4p6.
(c) Bragg’s work on X-ray diffraction.
(d) discovery of X-rays by Rontgen. 39. The heaviest atom is
(a) Ra. (b) U. (c) Pb. (d) Hg.
29. An element having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d2, 4s2
belongs to 40. The electron gain enthalpy values for the halogens show the
(a) d-block. (b) f-block. (c) s-block. (d) p-block. following trend
(a) F < Cl > Br > I. (b) F < Cl < Br < I.
30. Ce (58) is a member of (c) F > Cl > Br > I. (d) F < Cl > Br < I.
(a) s-block. (b) p-block. (c) d-block. (d) f-block.
41. The configuration 1s22s22p53s1 is valid for
31. Elements of which family form anions most readily? (a) ground state of fluorine. (b) excited state of fluorine.
(a) Halogens (b) Alkali metals (c) excited state of neon. (d) excited state of O2– ion.
(c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen
42. In a given energy level, the order of penetration effect of dif-
32. Match List-I (atomic number of elements) with List-II (posi- ferent orbitals is
tion of element in periodic table) and select the correct (a) f > d < p < s. (b) s = p = d = f.
answer using the codes given below the list (c) s > p > d > f. (d) p > s > d > f.
43. Exothermic process is (a) Se2+ (b) Na+ (c) O2− (d) Ga3+
(a) Na + e−→ Na− (b) O + e− → O−
56. In which of the following set of atomic numbers, all elements
(c) O− + e− → O2− (d) Cl− → Cl + e−
are in the same group?
44. Which of the following groups of elements is assigned zero (a) 8, 16, 24 (b) 3, 11, 37
electronegativity? (c) 12, 38, 56 (d) 10, 18, 54
(a) Noble gases (b) Alkali metals 57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(c) Alkaline earth metals (d) Rare earth elements (a) Ionization enthalpy ∝ 1/(Shielding effect)
45. The electron affinity of nitrogen is lower than that of carbon (b) The first ionization enthalpies of Be and Mg are more
because than ionization enthalpies of B and Al, respectively.
(a) atomic radius of nitrogen is lower than that of carbon. (c) Atomic and ionic radii of niobium and tantalum are
(b) effective nuclear charge in carbon in greater. almost the same.
(c) addition of an electron in N gives 2p4 configuration. (d) Metallic and covalent radii of potassium are 2.3 Å and
(d) nitrogen is gaseous element. 2.03 Å, respectively.
58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Group 1
46. The electronic structure (n − 1)d1−10 ns0−2 is characteristic of
elements?
(a) lanthanoids. (b) actinoids.
(a) Na is regarded as a typical/representative element.
(c) rare-earth elements. (d) transition elements.
(b) Basic character of their oxides increases down the group.
47. The electronic configurations of four elements are given (c) Among alkali metal ions, the degree of hydration is high-
below. Which element does not belong to the same family? est in Li.
(a) [Xe]4f145d106s2 (b) [Kr]4d105s2 (d) In general, electron gain enthalpy values decrease from
(c) [Ne]3s23p5 (d) [Ar]3d104s2 top to bottom in the group.
59. Mark out the correct statement(s).
48. Which of the following is true about the element with atomic (a) Atomic size is a periodic property.
number 18? (b) On moving down the group, effective nuclear charge
(a) It has a very low ionization potential. decreases and thus ionization enthalpy decreases.
(b) It has a very high electron gain enthalpy. (c) On moving across the period, effective nuclear charge
(c) Its molecules are monoatomic. increases and thus ionization enthalpy increases.
(d) Its electronegativity is very high. (d) Atomic size of alkali metals is the highest in the respec-
49. Consider three hypothetical ionic compounds AB, A2B and tive periods.
A2B3 where in all the compounds B is in (−2) oxidation state 60. IE1 of an element is lower than that of IE2 because
and A has a variable oxidation state. What is the correct order (a) it is difficult to remove an electron from cation compared
of lattice energy of these compounds? to from the same element.
(a) A2B > AB > A2B3 (b) A2B3 >AB > A2B (b) the ionization process is endothermic.
(c) AB > A2B > A2B3 (d) A2B3 > A2B > AB (c) the size of cation is smaller than its atom.
50. Choose the incorrect order for acidic strength. (d) all of the above.
(a) CO2 > CO (b) SO2 < SO3
(c) HClO2 > HOCl (d) SiO2 > CO2 Passage Type
Passage for Questions 61 to 63: Isoelectronic species have the
Level II
same number of electrons.
Multiple Correct Choice Type This property is not only restricted to atoms but also observed in
molecules and ions.
51. Which of the following species is isoelectronic with Ne?
(a) H2O (b) C4− (c) Na− (d) NH2− 61. Choose the correct order of radius.
52. Among the elements with the following atomic numbers, (a) O2− > F− (b) Al3+ < Na+
which are d-block elements? (c) Na+ < N3− (d) All of these
(a) 29 (b) 81 (c) 46 (d) 58 62. Which of the following statements is correct for the following
53. Which of the following is (are) the correct order of mobility? isoelectronic series?
(a) Li+ > Na+ > K+ (b) Li+ < Na+ < K+ S2−, Cl−, K+, Ca2+
(c) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ (d) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ (a) The size of the ions initially increases then decreases.
(b) The first ionization energy decreases from left to right.
54. The shielding effect of inner electrons of an atom causes
(c) The first ionization energy increases from left to right.
(a) decrease in ionization enthalpy.
(d) The size of the ions decreases.
(b) increase in atomic size.
(c) increase in ionization enthalpy. 63. Which of the following sets of isoelectronic species does not
(d) decrease in atomic size. have the same shape?
55. Which of the following atoms and ions is (are) isoelectronic (a) H2S and HCl (b) NO3− and CO32 −
with F−? (c) CIO 4− and SO24− (d) NO2+ and CO2
Passage for Questions 64 and 65: Ionization potential is the (c) Electronegativity (r) Half-filled or fully filled
minimum amount of energy needed to remove the outermost configuration
electron from the gaseous isolated atom. Its unit is eV atom−1 or (s) Screening constant
kJ mol−1. Successive ionization energy is the amount of energy
needed to remove electron successively from a gaseous ion, it 67. Match the elements with their properties
may be termed as IE2, IE3,…. The difference in the values of IE1, Column I Column II
IE2… helps to determine electronic configuration of the elements. (a) K (p) One electron in the s orbital of valence
shell
Element IE1 IE2 IE3 (kcal mol-1) (b) Cu (q) Transition element
(c) La (r) One unpaired electron
P 497 947 1500 (d) Au (s) Member of the 4th period
Q 98 735 1100
68. Match the element with its electronegativity on Pauling’s
R 176 347 1850 scale.
S 296 530 2050 Column I Column II
(a) Carbon (p) 0.8
64. Which of the element (X) can make MX type compound (b) Nitrogen (q) 1.6
(where X is the halogen and M is alkali metal)? (c) Aluminium (r) 2.5
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S (d) Caesium (s) 3.0
65. The order of ionic mobility in aqueous solution of the follow- 69. Match the oxide with its significant property.
ing ions will be
+ 2+ + 2+ Column I Column II
(a) R(2aq ) > S( aq ) (b) S(2aq ) > R( aq )
(a) P4O10 (p) Ionic
+ 2+ (b) SiO2 (q) Covalent
(c) S(2aq ) = R( aq ) (d) cannot be correlated.
(c) Al2O3 (r) Basic
(d) MgO (s) Amphoteric
Matrix-Match Type
Integer Type
66. Match the properties with the parameters that they are
dependent on 70. The effective nuclear charge on the last electron in Sc is ___.
Column I Column II 71. The element with atomic number 82 belongs to Group ___.
(a) Electron affinity (p) Radius
(b) Ionization potential (q) Zeff
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (d)
Level II
51. (a), (b), (d) 52. (a), (c) 53. (b), (c) 54. (a), (b) 55. (b), (c) 56. (b), (c), (d)
57. (a), (b), (c), (d) 58. (a), (b), (c), (d) 59. (a), (c), (d) 60. (a), (c) 61. (d) 62. (c)
63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (a)→ p, q, r, s ; (b)→ p, q, r, s; (c)→ p, q, r, s
67. (a)→ p, r, s; (b)→ p, q, r, s; (c)→ q, r; d→ p, q, r 68. (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → q; (d)→ p
69. (a) → q; (b) → q; (c) → s; (d) → (p), (r) 70. (3) 71. (14)
28. (b) Moseley measured the frequencies of X-rays emitted by of an atom with higher nuclear charge. This means that
a metal when bombarded with high speed electrons and greater the magnitude of nuclear charge, higher or the
concluded that atomic number was a better fundamen- value of ionization potential.
tal property of an element than its atomic weight. He, The abnormal value of I.E. shown by N can be explained as
therefore, suggested that atomic number (Z) instead of follows: According to Hund’s rule, half-filled (ns1np3nd5) or
atomic weight should be the basis of classification of the completely filled (ns2np6nd10) orbitals are compara-
elements. This forms the basis of modern periodic law. tively more stable and, hence, more energy is needed
29. (a) The given electronic configuration is of titanium. Since, to remove an electron from such orbitals. Thus, nitrogen
the last electron enters into d-orbital, thus, it belongs to (Z = 7; 1s22s22p3) has higher value of ionization potential
d-block. than oxygen (Z = 8; 1s22s22p4).
30. (d) The electronic configuration of Ce is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 37. (c) Electropositive or metallic character decreases in a
4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p6 6s2 5d1 4f1 period and increases in a group.
Since, the last electron goes into the f-orbit, thus, it 38. (a) The element which is just above the element with atomic
belongs to the f-block of the periodic table. number 43 in the same periodic group is manganese. Its
31. (a) X + e− → X− electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s2.
(Halogens) (Anion)
ns2 , np 5 ns2 , np 6 39. (b) Uranium has the highest atomic mass among the given
elements, hence, it is the heaviest element.
The valence-shell configuration of halogen atoms (ns2,
np5) has an appetite for one electron to stabilize its con- 40. (a) Halogens have very high values of negative electron
figuration by attaining the stable noble gas configuration gain enthalpies. These are the maximum in their respec-
(ns2, np6). Thus, halogen atoms have a strong tendency tive periods and decrease down the group.
to accept an extra electron and hence very high values Element F Cl Br I At
of electron affinity. So, elements of halogen family form
anions most readily. Electron gain
−332.6 −348.5 −324.7 −295.5 −270
enthalpy
32. (b)
The negative electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is more
Electronic Configura-
Atomic Number Block than that of fluorine while it is expected to be less.
tion
This is because the atomic size of fluorine atom (atomic
19 3s2 3p6 4s1 s radius = 72 pm) is smaller than that of chlorine atom
22 3p6 4s2 3d2 d (atomic radius = 99 pm). As a result, there is large elec-
32 3d10 4s2 4p2 p tron crowding in the small space of the fluorine atom
and electronic repulsions are also large. The incoming
64 6s2 5d1 4f7 f
electron experiences less attraction towards the nucleus
33. (d) Ionization potential depends upon the following factors: of the fluorine compared to that of chlorine atom which
Atomic size: Ionization potential decreases as the atomic is bigger with less electron crowding.
size increases.
Penetration effect of the electrons: Ionization poten- 41. (c) Electronic configuration of Ne is 1s2 2s2 2p6. In excited
tial increases as the penetration effect of the electrons state, one electron gets transferred to the 3s orbital.
increases. In the same shell, the penetration effect Therefore, excited state electronic configuration of Ne is
decreases in the order : s > p > d > f. 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1.
Nuclear charge: The ionization potential increases with 42. (c) s-electrons of any shell are more penetrating towards the
increase in nuclear charge. nucleus than p-electrons of the same shell followed by
34. (d) Halogens have strong electron accepting tendencies, so d and f.
they are powerful oxidizing agents. Electron gain enthal-
43. (b) When an electron is added to an oxygen atom, O− ion
pies decrease down the group, so the oxidizing power
is formed with the release of energy due to attraction
also decreases.
towards the incoming electron.
35. (d) Phosphorus contains exactly half-filled orbitals, and we
know that exactly half-filled or completely filled orbitals 44. (a) Every atom strives to gain 8 electrons in its outermost
have extra stability. So, the removal of an electron from shell. Since electronegativity measures the amount of
phosphorus atom requires more energy than sulphur. attraction between an atom and an electron, noble
gases do not have electronegativity.
36. (a) Greater is the magnitude nuclear charge (i.e., number of
protons or atomic number), greater is the electrostatic 45. (c) In nitrogen, the 2p sublevel is exactly half-filled which
force of attraction exerted by the nucleus on the outer- imparts stability, one more or less electron makes the
most electrons. Thus, it would be more and more diffi- electron distribution unsymmetrical, and destabilizes
cult to remove the electrons from the outermost shell the electron distribution.
46. (d) Elements in which the last electron enters any one of 54. (a), (b) A valence-shell electron in a multi electron atom exp-
the five d-orbitals of their respective penultimate shells eriences an attractive force from the nucleus and a repulsive
are called d-block or transition elements. The atoms of force from their inner-shell electrons. The combined effect of
the elements belonging to these groups usually have 1 these two forces is that the attractive force (also called pull or
or 2 electrons in the s-orbital of the ns orbital while the hold) exerted by the nucleus on the valence-shell electron is
remaining electrons are progressively filled in the d-orbit- partially decreased or weakened by the presence of repulsive
als of their respective penultimate shells, that is, (n−1)d
force exerted by the inner-shell electrons. Thus, the electron
orbitals. General outer shell electronic configuration of
in the valence-shell experience less attraction or pull towards
d-block elements is (n−1)d1–10ns0–2, where n = 4−7.
the nucleus and hence ionization potential decreases as well
47. (c) as atomic size increases.
}
[Xe]4f145d106s2: Hg
belong to the same group and 55. (b), (c) Conceptual
[Kr]4d105s2 : Cd
10 2 same family of inert gases.
[Ar]3d 4s : Zn 56. (b), (c), (d) For atomic numbers 8, 16 and 24, the electronic
[Ne]3s23p5: Cl belongs to halogen family. configuration is
48. (c) The atomic number 18 belongs to noble gas family. 1s2 2s2 2p4; 1s2 2s2 2p63s2 3p4; 1s2 2s2 2p63s2 3p64s2 3d6
Electronic configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p6.
The noble gases are monoatomic because they have com- 57. (a), (b), (c), (d)
pletely filled shells and cannot even combine amongst In option (a): Ionization enthalpy ∝ 1/(shielding effect)
themselves. Apart from this, they have exceptionally high In option (b): Because Be and Mg has valence shell electron
ionization enthalpies, very low electron gain enthalpy completely filled (ns2). So IE requires more when
and very low electronegativity. compare to B and Al (ns2np1).
In option (c): Due to lanthanide contraction the atomic and ionic
49. (b) Lattice energy ∝ q1q2
radii of niobium and tantalum are almost the same.
∝ 1/r
Hence, it is maximum for A2B3 and minimum for A2B. In option (d): Because there are weak bonding forces between
the atoms, the metallic radii of K is higher (10−
50. (d) The difference in electronegativity of C and O atom is less 15%) than single covalent radii of potassium.
than that of Si and O atom. Hence, the acidity order is CO2
> SiO2. 58. (a), (b), (c), (d)
In option (b): Basic character of representative element oxides
Level II increases down the group because the ioniza-
Multiple Correct Choice Type tion enthalpies of these metals tend to decrease
and the tendency to from positive ion increases.
51. (a), (b), (d) Isoelectronic species are the atoms or ions that In option (c): because it has the smallest size among alkali
have the same number of electrons and electronic configura- metals.
tions but different magnitude of nuclear charge. In option (d): The electron gain enthalpies of the elements
C4− = 10 electrons H2O = 10 electrons become more negative from top to bottom in a
NH2− = 10 electrons Na− = 12 electrons group.
52. (a), (c) 59. (a), (c), (d) Conceptual
For Z = 29, the electronic configuration is 1s22s22p63s23p6 60. (a), (c) Reasons are in the statement and in option (b), ioniza-
3d104s1 tion of the same anion may be exothermic.
For Z = 81, the electronic configuration is [Xe]6s24f145d106p1
For Z = 46, the electronic configuration is [Kr]5s03d10 Passage Type
For Z = 58, the electronic configuration is [Xe]6s24f2
61. (d) The atomic radius order for O and F is O > F. Apart from that,
The elements with atomic numbers 29 and 46 are d-block ele-
ments because valence shell electron enters into d-orbital. two electrons enter into O atom while only one electron
enters into F atom, and as we know that radius increases
53. (b), (c) The correct order of ionic mobility is Li < Na+ < K+ and on addition of electron. Thus, radius order is O2– > F–. All
Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ the given species are isoelectronic and the radius order is
Ionic mobility is depends upon the hydration energy. Li+ ion is N3− > O2− > F− > Na+ > Al3+.
hydrated to the maximum extent due to its high charge/size
ratio compared to the other alkali metals ions. The extent of 62. (c) All are having same number of electron, that is, 18, but
hydration decreases on moving from Li+ to Cs+. Thus, Cs+ ion number of proton increases from left to right, that is, 16
is least hydrated. Thus, the ionic mobility increases from Li+ to for S while 20 for Ca. Hence, IE increases from left to right.
Cs+. 63. (a) H2S has bent shape while HCl is linear.
It also depends on the charge of the ion, if charge is more,
64. (b) For Q there is a large gap between IE1 and IE2. Hence
extent of hydration is also more. As a result, ionic mobility
element Q is an alkali metal which can form QX type of
decreases.
compound.
65. (a) For R or S, there is large gap between IE2 and IE3. Hence MgO is basic in nature and thus, reacts with acids to form
both are alkaline earth elements. Since IE1 of (S) > IE1 of corresponding salts.
(R), rS2+ < rR2+ and rS2+ ( aq) > rR2+ ( aq) , where r is radius. Hence
MgO → Mg2 + + O2 −
ionic mobility order is R2 + ( aq) > S2 + ( aq). Ionic in nature
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
Hybridization Theory, Molecular Orbital Theory, Hydrogen
2007 Molecular Orbital Theory
Bonding
2008 Bond Characteristics
2009 Molecular Orbital Theory Molecular Orbital Theory
2010 Bond Characteristics, VSEPR Theory
Polar and Non-polar Covalent Bonds, Hybridization
2011
Theory
2012 Hybridization Theory Bond Characteristics
2013 Bond Characteristics, Molecular Orbital Theory
Polar and Non-polar Covalent Bonds, VSEPR Theory,
2014 VSEPR Theory, Molecular Orbital Theory
Hybridization Theory, Molecular Orbital Theory
Polar and Non-polar Covalent Bonds, Molecular Orbital
2015 Hybridization Theory
Theory
Hybridization Theory, Intermolecular Forces (Secondary
2016 VSEPR Theory, Molecular Orbital Theory
Forces of Attraction)
SUMMARY
1. A bond is a force existing between atoms in a molecule that holds the atoms together.
2. Chemical bond formation
(a) Kössel and Lewis proposed the electronic theory of valence for explaining the formation of a chemical bond.
(b) According to the theory, the formation of a chemical bond between two or more atoms can be explained as the tendency of the
elements to a attain stable configuration of electrons in the outermost shell. The combination of atoms leads to rearrangement
of their electrons either by complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another or by sharing of electrons.
3. Ionic bond
Ionic compounds are formed when metals react with non-metals. For example, NaCl is formed from sodium ion, Na+, and chloride ion,
Cl−. Once formed, these ions become tightly packed together.
Modern concept of ionic bonding in crystalline solids:
(a) In the periodic table, the highly electronegative halogens and electropositive alkali metals are separated by noble gases.
(b) The formation of a positive ion from an atom is associated with loss of electrons and the formation of a negative ion is associated
with a gain of electrons.
(c) The driving force for the formation of positive and negative ions is to attain noble gas configuration.
(d) The bond formation between negative and positive ions is stabilized by electrostatic attraction.
(e) The bond that results from electrostatic attraction between the positive and negative ions is called the electrovalent bond or the
ionic bond.
Tip The term electrovalence was used to represent the number of units of charge involved in the bond formation or the charge
on the participating ions. For example, in sodium chloride, sodium is assigned an electrovalence of one.
4. Lewis representation
(a) It is a simple notation to represent the atom with its valence electrons using dots. This notation is known as Lewis symbol. The
structure of a molecule using the Lewis symbols is known as Lewis structure.
−
Na + Cl [Na] + + [ Cl ]
Sodium Chlorine Sodium Chloride
atom atom ion ion
Tip The number of dots around the symbol represents the number of valence electrons. The number of valence electrons helps
in calculating the group valence of the elements, which is generally equal to the number of dots around the symbol or 8 minus the
number of dots.
Single bond Bond produced by the sharing of one pair of electrons between two atoms. CH4
Double bond Bond produced by sharing two of the electrons of an atom with adjacent atoms. O C O
Triple bond Bond produced when three pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms. N N
Tip Formal charge is a method of electron book-keeping and does not imply that it is the actual charge on the atom in question.
For example, the formal charge on sulphur in the given structure is calculated as
The electrons in a bond Unshared electrons belong
are divided equally exclusively to one atom.
between the two atoms.
O
H O S O H
formal charge on S = 6 − (4 + 0) = +2
Ba
(ii) The formal charge (FCa) on an atom is also calculated by the formula: FC a = Va − Na −
2
where Va is the number of valence electrons on a neutral atom of the element, Na is the number of non-bonding electrons
on the atom and Ba is the number of bonding electrons on the atom.
Tips
(a) The sum of the formal charges in the molecule is zero.
(b) The formal charges in any Lewis structure add up to the charge on the particle.
(c) When several Lewis structures are possible, one with formal charges closest to zero is the most stable and preferred.
7. Ionic bonding
(a) Ionic solids are held together by the electrostatic attraction between the positive and negative ions. The formation of an ionic
compound and its stability primarily depend on (i) the ease of formation of ions; (ii) the lattice structure of the crystal.
(b) Formation of ionic compound will depend upon:
(i) Ionization enthalpy
• Enthalpy change that accompanies the removal of an electron from the outermost shell of an isolated gaseous atom to
form a positive ion in gas phase.
• Lesser the ionization enthalpy, greater will be the ease of formation of an ionic bond.
NA Z + Z − e 2 A 1
∆Hlattice = − 1 −
4p ∈0 r0 n
where NA = Avogadro constant; A = Madelung constant, relating to the geometry of the crystal; Z+ = charge number of cation;
Z− = charge number of anion; e = charge of electron 1.6022 × 10−19 C and ∈0 = permittivity of free space; r0 = distance to
closest ion; n = Born exponent, typically a number between 5 and 12.
Tip For ionic bonding to occur, the energy-lowering effect of the lattice enthalpy must be greater than the combined net energy-
raising effects of the ionization enthalpy and electron gain enthalpy.
(d) The alternative path (Born–Haber cycle) is divided into a number of following steps. The enthalpy changes accompanying each
step can be listed as:
(i) Sublimation of sodium metal: Na(s) → Na(g); ∆ subH o = 107.8 kJ mol−1
(ii) Ionization of sodium atoms: Na(g) → Na+ (g) + e − ; ∆ ionH o = 495.4 kJ mol−1
(iii) Dissociation of chlorine into atoms: 1
Cl (g) → Cl(g);
2 2
1
∆
2 bond
H o = 121.3 kJ mol−1
− −
(iv) Gain of electron by chlorine: Cl(g) + e → Cl (g); ∆ electron gainH o = − 348.8 kJ mol−1
(v) The calculated lattice enthalpy of NaCl:
Na+ (g) + Cl− (g) → Na+Cl− (s)
∆ lattice H o = 411.3 + 107.8 + 121.3 + 495.4 − 348.8 kJ mol−1 = 787.0 kJ mol−1
9. Covalent bonding
Covalent bond is formed between two atoms by mutual sharing of their outer electrons so as to complete their octets or duplets
(in case of hydrogen which has only one shell).
Every covalent bond is characterized by two quantities:
(i) The average distance between the nuclei held together by the bond.
(ii) The amount of energy needed to separate the two atoms to produce neutral atoms again.
10. Polar and non-polar covalent bonds
(a) When two identical atoms form a covalent bond, each atom has an equal share of the bonding electron pair. The electron den-
sity at both ends of the bond is the same. The bond is known as a non-polar bond.
(b) However, when different kinds of atoms combine, as in HCl, one nucleus usually attracts the electrons in the bond more strongly
than the other. The result of unequal attraction for the bonding electrons causes one atom to have slightly positive charge and
the other to have slightly negative charge. This is known as polar bond.
(c) When the bonding electrons are around one atom all the time, the bond is ionic.
(d) If two atoms have similar electronegativities, the bond formed between them will be covalent.
(e) A large difference in electronegativity leads to formation of an ionic bond.
11. Fajans’ rules
(a) Ionic and covalent bonds are the two extreme types of bonding, and almost always the bonds formed are intermediate in type.
This is explained in terms of polarizing power of the cation and polarizabilty of the anion (i.e., deforming) and the shape of the
ions.
(b) Fajans put forward four rules which summarize the factors favouring polarization, and hence covalency.
(i) A small positive ion favours covalency
In small ions, the positive charge is concentrated over a small area. The high charge density of the small cation distorts
the electron cloud of the anion to such an extent that the electron clouds of the anion and the cation overlap, making the
bond resemble a covalent bond. This explains why LiCl is more covalent than KCl.
(ii) A large negative ion favours covalency
Large ions are highly polarizable, that is, easily distorted by the positive ion. This explains why covalent character of lith-
ium halides is in the order:
LiI > LiBr > LiF
(iii) Large charges on either ion, or on both ions, favour covalency
This is because a high charge increases the amount of polarization. This explains why the covalent character in halides is
in the order:
Na+Cl− < Mg2+Cl2 < Al3+Cl3
(iv) Polarization, and hence covalency, is favoured if the positive ion does not have a noble gas configuration.
(c) Applications of Fajans’ rule
(i) The compound with higher covalent character will have a lower melting and boiling point. For example, CaCl2
(m. p. = 782°C) > BeCl2 (m. p. = 450°C)
(ii) Greater the covalent character, lower is its solubility in polar solvents. For example, AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI.
(iii) With increase in the covalent character, thermal stability decreases. For example, BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3.
12. Dipole moment
(a) The dipole moment (µ), is equal to the amount of charge on either end of the molecule q, multiplied by the distance between
the charges r.
m =q×r
It measures the polarity of the bond which is caused by the electronegativity difference between two atoms involved in that
bond. It is measured in Debye unit (symbol D), where 1 D = 10−18 esu cm = 3.33 × 10−30 coulomb metre.
(b) Bond moment
(i) It is the dipole moment of a particular bond. The dipole moment of a molecule is determined by the bond moments of the
bonds.
(ii) For diatomic heteroatomic molecules, the bond moment is equal to the dipole moment and for diatomic homoatomic
molecule it is zero because there is no shifting of bond pair towards any atom. Hence q is zero in above equation.
(iii) For polyatomic molecule (molecule having more than two atoms), the dipole moment is equal to the vector sum of all
bond moments and lone pair moments.
(c) Lone pair moment
(i) The lone pair has no contribution to the dipole moment of the molecule, if the lone pair is present in the pure s or p orbital.
However, when the lone pair is present in a hybrid orbital, the electronic density is not equal in two lobes of the hybrid
orbital.
(ii) The value of lone pair moment depends upon the %s character of the hybrid orbital and as the %s character increases, the
lone pair moment increases upto 50% and then falls down as it becomes more and more spherical. The lone pair moment
order for different hybrid orbitals (consisting of s or p orbitals) is given as sp > sp2 > sp3.
(d) Applications of dipole moment
(i) Determining the extent of polar character in a covalent bond.
(ii) Calculating the percentage ionic character of the bond.
(iii) Predicting the shape of molecules and their symmetry.
(iv) Distinguishing between cis and trans isomers.
(v) Identifying the position of the substituent in substituted aromatic rings.
13. Coordinate or dative bond
(a) During the formation of a bond by sharing of electrons between atoms, when both electrons of the shared pair are provided by
one of the combining atoms, then the bond formed is called a coordinate bond or a dative bond.
(b) The atom which provides the electron pair is termed as the donor atom, while the atom which accepts it is termed as the
acceptor atom.
(c) An arrow pointing from donor towards the acceptor atom represents a coordinate bond. An example of coordinate bond is the
formation of ammonium (NH4+) ion.
+
H H
×
×
+
H × N +H H× N H
× ×
Coordinate bond
H Lone pair H
of electrons
Ammonia Ammonium ion
molecule
Here nitrogen is the donor atom, while H+ is the acceptor.
14. Resonance structures
(a) The concept of resonance implies that whenever the molecule cannot be described accurately by a single Lewis structure, a
number of structures with similar energy, position of nuclei and number of bonding and non-bonding pair of electrons are used
to describe the structure. These are known as resonance structures.
S S
O O O O
2− 2− 2−
O O O
C C C
O O O O O O
The actual structure of the molecule is a hybrid of these canonical structures and is known as resonance hybrid.
(b) Some important points about resonance structures are as follows:
(i) Resonance is exhibited only in molecules whose atoms are in one plane.
(ii) The resonance hybrid structure averages the bond characteristics of various resonance structures.
(iii) The canonical structures have no real existence but only help visualize the possible resonance structures.
(iv) There is no equilibrium between the canonical structures.
(v) All the canonical structures must have the same number of unpaired electrons.
15. Exceptions to the octet rule
(a) The incomplete octet of the central atom
In some molecules, the central atom behaves as though it has less than an octet. The most common examples involve com-
pounds of beryllium and boron.
Be + 2 CI CI Be CI
Four electrons around Be
CI
B + 3 CI CI B CI
Six electrons around B
(b) Odd-electron molecules
(i) Some molecules have an odd number of valence electrons, such as nitric oxide (NO –11 valence electrons) and nitrogen
dioxide (NO2 – 17 valence electrons).
(ii) The expanded octet: Elements in rows below second row, such as phosphorus and sulphur, sometimes do exceed an
octet, because their valence shells can hold more than 8 electrons.
(c) Other exceptions to the octet theory
(i) The octet rule does not work in molecules which have an odd number of electrons.
(ii) The rule was postulated on the basis of inert behaviour and lack of reactivity of noble gases. However, some compounds
of noble gases are known.
(iii) It does not account for the shapes of molecules and the relative stability of structures.
16. Valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory
(a) The main postulates of VSPER theory are as follows:
(i) The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all the electron pairs present in the valence shell.
(ii) The electron pairs in the valence shell experience electrostatic repulsions due to negatively charged electron clouds.
(iii) The electron pairs tend to occupy positions that minimize these repulsions.
(iv) A multiple bond is treated like a single bond and the electron pairs involved in multiple bonding are treated as single super
pair.
(v) The double bond needs more space as compared to the single bond. The repulsion order in relation to the bonds is as
follows:
Double bond–double bond > Double bond–single bond > Single bond–single bond
(vi) If a molecule has two or more resonance structures, then VSEPR model can be applied to any one structure.
(vii) The magnitude of repulsions between bonding pairs of electrons depends on the electronegativity difference between
the central atom and the other atoms.
(viii) A lone pair (lp) of electrons takes up more space round the central atom than a bond pair (bp). The repulsion order:
Lone pair–lone pair > Lone pair–bond pair > Bond pair–bond pair
(b) Molecular geometry based on number of electron pairs
Number of electron pairs Shape Example
2 Linear BeCl2 180°
M
CI Be CI
M 120°
B
CI CI
4 Tetrahedral CH4 H
109.5°
M C
H
H
H
CI
M P CI
CI
CI
6 Octahedral SF6
F
F F
M S
F F
(c) Molecular geometry in presence of one or more lone pairs on central atom
No. of
Characteris- electron Expected Observed
Type tics Example pairs geometry geometry Reason
AB2E Two bp and 3 Trigonal Non-linear As lp–bp > lp–lp, the Sn–Cl bonds are
one lp. planar or bent or pushed slightly the bond angle becomes
V-shaped less than 120°.
Sn
CI CI
(Continued)
(Continued)
No. of
Characteris- electron Expected Observed
Type tics Example pairs geometry geometry Reason
AB3E One 4 Tetrahedral Trigonal Presence of l.p at the apex. Since the lp re-
non-bonding pyramidal pels three bonded N H pairs more strong-
and three ly, these are pushed together and the bond
bonding elec- H N angle becomes less than 109.5°.
H
tron pairs
H
AB2E2 Two bond- 4 Tetrahedral Non-linear, Presence of two lp on central oxygen atom
ing and two bent causes greater repulsion and the two O H
non-bonding bonding pairs move closer to each other. The
electron pairs H O bond angle between the two shows a great-
er distortion from normal tetrahedral angle
H
(109.5°) than in the case of ammonia (104.5°).
AB4E Four bonding 5 Trigonal See-saw The lp can occupy either equatorial or axial
F
and one bipyramidal position or results in different distortion in
non-bonding geometries. The repulsion is smaller when
electron pairs S F the lone pair is at the equatorial position
F and it is more stable. This is the experimen-
F
tally determined structure and the structure
is a distorted tetrahedron or see–saw like.
AB3E2 Three bonding 5 Trigonal T-shaped Presence of two lp at the equatorial or axi-
F
and two bipyramidal al positions causes greater lp–bp repulsion.
non-bonding The equatorial position is favoured by the
electron pairs CI F lone pairs as it is more stable and there is less
lp-bp repulsion as compared to when the
F
one or both the lp are at the axial position.
The structure of the molecule is T-shaped.
AB2E3 Two bonding I 5 Trigonal Linear The lp(s) occupy the three equatorial posi-
and three bipyramidal tions to minimize repulsion.
non-bonding
electron pairs I
AB4E2 Four bond- 6 Octahedral Square The lp occupy the axial positions.
ing and two planar
F F
non-bonding Xe
electron pairs F F
Tip Molecular shape describes the arrangement of atoms, not the arrangement of electron pairs.
The relative strength of bond is: s–s < s–p < p–p
Tip The shape of the molecule is determined by the s bonds (and lone pairs) but not by the p bonds.
(ii) o bond: It is formed by sideways overlap of orbitals and it merely shortens the bond length. The relative strength of the
p bonds increases when the intermolecular distance increases and the order is:
pp − dp
pp – pp : or or
(or) dp − pp
2pp – 2pp > 2pp – 3dp > 2pp – 3pp > 3pp – 3pp
The strength of the bond depends on the extent of overlap between the orbitals participating in the bond formation. The
p bond is thus weaker than the s bond. Also, p bond is always formed in addition to the s bond in molecules containing
multiple bond (double or triple bonds).
(c) Hybridization
(i) Combination of the different atomic orbitals in the valence shell of the same atom resulting in more stable set of orbitals
are called hybridized orbitals and the process is known as hybridization.
(ii) Hybridization results in a set of atomic orbitals which have equal energies (degenerate) and are intermediate between
those of the basic orbitals used to construct them. These hybridized atomic orbitals can overlap more effectively with the
atomic orbitals of other atoms in the molecule, thus providing an overall molecular structure which has stronger bonds
and lower energy.
(iii) Hybridization can be calculated by the following expression
(V + M − c + a)
Hybridization =
2
where V is the number of valence electrons of the metal, M is the number of monovalent atoms attached, c is the charge
on cation and a is the charge on anion.
(d) Salient features of hybridization
(i) The number of hybridized orbitals formed is equal to the number of atomic orbitals that get hybridized.
(ii) The hybridized orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape.
(iii) The atomic orbitals involved in hybridization can be empty, half-filled or completely filled.
(iv) The hybridized orbitals have two lobes, one larger and one smaller; larger lobes are more effective in overlapping with
other atomic orbitals and forming stable bonds.
(v) The hybridized orbitals are directed in certain directions in space which will have stable arrangements. This gives the
geometry of the molecule.
(vi) Hybridized orbitals are usually involved only in s bonds; p bonds involve the overlap of unhybridized orbitals.
(vii) Hybridization is not invoked in isolated atoms, only in covalent bond formation with other atoms.
Tip (a) As the %s character increases in a hybrid orbital, the hybrid orbital becomes bulkier and shorter. On the other
hand, as the %p or %d character increases, the orbital becomes longer and thinner.
(b) As the %s character increases, the energy of the hybrid orbital decreases and as the %p or %d character
increases, the energy of the hybrid orbital increases.
sp2 One s orbital and two p 33% s and The three sp2 hybridized orbitals are BF3
orbitals of a central atom 66% p trigonal and planar, 120° apart.
F
hybridize to give rise to
three sp2 orbitals 120°
120°
B
F F
sp3 One s and all three p 75% p and Four sp3 hybrid orbitals are tetra CH4
atomic orbitals hybridize 25% s hedral with an angle of 109.28° to
to give four equivalent sp3 each other. H
hybridized atomic orbitals
109.5°
H
H
H
+ + + Bonding orbital
s(g)
s s
ψ(g)
s s ψ(u)
(iii) The energy of the bonding molecular orbital is lower than that of the atomic orbital by an amount Δ. This is known as the
stabilization energy. Similarly the energy of the antibonding molecular orbital is increased by Δ. Molecular orbitals may
hold up to two electrons (with opposite spins).
(c) Conditions for the combination of atomic orbitals
(i) The atomic orbitals must be roughly of the same energy.
(ii) The orbitals must overlap one another as much as possible.
(iii) In order to produce bonding and antibonding MOs, either the symmetry of the two atomic orbitals must remain unchanged
when rotated about the internuclear line, or both atomic orbitals must change symmetry in an identical manner.
(d) Types of atomic and molecular orbitals
Atomic 1sA + 1sB 1sA− 1sB 2sA + 2sB 2sA− 2sB 2pxA + 2pxB 2pxA− 2pxB 2pyA + 2pyB 2pyA− 2pyB 2pzA + 2pzB 2pzA− 2pzB
orbitals
Molec- s 1s s *1s s 2s s * 2s s 2p x s * 2p x p 2p y p * 2p y p 2pz p * 2pz
ular
orbitals
(e) Energy level diagram for molecular orbitals
(i) The order of energy of molecular orbitals in simple homonuclear diatomic molecules is:
p 2 p x , p * 2 px , s * 2 pz
s 1s , s * 1s , s 2s , s * 2s , s 2 pz , p * 2p
p 2 py , y
Increasing energy
→
(ii) The bonding p 2px and p 2py MOs have exactly the same energy and are said to be doubly degenerate. In a
similar way, the antibonding p *2px and p *2py MOs have the same energy and are also doubly degenerate.
(iii) For the lighter elements boron, carbon and nitrogen the p 2px and p 2py energy is lower than that of s 2pz. For these
atoms the order is:
p 2 p x p * 2 px
s 1s , s * 1s , s 2 s , s * 2 s , , s 2 pz , s * 2 pz , p * 2 p
p 2 py y
Increasing energy
→
p 2 p2x
C2 s 1s2 , s * 1s2 , s 2 s2 , s * 2 s2 , 2
2 Diamagnetic 612 124
p 2 p y
p 2 p2x
N2 s 1s2 , s * 1s2 , s 2 s2 , s * 2 s2 , 2
s 2 p2z 3 Diamagnetic 953 109
p 2 p y
p 2 p2x , p * 2 p1x
O2 s 1s2 , s * 1s2 , s 2 s2 , s * 2 s2 , s 2 p2z , 2 1 2 Paramagnetic 501 121
p 2 p y , p * 2 p y
MO theory predicts that molecules of Be2 and Ne2 should not exist at all because they have bond orders of zero.
23. Heteronuclear diatomic molecules
(a) The MO theory can also be extended to heteronuclear diatomic molecules.
(b) Heteronuclear diatomic molecules can have non-bonding orbitals, in addition to bonding and antibonding orbitals.
HF s∗
1s
H atom
Energy
2p
F atom
s
HF molecule
Li–F s∗
2s
Li atom
Energy
2px 2py
Non-bonding pairs
s
located on F
Li–F 2s
molecule F atom
s ∗2px
∗
p ∗2py p 2pz
s 2px
s ∗2s
2s
2s
s 2s
SOLVED EXAMPLES
KÖSSEL–LEWIS Approach to Chemical Bonding Solution
(b) After sharing three electrons pair with three oxygen atoms,
1. Which of the following compounds contains the maximum two electrons are left as non-bonding electrons on Xe in
number of lone pairs at the central atom in its best Lewis XeO3, so only one lone pair exists on the central atom.
structure?
(a) XeO3 (b) ClO2− Xe
O O
(c) SOCl2 (d) IO 4− O
In SOCl2, sulphur shares two electrons with oxygen and 5. The correct order about of C O bond length in the following is
one with each chlorine atom, two electrons are left as (I) CO (II) CO2 (III) CO2−
3
non-bonding, so only one lone pair exists on the central
(a) II < I < III (b) III < II < I
atom.
(c) I < II < III (d) I < III < II
S
O Cl Cl Solution
(c) The order is as follows:
In IO 4− , iodine shares two electrons each with three oxy-
gen atoms and one electron with one oxygen atom, so no O−
electron is left as non-bonding and zero lone pairs exist C O <O C O<O C
O−
on the central atom.
− 6. Which of the following compounds does not follow the octet
O rule for electron distribution?
I (a) H2O (b) PH3 (c) PCl3 (d) PCl5
O O O Solution
(d) P has 10 electrons in its valence shell in PCl5.
2. Which of the following contains minimum dots in the Lewis
Cl
structure?
Cl
(a) HIO3 (b) H2CO3 (c) OF2 (d) HPO2−
3 Cl P
Solution Cl
(b) HIO3: each O atom contains 4 and iodine atom 2 dots, so, Cl
total are 14.
7. Element A has three electrons in the outermost orbit and B has
H2CO3: each O contains 4 dots, so, total are 12 dots.
six electrons in the outermost orbit. The formula of the com-
OF2: O atoms contain 4 and 2 ‘F’ atoms contains 2 × 6, so,
pound will be
total are 16 dots.
(a) A2B3 (b) A2B6 (c) A2B (d) A3B2
HPO2− 3 : 2 O atoms contain 2 × 6 dots and one oxygen
atom contains 4, so, total are 16 dots. Solution
(a) A has three electrons in the outermost orbit, it needs five
3. Which of the following molecules contains the maximum S–O more electrons to complete it octet and B has six electrons
bond length? so it would need two more electrons to complete the octet.
(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) SO2−
4 (d) SO2−
3 So each A will form two bonds with two B atoms, and sin-
gle electron remaining on each A will form bond with the
Solution same B atom such that one B atom is shared between the
(d) In SO2 and SO3, all the bonds are double bonds. In SO2− 3
two A atoms.
and SO2−4 also, all the bonds are of the same type due to 8. What are the formal charges of the atoms in the nitrite ion in
resonance. But in SO2−
3 , 2− charge is delocalized over three the order of nitrogen, oxygen 1 (O1) and oxygen 2 (O2)?
atoms whereas it is delocalized over four atoms in SO2− 4 . 1 2
So, bond order is lowest for SO2− 2−
3 . Thus, SO3 contains the O N O
maximum S–O bond length.
(a) 0, 0, −1 (b) 0, −1, −1 (c) −1, 0, −1 (d) −1, 0, 0
O O 2−
149 pm 151 pm Solution
S 142 pm
S 143.1 pm
S S O
O− O 106° (a) The nitrite ion can be represented as
O 120° O O 119° O O O− O
1 + 2
−
4. The C C bond length is 1.54 Å, C C bond length is 1.33 Å. O N O
What is the circumference of benzene ring? Formal charge on any atom = Number of valence electrons
(a) 8.61 Å (b) 8.82 Å − Number of non-bonding electrons − 1/2 (number of
(c) 8.43 Å (d) 8.05 Å bonding electrons)
1 0.759 × 10 −20
Formal charge on nitrogen = 5 − 2 − (6) = 0 With respect to electron, q = = 0.05
2 1.6 × 10 −19
1
Formal charge on oxygen atom 1 = 6 − 4 − (4) = 0 13. The correct order of increasing covalent character of the
2
1 following is
Formal charge on oxygen atom 2 = 6 − 6 − (2) = − 1 (a) KCl < CaCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4
2
Ionic Bond (b) SiCl4 < AlCl3 < CaCl2 < KCl
(c) AlCl3 < CaCl2 < KCl < SiCl4
9. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon (d) CaCl2 < SiCl4 < KCl < AlCl3
(a) charge on the ions only.
(b) size of the ions only. Solution
(c) packing of ions only. (a) According to Fajans’ rule, as the charge on the cation
(d) charge on the ions and size of the ions. increases, its effective nuclear charge as well as polariz-
Solution ing power increases. Hence, covalent character will also
increase. The increasing order should be
(d) Lattice energy depends on both charge and size of the KCl < CaCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4
ions.
14. Which of these contains both polar and non-polar bonds?
Polar and Non-Polar Covalent Bonds (a) HCN (b) CO2 (c) H2O2 (d) CH4
10. Among the following the maximum covalent character is Solution
shown by the compound
(c) H O O H. Here, O H bonds are polar and O O bond
(a) SnCl2 (b) AlCl3 (c) MgCl2 (d) FeCl2
is non-polar.
(AIEEE 2011)
Solution 15. Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing
dipole moment?
(b) According to Fajans’ rule, greater charge and small size (a) BCl3 < NH3 < H2O < SO2
of cation causes more polarization and hence more is (b) BCl3 < NH3 < SO2 < H2O
the covalent character. That is why AlCl3 has maximum (c) NH3 < SO2 < H2O < BCl3
covalent character. (d) H2O < SO2 < NH3 < BCl3
11. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with Solution
the greatest and the least ionic character, respectively are:
(b) Dipole moment is defined as the product of the magni-
(a) LiCl and RbCl (b) RbCl and BeCl2
tude of charge on any one of the atoms and the distance
(c) MgCl2 and BeCl2 (d) RbCl and MgCl2
between them.
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution Cl O
N S
(b) According to Fajans’ rule high positive charge, small cat- Cl B H H O O H H
ion and large anion favours covalency. RbCl has great- Cl H
est ionic character and least covalent character among m=0 m = 1.49 D m≠0 m = 1.83 D
given species as both the ions in the compound are of The dipole moment of BCl3 molecule is zero. The bond
comparable sizes which favours the ionic character. dipoles of three B Cl bonds give a net sum of zero
BeCl2 has least ionic character and greatest covalent because the resultant of any two is equal and opposite
character. As Be2+ is small cation and Cl– is a large anion of the third as shown above. In other molecules dipole
which favours the covalent character. moment shows increasing trend due to the presence
12. Molecule AB has a bond length of 1.617Å and a dipole of central atom that is electronegative in nature. As the
moment of 0.38 D. The fractional charge on each atom (abso- electronegativity of the central metal atom increases
lute magnitude) is: (e0 = 4.802 × 10−10 esu) (N < S < O), dipole moment of the resulting molecule
(a) 0 (b) 0.05 (c) 0.5 (d) 1.0 also increases. Hence, the trend is
(JEE Main Online 2015) BCl3 < NH3 < SO2 < H2O
Solution
Bond Characteristics
(b) m = q×l
16. Which one of the following pairs of species has the same
−30 −10 bond order?
0.38 × 3.335 × 10 Cm = q × 1.617 × 10 m
(a) CN– and NO+ (b) CN– and CN+
−
0.38 × 3.335 × 10 −30 Cm (c) O2 and CN– (d) NO+ and CN+
q= = 0.759 × 10 −20 C (AIEEE 2008)
1.67 × 10 −10 m
Solution
(1D = 3.335 × 10 −30 Cm) (a) CN− and NO+ has 14e– each, hence same bond order = 3.
23. The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are causes trigonal bipyramidal geometry. Now the VSEPR
(a) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons. theory implies that lone pair should occupy one equa-
(b) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the torial position due to which molecular shape becomes
central atoms, respectively. see-saw. The shapes of the other molecules are: IO 4−
(c) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the (tetrahedral); ICl4− (square planar) and SnCl4 (tetrahedral).
central atom, respectively. − − −
(d) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the F O Cl Cl Cl
central atom, respectively.
F Br F I I Sn
Solution O O Cl
F O Cl Cl Cl Cl
(d) The structures are as follows:
F F F F
F See–saw Tetrahedral Square planar Tetrahedral
S C Xe
F 26. Which of the following molecule has linear shape?
F F F F F F (a) BF3 (b) PCl5 (c) ClF3 (d) I3−
SF4 CF4 XeF4 Solution
See-saw Tetrahedral Square planer (d) BF3: Central atom is B
1 lone pair No lone pair Two lone pairs. Valence electrons = 3
24. Which of the following molecules has the greatest number of So, three fluorine atoms will form 3 bonds.
lone pair of electrons around the central atom? Therefore, number of electron pairs = 3 and all are bond
(a) IF7 (b) XeF2 (c) BrF3 (d) NF3 pairs.
Solution Thus, the shape is trigonal planar.
(b) The structures of the compounds are as follows: F F
F B
IF7 F
F F
No lone pairs
F I
PCl5: Central atom is P
Valence electrons = 5
F There are 5 Cl atoms, so the total number of electrons is
F
10.
F Number of electron pairs = 10/2 = 5 (all bond pairs)
XeF2 F Therefore, the shape is trigonal bipyramidal.
Cl
Cl
3 lone pairs P
Xe Cl Cl
Cl
ClF3: Central atom is Cl
F
Valence electrons = 7
F There are 3F atoms, so the number of electron pairs
BrF3 shared is 3.
Total number of electrons = 10
2 lone pairs Number of bonds = 10/2 = 5 (3 bond pairs +2 lone pairs)
Br F
The shape is trigonal bipyramidal.
F
F
Cl F
NF3 N
F 1 lone pair
F F
F
I3− : Central atom is I
25. Which of the following molecules has a see-saw shape?
Valence electrons = 7
(a) IO 4− (b) ICl4− (c) SnCl4 (d) BrF4−
Number of peripheral iodine atoms = 2
Solution Negative charge = 1
(d) In BrF4− , the central atom, Br contains four bond pair elec- Total number of electrons = 7 + 2 + 1 = 10 (2 bond pairs
trons and one lone pair electrons. Thus five steric number and 3 lone pairs)
Solution
(b) BrF5 is square pyramidal with sp3d2 hybridization. PCl3 + Cl2 → PCl5 ; ⇒ sp3 → sp3d
F
S2O3− + I− → I2 + S4 O26 − ; ⇒ sp3 → sp3
F F
Only in option (d) hybridization is not changing.
Br 38. Which of the following is the hybridization state of the cen-
tral atom in a molecule that has a trigonal planar shape?
F F (a) sp3d (b) sp3 (c) sp2 (d) sp
Solution
34. The maximum number of 90° angles between bond pair of
electrons is observed in (c) The shapes corresponding to the hybridization states
(a) dsp3 hybridization. are
(b) sp3d2 hybridization. sp3d: Trigonal bipynamidal; sp3: Tetrahedral; sp2: Trigonal
(c) dsp2 hybridization. planar; sp: Linear
(d) sp3d hybridization. 39. Which one of the following compounds is non-polar?
Solution (a) CHCl3 (b) SiCl4 (c) SnCl2 (d) NH3
(b) In sp3d2 hybridization, the geometry is octahedral and Solution
all the bonds are at 90° to each other. (b) Molecules with either non-polar bonds or symmetric
35. The states of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in polar bonds are non-polar.
boric acid (H3BO3) are, respectively, H Cl
(a) sp2 and sp2 (b) sp3 and sp3
3
(c) sp and sp 2 (d) sp2 and sp3
C Si
Solution
(d) Ground state configuration of boron is 1s2 2 s2 2 p1x Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Excited state configuration is 1s2 2 s1 2 p1x 2 p1y
(Net dipole moment is downward) (Net dipole moment is 0)
This means that boron atom undergoes sp2 hybridiza-
tion and each of these three sp2 orbitals overlap with 2p
orbitals of O− ion to form three BO− bonds.
Sn N
36. Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral
Cl Cl H H
structure?
(a) XeF4 (b) [Ni(CN)4]2− (c) BF4− (d) SF4 H
(Net dipole moment is upward) (Net dipole moment is upward)
Solution
In SiCl4, the bond moments are cancelled out completely
(c) The expression is so the net dipole moment is zero and the molecule is
(V + M − c + a) non-polar.
Hybridization =
2 Quick Tip/Alternate Solution: Just look for a molecule that
where V is the number of valence electrons of the metal, contains all bonds as non-polar or molecules with symmetric
M is the number of monovalent atoms attached, c is the polar bonds.
charge on cation and a is the charge on anion, we get
(3 + 4 − 0 + 1) 8 40. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
Hybridization of BF4− = = =4 (a) POCl3 (b) CH2O (c) SbCl5 (d) NO2
2 2
3
Therefore, the hybridization is sp . Solution
37. In which of the following chemical change, the hybridiza- (c) POCl3 has sp3 hybridization, is tetrahedral in shape; but
tion of the central atom of the polyatomic molecule is not contains different polar bonds due to which net dipole
changing? moment is not zero and the molecule is polar.
CH2O (or HCHO) has sp2 hybridization, is triangular
(a) ICl3 + Cl− → ICl4− (b) BF3 + F − → BF4− planar in shape; but contains one non-polar bond (i.e.,
(c) PCl3 + Cl2 → PCl5 (d) S2O3− + I− → I2 + S4 O26 − C O) due to which net dipole moment is not zero, and
the molecule is polar.
Solution
SbCl5 has sp3d hybridization, is trigonal bipyramidal
(d) ICl3 + Cl− → ICl4− ; ⇒ sp3d → sp3d 2 in shape; all Sb Cl bonds are polar but due to regular
geometry net dipole moment is zero, thus the molecule
BF3 + F − → BF4− ; ⇒ sp2 → sp3 is non-polar.
NO2 has sp2 hybridization, bent shape because it contains There is no unpaired electron, so it is diamagnetic.
one non-bonding electron on central atom; each N O
O2+ = s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 pz2 p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p1x
bond is polar, so net dipole moment is not zero and the
molecule is polar. There is one unpaired electron, so it is paramagnetic.
41. Hybridization, shape, and number of p bonds in XeOF2 mole- O2 = s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2 s 2p2z p 2p2x
cule are, respectively,
(a) sp3, pyramidal, 1 = p 2p2y p * 2p1x = p * 2p1y
(b) sp3d, trigonal bipyramidal, 2
There are two unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic.
(c) sp3d, T-shaped, 1
NO is isoelectronic with O2+ , so it also has one unpaired
(d) sp3d, square pyramidal, 1
electron, and is paramagnetic.
Solution 44. In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order
(c) The structure of XeOF2 molecule is T-shaped. has increased and the magnetic behaviour has changed?
(a) N2 → N2+ (b) C2 → C2+
F Xe F
(c) NO → NO + (d) O2 → O2+
O (AIEEE 2007)
The central atom in XeOF2 is Xe which carries 8 electrons Solution
in the valence shell. It forms three bond pairs (with two (c) In NO → NO +
atoms of F and one of O) and has two lone pairs. There are
NO → s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 p2z p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y
a total of five electron pairs, so hybridization will be sp3d
and basic structure is expected to be trigonal bipyramidal. p * 2 p1x = p 2 p 0y
The presence of two lone pairs at the corners of the tri-
angle gives the molecule T-shape. There is one double (p) NO + → s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 p2z p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y
bond present between Xe and O due to dp-pp bonding. .
The electron has been removed from antibonding orbital,
Molecular Orbital Theory so bond order increases and nature changes from para-
42. Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain magnetic to diamagnetic.
unpaired electrons? 45. Using MO theory, predict which of the following species has
(a) O2−
2 (b) B2 (c) N2+ (d) O2 the shortest bond length?
(AIEEE 2006)
Solution (a) O2− (b) O2−
2 (c) O2+
2 (d) O2+
(AIEEE 2009)
(a) The electronic configuration of O2− 2 2 2
s2 s 2 p2z p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p2x = p * 2 p2y .
2 is s 1s s * 1s s 2 s s * 2Solution
s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 p2z p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p2x = p * 2 p2y . (c) We know, bond order = (Nb − Na)/2.
Hence, there are no unpaired electrons. The molecular orbital configuration of O2− is
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1
(b) The electronic configuration of B2 is s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 ps21ps1x s= *p12sp1ys. 2s s * 2s s 2pz p 2p x = p 2p y p * 2p x = p * 2p y
s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 p 2 p1x = p 2 p1y . Hence, there are two unpaired Bond order of O2− = (1/2) (10 − 7) = 1.5.
electrons.
The molecular orbital configuration of O2− 2 is
(c) The electronic configuration of N2+ is s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 p 2 p22x = p 2 p22y s 2 p2 1z .
s 1s s * 1s s 2s s * 2s s 2pz p 2p x = p 2p y p * 2p2x = p * 2p2y
2 2 2 2
s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y s 2 p1z . Hence, there is one
unpaired electron. Bond order of O2− 2 = (1/2) (10 − 8) = 1.
The molecular orbital configuration of O2+ 2 is
(d) The electronic configuration of O2 is s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p1x = p * 2 p1y .
s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p1x = p * 2 p1y . Hence, there are s 1s s * 1s s 2 s s * 2 s s 2 pz p 2 p x = p 2 p2y
2 2 2 2 2 2
(b) It has total 12 electrons, out of which 8 electrons occupy 55. The bond order of CO and NO is
bonding orbitals, while 4 electrons occupy antibonding (a) 3 and 2 (b) 3 and 2.5
orbitals. (c) 3 and 1.5 (d) 3 and 3.5
(c) The molecule is paramagnetic.
Solution
(d) C2 molecule contains double bond and both are
p bonds. (b) The electronic configuration of CO is
p * 2 p2x = p * 2 p2y 3. Match each of the diatomic molecules in Column I with its
property/properties in Column II.
We can see that there are no unpaired electrons.
Column I Column II
Considering the structure of O3, there are no unpaired
electrons. (a) B2 (p) Paramagnetic
+ +
O − O (b) N2 (q) Undergoes oxidation
−
O O O O (c) O2− (r) Undergoes reduction
In N2O, there are no unpaired electrons
(d) O2 (s) Bond order 2
N N O
(t) Mixing of s and p orbitals
N2O = s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 pz2 p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y (IIT-JEE 2009)
p * 2 p2x s * 2 pz2 2
s 3s s * 3s 2 Solution
(a) → p, r, t; (b) → s, t; (c) → p, q; (d) → p, q, s
In KO2, oxygen is present as O2−, that is, superoxide. The
The electronic configuration B2 is s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 p 2 p1x = p 2 p1y
molecular orbital theory for superoxide ion is 2
s 1s s * 1s s 2 s s * 2 s p 2 p1x = p 2 p1y. Thus, it contains two unpaired electrons,
2 2 2
O2− = s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 pz2 p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p2x undergoes reduction and there is mixing of s and p orbitals
because they are equal in energies.
= p * 2 p1y
The electronic configuration N2 is s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y s 2 p2z
There is one unpaired electron in p*2py orbital. s 1s Thus,
2
s * 1s itsis2 s s * 2 s p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y s 2 p2z . Thus, the bond order is (10 − 4)/2
2 2 2
paramagnetic in nature.
= 6/2 = 3. There is mixing of s and p orbitals because they 8. Using the data provided, calculate the multiple bond energy
are equal in energies. (kJ mol−1) of a C C bond in C2H2. That energy is (take the
The electronic configuration O2− is s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 bond energy of C H bond as 350 kJ mol−1).
s 2 p2z p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p2x p * 2 p1y . Thus, it contains 2C(s) + H2 (g) → C2H2 ; ∆H = 225 kJ mol−1
1 unpaired electron and undergoes oxidation. 2C(s) → 2C(g); ∆H = 1410 kJ mol−1
2 2 2 2
The electronic configuration O2 is s 1s s * 1s s 2 s s * 2 s H2 (g) → 2H(g); ∆H = 330 kJ mol−1
s 2 p2z p 2 p2x = p 2 p2y p * 2 p1x p * 2 p1y . Thus, it contains
(a) 1165 kJ mol−1 (b) 837 kJ mol−1
two unpaired electrons and undergoes oxidation. (c) 865 kJ mol−1 (d) 815 kJ mol−1
Therefore, the bond order is (10 − 6)/2 = 4/2 = 2. (IIT-JEE 2012)
Solution
4. The bond energy (in kcal mol−1) of C C single bond is,
approximately, (d) We know that
(a) 1 (b) 10 Binding energy = Total energy of reactants − Total energy
(c) 100 (d) 1000 of products.
(IIT-JEE 2010) So, we have
Solution 225 = 2(C C) + 1(H H) − {2(C H) + (C C)}
(c) The bond energy of C C single bond is approximately 225 = 1410 + 330 − {2 × 350 + (C C)}
100 kcal mol−1. Energy of (C C) bond =1740 − 925 = 815 kJ mol−1
Thus, solving, we get the value of C C as 815 kJ mol−1.
5. The species having pyramidal shape is
(a) SO3 (b) BrF3 9. A list of species having the formula XZ4 is given below.
(c) SiO2−
3 (d) OSF2 XeF4, SF4, SiF4, BF4−, BrF4−, [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [FeCl4]2−, [CoCl4]2−
(IIT-JEE 2010)
and [PtCl4]2–.
Solution
Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and Z atoms,
(d) OSF2 has 3 bond pairs, one lone pair, with hybridization
the total number of species having a square planar shape
sp3 and pyramidal geometry.
is ___.
6. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90° F Br F angles in (JEE Advanced 2014)
BrF5 is ___.
Solution
(IIT-JEE 2010) (4) The structures are as follows. Out of these, XeF4, BrF4−,
Solution
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ and [PtCl4]2– have square planar shape.
(0) The structure of BrF5 is
F F
F F F
Xe S Si
Br F F F F F
F F
F F
2+ Cl 2−
F F F F H3N NH3
F Br Cu Fe
F F H3N NH3 Cl Cl
All the four bonds (F Br F) will reduce from 90o to 84.8o Cl
after lone pair–bond pair repulsion.
Cl 2− 2−
7. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated, the bond order and Cl Cl
magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule B2 is Co Pt
(a) 1 and diamagnetic. (b) 0 and diamagnetic. Cl Cl Cl Cl
(c) 1 and paramagnetic. (d) 0 and paramagnetic Cl
(IIT-JEE 2010) 10. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic
Solution species among the following is
(a) Be2 (b) B2 (c) C2 (d) N2
(a) The configuration of
(JEE Advanced 2014)
B2 (10 ) = s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2p 2 p x 2
Solution
6−4
Therefore, the bond is = = 1. (c) Out of the options, C2 has MO configuration
2
So, the nature is diamagnetic as there are no unpaired s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2 s 2p2z p 2p1x = p 2p1y
electrons. with two unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic.
11. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the Cl Cl Cl Cl
description given in List-II and select the correct answer using Al Al C2H5
the code given below the lists. Cl O H Cl O
C2H5
H
List-I List-II
Hydrated AlCl3 Anhydrous AlCl3
P. 1. p–dp antibonding 14. Using VSEPR theory deduces the structures of PCl5 and BrF5.
Solution
In PCl5 : P [Ne] 3s2 3p3
2. d–ds bonding 3s 3p 3d
Q.
Excited
state of P
sp3d
3. p–dp bonding
R. Cl
Cl
Cl P Trigonal bipyramidal
Cl
S. 4. d–ds antibonding Cl
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 6. The correct order of decreasing polarizable ions is
(a) Cl−, Br−, I−, F− (b) F−, I−, Br−, Cl−
Single Correct Choice Type (c) F−, Cl−, Br−, I− (d) I−, Br−, Cl−, F−
1. Structure of IF4+ and hybridization of iodine in this structure are,
7. The concept that electron pairs in the valence shell of an atom
respectively,
bonded to other atoms stay as far apart as possible to mini-
(a) linear, sp3d (b) K-shaped, sp3d2
mize repulsions between them is part of the
(c) irregular tetrahedral, sp3d (d) square planar, sp3d 2
(a) Pauli principle.
2. The chlorine end of the chlorine monoxide molecule carries a (b) Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
charge of +0.167e. The bond length is 154.6 pm. Calculate the (c) valence shell electron pair repulsion theory.
dipole moment of the molecule in Debye units. (d) electronegativity and polar bonds theory.
(a) 2.35 D (b) 1.24 D (c) 1.59 D (d) 2.05 D
8. Most favourable conditions for the formation of ionic bonds
3. The dipole moment of KCl is 3.336 × 10–29 Cm. The interatomic are
distance K+ and Cl− ion in KCl is 260 pm. Calculate the dipole (a) large cation and small anion.
moments of KCl, if there were opposite charges of the funda- (b) large cation and large anion.
mental unit located at each nucleus. (c) small cation and small anion.
(a) 4.165 × 10–29 Cm (b) 4.325 × 10–27 Cm (d) small cation and large anion.
–29
(c) 5.321 × 10 Cm (d) 5.012 × 10–27 Cm
9. Predict the molecular geometry and polarity of the SO2 mole-
4. A molecule has a central atom surrounded by 2 lone pairs and cule by applying VSEPR theory.
3 atoms. The best description for the shape of the molecule is (a) Linear, nonpolar (b) Linear, polar
(a) trigonal bipyramidal (b) octahedral. (c) Bent, 109.5° angle, polar (d) Bent, 120° angle, polar
(c) bent. (d) T-shaped.
10. Polarization of ions is governed by
5. Which of the following has pp–dp bonding? (a) hybridization. (b) VSEPR theory.
(a) NO3− (b) SO2− (c) BO2− (d) CO2− (c) Fajans’ rules. (d) Pauling’s rule.
3 3 3
11. Calculate the lattice enthalpy of CaCl2, given that the enthalpy 21. The bond angle in ammonia molecule is
of (a) 93°3’ (b) 91°8’ (c) 106°45’ (d) 109.5°
(i) sublimation of Ca is 121 kJ mol−1,
22. Which of the following can be calculated from the Born–
(ii) dissociation of Cl2 to Cl is 242.8 kJ mol−1,
Haber cycle of formation of Al2O3?
(iii) ionization of Ca to Ca2+ is 2422 kJ mol−1,
(a) Lattice enthalpy of Al2O3
(iv) electron gain enthalpy for Cl to Cl− is −355 kJ mol−1 and
(b) Electron gain enthalpy of O atom
(v) formation of CaCl2 is −795 kJ mol−1.
(c) Hydration enthalpy of Al3+
(a) −1985.6 kJ mol−1 (b) −1785.3 kJ mol−1
(d) Ionization enthalpy of Al
(c) −2870.8 kJ mol−1 (d) −2089.6 kJ mol−1
23. Lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound depends on
12. Which statement is true for the BrF5 molecule?
(a) charge on the ion only.
(a) There are two lone pairs in the valence shell of the bro-
(b) size of the ion only.
mine atom.
(c) packing of ions only.
(b) The molecule is nonpolar.
(d) charge on the ion and size of the ion.
(c) Some of the F Br F bond angles are close to 90 degrees.
(d) At least one of the bond angles, F Br F, is about 109.5 24. Based on conclusions from application of the VSEPR theory,
degrees. which one of the following species is linear?
(a) BF3 (b) I 3− (c) H2CO (d) H2S
13. As compared to covalent compounds, electrovalent com-
pounds generally have 25. Which of the following is least ionic?
(a) low melting points and low boiling points. (a) CaBr2 (b) CaI2 (c) CaCl2 (d) CaF2
(b) high melting points and high boiling points.
(c) low melting points and high boiling points. 26. The compound with no dipole moment is
(d) high melting points and low boiling points. (a) methyl chloride. (b) carbon tetrachloride.
(c) methylene chloride. (d) chloroform.
14. Which basic arrangement would best accommodate three
electron domains in the valence shell of a covalently bonded 27. When two ice cubes are pressed together, they join to
atom? form one cube. Which of the following forces holds them
(a) Planar triangular (b) Octahedral together?
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Linear (a) Hydrogen bond formation
(b) van der Waals forces
15. The correct order of Cl O bond lengths in ClO − , ClO2− , ClO3− (c) Covalent attraction
and ClO 4− is (d) Dipole interaction
(a) ClO − < ClO2− < ClO3− < ClO 4−
28. Carbon dioxide is isostructural with
(b) ClO 4− < ClO3− < ClO2− < ClO − (a) HgCl2 (b) SnCl2 (c) C2H4 (d) NO2−
(c) ClO3− < ClO 4− < ClO2− < ClO − 29. The correct order of dipole moment is
(d) ClO 4− = ClO3− = ClO2− < ClO − (a) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (b) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(c) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (d) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
16. On hybridization of one s-orbital and one p-orbital, we get
(a) mutual perpendicular orbitals. 30. The bond present in N2O5 is
(b) two orbitals at 180° to each other. (a) only ionic.
(c) four orbitals directed tetrahedrally. (b) covalent and coordinate.
(d) three orbitals in one plane. (c) only covalent.
(d) covalent and ionic.
17. What fraction of charge is present on iodine in covalently
bonded Hδ+ − Iδ− if the dipole moment of HI is 0.38 D and the 31. The pair of elements from ionic bond is
bond length is 1.61 Å. (a) C + Cl (b) H + F (c) Na + Br (d) O + H
(a) 5% (b) 16% (c) 33% (d) 79%
32. The types of bonds present in CuSO4⋅5H2O are only
18. The central atom in BrF5 uses sp3d2 hybridization. It must (a) electrovalent and covalent.
therefore have _____ s bonds and _____ lone pair(s) of elec- (b) electrovalent and coordinate covalent.
trons in the valence shell of the central atom respectively. (c) electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent.
(a) 1, 5 (b) 3, 3 (c) 5, 0 (d) 5, 1 (d) covalent and coordinate covalent.
19. The species in which central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in 33. What is the nature of chemical bonding between Cs and F?
its bonding is (a) Ionic (b) Covalent
(a) PH3 (b) NH3 (c) CH3+ (d) SbH3 (c) Coordinate (d) Metallic
20. The shape of sulphate ion is 34. The smallest F—S—F bond angle in SF6 is
(a) hexagonal. (b) square planar. (a) 90 degrees. (b) 109.5 degrees.
(c) trigonal bipyramidal. (d) tetrahedral. (c) 120 degrees. (d) 145 degrees.
35. What is the effect of more electronegative atom on the 48. According to VSEPR theory, the most probable shape of the
strength of ionic bond? molecule having 4 electron pairs in the outermost shell of
(a) Increases the central atom is
(b) Decreases (a) linear. (b) tetrahedral.
(c) Remains the same (c) hexagonal. (d) octahedral.
(d) First increases then decreases.
49. Which of the following have same shape as NH2+?
36. Formal charge on the central oxygen atom in a molecule of (a) CO2 (b) SnCl2 (c) SO2 (d) BeCl2
ozone is
(a) 0 (b) 1+ (c) 1− (d) 2− Level II
37. The HF molecule has a dipole moment of 1.83 D and a bond Multiple Correct Choice Type
length of 91.7 pm. What is the amount of charge, in elec- 50. Polarity of a molecule is calculated in terms of dipole moment
tronic charge units, on either end of the bond? pointing by an arrow from +ve to −ve pole. Find out the cor-
(a) +0.416e, −0.416e (b) +0.356e, −0.416e rect statement among the following.
(c) +0.416e, −0.356e (d) +0.256e, −0.532e (a) Carbonyl group shows greater dipole moment than car-
38. The bond order in N2+ ion is bon monoxide.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2.5 (d) 3 (b) In carbon monoxide C atom forms negative pole of
39. In N2H4, nitrogen is dipole whereas O atom forms positive pole even though
(a) sp hybridized. (b) sp2 hybridized. O is more electronegative than C.
(c) sp3 hybridized. (d) dsp2 hybridized. (c) Dipole moment of CH3Cl is greater than CH3F.
(d) All homonuclear polyatomic molecules are non-polar.
40. Which of the following ions has a pseudo-inert gas
configuration? 51. Which of the following combination(s) of atomic orbitals
(a) Zn2+ (b) Cu+ suggest non-bonding combinations of atomic orbitals?
(c) Ag+ (d) All of these +
+ + +
(a) (b)
41. The Se C Se molecule is non-polar because − −
(a) the bonds in the molecule are all non-polar.
(b) the bonds in the molecule are polar but their effect on
+ + +
the overall polarity is canceled by the effect of lone pairs − +
(c) − (d)
in the valence shell of the carbon atom. −
(c) the bonds in the molecule are polar but their effect on
the overall polarity is cancelled by the fact that they are 52. CO2 is isostructural with
equal in magnitude and oppositely directed. (a) HgCl2 (b) SnCl2 (c) C2H2 (d) NO2
(d) the bonds in the molecule are polar but the polar effect
53. Which of the following conditions apply to resonating
is canceled by the resonance hybrids which distribute
structures?
the charge evenly.
(a) Identical arrangement of atoms
42. In XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6, the number of lone pairs of Xe is, (b) Nearly same energy content
respectively, (c) Identical number of bonds
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3 (c) 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1 (d) Same number of unpaired electrons.
43. The bond in the formation of fluorine molecule will be 54. Mark out the incorrect match of shape.
(a) due to s–s overlapping. (b) due to s–p overlapping. (a) XeOF2 : Trigonal planar
(c) due to p–p overlapping. (d) due to hybridization. (b) ICl4− : Square planar
44. Shape of NH3 is very similar to (c) [SbF5]2− : Square bipyramidal
(a) CH4 (b) CH3− (c) BH3 (d) CH3+ (d) NH2− : Pyramidal
45. In a homonuclear molecule, which of the following set of 55. Which among the following species have zero bond order?
orbitals are degenerate?
(a) s 2s and s 1s (b) p 2px and p 2py (a) F22− (b) Ar2 (c) He2+ (d) H2+
(c) p 2px and s 2pz (d) s 2pz and s *2px 56. The linear structure is assumed by
46. Which of the following factors do not favour electrovalency? (a) SnCl2 (b) NCO− (c) NO2+ (d) CS2
(a) Low charge on ions 57. Which of the following set correctly represent sp3 hybridiza-
(b) High charge on ions tion and tetrahedral geometry?
(c) Large cation and small anion
(a) ClO 4− , SO2−
4 , Diamond (b) SiO 4− +
4 , [PCl4] , SiC
(d) Small cation and large anion
(c) Ni(CO)4, SnCl4, Graphite (d) Ice, FClO3, [Zn(H2O)4]2+
47. Which of the following molecules has dipole moment?
(a) ClF3 (b) TeCl4 58. Which among the following have regular geometry?
(c) SF4 (d) All of these (a) BF3 (b) NF3 (c) PF3 (d) BF4−
59. Which of the following molecules are polar and sp3d2 68. The bond angle is Cl2O more than that in F2O because of so
hybridized? many reasons like
(a) IF5 (b) XeF4 (c) XeOF4 (d) ICl4− (I) pp–dp overlap in Cl2O, which is not possible in F2O.
(II) There is no lone pair–lone pair repulsion in Cl2O, which is
60. Among the following bonds, which are more ionic than
present in F2O.
covalent?
(III) F is more electronegative than oxygen while Cl is less
(a) Si O (b) Ba O (c) Se Cl (d) K Br
electronegative than oxygen.
61. Which among the following have bond order 2.5? The correct reason is (are)
(a) O2 (b) N2− 2 (c) N2+ (d) O2+ (a) Both I and II. (b) II and III.
(c) Only II. (d) All of these.
62. In O2 molecule, which of the following molecular orbitals are
lower in energy than s2pz orbital? 69. Which is correct about the C F bond?
(a) p 2px (b) s 2s (c) s *2s (d) p 2py (a) C F is shorter than expected because of lone pair–lone
pair repulsion.
63. Which of the following have identical bond order? (b) C F is longer than expected because of lone pair–lone
(a) CN− (b) O2− (c) NO+ (d) CN+ pair repulsion.
(c) C F is shorter than expected because of high ionic
Passage Type character.
Paragraph for Questions 64 to 66: “No ionic compound is 100% (d) C F is longer than expected because of high ionic
ionic as well as no covalent compound is 100% covalent.” character.
64. Correct solubility order is 70. In which of the following cases, the central atom–F bond has
(a) AgCl < AgF (b) BeCO3 < BaCO3 partial double bond character?
(a) NF3 (b) CF4 (c) PF3 (d) OF2
(c) LiNO3 < CsNO3 (d) NaClO4 < KCIO4
65. Choose the incorrect order of the given properties. Paragraph for Questions 71 to 73: Valence shell electron pair
repulsion (VSEPR) theory can be used to predict the approximate
(a) BeCl2 > MgF2 > CaF2 : Electrical conductivity
shape of a molecule. Electrons in bonds and in lone pairs can
(b) NaF< MgF2< AlF3 : Covalent character order be thought of as “charge cloud” that repel one another and stay
(c) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaCO4 : Thermal stability order as far apart possible, thus causing molecules to assume specific
(d) HgCl2< HgBr2< HgI2 : Solubility order in water shapes.
66. Which of the following option gives incorrect melting point The repulsive interactions of electron pairs decrease in the order:
order? Lone pair–lone pair > Lone pair–bond pair > Bond pair–bond
(a) H2 < T2 (b) He > T2 (c) D2 > He (d) T2 > D2 pair.
These repulsions result in deviations from idealized shapes and
Paragraph for Questions 67 to 70: The average distance between alteration in bond angles in molecules.
the nuclei of the two atoms held by a bond is called bond length.
This represents the internuclear distance corresponding to the 71. Molecular shape of XeF3+ , SF3+ , and CF3+ are
minimum potential energy for the system. The main factors which (a) the same with 2, 1, and 0 lone pairs of electrons,
affect the bond length are as follows: respectively.
(i) Double/triple bonds are shorter than corresponding sin- (b) different with 2, 1, and 0 lone pairs of electrons,
gle bonds. respectively.
(ii) Sometimes, bond distances of single bonds are some- (c) different with 0, 1, and 2 lone pairs of electrons,
what larger than those of double bonds of their respective respectively.
covalent radii (e.g., F2). It is due to strong repulsive interac- (d) the same with 2, 0, and 1 lone pairs of electrons,
tion between the lone-pair electrons on adjacent atoms. respectively.
(iii) Sometimes single bond distances are somewhat shorter 72. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to
than double of their respective covalent radii because bond angle?
bonds acquire some partial double bond character. This (a) The F S F angle in SF2 is more than 109.5°.
occurs when one atom has vacant orbital and another (b) The H N N angle in N2H2 is approximately 180°.
atom has a lone pair. The bond length may also become (c) The F Kr F angle in KrF4 is 90°.
shorter due to high ionic character in the covalent bond. (d) The Cl N O angle in NOCl is more than 120°.
67. Which is not true about the N N bond length among the fol- 73. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
lowing species? (a) In ClF3, the axial Cl F bond length is larger than equato-
(I) H2N NH2 (II) N2 (III) HN+ NH2 (IV) N2O rial Cl F bond length.
(a) N N bond length is the shortest in II (b) In SF4, F S F equatorial bond angle is not 120° and 104°
(b) N N bond length in I is shorter than that of in III due to lone pair–bond pair repulsions.
(c) N N bond length in III is shorter than that of in I (c) In ICI4− , bond angles is 90°.
(d) N N bond length IV is intermediate between I and III (d) In OBr2, the bond angle is less than OCl2.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (d)
43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (b)
Level II
50. (a), (b), (c) 51. (c), (d) 52. (a), (c) 53. (a), (b), (d) 54. (a), (d) 55. (a), (b)
56. (b), (c), (d) 57. (a), (b), (d) 58. (a), (d) 59. (a), (c) 60. (b), (d) 61. (c), (d)
62. (b), (c) 63. (a), (c) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (b)
68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (d)
74. (a) → q, r; (b) → p, s; (c) → p, s; (d)→ q, r 75. (a) → p; (b) → q; (c) → p; (d) → s
76. (a) → p, q; (b) → p, q, r; (c) → p, q, r, s; (d) → p, q, r, s 77. (a) → p, r, s; (b) → p, q; (c) → r, s 78. (0)
79. (6) 80. (9) 81. (7) 82. (4)
The shape of the molecule is best described by T-shaped. 10. (c) Fajans’ rule: Greater the polarization of anion in a mole-
cule, more covalent the molecule will be.
5. (b) The outer electronic configuration of sulphur is 3s23p4 in
11. (c) The given values can be represented in the chemical
the ground state and 3s2 3 p1x 3 p1y 3 p1z 3d1xy in the excited reaction as:
state. One 3s and three 3p orbitals of the sulphur atom −795 kJ mol−1
hybridize to give four sp3 hybrid orbitals. Sulphur forms Ca(s) + Cl2(g) CaCl2(s)
three sigma covalent bonds by overlapping three of the 121 kJ mol−1 242.8 kJ mol−1 ∆H
four sp3 hybrid orbitals with three oxygen atoms and
−355 × 2 kJ mol−1
also one p bond by lateral overlapping of 3d orbitals of Ca(g) 2Cl(g) 2Cl−(g) + Ca2+
sulphur with the half-filled p orbitals of one of the oxy-
gen atoms as shown below. 2422 kJ mol−1
Sulphur (ground state): 3s2 3p4 Applying Hess’s law of constant heat summation, we get
3s 3 px 3 py 3 pz 3d −795 = 121+ 242.8 + 2422 + ( −355 × 2) + ∆H
↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ Therefore, ∆H = −2870.8 kJ mol−1.
Sulphur (excited state): 3s2 3p3 3d1 12. (c) The shape of BrF5 molecule is square pyramidal, where
3s 3 px 3 py 3 pz
some of the F—Br—F bond angles are close to 90 degrees.
3d
↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ F
14. (a) The best arrangement to accommodate three bonding 22. (a) Lattice enthalpy of Al2O3 is calculated from Born–Haber
domains in the valence shell of a covalently bonded cycle using enthalpy of formation of Al(g), first, second
atom is planar triangular. and third ionization energies of Al(g), enthalpy of forma-
tion of O(g), first and second electron gain enthalpies of
15. (b) Bond length is inversely proportional to bond order.
O(g) and enthalpy of formation of Al2O3(s).
Greater the delocalization of p-electrons (−ve charge)
shorter is the bond length. 23. (d) For lattice enthalpy to be high, the force of electrostatic
attraction between the constituent ions should be high;
16. (b) s and p orbitals hybridize to form two sp hybrid orbitals
thus, the cation and anion should be small in size and
oriented at an angle of 180°.
should have high electric charge. So, it depends on
17. (a) Given that the dipole is 0.38 D = 0.38 × 3.34 × 10−30 Cm charge on the ion and size of the ion.
= 1.26 × 10−30 Cm.
If the bond was 100% ionic, the magnitude of the dipole 24. (b) I 3− should have a linear shape. Although there are five
moment will be electron pairs around the central iodine atom, only two
are being used for bonding.
m = qr = 1.6 × 10 −19 × 1.61× 10 −10 Cm = 2.57 × 10 −29 Cm
25. (b) CaI2 is least ionic; this is according to Fajans’ rule. Larger
Therefore, the fraction of charge covalently bonded is the anion, greater is its polarizability (because the hold
1.26 × 10 −30 on the electron cloud by the nucleus decreases).
= 0.05
2.57 × 10 −29 26. (b) CCl4 does not have a dipole moment because, the dipole
Therefore, % fractional charge = 5% moment from the centre (C) to Cl cancel out each other.
18. (d) From the figure shown below, it can be concluded that Cl
BrF5 have 5 s -bonds and one lone pair of electrons in
the valence shell of the central atom. Cl C Cl
F
Cl
F F 27. (a) Ice cube contains water molecules and these are present
Br at a particular lattice. When the two cubes are pressed
F F
together, they join to form one cube due to the forma-
tion of hydrogen bonding between the water molecules
19. (c) of two cubes, which results in forming one cube.
( 5 + 3)
In PH3: H = = 4 = sp3
2 28. (a) O C O (linear) Cl Hg Cl (linear)
( 5 + 3)
In NH3: H = = 4 = sp3 Sn H H N
2 C C −
( 4 + 3 − 1) Cl Cl (bent) H H (trigonal) O O (bent)
In CH3+ : H = = sp2
2 29. (a) In CH4: Net dipole moment is zero.
In SbH3: H = (5 + 3) = 4 = sp3 In NF3: Resultant dipole moment toward nucleus of
2
nitrogen.
1
20. (d) SO 4 : H = 4 + (6 – 8 + 2) = 4 = sp3
2− In NH3: Resultant dipole moment toward lone pair.
2
O− In H2O: Resultant dipole moment toward oxygen.
S
30. (b) O O
O O− O
N O N
Tetrahedral
O O
21. (c) The structure of ammonia is
31. (c) Ionization potential of sodium is less, electron gain
enthalpy of Br is more. So, the type of bond formed is
ionic bond.
32. (c) In CuSO4⋅5H2O, electrovalent, covalent, and coordinate
N bonds are present.
H 33. (a) Cs is the highest electropositive element and F is the
H 106°45′
highest electronegative element. As a result, ionic bond
is formed between them.
34. (b) SF6 have an octahedral shape because it has six electron
H pairs around the central atom. The smallest F—S—F
bond angle in SF6 is 109.5 degrees.
35. (a) As the electronegativity of the atom increases, the 43. (c) Due to overlapping of p–p orbitals, bond exists between
strength of the ionic bond increases because electron- two fluorine atoms to form fluorine molecule.
egative atom attracts the electron pair toward itself. If
44. (b) CH3− is sp3 hybridized with three bond pairs and one lone
electronegativity is more, strength of ionic bond is also
pair. Thus, the shape is trigonal pyramidal like NH3.
more.
45. (b) In a homonuclear molecule,
36. (b) O O1+ O p 2 p x = p 2 p y and p *2 p x = p *2 p y are two sets of
For charge on central O = 6 − (1/2) (6) − 2 = 6 − 3 − 2 = +1 degenerate orbitals.
m
37. (a) We use the expression q = to solve for q. The debye 46. (d) Larger the size of cation and smaller the size of anion
r
unit, D, equals 3.34 × 10−30 C m, so the dipole moment of favour the electrovalency or formation of ionic bond.
HF is 47. (d) ClF3, TeCl4, and SF4 all molecules have unsymmetri-
m = 1.83 × (3.34 × 10 −30 Cm)= 6.11× 10 −30 Cm cal structure and polar bonds; hence, all of them show
dipole moment.
The SI prefix p (pico) means × 10−12, so the bond length
r = 91.7 × 10−12 m. Substituting in the above equation 48. (b) Tetrahedral shape is formed with the molecule having
gives four electron pairs in the outermost shell of the central
atom. H = 4 ⇒ sp3 hybridization.
6.11× 10 −30 Cm
q= = 6.66 × 10 −20 C
91.17 × 10 −12 m 49. (b) Both SnCl2 and NH2+ has non-linear or bent or V-shape.
The amount of charge on an electron (i.e., an electronic
charge unit) equals 1.602 × 10−19 C, which we can express
as 1 e = 1.602 × 10−19 C. Sn N+
The value of q in electronic charge units is, therefore Cl Cl H H
1e
q = 6.66 × 10 −20 C = 0.416 e Level II
−19
1.602 × 10 C
Multiple Correct Choice Type
As in HF, the hydrogen carries the positive charge, so the
charge on the hydrogen end of the molecule is +0.416e 50. (a), (b), (c) Conceptual
and the charge on the fluorine end is −0.416e.
51. (c), (d) Non-bonding combinations of atomic orbitals.
38. (c) N2+ has a total 13 electrons.
52. (a), (c) CO2 is isostructural with HgCl2 and C2H2.
MO configuration N2+ is: s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2 p 2p2y p 2p2z s All
2p1xthese are linear in structure and possess sp hybridization.
2 2 2 2 2 2 1
s 1s s * 1s s 2s s * 2s p 2p y p 2p z s 2p x 53. (a), (b), (d) Conceptual
Bond order = (1/2) (9 – 4) = 5/2 = 2.5
54. (a), (d) XeOF2 has trigonal bipyramidal geometry (more spe-
39. (c) N2H4: H = (5 + 3 + 0 + 0 ) = 4 = sp3 cifically T-shaped since two positions in the plane are occu-
2 pied by lone pairs) whereas NH2− is angular bent molecule.
H H
N N 55. (a), (b) MO configuration of F22− :
H H
40. (d) Zn2+: 28 electrons: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10. s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2 s2 s * 2 s2 s 2 p2x p 2 2 p y p 2 2 pz p * 2 p2y p * 2 p2z s * 2 p2x
Cu+: 28 electrons: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10. Bond order = (1/2) (10 – 10) = 0
Ag+: 46 electrons: [Kr] 4d10 Ar2 also has zero bond order because it is a noble gas; it exists
In these all the d-orbitals are completely filled, hence all only monoatomic in nature.
of these are pseudo inert gas configuration.
56. (b), (c), (d) SnCl2 is bent or V-shaped; NCO−, NO2+ and CS2 are
41. (c) Conceptual linear (sp hybridization).
42. (d) The structures are as follows: 57. (a), (b), (d) Conceptual
F F
F F 58. (a), (d) BF3 has a regular trigonal planar structure and BF4−
F
has a regular tetrahedral structure. Both NF3 and PF3 have
Xe Xe F Xe F pyramidal structure.
But XeF4 is a square structure that is symmetrical in nature. 72. (c) The structure of KrF4 is
IF5 and XeOF4 both are sp3 d 2 hybridized but structurally
unsymmetrical, therefore, these two will be polar. F
90°
60. (b), (d) If the electronegativity difference between the two F Kr F
atoms is more than 1.9, the bond is taken as ionic. Here, (b)
and (d) have an electronegativity difference greater than 1.9.
F
61. (c), (d) N2+ : s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2 p 2p2y p 2p2z s 2p1x 73. (d) In OBr2, the bond angle is more than OCl2 because Br is
Bond order = (1/2)(9 – 4) = 5/2 = 2.5 less electronegative element than chlorine.
O2+ : s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2 p 2p2y p 2p2z s 2p2x p * 2p1y
Matrix-Match Type
Bond order = (1/2)(10 – 5) = 5/2 = 2.5
74. (a) ã q, r; (b) ã p, s; (c) ã p, s; (d) ã q, r
62. (b) (c) s 1s < s * 1s < s 2 s < s * 2 s < s 2 p x < p 2 p y
O2−: Bond order is 1.5, so paramagnetic.
= p 2 pz < p * 2 p y = p * 2 pz < s * 2 p x
CO: Bond order is 3, so diamagnetic.
Energy order of molecular orbitals in oxygen molecule. NO+: Bond order is 3, so diamagnetic.
63. (a), (c) CN–: Total electrons = 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 He2+ : Bond order is 0.5, so paramagnetic.
MO configuration of CN–: s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2 p 2p2y p 2p2z s 75.
2p2x (a) ã p; (b) ã q; (c) ã p; (d) ã s
2 2 2
s * 1s s 2s s * 2s p 2p2y 2 2
p 2p z s 2p x (a) IO2F2− : H = (7 + 2 – 0 +1)/2 = 5 = sp3d
Bond order = (1/2)(10 – 4) = 3 (b) F2SeO: H = (6 + 2 – 0 + 0)/2 = 4 = sp3
NO+: Total electrons = 7 + 8 − 1 = 14
(c) ClOF3: H = (7 + 3 – 0 + 0)/2 = 5 = sp3d
MO configuration of NO+ : s 1s2 s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2s 2p2x p 2p2x p 2p2y
(d) XeF5+ : H = (8 + 5 – 1 + 0)/2 = 6 = sp3d2
s * 1s2 s 2s2 s * 2s2s 2p2x p 2p2x p 2p2y
Bond order = (1/2)(10 − 4) = 3 76. (a) ã p, q; (b) ã p, q, r; (c) ã p, q, r, s; (d) ã p, q, r, s
Both PCl3F2 and PCl2F3 have sp3d hybridization with
Passage Type
trigonal bipyramidal shape.
64. (a) Conceptual Both BF3 and BCl3 have sp2 hybridization with trigonal
planar shape and also the dipole moments are zero in
65. (d) Conceptual
both the cases (dipole moment cancels each other).
66. (b) H2 > He (according to higher surface area) and T2 > D2 > 2−
Both CO2 and CN2 have sp hybridization with linear
H2 (according to higher molecular weight). geometry, zero dipole moment, and also have same
67. (b) Because of positive charge on N, the electrons are closer number of electrons, that is, 22.
to the N, so bond is slightly shorter. C6H6 known as benzene and B3N3H6 known as borazine
68. (d) Conceptual are planar molecules with aromatic character; B and C
69. (c) Conceptual atoms undergo sp2 hybridization, have equal dipole
moments and total number of electrons is 30.
70. (c) The PF3 molecule has lone pair of electrons on F atom
and P has vacant d-orbitals. The small size of F atom leads 77. (a) ã p, r, s; (b) ã p, q; (c) ã r, s
to pp–dp bonding in PF3.
BrF5: H = (7 + 5 – 0 +0)/2 = sp3d2
Partial double bond It contains five bond pairs and one lone pairs and the
pp −dp structure is square pyramidal.
P P
+
F F F F F F
Br
71. (b) XeF3+ : H = (8 + 3 – 1 + 0)/2 = 5 = sp3d
F F
AB5 → AB3L2 → Two lone pairs
SF3+ = (6 + 3 – 1 + 0)/2 = 4 = sp3 F F
F
AB4 → AB3L → One lone pair
It has at least one angle less than 90° and it is non-planar
CF3+ : (4 + 3 – 1 + 0)/2 = 3 = sp2 in structure and central atom Br has only one lone pair
of electron.
AB3 → Zero lone pair
ICl3: H = (7 + 3 – 0 + 0)/2 = 5 = sp3d It is non-planar structure, and central atom oxygen has
It contains three bond pairs and two lone pairs and the one lone pair of electrons.
structure is T-shaped.
Integer Type
Cl
78. (0) SF4 is see-saw shaped. Its bond angles are 186° and 116°.
Cl l 79. (6) All the given ions show pseudo-inert gas configuration.
80. (9) Total = 1 − 3 + (−2) + (−1) + 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = +9
Cl −3 −2 −1 0 +1 +2 +3 +4 +5
N H3 , N2 H4 , NH2OH, N2 , N2 O, N O, N2 O3 , N O2 , N2 O5
In the above structure due to the presence of two lone
pair electrons, it has at least one angle less than 90°. 81. (7) The structure showing lone pairs is
O
H3O+: H = (6 + 3 – 1 + 0)/2 = 4 = sp3
It has three bond pairs and one lone pair. So, the structure N
is pyramidal.
O O H
1 3
82. (4) [N C Ag C N]−
2 4
O+
H H H
F F
Cl
ClF3 2 3 T-shape
F F
F
(Continued)
(Continued)
F F
F F
F F
F F
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 Real Gases
2008 Real Gases
2009 Real Gases, Kinetic Theory of Gases
2010 Gas Laws
2011 Real Gases Gas Laws, Kinetic Theory of Gases
2012 Real Gases Real Gases
2013 Kinetic Theory of Gases
2014 Real Gases, Kinetic Theory of Gases, Mixture of Gases
Gas Laws, Mixture of Gases
2015 Kinetic Theory of Gases, Real Gases
Real Gases, Kinetic Theory of Gases, Kinetic Theory of Gases, Properties
2016
Gas Laws of Liquids
SUMMARY
1. Intermolecular forces are the bonds which hold atoms in molecules together. They are classified as London or dispersion forces,
dipole–dipole, dipole–induced dipole and hydrogen bonds.
2. The gas laws
(a) Boyle’s law states that the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure at a constant temperature.
1
p∝
V
k1
⇒p= or pV = k1
V
or p1V1 = p2V2
(b) Charles’ law gives temperature–volume relationship at a constant pressure (V ∝ T ). It states that at constant pressure, the volume
of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (in K).
V
V1 = k2T or = k2
T
At absolute zero temperature, translational motion (motion from point to point) ceases. This absolute zero corresponds to the
zero point on the Kelvin temperature scale or Absolute temperature scale. To obtain a Kelvin temperature, we add 273.15°C
to the Celsius temperature.
TKelvin = 273.15 + TCelsius
(c) Gay–Lussac’s law states that at a constant volume, pressure of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to the temperature.
p
p = k3T or k3 =
T
(d) Avogadro’s law explains that volume of all the gases under the same pressure and temperature condition is directly propor-
tional to the amount of substance. At constant T and p
V ∝n
V = k4n
3. Combined gas law states that the ratio of pV/T is constant for a fixed amount of gas.
p1V1 p2V2
=
T1 T2
V1 > V2 > V3
V3
V2
p V1
4. Ideal gas equation can be derived from the above gas laws, that is, pV = nRT, where R is called the universal gas constant. The value
of R depends on the units to express the four variables p, v, n and T. The value of R = 0.082057 L atm mol−1 K−1 if we express volume
in litres, pressure in atmosphere and temperature in Kelvin.
Under the condition of temperature 273.15 K and 1 bar pressure, we get R = 8.314 JK−1mol−1
5. Density and molar mass measurement of a gas: Using the ideal gas equation, pV = nRT, and substituting n = m/M, where m is the
given mass and M is the molar mass, we get
m
pV = RT
M
m
Rearranging, we get pM = RT ⇒ pM = rRT
V
where r is the density of the gas. Hence, knowing density of a substance, molar mass can be calculated as
rRT
M=
p
6. Dalton’s law of partial pressure states that the total pressure of a non-reacting gaseous mixture in a system is the sum of the par-
tial pressures of each component gas.
ptotal = pA + pB + pC +
where ptotal is the total pressure of the mixture, and pA, pB, pC, etc. are the individual pressures of components A, B, C, etc.
7. Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the partial pressure of moisture in air to its vapour pressure.
pH2 O in air
%Relative humidity = × 100
Vapor pressure of H2O
8. Graham’s law of effusion and diffusion states that rate of effusion of different gases is inversely proportional to the square roots
of their densities at the same temperature and pressure.
k
Effusion rate(r ) = ( when compared at the same T and P )
r
At a given temperature, the three molecular speeds can be arranged in the order: ump > uavg > urms .
(b) The average kinetic energy of gas molecules, however, is constant at a given temperature and is related to the absolute tem-
perature by the relation
3RT 3
EK = = kT
2NA 2
300 K
unit speed interval
1200 K
11. Deviation from ideal behaviour (real gas): The molecules of an ideal gas have negligible volume and no attraction or repulsion for
each other. The molecules of a ‘real’ gas obviously do have a volume, and there is some interaction between molecules, especially at
high pressures (i.e., the molecules are pressed close together) and low temperatures (i.e., the molecules move more slowly).
(a) According to the ideal gas law, the ratio pV/T equals a product of two constants, nR. But, experimentally, for real gases pV/T is
actually not quite a constant. When we use experimental values of p, V and T for a real gas, such as O2, to plot actual values of
pV/T as a function of p, we get the curve as shown in below figure. The horizontal line at pV/T = 1 in below figure is what we
should see if pV/T were truly constant over all values of p, as it would be for an ideal gas. It is observed that there is a negative
deviation from ideal behaviour first followed by an increase in the pV value.
N2
2.0 CH4
O2CO2
H2
1.5
Ideal
1.0
pV
RT
gas
0.5
n 2a
pmeas + (Vmeas − n b ) = n RT
V2
Z
TB
Z = 1 (Ideal gas)
T1
T2
p
The Boyle’s temperature is given by
a
TB =
Rb
where TB is Boyle’s temperature
This equation is a power series expansion in variable V. The coefficients B, C… are functions of temperature and are called first virial
coefficient, second virial coefficient and so on. These are substance and temperature specific.
16. Liquefaction of gases
(a) Critical temperature (TC) is the temperature above which the substance in gas phase cannot be converted into a liquid, no
matter how much pressure is applied. It is, thus, the highest temperature at which a substance can exist as a liquid.
8a
TC =
27Rb
(b) Critical pressure (pC) is the minimum pressure that must be applied to liquefy a gas at the critical temperature.
a
pC =
27b2
(c) Volume of 1 mol of gas under the condition of critical temperature and critical pressure is known as critical volume (VC).
VC = 3b
If the values of van der waals constants a and b are known, it possible to calculate pC, VC, and TC from above equation.
pCVC 3
The critical compressibility factor, Z = =
RTC 8
17. The law of corresponding states says that the two gases at same reduced temperature and pressure have same reduced volume.
We can calculate a, b and R in terms of pC, VC and TC from above equation as
VC 8a 8p V
a = pC × 3 × 9b2 = 3pCVC2 ; b = ; R= = C C
3 27TCb 3TC
Using the above values, the van der Waals equation becomes
3 pCVC2 VC 8 pCVC2
p+ 2
V − = ×T
V 3 3TC
p V T
On rearranging the above equation and substituting a = ,b = and g = , we get
pC VC TC
3
a + 2 (3 b − 1) = 8g
b
where a, b and g are known as reduced variable of states and above equation is known as reduced equation of state.
18. Joule–Thomson effect: In this effect, when a compressed gas is allowed to expand into a low pressure under adiabatic conditions,
lowering of temperature is observed. The gas molecules do work at the cost of kinetic energy to overcome the intermolecular forces,
which causes cooling to occur. The relation is given by
∂T
m=
∂p H
The pressure at which gases neither cool nor warm up on expansion, that is, m = 0 is called the inversion point. This temperature is
related to the van der Waals constants by the relation:
2a
Tinv =
Rb
19. Properties of liquid state: Liquids have high density, are essentially incompressible, undergo little thermal expansion, have a fixed
volume but no definite shape. When a liquid evapourates, the molecules that enter the vapour exert a pressure called the vapour
pressure.
20. Surface tension is the force that causes the surface of a liquid to contract. Surface tension is a property that varies with the strength
of intermolecular attractive forces. As the temperature is increased, the kinetic energy of the molecules increases and the strength
of intermolecular forces decreases. Thus, the surface tension decreases with the increase in temperature.
21. Flowing is a change in the form of the liquid, and such resistance to a change in form is called the liquid’s viscosity.
dv dv
F∝A or F = hA
dx dx
where h is a constant that depends on the nature of the liquid and is known as coefficient of viscosity. The SI unit of viscosity coef-
ficient is Newton second per square metre (N sm−2) or Pascal second (Pas = 1 kg m−1 s−1). In the CGS system, the unit for viscosity
coefficient is poise (P). Viscosity also depends on the temperature as the temperature drops, the viscosity increases.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Gas Laws (Boyle’s Law, Charles’ Law, Gay–Lussac’s Law, (3) (4)
Avogadro’s Law)
V = constant
1. Which scientist made the following proposal: “Equal volumes
of gases, under the same conditions of temperature and pres- p pV
sure, contain the same number of particles”?
(a) Gay-Lussac (b) Dalton
(c) Berzelius (d) Avogadro
Solution T T
(d) Avogadro’s law states that equal volumes of gases, under (a) (2), (3) (b) (1), (2) (c) (3), (4) (d) (1), (3)
the same conditions of temperature and pressure, contain
Solution
the same number of particles.
(a) The graph (2) explains the Charles’ law which states that
2. A gas has a volume of 3.86 L at a temperature of 45°C. What the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
will the volume of gas be if its temperature is raised to 80°C, to the absolute temperature at a constant pressure.
while its pressure is kept constant? The graph (3) explains the Gay–Lussac–Charles’ law which
(a) 5.26 L (b) 4.28 L (c) 6.25 L (d) 3.27 L states that the pressure of a given mass of gas is directly
Solution proportional to absolute temperature at a constant
volume.
(b) Using Charles’s law to solve the second volume:
5. For a given 1 mol of ideal gas kept at 6.5 atm in a container
V1T2 3.86 L (353 K )
V2 = = = 4.28 L of capacity 2.463 L, the Avogadro proportionality constant for
T1 318 K the hypothesis is
(a) 22.4 (b) 2.46
3. The vapour pressure of water at 80°C is 355 mm Hg. A one-litre (c) 0.406 (d) 3.25
vessel contains O2 at 80°C, saturated with water vapour the
total pressure being 760 mm Hg. The contents of the vessel Solution
were pumped into 0.3 L vessel at the same temperature. What (c) From Avogadro’s hypothesis,
is the partial pressure of O2?
n ∝ V ⇒ n = kV (1)
(a) 1350 mm Hg (b) 2263.3 mm Hg
(c) 123.5 mm Hg (d) 455 mm Hg For 1 mol of an ideal gas, pV = RT
Solution pV 6.5 × 2.463
or T= = = 195 K
(a) Given that pH2O = 355 mmHg at 80°C , pO2 = 405 mmHg. R 0.0821
According to Boyle’s law, p1V1 = p2V2. Substituting values, we get From ideal gas law, pV = nRT, we have
405 × 1
p1 = = 1350 mmHg pV
0.3 n= (2)
RT
4. Which of the following plots are correct? From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get
(1) (2)
p 6.5
p = constant
k= = = 0.406
T = constant RT 0.0821× 195
V
V 6. For a closed (not rigid) container containing n = 10 mol of
an ideal gas fitted with movable, frictionless, weightless pis-
ton operating such that pressure of the gas remains constant
at 0.821 atm. Which graph represents correct variation of
p T log V vs. log T, where V is in litre and T is in kelvin?
(a) (b) 9. If 10−4 dm3 of water is introduced into a flask at 300 K, how
many moles of water are in the vapour phase when equilib-
rium is established? (Given: Vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K
log V
log V
(a) 1.27 × 10−3 mol (b) 5.56 × 10−3 mol
−2
(c) 1.53 × 10 mol (d) 4.46 × 10−2 mol
45° 35° (AIEEE 2010)
log T log T Solution
(c) (d) (a) Using ideal gas equation pV = nRT, we get
pV 3170 × 10 −5 atm × 1 L
= 1.27 × 10 −3 mol
log V
n= =
RT 0.0821 L atm K −1 mol−1 × 300 K
log T
45°
1 10. The initial volume of a gas cylinder is 750.0 mL. If the pres-
sure of gas inside the cylinder changes from 840.0 mm Hg to
log T 45°
360.0 mm Hg, the final volume of the gas will be
log V
(a) 1.750 L (b) 3.60 L
Solution (c) 4.032 L (d) 7.50 L
(c) From Charles law, we have V ∝ T. Taking log on both sides, (JEE Main 2014 Online)
we get
Solution
log V = log T + log constant (c) ⇒ log V = log T + c
Comparing with y = mx + c, we get, m = 1 and c = 1. So, (a) The ideal gas equation is
θ = 45°. pV = nRT
Ideal Gas Equation Since n, R, T = constant, the equation becomes
7. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and irre- pV = k
versibly in an isolated system. If Ti is the initial temperature p1V1 = p2V2
and Tf is the final temperature, which of the following state- 750 × 840 = 360 × V2
ments is correct? 750 × 840
(a) (Tf )irrev > (Tf )rev V2 =
360
(b) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti for irreversible
process. V2 = 1750 mL = 1.750 L
(c) (Tf )rev = (Tf )irrev
(d) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible processes. 11. The average oxygen content of arterial blood is approxi-
(AIEEE 2006) mately 0.25 g of O2 per litre. Assuming a body temperature
of 37°C, how many moles of oxygen are transported by each
Solution litre of arterial blood and how many millilitres?
(d) In an ideal gas, there are no intermolecular forces of (a) 7.8 × 10−3 and 200 mL (b) 6.8 × 10−3 and 200 mL
attraction. So, Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible −3
(c) 7.8 × 10 and 100 mL (d) 6.8 × 10−3 and 100 mL
processes.
Solution
8. Boron forms a variety of unusual compounds with hydrogen. (a) The number of moles of oxygen per litre of blood is
A chemist isolated 6.3 mg of one of the boron hydrides in a
1 mol O2
glass bulb with a volume of 385 mL at 25°C and a bulb pres- × 0.25 gO2 = 7.8 × 10 −3 mol O2
sure of 11 torr. The molecular mass of the boron hydride in 32 g O2
g mol−1 is Therefore, the volume of oxygen is
(a) 3.68 (b) 27.6
nRT 7.8 × 10 −3 × 0.0821× 310
(c) 36.35 (d) 56.52 V= = = 0.2 L = 200 mL O2
p 1
Solution
(b) Assuming ideal gas law: 12. Assume that you take a flask, evacuate it to remove all the
w wRT air, and find its mass to be 478.1 g. You then fill the flask with
pV = nRT = RT ⇒ M = . Substituting values, we get
M pV argon to a pressure of 2.15 atm and weigh it again. What
would the balance read (in grams) if the flask has a volume of
6.3 × 10 −3 g × 0.082 L atm mol−1 K −1 × 298 K 7.35 L and the temperature is 20.0°C?
M= = 27.6 gmol−1
11/ 760 atm × 385 × 10 −3 L (a) 203.6 g (b) 504.3 g
(c) 471.1 g (d) 523.3 g
Quick Tip/Alternate Solution The first option can be
Solution
neglected easily because boron’s atomic weight is 10.8. So,
molar mass cannot be less than 10.8. (b) Mass of empty flask = 478.1 g, Ar p = 2.15 atm, V = 7.35 L,
T = 293 K. The number of moles of argon is
29.4 × 10 4
h= = 30 m
1000 × 9.8 Mixtures of Gases (Dalton’s Law, Graham’s Law)
16. How many millilitres of H2O vapour measured at 327°C and 18. The ratio of rate of effusion of O2 and H2 from a container
760 torr are formed when 50 mL of ammonia at 950 torr and containing 16 g O2 and 4 g H2 is
127°C reacts with oxygen according to the following reaction? (a) 1:16 (b) 1:4 (c) 1:1 (d) 4:1
Solution 21. A certain gas diffuses from two different vessels A and B. The
(a) From Graham’s law of effusion, vessel A has a circular orifice, while vessel B has a square ori-
fice of length equal to the radius of the orifice of vessel A.
rO2 pO2 MH2 nO2 MH2 Calculate the ratio of the rates of diffusion of the gas from ves-
= × = ×
rH2 pH2 MO2 nH2 MO2 sel A to vessel B, assuming same temperature and pressure.
(a) 1:p (b) p
Since in a closed container, the pressure ratio is equal to (c) 1:1 (d) 2:1
the ratio of number of moles, we have
Solution
rO2 16 / 32 2 0.5 1 1 (b) r ∝ area of orifice
= = × = r1 ∝ p r2 (circle)
rH2 4 / 2 32 2 4 16
r2 ∝ r2 (square)
r1
19. What volume of wet methane (saturated with water vapour) Therefore, =p
would you have to collect at 29°C and 1 atm pressure to be r2
sure that the sample contains 244 mL of dry methane at 950 22. A small quantity of gaseous NH3 and HBr are introduced
torr. [Given that vapour pressure of water at 29°C = 30 torr.] simultaneously into the opposite ends of an open tube that
(a) 317.5 mL (b) 187.5 mL is 1 m long. Calculate the distance of the while solid NH4Br
(c) 305 mL (d) 244 mL formed from the end that was used to introduce NH3.
(a) 68.55 cm (b) 63.5 cm
Solution
(c) 60.09 cm (d) 65.24 cm
(a) The moles of methane gas required is
Solution
pV 950 × 244 (a) By Graham’s law of diffusion
n= = mol
RT RT
rNH3 MHBr 81
Same number of moles of methane should be present = = = 2.18
rHBr MNH3 17
in wet methane, which is saturated with water vapour.
So, wet methane contains water vapour and the partial Thus, NH3 travels 2.18 times faster than HBr. In other words,
pressure of water vapour in it should be equal to the NH3 will travel 2.18 cm in the same time in which HBr trav-
vapour pressure of water for given conditions. els 1 cm. Given that the length of the tube = 100 cm.
Therefore, partial pressure of methane in wet methane =
760 − 30 = 730 torr. Therefore, distance travelled in the tube by NH3
Thus, 2.18
= × 100 = 68.55 cm
nRT 950 × 244 RT 2.18 + 1
V= = = 317.5 mL
pCH4 RT 730 Thus, NH4Br will first appear at a distance of 68.55 cm
from NH3 end.
20. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty
container at 25°C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted
Kinetic Theory of Gases (rms Velocity, Most Probable
by oxygen is
Velocity, Average Velocity, Most Probable Kinetic
1 273 Energy)
(a) 1/2 (b) 2/3 (c) × (d) 1/3
3 298
23. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas,
(AIEEE 2007)
between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels
Solution (a) in a circular path.
(d) Let the mass of methane and oxygen be x because they (b) in a wavy path.
have same masses (c) in a straight line path.
(d) with an accelerated velocity.
Number of moles of oxygen
Mole fraction of oxygen = Solution
Total number of moles
(c) This is one of the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases.
where number of moles of oxygen = x/32 (molecular
mass of O2 is 32) 24. As the temperature is raised from 20°C to 40°C, the average
Number of moles of methane = x/14 (molecular mass of kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a factor of which of
CH4 is 16) the following?
x / 32 1 (a) 1/2 (b) 2
Therefore, mole fraction of oxygen = =
( x / 32) + ( x /16 ) 3 (c) 313/293 (d) 313/ 293
Let the total pressure be p. Then, partial pressure of oxy-
gen is Solution
1 p (c) T1 = 273 + 20 = 293 K and T2 = 273 + 40 = 313 K. As the
pO2 = Mole fraction of oxygen × ptotal = × p = kinetic energy is proportional to the temperature, we have
3 3
Eavg = NA × kT = RT
2 2
Therefore,
300 K Eavg ∝ T
100 K Since, for any ideal gas, average kinetic energy depends
only on the temperature, so, at a given temperature it is
equal for every ideal gas.
Speed The root mean square velocity depends on temperature
as well as on molar mass, so, for two different ideal gases,
From Maxwell distribution, it is clear that average speed it is different at a given temperature.
fraction is greater than root mean square speed.
3RT T
Since speed is inversely proportional to the root of molar vrms = or vrms ∝
mass, heavier molecules move relatively with less speed. M M
Maxwell’s distribution curve of velocity graph flattens on
26. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the increasing temperature, so, the most probable velocity
effect of an increase in temperature on the distribution of fraction is decreased.
molecular speeds in a gas? Since density is directly proportional to the molar mass,
(a) The most probable speed increases. and molar mass of hydrogen is lower than carbon diox-
(b) The fraction of the molecules with the most probable ide, so, density of hydrogen is less than carbon dioxide.
speed increases.
(c) The distribution becomes broader. 29. Which of the following is not an assumption of the kinetic
(d) The area under the distribution curve remains the same theory of gases?
as under the lower temperature. (a) A gas consists of many identical particles which are in
continual motion.
Solution (b) Gas particles have negligible volume.
(b) According to Maxwell’s distribution, the most probable (c) At high pressure, gas particles are difficult to compress.
velocity increases as the fraction of molecules possess- (d) Collisions of gas particles are perfectly elastic.
ing most probable velocity decreases. (JEE Main 2015 Online)
27. For gaseous state, if the most probable speed is denoted by Solution
c*, average speed by c and mean square speed by c, then for (c) According the kinetic theory of gases, gases is highly
a large number of molecules the ratio of these speeds are compressible in nature thus option (c) is not correct.
Real Gases (van der Waals Equation, Compressibility So if the gas is ideal, then its pressure is 1 atm. However,
Factor) it is a real gas, so at different conditions its pressure may
vary from the ideal pressure.
30. In van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the con- If its compressibility factor Z > 1, this indicates that repul-
stant b is a measure of sive forces dominate inside the gas. These repulsive
(a) intermolecular repulsions forces imply that the pressure should be more than ideal
(b) intermolecular collisions per unit volume. pressure, that is, more than 1 atm pressure.
(c) volume occupied by the molecules. pV pb
(d) intermolecular attractions If b dominates, then p(Vm − b ) = RT ⇒ Z = m = 1+
RT RT
Solution This equation implies that Z will be more than one
(c) Volume occupied by the molecules always, and pressure should be more than 1 atm.
The van der Waals equation for 1 mol of gas is: If ‘a’ dominates, then
a pVm a
a
p + 2 Vm = RT ⇒ Z = = 1−
p + 2 (V − b ) = RT Vm RT RTVm
V
where b is the measure of effective size of the gas mole- This equation implies that Z < 1, so the pressure should be
cules. It is also called co-volume or excluded volume. less than 1 atm as the attraction forces will dominate here.
31. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because (a and 34. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals equation at low
b are van der Waals constants for gases). pressure can be written as
(a) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6 (a) Z = 1 + RT/pb (b) Z = 1 − a/VRT
(b) a for Cl2 < a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 > a for C2H6 (c) Z = 1 − pb/RT (d) Z = 1 + pb/RT
(c) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < a for C2H6 (JEE Main 2014)
(d) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6 Solution
(AIEEE 2011) pV
(b) We know that compressibility factor is given by Z =
Solution For 1 mol of gas, we have RT
(c) Ease of liquefaction ∝ a/b a
For easily liquefiable gas, more should be the value of a p + 2 (V − b ) = RT
V
and less should be the value of b.
At low pressure, volume is very high, so V b and thus
32. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is V − b ≈ V.
(a) 1 + RT/pb (b) 1
a a pV a a
(c) 1 + pb/RT (d) 1 − pb/RT p + 2 (V ) = RT ⇒ pV = RT − ⇒ = 1− ⇒ Z = 1−
(AIEEE 2012) V V RT VRT VRT
Solution
35. van der Waals equation for a gas is stated as
(c) According to van der Waals equation, we have 2
nRT n
n2a p= − a
+ V − nb V
p (V − nb ) = nRT
V2 nRT
This equation reduces to the perfect gas equation, p =
At high pressure, a/V2 is very large so it is neglected in when, V
comparison to p. Now, (a) temperature is sufficiently high and pressure is low.
p(V − b) = RT for 1 mol of a gas, that is, n = 1. (b) temperature is sufficiently low and pressure is high.
pV = RT + pb (c) both temperature and pressure are very high.
(d) both temperature and pressure are very low.
pV pb (JEE Main 2014 Online)
or = 1+
RT RT Solution
pb (a) If temperature is sufficiently high and pressure is low,
Z= +1
RT Vm will be sufficiently large and thus term a/Vm2 will be
where Z is known as the compressibility factor. negligibly small. At this stage b also becomes negligible
compared to Vm, thus
33. Select the correct statement about compressibility factor of
1 mol gas which is kept inside a 22.4 L vessel at 273 K. pV = nRT
(a) For Z > 1 the pressure of gas will be less than 1 atm. nRT
(b) For Z > 1 the pressure of gas will be more than 1 atm. p=
V
(c) If ‘b’ dominates, pressure will be less than 1 atm.
36. A real gas obeys the equation of state p(V − nb) = nRT where
(d) If ‘a’ dominates, pressure will be greater than 1 atm.
b is van der Waals constant and R is the gas constant. If the
Solution pressure and temperature are such that the molar volume of
nRT 1× 0.082 × 273 the gas is 10b, what is the value of compressibility factor?
(b) Using ideal gas law: p = = = 1 atm
V 22.4 (a) 10/9 (b) 8/9 (c) 12/11 (d) 10/11
Solution
1/ 2 (c) CO ( p = 1 atm, T = 273 K ) (r) pV = nRT
2
3RT
(a) Since urms =
M
(d) Real gas with very large (s) p(V − nb ) = nRT
1/ 2
molar volume
3kT (IIT-JEE 2007)
or urms = (1)
M Solution
The kinetic energy = 3/2 kT or 2E = 3kT. Substituting in (a) → p, s; (b) → r; (c) → p, q; (d) → p, s
Eq. (1), we get In option (a): Z = 1 for ideal gas. For real gases, Z is not
equal to 1. At low temperature and high
2E
1/ 2 pressure, van der Waals equation (p + an2/
urms = V2) (V − nb) = nRT reduces to p(V − nb) = nRT.
M
In option (b): For H2 gas, the value of Z = 1 at p = 0 and it
4. The given graph in the figure below represents the var- increases continuously on increasing p.
iation of Z (compressibility factor = pV/nRT) vs. p, for 1.6 H2
three real gases A, B and C. Identify the only incorrect 1.4
statement. 1.2
nRT
Ideal gas
pV
A 1.0
C 0.8
Z=
Ideal gas
A 0.6
B
0.4
1 C
0 200 400 600 800
Z B p/bar
In option (c): CO2 molecules have larger attractive forces,
0 under normal conditions.
In option (d): As Z = pVm/RT, at very large molar volume Z is
p (atm) not equal to 1.
(a) For the gas A, a = 0 and its dependence on p is linear at all 6. A gas described by van der Waals equation
pressures. (a) behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large molar
(b) For the gas B, b = 0 and its dependence on p is linear at all volumes.
pressures. (b) behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large pressures.
(c) For the gas C, which is typical real gas for which nei- (c) is characterized by van der Waals coefficients that are
ther a nor b = 0. By knowing the minima and the dependent on the identity of the gas but are independent
point of intersection, with Z = 1, a and b can be of the temperature.
calculated. (d) has the pressure that is lower than the pressure exerted
(d) At high pressure, the slope is positive for all real gases. by the same gas behaving ideally.
(IIT-JEE 2006) (IIT-JEE 2008)
Solution
Solution (a), (c), (d) The van der Waals equation is
(b) b relates to the incompressible volume of the molecules n2a
and measures the effective size of gas molecules. p + 2 (V − nb ) = RT
V
Z = pV / RT = 1 for an ideal gas.
At low pressure, when the sample occupies a large vol-
5. Match gases under specified conditions listed in Column I ume, the intermolecular forces do not play any significant
with their properties/laws in Column II. role and the gas behaves like an ideal.
Constants a and b are called van der Waals constants and
Column I Column II their value depends on the characteristic of a gas. Value of
a is a measure of magnitude of intermolecular attractive
(a) Hydrogen gas (p) Compression factor ≠ 1 forces within the gas and is independent of temperature
( p = 200 atm, T = 273 K ) and pressure.
The observed p correction term is added as
(b) Hydrogen gas (q) Attractive forces are
( p ~ 0 , T = 273 K ) dominant an2
pideal = preal +
V2
Pressure exerted by real gas is lower than the pressure (c) only a small number of molecules have very high velocity.
exerted by the ideal gas. (d) between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines
with constant velocities.
7. The term that corrects for the attractive forces present in a
(IIT-JEE 2011)
real gas in the van der Waals equation is
an2 an2 Solution
(a) nb (b) 2 (c) − (d) −nb
V V2 (a), (b), (c), (d)
(IIT-JEE 2009) Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly elastic which means
that the total energy of the molecules before and after the
Solution collision remains the same.
(b) The measure of forces of attraction for n mol of real gas Heavier particles transfer more momentum because momen-
(n2a/V2) in the following van der Waals equation tum depends on the mass.
Only a small number of molecules possess very high velocity.
n2a Particles of gas move in all possible directions in straight
p + 2 (V − nb ) = nRT
V lines. The distribution of speed remains constant at a par-
ticular temperature.
8. At 400 K, the root mean square (rms) speed of a gas X (molec-
ular weight = 40) is equal to the most probable speed of gas 11. For 1 mol of a van der Waals gas when b = 0 and T = 300 K, the
Y at 60 K. The molecular weight of the gas Y is _________. pV vs. 1/V plot is shown in figure below. The value of the van
(IIT-JEE 2009) der Waals constant a (atm L2 mol−2) is
Solution
(4) Given that urms (X gas) at 400 K = ump (Y gas) at 60 K, (Graph not to scale)
24.6
molecular weight M1 = 40, M2 = ?, T1 = 400 K and
pV (L atm mol−1)
T2 = 60 K. Therefore, 23.1
21.6
3RT1 2RT2 20.1
=
M1 M2
400 × 3 × R 2 × R × 60
=
40 M2
10. According to kinetic theory of gases, Passage for Questions 12 and 13: X and Y are two volatile liquids
(a) collisions are always elastic. with molar weights of 10 g mol−1 and 40 g mol−1, respectively.
(b) heavier molecules transfer more momentum of the wall Two cotton plugs, one soaked in X and the other soaked in Y, are
of the container. simultaneously placed at the ends of a tube of length L = 24 cm,
18. Oxygen is present in 1 L flask at a pressure of 7.6 × 10−10 mm 7.6 × 10 −10
atm (1L )
Hg. Calculate the number of oxygen molecules in the flask 760
n=
pV
= = 4.459 × 10 −14 mol
at 0°C.
RT (0.0821 atm L K −1 mol−2 )(273.15 K )
(a) 2.686 × 1010 (b) 26.86 × 1010
(c) 0.626 × 10 12 (d) 4.123 × 108
N = nNA = (4.459 × 10−14 mol−1) = 2.686 × 1010
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I (c) its pressure is more than critical pressure.
(d) its temperature is more than Boyle’s temperature.
Single Correct Choice Type
10. Which of the following statements is correct as shown in the
1. The ratio between the root mean square speed of H2 at 50 K graph?
and root mean square speed of O2 at 800 K is
H2
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 8:1 at 0°C
N2 CO2
He CH4
2. A real gas is supposed to obey the gas equation p(V − b) = RT
at STP. If 1 mol of a gas occupies 25 dm3 volume at STP, then its
compressibility factor is (b = 2.586 L mol−1) Z=1 Ideal gas
(a) 1.115 (b) 0.115 (c) 0.784 (d) 0.885
15. The compressibility factor Z = ( pV /RT ) for 1 mol of a real gas 25. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the rms velocity of
is greater than unity at a pressure of 1 atm and 273.15 K. The nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the gas
molar volume of the gas at STP will be (a) T(H2) = T(N2) (b) T(H2) > T(N2)
(a) less than 22.4 L. (b) greater than 22.4 L. (c) T(H2) < T(N2) (d) T(H2) > 7 T(N2)
(c) equal to 22.4 L. (d) none of these.
16. 20 mL of O2 gas passed through a square pin hole of side x in 26. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant
5 s at 4 atm pressure, whereas 40 mL of unknown gas passed pressure varies with density (d) as
through a circular pin hole of radius x in 2 s at 7 atm pressure. (a) d 2 (b) d (c) d (d) 1/ d
The molecular mass of unknown gas is
27. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen mol-
(a) 3.8 g (b) 38.72 g (c) 387.2 g (d) 19.36 g
ecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of a helium
17. Compressibility factor for 1 mol of a van der Waals gas at atom is
0 °C and 100 atm pressure is found to be 0.5. The volume (a) two times that of a hydrogen molecule.
occupied by the gas is (b) same as that of a hydrogen molecule.
(a) 2.0224 L (b) 1.4666 L (c) four times that of a hydrogen molecule.
(c) 0.8542 L (d) 0.1119 L (d) half that of a hydrogen molecule.
18. Rate of effusion of LPG (a mixture of n-butane and propane) is 28. When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no
1.25 times that of SO3. The mole fraction of n-butane in LPG is cooling occurs because the molecules
(a) 0.75 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.67 (a) are above the inversion temperature.
19. The ratio of speeds of diffusion of two gases A and B is 1:4. (b) exert no attractive forces on each other.
If the ratio of their mass present in the mixture is 2:3, then (c) do work equal to loss in kinetic energy.
which of the following is the ratio of their mole-fractions? (d) collide without loss of energy.
(a) 24:1 (b) 1:24 (c) 32:1 (d) 3:17
29. The graph of Maxwell–Boltzmann distribution of molecular
20. At 47°C and 16.0 atm, the molar volume of NH3 gas is about velocities is shown below
10% less than the molar volume of an ideal gas. Which of the
following is the true reason? T1
Fraction of molecules
24. A sample of carbon monoxide was prepared and collected (c) (d) Gas D
Gas C
over water at a temperature of 20°C and a total pressure of
754 torr. It occupied a volume of 268 mL. Calculate the dry p pV
volume (in mL) of CO under a pressure of 1 atm and 20°C.
(Partial pressure of water at 20°C is 17.54 torr).
(n, V, const.) (n, const.)
(a) 239 mL (b) 260 mL
T
(c) 285 mL (d) 290 mL V
31. The temperature of an ideal gas can be raised by (c) Bulb B weighs more than bulb A.
(a) decreasing the volume but keeping the quantity and (d) Bulb A contains more number of molecules than bulb B.
pressure fixed.
39. Which of the following statements are wrong?
(b) decreasing the quantity but keeping the volume and
(a) In mixture of equal weights of O2 and H2 gases, the fraction
pressure fixed.
of the partial pressure exerted by O2 is more than that of H2.
(c) decreasing the pressure but keeping the quantity and
(b) At high p and low T, gases approach ideal behaviour.
volume fixed.
(c) When gases are collected over water, pobserved = pdry gas
(d) decreasing the pressure and volume but keeping the
+ Aqueous tension.
quantity fixed.
(d) At critical state the compressibility factor for 1 mol of
32. The pressure exerted by 12 g of an ideal gas at temperature gas = 1.
T(°C) in a vessel of volume V is 1 atm. When the tempera-
40. Which of the following indicate kinetic gas equation?
ture is increased by 10°C at the same volume, the pressure
increases by 10%. If molecular weight of the gas is 120, the (a) pV = (1/ 3)mnu2 (b) pV = nRT
temperature (T°C) and volume (V) are 2
(a) T = −273°C, V = 0.082 L (b) T = −173°C, V = 0.82 L (c) 3 p = du2 (d) pV = (1/ 3)Mu
(c) T = 0°C, V = 22.4 L (d) T = 27°C, V = 22.4 L 41. If temperature of a gas is raised, which of the following would
33. At what temperature will the rate of effusion of N2 be 1.625 be true?
times the rate of effusion of SO2 at 500°C? (a) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable
(a) 273 K (b) 830 K velocity will increase.
(c) 110 K (d) 173 K (b) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable
velocity will decrease.
34. Many laboratory gases are sold in steel cylinders with a vol-
(c) Fraction possessing very low velocity will decrease.
ume of 43.8 L. What mass (in grams) of argon is inside a cylin-
(d) Fraction possessing very high velocity will increase.
der whose pressure is 17,180 kPa at 20°C?
(a) 1.33 × 104 g (b) 1.23 × 104 g 42. What conclusion would you draw from the following graphs
4
(c) 1.13 × 10 g (d) 1.03 × 104 g for an ideal gas?
35. Two glass bulbs A and B at same temperature are connected V p
by a very small tube having a stop cock. Bulb A has a volume
of 100 cm3 and contained the gas, while bulb B was empty.
On opening the stop cock, the pressure fell down to 20%. The
volume of the bulb B is
(a) 1200 cm3 (b) 800 cm3 T(°C) T(°C)
(c) 600 cm 3 (d) 400 cm3
(a) As the temperature is reduced, the volume as well as the
36. Dry ice (solid CO2) has occasionally been used as an explo- pressure increases.
sive in mining. A hole is drilled, dry ice and a small amount of
(b) As the temperature is reduced, the volume becomes
gun powder are placed in the hole, a fuse is added, and the
zero and the pressure reaches infinity.
hole is plugged. When lit, it explodes up with an immense
(c) As the temperature is reduced, the pressure decreases.
pressure. Assume that 500.0 g of dry ice is placed in a cavity
(d) A point is reached where, theoretically, the volume
with a volume of 0.800 L and the ignited gunpowder heats
becomes zero.
the CO2 to 700 K. What is the final pressure inside the hole?
(a) 416 atm (b) 816 atm 43. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) 616 atm (d) 1216 atm
(a) Z (compressibility factor) for ideal gas is independent of
temperature and pressure.
Level II (b) Z for ideal gas is greater than one.
Multiple Correct Choice Type (c) Z for non-ideal gas is either greater than one or less than
one as well as dependent on temperature and pressure.
37. A gas obeys p(V − b) = RT. Which of the following are correct
(d) When Z > 1, force of attraction dominates over force of
about this gas?
repulsion.
(a) Isochoric curves have slope = R/(V − b ).
(b) Isobaric curves have slope R/p and intercept b 44. Which of the following are correct?
(c) For the gas the compressibility factor = 1+ ( pb / RT ) .
(d) The attractive forces are overcome by repulsive forces. (a) Ne > O2 > F2 > SO 2 (Order of rate of diffusion at same
T and p).
38. A bulb A of volume V contains H2 gas and another bulb B
(b) 1 g H2 > 1 g He > 1 g CH4 > 1 g O 2 (Total K.E. at same T).
of same volume contains CH4 gas at same T exerting same
pressure. Which of the following are correct? (c) ump > uaverage > urms (order of value of velocities).
(a) Both the bulbs contain equal number of moles.
(b) The average kinetic energy of molecules in both the (d) N2 > O2 > O3 > SO2 (order of average K.E. per molecule
bulbs is same. at same T).
45. Precisely 1 mol of helium and 1 mol of neon are placed in a (c) For hydrogen gas b dominates over a at all temperatures.
container. Indicate the correct statements about the system: (d) At high pressure van der Waals constant b dominates
(a) Molecules of the two gases strike the wall of the con- over a.
tainer with same frequency.
52. In the equation pV = RT, the value of R will not depend on
(b) Molecules of helium strike the wall more frequently.
(a) the nature of the gas.
(c) Molecules of helium has greater average molecular
(b) the temperature of the gas.
speed.
(c) the pressure of the gas.
(d) Helium exerts larger pressure.
(d) units of measurement.
46. Which of the following statement(s) is are correct?
53. Which of the following statements is(are) correct?
(a) Gas molecules never come to rest except at 0 K.
(b) At T > 0, some gas molecules are unfortunate not to pos- (a) At constant temperature, the gas density is directly pro-
sess translational kinetic energy. portional to pressure.
(c) On raising temperature, fraction of molecules possess- (b) At higher pressures, gases deviate from Boyle’s law.
ing most probable velocity increases. (c) Plots of p vs. T at constant volumes for an ideal gas are
(d) At a given temperature the most probable velocity var- parabolic.
ies inversely with the square root of vapour density of (d) At −273 K gases have zero volume which corresponds to
the gas. solid state.
47. Which of the following statements are correct? 54. Which of the following statements are not correct?
(a) It is not possible to compress a gas at a temperature (a) Surface tension of liquids decreases with increase in
below TC. temperature.
(b) At a temperature below TC, the molecules are close (b) The viscosity of a liquid increases with decrease of
enough for the attractive forces to act, and condensa- temperature.
tion occurs. (c) Liquids diffuse faster than gases.
(c) No condensation takes place above TC. (d) Gases can be liquefied only above their critical
(d) The kinetic energy of the gas molecules is higher above temperatures.
TC, is considered as super critical fluid.
48. According to Graham’s law at a given temperature, the ratio
Passage Type
of the rates of diffusion rA rB of gases A and B is given by Passage for Questions 55–57: Density (d ) of gas is inversely pro-
1/ 2 1/ 2 portional to absolute temperature and directly proportional to
pA MA MA pA
(a) × (b) × pressure
pB MB MB pB
p dT dT d T
1/ 2 ⇒d ∝ ⇒ = constant ⇒ 1 1 = 2 2
pA MB p dB T p p1 p2
(c) × (d) A
pB MA pB dA
Density at a particular temperature and pressure can be calcu-
49. If a gas is expanded at constant temperature lated by using ideal gas equation
(a) the pressure decreases. Mass
(b) the kinetic energy of the molecules remains the same. pV = nRT ⇒ pV = × RT
Molar mass ( M )
(c) the kinetic energy of the molecules decreases.
(d) the number of molecules of the gas increases. Mass
p×M = × RT ⇒ p × M = d × RT
50. The van der Waals parameters of two gases are given as: Volume
pext = 1.0 atm Throughout (c) pT vs. T2 for ideal gas at (r)
Valve 1 Valve 2 T = 300 K constant V and n
He N2
0.0 atm
4.1 atm 0.82 atm
82. How many of the following factors can affect the transla-
84. Root mean square speed of a gas at 300 K is 3 R ms −1. The
tional kinetic energy of an ideal gas?
molar mass of gas in g is expressed as 10 x . Find x.
(a) temperature (b) pressure
(c) molar mass (d) force 85. A 4:1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is contained in a vessel
(e) molecular diameter at 20 atm pressure. Due to hole in the vessel the gas mix-
ture leaks out. The molar ratio of He and CH4 effusing out
83. Find the number of correct statements among the initially is y:1. Find the value of y.
following. 86. The stopcock, connecting the two bulbs of volumes 5 L and
(a) The compressibility factor for He is [1+ ( pb / RT )] . 10 L containing an ideal gas at 9 atm and 6 atm respectively,
(b) The numerical value of van der Waals constant ‘a’ for is opened. What is the final pressure in the two bulbs if the
H2O is higher than C6H6 due to H-bonding. temperature remained the same?
(c) Ideal gas does not show Joule–Thomson effect.
(d) All molecules of an ideal gas move with same speed. 87. If 1023 gas molecules each having a mass of 10–25 kg, placed
(e) Gases like CO2 and NH3 can never show positive in a 1 L container, move with rms speed of 105 cm s−1 then
deviation. the total kinetic energy of gaseous molecules in kJ is
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b)
Level II
37. (a), (b), (c), (d) 38. (a), (b), (c) 39. (a), (b), (d) 40. (a), (c), (d) 41. (b), (c), (d) 42. (c), (d)
43. (a), (c) 44. (a), (b) 45. (b), (c) 46. (a), (d) 47. (b), (c), (d) 48. (c), (d)
49. (a), (b) 50. (a), (c) 51. (a), (b), (d) 52. (a), (b), (c) 53. (a) (b) 54. (c), (d)
55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (a)
67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → r
71. (a)→ r; (b) →s; (c) → q; (d) →p 72. (a)→ q; (b) →r; (c) →p; (d) →s 73. (a) →r; (b)→ s; (c)→p; (d)→ q
74. (a) → p; (b) → r; (c) → s; (d) → q 75. (a)→r; (b)→s; (c)→q; (d)→p 76. (a) → s; (b) →p; (c) → r; (d) →q
77. (9) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (4) 81. (7) 82. (1)
83. (2) 84. (5) 85. (8) 86. (7) 87. (5)
Since, the amount of nitrogen remains unchanged, therefore, Since Mmix = xbutane Mbutane + xpropane Mpropane
partial pressure of Therefore,
p V
N2 = X X 51.2 = 58 xbutane + 44(1− xbutane )
VX + VY
⇒ 7.2 = 14 xbutane
660 × 250
= 300 torr ⇒ xbutane = 0.5
550
pYVY 825 × 300 19. (b) Since,
Partial pressure of Ne = = = 450 torr rA 1 MB
VX + VY 550 = =
Therefore, total pressure = (300 + 450 ) = 750 torr rB 4 MA
=
(748.0 torr ) (1 atm
760 torr ) (39.95 g mol−1) law; (c) represents Gay–Lussac’s law and (d) represents
non-ideal gas curve.
( L atm
0.0821 mol K )(293.80 K) 31. (b) From the ideal gas equation pV = nRT, we find that decreas-
= 1.63 gL−1 ing the quantity but keeping the volume and pressure
22. (c) First determine the number of moles from the ideal gas fixed leads to rise in the temperature of an ideal gas.
law: 12
32. (b) Moles of gas = 0.1
n=
pV (10.0
=
torr) 760(
1 atm
torr )(
255 mL 1000 1L
mL )( ) = 1.37 × 10−4 mol 120
RT ( L atm
0.0821 mol K
( 298 .2 K )
) pV = nRT or 1 × V = 0.1 × R (273 + t) (1)
Mass of Argon = moles (n) × Atomic mass of Ar = 308.8 51. (a), (b), (d) The temperature at which real gas approaches
× 40 = 12,352 g = 1.2352 × 104 g. ideal behaviour for appreciable range of pressure is called
Boyle’s temperature.
35. (d) Given that V1 = 100 cm3, p1= 100 atm and p2 = 20 atm.
For hydrogen gas b does not dominate over a at all
Thus, V2 can be found as
temperatures.
p1V1 100 × 100 At high pressure, van der Waals constant b dominates over a.
V2 = = = 500 cm3
p2 20 For 1 mol of ideal gas piVi = RT (1)
Level II Its value does not depend on the temperature and pressure,
hence its value is constant but it depends on the units of
Multiple Correct Choice Type measurement.
37. (a), (b), (c), (d) Conceptual pV
R=
38. (a), (b), (c) Conceptual nT
39. (a), (b), (d) Conceptual In S.I. units, pressure is expressed in N m−2 and volume in m3,
then R value is
40. (a), (c), (d) Conceptual
1, 01, 325 × 22.4 × 10 −3
41. (b), (c), (d) On increasing temperature, Maxwell’s curve of R= = 8.31 JK −1 mol−1
distribution of molecular velocities is flattened and maxi- 1× 273.15
mum is shifted to higher velocity. Likewise, R values have the different values like 0.0821
42. (c), (d) Conceptual L atm K−1 mol−1, 0.0831 bar L K−1 mol−1, all depending on
the unit of measurement.
43. (a), (c) Conceptual
44. (a), (b) Conceptual 53. (a), (b) At constant temperature, the density is directly pro-
portional to pressure
45. (b), (c) Conceptual
r
46. (a), (d) Conceptual p= RT ⇒ p ∝ r
M
47. (b), (c), (d) It is possible to compress a gas at a temperature where ρ is the density of gas. Since V ∝ 1/p, if pressure is high,
below TC. the gas deviates from ideal behaviour and it deviates from
48. (c), (d) Conceptual Boyle’s law. Plot of p vs. T at constant volumes for an ideal gas
is a straight line. This is based on Gay-Lussac law.
49. (a), (b) Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, thus,
option (a) is correct. Average kinetic energy of a gas is directly
At constant V
proportional to absolute temperature, thus, option (b) is correct.
p
50. (a), (c) The critical temperature is given by
8a
TC =
27 Rb
T
8 × 6.5
For gas A: TC = = 413.85 dm3mol−1
27 × 0.0831× 0.056 54. (c), (d) Gases diffuse faster than liquid because in gases, the
intermolecular distance is quite large. As a result, there is less
8 × 18 force of attraction between the molecules. In liquids, inter-
For gas B: TC = = 5834.6 dm3mol−1
27 × 0.0831× 0.011 molecular distance is less in comparison to gases and weak
forces of attraction are present.
The critical volume is given by VC = 3b
Gases can be liquefied only at or below their critical tem-
Gas A: VC = 3 × 0.056 = 0.168 dm3 mol−1 perature (the temperature above which it cannot be lique-
Gas B: VC = 3 × 0.011 = 0.033 dm3 mol−1 fied by application of pressure).
Actual volume of the gas molecules per mole = no attractions among their molecules
b 0.05
= L = 0.0125 L dT
4 4 d p = 0 .
H
76. (a) ã s; (b) ã p; (c) ã r; (d) ã q
For satatement (d): All molecules of an ideal gas do not
Integer Type move with same speed but their aver-
age speed is same.
nRT an2 2 × 0.0821× 300 6.25 × 2 × 2 For satatement (e): Gases like CO2 and NH3 will show posi-
77. (9) p = − 2 = − =9
V − nb V 5 − (2 × 0.037) 5×5 tive deviation at high pressure.
84. (5)
7.6 × 10 −10 × 0.56 22.4 3RT
78. (3) = n× × 273 ⇒ n = 2.5 × 10 −14 urms =
760 273 M
Therefore, number of atoms = 2.5 × 10 −14 × 2 × 6 × 1023 = 3 × 1010 3RT
3 R=
−14 23 10 M
2.5 × 10 × 2 × 6 × 10 = 3 × 10
3RT
r ( O2 ) T 64 T or 9R =
79. (4) = 1.6 = × ⇒ 1.6 = M
r (SO2 ) 32 400 200 3T 3 × 300
or M = = = 100 kg mol−1 = 105 g mol−1
T 9 9
1.6 × 1.6 = ⇒ 2.56 × 200 = T ⇒ 128 × 4 = T
200
Hence, x = 5
80. (4) Number of moles is given by
pV rHe MCH4 n 16 4
n= 85. (8) For effusion = × He = × = 8 :1
ZRT rCH4 MHe nCH4 4 1
1× 800
n330 K = 86. (7) For the first bulb
1.9 × R × 330
p1V1 = n1RT
V × 200 For the second bulb,
n570 K =
1.1× R × 570 p2V2 = n2RT
By equalizing these two, we get V = 4 L
On adding: p1V1 + p2V2 = (n1 + n2 )RT (1)
p w M
81. (7) 1 = 1 × 2 When the stopcock is opened, the total volume is (V1 + V2)
p2 M1 w2
and total number of moles is (n1 + n2). Suppose the equilib-
1.0 22 28 rium pressure at each bulb is p atm. Then,
= × ⇒ w2 = 7 g
0.5 44 w2 p (V1 + V2 ) = (n1 + n2 ) RT (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we have
3
82. (1) Translational K .E. = RT ( for 1 mol). It depends only on
2 p1V1 + p2V2 = p(V1 + V2 ) (3)
temperature.
Given that, p1 = 9 atm, V1 = 5 L, p2 = 6 atm, V2 = 10 L.
83. (2) Statement (a) and (c) are correct.
Substituting the given values in Eq. (3), we get
a 9 × 5 + 6 × 10 = p × 15
For satatement (a): P + 2 (V − b ) = RT
V p = 7 atm
pV pb
Therefore, Z = = 1+ 87. (5) According to kinetic energy of gaseous molecules
RT RT
1
For satatement (b): a is more for C6H6 due to high molecular K.E. total = m(urms )2 × N
mass. 2
= 5 kJ
For satatement (c): Internal energy of an ideal gas depends
on temperature only. Since, they have
T1T2
(a) According to van der Waals equation, for one mole of a gas (a) 2pi T1T2 (b) pi
T + T T1 + T2
1 2
a
p + 2 (V − b ) = RT (1) T1 T
V (c) 2pi (d) 2pi 2
T1 + T2 T1 + T2
At high pressure, a can be neglected
V2 (Offline)
Solution
a
So, p+ ≈p (2) (d) Applying combined gas law (for both initial and final
V2
states)
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get (Initial moles) n1 = n2 (Final moles)
p(V − b) = RT pV p × V pf × V pf × V
i
pV − pb = RT + i = +
RT1 RT1 RT2 RT1
pV = RT + pb
V pi pi V pf pf
Dividing both the sides by RT + = +
R T1 T1 R T2 T1
pV pb
= 1+ 2 pi 1 1
RT RT = pf +
T1 T2 T1
pb
Z = 1+
RT 2 pi T +T
= pf 1 2
T1 T1T2
2. Initially, the root mean square (rms) velocity of N2 molecules
at certain temperature is u. If this temperature is doubled and T
all the nitrogen molecules dissociate into nitrogen atoms, then pf = 2 pi 2
T1 + T2
the new rms velocity will be
(a) 2u. (b) 14u. (c) 4u. (d) u/2.
JEE Advanced 2016
(Online)
Solution 1. The diffusion coefficient of an ideal gas is proportional to its
3RT mean free path and mean speed. The absolute temperature of
(a) Root mean square (rms) velocity of N2 molecule, u = an ideal gas is increased 4 times and its pressure is increased 2
M
For N2 molecule, molecular mass, M = 28 times. As a result, the diffusion coefficient of this gas increases
x times. The value of x is
Therefore, u= 3RT (1)
28 Solution
(4) Given that the diffusion coefficient (D) is directly propor-
When temperature becomes doubled 2T
tional to mean free path (l) and mean free speed (v).
Let the new root mean square (rms) velocity of N atom be u′
Thus, D ∝ l and D ∝ v
For N atom, molecular mass, M = 14
D∝l×v (1)
3RT
Therefore, u′ = (2) We know that the mean free path is inversely proportional
14
to the size of molecules, pressure and density of the gas. It
On dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get increases with increase in temperature. Therefore,
u 1 T
= l∝ (2)
u′ 4 p
1 The mean free speed increases with increase in tempera-
= ⇒ u′ = 2u
2 ture and is inversely proportional to the molecular mass of
Surface tension
Surface tension
Solved JEE 2016 Questions 153
Concentration Concentration
the molecules. Therefore, from the expressions for differ- III
ent molecular speeds, we have
Surface tension
1/ 2
T (3)
v ∝
M
1/ 2
T T T 3/ 2 (4)
D∝ × = Concentration
p M p( M )1/ 2
(a) I : KCl II : CH3OH III : CH3(CH2)11OSO3−Na+
Let the new temperature be T ′ = 4T and the new pressure (b) I : CH3(CH2)11OSO3−Na+ II : CH3OH III : KCl
p′ = 2p. Then from Eq. (4), we have the new diffusion coef- (c) I : KCl II : CH3(CH2)11OSO3−Na+ III : CH3OH
ficient as (d) I : CH3OH II : KCl III : CH3(CH2)11OSO3−Na+
(T ’)3 / 2 ( 4T )3 / 2 (5) Solution
D’ ∝ 1/ 2
=
p ’( M ) 2 p( M )1/ 2
(d) The surface tension of water is large because of strong
On dividing Eq. (5) by Eq. (4), we get intermolecular interactions. On addition of solutes the sur-
face tension changes. Compounds that have a tendency to
D ’ [( 4T )3 / 2 / 2 p( M )1/ 2 4
= = concentrate on the surface of the liquids as compared to
D [(T )3 / 2 / p( M )1/ 2 1
its bulk are found to lower the surface tension. Thus,
2. The following qualitative sketches I, II and III show the varia- • Substance like detergents, soaps (CH3(CH2)11SO3−Na+)
tion of surface tension with molar concentration of three differ- decrease the surface tension sharply due to hydropho-
ent aqueous solutions of KCl, CH3OH and CH3(CH2)11OSO3−Na+ bic interaction (Graph III).
at room temperature. The correct assignment of the sketches is • Substances like alcohols (CH3OH, C2H5OH) lower the
I II surface tension slightly as they have smaller dielectric
constant. Dielectric constant is directly proportional to
Surface tension
Surface tension
Concentration
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 First Law of Thermodynamics, Gibb’s Free Energy Gibb’s Free Energy
2008 Enthalpy, Gibb’s Free Energy Second Law of Thermodynamics, Gibb’s Free Energy
2009 Thermochemistry, Gibb’s Free Energy Fundamental of Thermodynamics, Enthalpy
Fundamental of Thermodynamics, Pressure-Volume
2010 Thermochemistry, Gibb’s Free Energy
Work, Enthalpy
2011 Entropy Enthalpy
2012 Gibb’s Free Energy Entropy, Pressure-Volume Work
2013 First Law of Thermodynamics Thermochemistry, Pressure-Volume Work
2014 Enthalpy, Thermochemistry, Entropy Pressure-Volume Work, Entropy
2015 Gibb’s Free Energy Entropy, Pressure-Volume Work, Gibb’s Free Energy
2016 Enthalpy, Gibb’s Free Energy, Pressure Volume Work Entropy
SUMMARY
1. The study of flow of heat into or out of a system during its physical or chemical transformation is known as thermodynamics.
2. Fundamentals of thermodynamics
(a) System
It is any region of space which is under thermodynamic investigation. Depending on the movement of matter and energy, the
system can be of the following types.
Closed system In such a system, matter can neither be added nor removed, since Energy
the boundary of the system is sealed. The system is however, not
insulated. In such a system, matter cannot be transferred but energy
can be transformed in the form of heat or work to and from the Closed
surroundings. system
Open system In such a system, matter can be added to or removed from the Energy, matter
system, since the boundary is open. The system is also not insulated.
In such a system, both energy and matter can be transferred to the
system and from the surroundings to the system. Open
system
Isolated system In such a system, neither energy nor matter can be transferred to or Energy, matter
from the surroundings, since the boundary is both sealed and insu-
lated. Such a system has no interaction with the surroundings.
Isolated
system
(b) Surrounding
It comprises the rest of the universe apart from the system. Usually, the region in space in the neighborhood of the system con-
stitutes the surroundings.
(c) Universe
It comprises the system and the surroundings together.
(d) Boundary
A wall or layer separating the system from the surroundings is called boundary.
Surrounding
System Boundary
Tip
Difference between state function and path function:
State function Path function
Independent of path taken to establish property or value. Dependent on path taken to establish property or value.
Can integrate using final and initial values. Need multiple integrals and limits of integration in order
to integrate.
Multiple steps result in same value. Multiple steps result in different value.
Based on established state of systems Based on how state of system was established.
(temperature, pressure, amount and identity of systems).
(vi) Perfect differential: If we have any single-valued variable (property) z, such that its value at any point of time
is determined by any two variables (properties) x and y of the system at that point in a given state, then z is a perfect
differential if:
• The change dz between any two states is independent of the path by which the change is done, that is, it is a state
function.
• The value of dz for a cyclic process is zero.
• The second differential of z with respect to x and y, carried out in any order is the same.
(f) Thermodynamic processes
A thermodynamic process is said to occur when the state of a system changes from one state (initial state) to another (final state).
Various thermodynamic processes are:
Process Condition
Constant temperature is maintained by the exchange
Isothermal Constant temperature, dt = 0
of heat with the thermostat.
The system is thermally insulated from the surround-
Adiabatic Constant heat, dq = 0 ings. However, the temperature of the system may
increase or decrease.
Isobaric Constant pressure, dp = 0 Volume change always takes place.
All reactions carried out at atmospheric pressure are
Isochoric Volume of the system is kept constant (dV = 0)
examples of isobaric process.
The net work done is zero in a cyclic process, w = 0.
Cyclic Initial and final states are identical
Also, dU = 0 and dH = 0.
Energy change in each step of the process can be The change must be performed at an infinitesimal
Reversible reversed in direction by making a small change in slow rate. There must be no loss of energy due to
any property of the system, such as temperature, friction and no finite temperature differences.
pressure, etc.
The system or surroundings are not restored to their They always tend to proceed in a definite direction;
Irreversible initial state at the end of the process. All processes and do not proceed in the opposite direction without
occurring spontaneously in nature are irreversible. the action of an external force.
(ii) Work
• The energy of the system is its capacity to do work and the system may transfer energy to another system or surroundings
through work.
• When work (w) is done by the system, its energy decreases; and when work is done on the system, its energy increases.
• Internal energy can also be defined as a state function, where change from one state (U1) to another (U2) can be brought
about by doing adiabatic work on the system.
∆U = U2 − U1 = w adiabatic
• Work may also be in the form of expansion or compression of system known as the pressure-volume work. Work done
by gas in the system is equal to the change in volume against pressure p.
w = p∆V
(iii) Heat
• The internal energy of the system can also be changed by supplying heat to the system or removing heat from it.
∆U = q
• The amount of heat transferred (q) is proportional to the difference in temperatures.
• The quantity of heat is also expressed in calories. 1 cal is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature
of 1 g of water by 1°C at 15 °C.
Tip
Work and heat conventions:
q is (+) Heat is absorbed by the system. q is (−) Heat is released by the system.
w is (+) Work is done on the system. w is (−) Work is done by the system.
Tip
(a) For an isothermal expansion, Vf > Vi, work done, w, by an ideal gas is positive.
(b) For a compression, Vf < Vi, work done, w, by an ideal gas is negative.
• When an ideal gas undergoes free expansion under isothermal conditions, no change in internal energy takes place
because no work is done and no heat is exchanged (q = 0).
3 5 (5/2)R
Monoatomic R R = 1.66
2 2 (3/2)R
5 7 (7/2)R
Diatomic R R = 1.40
2 2 (5/2)R
4R
Triatomic 3R 4R = 1.33
3R
n1(CV )1 + n2 (CV )2
(e) Heat capacity for a mixture of gases: CVmixture =
n1 + n2
8. Expansion and compression of an ideal gas
(a) Reversible isothermal expansion or compression
(i) Since, U depends only on temperature, therefore, ∆U = 0. Using this first law of thermodynamics become q = −w
V2
dV V
(ii) The expression for work involved is w = − nRT ∫ = − nRT ln 2
V1
V V1
p2
(iii) In terms of pressure, w = − nRT ln
p1
CV , m −R R
T2 V V
or T = 2 = 1
1 V1 V2
R / CV , m CV , m / R
TV = constant, T V = constant
− R / C p ,m − C p ,m / R
(c) Relationship between T and p: Tp = constant, T p = constant, Tp(1−g )/g = constant
g (1−g )
Therefore, T p = constant.
C V ,m
pV
(d) Relationship between p and V: VR = constant
R
C p ,m
pCV , mV = constant
Tip Adiabatic irreversible free expansion of an ideal gas is identical with the isothermal free expansion.
∆V nC p , m
∆H = nC p , m = ∆V = g ∆V
nCV , m nCV , m
C + Rp2 p1
T2 = T1 V , m
C p,m
Enthalpy change of the system when one mole of a solid sub- H2O(s) → H2O(l)
Enthalpy of fusion
stance is converted into the liquid state at its melting point. ∆Hfus = +1.43 kcal
Enthalpy change of the system when one mole of liquid is con- H2O(l) → H2O(g)
Enthalpy of vapourization
verted into vapour or gaseous state at its boiling point. ∆Hvap = +9.71 kcal
Enthalpy change when one mole of a solid is directly converted I2 (s) → I2 (g)
Enthalpy of sublimation
into the gaseous form at a temperature below its melting point. ∆Hsub = +14.92 kcal
1
CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g), ∆H° = −284.5 k J
2
∫ d( ∆H ) = ∫ ∆C p dT
H1 T1
Similarly, for reactions at constant volume, the relation can be expressed for change in internal energy with temperature as
Tip All values of ∆ f H° for the elements in their standard states are zero.
Tip
• When an equation is reversed—written in the opposite direction—the sign of ∆H° must also be reversed.
• Formulas cancelled from both sides of an equation must be for the substance in identical physical states.
• If all the coefficients of an equation are multiplied or divided by the same factor, the value of ∆H° must likewise be multiplied
or divided by that factor.
Tip When Sfinal > Sinitial (or Sproducts > Sreactants), ∆S is positive.
(b) Disorder in particles in a system is directly proportional to the heat (q), and inversely proportional to the temperature (T).
qrev
∆S =
T
(c) When heat is absorbed, q is positive and ∆S is also positive indicating an increase in entropy of the system.
(d) In case of an isolated system, total entropy change is considered which is the sum total of entropy of system and
surroundings.
∆Stotal = ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurrondings
(e) For a change to be spontaneous, the final state should have greater randomness, and hence greater entropy than the initial
state, therefore, ∆Stotal > 0.
(f) For a system undergoing reversible change, ∆S = 0.
(g) If the system undergoes an irreversible change, then in absence of any change in internal energy or volume, all spontaneous
processes will result in increase in entropy.
(h) Entropy change in reversible and irreversible processes
(i) For all processes carried out under isothermal and reversible conditions in an isolated system, the total entropy change is
zero.
∆Srev = ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0
(ii) For an irreversible process occurring isothermally in an isolated system, an increase in the total entropy of the system is
observed.
∆Sirrev > 0 (as ∆S1 > 0 )
(k) Standard entropy of a substance: The entropy of a substance at 25°C (298 K) and 1 atm pressure. It is represented as S°.
∆S ° = ∑ Sproducts
° − ∑ Sreactants
°
∂U ∂U
= T ; = − p
∂S V ∂V S
(b) Differentiating the equation H = U + pV on both the sides we get dH = dU + pdV + Vdp
Using dU = TdS – pdV, we get dH = TdS + Vdp
∂S 1 ∂H Cp
= ; =
∂H p T ∂S p T
DH DS DG Spontaneity
−ve +ve Always −ve Reaction is spontaneous
+ve −ve Always +ve Reaction is non-spontaneous
where R is the gas constant (8.314 J mol−1 K−1), T is the Kelvin temperature, and ln Q is the natural logarithm of the reaction
quotient.
At equilibrium, ∆rG = 0 and Q = K,
∆ rG ° = − RT ln K = − 2.303RT log K
∆ rG ° = ∆ r H ° − T ∆ r S ° = − RT ln K = − 2.303RT log K
∆rH° is large and Equilibrium constant Reaction does not proceed to a great extent
Endothermic reactions
positive K 1 towards formation of products
∆rH° is large and Equilibrium constant
Exothermic reactions Reaction would proceed towards completion
negative K1
Tip The value for ∆rGο also depends on the changes of entropy (∆rSο) accompanying the reaction, so the value of equilibrium con-
stant will be affected by whether the entropy change is positive or negative.
(b) When temperature and pressure are not constant, free energy change is given by
(c) The partial molar free energy was also called chemical potential by Gibbs and represented as m, therefore, free energy
change is
dG = Vdp − SdT + ∑ mi dni
i
(d) Gibbs–Duhem equation
(i) It gives the contribution of chemical potential of each component of the mixture per mole to the total free energy of the
system at constant temperature and pressure.
(ii) When a small amount of substance i (dni ) is added to the system, keeping other variables constant, the change in free energy
with change in composition is given by
(dG )T , p = ∑ mi dni
i
(e) The variation of chemical potential of component i of a multicomponent system, as a function of temperature is related to par-
tial molar entropy of the component by the expression
∂mi
= − Si
∂T p ,n
i
(f) The variation of chemical potential of the component i of a multicomponent system, as a function of pressure is related to par-
tial molar volume of the component by the expression
∂mi
∂p = − Vi
T ,n
i
∆G °
lnK = −
RT
Differentiating with respect to T, we get
∂ ln K 1 ∂( ∆G / T )
=−
∂T R ∂T
1 − ∆H °
= − 2 (by Gibbs− Helmholttz equation)
R T
∆H
= (as ∆H does not vary much with pressure, ∆H ° = ∆H )
RT 2
This equation is another form as van′t Hoff equation. Integrating this equation, we get
− ∆H
log K = + Constant
2.303RT
If integration is carried out between the temperatures T1 and T2, we get another useful form of van′t Hoff equation.
K − ∆H T2 − T1
log 2 =
K1 2.303R T1T2
(b) vant Hoff isochore
The variation in equilibrium constant K with pressure is given.
∂ lnK ∆E
At constant pressure, = 2
∂T RT
Tip All natural processes are spontaneous and irreversible, thus, they are accompanied by a net increase in entropy.
The spontaneity of the process can be predicted on the basis of the following
(i) If ∆Suniverse > 0, the reaction is spontaneous.
(ii) If ∆Suniverse < 0, the reaction is non-spontaneous.
(iii) If ∆Suniverse = 0, the reaction is at equilibrium.
(c) Carnot cycle
(i) It is the ideal cycle of operation of a heat engine, used to calculate the maximum extent to which heat can be converted to
work.
(ii) The direction of a particular spontaneous transformation can be ascertained with the help of the second law of
thermodynamics.
(iii) Carnot cycle was assumed to be a different reversible system operating between two temperatures. In one complete cycle,
it involves two isothermal and two adiabatic processes.
d c
(p4, V4, T4) (p3, V3, T3)
0 V
(iv) Total work done during the complete one cycle is given by
w = w1 + w2 − w3 − w 4
V V
w = mRT1 ln 2 − mRT2 ln 3 .
V1 V4
(v) Now, step 2 is an adiabatic process, therefore,
T1V2g −1 = T2V3g −1
1/(g −1)
V2 T2
= .
V3 T1
Since step 4 is an adiabatic process, therefore,
1/(g −1)
V T
T2V4g −1 = T1V1g −1 ⇒ 1 = 2
V4 T 1
Process Work done by system Heat into system Change in internal energy
Reversible isothermal V2 V2 ∆U = 0
dV V dV
expansion or com- w = − nRT ∫ = − nRT ln 2 q = nRT ∫
pression V1
V V1 V1
V
V2
= − nRT ln
V1
Reversible adiabatic w = nCV , m (T2 − T1) q=0 ∆U = nCV , m (T2 − T1)
expansion or com-
pression nR nR
=− (T2 − T1) =− (T2 − T1)
g −1 g −1
CV , m −R R
T V V
11. Temperature-volume relation for adiabatic change: 2 = 2 = 1
T1 V1 V2
TV g −1 = constant
where g = Cp,m/CV,m.
− R / C p ,m − C p ,m / R
12. Temperature-pressure relation for adiabatic change: Tp = constant, T p = constant, Tp(1−g )/g = constant
T g (1−g ) p = constant
C V ,m
pV
13. Pressure-volume relation for adiabatic change: VR = constant
R
C p ,m
pCV , mV = constant
pV g = constant
where g = Cp,m/CV,m.
H2 T2
14. Kirchhoff’s law for temperature dependence of enthalpies: ∫ d( ∆H ) = ∫ ∆C p dT
H1 T1
∂m
(b) Variation of m as a function of pressure: i = −Vi
∂ p T ,n
i
20. van’t Hoff equation: The variation in equilibrium constant K with temperature
∆G ° = − RT ln K
K − ∆H T2 − T1
log 2 =
K1 2.303R T1T2
∂ lnK ∆E
21. van’t Hoff isochore: = 2
∂T RT V V
22. Total work done during the one complete Carnot cycle: w = mRT1 ln 2 − mRT2 ln 3
T V1 V4
23. Efficiency of the Carnot’s engine: h = 1− 2
T1
SOLVED EXAMPLES
First Law of Thermodynamics 100°C. (Given: Molar enthalpy of vapourization of water at
1 bar and 373 K = 41 k J mol−1 and R = 8.3 J mol−1 K−1) will be
1. (∆H − ∆U) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its (a) 4.1 k J mol−1
elements at 298 K is (R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1) (b) 3.7904 k J mol−1
(a) −1238.78 J mol−1 (c) 37.904 k J mol−1
(b) 1238.78 J mol−1 (d) 41.0 k J mol−1
(c) −2477.57 J mol−1 (AIEEE 2007)
(d) 2477.57 J mol−1
(AIEEE 2006) Solution
(c) The reaction involved is H2O(l) → H2O(g), where ∆ng =
Solution
1 mol, ∆vapH = 41 k J mol−1. Now,
(d) H = U + pV ; ∆H = ∆U + ∆(pV) ⇒ ΔH − ΔU = Δ(pV)
Also, ∆(pV) = ∆ngRT for an ideal gas, therefore, ∆U = ∆H − ∆ngRT
ΔH − ΔU = ∆ngRT = 41 kJ mol−1 − 1× 8.3 × 10 −3 kJ K −1 mol−1 × 373 K
∆ng = 2 for the reaction O2 (g) + 2C(s) → 2CO(g) = 41− 3.096 kJ mol−1 = 37.904 kJ mol−1
(a) q = −208 J, w = −208 J are 1000 kg m−3 and 0.6 kg m−3 respectively. The latent heat of
(b) q = −208 J, w = +208 J vapourization of water = 2.25 × 106 J kg−1
(c) q = +208 J, w = +208 J (a) 2.99 × 106 J (b) 3.26 × 106 J
(d) q = +208 J, w = −208 J 6
(c) 3.02 × 10 J (d) 2.08 × 106 J
(JEE Main 2013)
Solution
Solution
(d) Change in internal energy can be calculated using heat
(d) Process is isothermal reversible expansion, hence and work relation.
∆U = 0. Therefore, according to first law of thermodynamics The volume of 1 kg of water
q = −w. As q = +208 J, hence w = −208 J. 1 1 3
= m3 and of 1 kg of steam = m
4. The internal energy change when a system goes from state 1000 0.6
A to B is 40 k J mol−1. If the system goes from A to B by a revers- The increase in volume
ible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what 1 3 1
= m − m3 = (1.7 − 0.001 m3 ≈ 1.7 m3 )
would be the net change in internal energy? 0.6 1000
(a) 40 k J (b) > 40 k J (c) < 40 k J (d) Zero The work done by the system is
Solution p∆V = (100 kPa)(1.7 m3 ) = 1.7 × 105 J
(d) ∆U = 0, as the change in internal energy is zero for a cyclic The heat given to convert 1 kg of water into steam
process.
= 2.25 × 106 J
5. Consider the reaction: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 carried out at a con- The change in internal energy is
stant temperature and pressure. If ∆H and ∆U are the enthalpy
∆U = ∆q − ∆w = 2.25 × 106 − 1.7 × 105 = 2.08 × 106 J
and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the fol-
lowing expressions is true?
(a) ∆H = 0 (b) ∆H = ∆U Pressure Volume Work
(c) ∆H < ∆U (d) ∆H > ∆U 9. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10−3 m3 to 1 × 10−2 m3
at 300 K against a constant pressure of 1 × 105 Nm−2. The work
Solution
done is
(c) ∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT . Since, ∆n = 2 − 4 = −2, therefore, (a) −900 J (b) 900 k J
∆H = ∆U − 2RT ⇒ ∆H < ∆U (c) 2780 k J (d) −900 k J
6. The value of ∆U for a certain change is −1455 J. During the Solution
change, the system absorbs 812 J of heat. How much work, (d) Work done (under constant pressure) = −p∆V = −1 × 105
expressed in joules, was involved? [10−2 − 10−3] = −900 J
(a) −2267 J (b) −1325 J
(c) −3021 J (d) −2856 J 10. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Final temperature in reversible adiabatic expansion is
Solution
greater than that in irreversible adiabatic expansion.
(a) ∆U = q + w ⇒ −1455 J = 812 J + w ⇒ w = −2267 J (b) When heat is supplied to an ideal gas in isothermal pro-
Since w is defined to be the work done on the system by cess, kinetic energy of gas remains constant.
the surroundings, then in this case, a negative amount of (c) When an ideal gas is subjected to adiabatic expansion, it
work is done on the system by the surroundings. The sys- gets cooled.
tem, in fact, does work on the surroundings. (d) Entropy increases when an ideal gas expands
7. Which one of the following equations does not correctly isothermally.
represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given Solution
process? w
(a) For adiabatic process, ∆U = w ⇒ w = CV ∆T ⇒ ∆T =
(a) Isothermal process: q = −w CV
(b) Cyclic process: q = −w Since work done in reversible process is more than that
(c) Isochoric process: ∆U = q in irreversible process, the temperature change is more
(d) Adiabatic process: ∆U = −w in reversible process, that is, the temperature decrease
will be more.
Solution
Since kinetic energy of ideal gases is proportional
(d) According to the first law of thermodynamics, ∆U = q + w to root of temperature, for isothermal it will not
For isothermal process, ∆U = 0. Hence, q = −w. change.
For cyclic process, ∆U = 0. Hence, q = −w. From the above relations, it is clear that when an ideal
For isochoric process, ∆V = 0. Hence, ∆U = q (w = p∆V = 0). gas is subjected to adiabatic expansion, its temperature
For adiabatic process, q = 0. Hence ∆U = w. decreases.
8. Calculate the increase in internal energy of 1 kg of water at Entropy increases when an ideal gas expands isother-
100°C when it is converted into steam at the same temper- mally because increasing the volume causes increase in
ature and at 1 atm (100 kPa). The density of water and steam randomness.
2 2
The energy involved in the conversion of 1 Cl (g) to Solution
2 2
(d) Standard molar heat enthalpy (H°) of a compound is
Cl (g) (using the data, ∆ dissH (Cl2 ) = 240 kJ mol−1 ,
− o
equal to its standard heat of formation from most stable
states of initial components.
∆ egH o (Cl) = −349 kJ mol−1 ∆ hydH o (Cl) = −381 kJ mol−1 )
(a) +152 k J mol−1 (b) −610 kJ mol−1 Heat Capacities
(c) −850 k J mol−1 (d) +120 kJ mol−1
17. When 0.1 mol of a gas absorbs 41.75 J of heat, the rise in tem-
(AIEEE 2008)
perature that occurs is equal to 20 K. The gas must be
Solution
(a) triatomic. (b) diatomic.
(b) Given that
(c) polyatomic. (d) monoatomic.
1
Cl− (aq);
Cl (g) →
2 2
∆H = ?
Solution
2Cl; ∆H1 = 240 kJ mol−1
Cl2 → (b) CV (heat absorbed per degree rise per mole)
Cl− ; ∆H2 = −349 kJ mol−1
Cl → 41.75 J
= = 20.875 JK −1 mol−1
Cl− Aqueous
medium
→ Cl− (aq); ∆H3 = −381kJ mol −1 0.1 mol × 20 K
∆H Solution
2NH3 → 2N + 6H ∆N−HH ° = (b) Consider the reactions:
6
2NH3 → N2 + 3H2 ∆ r H ° = 92 C + O2 → CO2 ; ∆H = − 393.5 kJ mol−1 (1)
1 (2)
N2 → 2N ∆rH ° = 712 CO + O2 → CO2 ; ∆H = + 283 kJ mol−1
2
3H2 → 6H ∆r H ° = 436 × 3 1
We have to find C + O2 → CO; ∆H = ?
_________________ 2
2NH3 → 2N + 6H ∆r H ° = 2112 Reversing Eq. (2) and then adding it to Eq. (1), we get
_________________ ∆H = −393.5 + 283 = −110.5 k J mol−1
2112 28. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and Y2 (all diatomic
Thus, at this condition ∆N−HH ° = = 352 kJ mol−1
6 molecules) are in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and ∆f H for the forma-
24. The standard enthalpy of formation (∆ f H°298) for meth- tion of XY is −200 k J mol−1. The bond dissociation energy of
ane, CH4 is −74.9 k J mol−1. In order to calculate the average X2 will be
energy given out in the formation of a C H bond from this it (a) 100 k J mol−1 (b) 800 kJ mol−1
is necessary to know which one of the following? (c) 300 kJ mol−1 (d) 400 kJ mol−1
(a) The dissociation energy of the hydrogen molecule, H2. Solution
(b) The first four ionization energies of carbon. (b) Since, XY, X2 and Y2 have dissociation energies in the
(c) The dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy of sublima- ratio of 1:1:0.5. Thus, let us assume that,
tion of carbon (graphite).
XY → X(g) + Y(g); ∆H = +a kJ mol−1
(d) The first four ionization energies of carbon and electron
affinity of hydrogen. X 2 → 2X ; ∆H = +a kJ mol−1
(JEE Main Online 2014) Y2 → 2Y ; ∆H = +0.5a kJ mol−1
Solution
Given that heat of formation of XY is −200 kJ mol−1. Thus,
∆H
(c) CH4 → C(g) + 4H(g) ∆ C − HH ° =
4 1 11 1
X2 + YX22→ + XYY2 → XY
C (graphite ) + 2H2 → CH4 ∆ r H ° = −74.9 2 22 2
CH4 → C (graphite ) + 2H2 ∆ r H ° = 74.9 Ha = 0.5+ a + 0.5 a − a= −200−kJ −1
∆H = ∆ + + a − a = −200 kJ mol 1 mol
o 2 2 2 2
2H2 (g) → 4H ∆r HBDE =? −1
800−kJ
a = 800 akJ= mol 1 mol
C (graphite) → C(g) ∆ r H sub = ?
____________________________________ 29. The enthalpy of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is
CH4 → C(g) + 4H(g) −55.9 k J mol−1. If the enthalpy of neutralization of HCN by
____________________________________
NaOH is −12.1 k J mol−1, the enthalpy of dissociation of HCN is
25. If at 298 K the bond energies of C H, C C, C C and H H (a) 43.8 k J (b) −43.8 k J
are respectively 414, 347, 615, and 435 k J mol−1, the value of (c) 68 k J (d) −68 k J
enthalpy change for the reaction
H2C CH2(g) + H2(g) → H3C CH3(g) at 298 K will be, Solution
(a) +250 k J (b) −250 k J (c) +125 k J (d) −125 k J (a) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O ∆H1 = −55.9 kJ mol−1
27. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monox- Cl− (g) + H2O(l) → Cl− (aq) ∆H = −364 kJ (Hydration)
ide are −393.5 and −283 k J mol−1 respectively. The enthalpy The net reaction of dissolution of NaCl(s) is
of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is NaCl(s) + 2H2O(l) → Na+ (aq) + Cl− (aq)
(a) 110.5 k J (b) −110.5 k J
(c) −676.5 k J (d) 676.5 k J ∆ solH = 780 − ( 406 + 364 ) = 10 kJ mol−1
31. The bond energies of C C, C H, H H, and C C are 198, 35. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and p
98, 103, and 145 kcal, respectively. The enthalpy change of and in which only pressure − volume work is being done, the
the reaction HC CH + H2 → C2H4 in k J is change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS),
(a) −325.6 k J (b) 100.32 k J satisfy the criteria
(c) −192.56 k J (d) −100.32 k J (a) (dS)V,U < 0, (dG)T,p < 0 (b) (dS)V,U > 0, (dG)T,p < 0
(c) (dS)V,U = 0, (dG)T,p = 0 (d) (dS)V,U = 0, (dG)T,p > 0
Solution
(c) Enthalpy of reaction = ∑ ∆H °reactants − ∑ ∆H °products Solution
Therefore, (b) For an irreversible process, the value of dS is greater than
∆H∆H
= [2(C − H)++(C(C ≡C)
= [2(C H)] C )++(H )] −−[ 4[4(C
(H − HH)] + (+CC= C)]C)]
( C − H)H) zero.
= [2(98 ) + 198 + 103] − [ 4(98 ) + 145] = −40 kcal 36. For which of the following reactions, the change in entropy
Enthalpy in k J is − 40 × 4.814 = −192.56 k J is not negative?
(a) Ni(s) + 2HCl(aq) → H2 (g) + NiCl2 (aq)
Entropy
(b) Br2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) → 2BrCl3 (g)
32. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible
expansion of 2 mol of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm3 (c) NH3 (g) + HCl(g) → NH4 Cl(s)
to a volume of 100 dm3 at 27°C is
(a) 35.8 J mol−1 K−1 (b) 32.3 J mol−1 K−1 (d) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (s)
−1
(c) 42.3 J mol K −1 (d) 38.3 J mol−1 K−1 Solution
(AIEEE 2011)
(a) Entropy is just the measurement of randomness of
Solution
a system, if randomness increases entropy will also
(d) For an ideal gas, for isothermal reversible process, increase. Therefore, during phase transformation, when
system moves from solid state to liquid or liquid to
V 100 gaseous state, randomness increases, so entropy also
∆S = 2.303 nR log 2 = 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 × log
V1 10 increases.
During the chemical reaction, product may appear in
= 38.3 J mol−1 K −1
any state of matter, so entropy will increase if more and
33. The molar heat capacity (Cp) of CD2O is 10 cals at 1000 K. The more gaseous products are formed from solid or liquid
change in entropy associated with cooling of 32 g of CD2O state.
vapour from 1000 K to 100 K at constant pressure will be: In all given options, only in option (a), solid Ni reacts
(D = deuterium, at. mass = 2 u) with liquid HCl which produces hydrogen gas. So, it has
(a) 23.03 cal deg−1 (b) −23.03 cal deg−1 positive change in entropy. All other cases have negative
(c) 2.303 cal deg −1 (d) −2.303 cal deg−1 change of entropy.
(JEE Main Online 2014) 37. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to half of its
Solution initial volume and simultaneously heated to twice its initial
(b) For a finite change of temperature at constant pressure, temperature, the change in entropy is
T (a) CV ln 2 (b) Cp ln 2
∆S = 2.303 nC P log10 2
T1 (c) R ln 2 (d) (CV − R) ln 2
100 Solution
∆S = 1 × 2.303 × 10 × log10 = −23.03 cal deg−1
1000 (d) The change in entropy is given by
freezes to ice, heat is released, which is absorbed by the Gibb’s Free Energy
surroundings. Hence, the entropy of the surroundings
increases. 42. In conversion of limestone to lime,
39. The heat of vapourization of ammonia is 21.7 kJ mol−1 and CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
the boiling point of ammonia is −33°C. Estimate the entropy the values of ∆H° and ∆S° are +179.1 k J mol−1 and 160.2 J K−1,
change for the vapourization of liquid ammonia. respectively, at 298 K and 1 bar. Assuming that ∆H° and ∆S°
(a) 101.5 J K−1 (b) 88.9 J K−1 do not change with temperature, the temperature above
(c) 90.5 J K −1 (d) 56.8 J K−1 which conversion of limestone to lime will be spontaneous is
Solution (a) 1008 K (b) 1200 K
(c) 845 K (d) 1118 K
∆H o
(c) T≈ (AIEEE 2007)
∆S o
1000 J Solution
. kJ mol−1
∆H = 217 o
1 kJ (d) We know ∆G = ∆H − T∆S. We will find out the equilibrium
= 217
. × 10 J 3 temperature at which ∆G = 0. Therefore, ∆H = T ∆S
21.7 × 103 J 1000
239.9 K ≈ T = 179.1× = 1118 K
160.2
∆S o
So, above this temperature the reaction will become
∆S o = 90.5 J K −1 spontaneous.
40. Oxygen gas weighting 64 is expanded from 1 atm to 0.25 43. Identify the correct statement regarding a spontaneous
atm at 30°C. Calculate entropy change, assuming the gas to process:
be ideal. (a) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the only
(a) 23.1 J K−1 (b) 25.0 J K−1 criterion for spontaneity.
(c) 26.1 J K−1 (b) 22.4 J K−1 (b) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system, the
change in entropy is positive.
Solution
(c) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous.
p (d) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous.
(a) ∆S = 2.303nR log 1
p2 (AIEEE 2007)
weight 64 Solution
n= = =2
molecular weight 32 (b) Change in entropy for an isolated system should be pos-
itive, ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurroundings = 0.
p 1
∆S = 2.303nR log 1 = 2.303 × 2 × 8.314 log
p2 0.25 44. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K−1 mol−1,
respectively. For the reaction,
= 23.053 J K −1
1 3
X2 + Y2 → XY3 ; ∆H = −30 kJ
41. If for a given substance melting point is TB and freezing point 2 2
is TA, then correct variation shown by graph between entropy to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
change and temperature is (a) 1250 K (b) 500 K
(c) 750 K (d) 1000 K
TB (AIEEE 2008)
∆S ∆S Solution
TB 1 3
(a) (b) (c) For the reaction, X2 + Y2 → XY3
2 2
TA
TA
1 3
∆ r S = 50 − × 60 + × 40 = −40 J mol−1
T T 2 2
Since, ∆G = ∆H − T ∆S and at equilibrium ∆G = 0, so,
TB ∆H −30
∆S ∆S
TA T= = × 103 = 750 K
TB ∆S −40
TA
(c) (d)
45. In a fuel cell, methanol is used as fuel and oxygen gas is used
as an oxidizer. The reaction is
T T 3
CH3OH(l) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l)
Solution 2
(a) For a pure substance, TA and TB represent the same tem- At 298 K, standard Gibbs energies of formation for CH3OH(l),
perature. Hence, (a) is a correct choice. H2O(l) and CO2(g) are −166.2 k J mol−1, −237.2 k J mol−1 and
CH3OH(l) + 23 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l) ; ∆H = − 726 kJ mol−1 49. The correct relationship between free energy change in a
reaction and the corresponding equilibrium constant Kc is
Now,
(a) ∆G = RT ln Kc (b) − ∆G = RT ln Kc
∆G = ∆G °(CO2 ) + 2∆G °(H2O) − ∆G °(CH3OH) (c) ∆Gο = RT ln Kc (d) − ∆Gο = RT ln Kc
= −394 − 2 × (237.2) + 166.2 = −702.6 kJ mol−1 Solution
Efficiency of fuel cell is given by (d) ΔG° = − RT ln Kc or, −ΔG° = RT ln Kc
∆G 702.6
× 100 = × 100 = 97% 50. For a spontaneous reaction, the ∆G, equilibrium constant (K)
∆H 726 and E°cell will be respectively
46. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, ∆H and (a) −ve, >1, +ve (b) +ve, >1, −ve
∆S were found to be both positive. If Te is the temperature at (c) −ve, <1, −ve (d) −ve, >1, −ve
equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when Solution
(a) T = Te (b) Te > T (c) T > Te (d) Te = 5T (a) For a spontaneous process ∆G has to be negative always,
°
(AIEEE 2010) so that K >1 because ∆G = −2.303 RT log K and Ecell has
Solution to be positive because ∆G = − nFE°cell
(c) ∆G = ∆H − T∆S. At equilibrium ∆G = 0. Also, ∆G should 51. Using the data given below, pick the correct statement about
be negative for a spontaneous reaction. So, T > Te in the reaction: TiO2 (s) + 2Cl2 (g) → TiCl4 (l) + O2 (g) [Given that
order to make ∆G negative, because both ∆H and ∆S are ∆ f H° for TiO2(s), TiCl4(l), Cl2(g) and O2(g) are −944.7, −804.22,
positive. 0.0, 0.0 kJ mol−1 respectively. Also S° for TiO2(s), TiCl4(l), Cl2(g)
47. The incorrect expression among the following is and O2(g) are 50.3, 252.3, 233.0, 205.1 J mol−1 K−1, respectively.]
(a) The reaction is exothermic at standard conditions.
∆G
(a) = −T (b) The standard entropy is favourable for the reaction in
∆Stotal forward direction.
Vf
(b) In isothermal process wreversible = − nRT ln (c) The reaction is not spontaneous at standard condition at
Vi 25°C.
(c) lnK = ∆H ° − T ∆S ° (d) Reaction becomes spontaneous at higher temperature.
RT
Solution
(d) K = e −∆G °/ RT (AIEEE 2012) ° ° ° °
(c) ∆H ° = [HTiCl4 (l) + HO2 ( g) ] − [HTiO2 ( s ) + HCl2 ( g) ]
Solution = ( −804.2 + 0 ) − ( −944.7 + 0 ) = 140.5 kJ mol−1
(c) We know that ΔG° = ΔH° − TΔS° and ΔG° = −RT ln K. °
∆S ° = [ STiCl + SO° 2 ( g) ] − [ STiO
° °
+ SCl ]
4 ( l) 2 (s) 2 ( g)
Equating both the equations, we get
= ( +252.3 + 205.1) − ( +50.3 + 2 × 233)
∆H ° − T ∆S °
− RT ln K = ∆H ° − T ∆S ° ⇒ ln K = − = − 58.9 J mol−1 K −1 = − 0.0589 kJ mol−1 K −1
RT
∆G ° = ∆H ° − T ∆S ° = 140.5 − 298 × ( −0.0589 )
48. The following reaction is performed at 298 K.
= 158.06 kJ mol−1
2NO(g) + O2 (g) 2NO2 (g)
Since change in free energy is positive, the reaction is
The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 k J mol−1 not spontaneous.
at 298 K. What is the standard free energy of formation of
NO2(g) at 298 K? (Kp = 1.6 × 1012) 52. Given these reactions and their ∆G° values,
(a) 86600 + R(298) ln(1.6 × 1012) COCl2(g) + 4NH3(g) → CO(NH2)2(s) + 2NH4Cl(s), ∆G° = –332.0 kJ
12 COCl2(g) + H2O(l) → CO2(g) + 2HCl(g), ∆G° = –141.8 kJ
ln(1.6 × 10 )
(b) 86600 − NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s), ∆G° = –91.96 kJ
R(298 )
Calculate the value of ∆G° for the reaction
(c) 0.5[2 × 86,600 − R(298)ln (1.6 × 1012 )] CO(NH2)2(s) + H2O(l) → CO2(g) + 2NH3(g)
(d) R(298 ) ln(1.6 × 1012 ) − 86600 (a) −9.2 k J (b) + 6.3 k J
(JEE Main 2015) (c) +8.5 k J (d) − 7.8 k J
Solution Solution
(a) At 100°C, H2O in liquid state has equilibrium with H2O in (a), (d) Both internal energy and molar enthalpy depend
vapour phase; therefore, ∆G = 0. Also, the liquid molecules only on the initial and final states, not on the path followed.
are converting into gaseous phase and we know that the
randomness of system increases from the liquid to gase- 8. In a constant-volume calorimeter, 3.5 g of a gas with molar
ous phase, so, ∆S = positive. mass 28 g mol−1 was burnt in excess oxygen at 298.0 K. The
temperature of the calorimeter was found to increase from
4. The value of log10K for a reaction A → B is 298.0 K to 298.45 K due to the combustion process. Given
(Given: ∆ r H298K = − 54.07 kJ mol−1 and R = 8.314 J K −1 mol−1; T = 298 Kthat
, ∆S =the −1 capacity of the calorimeter is 2.5 k J K−1, the
heat
10 JK )
−1 −1
R = 8.314 J K mol ; T = 298 K , ∆S = 10 JK )−1 . numerical value for the change in internal energy of com-
bustion of the gas in k J mol−1 is ___.
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 95 (d) 100 (IIT-JEE 2009)
(IIT-JEE 2007) Solution
Solution
(a) Energy released at constant volume due to combustion of
(b) ∆G ° = ∆H ° − T ∆S ° = − 54.07 − 298 × 10 = − 54070 − 2980 3.5 g of a gas = 2.5 × 0.45. Hence, energy released due to
= − 57050 J mol−1 combustion of 28 g (i.e., 1 mol) of a gas
2.5 × 0.45 × 28
Note, ∆G ° = −2.303RT log K . Substituting values, we get = = 9 kJ mol−1
3.5
57050 57050
log K = = = 10 9. Among the following, the intensive property is (properties
2.303 × 8.314 × 298 5705
are)
5. Statement 1: There is a natural asymmetry between convert- (a) molar conductivity. (b) electromotive force.
ing work to heat and converting heat to work. (c) resistance. (d) heat capacity.
Statement 2: No process is possible in which the sole result is (IIT-JEE 2010)
the absorption of heat from a reservoir and its complete con- Solution
version into work. (a), (b) Both molar conductivity and electromotive force are
(a) Statement 1 is True. Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a mass-independent properties. Resistance and heat capacity
correct explanation for Statement 1. are mass-dependent properties, hence extensive.
(b) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is
10. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from a to b along two paths
NOT a correct explanation for Statement 1.
denoted by the solid and the dashed lines as shown in the
(c) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
below graph. If the work done along the solid line path is ws
(d) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
and that dotted line path is wd, then the integer closest to
(IIT-JEE 2008)
the ratio wd/ws is ___.
Solution
(IIT-JEE 2010)
(a) Conceptual; based on second law of thermodynamics
4.5
6. Statement 1: For every chemical reaction at equilibrium, 4.0 a
standard Gibbs energy of reaction is zero and 3.5
Statement 2: At constant temperature and pressure, chemi- 3.0
p (atm)
The ratio is 14. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic and
w d 8.65 isothermal conditions is shown in the below figure. Which of
= = 1.80 = 2 the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
w s 4.79
(p1, V1, T1)
11. The species which by definition has zero standard molar
enthalpy of formation at 298 K is
(a) Br2(g) (b) Cl2(g) (c) H2O(g) (d) CH4(g) isothermal
p
(IIT-JEE 2010) adiabatic (p2, V2, T2)
Solution (p3, V3, T3)
(b) Cl2 is a gas at 298 K while Br2 is a liquid.
12. Match the transformations in Column I with appropriate
V
options in Column II
−2900
∆H = = − 16.11 kJ g−1
p (atm)
180
Z
Paragraph for Questions 16 and 17: A fixed mass m of a gas is
subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and
V(L) back to K as shown in the figure
(a) ∆SX → Z = ∆SX → Y + ∆SY → Z (b) w X → Z = w X → Y + w Y → Z
K L
(c) w X→ Y →Z = w X→ Y (d) ∆SX → Y → Z = ∆SX → Y
(IIT-JEE 2012)
Solution p
(a), (c) As entropy is a state function and is additive
∆SX → Z = ∆SX → Y + ∆SY → Z
N M
On moving from Y to Z, the work done is zero as the volume is
kept constant (isochoric process) V
w X→ Y →Z = w X→ Y (JEE Advanced 2013)
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 10. Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) Work is a state function.
Single Correct Choice Type (b) Temperature is a state function.
1. The molar entropy of vapourization of acetic acid is (c) Work appears at the boundary of the system.
14.4 cal K−1 mol−1 at its boiling point 118°C. The latent heat of (d) Change in the state is completely defined when the ini-
vapourization of acetic acid is tial and final states are specified.
(a) 49 cal g−1 (b) 64 cal g−1
−1 11. The bond enthalpies of F2, Cl2, Br2 and I2 are 155.4 k J mol−1,
(c) 94 cal g (d) 84 cal g−1
243.6 k J mol−1, 193.2 k J mol−1, and 151.2 k J mol−1, respec-
2. The enthalpy of a reaction at 273 K is −3.57 k J. What will be the tively. The strongest bond is
enthalpy of reaction at 373 K if ΔCp = 0? (a) F−F (b) Cl−Cl (c) Br−Br (d) I−I
(a) −3.57 (b) 0 12. For A → B, ∆H = 4 kcal mol−1, ∆S = 10 cal mol−1 K−1. Reaction
373
(c) −3.57 × (d) −375 is spontaneous when temperature can be
273
(a) 400 K (b) 300 K (c) 500 K (d) 200 K
3. The sublimation energy of I2(s) is 57.3 k J mol−1 and the
13. Which of the reaction defines ∆ f H °?
enthalpy of fusion is 15.5 k J mol−1. The enthalpy of vapouriza-
tion of I2 is 1 1
(a) H2 (g) + F2 (g) → HF(g)
(a) 41.8 k J mol−1 (b) −41.8 k J mol−1 2 2
(c) 72.8 k J mol−1 (d) −72.8 k J mol−1 1
(b) CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
4. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when 2
(a) surroundings and system change into each other. (c) C + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
(b) there is no boundary between system and surroundings. Diamond
(c) the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the
system. (d) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
(d) the system changes into the surroundings spontaneously.
14. The gas absorbs 100 J heat and is simultaneously com-
5. Which process is accompanied by a decrease in the entropy of pressed by a constant external pressure of 1.50 atm from 8 L
the system? to 2 L in volume. Hence, ∆U will be:
(a) A cup of juice spreading across the floor after being (a) −812 J (b) 812 J (c) 1011 J (d) 911 J
spilled
(b) Soaking up a chemical spill with an absorbent material 15. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and irre-
(c) The sublimation of iodine crystals versibly in an isolated system. If Ti is the initial temperature
(d) Water boiling in a steam kettle and Tf is the final temperature, which of the following state-
ments is correct?
6. Which one of the following is not applicable for a thermo- (a) (Tf )rev = (Tf )irrev.
chemical equation? (b) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible processes.
(a) It tells about the physical state of the reactants and (c) (Tf )irrev > (Tf )rev.
products. (d) Tf > Ti for a reversible process but Tf = Ti for an irreversi-
(b) It tells whether the reaction is spontaneous. ble process.
(c) It tells whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.
(d) It tells about the allotropic form (if any) of the reactants. 16. Which of the following provide exceptions to the third law of
thermodynamics?
7. If the standard Gibbs energy change for a reaction is (a) CO (b) Ice
1.546 k J mol−1 at 500°C, then the value of standard equilib- (c) CO2 (d) All of these
rium constant for the reaction is
(a) antilog(0.105) (b) antilog(−0.105) 17. The heat evolved in the combustion of 112 L at STP of water
(c) antilog(0.241) (d) antilog(−0.241) gas (CO + H2 in the ratio of 1:1 by volume) is
(Given: Heat of combustion of H2 and CO is −241.8 k J mol−1
8. If water kept in an insulated vessel at −10°C suddenly freezes, and −283 k J mol−1, respectively.)
the entropy change of the system (a) −1414.0 k J (b) −12090 k J
(a) decreases. (c) −1312.0 k J (d) −524.8 k J
(b) increases.
(c) is zero. 18. Among mass, volume, density and specific volume of a gas,
(d) equals to that of the surroundings. the intensive properties are
(a) density and specific volume.
9. What is the sign of ∆G for the process of melting of ice at 280 K? (b) volume and density.
(a) ΔG > 0 (b) ΔG = 0 (c) specific volume and mass.
(c) ΔG < 0 (d) None of these (d) density only.
19. H2 (g) + 21 O2 (g) → H2O(l); ∆H298K = − 68.32 kcal 29. Some of the thermodynamic parameters are state variables,
while some are process variables. Some groups of the param-
Enthalpy of vapourization of water at 1 atm and 25°C is eters are given. Choose the correct one.
10.52 kcal. The standard enthalpy of formation (in kcal) of 1 (a) State variables: Temperature, Number of moles
mol of water vapour at 25°C is Process variables: Internal energy, work done by the gas
(a) 10.52 (b) −78.84 (c) +57.80 (d) −57.80 (b) State variables: Volume, temperature
Process variables: Internal energy, work done by the gas
20. The heat of formation of HCl(g) from the reaction
(c) State variables: work done by the gas, heat rejected by
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g); ΔH = −44 kcal is
the gas.
(a) +44 kcal (b) −44 kcal (c) +22 kcal (d) −22 kcal
Process variables: Temperature, volume
21. The bond energies of C C and C C at 298 K are 590 and (d) State variables: Internal energy, volume
331 k J mol−1, respectively. The enthalpy of polymerization per Process variables: Work done by the gas, heat absorbed
mole of ethylene is by the gas
(a) −70 k J (b) −72 k J (c) 72 k J (d) −68 k J 30. If 1 kcal of heat is added to 1.2 L of oxygen in a cylinder at con-
22. Given that stant pressure of 1 atm, the volume increases to 1.5 L. Hence,
C + O2 → CO2; ∆H° = −x k J ΔU for this process is
2CO + O2 → 2CO2; ∆H° = −y k J (a) 0.993 kcal (b) 1.0073 kcal
(c) 0.0993 kcal (d) 1.00073 kcal
The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide will be
31. The enthalpy of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is −55.9 k J
2x − y y − 2x mol−1. If the enthalpy of neutralization of HCN by NaOH is
(a) y − 2x (b) (c) (d) 2x − y
2 2 −12.1 k J mol−1, the enthalpy of dissociation of HCN is
(a) −43.8 k J (b) 43.8 k J (c) 68 k J (d) −68 k J
23. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place
32. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state
between the system and surroundings. Choose the correct
(2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change
option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic con-
in internal energy, ∆U = 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy in
dition from the following:
the process in litre atm is
(a) q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0 (b) q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
(a) 40.0
(c) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0 (d) q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0
(b) 42.3
24. On heating 128 g of oxygen gas from 0°C to 100°C, CV and Cp (c) 44.0
on an average are 5 cal mol−1 deg−1 and 7 cal mol−1 deg−1. (d) not defined, because pressure is not constant.
The value of ΔU and ΔH are, respectively, 33. When 1 mol of CO2 (g) occupying a volume of 10 L at 27°C is
allowed to expand under adiabatic conditions, temperature
(a) 2800 cal, 2000 cal (b) 2000 cal, 2800 cal
falls to −123°C. Hence, the final volume of the gas will be
(c) 280 cal, 200 cal (d) 2369 cal, 2589 cal
(a) 20 L (b) 40 L (c) 60 L (d) 80 L
25. Given that
34. Find temperature of vapour at 1 atm. Given that ∆H =
A(s) → A(l); ∆H = x 30 k J mol−1 and ∆S = 75 J K−1 mol−1.
A(l) → A(g); ∆H = − y (a) 400 K (b) 350 K (c) 298 K (d) 250 K
The enthalpy of sublimation of A will be 35. The intermediate SiH2 is formed in the thermal decomposi-
(a) x + y (b) x − y (c) x or y (d) −(x + y) tion of silicon hydrides. Calculate ∆ f H ° of SiH2 with the help
of following reactions
26. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to Si2H6(g) + H2(g) → 2SiH4(g); ∆H° = −11.7 kJ mol−1
steam is 30 k J mol−1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the pro- SiH4(g) → SiH2(g) + H2(g); ΔH° = + 239.7 kJ mol−1;
cess would be (in J mol−1 K−1) (Given Δf H of Si2H6(g) = +80.3 kJ mol−1)
(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 1.0 (d) 0.1 (a) 353 k J mol−1 (b) 321 kJ mol−1
(c) 198 kJ mol −1 (d) 274 kJ mol−1
27. The standard enthalpy of formation of NO2(g) and N2O4(g)
are 8.0 kcal mol−1 and 2.0 kcal mol−1, respectively. The heat of 36. Consider the below figure for a gas.
dimerization of NO2 in kcal is
(a) 10.0 (b) −6.0 (c) +14.0 (d) −14.0 1 B
28. Over a wide temperature range, the reaction, M2O3(s) + C(s) 2
→ M(s) + CO2(g), is spontaneous at low temperatures but 3
p
non-spontaneous at high temperatures. If we assume that,
since the physical states do not change, the values of ∆HTo
and ∆STo are constant over this temperature range, we can 4
then deduce that 5
A
(a) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (b) ∆H < 0 and ∆ S < 0
(c) ∆ H > 0 and ∆ S < 0 (d) ∆ H > 0 and ∆ S > 0
V
The change in entropy ∆S in going from state A to state B 46. 1 mol of NH3 gas at 27°C is expanded under adiabatic con-
(a) is the same for path 1 through 3. ditions to make volume 8 times (g = 1.33). Final temperature
(b) is different for each of the paths. and work done, respectively, are
(c) is smallest for path 3 because it is the shortest path. (a) 150 K, 900 cal (b) 150 K, 400 cal
(d) is the maximum for path 5 and smallest for path 3. (c) 250 K, 1000 cal (d) 200 K, 800 cal
37. The enthalpy of dissociation of benzene to elements is 47. An ideal gas can be expanded from an initial state to a cer-
5535 k J mol−1. The bond enthalpies of C C, C C, and C H tain volume through two different processes, (I) pV2 = K and
are 347.3 k J, 615.0 k J, and 416.2 k J, respectively. The reso- (II) p = KV2, where K is a positive constant. Then, choose the
nance energy of benzene is correct option from the following:
(a) 1.51 k J (b) 15.1 k J (c) 151 k J (d) 1511 k J (a) Final temperature in (I) will be greater than in (II).
(b) Final temperature in (II) will be greater than in (I).
38. For a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas (c) Work done by the gas in both the processes would be
(a) ΔSsys = ΔSsurr = positive (b) ΔSsys = −ΔSsurr equal.
(c) ΔSsys = ΔSsurr = negative (d) ΔSsys = ΔSsurr = 0 (d) Total heat given to the gas in (I) is greater than in (II).
39. Thermodynamics is not concerned about 48. Calculate the free energy change for the following reac-
(a) energy changes involved in a chemical reaction. tion at 298 K and 1 atm, given that free energy of formation
(b) the extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds. ( ∆ f G o ) in k J mol−1 is CH4(g) = −50.752, O2(g) = 0, CO2(g)
(c) the rate at which a reaction proceeds. = −394.359 and H2O(g) = −228.572:
(d) the feasibility of a chemical reaction.
CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O(g)
40. Which statement is true?
(a) −868.859 k J mol−1
(a) Spontaneous changes are always accompanied by an
(b) −815.751 k J mol−1
increase in the entropy of the system.
(c) −985.25 k J mol−1
(b) Spontaneous changes are always accompanied by a
(d) −800.751 k J mol−1
decrease in the entropy of the system.
(c) Spontaneous changes are always accompanied by an 49. If So for H2, Cl2, and HCl are 0.13 k J K−1 mol−1, 0.22 k J K−1
increase in the enthalpy of the system. mol−1, and 0.19 k J K−1mol−1, respectively, then the total
(d) Most highly exothermic chemical reactions are also change in standard entropy for the following reaction is
spontaneous chemical reactions H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
(a) 30 J K−1 mol−1 (b) 40 J K−1 mol−1
41. Using only the following data: (c) 60 J K−1 mol−1 (d) 20 J K−1 mol−1
(I) Fe2O3 (s) + 3CO(g) 2Fe(s) + 3CO2 (g); ∆H° = − 26.8 kJ
50. The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K are 2.25 g cm−3
(II) Fe(s) + CO(g) FeO(s) + CO(g); ∆H° = + 16.5kJ and 3.31 g cm−3, respectively. If the standard Gibbs energy dif-
ference (ΔG°) is equal to 1895 J mol−1, the pressure at which
the ∆H° value, in kilojoules, for the reaction Fe2O3(s) + graphite will be transformed into diamond at 298 K is
CO(g) → 2FeO(s) + CO2(g) is calculated as (a) 9.92 × 108 Pa (b) 9.92 × 107 Pa
(a) −43.3 (b) −10.3 (c) +6.2 (d) +10.3 (c) 9.92 × 106 Pa (d) 9.92 × 1010 Pa
42. The enthalpy of combustion of C2H4, C2H6, and H2 are 1
51. The enthalpy of reaction for A + O2 → AO is −50 kcal and
−1409.5 k J, −1558.3 k J, and −285.6 k J, respectively. The heat 2
of hydrogenation of ethane is 1
for A O + O2 → AO2 is −100 kcal. The enthalpy of reaction
(a) −136.8 k J (b) −13.68 k J (c) 273.6 k J (d) 1.368 k J 2
for A + O2 → AO2 is
43. A gas is allowed to expand under reversible adiabatic condi- (a) −50 kcal (b) −150 kcal
tions, then what quantity is zero for such a process? (c) 100 kcal (d) 150 kcal
(a) ΔG = 0 (b) ΔT = 0
52. For which change ∆H ≠ ∆U?
(c) ΔS = 0 (d) ΔU = 0
(a) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g)
44. For the reaction, 2N2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O, at 298 K ∆H is 164 k J (b) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
mol−1. The ∆U of the reaction is (c) C(s) + O2 (g) 2CO2 (g)
(a) 166.5 k J mol−1 (b) 161.5 k J mol−1 (d) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
(c) 164.0 k J mol −1 (d) 169 k J mol−1
53. Given that
1 NH3 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) NCl3 (g) + 3HCl(g); − ∆H1
45. Consider the reaction, H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O(l); ΔCp = 32
2
J K−1; ΔH at 27°C = −285.8 k J mol−1. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g); − ∆H2
What will be the value of ΔH at 127°C? H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl(g); ∆H3
(a) −289.0 k J mol−1 (b) −282.6 k J mol−1
(c) −317.0 k J mol−1 (d) −253.8 k J mol−1 The enthalpy of formation of NCl3(g) in terms of ΔH1, ΔH2,
and ΔH3 is
∆H2 3 p
(a) ∆ f H = − ∆H1 − − ∆H3
2 2 A B
∆H2 3 1 atm
(b) ∆ f H = ∆H1 + − ∆H3
2 2
∆H2 3
(c) ∆ f H = ∆H1 − − ∆H3
2 2 0.5 atm C
∆H2 3
(d) ∆ f H = − ∆H1 + + ∆H3
2 2
V
54. Find the maximum work available, in kilojoules, from the oxi- 20 L 40 L
dation of 1 mol of octane, C8H18(l), by oxygen to give CO2(g) (a) The entropy change for the overall process is 0 (zero).
and H2O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm. Given that free energy of forma- (b) ΔH > ΔU for the overall process.
tion (∆ f G°) in k J mol−1 is C8H18(g) = +17.3, O2(g) = 0, CO2(g) (c) Total work, w = q.
= −394.359 and H2O(l) = −237.2. (d) Total work = − 620.77 J.
(a) −5307 k J (b) −2575 k J (c) −5277 k J (d) −3327 k J
60. An adiabatic process involves
(a) no exchange of heat.
Level II (b) exchange of heat with change in volume.
Multiple Correct Choice Type (c) work done equal to change in internal energy.
(d) increase in temperature of the system under reversible
55. When a real gas expands adiabatically against a finite compression.
pressure,
(a) its internal energy increases. 61. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(b) its internal energy decreases. (a) The system of constant entropy and constant volume will
(c) its temperature always decreases. attain the equilibrium in a state of minimum energy.
(d) its entropy always remains constant. (b) The entropy of the universe is increasing.
(c) The process would be spontaneous when (∆S)U,V < 0,
56. For the C(s) + H2O(g) → CO(g) + H2 (g) reaction; ΔHo = +131 kJ; (∆U)S,V > 0.
ΔSo = +134 J K−1 (d) The process would be spontaneous when (∆S)U,V > 0,
Mark out the correct statement(s). (∆U)S,V < 0.
(a) Reaction is spontaneous even at room temperature. 62. Which of the following statements are correct?
(b) Reaction is not spontaneous at room temperature. (a) When ∆G = 0, the system is at equilibrium.
(c) Reaction is spontaneous above 705°C. (b) When ∆G < 0, the process will be spontaneous.
(d) ΔH outweighs the entropy factor TΔS at room (c) When ∆G is negative, the process is said to be exergonic.
temperature. (d) When ∆G is positive, the process is said to be
57. Choose the incorrect combination(s). endergonic.
63. When a solid melts there will be
ΔH ΔS Temperature (T) Spontaneity (a) an increase in enthalpy.
(a) + − Any T Non-spontaneous (b) a decrease in free energy.
(c) no change in enthalpy.
(b) − − Low T Non-spontaneous (d) a decrease in internal energy.
(c) + + Low T Spontaneous
64. Which statements are correct for neutralization of a strong
(d) − + Any T Spontaneous acid by a strong alkali in aqueous solution at 25°C.
(a) It is an endothermic process.
58. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas (CV = 5 cal) was trans- (b) It can be represented as H3O + (aq) + OH− (aq) → 2H2O(l)
formed from initial 25°C and 1 L to the state when temper- (c) The enthalpy change per mole of H2O formed is inde-
ature is 100°C and volume 10 L. Then for this process (R = 2 pendent of the acid or alkali used.
cal mol−1 K−1) (take calories as unit of energy and kelvin for (d) Some sort of energy is consumed to make the acid or
temperature). Mark out the correct one(s). alkali completely ionized.
(a) ∆H = 525 1
65. C(s) + O2 → CO(g); ∆H ° = − 26 kcal mol−1
2
373
(b) ∆S = 5 ln + 2 ln 10 1
298 CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g); ∆H ° = − 68 kcal mol−1
2
(c) ∆U = 525
Which is/are correct statement(s)?
(d) ∆G of the process cannot be calculated using given
(a) Heat of formation of CO2 is −68 kcal mol−1
information.
(b) Heat of combustion of C(s) is −26 kcal mol−1
59. Mark out the correct one(s) about the pV plot system shown (c) Heat of combustion of CO(g) is −68 kcal mol−1
in the following figure. (d) Heat of formation of CO(g) is −26 kcal mol−1
66. Which of the following sets show the intensive properties? 72. When 2 mol of NO2 change into equilibrium mixture with
(a) Temperature and pressure N2O4, then ∆G° is
(b) Viscosity and surface tension (a) −5.40 k J (b) +5.40 k J (c) −6.24 k J (d) 6.24 k J
(c) Refractive index and specific heat
73. When 1 mol of N2O4 changes into equilibrium mixture with
(d) Volume and heat capacity
NO2, then ∆G° is
67. Which of the following process take(s) place with decrease in (a) −5.40 k J (b) 0.84 k J (c) −0.84 k J (d) 6.24
entropy?
74. Select out the correct statement.
(a) 3CO2(g) → 2O3(g)
(a) The conversion of N2O4 into 2NO2 is spontaneous.
(b) Sugar + Water → Solution
(b) The conversion of 2NO2 into N2O4 is non-spontaneous.
(c) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
(c) The attainment of equilibrium from N2O4 and from NO2
(d) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
are both equally spontaneous.
68. In a given process on an ideal gas, dw = 0 and dq < 0, then for (d) The attainment of equilibrium from 2 mol of NO2 with
the gas N2O4 is more spontaneous than the conversion of 2NO2
(a) the volume will increase. into N2O4.
(b) the temperature will decrease.
Paragraph for Questions 75 to 77: Enthalpy of neutralization is
(c) the pressure will remain constant.
defined as the enthalpy change when 1 mol of H+ in dilute solution
(d) the internal energy will decrease.
combines with 1 mol of OH− to give rise to undissociated water,
Passage Type that is, H+(aq) + OH−(aq) → H2O(l) ∆H = −57.54 kJ mol−1 or −13.7
kcal mol−1. When 1 mol of strong monoprotic acid is mixed with
Paragraph for Questions 69 to 71: Figure below is a volume vs.
1 mol of strong base, the above neutralization reaction takes place.
temperature plot for one mole of gas.
When a weak acid/base reacts with a strong base/acid, the
A B release of heat is less than 57.54 k J mol−1. It is because of the fact
20 L
that these acids/bases are not completely ionized in the solution.
Some heat is consumed in ionizing them.
V
10 L 75. When 1 g equiv. of NaOH reacts with 0.33 g equiv. of HCl,
C enthalpy change is −4.6 cal. When 0.66 g equiv. of HCl is fur-
Graph for one mole gas
ther added, enthalpy change would be
(a) −13.7 cal (b) −9.2 cal (c) 13.7 cal (d) 9.2 cal
200 K 400 K
76. In the following reaction involving neutralization of HF
T
(a weak acid) with NaOH (a strong base).
69. The process A → B is HF(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaF(aq) + H2O(l)
(a) isobaric. (b) isochoric. the heat of neutralization is −68.6 k J mol−1. This value is
(c) isothermal. (d) adiabatic. much higher than the heat of neutralization of strong acid
70. The pressure at C is with strong base (= −57.3 k J mol−1). This is because
(a) 3.284 atm (b) 1.642 atm (a) in aqueous solution, HF behaves as a strong acid.
(c) 0.0821 atm (d) 0.821 atm (b) there is hydration of F− ion in aqueous solution, and pro-
cess is exothermic.
71. Work done in the process C → A is (c) non-solubility of HF in water.
(a) zero (b) 8.21 L atm (d) formation of hydrogen bonding among HF molecules.
(c) 16.2 L atm (d) cannot be predicted
77. Heat of dissociation of CH3COOH is 0.005 kcal g−1; hence,
Paragraph for Questions 72 to 74: Consider the following reac- enthalpy change when 1 mol of Ca(OH)2 is completely neu-
tion N2O4(g) →2NO2(g). The Gibbs energy of the reaction occur- tralized by CH3COOH is
ring at 298 K and 1 atm has been plotted against the fraction of (a) −27.4 kcal (b) −13.6 kcal
N2O4 dissociated as shown in below figure. (c) −26.8 kcal (d) −27.1 kcal
6 Paragraph for Questions 78 to 80: The thermodynamic property
that measures the extent of molecular disorder is called entropy.
5 The direction of a spontaneous process for which the energy is
∆G° (kJ mol−1)
4
Entropy change of phase transformation can be calculated using
3 Trouton’s formula (∆S = ∆H/T). In the reversible adiabatic pro-
cess, however, ∆S will be zero. The rise in temperature in isobaric
2 and isochoric conditions is found to increase the randomness or
1 N2O4 entropy of the system.
0.84 kJ
T
∆S = 2.303C log 1
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 T2
Fraction of N2O4 dissociated where C = Cp or CV .
78. The entropy change in an adiabatic process is 83. Match the process with the expression.
(a) zero.
(b) always positive. Column I Column II
(c) always negative. (a) For spontaneous
(p) ∑ ∆ bondH (reactants) − ∑ ∆bond
(d) sometimes positive and sometimes negative.
H (products)
79. If water in an insulated vessel at −10°C suddenly freezes, the (b) For endothermic (q) ∆ r H = ∆ rU
entropy change of the system will be
(a) +10 J K−1 mol−1 (c) Bond dissociation energy (r) ∆G < 0
(b) −10 J K−1 mol−1 (d) For solids and liquids (s) ∑ H (products) > ∑ H (reactants)
(c) zero. in a thermochemical
(d) equal to that of surroundings. reaction
80. The melting point of a solid is 300 K and its latent heat of
fusion is 600 cal mol−1. The entropy change for the fusion of 84.
1 mol of the solid (in cal K−1) at the same temperature would Column I Column II
be
(a) Reversible isothermal (p) w = −2.303nRT log (p2/p1)
(a) 200 (b) 2 (c) 0.2 (d) 20
process
Matrix-Match Type (b) Reversible adiabatic (q) w = 0
process
81. Match the column correctly:
(c) Irreversible adiabatic (r) w = −2.303nRT log (V2/V1)
Column I Column II process
(a) Extensive properties (p) Density (at constant p, V, (d) Irreversible isothermal (s) w = nC (T − T )
and T) process
V ,m 2 1
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (a)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a)
Level II
55. (b), (c), (d) 56. (b), (c), (d) 57. (b), (c) 58. (a), (b) 59. (a), (d) 60. (a), (b),(c)
61. (a), (b), (d) 62. (a), (b), (c), (d) 63. (a), (b) 64. (b), (c) 65. (c), (d) 66. (a), (b), (c)
67. (a), (c) 68. (b), (d) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (c) 72. (c)
73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (a)
79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (a) → r; (b) → t; (c) → s; (d) → q; (e) → p 82. (a) → p, (b) → r, (c) → q, (d) → s
83. (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → q 84. (a) → p, r; (b) → s; (c) → q; (d) → t 85. (1) 86. (6)
87. (44) 88. (0)
11. (b) The larger the value of bond enthalpy, the stronger the 21. (b) Polymerization reaction nCH2 CH2 → (CH2 CH2)n
bond. 1 mol of C C bond is broken and 2 mol of C C bonds
are formed per mole of ethylene.
12. (c) As ΔG = −ve for spontaneous change and ΔG = ΔH − TΔS.
∆H = 590 − 2 × 331 = 590 − 662 (590 is spent, and 2 × 331
Thus, we have
is formed).
∆H 4000
T ∆S > ∆H ⇒ T > ⇒T > ⇒ T > 400 K = −72 k J mol−1 of ethylene.
∆S 10
45. (b) According to Kirchhoff’s equation, We aim at: N2 (g) + 3Cl2 (g) 2NCl3 (g) ∆ f H = ?
∆H2 − ∆H1 Adding 2 × Eq. (1) + Eq. (2) −3 × Eq. (3), we get
= ∆C p
T2 − T1 ∆H2 3
2 ∆ f H = − 2 ∆H1 + [ − ∆H2 − 3∆H3 ] ⇒ ∆ f H = − ∆H1 − − ∆H3
∆H2 − ∆H1 = ∆C p (T2 − T1) 2 2
∆H2 = ∆H1 + ∆C p (T2 − T1) 54. (a) The maximum work is equal to ΔG for the reaction, so
we need to calculate ΔG ° using the balanced equa-
8 + (32 × 10 −3 )( 400 − 300 ) = − 282.6 kJ mol−1
= − 285.8 tion for the reaction of combustion of one mole of
C8H18 .
46. (a) Temperature and volume are related for adiabatic pro-
cess as: T2V2g −1 = T1V1g −1. Therefore, C8H18 (l) + 12 21 O2 (g) → 8CO2 (g) + 9H2O(l)
g −1 1/ 3
Then,
T1V1g −1 V 1 1
T2 = = T1 1 = 300 = 300 × = 150 K o o
∆G = [8 ∆ f GCO + 9 ∆ f GHo2 O(l) ] − [ ∆ f GCo8H18 (l) + 12.5∆ f GOo 2( g) ]
V2g −1 V
2 8 2 2 ( g)
56. (b), (c), (d) A process can be assumed to be at equilibrium in Passage Type
between a spontaneous and non-spontaneous situation.
∆G = ∆H − T∆S 69. (b) The process is isochoric because volume remains con-
At equilibrium, ∆G = 0. stant with increase in temperature.
∆H = T∆S 0.0821× 200
70. (b) pV = RT ⇒ p = = 1.642 atm
T = ∆H/∆S = 978 K = 705 °C. 10
57. (b), (c) ∆G = ∆H − T∆S
71. (c) w = p∆V = 1.642 × 10 = 16.42 L atm
ΔH ΔS Temperature (T) Spontaneity
72. (c) ΔG ° = (−5.40) + (−0.84) = −6.24 k J
− − Low T Spontaneous
+ + Low T Non-spontaneous 73. (c) ΔG ° = −0.84 k J
74. (d) 2NO2 N2O 4 ∆G ° = − 6.24 kJ
T V 373
58. (a), (b) ∆S = nCV ln f + nR ln f = 5 ln + 2 ln10 2NO2 → N2O 4 ∆G ° = − 5.40 kJ
T i V i 298
One reaction is in equilibrium the other is not.
Also, Cp − CV = R ⇒ Cp = 7. 75. (b) The reaction involved is
Now, ∆H = nCp∆T = 1 × 7 × 75 = 525 cal
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
and ∆U = nCV∆T = 1 × 5 × 75 = 375 cal
Initial g equivalent. 0.33 1 0 0
59. (a), (d) The overall process is cyclic.
g equivalent at equilibrium 0 0.67 0.33 0.33
Thus, ∆U = 0, ∆H = 0, ∆S = 0.
g equivalent added 0.66 0.01 0.66 0.66
Now, ∆U = q + w ⇒ 0 = q + w ⇒ q = −w
∆H = −4.6 cal. On further addition ∆H = −9.2 cal
Total work = wAB + wBC + wCA
VC 76. (b) The observed value of heat of neutralization of HF is
w = − p(VB − VA ) + 0 + 2.303 × nRT log more due to extensive solvation of F− ion because of
VA
its small size. Hydration reactions are exothermic also in
VC nature.
= −1 × ( 40 − 20 ) + 0 + 2.303 × pAVa log
VA
= −6.13 L atm = −621.1 J 77. (c) 2CH3COOH + Ca(OH)2 → (CH3COO)2Ca + 2H2O
2 mol 1 mol
(as 1 L atm = 101.325 J)
∆ dissH of CH3COOH = 0.005 kcal g−1 × 60 = 0.3 kcal mol−1
60. (a), (b), (c) Adiabatic means no exchange of heat energy
from the surrounding. ∆U = q + w. When q = 0, ∆U = w. For 2 moles = 0.6 K cal
Enthalpy change for neutralization of 2 moles of
61. (a), (b), (d) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system,
∆SU,V > 0. For a reversible adiabatic process, ∆SU,V = 0. CH3COOH = (−13.7 K cal × 2 + 0.6 K cal) = −26.8 K cal
62. (a), (b), (c), (d) ∆G = 0 indicates that the system is at equilib- 78. (a) As q = 0, so ∆S = q/T = 0
rium and ∆G is negative for all spontaneous processes. 79. (c) As there is decrease in randomness, ∆S = 0.
Exergonic process will occur spontaneously and is thermo-
∆Hfus 600
dynamically favorable. 80. (b) ∆S = = = 2 cal K −1
Enodergonic processes are not spontaneous at standard Tmelt 300
conditions of pressure, temperature.
Matrix-Match Type
63. (a), (b) Melting is an endothermic process.
81. (a) → r; (b) → t; (c) → s; (d) → q; (e) → p
64. (b), (c) Strong acids and alkalis are completely ionized.
Enthalpy change depends upon the equivalent of acid or Extensive properties depend on the quantity of matter pres-
alkali used and not upon their nature. ent in the system.
If the system exchanges only energy with the surroundings
65. (c), (d) Heat of combustion is the amount of heat released and not the matter.
when 1 mol of that substance burns in excess of air. Path functions are those that depend only on the path and
not the state of the system.
66. (a), (b), (c) Intensive properties are those properties that
In adiabatic process, no heat can flow from the system to the
depend only upon the nature of the substance and are inde-
surroundings and vice versa.
pendent of the amount of substance present in the system.
Temperature, pressure, viscosity, surface tension, refractive Intensive properties are those that do not depend on the
index and specific heat are examples of intensive properties. matter present in the system.
67. (a), (c) In both the reactions, large number of molecules 82. (a) → p, (b) → r, (c) → q, (d) → s
combine together to form lesser number of molecules. Using the equation ∆G = ∆H − T∆S
68. (b), (d) ∆U = q + w; work done = 0, heat given out = −q. 83. (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → q.
Temperature falls, thus the internal energy decreases.
Gibbs free energy is negative for spontaneous process. Now, heat gained by ice = heat lost by water
Heat is absorbed in case of endothermic process. So, 52 × 80 + mass of ice at 40 °C × 0.5 × 40 =
Bond dissociation enthalpy is the energy needed to break 1 mol 100 × 1 × 40 °C
of the bond. 100 × 1× 40 − 52 × 80
Mass of ice at 40 °C = =8g
∆rH = ∆rU + ∆nRT . Now, ∆n = 0 for solids and liquids, so ∆rH = ∆rU. 0.5 × 40
Therefore, the mass of ice that remains = 52 − 8 = 44 g
84. (a) → p, r; (b) → s; (c) → q; (d) → t
3
Integer Type 88. (0) For a monoatomic perfect gas CV = R
2
85. (1) K = e−∆G °/RT = e0 = 1 The change in internal energy, ∆U = CV ∆T
86. (6) 1 atm L = 101.325 J. Therefore, 3
1 ∆U = × 8.314 × 100 = 1247.1 J = 1.247 kJ
607.8 J = × 607.8 = 5.99 ≈ 6 L atm 2
101.325
87. (44) We know that specific heat of ice = (1/2) of specific heat Since the volume remains constant, w = 0.SOL
of water = 0.5 cal g−1 deg−1.
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g−1
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes, Hydrolysis of Salts
2007 and pH Determination of their Aqueous Solutions, Buffer Solutions,
Equilibria for Sparingly Soluble Salts
Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes, Acid-Base Concept, Acid Base Titrations, Equilibria for Sparingly Soluble
2008
Hydrolysis of Salts and pH Determination of their Aqueous Solutions Salts
Hydrolysis of Salts and pH Determination of their
2009 Equilibria for Sparingly Soluble Salts
Aqueous Solutions
Acid-Base Concept, Acid-Base Equilibria, Equilibria for Sparingly
2010 Buffer Solutions , Acid-Base Concept
Soluble Salts
Common Ion Effect, Equilibria for Sparingly Soluble
2011 Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes
Salts
2012 Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes, Acid-Base Equilibria
Hydrolysis of Salts and pH Determination of their
2013 Aqueous Solutions, Equilibria for Sparingly Soluble
Salts, Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes
Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes, Factors Affecting
Equilibria and Le Chatelier’s Principle, Acid-Base Concept, Hydrolysis
2014
of Salts and pH Determination of their Aqueous Solutions, Buffer
Solutions, Equilibria for Sparingly Soluble Salts
Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes, Factors Affecting
2015
Equilibria and Le Chatelier’s Principle
SUMMARY
1. An equilibrium system is the system in which the macroscopic properties of the system, such as temperature, pressure, concentra-
tion, etc., do not change. An equilibrium is attained in a closed system. Any increase in these properties is balanced by a decrease in
that property within the system. There are two kinds of equilibrium (a) Physical equilibrium and (b) Chemical equilibrium.
2. Physical equilibrium
An equilibrium which exists between different physical states or when phases undergo transition. The physical equilibrium can be
attained in closed system. The rate of change between the phases is the same at equilibrium. Thus, the equilibrium is stable yet
dynamic because two opposing processes take place simultaneously and at the same rate.
(a) Types of physical equilibrium
(i) Solid–liquid equilibrium: The state when solid and liquid phases of a substance coexist is called solid-liquid equilibrium.
Solid Liquid
If no heat is exchanged with the surroundings, then the temperature and the mass of the two phases (solid and liquid)
remain constant.
(ii) Liquid–vapour equilibrium: When a liquid is transformed into a gas is known as evaporation or vapourization.
Water (liquid) Water (vapour)
(iii) Solid–vapour equilibrium: The process by which a solid is directly converted into vapour or gaseous state is known as
sublimation. The stage of dynamic equilibrium wherein the rate of conversion of solid to its vapour is the same as the rate
at which vapours condense back to solid is solid-vapour equilibrium.
Iodine (solid) Iodine (vapour)
(b) Equilibrium in dissolution of solids and gases in liquids and Henry’s law
(i) Solids in liquids: When the maximum amount of solid is dissolved in a given amount of liquid at a given temperature, the
solution is said to be a saturated solution. The dynamic equilibrium that exists between solute molecules dissolved in the
solution and molecules in solid form in a saturated solution is as follows:
Sugar (solution) Sugar (solid)
(ii) Gases in liquids: At a given pressure, equilibrium exists between the gas (e.g. CO2) molecules dissolved in the liquid and
those in gaseous state, is represented as
CO2 (gas) CO2 (in solution)
The amount of gas dissolved is determined by the pressure.
(c) Henry’s law (also called the Pressure–solubility law) states that the concentration of a gas dissolved in a given volume of a
liquid at any given temperature is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas over the solution.
C gas = K H pgas (K H is a constant)
where Cgas is the concentration of the gas and pgas is the partial pressure of the gas above the solution. The proportionality con-
stant, KH, called the Henry’s law constant, is unique to each gas.
An alternate (and commonly used) form of Henry’s law is
C1 C2
=
p1 p2
3. Chemical equilibrium
The state at which the concentration of reactants and products do not change with time is called a state of chemical equilibrium. It is
a dynamic system in which two or more opposing chemical reactions are going on at the same time and at the same rate. Chemical
equilibrium can be attained only in a closed system.
(a) Law of chemical equilibrium and equilibrium constant
The law of mass action correlates the rate of a chemical reaction and the concentration of the reactants. It states that, at a con-
stant temperature and pressure, the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of the molar concentration
of the reactants each raised to a power equal to the corresponding stoichiometric coefficient, which appears in the balanced
chemical equation.
Consider a reversible reaction, aA + bB c C + d D
At equilibrium, the two rates become equal, i.e., Rate of forward reaction (Rf ) = Rate of reverse reaction (Rr)
So, at equilibrium, kf [A]a [B]b = kr [C]c [D]d
k f [C]c [D]d
= = KC
kr [A ]a [B]b
The ratio of kf/kr is the equilibrium constant KC.
The above equation is called law of chemical equilibrium or the equilibrium law.
(b) Characteristics of equilibrium constant
(i) For any reaction, KC is constant for a specific temperature.
(ii) It is independent of the initial concentrations of the reactants.
(iii) It is independent of presence of catalyst and inert materials in the reaction.
(iv) It is independent of the direction from which the equilibrium is attained.
(v) It is dependent on the representation of the reaction. The equilibrium of the reverse reaction is the reciprocal of the equilib-
rium constant of the forward reaction.
[C][D]
A + B C + D KC =
[A][B]
[A][B]
C + D A + B K C′ =
[C][D]
1
Therefore, K C′ =
KC
(vi) If a chemical equation is multiplied by a common factor (n), then the new equilibrium constant should also reflect the
change. For example,
[C][D]
A + B C + D KC =
[A][B]
[C]n [D]n
nA + nB nC + nD K C′ = = (K C )n
[A]n [B]n
(c) Equilibrium constant for gaseous reactions (Kp)
For gaseous reactions, since gas pressures are more conveniently measured, the equilibrium law expressions for gaseous reac-
tions are written using partial pressures instead of molar concentrations.
[ pC ]c × [ pD ]d
Therefore, Kp =
[ pA ]a × [ pB ]b
where, pA, pB, pC and pD the partial pressures of A, B, C and D, respectively and Kp is called pressure equilibrium constant.
(ii) A heterogeneous equilibria is established in a system where the reactants and products are in more than one phase, such
as between solid and liquid, liquid and gas, solid and gas, etc.
CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
CuO(s) + H2 (g) Cu(s) + HO2 (g)
(iii) Simultaneous equilibrium occurs when more than one equilibrium exists in the same container simultaneously. For
example,
CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
CO2 (g) + C(s) 2CO(g)
Hence, CO2(g) is the common species in both these equilibria and its concentration at equilibrium will be the same for both
finally.
(g) Applications of equilibrium constants
(i) Predicting the extent of a reaction
• When K is very large, the reaction proceeds far towards completion. The position of equilibrium lies far to the right,
towards the products.
• When K is very small, extremely small amounts of products are formed. The position of equilibrium lies far to the left,
towards the reactants.
• A special case is when K ≈ 1, then the concentrations of reactants and products are nearly the same at equilibrium. The
position of equilibrium lies approximately midway between reactants and products.
(ii) Predicting the direction of reaction
• Reaction quotient (Q) is expressed for any reaction in the same way as for equilibrium constant, except that the concen-
trations may not necessarily be equilibrium. In general, for a reaction of the type
aA + bB cC + dD
[C]c [D]d
Q=
[A]a [B]b
(pC )c (pD )d
or in terms of pressure, we have Q=
(pA )a (pB )b
• Relation between QC and KC values and the direction of reaction
Tip
−∆G °/RT
(i) If ΔG° < 0, then −ΔG°/RT is positive, and therefore, e > 1 or K > 1. Reaction is spontaneous and it pro-
ceeds in the forward direction to an extent that products are present predominantly.
(ii) If ΔG° > 0, then −ΔG°/RT is negative, and therefore, e −∆G °/RT < 1 or K < 1. Reaction is non-spontaneous and it
proceeds in the forward direction to a small extent, such that very small quantities of products are formed.
An increase of pressure will cause a decrease in volume so, an increase of pressure on a gaseous system will shift the equilib-
rium in a direction where there is a decrease in number of moles of gaseous state i.e. in the reverse direction and vice-versa.
(c) Effect of addition of an inert gas
• Inert gas added keeping pressure of the system constant: The addition of an inert gas increases the volume of the system,
which in turn, causes the equilibrium position of the system to move in the direction of larger number of gaseous molecules.
• Inert gas added keeping volume of the system constant: Addition of an inert gas into a system at equilibrium under con-
stant volume causes an increase in the pressure of the system and an increase in the total number of moles in the system.
V n
Total pressure of a system is then given by, ptotalV = ntotal RT or = total
RT ptotal
Under constant volume, at any temperature, the ratio ntotal /ptotal remains constant even on the addition of an inert gas i.e.,
the equilibrium position of the reaction remains unaffected. As a result, there is no change in any of the variable and the
amount of the substances at equilibrium by the addition of inert gas.
(d) Effect of change in temperature
• Increasing the temperature shifts a reaction in a direction that produces an endothermic (heat-absorbing) change.
• Decreasing the temperature shifts a reaction in a direction that produces an exothermic (heat-releasing) change.
(e) Effect of adding catalyst: A catalyst in a system that reaches a point of equilibrium increases the rate of both the forward
and reverse reactions proportionally, but does not change the point of equilibrium. The function of a catalyst is simply to
reach the point of equilibrium in less time.
4. Concepts of acids and bases
(a) Arrhenius concept
(i) Acids are compounds that produce H+ ions in water. For example,
HCl(aq) + H2O(l) → H3O + (aq) + Cl− (aq)
H3O+ is the acid species known as the hydronium ion.
(ii) Bases are compounds that produce OH− ions in water forming basic solutions (or alkaline/caustic solutions).
HO
NaOH(s)
2
→ Na+ (aq) + OH− (aq)
Limitations
(i) Applicable only to aqueous solutions.
(ii) Cannot explain the basic nature of substances that do not contain a hydroxyl group or for the acidic nature of substances
that do not contain a hydrogen (hydronium) ion.
(b) Brönsted–Lowry concept
(i) Acids are species that donate protons and bases are species that accept protons.
(ii) HCl is a Brönsted acid (proton donor) because when it reacts with NH3 (Brönsted base, a proton acceptor), HCl molecules
donate protons to NH3 molecules.
NH3 (aq) + HCl(l) NH+4 (aq) + Cl− (aq)
In the reverse reaction, NH+4 behaves as a Brönsted acid, while Cl− ion behaves as a Brönsted base.
(iii) Two substances that differ from each other only by one proton are referred to as a conjugate acid–base pair.
conjugate pair
conjugate pair
Limitation
(i) Some reactions which do not involve proton transfer and have properties similar to acid–base reactions.
(c) Lewis concept
(i) Lewis acid is any ionic or molecular species that can accept a pair of electrons in the formation of a coordinate covalent
bond. These substances have an incomplete valence shell, such as BF3, H+, CO2 and SO2.
(ii) Lewis base is any ionic or molecular species that can donate a pair of electrons in the formation of a coordinate covalent
bond. These substances have completed valence shells and unshared pairs of electrons, such as NH3, H2O, and O2−.
Limitations
(i) Fails to explain the behaviour of monoprotic and polyprotic acids, such as HCl, H2SO4, etc.
(ii) Does not help in predicting the relative strength of acids and bases.
5. Ionic equilibrium
In a system involving ionic species, if the number of ions formed is equal to the number of ions consumed, the system is said to be in
ionic equilibrium. The substances that form ions in aqueous solutions or in fused state are called electrolytes. Substances that ion-
ized almost completely are known as strong electrolytes. Examples of strong electrolytes are NaCl, KCl, KNO3 and K2SO4. Substances
that ionize to a small extent are known as weak electrolytes. For example CH3COOH, HCN, etc.
(a) Ionization of electrolytes
(i) When an electrolyte is dissolved in water, it ionizes to produce ions in the solution, which are free to move throughout the
bulk of the solution.
(ii) The total number of positive charges is equal to the total number of negative charges in any solution of any electrolyte. The
ions tend to recombine to form the unionized electrolyte. Hence, a dynamic equilibrium exists between the ionized and
unionized form of the electrolyte.
AB A+ + B+
The ionization constant (K) is then given by,
[A+ ][B − ]
K=
[AB]
(iii) The fraction of the total number of molecules present as free ions in the solution is known as the degree of ionization (a).
Number of molecules present as ions
a=
Total number of molecu
ules of the electrolyte
The extent of dissociation increases with increase in dilution and degree of dissociation of an electrolyte at infinite dilution
is assumed to be unity (i.e. a = 1).
(b) Ostwald’s dilution law
The expression that correlates the variation of the degree of dissociation of an electrolyte with dilution is known as Ostwald’s
dilution law.
a2
KC =
(1− a )V
where C is the initial concentration of the electrolyte in mol L−1 and a is the degree of dissociation.
(i) For weak electrolytes: The degree of dissociation is small, that is, a 1, therefore, 1 – a ≈ 1.
a2
KC =
V
KC
or a = KC V =
C
1
a =K ’ V =K ’
C
where K ’ = K C .
(ii) For strong electrolytes: a is large and cannot be neglected in comparison to 1.
a2
KC =
(1− a )V
or a 2 = K C V − K Ca V
or a 2 + a K CV − K CV = 0
Solution of this quadratic equation gives the value of a.
[H3O+ ][A − ]
K C′ =
[HA ][H2O]
Since in dilute aqueous solutions [H2O] can be considered a constant, so it can be combined with K C′ to give a new equilibrium
constant.
[H3O+ ][A − ]
K C′ × [H2O] = = Ka
[HA ]
[H+ ][A − ]
or Ka =
[HA ]
This new constant Ka is called an acid dissociation or ionization constant.
k1C (1 − a ) = k2Ca × Ca
Ca × Ca k1
= = Ka
C (1− a ) k2
a 2C
Ka = mol L−1
1− a
HF F−
HNO2 NO2−
Weak bases
C2H3O2−
HOCl OCl−
NH4+ NH3
[CH3COOH][OH− ]
The hydrolysis constant Kh is expressed as K h =
[CH3COO − ]
[CH3COO − ][H+ ] K
We know that Kw = [H+][OH−] and Ka = . Comparing with above equation we get K h = w
pH is expressed as CH3COOH Ka
[Salt]
pH = pK a + log
[Acid]
In hydrolysis of salts, the degree of dissociation is replaced by degree of hydrolysis, which is represented by h.
Ch × Ch Ch2
We get Kh = =
C (1− h) 1− h
Kw Kw
As h 1, we have Ch2 = ⇔h=
Ka K aC
kw k C
[OH− ] = Ch = C × = w
K aC Ka
Kw K wK a
[H+ ] = =
[OH− ] C
Taking log on both sides and solving, we get
1 1 1 1
− log[H+ ] = log k w − log K a + log C = ( pK w + pka + log C )
2 2 2 2
1 1
pH = 7 + pK a + log C
2 2
Kw K wC
Now, [H+ ] = Ch = C × =
K bC Kb
Kw
The hydrolysis constant can be expressed as K h =
K aK b
Ch × Ch h2
we get Kh = =
C 2 (1− h)2 (1− h)2
Kw Kw
As h 1, we have h2 = ⇔h=
K aK b K aK b
Now, due to common ion effect, the acetate ion coming from CH3COOH can be neglected, thus from the following reaction,
CH3COOH CH3COO − + H+
Ch C (1− h)
[H+ ] Kw K aK w
As h 1, we have Ka = ⇒ [H+ ] = K ah = K a × =
h K aK b Kb
Tip The degree of hydrolysis of salts of weak acids and weak bases is unaffected by the dilution because there is no
concentration term in the expression of degree of hydrolysis.
(d) Salt of strong acid and strong base does not undergo salt hydrolysis. The pH in such cases is
1
pH = pK w
2
Tip Degree of hydrolysis always increases with the increase in temperature because at an elevated temperature, the
increase in Kw is greater as compared to Ka and Kb.
8. Buffer solutions
(a) It contains solutes that enable it to resist large changes in pH when small amounts of either strong acid or strong base are added
to it.
(b) Buffers generally consist of mixtures of weak acids and their salts or weak bases and their salts. If the pH of the buffer solution
is less than 7, it is called an acidic buffer and if the pH of the solution is more than 7, it is called a basic buffer.
9. pH of buffer solutions: Henderson–Hasselblach equation
(a) pH of an acidic buffer
[Salt]
pH = pK a + log
[Acid]
(b) pH of a basic buffer
[Salt]
pOH = pK b + log
[Base]
A xB y xA y + + yB x −
Applying the law of chemical equilibrium, we get
[A y + ] x [B x − ] y
K=
[A xB y ]
Tip For a given electrolyte, solubility product is always constant at a particular temperature.
HPh H+ + Ph−
(Colourless) (Pink)
CH3
Benzenoid form
(Stable in alkali,
colourless or yellow)
CH3
−O
3S N N N
CH3
Quinonoid form
(Stable in acid,
red in colour)
(Continued)
Weak acid vs. strong base • The curve starts from a higher acidic pH and ends at
15 high basic pH.
14 • The pH change at the equivalence point (pH > 7) is
13 not so great.
12 • Phenolphthalein is the suitable indicator for such
11 titration.
Equivalence point,
10
pH = 8.88
9
8
pH
7
6
5
4 Volume of NaOH used
3 to reach equivalence
2 point is 25.00 mL.
1
0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
Volume (mL) of 0.2000 M NaOH added
0.2 M acetic acid is titrated with 0.2 M NaOH.
Weak base vs. strong acid • The curve starts from a higher acidic pH and ends at
15 low basic pH.
14 • There is no sharp pH change at the equivalence
13 point (pH~7) and makes very difficult for titration to
12 perform.
11 • Methyl red and methyl orange are suitable indicators
10
for such titration.
9
8
pH
7 Equivalence point,
6 pH = 5.12
5
4 Volume of HCl used
3 to reach equivalence
2 point is 25.00 mL.
1
0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
Volume (mL) of 0.2000 M HCl added
0.2 M ammonia is titrated with 0.2 M HCl.
Second equivalence
point
A2−
pH
HA−
First equivalence
point
H2A
Write the equilibrium law Write the equilibrium law Write the equilibrium law
based on the equation. based on the equation. based on the equation.
3. If the percentage ionization is known, you can calculate the change in the concentration of the acid or base and then use that infor-
mation to calculate the Ka or Kb.
moles per litre ionized
Percentage Ionization = × 100
moles per litre available
4. Relationship between Kp and KC
∆ng
K p = K C × (RT )
K = e −∆G °/RT
pH= K a1 × C1 + K a2 × C2
However, if both acids are too weak (pH ranging from 10−10 to 10−14) or the solutions are too dilute the alternate formula from
charge-balance method is given as
[H+ ] = K a1 + C1 + K a2 + C2 + K w
11. Hydrolysis at a glance
Hydrolysis
Salt Degree of hydrolysis constant pH
(i) NaCl (Strong acid + Strong base) No hydrolysis
Kw Kw 1
(ii) CH3COONa (Weak acid + Strong base) h= Kh= pH = [pKw + pKa + logC]
K aC Ka 2
Kw Kw 1
(iii) NH4Cl (Strong acid + Weak base) h= Kh = pH = [pKw – pKb – logC]
K bC Kb 2
(iv) CH3COONH4 Kw Kw 1
h= Kh = pH = [pKw + pKa – pKb]
(Weak acid + Weak base) K aK b K aK b 2
SOLVED EXAMPLES
x
Equilibrium in Physical and Chemical Processes Therefore, the partial pressure of PCl3 is p(PCl3 ) = p
x + 1
1. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows, in a closed
reaction vessel, PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) . If total pressure at 2. The equilibrium for the reaction SO3 (g) SO2 (g) + 21 O2 (g)
equilibrium of the reaction mixture is p and degree of dissocia- is KC = 4.9 × 10−2. The value of KC for the reaction
tion of PCl5 is x, the partial pressure of PCl3 will be 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) will be
x 2x x x (a) 416 (b) 2.40 × 10−3
(a) p (b) p (c) p (d) p
x + 1 1− x x − 1 1− x (c) 9.8 × 10−2 (d) 4.9 × 10−2
(AIEEE 2006)
(AIEEE 2006) Solution
Solution
(a) For SO2 + 21 O2 SO3 K C′ = (1/K C )
(a) The reaction can be represented as
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) For 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 K C′ = (1/K C )2
Initial moles 1 0 0 The equilibrium constant is
Moles at equilibrium 1− x x x 2
1 10 4 10000
The total number of moles at equilibrium = 1 − x + x + x = 1 + x K C′ = = = = 4.1649 × 100 = 416.49
4.9 × 10 −2 4.9 × 4.9 24.01
At t = 0 1 0 0 x = 0.5 = 76.66
At t = equil. 1 − x x/2 x/2 dRT pMavg 1× 76.66
1 – 0.5 0.25 0.25 p= ⇒ d= = = 3.11 gL−1
Mavg RT 0.0821× 300
The equilibrium constant for dissociation of HI is
[H2 ][I2 ] 0.25 × 0.25 1 12. For the reaction equilibrium, N2O 4 (g) 2NO2 (g) the con-
KC = 2
= = = 0.25 centrations of N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8 × 10−2 and
[HI] 0.5 × 0.5 4
1.2 × 10−2 mol L−1, respectively. The value of KC for the reac-
10. For the decomposition of the compound, represented as tion is
NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), Kp = 2.9 × 10−5 atm3. (a) 3.3 × 10−2 mol L−1 (b) 3 × 10−1 mol L−1
−3
(c) 3 × 10 mol L −1 (d) 3 × 103 mol L−1
If the reaction is started with 1 mol of the compound, the
total pressure at equilibrium would be: Solution
(a) 1.94 × 10−2 atm (b) 5.82 × 10−2 atm
(c) The equilibrium concentration is
(c) 7.66 × 10−2 atm (d) 38.8 × 10−2 atm
(JEE Main Online 2014) . × 10 −2 )2
[NO2 ]2 (12
KC = = = 3 × 10 −3 mol L−1
Solution [N2O 4 ] (4.8 × 10 −2 )
(b) 13. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction
NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g) P4 (s) + 5O2 (g) P4 O10 (s) ?
At t = 0 1 0 0 [P4 O10 ] 1
(a) K C = 5
(b) K C =
At t = equil. 2p p (partial pressure ) [P4 ][O2 ] [O2 ]5
K p = [2p]2 [ p] [P O ]
(c) K C = [O2 ]5 (d) K C = 4 10
5[P4 ][O2 ]
K p = 4 p3
Solution
1/ 3 1/ 3
Kp 29 × 10 −6 [P4 O10 ]
p = = (b) The equilibrium constant is given by K C = .
4 4 [P4 ][O2 ]5
As the concentration of solids is taken as unity, we have
p = (7.25 × 10 −6 )1/ 3 atm
1
p = 1.94 × 10 −2 atm KC =
[O2 ]5
14. For the reaction CO(g) + Cl2 (g) COCl2 (g) the ratio Kp/KC is For option (a): ∆ng = 2 − 1 = 1⇒ K p = K C × (RT )
equal to
For option (b): ∆ng = 2 − 2 = 0 ⇒ K p = K C × (RT )0 ⇒ K p = K C
(a) (1/RT) (b) 1.0 (c) RT (d) RT
Solution For option (c): ∆ng = 5 − 0 = 5 ⇒ K p = K C × (RT )5
(a) We know that Kp = KC (RT)∆ng For option (d): ∆ng = 1− 0 = 1⇒ K p = K C × (RT )
where ∆ng = number of moles of products in gaseous
phase − number of moles of reactants in gaseous phase 18. At a certain temperature, KC = 0.64 for the reaction
= 1 − 2 = −1 Kp NO2 (g) + NO(g) N2O(g) + O2 (g). Equal moles of NO and
1
Substituting, we get K p = K C (RT )−1 ⇒ = NO2 are to be placed in a 5.0 L container until the N2O con-
K C RT
centration at equilibrium is 0.05 M. How many moles of gases
15. An amount of solid NH4SH is placed in a flask already contain- exist in the vessel?
ing ammonia gas at a certain temperature and 0.50 atm pres- (a) 0.225 mol (b) 0.5625 mol
sure. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield (c) 1.125 mol (d) 2.62 mol
NH3 and H2S gases in the flask. When the decomposition reac- Solution
tion reaches equilibrium, the total pressure in the flask rises to
0.84 atm. The equilibrium constant for NH4SH decomposition (d)
at this temperature is NO2 (g) + NO(g) N2O (g) + O2 (g)
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.18 (c) 0.17 (d) 0.11 At t = 0 a a 0 0
Solution At equilibrium a− x a− x x x
(d) The reaction involved is However, x/5 = 0.05 ⇒ x = 0.25 mol
NH4HS(s) NH3 (g) + H2S(g) (0.25/5)2
Kp = = 0.64 ⇒ a − 0.25 = 1 ⇒ a = 1+ 0.25 = 1.31
Initial pressure p0 0.5 0 [(a − 0.25)/5]2 0.25 0.8 0.8
Pressure at equilibrium p0 − p 0.5 + p p
Total moles existing = a + a = 1.31+ 1.31 = 2.62 mol
The total pressure at equilibrium is 0.5 + 2x = 0.84 (given)
Solving, we get x = 0.17. Therefore,
19. At 460°C, the reaction, SO2 ( g) + NO2 ( g) NO( g) + SO3 (g);
K p = pNH3 × pH2 S = (0.67) × (0.17) = 0.1139 has KC = 85. A reaction flask at 460°C contains these gases
at the following concentrations: [SO2] = 0.0025 M, [NO2] =
0.0035 M, [NO] = 0.025 M and [SO3] = 0.04 M.
16. For the reaction 2NO2 (g) 2NO(g) + O2 (g), KC = 1.8 × 10−6 at
Which of the following statements is correct?
184°C and R = 0.0821 kJ mol−1 K−1. When Kp and KC are com-
(a) Reaction is proceeding towards forward direction.
pared at 184°C it is found that
(b) Reaction is proceeding towards reverse direction.
(a) Kp is greater than KC.
(c) Equilibrium would be affected on addition of inert gas at
(b) Kp is less than KC.
constant pressure.
(c) Kp = KC.
(d) The value of Kp is greater than KC.
(d) Whether Kp is greater than, less than or equal to KC
depends upon the total gas pressure. Solution
Solution (b) The reaction quotient is given by
(a) We know that Kp = KC (RT)∆ng [SO3 ][NO] 0.025 × 0.04
where ∆ng = number of moles of products in gaseous Q= = ≈ 114
[SO2 ][NO2 ] 0.0025 × 0.0035
phase − number of moles of reactants in gaseous phase
=3−2=1 Since Q > KC, this implies that the product concentration
Substituting, we get K p = K C (RT ) ⇒ K p > K C is more than the equilibrium concentration, so, reverse
reaction takes place.
17. For which of the following equilibrium, the value of Kp is not The number of moles of reactants and products are
greater than the value of KC? the same, hence, change in pressure will not affect the
(a) 2C(s) + O2 (g) 2CO(g) equilibrium.
The addition of an inert gas at constant pressure will also
(b) 2C(s) + 2H2O(g) CH4 (g) + CO2 (g) not affect the equilibrium.
(c) CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H2O(s) CuSO 4 (s) + 5H2O(g) The two equilibrium constants are related as:
(d) Mg(OH)2 (s) MgO(s) + H2O(g) K p = K C (RT )
∆ng
20. At 25°C, 0.056 mol O2 and 0.02 mol N2O were placed in a 1 L 22. During an experiment, 0.200 mol of H2 and 0.200 mol of I2
container where the following equilibrium was established: were placed into a 1.00 litre vessel where the reaction
2N2O(g) + 3O2 (g) 4NO2 (g).
H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g)
At equilibrium, the NO2 concentration was 0.02 M. What is
the value of KC for this reaction? came to equilibrium. For this reaction, Kc = 49.5 at the tem-
(a) 23.2 (b) 48.78 (c) 34.33 (d) 0.043 perature of the experiment. What were the equilibrium con-
centrations of H2, I2, and HI?
Solution (a) 0.044 M, 0.044 M, 0.312 M
(a) The reaction involved is (b) 0.013 M, 0.013 M, 0.342 M
(c) 0.023 M, 0.023 M, 0.128 M
2N2O(g) + 3O2 (g) 4NO2 (g) (d) 0.015 M, 0.015 M, 0.285 M
Initial conc. 0.02 0.056 0
Solution
Final conc. 0.02 − 2 x 0.056 − 3 x 4x
(a) Initially we have [H2] = [I2] = 0.200 M.
Now, as [NO2] = 0.02 ⇒ x = 0.005 M. Therefore, [O2] =
[H2] [I2] [HI]
0.056 − 3 (0.005) = 0.041 M, and
[N2O] = 0.02 − 2(0.005) = 0.01M Initial concentration 0.200 0.200 0
Concentration at
[NO2 ]4 (0.02)4 0.200 − x 0.200 – x +2x
KC = = = 23.2 equilibrium
2 3 2 3
[N2O] [O2 ] (0.01) × (0.041)
Substituting the above values for equilibrium concentra-
tions into the expression for mass action gives:
21. At 27°C, K p = 1.5 × 1018 for the reaction,
3NO (g) N2O (g) + NO2 (g). If 0.03 mol of NO were placed [HI]2 (2x )2
KC = = = 49.5
[H2 ][I2 ] (0.200 − x )(0.200 − x )
in a 1 L vessel and equilibrium were established, what would
be the equilibrium concentration of NO? Take the square root of both the sides of this equation
[R = 0.082 L atm mol−1 K−1] we get
(a) 0 (b) 4 × 10 −8 M 2x
= 7.04
−7
(c) 1.2 × 10 M (d) 1.4 × 10 −8 M (0.200 − x )
Solution
28. For the reversible reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) at
(d) At equilibrium, ∆G = 0 and equilibrium constant is inde- 500°C, the value of Kp is 1.44 × 10−5 when partial pressure is
pendent of initial concentration of reactant. The catalyst measured in atmosphere. The corresponding value of KC, with
does not affect the equilibrium state. The reaction does concentration in mol L−1, is
not stop at equilibrium, but a dynamic balance is there
between the forward and reverse reactions. Thus, the rate 1.44 × 10 −5 1.44 × 10 −5
of forward reaction is equal to the rate of reverse reaction (a) (b)
(0.082 × 500 )−2 (8.314 × 773)−2
at equilibrium.
26. At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant KC is 16 for 1.44 × 10 −5 1.44 × 10 −5
(c) (d)
the reaction, (0.082 × 773)2 (0.082 × 773)−2
SO2 (g) + NO2 (g) SO3 (g) + NO(g)
Solution
If 1.0 mol each of all the four gases is taken in a 1 L container, (b) Kp = KC (RT)∆n where Kp = 1.44 × 10−5, ∆n = 2 − 4 = −2.
the concentration of NO2 at equilibrium would be
Hence,
(a) 1.6 mol L−1 (b) 0.8 mol L−1
(c) 0.4 mol L−1 (d) 0.6 mol L−1 1.44 × 10 −5
KC =
Solution (8.314 × 773)−2
(c) The reaction is
29. At temperature T, a compound AB2(g) dissociates according
SO2 (g) + NO2 (g) SO3 (g) + NO(g) to the reaction
Initialconcentration 1 1 1 1 2AB2 (g) 2AB( g) + B2 (g)
At equilibrium 1− x 1− x 1+ x 1+ x
with degree of dissociation a, which is small compared with
[SO3 ][NO] (1+ x )(1+ x ) unity. The expression for Kp in terms of a and the total pres-
KC = = sure pT is
[SO2 ][NO2 ] (1− x )(1− x )
p a3 p a2
(a) T (b) T
(1+ x )2 (1+ x ) 2 3
16 = ⇒ = 4 ⇒ x = 0.6
(1− x )2 (1− x )
pTa 2 pTa
−1
(c) (d)
[NO2 ] = 1− x = 1− 0.6 = 0.4 mol L 2 3
27. For the reaction AB2 (g) AB(g) + B(g), if a is negligible with Solution
respect to 1 then degree of dissociation (a ) of AB2 is propor- (a) For the given equilibrium, the equilibrium concentration
tional to is
36. The exothermic formation of CIF3 is represented by the Since reaction is endothermic, increasing the tempera-
equation: ture will increase the production of hydrogen gas. Adding
inert gas at constant volume will not affect the partial
Cl2 (g) + 3F2 (g) 2ClF3 (g); ∆ r H = −329 kJ
pressure of gases inside the container, so no change is
observed.
Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF3 in an
equilibrium mixture of Cl2, F2 and ClF3? 39. In presence of a catalyst, what happens to the chemical
(a) Increasing the temperature equilibrium?
(b) Removing Cl2 (I) Energy of activation of the forward and reverse reactions
(c) Increasing the volume of the container is lowered by the same amount.
(d) Adding F2 (II) Equilibrium amount is not disturbed.
(III) Rates of forward and reverse reaction increase by the
Solution same factor.
(d) According to Le Chatelier’s principle, on increasing the (IV) More product is formed.
concentration of reactants (i.e., adding F2) will shift the (a) (II, III, IV) (b) (I, II, IV)
equilibrium in the forward direction. (c) (I, II, III) (d) (I, III, IV)
37. Consider the equilibrium: Solution
2NaHSO3 (s) Na2SO3 (s) + H2O(g) + SO2 (g) . (c) Catalyst does not enhance the productivity of the reac-
tion. It speeds up the reaction by lowering the energy of
Which of the following will affect this equilibrium?
activation of the forward and reverse reactions
(I) Adding NaHSO3 to the reaction vessel.
without disturbing the state of the equilibrium.
(II) Removing Na2SO3 from the reaction mixture.
(III) Adding H2O (g) to the reaction vessel. 40. The following reactions are known to occur in a system,
(IV) Increasing the volume of the reaction vessel. CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3− . If CO2 escapes from the
(a) I and III only (b) I, II and IV only system, then
(c) III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV (a) pH will decrease.
(b) hydrogen ion concentration will diminish.
Solution
(c) H2CO3 concentration will remain unchanged.
(c) The reaction exhibits a heterogeneous equilibrium, so, (d) the forward reaction will be favoured.
solid state species would not contribute to the equilib-
rium constant. Solution
2NaHSO3 (s) Na2SO3 (s) + H2O(g) + SO2 (g) (b) According to Le Chatelier’s principle, in the given reaction
at equilibrium, if CO2 escapes from system, the equilib-
On the product side, there are SO2 and H2O gases which rium will shift more towards the reverse reaction and
contribute to the equilibrium constant. Any factor that hydrogen ion concentration will diminish from solution.
changes the concentration of these gases will affect
the equilibrium. Therefore, addition of water vapour 41. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure, the for-
and increasing the volume of vessel will affect the mation of atomic hydrogen from molecular hydrogen will be
equilibrium. favoured most?
(a) High temperature and high pressure
38. The amount of H2 gas produced by the reaction, (b) High temperature and low pressure
CH4 (g) + 2H2S(g) CS2 (g) + 4H2 (g) − Heat (c) Low temperature and low pressure
(d) Low temperature and high pressure
can be increased by
(I) increasing pressure. Solution
(II) increasing temperature. (b) H2(g)
Endothermic
2H
(III) increasing volume of container. 1 mol
Exothermic 2 mol
(IV) adding inert gas by keeping volume constant.
According to Le Chatelier’s principle, with decrease in
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only the pressure, the volume occupied by the system will
(c) 1, II and III only (d) I, II, III and IV increase. As such there will be lesser number of moles
Solution per unit volume. The effect of this change can be counter
balanced if the equilibrium shifts in the direction involv-
(b) CH4 (g) + 2H2S(g) CS2 (g) + 4H2 (g) − Heat ing increase in number of moles. Hence, in conversion
In this reaction, gaseous moles are increasing and sign of molecular hydrogen to atomic hydrogen decrease in
of heat is indicating that reaction is endothermic. So, the pressure favours the forward reaction.
production of hydrogen gas can be increased by chang- According to Le Chatelier’s principle, the increase in tem-
ing any factor which will shift the equilibrium to the right perature will favour the forward (endothermic) reaction.
hand side. This equilibrium will shift to the right hand This is because the equilibrium shifts towards the direc-
side if pressure is decreased or volume of the container is tion in which heat is absorbed to relieve the system of the
increased. stress of added heat.
Acid-Base Concept 45. Out of which of the following pair of acids, the first one is
more acidic?
42. Four species are listed below
(a) HSeO3 and HBrO3
(I) HCO3− (II) H3O + (III) HSO 4− (IV) HSO3F (b) HClO3 and HClO2
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their (c) H3AsO4 and H3PO4
acid strength? (d) H2CO3 and HNO3
(a) IV < II < III < I (b) II < III < I < IV
(c) I < III < II < IV (d) III < I < IV < II Solution
(AIEEE 2008) (b) In oxoacids, acidity depends on the electronegativ-
ity of central atom and the number of oxygen atoms
Solution
attached.
(c) Acidic strength of compounds can be determined by If central atom is more electronegative, then its acid
comparing stability of conjugate base of given acid. strength is more and presence of more oxygen atoms
Higher the stability of conjugate base higher is acidic causes more acidity.
strength. In the second option, HClO3 contains more oxygen
(I) HCO3− H+ + CO23 − atoms than HClO2, so HClO3 is more acidic. Therefore
HSeO3 < HBrO3 HClO3 > HClO2
(II) H3O+ H+ + H2O H3AsO4 < H3PO4 H2CO3 < HNO3
(III) HSO 4− H+ + SO24− 46. The anions of sodium hydrogen sulphate, HSO 4− react with
the phosphate ion, PO3−
4
. Identify the two conjugate acid−
base pairs.
(IV) HSO3F H+ + SO 3 F −
Thus, the increasing order of stability of conjugate base is HSO 4− (aq)+PO34− (aq) → SO24− (aq)+HPO24− (aq)
CO23 − < SO24− < H2O < SO3F − or I < III < II < IV (a) HSO 4−, PO3− 2− 2−
4 and HPO 4 , SO 4
ionized) acids both degree of ionization (or Ka) and con- Given that pH = 3, this means −log[H+] = 3 or [H+] = 10−3 M.
centration will be required. Substituting, we get
49. Which of the following indicates the correct order of acidic
strength of the following acids? (10 −3 )2
Ka = = 10 −5
10 −1
(I) HCOOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10–4) (II) CH3COOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5)
(III) HCN (Ka = 4.8 × 10–10) (IV) HS– (Ka = 1× 10–14) 52. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol L−1 in a solution of pH
= 5.4 will be
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) IV > III > II > I (a) 3.98 × 108 (b) 3.88 × 106
(c) I > III > II > IV (d) II > III > IV > I (c) 3.68 × 10 −6 (d) 3.98 × 10−6
Solution Solution
(a) Greater the value of Ka for acids more will be the acidic
strength. Thus, the correct order of acidic strength is, (d) The pH is pH = −log[H+ ] ⇒ 5.4 = −log[H+ ].
HCOOH > CH3COOH > HCN > HS– So, [H+ ] = antilog (6.06 ) = 3.98 × 10 −6 .
Acid-Base Equilibria 53. For the reaction: NH3 + N2H+5 N2H4 + NH+4 , which of the fol-
lowing statements is correct?
50. In aqueous solution the ionization constants for carbonic acid
are K1 = 4.2 × 10−7 and K2 = 4.8 × 10−11. (a) N2H5+ is acting as base and ammonia is acting as acid.
Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution (b) NH+4 is the conjugate base of N2H5+ .
of the carbonic acid.
(c) N2H4 is the conjugate base of NH3.
(a) The concentration of H+ is double that of CO2−
3 .
(b) The concentration of CO2− (d) N2H5+ is the conjugate acid of N2H4.
3 is 0.034 M.
−
(c) The concentration of CO2−3 is greater than of HCO3 . Solution
+ −
(d) The concentrations of H and HCO3 are approximately
equal. (d) According to Brönsted, any compound which can furnish
(AIEEE 2010) H+ ions is an acid and the compound which can accept
Solution H+ ions is a base. So, acid and base actions are just oppo-
site to each other. Also, removal of one H+ from any com-
(d) The reactions are pound produces its conjugate base and addition of H+
H2CO3 H+ + HCO3− K1 = 4.2 × 10 −7 (1) produces its conjugate acid.
In the equilibrium, NH3 + N2H+5 N2H4 + NH+4 , ammonia
HCO3− H +
+ CO32 −
K 2 = 4.8 × 10 −11
(2) is gaining protons, and hence acting as a base. Similarly,
+
As K2 K1, all the H ions (in total) are due to Eq. (1) only. N2H5+ is losing protons, so it is acting as an acid. In this
From the first equation, way, conjugate acid of ammonia is NH+4 and conjugate
base of N2H5+ is N2H4. So, N2H+5 is the conjugate acid of
[H+ ]A = [HCO3 − ] = [H+ ]total N2H4.
[CO2− 2−
3 ] is negligible as compared to [HCO3 ] or [H ]total.
+ 54. Correct options for the following reaction is
+ −
So, the concentrations of H and HCO3 are approximately NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH−
equal.
1
51. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The value of (a) K a(NH+ ) + K b(NH3 ) = 10 −14 (b) K a(NH+ ) × K b(NH3 ) =
4 4
Kw
the ionization constant, Ka of this acid is:
(a) 3 × 10−1 (b) 1 × 10−3 (c) K a(NH+ ) × K b(NH3 ) = K w (d) pK a(NH+ ) + pK b(NH3 ) = 10
(c) 1 × 10−5 (d) 1 × 10−7 4 4
(AIEEE 2012)
Solution
Solution
(c) For weak acids and weak bases K a × K b = K w .
(c) Consider the dissociation of acid HQ
55. The self-ionization constant for pure formic acid,
HQ H+ + Q − K = [HCOOH+2 ][HCOO − ] has been estimated as 10−6 at room
The acid dissociation constant is temperature. What percentage of formic acid molecules in
pure formic acid are converted to formate ion? The density of
[H+ ][Q − ] [H+ ]2 formic acid is 1.22 g cm−3.
Ka = =
[HQ] [HQ] (a) 0.0037 (b) 0.037 (c) 0.37 (d) 1.037
+ −
As at equilibrium [H ] = [Q ]. Solution
(a) Given density of formic acid = 1.22 g cm–3
[H+ ]2
or Ka = ⇒ K a ⋅ C = [H+ ]2 Weight of formic acid in 1 L solution = 1.22 × 103 g
C
56. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is a diprotic acid, H2C6H6O6. [H+], (c) The reaction is
HO
pH and [C6H6O2− 6 ] in a 0.10 M solution of ascorbic acid will be BA B+ + A −
2
→ AH + OH−
→
respectively H 2O
(Given K a1 = 6.8 × 10 −5 and K a2 = 2.7 × 10 −12 for ascorbic acid).
(a) 3.6 × 10−5 M, 2.58, 2.7 × 10 −12 M BOH + H+
(b) 2.6 × 10−3 M, 5.18, 1.5 × 10 −10 M Now since,
(c) 2.6 × 10−3 M, 2.58, 2.7 × 10 −12
M Kw + Ka 1 1
[H+ ] = = 7 + pK a − pK b
(d) 1.5 × 10−4 M, 3.67, 1.7 × 10 −14 M Kb 2 2
67. Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a 1.0 × 10−4 M Na2CO3 70. Zirconium phosphate [Zr3(PO4)4] dissociates into three zir-
solution. At what concentration of Ba2+ will a precipitate conium cations of charge +4 and four phosphate anions
begin to form? (Given Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10−9.) of charge −3. If molar solubility of zirconium phosphate is
(a) 8.1 × 10−8 M (b) 8.1 × 10−7 M denoted by S and its solubility product by Ksp then which of
−5
(c) 4.1 × 10 M (d) 5.1 × 10−5 M the following relationship between S and Ksp is correct?
(AIEEE 2009) (a) S = {Ksp/(6912)1/7} (b) S = {Ksp/144}1/7
(c) S = {Ksp/6912}1/7 (d) S = {Ksp/(6912)7}
Solution
(d) The reaction is Ba(NO3 )2 + CaCO3 BaCO3 + 2NaNO3 (JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution
Here [CO2− −4
3 ] = [Na2CO3] = 10 M. Therefore, the solubil- (c) The solubility product is calculated as
ity product is
K sp = [Ba2 + ][CO23 − ] [Zr3 (PO 4 )]4 3Zr 4 + + 4 PO 43 −
or 5.1× 10 −9 = [Ba2 + ] × 10 −4 (1− S ) 3S 4S
(a) 10 −4 M Ca2+ + 10 − 4 M F −
1.2 × 10 −12 = (2S )2 (0.2 + S ) ≈ 4 S 2 × 0.2
−2 2+ −3 −
(b) 10 M Ca + 10 MF
(c) 10 −5
M Ca2+
+ 10 −3
M F− ⇒ S = 1.5 × 10 −12 = 1.22 × 10 −6 mol L−1
For option (d): K I = [Ca2 + ][F − ]2 = 0.5 × 10 −3 × (0.5 × 10 −5 )2 = 1.25 × 10 −14 x = 5.0 × 10 −13 = 7.1 × 10 −7 M
2+ − 2 −3
][F ] = 0.5 × 10 × (0.5 × 10 −5 )2 = 1.25 × 10 −14 Thus, the solubility is 7.1 × 10−7 M.
In the case of (b), ionic product is greater than the solubil- 76. The [Ag+] ion in a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 at 25°C is
ity product, so precipitation will be observed in this case. 1.5 × 10−4 M. What is the Ksp of Ag2CrO4 at 25°C?
74. The solubility of Ag2CrO4 at 25°C in 0.2 M Na2CrO4 is (a) 2.5 × 10−12 mol3 L−3 (b) 1.688 × 10−12 mol3 L−3
(Given Ksp (Ag2CrO4) at 25°C = 1.2 × 10−12) (c) 3.9 × 10−14 mol3 L−3 (d) 1.9 × 10−10 mol3 L−3
Substituting the values of K1 and K2, we get Also, we have M1V1(salt) = M2V2 (BOH), that is,
−3 −3 2
K = 3.5 × 10 × 1.73 × 10 M1 × (2.5 + 7.5) = 2.5 × ⇒ M1 = 0.1 M
−6
5
= 6.08 × 10 Now, Ka × Kb = Kw where Ka = Ca 2/(1 − a). Therefore,
2. Which is correct statement if N2 is added at equilibrium
condition? Kw a2
= 0.1× ⇒ a = 0.27
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 Kb 1− a
Hence, [H+] = Ca = 2.7 × 10−2 M.
(a) The equilibrium will shift to forward direction because
according to IInd law of thermodynamics the entropy 5. Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salts of types MX, MX2 and
must increases in the direction of spontaneous reaction. MX3 at temperature T are 4.0 × 10–8 M2, 3.2 × 10–14 M3 and
(b) The condition for equilibrium is 2.7 × 10–15 M4, respectively. Solubilities (mol dm–3) of the salts
at temperature T are in the order
GN2 + 3GH2 = 2GNH3
(a) MX > MX2 > MX3 (b) MX3 > MX2 > MX
where G is Gibbs free energy per mole of the gaseous
(c) MX2 > MX 3 > MX (d) MX > MX3 > MX 2
species measured at that partial pressure. The condition
of equilibrium is unaffected by the use of catalyst, which (IIT-JEE 2008)
increases the rate of both the forward and reverse reac- Solution
tions to the same extent. (d) Solubility of MX = (4.0 × 10–8)1/2 = 2 × 10–4 mol L–1
(c) The catalyst will increase the rate of forward reaction by a
1/ 3
and that of reverse reaction by b. 3.2 × 10 −14
(d) Catalyst will not alter the rate of either of the reaction. Solubility of MX2 = = (8 × 10 −15 )1/ 3 = 2 × 10 −5 mol L−1
4
(IIT-JEE 2006)
1/ 4
2.7 × 10 −15
Solution Solubility of MX3 = = (1× 10 −16 )1/ 4 = 1× 10 −4 mol L−1
27
(b) Because change in Gibbs free energy is given by:
∆G (reaction) = ∆G (products) − ∆G (reactants) Therefore, MX > MX3 > MX2
Also, catalyst only speeds up the reaction without affect-
ing the equilibrium conditions. 6. The dissociation constant of a substituted benzoic acid at
25°C is 1.0 × 10–4. The pH of a 0.01 M solution of its sodium salt
3. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in water is . (IIT-JEE 2009)
are
Solution
(a) CO2 , H2CO3 , HCO3− , CO23 (b) H2CO3 , CO23 (8) Given that Ka (C6H5COOH) = 1 × 10−4 and pH of 0.01 M
(c) CO23 − , HCO3− (d) CO2 , H2CO3 C6H5COONa is to be calculated. The reaction can be
(IIT-JEE 2006) expressed as
Solution
C6H5COO − + H2O C6H5COOH + OH −
(a) CO2 + H2O H2CO3
Initial moles 0.01 0 0
H2CO3 H+ + HCO3−
Moles at 1 − h)
0.01(1 0.01h 0.01h
HCO3− H+ + CO23 − equilibrium
4. 2.5 mL of (2/5) M weak monoacidic base (Kb = 1 × 10–12 at 25°C) The hydrolysis constant is given by
is titrated with (2/15) M HCl in water at 25°C. The concentra- K w 0.01h2 10 −14 10 −2 h2
tion of H+ at equivalence point is (Kw = 1 × 10–14 at 25°C). Kh = = ⇒ −4 =
Ka 1− h 10 1− h
(a) 3.7 × 10–13 M (b) 3.2 × 10–7 M
Now, 1 − h is approximately equal to 1, so
(c) 3.2 × 10–2 M (d) 2.7 × 10–2 M
h = (10−14 + 4 + 2)1/2 = 10−4
(IIT-JEE 2008)
− −
Solution ] = ]0=.001.h01=h0=.001.×010×−140=
[OH[OH
Hence, −410 −6 −
= 10 M6 M
(d) The reactions involved are and [H+[H −14 14 −6 −6 −8
] = 10 −/10
] =+ 10 = 10 −M8 M
/10 = 10
BOH + HCl → BCl + H2O Therefore, pH = 8.
7. Aqueous solutions of HNO3, KOH, CH3COOH, and CH3COONa
B+ + H2O BOH + H+ of identical concentrations are provided. The pair(s) of solu-
Initial moles C a a tions which form a buffer upon mixing is (are)
Moles at equilibrium C − Ca Ca Ca (a) HNO3 and CH3COOH.
(b) KOH and CH3COONa.
Using M1V1(BOH) = M2V2(HCl), we get (c) HNO3 and CH3COONa.
2 2 (d) CH3COOH and CH3COONa.
2.5 × = × V2 ⇒ V2 = 7.5 mL (IIT-JEE 2010)
5 15
Solution
x 1.6 × 10 −10 −4 10 4
(c), (d) In (c), if HNO3 is present in limiting amount then this = = 1 .6 × 10 ⇒ y =
y 1.0 × 10 −6 1.6
mixture will be a buffer and in (d), the mixture contains a
weak acid, that is, acetic acid and its salt of strong base, that is, Putting this value of y in Eq. (1), we get
sodium acetate. 10 4
x ×x + x = 1.6 × 10 −10 ⇒ x 2 = (1.6 )2 × 10 −14 ≈ 1.6 × 10 −14
1.6
8. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is
. or x = 1.6 × 10 −7 = [Ag+ ]. Therefore, n = 7.
H3PO4 H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO3 H2S2O7
H3BO3 H3PO2 H2CrO4 H2SO3 11. The initial rate of hydrolysis of methyl acetate (1 M) by a weak
acid (HA, 1 M) is 1/100th of that of a strong acid (HX, 1 M), at
(IIT-JEE 2010)
25°C. The Ka of HA is
Solution
(a) 1 × 10−4 (b) 1 × 10−5 (c) 1 × 10−6 (d) 1 × 10−3
(6) The diprotic acids are: H2SO4, H3PO3, H2CO3, H2S2O7,
(JEE Advanced 2013)
H2CrO4, H2SO3
H3PO3 is a diprotic acid since one of the protons (hydro- Solution
gen) is bound to the phosphorous atom. (a) The rate with respect to weak acid is
9. The equilibrium rate1 = k[H+ ]weak [Ester ] and rate with respect to strong acid
2Cu (I) Cu (0) + Cu (II) is rate2 = k[H+ ]strong[Ester ]
in aqueous medium at 25°C shifts towards the left in the
presence of Now, given that
(a) NO3− (b) Cl− (c) SCN− (d) CN−
[H+ ]strong 1
(IIT-JEE 2011) [H+ ]weak = = = 0.01 M
Solution 100 100
(b), (c), (d) The reaction of Cu2+ ions with CN−, SCN− and CuCl2 The reaction involved is
will lead to the formation of [Cu(CN)4]3−, [Cu(SCN)4]3− and CuCl
HA H+ + A −
which will shift the reaction in the reverse direction. 1− 0.01≈1 0.01 0.01
Solution
K2
(a), (c), (d) For the reaction CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g), N2 + O2 2NO
∆H is dependent on temperature according to Kirchhoff’s K3
equation ∆H2 − ∆H2 = C p (T2 − T1), but it is independent of H2 + 21 O2 H2O
addition of catalyst.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction 2NH3 + 25 O2 2NO + 3H2O
The equilibrium constant (K) is independent of initial amount 5
2NH3 + 2 O2 2NO + 3H2O in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is
of CaCO3 but dependent on pressure of CO2 by the relation
K = pCO2 . KK K K2 K K3
(a) 1 2 (b) 1 3 (c) 2 3 (d) K1K2K3
14. In the dissociation of HI, 20% of HI is dissociated at equilib- K3 K2 K1
rium. Calculate Kp for
Solution
HI 21 H2 + 21 I2
(c) The reaction can be rearranged and summed to obtain
Solution the resultant reaction, as
The reaction can be represented as 2NH3 N2 + 3H2 (1/K1)
2HI H2 + I2 3H2 + 23 O2 3H2O (K 3 )3
Initial moles 1 0 0
Moles at equilibrium 1− x x/2 x/2 N2 + O2 2NO K 2
2NH3 + 25 O2 2NO + 3H2O
Hence, x = 0.2 and ∆n = 0. Therefore, Kp = KC. Now,
(a) Find ∆G of the reaction. 18. A solution contains a mixture of Ag+ (0.10 M) and Hg2+ 2
(b) The direction of the reaction in which the equilibrium (0.10 M) which are to be separated by selective precipita-
shifts. tion. Calculate the maximum concentration of iodide ion at
Solution which one of them gets precipitated almost completely. What
percentage of that metal ion is precipitated?
(a) For the reaction N2O 4 (g) 2NO2 (g), the reaction quo-
tient is Solution
2
pNO 100 For the precipitation, the ionic product should be greater
Q= 2
= = 10 atm
pN2 O4 10 than solubility product. Also, Ksp of Hg2I2 = 2.5 × 10−26 is
much less than that of AgI = 8.5 × 10−17.
∆G o reaction = 2∆ f G o (NO2 ) − ∆ f G o (N2O 4 ) ⇒ 0 = 100 − 100
For the reaction Hg2I2 Hg22 + + 2I− , the solubility prod-
∆G = ∆G o + RT ln K
Therefore, uct is K sp = [Hg22 + ][I− ]2 = 2.5 × 10 −26
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 6. Which of the following is not Lewis acid?
(a) BF3 (b) AlCl3 (c) FeCl3 (d) PH3
Single Correct Choice Type
1. Acetic acid undergoes dimerization in benzene solution. When 7. The equilibrium constant KC for the reaction N2 +3H2 2NH3
the solution is diluted to twice the original volume, the posi- is 0.5 L2 mol−2 at 400 K. Find Kp, given that R = 0.0821 atm K−1
tion of equilibrium in the reaction 2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2 mol−1.
is shifted (a) 3.25 × 10−5 atm2 (b) 5.06 × 10−3 atm2
(a) to the right. (c) 6.25 × 10−4 atm2 (d) 4.37 × 10−4 atm2
(b) to the left.
8. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of 0.4 N HCl
(c) neither to left nor to right.
and 50 mL of 0.2 N NaOH is
(d) none of these.
(a) −log 2 (b) −log 0.2 (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
2. Which of the following can act both as a Brönsted acid and a
9. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the
Brönsted base?
presence of
(a) O2− (b) HCl (c) HSO 4− (d) Na2CO3
(a) free electrons.
3. The pH of a buffer solution containing 25 mL of 1 M CH3COONa (b) free ions.
and 25 mL of 1 M CH3COOH will be appreciably affected by (c) free molecules.
5 mL of which solution? (d) atoms of sodium and chlorine.
(a) 1 M CH3COOH (b) 5 M CH3COOH
10. Nitrous oxide, N2O, sometimes called laughing gas has a
(c) 5 M HCl (d) 1 M NH4OH
strong tendency to decompose into nitrogen and oxygen
4. In a gas phase reaction 2A + B 3C + 2D, it was found that following the equation
when 1.0 mol of A, 2.0 mol of B, and 1.0 mol of D were mixed 2N2O(g) 2N2 (g) + O2 (g)
in 1 L flask and came to equilibrium, the resulting mixture con-
tained 0.9 mol of C. Calculate equilibrium constant KC. but the reaction is so slow that the gas appears to be stable
(a) 2.86 (b) 1.86 (c) 4.86 (d) 6.86 at room temperature (25°C). The decomposition reaction has
KC = 7.3 × 1034. What is the value of Kp for this reaction at
5. An endothermic reaction is represented by the graph 25°C?
(a) (b) (a) 3.1 × 1036 (b) 1.8 × 1036
(c) 2.01 × 1035 (d) 2.6 × 1034
In Kp In Kp
11. Dichloroacetic acid Cl2CHCOOH is not so weak acid with an
ionization constant: Ka = 5.5 × 10−2. Calculate the [H+] and the
1/T 1/T pH of a 0.100 molar solution of this acid?
(c) (d) (a) 1.9 × 10−2, 1.72 (b) 5.2 × 10−2, 1.29
(c) 2.7 × 10−2, 1.57 (d) 0.1 × 10−3, 2.98
In Kp In Kp
12. NaOH solution and 50 mL of M/5 HCl solution chloride ion
(Cl−) in aqueous solution is a
(a) weak base. (b) strong base.
1/T 1/T
(c) weak acid. (d) strong acid.
13. In which of the following reaction, the value of Kp will be sufficient water to make 1.40 L of solution. Calculate the pH
equal to KC? of the solution.
(a) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 (b) 2NH3 N2 + 3H2 (a) 4.25 (b) 4.45 (c) 5.00 (d) 5.27
(c) H2 + I2 2HI (d) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 24. During an electrolysis of conc. H2SO4, perdisulphuric acid
(H2S2O8) and O2 form in equimolar amount. The moles of H2
14. What would be the pH of H3PO4 if it loses two protons in that will form simultaneously will be
aqueous solution? (a) equal to that of O2. (b) twice that of O2.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 6.5 (d) 7.8 (c) thrice that of O2. (d) half of that O2.
15. For which of the following reaction is product formation 25. The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction SO2 (g) + 21 O2 (g) SO3 (g)
favoured by low pressure and high temperature? SO (g) + 1 O (g) SO (g) is an exothermic reaction. If the preparation follows
2 2 2 3
(a) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g); ∆H° = −9.4 kJ the following temperature–pressure relationship for its %
yield (figure below), then for temperatures T1, T2 and T3, the
(b) CO2 (g) + C(s) 2CO(g); ∆H° = 172.5 kJ
correct option is
(c) CO(g) + 2H2 (g) CH3OH(l); ∆H° = −21.7 kJ
(d) 3O2 (g) 2O3 (l); ∆H° = 285 kJ 50
40 T3
16. A weak acid HX has the dissociation constant 1 × 10−5. It forms
% Yield
a salt NaX on reaction with alkali. The percentage hydrolysis 30 T2
of 0.1 M solution of NaX is 20 T1
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.15
10
17. Which anion is the weakest base?
(a) C2H5O− (b) NO3− 1 2 3 4
− Pressure (atm)
(c) F (d) CH3COO−
18. A compound HB is formed from H and B according to the (a) T3 > T2 > T1 (b) T1 > T2 > T3
following reaction: H + B HB. A solution was prepared by (c) T1 = T2 = T3 (d) Cannot be predicted.
dissolving 0.1 mol of H and 0.1 mol of B in enough water to
make the total volume equal to 1 L. After equilibrium had 26. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
been reached, it was found that 20% of H had beenNreacted.
2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) 2NH3 ( g) is K, then the equilibrium constant for the equilib-
What is the equilibrium constant, K for this reaction?
rium, NH3 (g) 21 N2 (g) + 23 H2 (g) is
(a) 3.125 (b) 4.125 (c) 5.125 (d) 2.125
19. Pure PCl5 is introduced into an evacuated chamber and 1 1 1
(a) (b) K (c) (d)
comes to equilibrium at 247°C and 2.0 atm. The equilibrium K K2 K
gaseous mixture contains 40% chlorine by volume. Calculate
Kp at 247°C for the reaction 27. Which of the following reactions will tend to proceed farthest
towards completion?
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(a) H2 (g) + Br2 (g) 2HBr(g); K C = 1.4 × 10 −21
(a) 1 atm (b) 3 atm (c) 1.6 atm (d) 4 atm
(b) 2NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g); K C = 2.1× 1030
20. In which case(s), vapour density remains unchanged on
dissociation? (c) 2BrCl(g) Br2 (g) + Cl2 (in CCl4 solution); K C = 0.145
(a) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) (d) Both (a) and (c)
(b) N2O 4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
(c) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO(g) 28. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) pH + pOH = 4 for all aqueous solutions.
(d) All of these.
(b) pH of 1 × 10−8 M HCl = 8.
21. The pKa of a weak acid HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base BOH (c) The conjugate base of H2PO 4− is HPO2−
4 .
is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding (d) All are correct.
salt, BA, will be
29. An aqueous solution of ammonia consists of
(a) 7.01 (b) 9.22 (c) 9.58 (d) 4.79
(a) H+ (b) OH−
22. Which of the following is the strongest acid? (c) NH4+
(d) NH+4 and OH−
(a) H3PO4 (b) H2SO4
(c) HNO2 (d) CH3COOH 30. For the reaction, H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g) equilibrium concen-
tration of H2, I2 and HI are 8.0, 3.0 and 28.0 mol L−1, respec-
23. A buffer solution is prepared by taking 0.25 mol of ace- tively. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is
tic acid (pKa = 4.761) and 0.40 mol of barium acetate in (a) 32.66 (b) 34.33 (c) 22.44 (d) 11.22
31. The number of H+ ions present in 1 cm3 of a solution whose (a) Kp does not change significantly with pressure.
pH is 10 is (b) a does not change with pressure.
(a) 10−10 (b) 10−13 (c) concentration of NH3 does not change with pressure.
(c) 6.02 × 1010 (d) 6.02 × 1013 (d) concentration of H2 is less than that of N2.
32. A nitrogen–hydrogen mixture initially in the molar ratio of 42. The decomposition of N2O4 to NO2 is carried out at 280 K in
1:3 reached equilibrium to form ammonia when 25% of the chloroform. When equilibrium has been established, 0.2 mol
N2 and H2 had reacted. If the total pressure of the system was of N2O4 and 2 × 10−3 mol of NO2 are present in 2 L solution.
21 atm, the partial pressure of ammonia at the equilibrium The equilibrium constant for reaction, N2O 4 2NO2 is
was (a) 1 × 10−2 (b) 1 × 10−3
(a) 3.5 atm (b) 3.0 atm (c) 2.5 atm (d) 1.5 atm (c) 1 × 10 −4 (d) 1 × 10−5
33. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction 43. In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant of the reverse
+ 2+ reaction is 7.5 × 10−4 and the equilibrium constant is 1.5. So,
Cu(s) + 2Ag (aq) Cu (aq) + 2Ag(s)
the rate constant of the forward reaction is
Given that equilibrium concentrations are [Ag+] = 1.0 ×10−11 (a) 1.125 × 10−3 (b) 2.225 × 10−3
mol L−1 and [Cu2+] = 2.0 ×10−7 mol L−1 at 300 K. (c) 3.335 × 10−5 (d) 1.125 × 10−1
(a) 2.5 × 1015 mol L−1
44. For the reaction: 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g), the degree of disso-
(b) 1.5 × 1015 mol L−1
ciation (a) of HI(g) is related to equilibrium constant Kp by the
(c) 2 × 1015 mol L−1
expression
(d) 1.08 × 1015 mol L−1
1+ 2 K p 1 + 2K p
34. For the reaction PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g), the value of KC at (a) (b)
250°C is 26. The value of Kp at this temperature will be 2 2
(a) 0.41 (b) 0.51 (c) 0.61 (d) 0.71 2K p 2 Kp
(c) (d)
35. The formation of SO3 takes place according to the following 1 + 2K p 1+ 2 K p
reaction 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g), ∆H = −45.2 kcal. The
formation of SO3 is favoured by 45. A reversible chemical reaction is having two reactants in
(a) increase of volume. equilibrium. If the concentration of the reactants is doubled,
(b) increase of pressure. then the equilibrium constant will
(c) increase in temperature. (a) also be doubled. (b) be halved.
(d) removal of oxygen. (c) become one-fourth. (d) remain the same.
36. The decomposition of N2O4 at 25°C, 46. When 5 mol of SO2 and 5 mol of O2 are allowed to react to
N2O 4 (g) 2NO2 (g) form SO3 in a closed vessel, at the equilibrium stage 60% of
SO2 is used up. The total number of moles of SO2, O2 and SO3
has KC = 4.61 × 10−3. A 2.00 L vessel contained 0.0466 mol in the vessel now is
N2O4 at equilibrium. What was the concentration of NO2 in (a) 8.5 (b) 9.5 (c) 10 (d) 10.5
the vessel?
(a) 1.04 × 10–3 M (b) 1.04 × 10–2 M 47. 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The
(c) 3.15 × 10–5 M (d) 2.03 × 10–2 M solution is
(a) not a buffer solution with pH < 7.
37. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing (b) a buffer solution with pH < 7.
(a) solution of acetate and acetic acid. (c) not a buffer solution with pH > 7.
(b) ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide. (d) a buffer solution with pH > 7.
(c) sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate.
(d) sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide. 48. When baking soda is heated in a sealed tube, following equi-
librium exits:
38. NaOH is a strong base because
(a) it gives OH− ion. (b) it can be oxidized. 2NaHCO3 (s) Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O(g)
(c) it can be easily ionized. (d) both (a) and (c).
If the equilibrium pressure is 1.04 atm at 398 K, calculate the
39. Aqueous solution of sodium cyanide is
equilibrium constant for the reaction at 398 K.
(a) acidic. (b) amphoteric.
(a) 0.135 atm (b) 0.271 atm
(c) basic. (d) neutral.
(c) 0.156 atm (d) 0.185 atm
40. At infinite dilution, the percentage ionization for both strong 49. The degree of ionization of a compound depends on
and weak electrolyte is (a) size of solute molecules.
(a) 1% (b) 20% (c) 50% (d) 100% (b) nature of solute molecules.
41. Pure ammonia is placed in a vessel at a temperature where (c) nature of vessel used.
its dissociation constant (a) is appreciable at equilibrium, (d) quantity of electricity passed.
50. The following equilibrium exists in aqueous solution 61. On addition of ammonium chloride to a solution of ammo-
CH3COOH CH3COO − + H+ . If dil. HCl is added without nium hydroxide,
change in temperature, the (a) dissociation of NH4OH increases.
(a) concentration of CH3COO− will increase. (b) concentration of OH− decreases.
(b) concentration of CH3COO− will decrease. (c) concentration of NH+4 and OH− increases.
(c) the equilibrium constant will increase. (d) concentration of NH+4 decreases.
(d) the equilibrium constant will decrease.
62. The species that acts as a Lewis but not a Brönsted acid is
51. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M HCN solution is 0.01% its
(a) NH2− (b) O2− (c) BF3 (d) OH−
ionization constant would be
(a) 10−3 (b) 10−5 (c) 10−7 (d) 10−9 63. Let the solubility of an aqueous solution of Mg(OH)2 be S,
then its Ksp is
52. The partial pressures of CH3OH, CO and H2 in the equilibrium
(a) 4S3 (b) 108S5 (c) 27S4 (d) 9S
mixture for the reaction
CO + 2H2 CH3OH 64. What is the pH value of N/1000 KOH solution?
(a) 10−11 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 11
at 427°C are 2.0, 1.0 and 0.1 atm, respectively. The value of Kp
for the decomposition of CH3OH to CO and H2 is 65. Which of the following salts is least soluble in water?
(a) 1 × 102 atm (a) AgCl (b) AgF (c) AgI (d) Ag2S
(b) 4 × 102 atm
(c) 5 × 10−3 atm (d) 5 × 103 atm 66. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AB at room
temperature is 1.21 × 10−6. Its molar solubility is
53. Ammonium carbamate dissociates as
(a) 1.21 × 10−6 (b) 1.21 × 10−3
(c) 1.1 × 10 −4 (d) 1.1 × 10−3
NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g)
in a closed vessel. If the equilibrium total pressure is 9 atm. 67. Ionic product in water increases if
What is the value of Kp? (a) pressure is reduced. (b) H+ is added.
(a) 132 atm3 (b) 108 atm3 (c) OH− is added. (d) temperature is increased.
(c) 152 atm 3 (d) 128 atm3 68. The degree of hydrolysis of 0.2 M solution of NH4Cl will be
54. At 25°C the dissociation constant of HCN is 4.9 × 10−10 M. [Given Kb for NH4OH is 1.8 × 10−5]
Calculate the degree of dissociation of HCN if the concentra- (a) 4.25 × 10−5 (b) 5.27 × 10−5
(c) 2.98 × 10 −5 (d) 3.56 × 10−5
tions is 0.1 M.
(a) 7 × 10−5 (b) 5 × 10−5 69. The pH of a 10−9 M solution of HCl in water is
(c) 6 × 10−5 (d) 8 × 10−5 (a) 8 (b) −8
55. In the reaction SnCl2 + 2Cl− → SnCl4, the Lewis acid is (c) between 7 and 8 (d) between 6 and 7
(a) SnCl2 (b) Cl− 70. What is the percentage hydrolysis in 0.0003 M aqueous solu-
(c) SnCl4 (d) None of these. tion of NaOCN? [Ka for HOCN = 3.33 × 10−4]
56. The pKa for acid A is greater than pKa for acid B. The strong (a) 10−2 (b) 10−3 (c) 10−4 (d) 10−5
acid is
71. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of
(a) acid B. (b) acid A.
(I) sodium acetate and acetic acid in water.
(c) both A and B. (d) neither A nor B.
(II) sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in water.
57. Which among the following is strongest acid? (III) ammonia and ammonium chloride in water.
(a) H(ClO)O2 (b) H(ClO)O3 (c) H(ClO)O (d) H(ClO) (IV) ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water.
(a) (I), (II) (b) (II), (III) (c) (III), (IV) (d) (I), (III)
58. An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline because
sodium carbonate is a salt of 72. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 is 32 × 10−12. What is the
(a) weak acid and weak base. concentration of (CrO 4 )− ions in that solution?
(b) strong acid and weak base. (a) (2 × 10−4 M) (b) (16 × 10−4 M)
(c) weak acid and strong base. (c) (8 × 10−4 M) (d) (8 × 10−8 M)
(d) strong acid and strong base.
73. The solubility product of PbCl2 at 20°C is 1.5 × 10−4. Calculate
59. Which indicator is used in the titration of iodine against the solubility.
sodium thiosulphate? (a) 3.75 × 10−4 (b) 3.34 × 10−2
(a) Starch (b) K3Fe(CN)6 (c) 3.34 × 10 2 (d) 3.95 × 103
(c) K2CrO4 (d) Potassium
74. At 298 K, the solubility of PbCl2 is 2 × 10−2 mol L−1, then its Ksp
60. One litre of HCl (pH = 2) is mixed with two litres of an acid will be
HNO3 (pH = 3). Calculate the pH of the resultant acid mixture. (a) 1 × 10−7 (b) 3.2 × l0−7
(a) 2.4 (b) 3.2 (c) 4.5 (d) 1.9 (c) 1 × 10 −5 (d) 3.2 × 10−5
75. A sample of HI was found to be 22% dissociated when equi- 87. When solid potassium cyanide is added in water, then
librium was reached. What will be the degree of dissociation (a) pH will increase.
if hydrogen is added in the proportion of 1 mol for every (b) pH will decrease.
mole of HI present originally? Assume temperature and pres- (c) pH will remain the same.
sure to be constant. (d) electrical conductivity will not change.
(a) 0.065 (b) 0.085
(c) 0.037 (d) 0.052 88. What is the pH of a buffer solution prepared by 30 g of
Na2CO3 in 1000 mL and 150 mL of M HCl? [Ka for HCO3− = 5.63
76. Calculate the molar solubility of Fe(OH)3 in a solution where
× 10−11]?
the OH− concentration is initially 0.050 M. Assume the disso- (a) 10.2 (b) 9.5 (c) 8.9 (d) 7.9
ciation of Fe(OH)3 is 100%.
(a) 1.5 × 10−36 M (b) 1.9 × 10−34 M 89. Dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1 × 10−4. Equilibrium
−36
(c) 2.1 × 10 M (d) 1.3 × 10−35 M constant of its reaction with strong base is
(a) 1 × 10−4 (b) 1 × 1010
77. A 0.1 M solution of a weak acid HA is 1% dissociated. The (c) 1 × 10−10 (d) 1 × 104
approximate value of dissociation constant is
(a) 1.0 × l0−4 mol L−1 (b) 0.1 × 10−2 mol L−1 90. Salicylic acid reacts with acetic acid to form aspirin, acetylsal-
(c) 1 × l0−3 mol L−1 (d) 0.1 × 10−4 mol L−1 icylic acid. A 0.200 molar solution of salicylic acid has a pH of
1.836. Calculate the Ka and pKa of salicylic acid.
78. Which hydroxide will have lowest value of solubility product (a) 1.9 × 10−3, 3.0 (b) 2.05 × 10−3, 3.2
at normal temperature (25°C)? (c) 2.5 × 10−3, 2.6 (d) 1.15 × 10−3, 2.9
(a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) Ba(OH)2 (d) Be(OH)2
91. The suitable indicator for strong acid and weak base is
79. Orthoboric acid in aqueous medium is
(a) methyl orange. (b) methyl red.
(a) monobasic. (b) dibasic.
(c) phenol red. (d) phenolphthalein.
(c) tribasic. (d) all of these.
92. Calculate the [H+] in a solution containing 0.1 M HCOOH and
80. A precipitate of AgCl is formed when equal volumes of the
0.1 M HOCN. [Ka for HCOOH and HOCN are 1.8 × 10−4 and
following are mixed [Ksp for AgCl = 10−10]
3.3 × 10−4, respectively].
(a) 10−4 M AgNO3 and 10−7 M HCl.
(a) 8.02 × 10−3 M (b) 5.98 × 10−3 M
(b) 10−5 M AgNO3 and 10−6 M HCl.
(c) 7.13 × 10−3 M (d) 6.25 × 10−3 M
(c) 10−5 M AgNO3 and 10−5 M HCl.
(d) 10−6 M AgNO3 and 10−6 M HCl. 93. Vapour density of the equilibrium mixture of NO2 and N2O4 is
81. A 90°C pure water has [H3O+] = 10−6 M, the value of Kw at this found to be 40 for the equilibrium:
temperature will be N2O 4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
(a) 10−6 (b) 10−12 (c) 10−14 (d) 10−8 Calculate percentage of NO2 in the mixture.
(a) 26.08% (b) 21.52% (c) 19.24% (d) 24.62%
82. A litre of solution is saturated with AgCl. To this solution, if
1.0 × 10−4 mol of solid NaCl is added, what will be the [Ag+] 94. Ammonia under a pressure of 15 atm at 27°C is heated to
assuming no volume change? 347°C in a closed vessel in the presence of catalyst. Under
(a) More (b) Less (c) Equal (d) Zero the conditions, NH3 is partially decomposed according
83. Given pH of a solution A is 3 and it is mixed with an equal to the equation 2NH3 N2 + 3H2 . The vessel is such that
volume of another solution B having pH 2. If both are mixed, the volume remains effectively constant, whereas pressure
then the resultant pH of the solution will be increases at 50 atm. Calculate the percentage of NH3 actually
(a) 3.2 (b) 2.26 (c) 3.4 (d) 3.5 decomposed.
(a) 61.3% (b) 63.5%
84. NaOH(aq), HCl(aq) and NaCl(aq) concentration of each is (c) 65.3% (d) 66.6%
10−3 M. Their pH will be, respectively,
(a) 10, 6, 2 (b) 11, 3, 7 (c) 10, 2, 6 (d) 3, 4, 7 95. One possible way of removing NO from the exhaust of a gas-
oline engine is to cause it to react with CO in the presence of
85. The pH of a solution is increased from 3 to 6, its H+ ion con- a suitable catalyst.
centration will be
(a) reduced to half. (b) doubled. 2NO(g) + 2CO(g) N2 (g) + 2CO2 (g)
(c) reduced by 1000 times. (d) increased by 1000 times. At 300°C, the reaction has KC = 2.2 × 1059. What is Kp at 300°C?
86. Assuming complete dissociation, which of the following (a) 3.52 × 1057 (b) 4.7 × 1050
aqueous solutions will have the same pH value? (c) 6.23 × 1050 (d) 4.7 × 1057
(I) 100 mL of 0.01 M HCl
96. For the following equilibrium, van’t Hoff factor is 0.80,
(II) 100 mL of 0.01 M H2SO4
2A(g) A2 (g) . Hence, volume % of A2(g) in the total mix-
(III) 50 mL of 0.01 M HCl ture is:
(IV) Mixture of 50 mL of 0.02 M H2SO4 and 50 mL of 0.02 M NaOH (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
(a) (I), (II) (b) (I), (III) (c) (II), (IV) (d) (I), (IV)
97. A mixture containing 8.07 mol of hydrogen and 9.08 mol 0.1 bar at that temperature. If 12.7 g of solid iodine are
of iodine was heated at 448°C till equilibrium was attained placed in a 10 L vessel at 40°C, what is the minimum amount
when 13.38 mol of hydrogen iodide was obtained. Calculate of hydrogen gas that must be introduced in order to remove
the percentage of dissociation of hydrogen iodide at 448°C. all solid iodine?
(a) 13.2% (b) 19.8% (c) 18.9% (d) 21.4% (a) 0.024 g (b) 0.012 g (c) 0.036 g (d) 0.018 g
98. Let the solubilities of AgCl in H2O, 0.01 M CaCl2; 0.01 M NaCl 105. At 500°C, the reaction between N2 and H2 to form ammonia
and 0.05 M AgNO3 be S1, S2, S3, S4, respectively. What is the has KC = 6.0 × 10−2. What is the numerical value of Kp for the
correct relationship between these quantities? reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) ?
(a) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 (b) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4 (a) 1.9 × 10−4 (b) 2.23 × 10−4
(c) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4 (d) S4 > S2 > S3 > S1 (c) 1.5 × 10−5 (d) 2.01 × 10−5
99. The reaction COCl2 (g) CO(g) + Cl2 (g) has Kp = 4.6 × 10−2 at 106. Equal moles of F2(g) and Cl2(g) are introduced into a sealed
container and heated to certain temperature where the fol-
395°C. What is the value of KC at that temperature? lowing equilibria were established
(a) 7.56 × 10–5 (b) 4.32 × 10–3
(c) 8.4 × 10 –4 (d) 6.25 × 10–2 Cl2 (g) + F2 (g) 2ClF(g); K p = 3.2
100. One of the reaction that takes place in producing steel from Cl2 (g) + 3F2 (g) 2ClF3 (g)
iron ore is the reduction of iron (II) oxide by carbon monox-
ide to give iron metal and CO2. If partial pressures of ClF and ClF3 at equilibrium are 0.2 and
FeO(s) + CO(g) Fe(s) + CO2 (g) K p = 0.265 at 1050 K 0.04, respectively, calculate Kp for the second equilibrium
reaction.
What are the equilibrium partial pressures of CO and CO2 at (a) 7.05 (b) 14.95 (c) 12.05 (d) 16.05
1050 K if the initial partial pressures are: pCO = 1.4 atm and
107. A solid substance A decomposes into two gaseous products
pCO = 0.80 atm?
B and C as:
(a) 1.96 atm, 0.35 atm (b) 1.74 atm, 0.46 atm
(c) 2.01 atm, 0.52 atm (d) 1.56 atm, 0.67 atm A(s) 2B(g) + C(g)
101. For a fairly concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte AxBy, If at equilibrium, some C(g) at 1.0 atm is added in constant
the degree of dissociation is given by volume condition, 10% of B(g) is solidified before the equi-
librium was re-established. Determine the total pressure at
K eq xy
(a) a = final equilibrium.
C (a) 9.06 (b) 5.06 (c) 6.06 (d) 4.06
K eqC 108. The first equilibrium expression (KC) as represented by the
(b) a =
xy first chemical equation is 5.81 × 10−7 at 700 K. Calculate the
value of the equilibrium expression for the second equation
K eqC
(c) a = at the same temperature.
(x + y)
2SO3 (g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)
1/( x + y )
K eq SO3 (g) SO2 (g) + 21 O2 (g)
(d) a = x + y −1 x y
C x y
(a) 7.62 × 10−4 (b) 6.32 × 10−4
102. When 100 mL of M/10 NaOH solution and 50 mL of M/5 (c) 5.90 × 10−5 (d) 4.28 × 10−5
HCl solution are mixed, the pH of the resulting solution
109. The equilibrium 2SO3 (g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) is established
would be
in a vessel of volume 1 L at 600 °C tanking SO3 initially in the
(a) 0 (b) 7
vessel. If 1 mol of SO3 is formed under equilibrium condi-
(c) less than 7 (d) more than 7
tion then how much of SO3 was taken initially? (Given KC for
103. Bromine monochloride, BrCl, decomposes into bromine and 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 is 4.5 at 600 °C.)
chlorine and reaches the equilibrium (a) 4.5 mol (b) 3.91 mol (c) 4.62 mol (d) 6.24 mol
2BrCl(g) Br2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
110. Suppose 20.85 g of PCl5(g) is introduced in a vessel washed
For which KC = 32 at 500 K. If initially, pure BrCl is present with a non-volatile solvent (b.p. = 350 K, molar mass =
at a concentration of 3.30 × 103 mol L−1, what is its molar 154 g mol−1). The equilibrium is established at 523 K
concentration? when PCl5(g) is 52% dissociated and a total pressure was
(a) 3.03 × 10−3 mol L−1 found to be 5.5 bar. If Kp for the decomposition reaction:
(b) 9.06 × 10−3 mol L−1 PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 is 1.78, calculate the weight of solvent left
(c) 12.10 × 10−3 mol L−1 in the vessel during washing.
(d) 10.28 × 10−3 mol L−1 (a) 2.188 g (b) 1.128 g (c) 3.388 g (d) 4.212 g
104. The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI111.
(g) The two bulbs R and S connected by a mercury manometer
H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g) is 20 at 40 °C, and vapour pressure of solid iodine is are held in a thermostat (to maintain constant temperature)
shown in the following figure. Volume of R is twice the vol- 117. Which of the following is correct about the chemical
ume of S. R contains a gas X at the same pressure of nitro- equilibrium?
gen in S. The mercury level in the right hand limb rises (a) (∆G)T,p = 0
when temperature is increased if the gas X is (b) Equilibrium constant is the independent of initial con-
R centration of reactants.
S (c) Catalyst has no effect on equilibrium state.
X N2 (d) Reaction stops at equilibrium.
118. Consider the reaction: N2F4 (g) 2NF2 (g); ∆H o = 38.5 kJ.
Which of the following conditions will favour the formation
of NF2?
(a) Adding He to the equilibrium mixture at constant tem-
(a) nitrogen.
perature and volume.
(b) an equilibrium mixture,
(b) Increasing the temperature.
CH3CN(g) CH3NC( g); ∆H is negative.
(c) NF2 gas is removed from the reaction mixture.
(c) an equilibrium mixture, (d) Decreasing the pressure at constant temperature.
N2F2 (g) 2NF(g); ∆H is positive.
(d) hydrogen. 119. Consider the reactions given below. In which cases, will
the reaction proceed toward the right by increasing the
Level II pressure?
Multiple Correct Choice Type (a) 4HCl(g) + O2(g) → 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g)
112. For the reaction: Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) 2ClF3(g); ∆H = − 329 kJ, (b) Cl2 (g) + H2O(g) → 2HCl(g) + 21 O2 (g)
dissociation of ClF3(g) will be favoured by (c) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) → CH4(g) + 2H2O(g)
(a) increasing the temperature. (d) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
(b) increasing the volume of the container.
(c) adding of F2 gas. 120. For the equilibrium N2O4 2NO2, the value of equilibrium
(d) adding of inert gas at constant pressure. constant is 2 × 10−4 at a particular temperature if equilib-
rium is established by taking 2 mol of N2O4 in 1 L container
113. Ammonia is a weak base that reacts with water according then
to the equation (a) concentration of NO2 at equilibrium is 0.02 M
NH3 (aq) + H2O(l) NH+4 (aq) + OH− (aq) approximately.
(b) concentration of NO2 at equilibrium is 0.01 M
Select the correct option(s) that can increase the concentra- approximately.
tion of ammonium ion in water. (c) concentration of N2O4 at equilibrium is 2 M
(a) Addition of HCl (b) Addition of NaOH approximately.
(c) Addition of NH4Cl (d) Addition of H2O (d) concentration of N2O4 at equilibrium is 1 M
114. For the reaction AB2 (g) AB(g) + B(g) , if a is negligible approximately.
w.r.t. 1, then degree of dissociation (a ) of AB2 is propor- 121. What will be the effect of addition of catalyst at constant
tional to temperature?
1 1 1 (a) The equilibrium constant will remain constant.
(a) (b) (c) (d) V
p V p (b) ∆H of the reaction will remain constant.
115. A catalyst (c) Kf and pKr will increase upto same extent.
(a) increases the average kinetic energy of reacting (d) The equilibrium composition will change.
molecules.
122. Increase in the pressure for the following equilibrium:
(b) decreases the activation energy.
(c) can alter the reaction mechanism. H2O(l) H2O(g), result in the
(d) can change pre-exponential factor. (a) formation of more H2O(l)
116. Solid ammonium carbamate, NH4CO2NH2(s), dissociates (b) formation of more H2O(g).
into ammonia and carbon dioxide when it evaporates as (c) increase in boiling point of H2O(l)
shown by NH4CO2NH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g). At 25°C, the (d) decrease in boiling point of H2O(l).
total pressure of the gases in equilibrium with the solid is
0.116 atm. If 0.1 atm of CO2 is introduced after equilibrium 123. For the reaction PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) the forward
is reached, then reaction at constant temperature is favoured by
(a) final pressure of CO2 will be less than 0.1 atm. (a) introducing an inert gas at constant volume.
(b) final pressure of CO2 will be more than 0.1 atm. (b) introducing chlorine gas at constant volume.
(c) pressure of NH3 will decrease due to addition of CO2. (c) introducing an inert gas at constant pressure.
(d) pressure of NH3 will increase due to addition of CO2. (d) increasing the volume of the container.
124. At a particular temperature and atmospheric pressure, 129. For the reaction SO2Cl2 (g) SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g) , Kp > Kx is
the solid and liquid phases of a pure substance can exist obtained at
in equilibrium. Which of the following term defines this (a) 0.5 atm. (b) 0.7 atm. (c) 1 atm. (d) 2 atm.
temperature?
(a) Normal melting point (b) Equilibrium temperature 130. For the following equilibrium, relation between KC and Kx (in
(c) Boiling point (d) Freezing point terms of mole fraction) is
125. The following reaction attains equilibrium at high PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g)
temperature (a) KC = Kx(RT)−1 (b) KC = Kx(RT)
N2(g) + 2H2O(g) + heat 2NO(g) + 2H2(g) (c) KC = Kx(RT/p) (d) Kp = Kx(p/RT)
The yield of NO is affected by
(a) increasing the nitrogen concentration. Paragraph for Questions 131 to 134: Ostwald dilution law states
(b) decreasing the hydrogen concentration. that the degree of dissociation (a ) of weak electrolyte is inversely
(c) compressing the reaction mixture. proportional to square root of concentration a = K a /C . As the
(d) None of these. temperature increases, a will increase.
126. For the reaction N2O 4 (g) 2NO2 (g) , the value of K is 50 at a1 K a1
If concentration is the same, then =
400 K and 1700 at 500 K. Which of the following options is a2 K a2
correct? a1 C2
(a) The reaction is endothermic. If acid is same, then =
a2 C1
(b) The reaction is exothermic.
(c) If NO2(g) and N2O4(g) are mixed at 400 K at partial pres- 131. 0.01 M CH3COOH has 4.24% degree of dissociation. The
sures 20 bar and 2 bar, respectively, more N2O4(g) will be degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH will be
formed. (a) 1.34% (b) 4.24% (c) 5.24% (d) 0.33%
(d) The entropy of the system increases.
132. pH of 0.005 M HCOOH with Ka = 2 × 10−4 is equal to
127. 2CaSO4(s) 2CaO(s) + 2SO2(g) + O2(g), ∆H > 0. (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
Above equilibrium is established by taking sufficient amount 133. Which of the following is strongest acidic solution?
of CaSO4(s) in a closed container at 1600 K. Then which of (a) pH = 1 (b) pH = 2 (c) pH = 3 (d) pH = 4
the following may be a correct option? (Assume that solid
CaSO4 is present in the container in each case.) 134. If a1 and a2 are in ratio of 1:2 and K a1 = 2 × 10−4, then what
(a) Moles of CaO(s) will increase with the increase in will be the value of K a2?
temperature. (a) 4 × 10−4 (b) 2 × 10−4 (c) 8 × 10−4 (d) 1 × 10−4
(b) If the volume of the container is doubled at equilib-
rium, then partial pressure of SO2(g) will change at new Paragraph for Questions 135 to 136: The dissociation of nitrosyl
equilibrium. chloride into nitric oxide and chlorine takes place according to
(c) If the volume of the container is halved, partial pressure the equation: 2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2 (g). Varying amount of the
of O2(g) at new equilibrium will remain same. three gases were placed in a container and allowed to come to
(d) If 2 mol of the He gas are added at constant pressure, equilibrium at two different temperatures. The equilibrium con-
then the moles of CaO(s) will increase. centrations of the three gases obtained are tabulated below:
Paragraph for Questions 137 to 140: Chemical equilibrium is (c) Solubility of calcium oxalate in 0.1 (r) 10000 Ksp
a dynamic state in which the composition of a system does not M oxalic acid solution.
change, and net reaction is zero. In reversible reactions, a stage is
reached when the rate of transformation of reactants into prod- (d) Solubility of Hg2Cl2 in 0.1 M NaCl (s) Ksp
ucts equals the rate of transformation of products into reactants. solution.
At this stage, the composition of reactants and products does not
change with time. The reaction has not stopped, but the rates of 142. Match the following equilibria with the corresponding
forward and reverse reactions are equal. For a general reaction condition.
A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g), we have
Column I Column II
[C][D] p ×p (p) Saturated solution
KC = and K p = C D (a) Liquid Vapour
[A ][B] pA × pB
(b) Solid Liquid (q) Boiling point
where KC is the equilibrium constant for the ratio of the concen-
trations of the product to reactants and Kp is the equilibrium con- (c) Solid Vapour (r) Sublimation point
stant for the ratio of partial pressure and of products to reactants.
The relation between Kp and KC is as follows. (d) Solute(s) Solution(l) (s) Melting point
∆ng
K p = K C (RT )
143. Match the reactions with the factors.
137. The mass ratio of steam and hydrogen is found to be 1:2 at
equilibrium. Column I Column II
(p) Forward shift by
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) Fe3O 4 (s) + 4H2 (g) (a) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
rise in pressure.
(Exothermic )
The value of equilibrium constant (KC) for the above reac-
(q) Unaffected by
tion is (b) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
(a) 3.05 × 103 (b) 1.05 × 105 change in press-
(Exothermic )
(c) 0.75 × 102 (d) 2.42 × l07 ure.
138. For the reaction NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g) , the (c) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO(g) (r) Forward shift by
equilibrium constant Kp = 2.9 × 10−5 atm3. The total pres- rise in temper-
sure of gases at equilibrium when 1 mol of reactant was ature.
heated will be Exothermic (s) Forward shift by
(d) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g)
(a) 0.0194 atm (b) 0.0388 atm Endothermic lowering the
(c) 0.0580 atm (d) 0.0667 atm temperature.
139. KC for the reaction 21 N2 (g) + 21 O2 (g) + 21 Br2 (g) NOBr(g)
from the following information at 298 K is 144. Match the conditions with effect on equilibrium.
30
2NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g); K1 = 2.4 × 10 Column I Column II
1
NO(g) + Br (g) NOBr(g);
2 2
K 2 = 1.4 (a) Pressure increased in (p) Equilibrium shifted in
forward direction.
(a) 3.15 × 10−9 (b) 6.35 × 10−18 2NO(g) N2 (g)+ O2 (g)
(c) 9.03 × 10−16 (d) 17 × 10−17
(b) Pressure increased in (q) Equilibrium shifted in
140. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 reverse direction.
at 1000 K is 3.5. What would the partial pressure of oxygen CH4 (g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2 (g)
gas to give equal moles of SO2 and SO3?
(a) 0.29 atm (b) 3.5 atm (c) Temperature increased and (r) Equilibrium remains
(c) 0.53 atm (d) 1.87 atm pressure increased in unaffected.
Column I Column II 148. The pH for a salt of weak acid and weak base having Ka = Kb
at 298 K is ____.
(a) For the equilibrium NH4I(s) (p) Forward shift
NH3(g) + HI(g), if pressure is 149. If concentrations of SO2 and O2 in the equilibrium reaction,
increased at equilibrium 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) are quadrupled, the concentra-
(b) For the equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g) (q) No Change tion of SO3 now will be ___ times.
2NH3(g) 150. The pH of an aqueous solution of a sparingly soluble metal
Volume is increased at equilibrium hydroxide M(OH)2 with solubility product 5 × 10−16 mol3
(c) For the equilibrium H2O(g) + (r) Reverse shift dm−9 at 298 K is ____ times.
CO(g) H2(g) + CO2(g) inert gas 151. The pH at which Mg(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution
is added at constant pressure at containing 0.10 M Mg2+ ions will be ____. [Ksp of Mg(OH)2 =
equilibrium 1 × 10−11]
(d) For the equilibrium PCl5 PCl3 + (s) Final pressure is
152. Equilibrium constant for the reaction A3 (g) + 3B2 (g) 3AB2 (g)
Cl2, Cl2 is removed at equilibrium more than initial
A3 (g) + 3B2 (g) 3AB2 (g) is 64.0. Then the equilibrium constant for the
pressure
reaction 31 A3 (g) + B2 (g) AB2 (g) will be ____.
Integer Type 153. If pKa of a weak acid is 5, then pKb of the conjugate base will
be ____.
146. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X− 154. The pH of a buffer solution containing equal concentration
and HX− (Kb for X− is 10−10). What is the pH of the buffer? of B− and HB when Kb for B− is 1 × 10−10 is ____.
147. For the reaction involving oxidation of ammonia by oxygen 155. What is the pH of mixture obtained by mixing 50 mL of 0.05
to form nitric oxide and water vapour, the equilibrium con- M NH4OH and 50 mL of 0.05 M CH3COOH? [Ka = 1.8 × 10−5 and
stant has the units (bar)n. Then n is ____. Kb = 1.8 × 10−5]
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d)
67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (a)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (d)
79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (b)
85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (b)
103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a)
109. (d) 110. (c) 111. (c)
Level II
112. (a), (b), (d) 113. (a), (d) 114. (c), (d) 115. (b), (c), (d) 116. (b), (c) 117. (a), (b), (c)
118. (b), (c), (d) 119. (a), (c) 120. (b), (c) 121. (a), (b), (c) 122. (a), (c) 123. (c), (d)
124. (a), (d) 125. (a), (b), (c) 126. (a), (c), (d) 127. (a), (c), (d) 128. (b) 129. (b)
130. (c) 131. (a) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a)
136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (a)
141. (a) → s; (b) → r; (c) → p; (d) → q 142. (a) → q; (b) → s; (c) → r; (d) → p
143. (a) → p, s; (b) → p, s; (c) → q, r; (d) → p, r 144. (a) → r; (b) → q; (c) → p; (d) → s 145. (a) → r, s; (b) →r; (c) → q; (d) → p, s
146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (7) 149. (8) 150. (9) 151. (9)
152. (4) 153. (9) 154. (4) 155. (7)
3. (b) By increasing the concentration of CH3COOH, the pH of 10. (b) Use the equation K p = K C (RT )∆ng . In this reaction,
the buffer solution will decrease. ∆ng = 3 − 2 = 1, so
∆ng
4. (d) The reaction can be expressed as K p = K C (RT ) = (7.3 × 1034 )(0.0821× 298)1 = 1.8 × 1036
5. (b) In this graph, equilibrium constant decreases and the Given that Ka = 5.5 × 10−2, therefore,
temperature increases; hence, the reaction is endother- x×x
mic. As the temperature increases, the equilibrium shifts 5.5 × 10 −2 = ⇒ 0.005.5 − 0.055 x = x 2
0.1− x
in the direction of endothermic reaction.
6. (d) PH3 is not a Lewis acid. It cannot accept electrons. Solving the quadratic equation, we get x = [H+]
Instead, it acts as weak Lewis base as it can donate a = 2.7 × 10−2. Therefore,
lone pair of electrons. pH = −log[H] = −log(0.027) = 1.57
18. (a) The reaction can be expressed as So, if x moles of O2 are being produced, electricity being
passed at anode is:
H + B HB
4x (For O2) + 2x (3 for S2O2−
8 )= 6x F
Initial 0.1 0.1 0
At the cathode:
At equilibrium −0.02 −0.02 +0.02
2 H+ + 2 e − → H2
Total 0.08 0.08 0.02
2 F electricity ≡ 1 mol of H2 produced
[HB] 0.02 Therefore, 6x F electricity ≡ 3x mol of H2 is produced
K= = = 3.125
[H][B] (0.08 )(0.08 ) Hence, moles of H2 produced at cathode = 3 moles of O2
produced at anode.
19. (c) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
25. (b) The value of K of an exothermic reaction decreases and
The gaseous mixture contains 40% Cl2 and 40% PCl3. that of an endothermic reaction increases with increase
Since they are produced in 1:1 molar ratio, PCl5 is 20%. in temperature. Here, the given reaction is exothermic. So
For ideal gases, % mole = volume %, so yield is good at lower temperature. Hence, T1 > T2 > T3.
pCl2 = pPCl3 = 2 × 0.40 = 0.8 atm 26. (d) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
pPCl5 = 2 × 0.20 = 0.40 atm
Dividing by 2 and reversing the reaction, we get:
( p PCl3 )( pCl2 ) 0.8 × 0.8 1
Kp = = = 1.6 atm NH3 (g) 21 N2 (g) + 23 H2 (g); K’ =
( p PCl5 ) 0.4 K
34. (c) For the reaction PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g), [2 × 10 −3 / 2]2 4 × 10 −6
KC = = = 1× 10 −5
K p = K C (RT )∆n 0.2 / 2 4 × 10 −1
where kf kf
43. (a) = KC ⇒ = 1.5 ⇒ k f = 1.125 × 10 −3
∆n = 1− 2 = −1 and T = 250 + 273 = 523 K kb 7.5 × 10 −4
Therefore, 44. (d) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
26 a a
K p = 26 × (0.821× 523)−1 = 0.61 1−a
(0.821× 523) 2 2
2
35. (b) The change in pressure has effect only on those equilib- a
pT a 2 Kp
ria that involve gaseous substances and proceed with a 2
Kp = or = 2 K p or a =
change in the number of moles of the gases. According (1− a )2 pT2 1− a 1+ 2 K p
to Le Chatelier’s principle, increase in external pressure
should affect the equilibrium in such a way as to reduce 45. (d) KC is a characteristic constant for the given reaction.
the pressure. This implies that equilibrium will shift in 46. (a) Since 60% of SO2 is used up, the number of moles of SO2
the direction that has smaller number of moles of the that reacted is
gaseous substances. This can be easily understood from
the equilibrium representing the formation of SO3: 60
× 5 = 3 mol
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) 100
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
On increasing the pressure, the volume occupied by the Initial moles 5 5 0
system will decrease. As such there will be greater num-
Moles reacted 3 1.5 3
ber of moles per unit volume. The effect of this change
can be counter balanced if the equilibrium shifts in the Molesat equilibrium 2 3.5 3
direction involving a decrease in the number of moles. Total number of moles at equilibrium = 2 + 3.5 + 3
This can happen only if SO2 and O2 combine to form = 8.5 mol
SO3. Thus, increase in pressure in this case will favour
47. (b) The aqueous solution containing 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl
the forward reaction.
is a buffer solution of strong acid HCl and its salt NaCl
36. (b) with strong base. Thus, the pH is less than 7 due to HCl.
[NO2 ]2
KC = 48. (b) Since, there are only two gaseous species in the above
[N2O 4 ]
equilibrium, so we have their partial pressures as
[NO2 ]2 ptotal 1.04
4.61 × 10–3 = pCO2 = pH2 O = = = 0.52 atm
0.0466 2 2
2 K p = pCO2 × pH2 O = [0.52]2 = 0.2704 atm
[NO2] = 1.04 × 10–2 M
49. (b) The degree of ionization of a compound depends on
37. (a) An acidic buffer is the solution of a mixture of a weak
nature of solute molecules. If the compound is strong
acid and a salt of this weak acid with a strong base.
acid, then it ionizes completely when dissolved in water.
38. (d) NaOH is a strong base because it gives OH− ion and can If the compound is weak acid, then it ionizes partially in
be easily ionized. aqueous solutions.
39. (c) In aqueous solution of NaCN; NaCN + H2O → NaOH + HCN 50. (b) CH3COOH CH3COO − + H+
Since both acids and bases are present in the aqueous
If dil. HCl is added to the above equilibrium reaction,
solution of NaCN, it is amphoteric.
the concentration of CH3COO– will decrease due to
40. (d) At infinite dilution, the percentage ionization of both the common ion effect, that is, suppression in the
strong and weak electrolytes is 100%. degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte by adding
a strong electrolyte containing a common ion. Here,
41. (a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
HCl is a strong electrolyte, when it is added it splits
At appreciable dissociation constant (a), the equilibrium into H+ and Cl– ions. As a result, H+ is the common
constant does not change significantly with pressure. ion in the equilibrium and hence the concentration of
CH3COO– decreases.
42. (d) N2O 4 2NO2 0.01
51. (d) a = 0.01% = = 1× 10 −4
Moles at equilibrium 0.2 2 × 10 −3 100
0.2 2 × 10 −3 K a = a 2C = (10 −4 )2 × 0.1 = 10 −9
Conc. at equilibrium
2 2
( pCH3 OH ) 2 59. (a) Iodine solution can be titrated against sodium thiosul-
52. (c) CO + 2H2 CH3OH; K p = = = 200 phate (as also against sodium sulphite, sodium arsenite,
( pCO )( pH2 )2 (1)(0.1)2 etc.). For starch as an indicator, iodine gives an intense
Since the decomposition reaction is reverse of the given blue colour with starch due to formation of a surface
reaction, that is, complex. At the end point, the colour changes from blue
CH3OH CO + 2H2 to colourless.
1 1 The redox reaction involved in the titration is
K p′ = = = 5 × 10 −3 atm
K p 200
2S2O23 − + I2 S4 O23 − + 2I−
2 mol 1mol
53. (b) The reaction can be represented as
NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g)
60. (a) We know that N1V1 + N2V2 = Nf Vf . Substituting given val-
Initial moles 1 0 0
Moles at equilibrium 0 2p p ues and Vf = V1 + V2 in this equation, we get
10 −2 × 1+ 10 −3 × 2 = Nf × 3 ⇒ Nf = 4 × 10 −3
The total pressure = 2p + p = 3p = 9 atm (given) ⇒ p = 3
atm.
Therefore, pH = − log( 4 × 10 −3 ) = 2.3980
2 2 2 3
Now, K p = ( pNH3 ) ( pCO2 ) = (2 p) ( p ) = (6 ) (3) = 108 atm
[NH4+ ][OH− ]
54. (a) The reaction can be represented as 61. (b) NH4 OH(aq) NH4+ + OH− ; K b =
[NH4 OH]
HCN + H2O H3O + + CN−
C 0 0 If a small quantity of a strong electrolyte such as NH4Cl
(which has a common ion, i.e., NH+4 ion) is added to the
C (1− a ) aC aC above solution, [ NH+4 ] increases. In order to maintain
Ca 2 KC the value of Kb constant, the reverse reaction is favoured.
Therefore, K C = ; 1− a 1; a = Thus, concentration of [OH–] decreases and [ NH+4 ]
1− a C
increases, that is, the forward reaction is suppressed due
4.9 × 10 −10 to common ion effect.
a= = 7 × 10 −5
0.1 62. (c) BF3 acts as Lewis acid but not as a Brönsted acid.
−
According to Lewis, acid is a substance that accepts a
55. (a) SnCl2 + 2Cl → SnCl4 lone pair of electrons. According to Brönsted, acid is a
SnCl2 is a Lewis acid because it can accept a pair of substance that can donate proton (H+). But in BF3 there
electrons. are no protons; hence, it is not a Brönsted acid.
56. (a) Acidity constant, Ka, is usually expressed in terms of pKa, 63. (a) Salt type Relation between Ksp and S
that is, negative logarithm of Ka. AB2 Ksp = (S)(2S)2 = 4S3
pK a = −log K a
64. (d) Given that normality of KOH = N/1000 = 10−3 N, so
Thus, strength of acid is inversely released to pKa value,
that is, the larger is the value of pKa, the weaker is acid. pOH = −log[OH− ] = − log[10 −3 ] = 3
Hence, the strong is acid B. pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 3 = 11
57. (b) H(ClO)O3 is the strongest acid. The acidic character of 65. (d) The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt at a
oxoacid containing the same halogen atom in different given temperature is the product of concentration of
oxidation state is H(ClO) < H(ClO)O < H(ClO)O2 < H(ClO)O3. its ions in the saturated solution, with each concentra-
It increases with increase in oxidation number of halo- tion term raised to equal to the number of times the ion
gen atom. occurs in the equation, representing the dissociation of
As the number of oxygen atom increases, the negative electrolyte. Lower the solubility product lesser will be
charge dispersal becomes more and more from Cl atom the solubility of the sparingly soluble salt.
due to more electronegative oxygen atom. Thus, lesser
is the charge on Cl atom, more will be its stability and it AgCl Ag+ + Cl− ; K sp = 1.8 × 10 −10
easily furnishes proton and acts as the strongest acid.
AgF Ag+ + F − ; K sp = 2.8 × 10 −5
58. (c) Na2CO3 + 2H2O 2NaOH + H2CO3
Strong base Weak acid AgI Ag+ + I− ; K sp = 8.3 × 10 −7
When sodium carbonate is dissolved in water it forms Ag2S 2Ag+ + S2 − ; K sp = [Ag+ ]2 [S2 − ]; K sp = 6 × 10 −51
sodium hydroxide and carbonic acid. NaOH is the
strong base; hence, the aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is Since Ag2S has the lowest solubility product, it is least
alkaline. soluble.
The value for solubility product (Ksp) of Ag2S is very less. The ability of a solution to resist change in pH on addi-
Hence, it is least soluble in water. tion of acid or base is called buffer action.
Buffer solution can be prepared by mixing:
66. (d) For a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB,
• A weak acid and its salt with a strong base or weak
the following solubility equilibrium would exist.
acid and its conjugate base, for example, CH3COOH
AB (Saturated salt solution) A + (aq) + B − (aq) and CH3COONa.
• Weak base and its salt, for example, NH3 and NH4Cl.
If the molar solubility of the salt is S, then
72. (a) The reaction can be expressed as
[A + ] = S mol dm−3 , [B − ] = S mol dm−3 . Therefore, solu-
Ag2CrO 4 (s) 2Ag+ (aq) + CrO24−
bility product is given by
2S S
K sp = [A + ][B − ] = ( S )( S ) = S 2 + 2
K sp = [Ag ] [CrO24− ]
Given that Ksp = 1.21 × 10−6, so the molar solubility is
32 × 10 −12 = [2S ]2 [ S ]
−6 −3
S = K sp = 1.21× 10 = 1.1× 10
4[ S ]3 = 32 × 10 −12
67. (d) The reaction involved is [ S ] = 2 × 10 −4 mol L−1
73. (b) PbCl2 is AB2 salt type. It solubility product is Ksp = 4S3.
[H+ ][OH− ]
H2O(l) H+ (aq) + OH− (aq); K a = From the given value of Ksp, we have
[H2O]
1.5 × 10 −4
K a [H2O] = [H+ ][OH− ] = K w 1.5 × 10 −4 = 4 S 3 ⇒ S 3 =
4
The constant Kw is called ionic product of water. Since
1.5 × 10 −4
as the temperature increases, dissociation of water also ⇒S=3 = 3.34 × 10 −2
increases, therefore value of ionic product of water 4
increases with increase in temperature. 74. (d) We have
68. (b) The reaction can be represented as
PbCl2 Pb2 + (aq) + 2Cl− ( aq)
NH4 Cl + H2O H+ (aq) + CH3COOH− (aq) [Pb2 + ] = [PbCl2 ] = 2 × 10 −2 mol L−1
Before hydrolysis C 0 0 [Cl− ] = 2[P
PbCl2 ] = 2[2 × 10 −2 ] mol L−1
After hydrolysis C (1− h) x x
K sp = [Pb2 + ][Cl− ]2 = (2 × 10 −2 )(2 × 2 × 10 −2 )2 = 3.2 × 10 −5
where h is the degree of hydrolysis.
K K 10 −14 75. (c) Given that the percentage dissociation = 22, so degree
h= h = w = = 5.27 × 10 −5 of dissociation = 0.22. The reaction involved is
C K bC 1.8 × 10 −5 × 0.2
2HI H2 + I2
Initial moles 1 0 0
69. (d) [H+ ] = 10 −9 M + 10 −7 M
Moles at equilibrium 1− a = 0.78 a / 2 = 0.11 a / 2 = 0.11
At low concentrations, the contribution of H+ ions from
water should also be considered. Here, 10−7 M is from [H2 ][I2 ] 0.11× 0.11
Therefore, KC = = = 0.0199
ionization or dissociation of water. Then [HI]2 (0.78 )2
[H+ ] = 0.01× 10 −7 + 10 −7 = 1.01× 10 −7 M When 1 mol of hydrogen is added starting with 1 mol of
HI, we get
pH = − log[H+ ] = − log[1.01× 10 −7 ] = 6.9956 [H2 ][I2 ] (a / 2) × (a / 2 + 1)
KC = = = 0.0199
[HI]2 (1− a )2
70. (a) The reaction involved is
Solving, we get a = 0.037. So, the addition of 1 mol of H2
NaOCN + H2O NaOH + HCN suppresses the dissociation of HI.
The degree of hydrolysis is 76. (d) Fe(OH)3(s) Fe3+(aq) + 3OH–(aq)
K K 10 −14 Ksp = [Fe3+][OH–]3 = 1.6 × 10–39
h = h = w = = 10 −4
C K aC 3.33 × 10 −4 × 0.003 [Fe3+] [OH–]
Therefore, % hydrolysis = 10 −4 × 100 = 10 −2. Intial conc. – 0.050
+x + 3x
71. (d) A buffer solution is the solution that can resist the
change in pH on addition of small amount of acid or Final conc. +x 0.050 + 3x
base.
Be(OH)2
Solubility 86. (d) In 100 mL of 0.01 M HCl:
decreases
Mg(OH)2 100 × 0.01
Moles of [H3O + ] = = 1× 10 −3 ⇒ pH = 3
Ca(OH)2 1000
Ba(OH)2 In mixture of 50 mL of 0.02 M H2SO4 and 50 mL of 0.02 M
NaOH:
50 × 0.02
Moles of [H3O + ] = = 1× 10 −3 × 2 = 2 × 10 −3
∆Hsolution = ∆Hlattice enthalpy + ∆Hhydration energy 1000
50 × 0.02
Moles of [OH− ] = = 1× 10 −3
1000
The more negative ∆Hsolution is, more is the solubility Excess [H3O + ] = 2 × 10 −3 − 1× 10 −3 = 1× 10 −3
of compounds. The solubility of hydroxide can also be
pH = − log[1× 10 −3 ] = 3
explained in terms of Ksp, which increases from Be(OH)2
to Ba(OH)2. 87. (a) When KCN is added in water, then pH will increase.
79. (a) H3BO3 is a weak acid and ionizes mainly as monobasic KCN + H2O → KOH + HCl
acid. It does not liberate H+ ion but accepts OH− ion and
behaves as weak Lewis acid. As KCN will react with water to form KOH, which is a
strong base.
H3BO3 + H2O → B(OH)4− + H+
88. (a) The reaction is represented as
+ − Na2CO3 + HCl NaCl + NaHCO3
80. (c) The reaction involved is AgCl Ag + Cl
Milliequiv. 30
The solubility product is Ksp = (S) × (S) = S2. But it is given before × 100 = 283 150 × 1 = 150 0 0
that Ksp = 10−10. Therefore, S = 10−5 and so [Ag+] = [Cl−] reaction 106
= 10−5 M.
Milliequiv.
81. (b) For pure water [H3O + ] = K w after 133 0 150 150
reaction
K w = [H3O + ]2 = (10 −6 )2 = 10 −12 The solution contains Na2CO3 and HCO3− and thus, acts
as buffer. The pH is
82. (b) [Ag+ ][Cl− ] = 10 −10 [Cl− ] = 10 −4 ( from NaCl)
[CO23 − ] 133
−10 −10 pH = − log K a + log = − log(5.63 × 10 −11) + log
10 10 [HCO3− ] 150
Then [Ag+ ] = = = 10 −6 M
[Cl− ] 10 −4 = 10.249 − 0.052 = 10.197
89. (b) Given that Ka of weak acid, HA = 10−4. The reaction equi- 91. (a)
librium is as follows:
10 Phenophthalien
+ −
HA + H2O H3O + A
7
From the reaction we have,
pH
The equilibrium constant is The graph shows how pH changes during titration of
50 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl with 0.1 M NH3
[NaA ] [Na+ ][A − ] HCl(aq) + NH4 OH(aq) → NH4 Cl(aq) + H2O(l)
K= =
[HA ][NaOH] [HA ][Na+ ][OH− ] In this case the pH changes rapidly from 3.5 to 7 at the
where both NaOH and NaA are strong electrolytes. Thus, equivalence point. Methyl orange is suitable indicator for
we have this type of titration. Phenolphthalein is unsuitable because
[A − ] its pH range lies outside the vertical portion of the curve.
K= (2)
[HA ][OH− ] 92. (c) The reaction is
[A − ] 10 −4 HCOOH H+ + HCOO −
From Eq. (1), we get = 0.1− a a+b a
[HA] [H3O + ]
Therefore, pKa = –log (Ka) = –log (1.15 × 10−3) = 2.938. Percentage of NO2 = 26.08%
or 7.3674 x = 1− 2 x
95. (d) K = K × (RT )∆ng 1
p C Therefore, x = = 106.75 × 10 −3 mol
9.3674
= (2.2 × 1059 ) × [(0.0821 L atm/K /mol)(573 K )]−1
= 4.7 × 1057 a = 2 x = 2 × 106.75 × 10 −3 = 213.5 × 10 −3
96. (a) Given that i = 0.80, van’t Hoff factor, i = 1 + na – a, and Percentage dissociation = 21.35%
2A A 2 .
98. (c) AgCl in water : [Ag+ ][Cl− ] = 10 −10
Two molecules get associated to form one molecule.
1 a S × S = S 2 = 10 −10
Hence, n = ; then i = 1+ na − a becomes 0.80 = 1+ − a
2 2 S = 10 −5 mol dm−3 = S1
= 0.6 10 −10
[Ag+ ] = = 10 −8 mol dm−3 = S3
Total volume = 0.8(0.6 + 0.2) 10 −2
Volume of A2 0.2 AgCl in 0.05 M AgCO3 : [0.05][Cl− ] = 10 −10
Volume % of A2 = × 100 = × 100 = 25%
Total volume 0.8 10 −10
[Cl− ] = = 0.2 × 10 −8 = 2 × 10 −9 mol dm−3 = S4
5 × 10 −2
97. (d) The reaction of formation of HI is as follows: Hence, S1 > S3 > S2 > S4.
100. (b) For this reaction at equilibrium So, [BrCl]eq = 3.03 × 10−3 mol L−1
pCO2 104. (b) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI(g); K C = 20 ; p = 0.1 bar = 0.0987 atm
Kp = = 0.265 ⇒ pCO2 = K p pCO = 0.265 pCO
pCO pV 0.0987 × 10
Sum of initial partial pressures pV = nRT ⇒ n = = = 0.0384 mol
RT 0.0821× 313
= pCO + pCO2 = 1.4 atm + 0.8 atm = 2.2 atm Initial 12.7 g of I2 = 0.1 mol of I2
Sum of partial pressures at equilibrium = pCO + 0.265pCO At equilibrium 0.0384 mol of I2
= 1.265 pCO
Number of moles of I2 reacted = 0.1 − 0.0384 = 0.0616 mol
As there is no change in the number of moles of gase-
ous components during the reaction, we have 0.0616
[H2 ] to be introduced = = 0.00616 M = 0.00616 mol = 0.00616 × 2 = 0.012
10
2.2 atm
1.265 pCO = 2.2 atm ⇒ pCO = = 1.74 atm 0.0616
[H2 ] to be introduced =
1.265 = 0.00616 M = 0.00616 mol = 0.00616 × 2 = 0.0123 g
10
So, pCO2 = 0.265 × pCO = 0.265 × 1.74 atm = 0.46 atm. 105. (c) The tool we need to convert between Kp and KC is
101. (d) The reaction can be expressed as
∆ng
K p = K C (RT )
y+ x−
A xB y xA + yB
From the given data, then, we have KC = 6.0 × 10−2, ∆ng
Initial concentration C 0 0 = −2 mol, T = 500 + 273 = 773 K and R = 0.0821 L atm
Conc. at equilibrium C (1−a ) xCa yCa mol−1 K−1. Substituting these into the equation for Kp
gives
( xCa ) x ( yCa ) y ( xCa ) x ( yCa ) y
K eq = = ( Taking 1− a = 1) K p = (6.0 × 10 −2 ) × [(0.0821) × (773)]−2
C (1− a ) C
x x y y C x + ya x + y = (6.0 × 10 −2 ) / (63.5)2 = 1.5 × 10 −5
= = x x y y C x + y −1a x + y
C In this case, Kp has a numerical value quite different from
1/( x + y ) that of KC.
K eq
a = x y x + y −1
x y C 106. (b) Let us consider p0 be the initial partial pressure. Then at
equilibrium, partial pressure of each gas would be
102. (b) The moles of NaOH and HCl are
pCl2 = p0 − 0.12, pF2 = p0 − 0.16
0.1 mol
× 100 mL = 10 −2 mol of NaOH 2
1000 mL pClF (0.2)2
3.2 = =
0.2 mol pCl2 × pF2 ( p0 − 0.12)( p0 − 0.16 )
× 50 mL = 10 −2 mol of HCl
1000 mL 3.2 [ p02 − 0.28 p0 + 0.0192] = 0.04
So, NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O p02 − 0.28 p0 + 6.7 × 10 −3 = 0 or p02 − 0.28 p0 + 0.0067 = 0
10 −2 mol
−2
10 mol
Thus, NaOH and HCl exactly neutralize each other. So −b ± b2 − 4 ac 0.28 ± ( 0.28 )2 − 4(1)(0.0067)
pH = pH of pure water = 7. p0 = = = 0.253
2a 2
103. (a) From the reaction stoichiometry Kp for the second reaction is
2
2BrCl (g) Br2 (g) + Cl2 (g) pClF (0.04 )
Kp = 3
= = 14.95
Initial moles 2 mol 1 mol 1 mol pCl2 × pF32 (0.133)(0.093)3
So, we have p = 0 or 1.084 p − 3.24 = 0 . Solving, we get So, p = 4.8 (due to PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 ), psolvent = 5.5 − 4.8 = 0.7
3.24 p = 4.8 (due to PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 ), psolvent = 5.5 − 4.8 = 0.7
1.084 p = 3.24 ⇒ p = = 2.988 bar
1.084 Since p ∝ number of moles, we have
ptotal = 1.8 p + 0.9 p + 1 = 1.8 × 2.988 + 0.9 × 2.988 + 1 = 9.0676 bar p( Cl2 , PCl3 and PCl5 ) Total moles of Cl2 , PCl3 and PCl5
=
psolvent nsolvent
108. (a) The equilibrium expression for
22SO
SO33(g
(g) )
22SO (g) )++OO22(g
SO22(g (g) ) is, 4.8 0.152
= ⇒ nsolvent = 0.0222 mol = 0.022 × 154 = 3.388 g
0.7 nsolvent
[SO2 ]2 [O2 ]
KC =
[SO3 ]2 111. (c) N2F2 (g) 2NF(g); ∆H is positive.
The equilibrium expression for the second equation, For the above reaction ∆H is positive. On increasing
SO3 (g) SO2 (g) + 21 O2 (g) is the temperature, reaction will proceed in a direction
where the temperature is decreasing that is in the for-
[SO2 ][O2 ]1/ 2
KC = ward direction. As the reaction proceeds in the forward
[SO3 ] direction the number of moles of gases increases. Due
Notice the relationship between the two equilibrium to which the pressure increases and the mercury level in
expressions the right hand limb rises.
[SO2 ]2 [O2 ] [SO2 ][O2 ]1/ 2 Level II
=
[SO3 ] [SO3 ] Multiple Correct Choice Type
The equilibrium constant of the second equation is the 112. (a), (b), (d) Cl2 (g) + 3F2 (g) 2ClF3 (g); ∆H = −329 kJ
square root of the first.
Increase in temperature favours endothermic reaction (here
5.87 × 10 −7 = 7.62 × 10 −4 reverse reaction).
Increase in volume of container means decreases in pres-
109. (d) The reaction can be expressed as sure; so, the equilibrium shifts to the side where the num-
2SO3 (g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ber of molecules increases (i.e., reverse reaction is favoured).
Addition of inert gas at constant pressure means increasing
x 0 0
the volume of the container.
−2 +2 +1
( x − 2) +2 +1 113. (a), (d) NH3 (aq) + H2O(l) NH+4 (aq) + OH− (aq)
Addition of HCl removes OH−; hence, [NH+4 ] increases.
[O ][SO2 ]2 1× 4 Addition of water increases the dissociation of weak electro-
K= 2 = = 0.222
[SO3 ] ( x − 2)2 lyte; hence, [NH+4 ] increases.
x 2 − 4 x + 4 = 18 114. (c), (d) The reaction may be expressed as
x 2 − 4 x − 14 = 0 AB2 (g) AB(g) + B(g)
4 ± 16 − 4( −14 ) 1 0 0
Hence, x = = 6.24 mol
2 −a +a +a
1− a a a
110. (c) The reaction can be expressed as
1− a a a
PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) pAB2 = p pAB = p pB = p
1+ a 1+ a 1+ a
20.85 g
a 2 p2
(0.1 mol) 0 0 2 a 2p a 2p
−0.052 +0.052 +0.052 K = (1+ a ) = =
(1− a ) 2
p (1+ a )(1− a ) 1− a
0.048 0.052 0.052 (1+ a )
Total number of moles = 0.048 + 0.052 + 0.052 = 0.152 mol K 1
If 1−a 2 1, then K = a 2 p ⇒ a 2 = or a ∝ or a ∝ V
p p
If p is pressure to PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2, then
115. (b), (c), (d) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a
0.052 0.052 reaction.
pPCl3 . pPCl2 p × p
0.152 0.152
Kp = = 116. (b), (c) The pressure of NH3 will decrease due to addition
pPCl5 0.048
p of CO2, (shifting of equilibrium in reverse direction as per
0.152
Le Chatelier’s principle). The pressure of CO2 will be more
0.052 × 0.052 than 0.1 atm.
1.78 = p ⇒ p = 4.8
0.048 × 0.152
4.24 × 10 −2 0.1 1
1/ 2
= ⇒ a 2 = 0.0134 × 100 = 1.34 % 139. (c) For 21 N2 (g) + 21 O2 (g) NO(g); K C =
a2 0.01 2.4 × 1030
132. (c) The reaction can be expressed as NO(g) + 21 Br2 (g) NOBr(g); K 2 = 1.4
For any pure substance at atmospheric pressure the Increase in pressure will favour the forward reaction.
temperature at which the solid and vapour states can With increase in temperature, the equilibrium shifts
co-exist is called sublimation point. toward reverse reaction and decrease in temperature
(d) Solute(s) Solution(l) shifts the equilibrium toward forward direction.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved is 144. (a) → r; (b) → q; (c) → p; (d) → s
called saturated solution. (a) 2NO(g) N2 (g) + O2 (g)
In a saturated solution, a dynamic equilibrium exists 2 mol 1mol 1mol
between the molecules in the solution. In the above reaction which does not involve any change
143. (a) → p, s; (b) → p, s; (c) → q, r; (d) → p, r in number of moles of gaseous species, in such reactions
pressure does not have any effect on equilibrium.
(a) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) (Exothermic)
(b) CH4 (g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2 (g)
On increasing the pressure, the volume occupied by the 1mol 1mol 1mol 3 mol
system will decrease. As such there will be greater num- On increasing the pressure, the volume occupied by
ber of moles per unit volume. The effect of this change the system will decrease. As such there will be greater
can be counter balanced if the equilibrium shifts in the number moles per unit volume. The effect of this
direction involving a decrease in the number of moles. change can be counter balanced if the equilibrium
This can happen only if nitrogen and hydrogen com- shifts in the direction involving a decrease in the num-
bine to form ammonia. Thus, increase in pressure in ber of moles. In the above reaction the number of
this case will favour the forward reaction. moles decrease in the reactant side; hence, the equi-
Effect of temperature: librium shifts in toward the reverse direction.
Exothermic
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
2NH3 (g) ; ∆H
H = −93.6 kJ Exothermic
Endothermic (c)
3O2 (g) 2O3 (g) ; ∆H = 285 kJ
In this equilibrium, the forward reaction is exothermic Endothermic
3 mol 2 mol
while the reverse reaction is endothermic. Now, if the On increasing the pressure, the equilibrium is shifted
temperature is increased, the equilibrium will shift in toward forward direction because in the product side,
the direction of endothermic reaction, which tends there is decrease in the number of moles. Hence, it is
to undo the effect of added heat. Since the reverse favoured.
reaction is endothermic, so the equilibrium shifts on With increase in temperature, the equilibrium shifts
favour of reverse reaction. In other words, it will result toward the exothermic reaction; hence, the equilib-
into lesser amount of ammonia. On the other hand, rium is shifted to the forward direction.
if temperature is decreased, the equilibrium will shift
towards exothermic reaction. So, low temperature (d) N2 (g) + 2O2 (g) 2NO2 (g); ∆H = 66.4 kJ
1mol 2 mol 2 mol
favours the formation of ammonia.
If pressure is decreased, the equilibrium will shift
(b) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) (Exothermic ) toward reverse direction.
This reaction is also similar to formation of NH3, that is, But at a time when pressure is decreased and the
increase in pressure favours the forward reaction and number of moles of N2 gets increased, then we theo-
low temperature favours the formation of SO3. retically cannot predict the equilibrium shift.
147. (1) For the reactions 151. (9) When Mg(OH)2 starts precipitation, the solubility product
5 is
2NH3 (g) + O (g) → 2NO(g) + 3H2O(g)
2 2 Ksp = [ Mg2+][OH−]2
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(bar)4 (bar )6 [0.1][OH− ]2 = 1× 10 −11 ⇒ [OH− ] = 10 −5 M
K= = (bar )1 ⇒ n = 1
(bar)4 (bar )5 Thus, pOH = 5 and pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 5 = 9.
148. (7) Ka = Kb. So, pOH = pH. Therefore, pH = pOH = 7.
152. (4) As number of moles of A3 is 1/3, so, K C = 3 K C = 3 64 = 4.
149. (8) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
153. (9) pH = pK a + pK b . Suppose pH = 14, and given that
[SO3 ]2 pKa = 5, then pKb = 9.
KC = ⇒ [SO3 ]2 = K C [SO2 ]2 [O2 ]
[SO2 ]2 [O2 ]
154. (4) Given that [Salt] = [Acid], so pOH = pKb. Given that
[SO3 ]2 ∝ [SO2 ]2 [O2 ] or [SO3 ] ∝ [SO2 ]2 [O2 ] pOH = 10, so pH = 14 − 10 = 4.
[OH− ] = 2S = 2 × 0.5 × 10 −5 M = 1× 10 −5 M
(
pOH = −log 1× 10 −5 = 5 )
pH = 14 − 5 = 9
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
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SUMMARY
1. Electron transfer reactions are called oxidation–reduction reactions, or simply redox reactions.
2. Classical concept of oxidation and reduction
(a) Oxidation is defined as addition of oxygen or electronegative element to a substance or removal of hydrogen/electropositive
element from a substance. Some examples of oxidation:
(b) Reduction is defined as removal of oxygen/electronegative element from a substance or addition of hydrogen/electropositive
element to a substance. Some examples of reduction are:
(c) Oxidation and reduction always occur together, that is, no substance is ever oxidized unless something else is reduced. Therefore,
these reactions are collectively called oxidation–reduction or redox reactions.
3. Oxidation and reduction as electron transfer reactions
(a) Oxidation is the loss of electrons by one reactant; Reduction is the gain of electrons by another reactant.
Metallic zinc is oxidized as copper ion is reduced. In the process, Zn2+ ions have taken the place of the Cu2+ ions, so a solution of
copper sulphate is changed to a solution of zinc sulphate.
(b) An element that is more easily oxidized will displace the one that is less easily oxidized from its compounds. The metals are
placed in order of their ease of oxidation. Thus emerges the activity series shown in the table below. In this table, metals at the
bottom are more easily oxidized (are more active) than those at the top.
Element Oxidation Product
Tip It is assumed that if two or more than two atoms of an element are present in a molecule or ion (e.g., two atoms of sulphur in
Na2S2O3), then the oxidation number of that element is the average of the oxidation number of all the atoms of that element.
Tip To differentiate oxidation numbers from actual electrical charges, the sign is specified before the number when writing oxida-
tion numbers, and after the number when writing electrical charges. Thus, a sodium ion has a charge of 1+ and an oxidation number
of +1.
(b) In covalent compounds, the following set of rules is followed to determine the oxidation numbers.
(i) The oxidation number of any free element is zero. For example, each atom in molecules such as H2, O2, S8, P4, Ca, K, etc. has
oxidation number zero.
(ii) The oxidation number for any simple, monatomic ion (e.g., Na+ or Cl−) is equal to the charge on the ion. The oxidation num-
ber of a polyatomic ion is equal to the charge on the ion. For example, the oxidation state of SO2−
4 is −2 and the oxidation
state of PO3−
4 is −3.
(iii) The sum of all the oxidation numbers of the atoms in a molecule/polyatomic ion must equal the charge on the particle.
For example, in Cr2O72− , the sum of oxidation numbers of two chromium and seven oxygen atoms must be equal to −2. The
algebraic sum of oxidation numbers of all the atoms in a compound must be zero.
(iv) Fluorine has an oxidation number of −1 in all its compounds, other halogens also have −1 oxidation number in their halides
but the oxoacids and oxoanions of halogens have positive oxidation numbers.
(v) Hydrogen has an oxidation number of +1 in most of its compounds. When combined with a less electronegative element
(usually a metal), hydrogen has oxidation number −1 (e.g., LiH).
(vi) Oxygen has an oxidation number of −2 in most of its compounds; Exceptions include molecules and polyatomic ions that
contain O O bonds, such as O2, O3, H2O2 and the O2− 2 ion. Oxygen is positive only when bound to the more electronegative
fluorine. When it is bonded to fluorine (OF2 or O2F2), the oxidation numbers are +2 and +1, respectively.
(vii) In binary ionic compounds with metals, the non-metals have oxidation numbers equal to the charges on their anions. For
example, Mg3P contains the phosphide ion P3− which has an oxidation number of −3.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
H H He
+1 +1 0
1 −1 −1
Li Be B C N O F Ne
+1 +2 +3 −4 −3 −2 −1 0
2 −2 +3
+2 +5
+4
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
+1 +2 +3 +4 −3 −2 −1 0
3 +3 +2 +1
+5 +4 +3
+6 +5
+7
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
Periods
+1 +2 +3 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +1 +2 +3 −4 −3 −2 −1 +2
4 +4 +4 +3 +4 +3 +3 +2 +2 +3 +4 +1
+5 +6 +7 +4 +5 +6 +5
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
+1 +2 +3 +4 +3 +2 +4 +2 +1 +2 +1 +2 +1 +2 −3 −2 −1 +2
5 +4 +3 +7 +3 +3 +4 +3 +4 +3 +4 +1 +4
+5 +4 +4 +5 +6 +5 +6
+5 +7 +8
+6
Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
+1 +2 +3 +4 +3 +2 +3 +4 +3 +2 +1 +1 +1 +2 +3 +2 −1 0
+4 +3 +4 +4 +3 +2 +3 +4 +5 +4 +1
6 +5 +4 +7 +3
+5 +5
+6 +7
Fr Ra
+1 +2
7
(Continued)
(a) Metal dis- If one metal is more AX + M → MX + A 0 +2 +2 +2 −2 0
placement easily oxidized than Zn + Hg O → Zn O + Hg
Single displacement
another, it can displace reactions. 0 +1 −1 0 +2 −1
the other metal from its Cu(s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → 2A g(s) + Cu(NO3 )2 (aq)
compounds by a redox
reaction.
(iii) Find the increase (or decrease) in the oxidation number for the number of atoms involved.
(iv) Draw a bridge between the same atoms whose oxidation states have changed, indicating the electrons gained or lost. This
corresponds to the change in oxidation number of atom.
+3e−
+5 +2
HNO3 + H2S NO + S + H2
−2 0
−2e−
(v) Multiply the molecule, atoms or ions oxidized or reduced by an appropriate number so as to make the increase in the oxida-
tion number of the atom(s) oxidized equal to the decrease in the oxidation number of the atom(s) reduced.
+3e− × 2 = + 6e−
−2e− × 3 = + 6e−
Diphenylamine Used in conjunction with potassium dichro- When the equivalence point of the reaction is
(An external indicator) mate which is a strong oxidizing agent, but reached and all the reactant is consumed, the next
is not a self-indicator. drop of potassium dichromate added produces
intense blue colour with diphenylamine and marks
the end point of the titration.
Starch In iodometric titrations, the amount of iodine lib-
erated is estimated by titrating against a reducing
agent such as sodium thiosulphate which reduces
it to iodide ions (I−). Starch forms an intensely blue
coloured complex with iodine. When all iodine
is reduced to iodide ions, the blue colour of the
solution disappears and marks the end point of
the reaction.
In the first step, Cu2+ is reduced to Cu+ by the addition of potassium iodide in excess in the pH range 4.0–5.5. The iodine
liberated is titrated against sodium thiosulphate using starch as indicator. The estimated amount of iodine is stoichiomet-
rically equal to the amount of copper present.
(ii) Iodimetry: Titrations involving the direct titration of iodine with a reducing agent are termed as iodimetric titrations. Examples
of iodimetric titration include the determination of strength of ferrous ions, sulphite ions, arsenite ions and thiosulphate ions.
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight =
n
where n is the number of electrons lost/gained by 1 mol of oxidizing/reducing agent in their balanced half reaction. Here n is
known as n factor or valence factor.
Some examples are as follows:
Equivalent weights Fe2(SO4)3 as oxidizing agent (COOH)2 as reducing agent
of oxidants and 3+
+ 1e − → Fe2 +
Fe C2O24− → 2CO2 + 2e −
reductants
90
1 mol of Fe2(SO4)3 = 2 mol of Fe2+ n = 2, so Equiv. weight = = 45
So n = 2 for 1 mol of Fe2(SO4)3 and 2
400
Equiv. weight = = 200
2
Equivalent weight KMnO4 as oxidizing agent in acidic medium. Na2S2O3 as reducing agent in acidic medium.
based on medium
MnO 4− + 8H+ + 5e − → Mn2 + + 4H2O 2S2O23 − → S4 O26 − +2e −
n = 2/2 = 1 for 1 mol of Na2S2O3,
158 158
n = 5, so Equiv. weight = = 31.6 so Equiv. weight = = 158
5 1
KMnO4 as oxidizing agent in alkaline medium. Na2S2O3 as reducing agent in alkaline medium.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Modern Approach to Redox Reactions (c) H2SO3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes
oxidation.
1. Which of the following chemical reactions depicts the oxidiz- (d) H2SO3 is the reducing agent because it undergoes
ing behaviour of H2SO4? reduction.
(a) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2+ SO2+ 2H2O (JEE Main Online 2014)
(b) Ca(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2H2O Solution
(c) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl (c)
(d) 2PCl5 + H2SO4 → 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2 Oxidation (2e−)
(AIEEE 2006)
Solution H2SO4 + Sn4+ + H2O Sn2+ + HSO−4 + 3H+
(a) 2HI + H2SO 4 → I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
+4 +6
On left hand side oxidation state of sulphur = 6 Reduction (2e−)
On right hand side oxidation state of sulphur = 4
There is a decrease of oxidation state of sulphur from +6 H2SO3 itself gets oxidized hence acts as a reducing agent
in sulphuric acid to +4 in sulphur dioxide. It means that while Sn4+ being reduced to +2 oxidation state acts as an
H2SO4 is reduced and iodide ions are oxidized to iodine oxidizing agent.
by conc. H2SO4. 3. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution and then Na2S2O3
solution is added to it. Which of the statements is incorrect for
2. Consider the reaction: this reaction?
4+ 2+ − + (a) Cu2I2 is reduced (b) Evolved I2 is reduced
H2SO3 (aq) + Sn (aq) + H2O(l) → Sn (aq) + HSO 4 (aq) + 3H (aq)
(c) Na2S2O3 is oxidized (d) CuI2 is formed
Which of the following statements is correct? Solution
(a) Sn4+ is the oxidizing agent because it undergoes oxidation.
(a) CuI2 is formed as 2CuSO 4 + 4KI → 2K 2SO 4 + CuI2 + I2
(b) Sn4+ is the reducing agent because it undergoes oxidation. (excess )
For Cu : Cu+ → Cu2 + + e − For Sn : Sn2 + → Sn4 + + 2e − Cr2O72 − + 14H+ + 3e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O] × 5
Cu+ + e − → Cu Sn2 + + 2e − → Sn I2 + 6H2O → 2IO3− + 5e − + 12H+ ] × 3
Overall 2Cu+ → Cu2 + + Cu Overall 2Sn2 + → Sn4 + + Sn
5Cr2O72 − + 3I2 + 34H+ → 10Cr 3+ + 6IO3− + 17H2O
Balancing of Ionic Redox Reactions 16. Complete the balancing of the following half reaction, taking
place in basic media,
13. Consider the following reaction
Br − (aq) → BrO3− (aq)
xMnO 4− + yC2O24− + zH+ → xMn2 + + 2 yCO2 + 2z H2O
How many electrons are needed to balance it?
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively (a) 2 electrons, left side (b) 2 electrons, right side
(a) 2, 5 and 8 (b) 2, 5 and 16 (c) 4 electrons, right side (d) 6 electrons, right side
(c) 5, 2 and 8 (d) 5, 2 and 16 Solution
(JEE Main 2013)
Solution (d) The balanced equation in basic media is
(b) The balanced equation is Br − + 6OH − → BrO3− + 3H2O + 6e −
Thus, six electrons are required on the right hand side to
2MnO 4− + 5C2O24 − + 16H+ → 2Mn2 + + 10CO2 + 8H2O balance the reaction.
Hence, x = 2, y = 5, z = 16 17. After balancing of the equation for the reaction,
14. How many electrons are involved in the following redox Sn2 + + H+ + TcO 4− → Tc 4+ + H2O+Sn4 +
reaction?
3+ 3+
what is the sum of ALL the coefficients in the equation?
Cr2O72 − + Fe2 + + C2O24− → Cr + Fe + CO2 (Unbalanced) (a) 6 (b) 22 (c) 30 (d) 34
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5 Solution
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution (d) TcO 4− − Sn2 + → Tc 4+ + Sn4 +
First, we break the reaction above into half-reactions:
(c)
Reduction (3e−) TcO 4− → Tc4+
Sn2+ → Sn4+
Cr2O27− + Fe2+ + C2O24− Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2 Each half-reaction is already balanced with respect to
+6 +2 +3 +3 +3 +4 atoms other than O and H, so next we balance the O
1e− atoms by using water:
Cr2O72 − + 2Fe2 + + 2C2O24− → 2Cr 3+ + 2Fe3+ + 4CO2 3e– + 8H+ + TcO 4− → Tc4+ + 4H2O
Sn2+ → Sn4+ + 2e–
Total 6e− are involved in given redox reaction.
We multiply the equations so that the electrons gained
15. Consider the following redox reaction occurring in acidic equals the electrons lost,
solution:
2(3e– + 8H+ + TcO 4− → Tc4+ + 4H2O)
Cr2O72 − + I2 → IO3− + Cr 3+ 3(Sn2+ → Sn4+ + 2e–)
On balancing the above equation, the coefficients of I2 and which gives us:
H+ are, respectively, 6e– + 16H+ + 2TcO 4− → 2Tc4+ + 8H2O
(a) 5 and 16 (b) 3 and 16
(c) 3 and 34 (d) 5 and 34 3Sn2+ → 3Sn4+ + 6e–
Solution Now, by adding the half-reactions back together, we
(c) Writing the half reactions, we have have our balanced equation:
(a) Mg, Mn, Zn are more reactive than Ag, Cu; but less reac-
3Sn2+ + 16H+ + 2TcO 4− → 2Tc4+ + 8H2O + 3Sn4+
tive than H2.
Therefore, the sum of all the coefficients is = 3 + 16 + 2 + 2 (b) Mg, Mn, Zn are less reactive than Ag, Cu; but more reac-
+ 8 + 3 = 34 tive than H2.
(c) Mg, Mn, Zn are more reactive than Ag, Cu; and more reac-
18. Consider the chemical change which is occurring in basic
tive than H2.
medium: ClO3− + N2H4 → NO + Cl− . The correct statement is
(d) Mg, Mn, Zn are less reactive than Ag, Cu; and less reactive
(a) N2H4 is acting as an oxidizing agent in the reaction.
than H2.
(b) 3 mol of N2H4 are required per mole of ClO3− .
(c) The electrons transferred per mol of N2H4 reduce 1.33 Solution
mol of ClO3− . (c) The increasing reactivity order of given metals is
(d) 5 mol of electrons are gained by per mole ofClO3− . Ag < Cu < Zn < Mn < Mg.
Solution 21. Consider the metals: Mn, Mg, Zn, Ag, Cu. Based on their reac-
(c) The balanced chemical equation is tivity order, pick the correct statement.
(a) All five metals produce hydrogen gas on reacting with
4 ClO3− + 3N2H4 → 4 Cl− + 6NO + 6H2O acids.
Since nitrogen’s oxidation state increases from −2 to +2, (b) Ag will substitute Cu from its aqueous solution.
N2H4 is oxidizing and is working as a reducing agent. (c) Mn will substitute Zn from its aqueous solution.
The equation clearly tells us that four moles of ClO3− is (d) Cu will substitute Mg from its aqueous solution.
reduced by 3 mol of N2H4, so, per mole of ClO3− will require
Solution
(3/4) = 0.75 mol of N2H4 or 1 mol of N2H4 will reduce 4/3
=1.33 mol of ClO3− . (c) The order of reactivity of these metals is Mg > Mn > Zn
The oxidation state of chlorine is changing from +5 to −1, > Cu > Ag. Out of these metals, Cu and Ag are less reactive
and per mole of ClO3− contains one mole of chlorine. So, and their reaction with acid will not produce hydrogen
one mole of ClO3− will gain 6 mol of electrons. gas.
Highly reactive metal can substitute the less reactive
19. Consider the redox reaction in acidic medium: metal from their aqueous solution, so, Mn2+ will substi-
tute Zn2+ from aqueous solution.
Mn2 + + BiO3− → MnO 4− + Bi3+. Choose the correct statement
from the following: Stoichiometry of Redox Reactions
(a) The total electrons involved in the balanced chemical 22. When 1 mol of KMnO4 reacts with HCl, the volume of chlorine
equation is 5. liberated at STP will be
(b) Two moles of electrons are donated by per mole of BiO3− . (a) 11.2 L (b) 22.4 L (c) 44.8 L (d) 56.0 L
(c) 2.8 mol of acid are required for the change from BiO3− to
Bi3+. Solution
(d) Acid is used as reducing agent in this reaction. (d) The reactions involved are
Solution [2Cl− → Cl2 + 2e − ] × 5
(c) In this reaction, BiO3− is reduced by accepting electrons [MnO 4− + 8H+ + 5e − → Mn+2 + 4H2O] × 2
which are donated by Mn2+ that is getting oxidized. 10 Cl− + 2MnO 4− + 16H+ → 5Cl2 + 2Mn+2 + 8H2O
Balancing the redox equation, we get:
Hence, 2 mol of KMnO4 liberates 5 mol of Cl2 or volume of
[Mn2 + + 4H2O → MnO 4− + 8H+ + 5e − ] × 2 Cl2 = 5 × 22.4 L at STP
1 mol of KMnO4 will liberates volume of Cl2 = 5 × 22.4/2
[BiO3− + 6H+ + 2e − → Bi3+ + 3H2O] × 5
= 56.0 L at STP
2Mn2 + + 5BiO3− + 14H+ → 2MnO 4− + 5Bi3+ + 7H2O 23. How many mL of 0.05 M KMnO4 is required to oxidize 2.0 g of
FeSO4 in dilute solution?
From the balanced equation, it is clear that total of 10 (a) 52.63 mL (b) 52.96 mL
electrons are involved in the reaction, and 2.8 mol of acid (c) 67.63 mL (d) 70.96 mL
are required by per mole of BiO3− .
Solution
Applications of Redox Reactions (a) The redox reactions are
MnO 4− + 8H+ + 5e − → Mn2 + + 4H2O
20. In a series of chemical test reactions the following observations
were made when several metallic element samples were treated Fe2 + → Fe3+ + e −
with 3.00 M hydrochloric acid solution. Zn: metal dissolves, Therefore, the overall reaction is
hydrogen gas is emitted. Cu: no reaction. Ag: no reaction. Mg:
metal dissolves, hydrogen gas is emitted. Mn: metal dissolves, MnO 4− + 8H+ + 5Fe2 + → Mn2 + + 4H2O + 5Fe3+
hydrogen gas is emitted. Which of the following statements is Now, by the relation, M1V1 = M2V2 we have
true? n1 n2
Redox Reaction Titrations Hence, 5 mol of FeSO4 are completely oxidized by 1 mol
of KMnO4 and 15 mol of FeSO4 are completely oxidized
30. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be deter- 1 × 15
mined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the presence of by = 3 mol of KMnO4
5
H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried
33. When iodine is passed through sodium thiosulphate, it is
out in the presence of HCl, because HCl
decolourized and sodium tetrathionate is formed. What is
(a) gets oxidized by oxalic acid to chlorine.
the change in the oxidation number of a sulphur atom in the
(b) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.
reaction?
(c) reduces permanganate to Mn2+.
(a) 1/2 (b) 3/2 (c) 2 (d) 1
(d) oxidizes oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
(AIEEE 2008) Solution
Solution (a) The reaction involved is
(c) MnO 4− + C2O24− + H+ → Mn2 + + CO2 + H2O 0 +2 −1 +2.5
I2 + 2 Na2 S2 O3 → 2Na I + Na2 S4 O6
MnO 4− −
+ Cl → Cl2 + Mn 2+
Sodium thiosulphate Sodium tetrathionate
Change in oxidation number of sulphur = 1/2.
MnO 4− gets easily reduced to Mn2+ in presence of HCl,
hence not used. 34. Metallic tin in the presence of HCl is oxidized by K2Cr2O7 to
stannic chloride. What volume of decinormal dichromate
31. A 0.46 g sample of As2O3 required 25.0 mL of KMnO4 solution
solution will be reduced by 1 g of tin? (Atomic weight of
for its titration. The molarity of KMnO4 solution is
Sn = 118.7 u)
(a) 0.016 (b) 0.074 (c) 0.032 (d) 0.128
(a) 336.9 mL (b) 235.6 mL
Solution (c) 465.23 mL (d) 398.56 mL
(b) The reaction involved is Solution
5As2O3 + 4MnO4− + 9H2O + 12H+ → 10HAsO34− + 4Mn2+ (a) Balanced chemical equation is
5 mol of As2O3 reacts with 4 mol of MnO 4− 2K 2Cr2O 7 + 3Sn + 28HCl → 4KCl + 4 CrCl3 + 3SnCl4 + 14H2O
2(2 × 39 + 2 3 × 118.7
Therefore, 0.46/198 mol of As2O3 will reacts with
× 52 + 7 × 16 ) = 356.1 g
4 0.46
× = 0.00186 mol of MnO 4− = 2 × 294 = 588 g
5 198
Now 356.1 g Sn react with K2Cr2O7 = 588 g
0.00186
Hence, molarity of KMnO4 = × 1000 = 0.074 M 588
25 1 g Sn will react with K2Cr2O7 = g = 1.651 g
356.1
32. How many moles of KMnO4 are required in the acidic medium Equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7
for complete oxidation of 15 mol of FeSO4?
Molecular weight 294
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 = = = 49
6 6
Solution Decinormal K2Cr2O7 solution means 1000 mL solution
(b) The reactions involved are contains 4.9 g K2Cr2O7, that is, 4.9 g K2Cr2O7 are present
in 1000 mL solution.
MnO 4− + 5e − + 8H+ → Mn2 + + 4H2O Thus, 1.651 g K2Cr2O7 will be present in
[Fe2 + → Fe3+ + e − ] × 5 1000
= × 1.651 = 336.9 mL
MnO 4− + 5Fe2 + + 8H+ → Mn2 + + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O 4.9
Solution
Oxidation number
(d) The skeletal ionic equation is decreases by
Cr2O7 + Fe2 + → Fe3+ + Cr 3+ 3 unit (reduction)
Solution
Cr2O7 + 6e − → Cr 3+
(6) 2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K 2MnO 4 + 2H2O
Fe2 + → Fe3+ + e − ] × 6 Potassium
manganate
We need to multiply this equation by 6. So the n factor Let the oxidation number of Mn be x, then we have
for Cr2O7 = 6 and for Fe2+ = 1. Thus, to reduce 1 mol of
dichromate, 6 mol of Fe2+ is required. 2( +1) + x + 4( −2) = 0 ⇒ 2 + x − 8 = 0 ⇒ x − 6 = 0 ⇒ x = + 6
2. Match the reaction with the type of reaction/nature of 4. Among the following, the number of elements showing only
product. one non-zero oxidation state is ___.
(d) This reaction is also a redox reaction since both reduction 2H2O + 3e − + MnO −4 → MnO2 + 4 OH− (i.e. 3 electrons in
and oxidation are involved. neutral and alkaline media)
3. The oxidation number of Mn in the product of alkaline oxida- 8. The reaction of white phosphorous with aqueous NaOH gives
tive fusion of MnO2 is __. phosphine along with another phosphorus containing com-
pound. The reaction type; the oxidation states of phosphorus
(IIT-JEE 2009) in phosphine and the other product are, respectively,
9. Consider the following list of reagents: 13. When I− is oxidized by MnO 4− in alkaline medium, I− converts
Acidified K2Cr2O7, alkaline KMnO4, CuSO4, H2O2, Cl2, O3, FeCl3, into
HNO3, and Na2S2O3. (a) IO3− (b) I2 (c) IO 4− (d) IO −
The total number of reagents that can oxidize aqueous iodide Solution
to iodine is _____. (a) The reactions involved are
(JEE Advanced 2014)
Solution 2KMnO 4 + 2KOH → 2K 2MnO 4 + H2O + O
(7) The reactions involved are 2K 2MnO 4 + 2H2O → 2MnO2 + 4KOH + 2O
2KMnO 4 + H2O → 2MnO2 + 2KOH + 3[O]
K2Cr2O7 + I− + H+ → I2 CuSO4 + I− → I2
KI + [O] → KIO3
H2O2 + I− → I2 Cl2 + I− → I2
2KMnO 4 + KI + H2O → 2KOH + 2MnO2 + KIO3
FeCl3 + I− → I2 HNO3 + I− → I2
O3 + I−→ I2 14. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 by iodome-
try, the equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7 is
10. Hydrogen peroxide in its reaction with KIO4 and NH2OH (a) (molar mass)/2 (b) (molar mass)/6
respectively, is acting as a (c) (molar mass)/3 (d) same as molar mass
(a) Reducing agent, oxidizing agent. Solution
(b) Reducing agent, reducing agent.
(c) Oxidizing agent, oxidizing agent. (b) As this is a redox titration involving gain of electrons,
(d) Oxidizing agent, reducing agent. equivalent mass = (molar mass)/number of electrons
(JEE Advanced 2014) involved = (molar mass)/6. The reaction is
Solution
Cr2O72− + 14H+ + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O
(a) The reactions involved are
+7 +5 15. 0.5 g of sample containing MnO2 is treated with HCl, liberat-
H2O2 + K I O 4 → K I O3 + H2O + O2 ing Cl2. The Cl2 is passed into a solution of KI and 30.0 cm3
of 0.1 M Na2S2O3 which is required to titrate the liberated
In above reaction, the oxidation state of I decreases from iodine. Calculate the percentage of MnO2 in the sample
+7 to +5. Therefore, KIO4 gets reduced and H2O2 acts as (atomic weight of Mn = 55 u).
reducing agent. (a) 19.63% (b) 26.1% (c) 32.5% (d) 16.98%
−1 +3 Solution
H2O2 + NH2OH → H2O + N 2 O3
(b) The reaction involved is
In the above reaction, the oxidation state of N increases
HCl KI Na S O
from −1 to +3. Therefore, NH2OH gets oxidized and H2O2 MnO2 → Cl2
→ I2
2 2 2
→ NaI + Na2S4 O6
acts as oxidizing agent.
Redox changes involved are
11. Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ by using
(a) H2O2 is presence of NaOH. 2e − + I20 → 2I−
(b) Na2O2 is water. +
(c) H2O2 in presence of H2SO4. 2S22 + → S(45 / 2 ) + 2e −
(d) Na2O2 in presence of H2SO4.
(JEE Advanced 2015) Mn4 + + 2e − → Mn2 +
The reactions suggest that Milliequiv. of MnO2 = 0.0320 M × 0.02344 L = 7.50 × 10−4 mol e–
Milliequiv. of Cl2 formed = Milliequiv. of I2 liberated =
The ratio of moles of electrons to moles of Ce4+ reactant
Milliequiv. of Na2S2O3 used
is, therefore, 2:1, and we conclude that the product is
Ce2+.
w
Therefore, × 1000 = 0.1 × 1 × 30
M/2 17. A 1.362 g sample of an iron ore that obtained Fe3O4 was dis-
solved in acid and all the iron was reduced to Fe2+. The solu-
(as NNa2 S2 O3 = MNa2 S2 O3 since valence factor = 1, see tion was then acidified with sulphuric acid and titrated with
39.42 ml of 0.0281 M KMnO4, which oxidized Fe2+ to Fe3+. The
redox changes for Na2S2O3)
percentage of Fe3O4 in the sample is
(a) 31.45% (b) 94.3% (c) 65 % (d) 22.7%
0.1 × 1 × 30 × M 0.1 × 1 × 30 × 87
or wMnO2 = = = 0.1305 g Solution
2000 2000
(a) In sample, iron is in Fe2+ and Fe3+ state, but all iron is con-
(as MMnO2 = 87 g mol−1 ) verted into Fe2+ before reaction with KMnO4.
Hence, percentage purity of MnO2 is
Fe2+ + Fe3+ → Fe2+
0.1305 Since iron is oxidized in the presence of acidic KMnO4,
Percentage of MnO2 = × 100 = 26.1%
0.5 the balanced equation for this redox reaction is
5Fe2+ + MnO 4− + 8H+ → 5Fe3+ + Mn2 + + 4H2O
16. A solution contains Ce(SO 4 )2−
3 at a concentration of 0.0150 M.
It was found that in a titration, 25.00 mL of this solu- 1 mol MnO 4− = 5 mol Fe2+ . Therefore,
tion reacted completely with 23.44 mL of 0.032 M FeSO4
solution. The reaction gave Fe3+ as a product in the solu- 39.42 × 0.0281
tion. In this reaction, what is the final oxidation state of Mole of iron in sample = × 5 = 5.5 × 10 −3 mol
1000
the Ce?
(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) +7 (d) +4 as 3 mol of Fe is present in 1 mol of Fe3O4. Hence,
Solution 5.5 × 10 −3
Moles of Fe3O 4 in sample = = 1.83 × 10 −3 mol
(b) The oxidation state of cerium in the reactant ion is +4. 3
The number of moles of this ion in the reactant solution
is Mass of Fe3O 4 in sample = 1.83 × 10 −3 × 232 = 0.43 g
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I (c) S2O24− < S2O26 − < SO23 − (d) S2O26 − < S2O24− < SO23 −
Single Correct Choice Type 5. In the reaction, C4H10(l) + Cr2O 27− (aq) + H+(aq) → H6C4O4(s)
1. The oxidation number of carbon in CH2Cl2 is + Cr3+(aq) + H2O(l) the change in the oxidation number of the
(a) −4 (b) +4 (c) 0 (d) −2 chromium atom is
(a) a decrease by six units (b) a decrease by three units
2. SO2 under atmospheric condition changes to SO2− x . If oxida- (c) an increase by three units (d) an increase by five units
tion number of S in is +6, what is the value of x in SO2−x ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 6. Which of the following is not a reducing agent?
(a) SO2 (b) H2O2 (c) CO2 (d) NO2
3. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 (molecular weight = M) when it
disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 is 7. On the basis of structure, the oxidation of two Cl atoms in
(a) M (b) M/2 (c) M/4 (d) 3M/4 CaOCl2, respectively, are
(a) −1 and +1. (b) +2 and −2.
4. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions (c) −2 and +2. (d) −1 and +3.
SO23 − , S2O24− and S2O26 − follow the order 8. In the reaction 4I− + Hg2 + → HgI24− , 1 mol each of Hg2+ and
I− will form:
(a) S2O24− < SO23 − < S2O26 − (b) SO23 − < S2O24− < S2O26 − (a) 1 mol (b) 0.5 mol (c) 0.25 mol (d) 2 mol
9. After balancing of the equation for the reaction, 22. In the alkaline medium, the colour of potassium dichromate
solution changes from orange to yellow due to the formation
H+ + Cr2O72 − + Fe2 + → Cr 3+ + H2O + Fe3+ of potassium chromate. What is the change in oxidation state
of chromium?
what is the sum of ALL the coefficients in the equation? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
(a) 34 (b) 38 (c) 39 (d) 36
23. Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in
10. White P reacts with caustic soda; the products are PH3 and +6 oxidation state.
NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of (a) MnO 4− (b) Cr(CN)3−
6 (c) NiF62− (d) CrO2Cl2
(a) oxidation. (b) reduction.
(c) disproportionation. (d) neutralization. 24. Which of the following behaves as both oxidizing and reduc-
ing agents?
11. The reaction 3ClO − (aq) → ClO3− (aq) + 2Cl− (aq) is an example of (a) H2SO4 (b) SO2 (c) H2S (d) HNO3
(a) oxidation reaction.
25. Which oxyacid of Cl cannot undergo disproportionation?
(b) reduction reaction.
(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4
(c) disproportionation reaction.
(d) decomposition reaction. 26. Which of these will not be oxidized by ozone?
(a) KI (b) FeSO4 (c) KMnO4 (d) K2MnO4
12. When SO2 is passed through a solution of potassium iodate,
the oxidation state of iodine changes from 27. Among the following molecules, in which does bromine show
(a) +5 to 0 (b) +5 to −1 the maximum oxidation number?
(c) −5 to 0 (d) −7 to −1 (a) Hg2(BrO3)2 (b) BrCl
(c) KBrO4 (d) Br2
13. When copper is treated with a certain concentration of nitric
acid, nitric oxide, and nitrogen dioxide is liberated in equal 28. How many moles of KMnO4 are required in the acidic medium
volumes according to the equation, for complete oxidation of 15 mol of FeSO4?
xCu + yHNO3 → Cu(NO3 )2 + NO + NO2 + H2O (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
The coefficients of x and y are 29. A sample of 2.5 mol of hydrazine (N2H4) loses 25 mol of elec-
(a) 2 and 3. (b) 2 and 6. (c) 1 and 3. (d) 3 and 8. trons on being converted to a new compound X. Assuming
that there is no loss of nitrogen in the formation of the new
14. Which one of the following is an example of dispropor- compound, what is the oxidation number of nitrogen in com-
tionation? pound X?
(a) NH3 + 3CuO → 3Cu + 3H2O + N2 (a) −1 (b) −2 (c) +3 (d) +4
(b) 5HI + HIO3 → 3H2O + 3I2
(c) I2 + 2Na2S2O3 → 2NaI + Na2S4O6 30. Which reaction involves neither oxidation nor reduction?
(d) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
(a) CrO24− → Cr2O72 − (b) Cr → CrCl3
15. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reac- (c) Na → Na +
(d) 2S2O23 − → S4 O26 −
tion NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is
(a) 59 (b) 49 (c) 25 (d) 98
31. A compound contains atoms of three elements A, B, and C. If
16. Which of the following agents is the most reducing? the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5 and that of C is −2, the
(a) Mg (b) Na (c) K (d) Br2 possible formula of the compound is
(a) A3(BC4)2 (b) A3(B4C)2
17. The average oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S4O6 is (c) ABC2 (d) A3(BC3)2
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 3 (d) 2
32. No disproportionation is possible for
18. Which of the following compounds contain the metal atom in (a) AsH3 (b) SF4 (c) H5IO6 (d) PCl3
its highest possible oxidation state?
(a) KSCN (b) MnO2 (c) Cr2O3 (d) H2SnCl4 33. Which of the following agents is most oxidizing?
(a) O3 (b) KMnO4 (c) H2O2 (d) K2Cr2O7
19. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by 1 mol of Sn2+ is
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 34. The oxidation state of chlorine in perchloric acid is
(a) −1 (b) 0 (c) −7 (d) +7
20. Which of the following undergoes disproportionation in solution?
(a) Fe2+ (b) Cu+ (c) Cr3+ (d) Ni2+ 35. H2O2 acts as a reducing agent in
(a) FeCl2 + HCl + H2O2 → FeCl3 + H2O
21. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, and H2S, respec-
tively, are (b) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
(a) 0, +1 and −2 (b) +2, +1 and −2 (c) 2HI + H2O2 → I2 + H2O
(c) 0, +1 and +2 (d) −2, +1 and −2 (d) H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O
41. Which of the following statements about the following reac- Column I Column II
tions are wrong? (a) H2O2 (p) +1
2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) → 6Cu(s) + SO2(g) (b) MnSO4 (q) +3
(a) Both Cu2O and Cu2S are reduced. (c) AlCl3 (r) +2
(b) Only Cu2S is reduced. (d) S2Cl2 (s) +6
(c) Cu2S is the oxidant.
(d) Only Cu2O is reduced. 50. Match the reaction with its type.
42. When Cl2 is passed through NaOH in cold, the oxidation Column I Column II
number of Cl changes from
(a) V2O5 + Ca → 2V + 5CaO (p) Non-metal displace-
(a) 0 to −1 (b) 0 to +2 (c) 0 to −2 (d) 0 to +1
ment reaction
43. Which of the following statements are correct? (b) 2NaH → 2Na + H2 (q) Disproportionation
(a) All reactions are oxidation and reduction reactions. reaction
(b) Oxidizing agent is itself reduced.
(c) Oxidation and reduction always go side by side. (c) P4 + 3OH− + 3H2O → PH3 + (r) Decomposition reac-
(d) Oxidation number during reduction decreases. 3H2PO2 tion
(d) Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 (s) Redox reaction
44. A reducing agent in a redox reaction undergoes
(a) a decrease in oxidation number.
(b) an increase in oxidation number. Integer Type
(c) loss of electrons. 51. The number of electrons involved in the conversion of
(d) gain of electrons. MnO 4− to MnO2 is ____.
Paragraph for Question 45 to 47: Oxidation number of an atom 52. If 6 × 10−3 mol of K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9 × 10−3 mol
increases during oxidation and decreases during reduction, since of Xn+ to give XO3− and Cr3+ then the value of n is ___.
oxidation involves loss of electrons while reduction involves gain
53. In the redox reaction, 55. Given balanced chemical equation for oxidation of phosphorus
xNO3− + yAs2S3 + zH2O → AsO34− + NO+ + SO24− + H+ (III) sulphide by nitric acid. The products include NO and SO2.
what is the value of (x/y)? aP4 S6 + bH+ + cNO3− → dNO + eH3PO 4 + f SO2 + gH2O
54. In Ba(H2PO2 )2 the oxidation number of phosphorus is ____. What is the value of (a + g)?
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (b)
Level II
36. (a), (b), (c) 37. (c), (d) 38. (b), (c), (d) 39. (b), (c), (d) 40. (a), (c), (d) 41. (b), (c), (d)
42. (a), (b) 43. (b), (c), (d) 44. (b), (c) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b)
48. (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → q 49. (a)→ r; (b) → s; (c) → q; (d) → p 50. (a) → s; (b) → r, s; (c) → q, s; (d) → p, s
51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (14) 54. (1) 55. (7)
1. (c) Suppose oxidation number of C = x, then x + 2 – 2 = 0 8. (c) 1 mol each of Hg2+ and I− will form 1/4 = 0.25 mol
⇒x=0 9. (d) The balanced chemical equation is
2. (d) SO2−
4 ⇒ +6 + x(−2) = −2 ⇒ x = 4.
14H+ + Cr2O72 − + 6Fe2 + → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O + 6Fe3+ .
3. (d) The reaction involved is Therefore, the sum of all the coefficients is = 14 + 6 + 1
+ 2 + 7 + 6 = 36
+1 −3 +3
3H3 P O2 P H3 + 2H3 P O3 10. (c) White phosphorus dissolves in boiling NaOH solution (in a
CO2 atmosphere) to give phosphine, PH3.
The number of electrons transferred in oxidation half reac- 0 −3 +1
CO atmosphere
tion is 4 and in the reduction half reaction is 2. P 4 + 3NaOH+3H2O
2
→ P H3 + 3NaH2 P O2
Hence, the effective number of electrons transferred = 4, Phosphine Sodium
and total number of moles involved = 3. Therefore, hypophosphite
Molecular weight M 3M It is an example of disproportionation reaction.
Equivalent weight = = =
n-factor 4/3 4 +1 +5 −1
11. (c) 3 ClO − (aq) → ClO3− (aq) + 2 Cl− (aq)
+3 +4 +5
4. (a) S2 O24− < S O23 − < S2 O26 − It is an example of disproportionation reaction.
5. (b) The oxidation state of Cr changes from +6 to +3. Thus, it 12. (b) The reaction involved is
+5 −1
decreases by three units. − −
KlO3 + SO2 I + KSO4
6. (c) CO2 is not a reducing agent. It is an oxidizing agent.
Reducing agent must undergo oxidation SO2, H2O2 and
NO2 can undergo oxidation (i.e., they act as reducing 13. (b) Balanced equations for producing NO and NO2, respec-
agent). But CO2 not as carbon is present in its highest pos- tively, are
sible oxidation state of +4. 3Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO + 4H2O (1)
7. (a) CaOCl2 has two chlorine atoms having different oxidation Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O (2)
states.
Adding Eqs. (1) and (2), we have
4 Cu + 12HNO3 → 4 Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO2 + 2NO + 6H2O 25. (d) Disproportionation is the process in which an element
undergoes both oxidation and reduction in a reaction.
2Cu + 6HNO3 → 2Cu(NO3 )2 + NO2 + NO + 3H2O
Moreover, an element can show a maximum oxida-
Thus, coefficients x and y of Cu and HNO3 are 2 and 6, tion state equal to its “group number” and a minimum
respectively. oxidation state equal to its “group number 8”. Among
the oxyacids of chlorine given, in HClO4 chlorine is in
14. (d) Disproportionation is a type of reaction in which the
its highest oxidation state (+7). So, it cannot undergo
same element is oxidized and reduced as well.
further oxidation, and hence, HClO4 cannot undergo
0 +1 −3
P 4 + 2NaOH → 3NaH2 P O2 + P H3 disproportionation.
In the above reaction, P is oxidized to PH3 and reduced to 26. (c) KMnO4 cannot be oxidized further because Mn is already
NaH2PO2. in its maximum oxidation state of +7 in KMnO4.
+5 +5 27. (c) The maximum oxidation state possible for Br = +7. In
15. (d) In the reaction NaOH + H3 P O 4 → NaH2 PO 4 + H2O,
KBrO4, Br exists in +7 oxidation state.
no change in oxidation state of phosphorus occurs. So,
28. (b) The reactions involved are
equivalent weight = molecular mass = H3PO4 = 3 × 1 + 31
× 1 + 16 × 4 = 98 g. MnO 4− + 5e − + 8H+ → Mn2 + + 4H2O
24. (b) SO2 behaves as both oxidizing and reducing agent. In 32. (c) The compound in which an element is present in its high-
sulphur dioxide (SO2), oxidation number of sulphur is est or lowest oxidation state cannot undergo dispropor-
+4. It can increase its oxidation number to +6 and get tionation reaction. In H5IO6, the oxidation number of I is
oxidized. It can also decrease its oxidation number to +2 +7 (highest oxidation state).
or even 0 and get reduced.
33. (a) Among the given oxidizing agents, ozone is the strong-
As reducing agent, SO2 + 2H2O → SO24− + 4H+ + 2e −
est oxidizing agent because on decomposition it forms
As oxidizing agent, SO2 + 4H+ + 4 e − → S + 2H2O atomic oxygen.
34. (d) Perchloric acid is HClO4. Suppose oxidation state of Cl be 40. (a), (c), (d) Suppose oxidation state of oxygen = x, then we
x, then have
1 + x + 4 (–2) = 0 ⇒ x – 7 = 0 ⇒ x = +7 B4O10 CsO2 KO3
35. (b) The reaction can be represented as 4 × 1 + 10 (x) = 0 +1 × 2 (x) = 0 +1 × 3 (x) = 0
⇒ 4 + 10x = 0 ⇒ 1 × 2x = 0 ⇒ 1 = –3x
4 1
⇒ 4 = –10x ⇒ x = − ⇒ 1 = −2x ⇒ x = − 1
0 +1 −1 +1 −1 0 10 2 ⇒ x=−
Cl2 + H2O2(aq) 2HCl + O2 3
Oxidizing Reducing
+1 −2 +1 −2 0 +4 −2
agent agent 41. (b), (c), (d) 2Cu2 O (s) + Cu2 S (s) → 6 Cu(s) + S O2 (g)
Oxidation by Both Cu2O and Cu2S are reduced to Cu. Also, Cu2O acts as the
1 unit oxidant while Cu2S acts as the reductant as it gets oxidized to
SO2.
0 +1 −1 +1 −1 −1+2
42. (a), (b) The reaction is Cl2 + NaOH → NaCl + H Cl + O Cl .
Level II
43. (b), (c), (d) Statement (a) is not correct. For example, during
Multiple Correct Choice Type neutralization reactions and precipitation reactions oxidation
36. (a), (b), (c) In H2O2, the oxidation numbers of O is −1, it can number does not change. Hence, these reactions (collectively
increase its oxidation number to 0 and get oxidized. Similarly, known as metathesis reaction) are not redox reactions.
it can decrease its oxidation number to −2 and get reduced. 44. (b), (c) A reducing agent in a redox reaction undergoes an
increase in the oxidation number with loss of electrons.
H2O2 → 2H+ + O2 + 2e − (As reducing agent)
Passage Type
H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e − → 2H2O (As oxidizing agent)
45. (b) FeCl3 cannot decolourize an acidified solution of KMnO4
H2O2 is used extensively as a mild bleaching agent for textiles because it is present in Fe3+ state. So it cannot act as reducing
and paper/wood pulp. agent.
+5 0
46. (a) 2K I O3 + 5SO2 + 4H2O → 2KHSO 4 + 3H2SO 4 + I2
H2O2 + Cl2 → 2HCl + O2
47. (b) The reaction is BaO2 + H2SO 4 → BaSO 4 + H2O2 . Oxygen is
37. (c), (d) Both (c) and (d) are disproportionation reactions. the most electronegative element, and it has oxidation states
Redox reactions are those in which both reduction and oxida- of −2 and −1 in BaSO4 and H2O2, respectively.
tion occur simultaneously.
Matrix–Match Type
38. (b), (c), (d) Except F2 (which shows oxidation state of –1 48. (a) ã r; (b) ã s; (c) ã p; (d) ã q
only), all the other substances show both +ve and −ve oxida- (a) 7 x + ( − 18 ) = 0 (b) x +1 − 2 = 0
tion states and hence undergo disproportionation. (c) 5x − 12 = 0 (d) +2 +x − 5 + 1 = 0
39. (b), (c), (d) In the reduction reactions, H2C2O4 and NaHC2O4 49. (a) ã r; (b) ã s; (c) ã q; (d) ã p
are converted to CO2, so (a) 2x + 2(−2) = 0 so x = +2
(b) x + (+2) + (−2) × 4 = 0 so x = +6
(C3+ )2 → 2C 4 + + 2e − (c) x + (−1) × 3 = 0 so x = +3
(d) 2x + (−1)2 = 0 so x = +1
Therefore, equivalent weight = molecular weight/2. 50. (a) ãs; (b) ã r, s; (c) ã q, s; (d) ã p, s
On titration with 1 M KMnO4, +5 0 0 +2
(a) V2 O5 + 5 Ca → 2 V + 5 CaO
7+ 2+
Mn + 5e → Mn
This is a redox reaction.
Therefore, +1 −1 0 0
(b) 2 Na H → 2 Na + H2
MequivH2C2O 4 = MequivKMnO 4
This is an example of decomposition as well as redox
100 mL × 1 M × 2 = V mL × 1 M × 5 reaction.
0 −3 +2
(c) P4 + 3OH− + 3H2O → P H3 + 3H2 P O2
MequivNaHC2O 4 = MequivKMnO 4
Disproportionation is a reaction in which the same ele-
100 mL × 1 M × 2 = V mL × 1 M × 5 ment undergoes oxidation as well as reduction. It is also a
type of redox reaction.
So 100 mL of 1 M solution of each is neutralized by equal vol- 0 +1 −2 +2 0
umes of 1 M KMnO4. (d) Ca + 2 H2 O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
This reaction is an example of non-metal displacement 53. (14) The half reactions are
reaction. It is also a redox reaction. +5 +3
2 N O3− + 8H+ + 2e − → 2 N O + + 4H2O] × 5
Integer Type
+3 −2 +5 +6
51. (3) MnO 4− + 2H2O + 3e − → MnO2 + 4 OH− As2 S3 + 20H2O → 2 AsO34− + 3 S O24− + 10e − + 40H+
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2008 Physical and Chemical Properties of Water and
Heavy Water
2010 Physical and Chemical Properties of
Water and Heavy Water
2012 Preparation, Properties and Uses of Hydrogen
2014 Hydrogen Peroxide Physical and Chemical Properties of
Water and Heavy Water
Preparation, Properties and Uses of Hydrogen,
2015 Physical and Chemical Properties of Water and
Heavy Water, Hydrogen Peroxide
2016 Physical Properties of Water, Heavy Water and
Chemical Properties of Water
SUMMARY
1. Hydrogen has the simplest atomic structure of all the elements, and consists of a nucleus containing one proton and one orbital
electron. Hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table, the electronic structure is written as 1s1.
2. Properties of atomic hydrogen
(a) The structure of hydrogen atom is in some ways like that of the alkali metals:
(i) Like alkali metals, it has just one electron in the outer shell.
(ii) The loss of one electron produces a cation, H+, like M+ ions formed by alkali metals, but hydrogen has a much greater ten-
dency to pair the electron to form a covalent bond.
(iii) Like alkali metals, hydrogen forms oxides, sulphides and halides. However, it does not show metallic properties and unlike
alkali metals has very high ionization enthalpy.
(b) The structure of hydrogen atom is in some ways like that of the halogens (Group 17):
(i) Both hydrogen and halogens are one electron short of a noble gas structure.
(ii) Halogens gain an electron to form X− ions, whereas hydrogen generally does not form H− but does form ionic hydrides M+
H− (e.g., LiH and CaH2) with highly electropositive metals.
(c) In some ways, the structure of hydrogen resembles that of the Group 14 elements:
(i) Both have a half-filled outer shell of electrons.
(ii) Hydrides and organometallic compounds show a number of similarities, the hydride is often considered as part of a series of
organometallic compounds. For example, LiH, LiMe, LiEt; NH3, NMe3, NEt3; or SiH4, CH3SiH3, (CH3)2SiCl2, (CH3)3SiCl, (CH3)4Si.
3. Isotopes
(a) Protium 11H or H, deuterium 21D or D and tritium 31T or T are three isotopes of naturally occurring hydrogen. Each of the three
isotopes contains one proton and 0, 1 or 2 neutrons, respectively. The relative abundance of isotopes is:
Isotope Abundance
1
1H 99.986%
2
1D 0.014%
3
1T 7 × 10−16%
Since protium is most abundant, the properties of hydrogen are those of the lightest isotope.
Tip Among the three isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low energy b − particle.
(b) These isotopes have the same electronic configuration and hence same chemical properties, which differ only in the rates of
reactions and equilibrium constants. For example, H2 is more rapidly adsorbed onto surfaces than D2 and reacts over 13 times
faster with Cl2 than D2.
(c) The isotopes of hydrogen show a large variation in physical properties that arise due to difference in mass (isotope effect).
Tip This difference is largest among any group of isotopes is because the percentage difference in mass between protium,
deuterium and tritium is greater than that between the isotopes of any other element.
(d) In the H2 molecule, the two nuclei can spin in either the same direction, or in opposite directions (spin isomerism) to give rise to
two different forms of H2 called ortho and para hydrogens, respectively. The two forms show difference in physical properties due
to difference in internal energy.
Tip The para form has the lower energy, and hydrogen gas at absolute zero contains 100% of the para form. As the tem-
perature is raised, some of the para form changes into the ortho form and at high temperatures; about 75% ortho hydrogen
is present.
4. Preparation
(a) Laboratory preparation
(i) Reaction of dilute acid with metal or an alkali with metal. For example,
Zn + H2SO 4 → ZnSO 4 + H2
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
(ii) Action of water on metal hydrides
LiH + H2O → LiOH + H2
Overall: H2O → H2 + 21 O2
(iv) As a byproduct from the chlor-alkali industry, in which aqueous NaCl (brine) is electrolyzed to produce NaOH, Cl2 and H2.
Anode: 2Cl− → Cl2 + 2e −
+ −
Na + e → Na
Cathode:
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
(v) As a byproduct of cracking of natural hydrocarbon mixtures such as naptha and fuel oil.
5. Properties
(a) Hydrogen gas is the lightest gas known and is colourless, odourless and almost insoluble in water.
Tip Being lighter, hydrogen is used instead of helium to fill balloons for meteorology.
(b) The two hydrogen atoms in dihydrogen gas are joined by very strong covalent bonds (bond energy is 435.9 kJ mol−1). This high
bond energy is the cause for low reactivity of hydrogen under normal conditions. As a result many reactions are slow, or require
high temperatures, or catalysts (generally transition metals).
(c) Atomic hydrogen is obtained by cleavage of H H bond of dihydrogen at high temperature using electric arc or under ultraviolet
radiations. The 1s1 electron in the orbital can then react:
(i) By forming an electron pair (covalent) bond with another atom: In reactions with non-metals, such as in formation of
H2O, HCl (gas) or CH4.
(ii) By losing an electron to form H+: These always exist associated with other atoms or molecules such as H3O+, H9O4+ or
H(H2O)n+ ions
(iii) By gaining an electron to form H: Formation of metal halides with electropositive metals.
(d) Reaction with halogens
(i) With fluorine: The reaction is violent, even at low temperatures.
H2 + F2 → 2HF
(ii) With chlorine: The reaction is slow in the dark, but is catalyzed by light (photocatalysis). It becomes faster in daylight and
explosive in sunlight.
H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(iii) With bromine: The reaction proceeds at temperatures between 200°C and 400°C in the presence of platinum as catalyst.
H2 + Br2 → 2HBr
(iv) With iodine: The reaction proceeds in the presence of catalyst or ultraviolet radiation
H2 + I2 → 2HI
Tip Hydroformylation is an important industrial process for the production of aldehydes from alkenes. It involves treating
an alkene at high pressures (between 10 atm and 100 atm) with carbon monoxide and hydrogen at temperatures between
40°C and 200°C, using transition metals as catalysts.
6. Uses
(a) In production of ammonia using Haber’s process.
(b) In hydrogenation of alkenes and other double bonds. For example, in hardening of fats and oils by converting unsaturated
hydrocarbons (liquid at room temperature) to saturated hydrocarbons (solids at room temperature).
(c) In catalytic reduction of benzene and reduction of nitrobenzene to aniline.
(d) In preparation of many useful chemicals such as hydrogen chloride.
(e) In metallurgical processes for reduction of metal oxides to metals.
(f) As rocket fuel.
(g) In fuel cells for generation of electrical energy.
(h) In synthesis of organic compounds such as methyl alcohol.
Catalyst
CO + 2H2
→ CH3OH
7. Hydrides
Hydrogen reacts with almost all elements (except noble gases) to form binary compounds called hydrides. Based on the type and
nature of bond, these can be classified as ionic, covalent or metallic hydrides.
(a) Ionic or salt-like hydrides
(i) These are formed by alkali (Group 1) and alkaline-earth (Group 2) metals.
(ii) They are only formed by the elements with an electronegativity value much lower than the value of 2.1 for hydrogen.
(iii) Lighter metal hydrides, such as LiH, BeH2 and MgH2 show significant covalent character, where the latter two show poly-
meric structure.
(iv) They are solids with high melting point.
(v) They are non-conducting in solids state.
(vi) They have high heats of formation, and are always stoichiometric.
(vii) Group 1 hydrides are more reactive than the corresponding Group 2 hydrides, and reactivity increases down the group.
(viii) They react with water and liberate hydrogen.
LiH + H2O → LiOH + H2
CaH2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + 2H2
(ix) They are powerful reducing agents, especially at high temperatures. For example,
SiCl4 + 4NaH → SiH4 + 4NaCl
PbSO4 + 2CaH2 → PbS + 2Ca(OH)2
Other hydrides obtained from them (such as lithium aluminium hydride and sodium borohydride) are used as important reduc-
ing agents in synthetic reactions.
8LiH + Al2Cl6 → 2Li[AlH4 ] + 6LiCl
2LiH + B2H6 → 2Li[BH4 ]
Tip The density of ionic hydrides is greater than that of the metal from which they were formed. This is explained by H− ions
occupying holes in the lattice of the metal, without distorting the metal lattice.
Electric spark
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
(iv) They can be further classified as:
• Electron-deficient: These hydrides contain lesser number of electrons than that required for representing the correct
Lewis structure and can act as Lewis acids. For example, boron hydride and all Group 13 hydrides.
• Electron-precise: These hydrides contain the number of electrons required for representing the Lewis structure. For
example, methane.
• Electron-rich: These have excess electrons (in form of lone pairs) than that required for representing the Lewis structure
and thus act as Lewis bases. For example, ammonia, water. Hydrogen fluoride and other elements of Groups 15–17.
(c) Metallic or non-stoichiometric (or interstitial) hydrides
(i) These hydrides are formed by elements in the d-block, and the lanthanoid and actinoid elements in the f-block on reaction
with hydrogen.
Tip The elements in the middle of the d-block, that is, Groups 7, 8 and 9, do not form hydrides. The absence of
hydrides in this part of the periodic table is sometimes called: the hydride gap.
(ii) These are usually prepared by heating the metal with hydrogen under high pressure.
(iii) Like the parent metals, these hydrides are hard, have a metallic luster, conduct electricity and have magnetic properties. The
thermal and electric conduction is however, less than the parent metal.
(iv) The inclusion of hydrogen expands the crystal so these hydrides are less dense than parent metal and the distorted crystal
lattice makes hydrides brittle.
(v) Many of the hydrides are non-stoichiometric, for example, LaHn, TiHn and PdHn, where the chemical composition is variable.
Typical formulas are LaH2.87, YbH2.55, TiH1.8, ZrH1.9, VH1.6, NbH0.7 and PdH0.7.
Tip These hydrides were also called interstitial hydrides, and it was thought that a varying number of interstitial
positions in the metal lattice could be filled by hydrogen.
(d) Intermediate hydrides
These hydrides do not fit completely into any of the three classifications. For example,
(i) (BeH2)n is a chain polymer with hydrogen bridges.
(ii) MgH2 has properties in between those of ionic and covalent hydrides. CuH, ZnH2, CdH2 and HgH2 have properties interme-
diate between metallic.
8. Physical properties of water
(a) Water exists in nature in all three common states of matter as water vapour, liquid water (in sea, rivers, oceans and ground lique-
fier) and ice (icebergs, glaciers, polar caps, etc.).
(b) Generally the boiling points increase as the atoms become larger and heavier and the volatility decreases. This trend is shown by
the boiling points of H2S, H2Se, H2Te and H2Po, but the boiling point of water does not follow this trend. Water has an abnormally
low volatility, high boiling point and melting point because its molecules are associated with each other by means of hydrogen
bonds in both the solid and liquid states.
(c) Water is often called the universal solvent because it can dissolve many substances through polar bonds.
Tip A hydrogen bond is a weak chemical bond (strength 20 kJ mol−1) between a hydrogen atom in one polar molecule and
a very electronegative atom of the second polar molecule. Liquid water contains about 4–8 water molecules associated by
hydrogen bonding.
Tip Ice has a rather open structure, with quite large cavities. On partial melting some “free” water molecules occupy some
of these cavities, and hence the density increases. This effect outweighs the effect of thermal expansion up to 4°C, but above
this temperature, expansion has the larger effect so the density decreases.
(b) Permanent hardness is due to presence of chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium in water and also salts of heav-
ier elements such as iron and aluminium. It can be removed by:
(i) Addition of calculated amount of sodium carbonate (washing soda).
Na2CO3 + MgCl2 → MgCO3 (↓ ) + 2NaCl
(iii) Percolating through the bed of zeolite (Na2Z) which are naturally occurring hydrated aluminosilicate minerals (ion
exchange method or permutit process).
Na2Z + CaSO 4 (or CaCl2 ) → CaZ + Na2SO 4 (or 2NaCl)
Na2Z + MgCl2 (or MgSO 4 ) → MgZ + 2NaCl (or Na2SO 4 )
Na2Z + Ca(HCO3 )2 (or Mg(HCO3 )2 ) → CaZ (or MgZ) + 2NaHCO3
(iv) Using synthetic ion exchange resins for removal of cations causing hardness in water (demineralization method).
nRCOOH+ + Ca2 + → n[(RCOO )2 Ca2 + ] + 2H+ (cation exchange resin)
+ − +
n[R − N(CH3 )3 OH] + Cl → n[R − N(CH3 )3 ]Cl + OH−
− −
(anion exchange resin)
H H
95.0 pm 94.8° 111.5° 98.8 pm 101.9° 90.2°
O O O O
147.4 pm 145.8 pm
H H
(a) (b)
(ii) It shows restricted rotation about the O O bond, presumably due to repulsion between the OH groups.
13. Preparation of hydrogen peroxide
(a) H2O2 was earlier obtained by electrolysis of H2SO4 or (NH4)2SO4 at a high current density to form peroxosulphates, which were
then hydrolyzed.
Electrolysis
2SO24− → S2O28 − + 2e −
H2S2O8 + H2O → H2SO5 + H2SO 4
Peroxodisulphuric Peroxomonosulphuric
acid acid
H2SO5 + H2O → H2SO 4 + H2O2
(b) In the laboratory, it can be prepared by adding calculated amount of sodium peroxide to ice cold dilute (20%) solution of H2SO4.
Na2O2 + H2SO 4 → Na2SO 4 + H2O2
(c) It can be prepared by the addition of acid to a peroxide or a persulphide salt. This is known as Merck’s process.
BaO2 ⋅ 8H2O(s) + H2SO 4 (aq) → H2O2 (aq) + BaSO 4 (s) + 8H2O(l)
(d) It is produced on an industrial scale by a cyclic process where 2-ethyl anthroquinol is oxidized by air to the corresponding qui-
none and H2O2.
OH O2 O
C2H5 C2H5
+ H2O2
OH H2/Pd O
2-Ethyl anthraquinol Quinone
Tip H2O2 is extracted with water as a 1% solution. This is concentrated by distillation under reduced pressure, and sold
as a 30% (by weight) solution. It can be further concentrated to about 85% by careful distillation and pure H2O2 can be
obtained by removal of water on freezing.
Tip The hydrogen peroxide solution is available commercially as a 30 % solution and 1 mL of solution can give 100 V of
oxygen. The solution is also known as “100 volume” hydrogen peroxide.
Tip H2O2 solutions are stored in plastic or wax coated glass vessels, often with negative catalysts such as urea or sodium
stannate added as stabilizers.
+B2H6 +Al2Cl6
CaH2
NaH LiH
+Ca
+Li UH3
LaH2.87 +Na
+La +U
catalyst catalyst
CH4 + H2O H2 H2O + CO
−CO −CO2
catalyst
CuO +N2
+WO3 +Fe3O4
NH3
Cu0
W0 Fe0
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Preparation, Properties and Uses of Hydrogen (c) Tasteless gas (d) Non-inflammable gas
(JEE Main Online 2015)
1. Which one the following statement regarding helium is
incorrect? Solution
(a) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen because (d) Dihydrogen is highly flammable gas.
it is lighter and non-inflammable.
(b) It is used in gas – cooled nuclear reactors. 5. Hydrogen resembles the properties of
(c) It is used to produce and sustain powerful superconduct- (a) alkali metals. (b) alkaline earth metals.
ing reagents. (c) halogens. (d) both (a) and (c).
(d) It is used as cryogenic agent for carrying out experiments Solution
at low temperatures.
(d) Though hydrogen shows some similarity with both alkali
Solution metals and halogens, it differs from them on some grounds.
(a) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen because Unlike alkali metals, hydrogen does not possess metallic
it is lighter and non-inflammable. characteristics. On the other hand, it possesses a high ioni-
zation enthalpy. Also, it is less reactive than halogen.
2. Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen Owing to these reasons, hydrogen cannot be placed
atom is correct? with alkali metals (Group 1) or with halogens (Group 17).
(a) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital.
(b) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital. 6. Hydrogen atom may attain stability by
(c) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital. (a) forming an electron pair (covalent) bond with another atom.
(d) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy. (b) losing an electron to form H+.
(c) gaining an electron to form H–.
Solution (d) All of these.
(d) This is because in case of H atom, the only force of inter- Solution
action is the force of attraction between positively and
(d) H + H → H − H → Stable
negatively charged nucleus.
H → H+ + e− → Stable
3. Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which of the fol- H + e− → H− → Stable
lowing processes?
(a) Reaction of methane with steam. 7. Dihydrogen is obtained from
(b) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight. (a) water. (b) dilute acids.
(c) Electrolysis of water. (c) alkalis. (d) all of these.
(d) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water. Solution
(AIEEE 2012) (d) Very pure hydrogen (99.9% pure) is made by the electrol-
Solution ysis of water using platinum electrodes in the presence of
(c)
800 − 900° C
CH4 + H2O
→ CO + 3H2 traces of acid or base.
The usual laboratory preparation is the reaction of dilute
In this method mixture of CO and H2 are obtained. acids with metals.
High molecular weight hydrocarbon on cracking Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
gives H2 but this mixture also contain small amount of
The usual laboratory preparation is the reaction of an
hydrocarbon.
alkali with metal.
Electrolysis of H2O is best method formation of 99.97 %
pure H2. H2O is mixed with NaOH or KOH. 2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2
At the cathode Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
2H2O + 2e − → 2OH− + H2 8. The conversion of atomic hydrogen into ordinary hydrogen is
(a) exothermic change. (b) endothermic change.
At the anode
(c) nuclear change. (d) photochemical change.
1
2OH− → 2H2O + O2 + 2e −
2 Solution
Overall reaction (a) Atomic hydrogen combines to form ordinary hydrogen
1 with the evolution of 104.2 kcal of heat (exothermic pro-
H2O → H2 + O2 cess). This recombination is catalyzed by certain metals.
2
LiH + H2O → LiOH + H2 H + H → H2; ΔH = −104.2 kcal
This method is difficult to handle. 9. The bond dissociation enthalpy is highest in
4. Which physical property of dihydrogen is wrong? (a) H H (b) D D
(a) Colourless gas (b) Odourless gas (c) F F (d) Cannot be determined.
Solution Solution
(b) The stronger the attraction, the greater will be the bond (d) In dihydrogen gas, the hydrogen atoms have already
strength and the higher is the bond dissociation enthalpy. shared their electrons to form the molecule, so H2 mole-
Hence, the bond dissociation enthalpy of D D is higher cule is not very reactive.
than H H. However, bond dissociation enthalpy is mini-
12. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from
mum in the case of F F. The bond pair experiences strong
water gas (CO + H2), which of the following is the correct
repulsion from the lone pairs present on each F-center.
statement?
Therefore, the increasing order of bond dissociation
(a) CO and H2 are fractionally separated using differences in
enthalpy is as follows:
their densities.
F F<H H<D D (b) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2 solution.
10. Very pure hydrogen can be prepared by which of the follow- (c) H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd.
ing processes? (d) CO is oxidized to CO2 with steam in the presence of a
(a) Electrolysis of brine solution. catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in alkali.
(b) Passing steam over red hot coke. (AIEEE 2008)
(c) Water gas shift reaction. Solution
(d) Electrolysis of warm aqueous barium hydroxide solution
(d) Hydrogen is made in large amounts by the steam
between nickel electrodes.
reformer process. When water gas is passed over iron or
Solution copper catalyst at 400°C, CO gets converted into CO2.
(d) Hydrogen of high purity can be made by electrolysis of Finally CO2 is absorbed in a solution of alkali.
water using platinum electrodes. However, since water H2O
CO + H2 CO2 (Acidic oxide) + 2H2
does not conduct electricity very well, hydrogen of high
KOH (base)
purity (more than 99.95%) is prepared by electrolysis Water gas
of warm aqueous barium hydroxide solution between K2CO3
nickel electrodes. The reactions taking place at the cath-
ode and anode are: Isotopes
− − 13. Which isotope of hydrogen is the most abundant?
At the anode: 2OH → H2O + 21 O2 + 2e
At the cathode: 2H2O +2e − → 2OH− + H2 (a) Protium 11H (b) Deuterium 12 H
Overall recation: H2O → H2 + 21 O2 (c) Tritium 13 H (d) Both (a) and (b)
Solution
All other given methods will produce hydrogen but that
may not be very pure. (a) Naturally occurring hydrogen contains 99.986% of the
1 2 −16% of 3 T.
Electrolysis of brine solution is accompanied by for- 1H isotope, 0.014% of 1 D and 7 × 10 1
mation of NaOH and Cl2. 14. There are three isotopes of hydrogen and three naturally
At the anode : 2Cl− → Cl2 + 2e − occurring isotopes of oxygen (16O, 17O, and 18O). How many
kinds of water are possible?
At the cathode : Na+ + e − → Na (a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 18 (d) 9
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
Solution
Passing steam over red hot coke leads to formation of (c) 18 kinds are possible.
water gas from which it is difficult to obtain pure hydro-
gen as CO is difficult to remove. 15. The isotope effect arises due to
1000° C
(a) difference in number of electrons
C(s) + H2 (g) → CO + H2 (b) difference in number of protons.
Water gas
(c) difference in mass
In water gas shift reaction, the water gas mixture is (d) difference in properties.
mixed with steam and passed over iron oxide to obtain Solution
hydrogen and carbon dioxide which is easier to remove
(c) The isotopic effect arises due to difference in atomic
than CO.
masses of the isotopes of an element. Protium 11H has
450° C, Fe O
CO + H2 2 3
→ 2H2 (g) + CO2 (g) mass number 1; deuterium 12 H has mass number 2 and
HO
Water gas 2
Tritium 13 H has mass number 3.
11. Of the following statements regarding dihydrogen, identify 16. At absolute zero,
the statement which is not correct? (a) only para-hydrogen exists
(a) It is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas. (b) only ortho-hydrogen exists
(b) It has very low solubility in water. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) It forms more compounds than any other element. (d) None of these exists
(d) It is a highly reactive gas.
Solution 22. Which of the following has the highest extent of hydrogen
(a) At absolute zero only para-hydrogen exists. As the tem- bonding?
perature is raised, some of it changes into ortho form. (a) NH3 (b) H2O
At high temperatures the gas contains about 75% (c) HF (d) Same in all
ortho-hydrogen. Solution
Hydrides (b) Among nitrogen, fluorine and oxygen, the increasing
order of their electronegativities are N < O < F. Hence,
17. Which one of the following substances has the highest pro- the expected order of the extent of hydrogen bonding is
ton affinity? HF > H2O > NH3. But, the actual order is H2O > HF > NH3.
(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) NH3 (d) PH3 Although fluorine is more electronegative than oxy-
Solution gen, the extent of hydrogen bonding is higher in water.
(c) This is because NH3 is a strong base (means it will accept There is a shortage of hydrogens in HF, whereas there are
H+ ions easily). exactly the right numbers of hydrogens in water.
In case of ammonia, the extent of hydrogen bond-
18. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides ing is limited because nitrogen has only one lone pair.
(H–X) is Therefore, it cannot satisfy all hydrogens.
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HCl < HF > HBr < HI (c) HI > HCl < HF > HBr 23. Dihydrogen forms interstitial compounds with
(a) alkali metals.
Solution (b) alkaline earth metals.
(b) Because thermal stability ∝ bond dissociation energy. (c) non-metals.
Since, the bond dissociation energy of HF is the highest (d) some transition metals, such as Pt and Pd.
and HI is the least. So, HF is the most stable halogen acid Solution
while HI is the least stable.
(d) Only transition metals form interstitial compounds.
19. Electron-deficient, electron-precise and electron-rich hydrides Alkali, alkaline earth and non-metals will not form inter-
are types of stitial compounds with dihydrogen. This formation of
(a) ionic hydrides. (b) molecular hydrides. interstitial compounds depends on the size of voids
(c) covalent hydrides. (d) metallic hydrides. formed and radius of the atom to be trapped. Hence the
Solution option (d) is correct.
(b) These are the types of molecular hydrides. 24. The carbon hydrides of the type (CnH2n+2) act as
(a) Lewis acid. (b) Lewis base.
20. Saline hydrides are formed by (c) both (a) and (b). (d) Brönsted acid.
(a) alkali metals.
(b) alkaline earth metals. Solution
(c) both (a) and (b). (c) For carbon hydrides of the type CnH2n+2, the following
(d) none of these. hydrides are possible for
Solution n = 1⇒ CH4
(c) At high temperatures, the metals of Group 1 (alkali met- n = 2 ⇒ C2H6
als) and the heavier Group 2 metals (alkaline earth met- n = 3 ⇒ C3H8
als) Ca, Sr and Ba form ionic hydrides such as NaH and
Physical and Chemical Properties of Water and Heavy 31. What is formed when calcium carbide reacts with heavy
Water water?
(a) C2D2 (b) CaD2 (c) Ca2D2O (d) CD2
26. Which one of the following processes will produce hard
water? Solution
(a) saturation of water with CaCO3 (a) When calcium carbide reacts with water, it forms calcium
(b) saturation of water with MgCO3 hydroxide and acetylene.
(c) saturation of water with CaSO4
(d) addition of Na2SO4 to water CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
35. Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidizing and as a reduc- 39. Find the percentage strength of H2O2 in a sample marked “10
ing agent depending upon the nature of the reacting spe- volumes.”
cies. In which of the following cases H2O2 acts as a reducing (a) 0.3% (b) 0.5% (c) 0.1% (d) 0.15%
agent in acidic medium? Solution
(a) MnO4− (b) Cr2O72− (c) SO2−
3 (d) KI
(a) 1 L of 10 volume H2O2 solution on decomposition gives
(JEE Main Online 2014)
10 L of oxygen at STP.
Solution Now, 22.4 L of O2 at STP will be obtained from H2O2 = 68 g
(a) 2MnO 4− + 6H+ + 5H2O2 → 2Mn2 + + SO2 + 8H2O Therefore, 10 L of O2 at STP will be obtained from H2O2 =
68 × 10
In this reaction KMnO4 is reduced from +7 to +2 oxida- = 30.36 g
22.4
tion state.Thus, it acts as a oxidizing agent and H2O2 act
as a reducing agent in acidic medium. % strength of H2O2 = 0.303%
36. From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the 40. A mixture of hydrazine and H2O2 with which of the following
incorrect statement. catalyst is used as rocket propellant?
(a) It decomposes on exposure to light. (a) Fe(II) (b) Cu(II) (c) Cr(III) (d) Fe(III)
(b) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in Solution
dark.
(b) The reaction between hydrazine and H2O2 is highly exo-
(c) It has to be kept away from dust.
thermic and is accompanied by a large increase in the
(d) It can act only as an oxidizing agent.
volume of the products and hence this mixture is used
(JEE Main 2015)
as a rocket propellant.
Solution
Cu(II)
(d) The oxidation state of oxygen in H2O2 is −1 (peroxide). NH2NH2 (l)+2H2O2 (l)
→ N2 (g)+ 4H2O(g)
So, oxygen can increase and decrease its oxidation num-
ber which means it can act as a reducing as well as an 41. The O O H bond angle in H2O2 in the gas phase is
oxidizing agent. (a) 106° (b) 109°28′ (c) 120° (d) 94.8°
37. H2O2 is manufactured industrially by Solution
(a) the action of H2O2 on BaO2 (d) The structure of H2O2 in the gaseous phase is
(b) the action of H2SO4 on Na2O2
(c) electrolysis of 50% H2SO4
(d) burning hydrogen in excess of oxygen
Solution
(c) Industrial preparation of H2O2 O 95.0 pm
A 50% solution of H2SO4 is electrolyzed in a cell. As a H
147.4 pm 94.8°
result peroxodisulphuric acid is formed at the anode and
O
hydrogen is evolved at cathode. H
H2SO 4 → HSO 4− + H+
OH− + HCO−3 → CO23 − + H2O (b) 2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na + 2[Al(OH)4 ]− + 3H2 (g)
Ca(HCO3 )2 + Na2CO3 → CaCO + 2NaHCO3 (c) Zn(s) + H2SO 4 (aq) → ZnSO 4 (aq) + H2 (g)
2. Hydrogen bonding plays a central role in the following Electrolysis of H2O is best method formation of 99.97%
phenomena. pure H2. H2O is mixed with NaOH or KOH.
(a) Ice floats in water. At the cathode.
(b) Higher Lewis basicity of primary amines than tertiary
amines in aqueous solutions. 2H2O + 2e − → 2OH− + H2
(c) Formic acid is more acidic than acetic acid.
At the anode
(d) Dimerization of acetic acid in benzene.
(JEE Advanced 2014) 1
2OH− → 2H2O + O2 + 2e −
Solution 2
(a), (b), (d) Due to hydrogen bonding, ice has cage-like struc- Overall reaction
ture. In the case of amines, the order is 1° > 2° > 3° as primary
1
amine forms maximum hydrogen bonds compared to sec- H2O → H2 + O2
ondary and tertiary. Acetic acid dimerize in benzene due to 2
hydrogen bonding.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 11. Hydrogen has the tendency to gain one electron to acquire
helium configuration. In this respect, it resembles
Single Correct Choice Type (a) alkali metals. (b) carbon.
1. Reaction between the following pairs produces hydrogen (c) alkaline earth metals. (d) halogens.
except
12. Which gas is passed through in Merck’s process for making
(a) Cu + HCl (b) Fe + dil. H2SO4
hydrogen peroxide?
(c) Mg + Steam (d) Na + Alcohol
(a) CO (b) O2 (c) CO2 (d) O3
2. Which is more reactive?
13. H2O2 reduces K3[Fe(CN)6] in
(a) Ordinary hydrogen (b) ortho-Hydrogen
(a) neutral solution. (b) acidic solution.
(c) Nascent hydrogen (d) Heavy hydrogen
(c) alkaline solution. (d) non-polar medium.
3. Calgon used as a water softener is 14. Both temporary and permanent hardness in water is
(a) Na2[Na4(PO3)6] (b) Na4[Na2(PO3)6] removed by
(c) Na2[Na4(PO4)5] (d) Na4[Na4(PO4)6] (a) boiling. (b) filtration.
4. Non-combustible hydride is (c) distillation. (d) decantation.
(a) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3 15. ortho-Hydrogen and para-hydrogen resemble in which of
5. ortho- and para-hydrogens differ in the following property?
(a) nuclear charge. (b) nuclear reaction. (a) Thermal conductivity
(c) electron spin. (d) proton spin. (b) Magnetic properties
(c) Chemical properties
6. Hydrogen molecule differs from chlorine molecule in the fol- (d) Heat capacity
lowing respect:
(a) Hydrogen molecule is non-polar but chlorine molecule 16. The ionization energy order for H, H+, H− is
is polar. (a) H < H+< H− (b) H− > H > H+
(b) Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine molecule is (c) H− < H (d) H+ > H > H−
non-polar. 17. The most dangerous method of preparing hydrogen would
(c) Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular hydrogen be by the action of HCl and
bonds but chlorine molecule does not. (a) Zn (b) Fe (c) K (d) Al
(d) Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in coordination
bond formation but chlorine molecule can. 18. Which of the following is not a water softener?
(a) Calgon (b) Permutit
7. Permutit is the technical name given to (c) Na2CO3 (d) Na2SO4
(a) aluminates of calcium and sodium.
(b) hydrated silicate of aluminium and sodium. 19. The most common way to attain stability by the H atom is
(c) silicates of calcium and magnesium. (a) forming covalent bond.
(d) silicates of calcium and sodium. (b) forming H+.
(c) forming H−.
8. When electric current is passed through an ionic hydride in (d) both (b) and (c).
the molten state,
(a) hydrogen is liberated at the cathode. 20. On burning hydrogen in air, the color of flame is
(b) hydrogen is liberated at the anode. (a) green. (b) light blue.
(c) no reaction takes place. (c) yellow. (d) None of these.
(d) hydride ion migrates towards the cathode. 21. What is more for water than for heavy water?
9. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other they unite (a) Surface tension
to form one cube. Which of the following forces are responsi- (b) Viscosity
ble to hold them together? (c) Latent heat of vaporization
(a) Ionic interaction (d) Melting point
(b) van der Waals forces 22. Proton and deuteron are differentiated by their
(c) Covalent interaction (a) number of protons.
(d) Hydrogen bond formation (b) number of neutrons.
10. Chemical A is used for water softening to remove temporary (c) number of electrons.
hardness. Chemical A reacts with sodium carbonate to gen- (d) charges.
erate caustic soda. When CO2 is bubbled through a solution 23. The bond angle and dipole moment of water, respectively,
A, it turns cloudy. What is the chemical formula of A? are
(a) CaO (b) Ca(OH)2 (a) 109.5°, 1.84 D. (b) 107.5°, 1.56 D.
(c) CaCO3 (d) Ca(HCO3)2 (c) 104.5°, 1.84 D. (d) 102.5°, 1.56 D.
24. Pure hydrogen is obtained by electrolysis of a solution of (c) At the top of carbon family
(a) KOH (b) NaOH (d) None of these
(c) Ba(OH)2 (d) All of these 39. TiH1.73 is an example of
25. Surface water contains (a) ionic hydride. (b) covalent hydride.
(a) suspended impurities. (c) metallic hydride. (d) polymeric hydride.
(b) organic impurities. 40. The ionization constant for acetic acid is
(c) salt. (a) three times larger than deuteric acid.
(d) salt and organic compound. (b) one-third of the deuteric acid.
26. The component present in greater proportion in water gas is (c) equal to deuteric acid.
(a) CH4 (b) CO2 (c) CO (d) H2 (d) two times larger than deuteric acid.
27. The alum used for purifying water is 41. Ordinary hydrogen at room temperature is a mixture of
(a) ferric alum. (b) chrome alum. (a) 75% o-Hydrogen + 25% p-Hydrogen.
(c) potash alum. (d) ammonium alum. (b) 25% o-Hydrogen + 75% p-Hydrogen.
28. When CO2 is bubbled through a solution of barium peroxide (c) 50% o-Hydrogen + 50% p-Hydrogen.
in water, (d) 1% o-Hydrogen + 99% p-Hydrogen.
(a) O2 is released. 42. The name of the perhydrol is given to
(b) carbonic acid is formed. (a) solution of Na2O2 in ether.
(c) H2O2 is formed. (b) dilute solution of phenol in ether.
(d) no reaction occurs. (c) dilute solution of H2O2 in water.
29. Which of the following on oxidation gives H2O2? (d) dilute solution of CrO4 in ether.
(a) 2-Ethylanthraquinol (b) 2-Ethylanthraquinone 43. H2O2 is always stored in black bottles because
(c) Anthracene (d) 2-Ethylanthracene (a) it is highly unstable.
30. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dilute HNO3 on (b) its enthalpy of decomposition is high.
(a) Mn. (b) Cu. (c) Fe. (d) Al. (c) it undergoes auto-oxidation on prolonged standing.
(d) None of these.
31. The velocity of neutrons in nuclear reactor is slowed down by
(a) heavy water (D2O). (b) ordinary water (H2O). 44. Heavy water is called as such because it
(c) zinc rod. (d) fused caustic soda. (a) is a dimer of common water.
(b) is an oxide of protium.
32. Which of the following is not hard water? (c) has a heavy or bad taste.
(a) Water containing CaCl2 (d) has a heavier isotope of hydrogen.
(b) Water containing dil. HCl
45. Hydrides of elements of Groups 3–5 are generally called
(c) Water containing MgSO4
(a) interstitial hydrides. (b) ionic hydrides.
(d) Water containing Ca(HCO3)2
(c) polymeric hydrides. (d) complex hydrides.
33. Alkali metal hydrides react with water to give
46. Which of the halogens has maximum affinity for hydrogen?
(a) acidic solution. (b) basic solution.
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
(c) neutral solution. (d) hydride ion.
47. What is formed when calcium carbide reacts with heavy
34. The colour of hydrogen is
water?
(a) black. (b) yellow.
(a) C2D2 (b) CaD2 (c) Ca2D2O (d) CD2
(c) orange. (d) colourless.
48. The percentage by weight of hydrogen in H2O2 is
35. Which of the following produces hydrolith with dihydrogen?
(a) 5.88 (b) 6.25 (c) 25 (d) 50
(a) Mg (b) Al (c) Cu (d) Ca
49. Which of the following species has highest bond enthalpy?
36. Limiting compositions of f-block hydrides are
(a) H2 (b) T2 (c) D2 (d) Cl2
(a) MH2 and MH3 (b) MH3 and MH5
(c) MH2 and MH8 (d) MH2 and MH6 50. Ionization enthalpy of hydrogen is
(a) equal to that of chlorine.
37. Which of the following is a true structure of H2O2?
97°
(b) lesser than that of chlorine.
180°
(a) (b) (c) slightly higher than that of chlorine.
H O O H H (d) much higher than that of chlorine.
O O
H 51. Decomposition of H2O2 is prevented by
H (a) NaOH (b) MnO2
(c) O O (d) H O
H O (c) acetanilide (d) oxalic acid
H
52. The compound sodium polymetaphosphate (Na[Na4(PO3)6])
38. Which position for hydrogen explains all its properties?
is called calgon because
(a) At the top of halogen
(a) it was developed by the scientist named Challaghan.
(b) At the top of alkali metals
(b) it was developed first in California.
(c) it refers to calcium gone. 64. In the preparation of dihydrogen by the action of steam on
(d) it is based on the name of the company which devel- coke, a mixture of CO and H2 gas is formed. This mixture is
oped it. known as
(a) syngas (b) producer gas
53. High dipole moment of water (1.03 D) justifies that
(c) water gas (d) industrial gas
(a) it is not linear molecule.
(b) it is a universal solvent. 65. Which of the following elements form metallic hydrides?
(c) it has higher density than ice. (a) Cu (b) Pd (c) Li (d) Sc
(d) it is neutral toward litmus.
66. Which of the properties of water given below is/are false?
54. Which one of the following removes temporary hardness of (a) Water is a universal solvent.
water? (b) Hydrogen bonding is present to a large extent in liquid
(a) Slaked lime (b) Plaster of Paris water.
(c) Cuprous oxide (d) Hydrolith (c) There is no hydrogen bonding in the frozen state of water.
(d) Frozen water is heavier than liquid water.
55. Which is the poorest reducing agent?
(a) Nascent hydrogen 67. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of
(b) Atomic hydrogen (a) chlorides of Ca and Mg in water.
(c) Dihydrogen (b) sulphates of Ca and Mg in water.
(d) All of these have the same reducing strength (c) hydrogen carbonates of Ca and Mg in water.
(d) carbonates of alkali metals in water.
56. Of the two solvents, H2O and D2O, sodium chloride dissolves
(a) equally in both (b) more in D2O 68. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by which of
(c) more in H2O (d) only in H2O the following processes?
(a) Lime–soda process (b) Boiling
57. The approximate mass of tritium oxide molecule is
(c) Clark’s process (d) Ion exchange method
(a) 18 u (b) 20 u (c) 22 u (d) 24 u
69. Which of the following properties of metallic hydrides are
58. Systematic name of H2O is
similar to those of their parent metal?
(a) water (b) hydrogen oxide
(a) Hardness (b) Metallic luster
(c) oxidane (d) None of these
(c) Electrical conductivity (d) Magnetic property
59. Which of the following is correct about heavy water?
70. Hydrogen can be obtained from water by
(a) Water at 4°C having maximum density is known as heavy
(a) reaction with metal oxides.
water.
(b) reaction with non-metal oxides.
(b) It is heavier than water.
(c) reaction with metals.
(c) It is formed by the combination of heavier isotope of
(d) reaction with metal hydrides.
hydrogen and oxygen.
(d) None of these. 71. Pick out the correct statement(s).
(a) Natural hard water is toxic in nature.
60. Free hydrogen is found in
(b) Natural hard water does not produce lather with soap.
(a) acid (b) water
(c) Water containing some potash alum is hard water.
(c) marsh gas (d) water gas
(d) Water obtained by zeolite process is not pure water.
61. The atom of oxygen lost by H2O2 molecule during oxidation
72. The s-block hydrides with covalent polymeric structure are
reaction is that which is linked through
(a) LiH (b) BeH2 (c) NaH (d) MgH2
(a) an electrovalent bond (b) a covalent bond
(c) a coordinate bond (d) a hydrogen bond 73. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate,
is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged
62. The oxidation states of the most electronegative element in
with
the products of the reaction, BaO2 with dil. H2SO4 are
(a) H+ ions (b) Ca2+ ions
(a) 0 and −1 (b) −1 and −2
(c) SO2−4 ions (d) Mg2+ ions
(c) −2 and 0 (d) −2 and + 1
Passage Type
Level II
Paragraph for Questions 74 to 77: Hydrogen has three isotopes,
Multiple Correct Choice Type
protium, 11H, deuterium, 21H or D and tritium, 31H or T, which differ from
63. Hydrogen atom may attain stability by one another in the number of neutrons. Naturally occurring hydro-
(a) forming an electron pair (covalent) bond with another gen contains 99.986% of the 11H isotope, 0.014% of 21H and 7 × 10−16
atom. % of 31H; so, the properties of hydrogen are essentially those of the
(b) losing an electron to form H+. lightest isotope. Protium is by far the most abundant and tritium is
(c) gaining an electron to form H−. radioactive and decays by b emission. Their only differences in chem-
(d) None of these ical properties are the rates of reactions and equilibrium constants.
74. The isotope effect arises due to (c) Hydrogen peroxide (r) Strong reducing agent
(a) difference in number of electrons. (d) Heavy water (s) Concentrated by distilla-
(b) difference in number of protons. tion under reduced pres-
(c) difference in mass. sure
(d) difference in properties.
81. Match the compound with the composition/reaction it
75. Which of the following pairs shows maximum isotope effect? undergoes.
(a) 1
and 21D (b) 35 37 Column I Column II
1H 17 Cl and 17 Cl
(a) Syngas (p) Causes sequestration of Ca2+ and
12 14
(c) 6 C and 6 C (d) None of these Mg2+ ions
(b) Hydride gap (q) Softening hard water
76. Which of the following properties has incorrect order?
(c) Calgon (r) Elements of Groups 7, 8 and 9
(a) H2 < D2 < T2: Boiling point order.
(d) Permutit (s) CO + H2
(b) H2 < D2 < T2: Freezing point order.
(c) H2 < D2 < T2: Latent heat of vapourization. 82. Match the compound with its characteristics.
(d) T2O > H2O > D2O: Equilibrium constant for dissociation. Column I Column II
(a) H2O (p) Complex metal hydride
77. The properties of hydrogen are essentially those of
(b) NaBH4 (q) Oxidizing agent
3 2
(a) 1H (b) 1H (c) H2O2 (r) Amphoteric
(c) 1
(d) None of these. (d) H2 (s) Reducing agent
1H
Integer Type
Matrix-Match Type
83. The number of neutrons in deuterium is ___.
78. Match the hydride with its property.
Column I Column II 84. The number of protons that can be accepted by hydrazine is
(a) CaH2 (p) Conducts electricity when melted ___.
(b) CuH (q) Reaction of formation is endothermic
85. The number of electron-rich hydrides among the following is
(c) SiH4 (r) Powerful reducing agent but very less
___.
reaction with water
(d) LiH (s) Produces hydrogen when dissolved in CH4, NH3, PH3, H2O, H2S, BH3, HF, AlH3, AsH3
water
86. The number of isotopes of hydrogen is ___.
79. Match the hydride with its type.
87. The mass number of the element obtained when tritium
Column I Column II
undergoes b-decay is ___.
(a) CaH2 (p) Intermediate
(b) B2H6 (q) Interstitial 88. Maximum number of hydrogen bonding in H2O is ___.
(c) LaH3 (r) Covalent
89. The sum of protons, electrons and neutrons in the heaviest
(d) LiAlH4 (s) Ionic
isotope of hydrogen is ___.
80. Match the compound with its reaction/process.
90. The number of nucleons in D2 molecule is ___.
Column I Column II
(a) Hard water (p) Calgons’ method
(b) Atomic hydrogen (q) Used as tracer in the study
of reaction mechanism
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (a)
55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (b)
Level II
63. (a), (b), (c) 64. (a), (c) 65. (a), (b), (d) 66. (c), (d) 67. (a), (b) 68. (a), (b), (c)
69. (a), (b), (c), (d) 70. (c), (d) 71. (b), (c), (d) 72. (b), (d) 73. (b), (d) 74. (c)
75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (a) → p, s; (b) → q; (c) → r; (d) → p, s
79. (a) → s; (b) → r; (c) → q; (d) → p 80. (a) → p; (b) → r; (c) → s; (d) → q 81. (a) → s; (b) → r; (c) → p, q; (d) → q
82. (a) → q, r, s; (b) → p, s; (c) → q, s; (d) → q, s 83. (1) 84. (2) 85. (6)
86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (4)
2KMnO 4 + 3H2SO 4 + 2[H] → K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 4H2O 10. (b) The chemical formula of A is Ca(OH)2. Chemical A reacts
with sodium carbonate to generate caustic soda.
Molecular dihydrogen does not reduce KMnO4.
Ca(OH)2 + Na2CO3 → 2NaOH + CaCO3
3. (a) Calgon is sodium hexametaphosphate Na2[Na4(PO3)6]. It Caustic soda
is used as water softener. When CO2 is bubbled through a solution A, it turns
4. (a) The thermal stability of the hydrides decreases in the cloudy.
order: Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 Cloudy
20. (b) Hydrogen gas is highly combustible and burns in air or 32. (b) Water that does not lather with soap is known as hard
oxygen with pale blue flame to form water. water. Hardness of water is due to the presence of bicar-
bonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium and mag-
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O nesium in it. However, when hard water is treated with
dil. HCl, the soluble bicarbonates of Ca and Mg get pre-
21. (a) Surface tension is more for water than for heavy water
cipitated as CaCl2 and MgCl2, respectively, which can be
because H2O is more rapidly adsorbed on to the surface
removed.
than D2O. The remaining physical properties, such as
viscosity, latent heat of vaporization, and melting point 33. (b) Alkali metal hydrides react with water to give basic
are less for water than heavy water. solution.
NaH + H2O → NaOH + H2
22. (b) Proton: +1p1 while deuteron: +1p2. (Basic )
23. (c) Dipole moment of water is 1.84 D. Its bond angle is 34. (d) Hydrogen is colourless, odourless and almost insoluble
104.5°. in water.
24. (c) By the electrolysis of warm aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2 35. (d) Calcium reacts with dihydrogen to produce hydrolith.
between nickel electrodes, hydrogen of very high purity Ca + H2 → CaH2.
(more than 99.95%) is obtained. 36. (a) General f-block elements form interstitial hydrides with
25. (a) Surface water contains suspended impurities because the limiting composition of MH2 and MH3, because
water usually carries many soluble impurities along f-block elements form stable +3 oxidation state.
with insoluble impurities in suspension as well as in col- 37. (b) The structure of H2O2 in the gaseous phase is
loidal state.
26. (d) Water gas is a mixture of CO and H2. It contains greater
proportion of H2 than CO.
1000 ° C
C(s) +H2O(g)
→ CO +H2
O 95.0 pm
Water gas H
147.4 pm 94.8°
27. (c) Potash alum is used for purifying water. O
H
28. (c) The reaction involved is
BaO2 + CO2 + H2O → H2O2 + BaCO3
111.5°
29. (a) When 2-ethylanthraquinol is dissolved in a mixture of
benzene and cyclohexanol and air is passed, it is oxi-
dized to 2-ethylanthraquinone and hydrogen peroxide.
48. (a) Molecular weight of H2O2 = 2 × 1 + 16 × 2 = 34 g 61. (c) The reaction involved is
2 g of hydrogen is present in H2O2 = 34 g H2O2 H2O O (Oxidation)
2 Coordinate
% weight of hydrogen = × 100 = 5.88%
34 bond
62. (b) H2O2 can be prepared by adding barium peroxide to If water reacts with non-metal oxides then also H2 gas is not
dilute H2SO4 at 0 °C. Anhydrous BaO2 reacts slowly with formed.
H2SO4 and the reaction ceases after some time due to
CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 (carbonic acid)
the formation of a protective film of barium sulphate on
barium peroxide. It is therefore always advised to use SO2 + H2O → H2SO3 (sulphurous acid)
hydrated barium peroxide.
71. (b), (c), (d) Natural hard water is non-toxic in nature. Natural
BaO2 ⋅ 8H2O + H2SO 4 → BaSO 4 + 8H2O + H2O2 hard water does not produce lather with soap easily. Potash
alum is Al2(SO4)3 ⋅ K2SO4 ⋅ 24H2O.
The products are BaSO4, water and hydrogen peroxide. Water containing some potash alum is hard water
In these, oxygen is the most electronegative element because sulphates present in the potash alum are responsi-
and oxidation states are −1 in H2O2 and −2 in H2O. ble for hardness of water. Water obtained by zeolite process
−2
+1
O is not pure water. It removes only Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions, that is,
H −1 −1 hardness of water but it cannot remove any microbes pres-
O O +1 +1 +1 ent in the water.
H H H
72. (b), (d) BeH2 and MgH2 have covalent polymeric structure
Level II in which each H atom is involved in a three centered bond
and exists as a bridge between two beryllium atoms on both
Multiple Correct Choice Type sides.
63. (a), (b), (c)
H H H
(a) H + H → H − H (stable) (b) H → H+ + e − (stable)
Be Be Be Be
− −
(c) H + e → H (stable) H H H
64. (a), (c) The reaction is The small size and high charge makes Be2+ a highly polar-
C + H2O → CO + H2 izing ion that effectively polarizes the electron charge
Coke Steam
cloud of H− ion permitting partial overlapping of orbitals
Water gas or syngas
of H− and Be2+ ions. This induces considerable covalent
Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen. character in BeH2. The same is true in MgH2 but to a lesser
65. (a), (b), (d) Many transition metals absorb hydrogen to form extent.
metallic hydrides. Cu, Pd, and Sc belong to transition series. 73. (b), (d) The reactions involved are
So, these elements form metallic hydrides. Li belongs to
s-block and it forms ionic or saline hydrides. Na2Z + CaSO 4 (or CaCl2 ) → CaZ + Na2SO 4 ( or 2NaCl)
66. (c), (d) Hydrogen bonding is present in frozen state of water. Na2Z + MgCl2 (or MgSO 4 ) → MgZ + 2NaCl (or Na2SO 4 )
Frozen water is lighter than liquid water due to its lesser density. Na2Z + Ca(HCO3 )2 (or Mg(HCO3 )2 ) → CaZ (or MgZ) + 2NaHCO3
67. (a), (b) Temporary hardness is due to the presence of soluble
bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. Permanent hard- Passage Type
ness is due to the presence of chlorides and sulphates of cal-
74. (c) The isotopic effect arises due to difference in atomic
cium and magnesium.
masses of the isotopes of an element. For isotopes of
68. (a), (b), (c) Temporary hardness of water can be removed by hydrogen:
lime-soda process, boiling and Clark’s process.
Isotope Mass Number
69. (a), (b), (c), (d) All the given properties of metallic hydrides
Protium 1
are similar to those of their parent metal because when metal
combines with hydride these properties do not change. Deuterium 2
Tritium 3
70. (c), (d) Reaction with metals
Zn + H2O → ZnO + H2 ↑
75. (a) Protium (11H) and deuterium (12 D) pairs show maximum
3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O 4 + 4H2 ↑ isotopic effect. Protium reacts with chlorine nearly 13.4
Reaction with metal hydrides times faster than deuterium.
It is adsorbed more readily on activated charcoal than
LiH + H2O → LiOH + H2 ↑ deuterium.
If water reacts with metal oxides, then there is no liberation 76. (d) The correct order of equilibrium constant for dissocia-
of H2 gas. tion is H2O > D2O > T2O.
Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 77. (c) The properties of hydrogen are essentially those of the
lightest isotope, that is, 11H (protium).
They are powerful reducing agents especially at high tem- As reducing agent: The reducing character of water is
peratures, though their reactivity towards water limits their due to its electron-releasing tendency.
usefulness.
2H2O → 4H+ + 4e− + O2
SiH4 is a powerful reducing agent.
2F2 + 2H2O → 4HF + O2
SiCl4 + 4NaH → SiH4 + 4NaCl
Reaction of formation of CuH is endothermic, and it is formed (b) NaBH4 is a complex metal hydride that can be prepared
by reducing Cu2+ with hypophosphorous acid. by reaction of sodium hydride (NaH) with aluminium
trichloride (AlCl3) in THF. NaBH4 acts as reducing agent.
79. (a) ã s; (b) ã r; (c) ã q; (d) ã p (c) Hydrogen peroxide can act both as an oxidizing as well
(a) CaH2 is ionic hydride. (b) B2H6 is intermediate. (c) LaH3 is as reducing agent. The change on oxidation number
an interstitial hydride. (d) LiAlH4 is a covalent hydride. accompanying the decomposition of H2O2 is as follows:
80. (a) ã p; (b) ã r; (c) ã s; (d) ã q Increase in
(a) Hard water is treated with Calgon’s method to remove oxidation
Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. (b) Atomic hydrogen is used as tracer number
in the study of reaction mechanism. (c) Hydrogen peroxide
is a strong reducing agent. It is concentrated by distillation +1 −1 +1 −2 0
under reduced pressure. (d) Heavy water is used as tracer in H2O2 H2 O + 1 O2
2
the study of reaction mechanism.
Decrease in
81. (a) ã s; (b) ã r; (c) ã (p), (q); (d) ã (q)
oxidation
(a) Syngas or water gas is mainly a mixture of CO and H2. It is
number
made by blowing steam through the layers of red hot coal at
temperature 1000–1400 °C.
Since oxygen atom in H2O2 can undergo an increase as
C + H2O → CO + H2 well as decrease in oxidation number, therefore, it can
Coke Steam
Water gas or syngas act both as reducing as well as oxidizing agent. This is
(b) The metals of Groups 7, 8 and 9 do not form hydrides and supported by the following reactions:
form a gap. This is known as hydride gap. As reducing agent: Ag2O + H2O2 → 2Ag + H2O + O2
(c) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water react with cal- In this reaction, H2O2 acts as reducing agent and has
gon to form soluble complexes. reduced Ag2O to metallic Ag.
2Ca2 + + Na2 [Na4 (PO3 )6 ]2 − → 4Na+ + Na2 [C
Ca2 (PO3 )6 ]2 − As oxidizing agent: PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
Hardness Calgon Soluble complex
causing ion In this reaction, H2O2 has oxidized PbS to PbSO4
2Mg2 + + Na2 [Na4 (PO3 )6 ]2 − → 4Na+ + Na2 [Mg2 (PO3 )6 ]2 − (d) H2 acts as an oxidizing as well reducing agent.
Hardness Calgon Soluble complex
causing ion Oxidizing nature: H2 reacts with metals such as Na, Ca, Li
The complexes of calcium and magnesium so formed and others to form respective hydrides.
remain dissolved in water, but they do not cause hin- 525 K
2Na + H2
→ 2NaH
drance in the formation of lather. This is because calcium 525 K
and magnesium ions are not free to react with soap, but Ca + H2
→ CaH2
these have been tied up to form stable complexes. This Reducing nature: The oxides of less electropositive met-
is also known as sequestration of Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions. als such as copper, tin, iron, lead, and others are reduced
(d) Permutit process is used for treatment of hard water. to metal when treated with hydrogen.
82. (a) ã q, r, s; (b) ã p, s; (c) ã q, s; (d) ã q, s PbO + H2 → Pb + H2O
(a) H2O can act as amphoteric, oxidizing and reducing agent.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
Amphoteric character: According to Lowry Bronsted
concept of acids and bases, H2O is amphoteric, that is, it Fe3O4 + 4H2 → 3Fe + 4H2O
can act both as an acid as well as base.
Integer Type
HNO3 + H2O H3O +
+ NO3− 83. (1) Deuterium (12 D): Mass number = 2
Base
85. (6) NH3, PH3, H2O, H2S, HF, and AsH3 are electron-rich H H
3
hydrides due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons, so O O
these are expected to behave as Lewis bases. CH4, BH3 and H H H
AlH3 are electron-deficient hydrides. O O
86. (3) Hydrogen exists in three isotopic forms. These are pro- H H
tium, deuterium and tritium.
87. (3) When tritium undergoes β-decay it forms element with 89. (4) Heaviest isotope of hydrogen is tritium (13 H). It has 3 neu-
mass number 3. trons and one electron but no proton.
3
1H → 32He + −10e Sum of neutron and electron is 4.
Tritium
90. (4) The number of protons and neutrons are collectively
88. (4) The structure is as follows: called nucleons. In D2 molecule, the number of nucleons is 4.
2. Identify the incorrect statement regarding heavy water: (b) Electrolysis of acidified water produces hydrogen and
(a) It reacts with SO3 to form deuterated sulphuric acid (D2SO4). water at the cathode.
(b) It is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors. 2H3O+ + 2e− →H2 (g) + 2H2O (1)
(c) It reacts with CaC2 to produce C2D2 and Ca(OD)2.
(d) It reacts with Al4C3 to produce CD4 and Al(OD)3. (c) Zinc metal dissolves in aqueous alkalis such as potas-
(Online) sium hydroxide, KOH, to form zincates and hydrogen.
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 General Trends in Physical and Chemical Properties
of Elements
2009 Preparation and Properties of Some Important Com-
pounds of Sodium
2010 General Trends in Physical and Chemical Properties
of Elements
2014 General Trends in Physical and Chemical Properties of General Trends in Physical and Chemical Properties
Elements, Preparation and Properties of Some Important of Elements
Compounds of Sodium
General Trends in Physical and Chemical Properties of
2015
Elements
General Properties of Alkali Metals, Chemical Properties,
2016 Chemical Properties and General Characteristics of Com-
pounds, Compounds of Calcium
SUMMARY
1. Group 1 and 2 elements
(a) The elements in which the highest energy (last) electron is present in the s orbital are called s-block elements and include alkali
metals and alkaline earth metals.
(b) Group 1 elements: Alkali metals
Tip The ionization energy for Be2+ is high, and it forms covalent compounds. Mg also forms some covalent compounds but the
compounds formed by Mg, Ca, Sr and Ba are mainly divalent and ionic.
(vii) Hydration enthalpy: The hydration enthalpies of the Group 2 ions are four or five times greater than for Group 1 ions. This
is largely due to their smaller size and increased charge. The hydration enthalpy decreases down the group as the size of the
ions increases.
3. General trends in chemical properties of elements
(a) Alkali metals
Lithium is usually the least and Cs is the most reactive. Some important reactions are summarized in the table below.
Important reactions of alkali metals
Reaction Observation Comment
With water The hydroxides are the strongest The reaction becomes increasingly violent on descend-
M + H2O → MOH + H2 bases known ing the group.
With excess dioxygen The fundamental difference in reactivity towards air is
Li + O2 → Li2O Monoxide is formed by Li and to a attributable to the cation size. The increasing stability of
small extent by Na the peroxides and superoxides as the size of alkali metal
increases is due to stabilization of larger anions by larger
cations through lattice energy effects.
Na + O2 → Na2O2 Peroxide formed by Na and to a
small extent by Li
K + O2 → KO2 Superoxides formed by K, Rb, Cs
With hydrogen Ionic “salt-like” hydrides The ease of hydride formation decreases from lithium to
M + H2 → MH caesium.
With nitrogen Nitride formed only by Li Li3N is ionic (3Li3+ and N3−) and is ruby red.
Li + N2 → Li3N
With halogens All the metals form halide The halides are ionic in nature except lithium halides
M + X2 → MX which is due to small size of lithium ion and its tendency to
Where, X is F, Cl, Br, I distort the electron cloud around the anion (polarization).
With ammonia All the metals form amides in pres- Dilute solutions of alkali metals in liquid ammonia are
M + NH3 → MNH2 + 21 H2 ence of impurities or Fe as catalyst dark blue in colour. At concentration above 3M, solu-
tions are copper-bronze coloured and have a metalic
M + (x + y )NH3 → lusture because metal ion clusters are formed.
The main species present in the solution are solvated
[M(NH3 ) x ]+ + [e(NH3 ) y )]− metal ions and solvated electrons. The solution is para-
magnetic in nature.
M+ (aq) + e − (aq) + NH3
→ MNH2 + 21 H2 (g)
(Continued)
(Continued)
Reaction Observation Comment
As reducing agent Alkali metals are strong reducing Lithium has the highest negative value for electrode
M(s)
sublimation
→ M(g) agents. The reducing character potential in the group, and is the strongest reducing
increases down the group from Li agent.
ionization
→ M+ (g) + e − to Cs due to decreasing ionization
enthalpies.
hydration
M+ (g) + H2O →
M+ (aq)
With halogens
All the metals form halides. Chloride and bromide are best obtained by
M + X2 → MX2
direct interaction of elements in hot tube.
where, X is F, Cl, Br, I
With ammonia All metals dissolve in liquid ammonia and On evaporation of ammonia Group 2 metals
M + (x + y )NH3 → [M(NH3 )x ]2 + dilute solutions are bright blue in colour. give hexammoniates of the metals. These
+ 2[e(NH3 )y ]− All the metals form amides at high temper- slowly decompose to give amides.
• Sulphates
The solubility of the sulphates in water decreases down the group. Be > Mg Ca > Sr > Ba.
• Nitrates
These can all be prepared in solution and can be crystallized as hydrated salts by the reaction of HNO3 with carbonates,
oxides or hydroxides.
4. Anomalous properties of the first element of each group
(a) Anomalous properties of lithium
(i) Lithium compounds show closer similarities with Group 2 elements (particularly magnesium) than they show towards their
own group.
(ii) Differences with alkali metals:
• Higher melting and boiling points.
• Forms nitride with nitrogen and ionic carbide with carbon.
• Forms only normal oxide with oxygen, does not form peroxide or superoxide.
• Alkyls and halides of lithium show more covalent character and are hence soluble in organic solvents.
• LiOH is sparingly soluble and less basic than other hydroxides of the group.
(iii) Similarities with magnesium:
• Both react with oxygen to form oxides but do not give any peroxides or superoxide even in presence of excess oxygen.
• Both react directly with nitrogen forming nitrides (LiN3 and Mg3N2).
• Carbonates decompose on heating, do not form bicarbonates.
• Halides are covalent in character and soluble in organic solvents.
• Both have tendency to form complexes with ammonia and water.
(b) Anomalous properties of beryllium
(i) Differences between beryllium and other alkaline earth metals:
• Form covalent compounds because of its small size and high electronegativity.
• Can form a maximum of four conventional electron pair bonds. The other elements can have more than eight outer elec-
trons, and may attain a coordination number of 6 using one s, three p and two d orbitals for bonding.
• Beryllium salts are acidic when dissolved in pure water because the hydrated ion hydrolyzes, producing H3O+. The other
Group 2 salts do not interact so strongly with water, and do not hydrolyze appreciably.
(ii) Similarities with aluminium
• Beryllium forms a protective coating of oxide on its surface like aluminium.
• The chlorides of beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride ions in their structures.
• Beryllium hydroxide forms beryllate ion in excess alkali just like aluminate ion formed by aluminium hydroxide.
• Both aluminium and beryllium ions have a tendency to form complexes.
5. Diagonal relationship
The similarity in properties between lithium (first member in Group 1) and magnesium (second element in Group 2); between beryl-
lium (first element in Group 2) and aluminium (second element in Group 3) and between boron (first element in Group 3) and silicon
(second element in Group 4) is called a diagonal relationship. It arises because of the effects of both size and charge.
Li Be B C
Na Mg Al Si
+FeCl3 cat.
−H2
LiOH NaNHR
NaL3Cl(s)
CH3Li +H2O ∆ Na+(am) + e− (am)
LiNHR
+RNH2
+CH3I Na2O2
Li2O −H2 +L = chelate
−RI +NH3 +Cl−
+RNH2 +H2O
LiR −H2 +O2
+O2 −H2O2
+RX
+e−
NaCl(l) Na NaOH
−LiX
Li +H2 +H2O
LiH +H2 −H2
+e−
+ROH +Mg(UO2)3OA
−H2 NaH
LiCl(l) +ROH +N2
+MCl +C222
−H2 NaOR −NaCl
Li3N
+Na[Mg(UO2)3OAc9](s)
LiOR M = K, Rb, Cs [NaC222]+Na−
MNHR
MHCO3(s)
+RNH2
MNH2 −H2
MO2
+NH3
+H2O +CO2
−H2 +O2
−H2O2
+Na
MCl −NaCl M = K, Rb, Cs MOH
+H2O
+ROH +H2
−H2 −H2
+NaB(C6H5)4
MH
MOR
MB(C6H5)4(s)
SOLVED EXAMPLES
General Trends in Physical and Chemical Properties of 4. Which of the following has the highest first ionization enthalpy?
Elements (a) Ba (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Be
12. In which of following cases is the value of x maximum? (c) Na2O2 + Cr3+→ Na2CrO4 (Na2O2 oxidize Cr3+ to CrO42−)
(a) CaSO4 ⋅ xH2O (b) BaSO4 ⋅ xH2O (d) Na2O2 has peroxy linkage hence peroxide.
(c) MgSO4 ⋅ xH2O (d) All have the same value of x. 17. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay’s process. The
Solution products that are recycled are
(a) CO2 and NH3 (b) CO2 and NH4Cl
(c) Efficient packing of larger size cation and larger size
(c) NaCl and CaO (d) CaCl2 and CaO
anion leads to the formation of thermally more stable
compound. Being hydrated sufficiently, Mg2+ accepts Solution
maximum number of water molecule to match its size (a) CO2 and NH3 can be recycled during the Solvay process
with SO42– ion. for manufacturing of sodium carbonate.
Anomalous Properties of the First Element of Each 18. In the following reactions
Group and Diagonal Relationship A + H2O → NaOH
400 ° C HO
13. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the A → B
2
→ NaOH + O2
at 25 °C
diagonal relationship between the Al and Be?
(a) BeO and Al2O3 are basic in nature. B is used for oxygenating in submarines. Then A and B are
(b) Carbides of both on hydrolysis produce the same gas. respectively:
(c) Both can form complexes. (a) Na2O2 and Na2O (b) Na2O and Na2O2
(d) Both BeCl2 and AlCl3 can exist as dimer. (c) Na2O2 and O2 (d) Na2O and O2
Biological Significance of Na, K, Mg and Ca 31. The metal used for blood coagulation is
(a) Ca (b) K
30. Which of the following metals is present in chlorophyll? (c) Na (d) Mg
(a) Mg (b) Be
(c) Ca (d) Al Solution
(a) Ca plays important role in neuromuscular function,
Solution
inter-neuronal transmission, cell membrane integrity and
(a) Mg2+ is an important constituent of chlorophyll in the blood coagulation.
green plants.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 4. Washing soda is
(a) Na2CO3⋅7H2O (b) Na2CO3⋅10H2O
Single Correct Choice Type (c) Na2CO3⋅H2O (d) Na2CO3
1. The principal products obtained on heating iodine with con-
5. Which of the following when introduced into the Bunsen’s
centrated caustic soda solution are
flame gives pink violet colour?
(a) NaOI + NaI (b) NaIO3 + NaI
(a) NaCl (b) BaCl2 (c) CsCl (d) KCl
(c) NaOI + NaIO3 + NaI (d) NaIO4 + NaI
6. When a substance (A) reacts with water, it produces a com-
2. Which has minimum hydration enthalpy? bustible gas (B) and a solution of substance (C) in water. When
(a) K+ (b) Li+ another substance (D) reacts with the solution of (C), it pro-
(c) Ca 2+ (d) Al3+ duces the same gas (B) on warming, but (D) can produce (B) on
reaction with dilute H2SO4 at room temperature, (A) imparts a
3. On heating sodium metal in a current of dry ammonia gas, the golden yellow colour to brown flame. The compounds (A), (B),
compound formed is (C), and (D) are
(a) sodium nitrate (b) sodium hydride (a) K, H2, KOH, Al (b) Na, H2, NaOH, Zn
(c) sodium amide (d) sodium azide (c) CaC2, C2H2, Ca(OH)2, Fe (d) Ca, H2, Ca(OH)2, Sn
7. Which of the following alkali metal emits light of longest (a) Blue coloured solution is obtained.
wavelength in the flame test? (b) Na ions are formed in the solution.
(a) Na (b) Li (c) K (d) Cs (c) Liquid NH3 becomes a good conductor of electricity.
(d) Liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic.
8. Baking soda is
(a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) Na2SO4 (d) K2CO3 23. When NaCl is dissolved in water, the sodium ion is
(a) oxidized. (b) reduced.
9. Mark the false statement. (c) hydrolyzed. (d) hydrated.
(a) The electropositive character of alkali metal decreases
with increase in the atomic number. 24. Which of the following imparts violet colouration to the
(b) Lithium is a hard metal and cannot be cut with a knife. Bunsen burner non-luminous flame?
(c) Alkali metals are strong reducing agents. (a) NaCl (b) BaCl2 (c) CaCl2 (d) KCl
(d) Electronegativities of all alkali metals lie between 1.0 25. Epsom salt is
and 0.7. (a) MgSO4⋅7H2O (b) MgSO4⋅2H2O
10. Which one of the following will react most vigorously with (c) 2CaSO4⋅H2O (d) BaSO4⋅2H2O
water? 26. What is X in the equation?
(a) V (b) Ti (c) Ca (d) Rb 3273 K
CaO + 3C → X + CO
11. When sodium metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a blue
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaC2 (c) CO2 (d) CaCl2
solution is formed. The blue colour is due to
(a) solvated Na+ ions. (b) solvated electrons. 27. Electrolysis of molten sodium chloride leads to the formation
(c) solvated NH2− ions. (d) solvated protons. of
12. Chile saltpeter is (a) Na and H2 (b) Na and O2
(a) NaNO3 (b) Na2SO4 (c) KNO3 (d) Na2CO3 (c) H2 and O2 (d) Na and Cl2
21. Which one of the following is ionic? 35. Which of the following statements are true about beryllium
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Beryllium chloride and its compounds?
(c) Lithium chloride (d) Carbon tetrachloride (a) Beryllium exhibits coordination number more than four.
(b) Beryllium sulphate is readily soluble in water as the
22. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 greater hydration enthalpy of Be2+ overcomes the lattice
at low temperature, which one of the following does not occur? enthalpy factor.
(c) Beryllium is not readily attacked by acids because of the (c) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
presence of an oxide film on the surface of the metal. (d) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
(d) Beryllium oxide is purely acidic in nature.
42. Which ion has the minimum polarizing power?
36. Which of the following are not the correct reasons for anoma- (a) Li+ (b) Na+ (c) K+ (d) Mg2+
lous behaviour of lithium?
Matrix-Match Type
(a) Exceptionally small size of its atom.
(b) Its low polarizing power. 43. Match the property with the compound/element.
(c) It has high degree of hydration. Column I Column II
(d) Exceptionally low ionization enthalpy. (a) Flame colouration (p) Na
(b) Stored under kerosene (q) KF
37. When KO2 reacts with water, the product formed is (c) Soluble in organic solvents (r) BeCl2
(a) KOH (b) H2O2 (c) K2O2 (d) O2 (d) Soluble in water without
38. Na2O cannot be prepared by any reaction with it (s) LiCl
(a) Na2O2 + CO → (b) Na + NaNO3 → 44. Match the compounds with their properties.
(c) Na + NaNO2 → (d) Na2O2 + Na → Column I Column II
Passage Type (a) CaCO3 (p) Insoluble in water
(b) CaSO4⋅2H2O (q) Amphoteric nature
Paragraph for Questions 39 to 43: Lithium exhibits the charac- (c) BaCO3 (r) Insoluble in water but dissolves
teristic properties of Group 1 elements but also differs from the in the presence of CO2
remaining alkali metals in a number of ways. This anomalous
(d) Be(OH)2 (s) Gives precipitate with dil. H2SO4
behaviour of lithium can be attributed to the small size of lith-
ium atom and ion and high charge density. Lithium ions possess Integer Type
highest polarizing power among all alkali metal ions and hence
45. The number of compounds among the following that do not
cause maximum distortion of the negative ion. Lithium ions show
produce acidic or basic solutions when dissolved in water is
greater resemblance in properties to magnesium ions and this
___.
relationship is known as diagonal relationship.
NaCl, BeCl2, BaCl2, Li2O, MgO, CaH2, CaSO4
39. Which of the following undergoes hydrolysis by cold or hot
water? 46. The number of elements among the following that do not
(a) LiCl (b) NaCl (c) KCl (d) RbCl give characteristic colour in flame test is ___.
40. The small size of lithium ion cannot explain Ca, Li, Mg, Be, Ba, Sr, Na, K
(a) covalent nature of lithium hydrides.
(b) solubility of methyl lithium in alcohol. 47. The ratio of the number of water of crystallization in gypsum
(c) high dipole moment of lithium iodide. and plaster of Paris is ___.
(d) instability of lithium carbonate.
48. The number of elements among the following that will form
41. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is rep- nitrides when heated in an atmosphere of nitrogen is ___.
resented by
(a) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl Li, Cs, Rb, K, Ca, Ba, Na, Sr, Mg
(b) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (c)
Level II
32. (b), (d) 33. (a), (c) 34. (a), (c) 35. (b), (c) 36. (b), (d) 37. (a), (b), (d)
38. (b), (c), (d) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (c)
43. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → r, s; (d) → q 44. (a) → r, s; (b) → p; (c) → r, s; (d) → q 45. (3) 46. (2)
47. (4) 48. (5)
5. (d) NaCl gives golden yellow, BaCl2 gives apple green, CsCl 25. (a) Epsom salt is MgSO4⋅7H2O
gives violet, and KCl gives pink violet colour. 3273 K
26. (b) CaO + 3C → CaC2 + CO
6. (b) The reactions are
27. (d) Electrolysis of molten sodium chloride leads to the for-
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 mation of Na and Cl2
(A) (C) (B )
NaCl(aq) Na+ + Cl−
2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2 H2O H+ + OH−
(C) (D ) (B )
At the cathode: 2H+ + 2e − → H2
Zn + H2SO 4 → ZnSO 4 + H2
(D) (B) At the anode: 2Cl− → Cl2 + 2e −
Sodium imparts golden colour to the flame. 28. (c) Anhydrous Na2CO3 is called soda ash.
7. (c) Potassium emits light of longest wavelength in the flame 29. (b) Due to the smaller size and increased charge on Na+ ions.
test because it gives lilac (violet) colour in the flame.
30. (b) A suspension of Mg(OH)2 in water is used in medicine as
8. (b) Baking soda is NaHCO3 an antacid under the name of milk of magnesia.
9. (a) The electropositive character of alkali metals increases 31. (c) Due to small size and somewhat high ionization enthalpy
with increase in the atomic number. of Be, BeO is amphoteric and dissolves in both acids and
10. (d) Rubidium will react most vigorously with water. alkalies. The flame test is not shown both by beryllium and
magnesium oxides (basic oxide) as due to the smaller size
11. (b) Ammoniated electron (solvated electrons) is responsible of these elements, the valence shell electrons are strongly
for blue colour solution. bound to the nucleus. The energy from the flame of a
burner is not sufficient to raise them to the excited state.
12. (a) Chile saltpeter is NaNO3
Level II
13. (a) Calcium chloride is used as laboratory desiccant because
it is easily available, less toxic, and costs less. Multiple Correct Choice Type
14. (a) Magnesium is used in flash bulbs for photography. In 32. (b), (d) Alkali metals are strong reducing agents. Hence, they
flash bulbs magnesium powder is mixed with potassium have high negative standard reduction potential. Since alkali
chlorate. metals are the first elements in the respective periods, they
have large atomic size.
15. (b) Pure Na2CO3 is prepared by Solvay’s process, absorbs
moisture from air and normally exists as a decahydrate 33. (a), (c) Sodium carbonate is used in textile industry for dye-
salt (Na2CO3·10H2O) in form of transparent and colour- ing and printing operations. Sodium hydroxide is used in tex-
less crystals. tile industry for mercerizing cotton fabrics.
16. (b) Conceptual 34. (a), (c) Except BeCl2, all other chlorides of Group 2 form
hydrates but their tendency to form hydrates decreases,
17. (c) Mg is present in seawater in amounts of about 1300 ppm for example, MgCl2⋅6H2O, CaCl2⋅6H2O, SrCl2⋅2H2O and
and is the most commonly found cation in oceans after BaCl2⋅2H2O.
sodium. 35. (b), (c) Conceptual
18. (b) Ca has less density than that of Mg because of presence 36. (b), (d) Conceptual
of vacant 3d orbitals in Ca.
37. (a), (b), (d) KO2 + H2O →
KOH + H2O2 + O2 [Reaction not
19. (b) The composition of Sorel’s cement is MgCl2⋅5MgO⋅xH2O balanced].
20. (c) 2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 → 2NH3 + 2H2O + CaCl2 38. (b), (c), (d) Conceptual
Passage Type BaCO3 or CaCO3 + dil H2SO 4 → BaSO 4 or CaSO 4 + H2O + CO2
White ppt
39. (c) Conceptual
When powdered plaster of Paris CaSO 4 ⋅ 21 H2O is mixed
40. (c) Conceptual with the correct amount of water, it sets into a solid mass of
41. (b) As the size of the cation increases, the covalent character CaSO4⋅2H2O (gypsum) due to hydration of molecules and
decreases. their rearrangement.
Due to anomalous behaviour, Be(OH)2 resembles Al(OH)3 and
42. (c) Larger the cation, Lower its polarizing power. is amphoteric in nature.
Integer Type
Matrix-Match Type
45. (3) NaCl, BaCl2, CaSO4 are ionic and produce neutral solu-
43. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → r, s; (d) → q tions; BeCl2 produces acidic solution and the remaining basic
LiCl gives characteristic red colour. solutions.
Alkali metals react with oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide
46. (2) Be and Mg atoms are smaller in size and their electrons
present in the air, forming oxides, hydroxides and carbonates.
are tightly bound to the nucleus. They need large amounts
In order to prevent these reactions, the alkali metals are
of energy for excitation of electrons to higher energy levels
stored in kerosene, example, Na.
which is not available in the Bunsen flame. So they do not
The halides and alkyls of lithium are far more covalent than
impart colour to the flame.
the corresponding sodium compounds, and because of this
covalency they are soluble in organic solvents. 47. (4) The formula for gypsum is CaSO4⋅2H2O and that of plaster
Be halides are all soluble in organic solvents and hydrolyze in of Paris is CaSO 4 ⋅ 21 H2O.
water. 48. (5) Li, Ca, Ba, Sr and Mg form nitrides. In Group 1, only Li is
KF dissociates into potassium ions and fluoride ions KF → K+ + F− able to form nitride.
44. (a) → r, s; (b) → p; (c) → r, s; (d) → q
Excess CO
CaCO3 or BaCO3 + H2O
2
→ Ca2+ (HCO3− )2 or Ba2+ (HCO3− )2
Insoluble Soluble bicarbonate
white ppt
Region 1 3. The correct order of the solubility of alkaline earth metal sul-
phates in water is
(a) Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba. (b) Mg > Sr > Ca > Ba.
(c) Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba. (d) Mg < Sr < Ca < Ba.
(Online)
Solution
(a) region 4 (b) region 1 (c) region 2 (d) region 3 (a) The solubility of the sulphates in water decreases down the
(Offline) group. Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba. MgSO4 is soluble, but CaSO4 is
sparingly soluble, and the sulphates of Sr, Ba and Ra are vir-
Solution tually insoluble. The significantly high solubility of MgSO4
(c) is due to the high enthalpy of solvation of the smaller Mg2+
ion.
Reactive gases 4. The commercial name for calcium oxide is
incomplete combustion (a) quick lime. (b) milk of lime.
Hottest part of flame (c) slaked lime. (d) limestone.
(Online)
Unburnt gas and air Solution
(a) The commercial name of calcium oxide (CaO) is quick lime.
5. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization
energy?
(a) Sc (b) Na
(c) K (d) Rb
(Online)
Solution
2. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in (a) The effective nuclear charge increases in a period, hence
excess of air is respectively ionization energy increases while it generally decreases
(a) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2. (b) Li2O, Na2O and KO2. down the group. Thus, the increasing order of first ioniza-
(c) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O. (d) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2. tion enthalpy as follows:
(Offline) Rb < K < Na < Sc
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
SUMMARY
1. The elements in which the highest energy electron enters the outermost p orbital are known as p-block elements. There are six
groups (ns2 np1−6) of p-block elements in the periodic table, named as Group13–18 as shown below.
Group 13 14 15 16 17 18
First element Boron (B) Carbon (C) Nitrogen (N) Oxygen (O) Fluorine (F) Helium (He)
Electronic configuration ns2 np1 ns2 np2 ns2 np3 ns2 np4 ns2 np5 ns2 np6
(He: 1s2)
Group oxidation state +3 +4 +5 +6 +7 +8
Other oxidation states +1 +2, −4 +3, −3 +4, +2, −2 +5, +3, +1, −1 +6, +4, +2
2. This occurrence of an oxidation state two units below the Group oxidation state is sometimes attributed to the inert pair effect. The
term refers to the resistance of a pair of s electrons to be lost or to participate in covalent bond formation.
3. General properties of Group13 elements
Ionization enthalpy
(kJ mol−1)
Atomic Electronic Oxidation m.p. b.p.
Elements Occurrence number configuration states 1st 2nd 3rd (çC) (çC)
Boron (B) Concentrated deposits of borax 5 [He] 2s2 2p1 3 801 2427 3659 2180 3650
Na2[B4O5(OH)4] ⋅ 8H2O and
kernite Na2[B4O5(OH)4] ⋅ 2H2O
Aluminium (Al) Aluminosilicate rocks, such as 13 [Ne] 3s2 3p1 1, 3 577 1816 2744 660 2467
feldspars and micas
Gallium (Ga) 31 [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1 1, 3 579 1979 2962 30 2403
Indium (In) Occur as sulphides, in trace 49 [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p1 1, 3 558 1820 2704 157 2080
Thallium (Tl) amounts 81 [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p1 1, 3 589 1971 2877 303 1457
(a) The metallic radii of the atoms do not increase regularly on descending the Group. The ionic radii for M3+ increase down the Group.
(b) The electronegativity decreases from B to Al due to difference in atomic sizes of the elements.
(c) The ionization enthalpies increase as expected (first ionization enthalpy < second ionization enthalpy < third ionization enthalpy).
The ionization enthalpy values do not decrease smoothly down the Group. The decrease from B to Al is the usual trend on
descending a Group associated with increased size. The poor shielding by d electrons and the resulting d-block contraction affect
the values for the later elements.
(d) The melting points of the Group 13 elements do not show a regular trend.
(e) Boron has an unusual crystal structure while Al, In and Tl all have close-packed metal structures. Gallium has an unusual structure
with an incredibly low melting point of gallium of 30°C and also because the liquid expands when it forms the solid, that is, the
solid is less dense than the liquid.
(f) The boiling point of B is unusually high, but the values for Ga, In and Tl decrease on descending the Group as expected.
(g) The densities of elements increase down the Group.
(h) The electropositive or metallic nature of the elements increases from B to Al, but then decreases from Al to Tl.
4. Chemical properties of Group13 elements
(a) Oxidation state
(i) The elements all have three outer electrons. Apart from Tl, they normally use these to form three bonds, giving an oxidation
state of (+3).
(ii) The atoms in this group have an outer electronic configuration of s2p1. Monovalency is explained by the inert pair effect.
(iii) The trivalent compounds of Group 13 elements act as electron acceptors or Lewis acids and the donor of electrons such as
ammonia and water act as Lewis bases and form compounds like BF3 and NH3. The tendency of Group13 elements to behave
as Lewis acids increases as we move down the group.
(b) Reaction with water
Since the compounds in trivalent state are covalent, they are hydrolyzed in water. The trihalides on hydrolysis in water form
tetrahedral species [M(OH)4]−.
BCl3 + 3H2O → H3BO3 + 3HCl [B(OH)4 ]+Cl−
Tip In acidified aqueous solution, aluminium chloride forms a complex ion [Al(H2O)6]3+ which has aluminium in sp3d2 hybridization
and is octahedral in shape. This difference in behaviour from BCl3 on hydrolysis can be explained on the basis of vacant 3d orbitals in
Al3+ ions, which allow it to expand its coordination number from 4 to 6 and coordinate with water molecules that are present in larger
excess than OH− ions.
2B + 3S → B2S3 At 1200°C.
Tip Boron nitride (BN)x is a slippery white solid with a layer structure resembling graphite, in which hexagonal rings of boron and
nitrogen atoms alternate.
2M + 6HCl → 2MCl3 + 3H2 All react with dilute mineral acids, Al passivated by HNO3 particularly when concen-
trated.
Al + NaOH + H2O → NaAlO2 + H2 Al and Ga only.
Na3AlO3 + H2
(Continued)
(Continued)
Boron Aluminium Gallium, indium and thallium
Forms trivalent compounds that act as Forms trivalent halides that dimerize to com- Monovalent compounds are formed
Lewis acids and form adducts with Lewis plete their octet by bridging through halogen and nature of covalent bond becomes
bases to complete their octets. atom. weaker.
Forms acidic oxide (B2O3) and hydroxide Forms oxide Al2O3 and hydroxide Al(OH)3 that Oxide and hydroxide of gallium are
B(OH)3. are amphoteric in nature. amphoteric, while that of In and Tl are
basic.
Forms covalent halides that are easily Forms solid halides that are only partially Form trivalent halides (except from TlI3)
hydrolyzed. hydrolyzed. which are aggregated in the solid state
through halide ion bridge and have
coordination numbers 4, 6 or higher.
Forms stable hydride ion BH4− . Forms anionic hydride AlH4− which is more Only Ga forms hydride ion GaH4− .
reactive than BH4− .
Frequently forms polyhedral com- – –
pounds like boranes and borates.
H H
Diborane H H1 H Preparation
Heat
B B 119 pm Mg3B2 + H3PO 4 → Mixture of boranes → B2H6
Magnesium (Mainly B4H10 ) Diborane
H 133 H H borate
pm
Diglyme solution
Overlap of approximately sp2 hybrid orbitals 2Na[BH4 ] + I2 → B2H6 + H2 + 2NaI
from B with an s orbital from H to give a
Ether
“banana-shaped” three-center two-electron 4[Et2O ⋅ BF3 ] + 3Li[AlH4 ]
→ 2B2H6 + 3Li[AlF4 ] + 4Et2O
bond.
(Continued)
(Continued)
Diglyme
[Et2O ⋅ BF3 ] + 3Na[BH4 ] → 2B2H6 + 3Na[BF4 ] + 4Et2O
H 750 atm, 150°C
H B2O3 + 3H2 + 2Al → B2H6 + Al2O3
B H Boron
H B trioxide
temperature
→ B2H6 ⋅ 2NH3
Excess NH
Higher
3
temperature
→ (BN) x
Boron nitride
Ratio 2NH : 1B H
Higher
3 2 6
temperature
→ B3N3H6
Borazine
Borazine H H
(B3N3H6)
H H H B− H
B +
N N N N+
B B B− B−
N N+
H H H H
H H
Borazine
Borazine (B3N3H6) is sometimes called “inor-
ganic benzene” because its structure shows
some formal similarity with benzene, with
delocalized electrons and aromatic character.
Tetrahydridob- The tetrahydridoborate ion [BH4]− is tetrahe- Preparation
orates dral. 4B(OMe)3 + 4NaH 250 °C, high pressure
→ Na[BH4 ] + 3Na[B(OMe)4 ]
H THF solvent
Trimethylborate
(Continued)
(Continued)
Ionization enthalpy
(kJ mol−1)
Oxi-
Atomic Electronic configu- dation 1st 2nd 3rd 4th m.p. b.p.
Elements Occurrence number ration states (çC) (çC)
Silicon (Si) As silica SiO2 (sand and 14 [Ne] 3s2 3p2 2, 4 786 1573 3232 4351 1420 3280
quartz), and in a wide
variety of silicate miner-
als and clays.
Germani- As traces in some silver 32 [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p2 2, 4 760 1534 3300 4409 945 2850
um (Ge) and zinc ores, and in
some types of coal.
Tin (Sn) Tin is mined as cassiter- 50 [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p2 2, 4 707 1409 2943 3821 232 2623
ite SnO2
Lead (Pb) Found as the ore galena 82 [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p2 2, 4 715 1447 3087 4081 327 1751
PbS
Tip The elements after C have d orbitals available, and the Si–F, Si–Cl and Si–O bonds are stronger than the corresponding bonds
with C. This is thought to be due to the donation of electrons from F, Cl or O to Si, giving rise to pp–dp bonding.
(ii) The carbon halides are not hydrolyzed under normal conditions because they have no d orbitals, and cannot form a five-
coordinate hydrolysis intermediate.
The silicon halides are rapidly hydrolyzed by water to give silicic acid.
Graphite Two-dimensional sheets Lubricant, electrodes, fibers, pencils, brake linings and
of carbon atoms. brushes for electric motors
(a) (b)
Fullerenes It consists of a fused Superconductor
system of five- and
six-membered rings.
O C O CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O CO2 + H2O H2CO3
C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) Sunlight
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Carbon dioxide
Glucose
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l) 180°C
CO2 + 2NH3 Pressure
→ NH4 CO2NH2 → CO(NH2 )2 + H2O
CO + H2O CO2 + H2 Ammonium Urea
carbamate
CH4 + 2H2O → CO2 + 4H2
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
Yeast under
C6H12O6 anaerobic
conditions
→ 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 White
precipitate
Strong heat CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Ca(HCO3 )2
CaCO3
→ CaO + CO2
Soluble
(Continued)
(Continued)
Preparation Reactions
Silica in any form is unreactive due to high bond enthalpy
Silicon dioxide
Si O Si O Si of Si O bond.
O O O SiO2 + NaOH → (Na2SiO3 )n and Na4 SiO 4
Si O Si O Si +SiO2
H2SO 4 + CaF 2 → HF
→
O O O
Si O Si O Si
SiF 4
+H2 O
→ HF +
{ Si(OH)4 or
SiO2 ⋅ 2H2O
Cu catalyst 280 − 300° C Hydrolysis under carefully controlled conditions can pro-
Si + 2CH3Cl → (CH3 )2SiCl2
duce cyclic structures, with rings containing three, four,
+2H2 O
five or six Si atoms.
− → (CH3 )2Si(OH)2
2HCl
R R R R
−H2O
HO Si OH + HO Si OH HO Si O Si OH
R R R R
Silicones
R R R
HO Si OH + HO Si O Si OH
R R R
R R R
HO Si O Si O Si OH, etc.
R R R
1400° C +SiO
Na2CO3 → CO2 + Na2O
2
→ Na4 SiO 4 , (Na2SiO3 )n and others
Silicates
Si
− − −
− − −
− − −
− − − − −
− − −
Si SiO4 ion Si −
O
O − − and − − − −
O O − − − −
− − − − − − −
Si Si2O6− − − − −
O 7 ion Si3O96− ion − − − −
12−
Si6O18 ion
(Si2O5)n2n− sheet
(e) Zeolites
(i) Sharing all four corners of a SiO4 tetrahedron results in a three-dimensional lattice of formula SiO2 (quartz, tridymite, cristo-
balite, etc.). These contain no metal ions, but three-dimensional structures can form the basis of silicate structures if there is
a replacement of some of the Si4+ by Al3+ plus an additional metal ion. This gives an infinite three-dimensional lattice, and
the additional cations occupy holes in the lattice.
(ii) Replacing one quarter of the Si4+ in SiO2 with Al3+ gives a framework ion AlSi3O8−. These are known as aluminosilicates.
Cations are usually the larger metal ions such as K+, Na+, Ca2+ or Ba2+. Replacements of one-fourth or one-half of the Si atoms
are quite common, giving structures
Such replacements result in three groups of minerals: Feldspars, zeolites and ultramarines.
9. General properties of Group15 elements
Ionization enthalpy
(kJ mol-1)
Oxi-
Atomic Electronic configu- dation 1st 2nd 3rd m.p. b.p.
Element Occurrence number ration states (çC) (çC)
78% of the earth’s
atmosphere;
Nitrate deposits in −3, −2,
Nitrogen (N) desert regions; 7 [He] 2s2 2p3 −1, 0, 1, 1403 2857 4578 −210 −195.8
Essential constit- 2, 3, 5
uent of proteins/
amino acids
Nucleic acids such
as DNA and RNA;
Phosphorus (P) Fluoroapatite, 15 [Ne] 3s2 3p3 3, 5 1012 1897 2910 44 281
hydroxyapatite and
chloroapatite
Arsenic (As) As sulphides 33 [Ar] 3d104s2 4p3 3 947 1950 2732 816 615
Antimony (Sb) occurring as traces 51 [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p2 3 834 1590 2440 631 1587
in other ores;
Metallurgical
Bismuth (Bi) byproducts from 83 [Xe]4f14 5d10 6s2 6p3 3 703 1610 2467 271 1564
roasting sulphide
ores in a smelter
(a) The atomic and ionic radii increase as one descends down the group.
(b) The ionization enthalpy of Group 15 elements is much higher than that expected because of extra stability associated
with electronic configuration of half-filled p orbitals and the smaller atomic size of the elements as compared to Group 14
elements.
(c) The ionization enthalpy decreases down the group due to increase in atomic size. The successive ionization energies increase
due to greater energy required in removal of successive electrons
(d) The electronegativity value decreases with increase in atomic size down the group.
10. Chemical properties of Group 15 elements
(a) Oxidation states
(i) They exhibit a maximum oxidation state of (+5) towards oxygen by using all five outer electrons in forming bonds.
(ii) The tendency for the pair of s electrons to remain inert (the inert pair effect) increases with increasing atomic weight. Thus,
only the p electrons are used in bonding and trivalency results.
(iii) Valencies of 3 and 5 are shown with the halogens and with sulphur. The hydrides are trivalent.
Tip Sb and Bi can lose three electrons, forming M3+ ions, with very high ionization energy. Both SbF3 and BiF3 exist as ionic solids.
The M3+ ions are not very stable in solution. They can exist in fairly strong acid solutions, but are rapidly hydrolyzed in water to give
SbO+ and BiO+.
Tip The oxide in higher oxidation state of an element is more acidic than oxide in lower oxidation state.
(iii) Reactivity towards halogens: All the possible trihalides of N, P, As, Sb and Bi are known. An excess of halogen gives penta-
halide (EX5).
• These trihalides are predominantly covalent and, like NH3, have a tetrahedral structure with one position occupied by
a lone pair. The exception includes BiF3 which is ionic and the other halides of Bi and SbF3 which are intermediate in
character.
• Nitrogen is unable to form pentahalides because the second shell contains a maximum of eight electrons, that is, four
bonds. The subsequent elements have suitable d orbitals, and form pentahalides.
(iv) Reactivity towards metals: They react with metals to form binary compounds in which their oxidation state is −3.
11. (a) Dinitrogen
(i) Nitrogen is a colourless, odourless, tasteless gas which is diamagnetic and exists as diatomic molecule.
(ii) It has two stable isotopes 14N and 15N. N2 molecule contains a triple bond N N (bond length =1.09 pm), which is very stable
with high dissociation energy.
(iii) N2 is inert at room temperature, but at elevated temperatures N2 becomes increasingly reactive.
Tip Other isoelectronic species such as CO, CN− and NO+ are much more reactive than N2, and this is because the bonds are partly
polar, while in N2 they are not.
(b) Ammonia
(i) Preparation
• Decay of nitrogenous organic matter.
• Heating an ammonium salt with NaOH. This is a standard test in the laboratory for NH+4 compounds.
• The commercial production of ammonia is done synthetically from H2 and N2 by the Haber–Bosch process.
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + heat
4 volumes 2 volumes
The reaction is reversible, and Le Chatelier’s principle suggests that high pressure and low temperature are required to
drive the reaction to the right, and thus form NH3.
(ii) Properties
• The boiling and melting points of ammonia are −34.5°C and −77.8°C, respectively. NH3 has a higher boiling point and is
much less volatile because it is hydrogen bonded in the liquid state.
• It dissolves very readily in water with the evolution of heat. In solution, it forms NH4OH, a weak base.
• NH3 acts as a good Lewis base and donates its lone pair of electrons to form complexes. For example, the [Co(NH3)6]3+.
(iii) Uses
• As a fertilizer; making HNO3; making caprolactam; making hexamethylenediamine; transporting H2 (liquid ammonia);
refrigerator coolant.
(c) Oxides of Nitrogen
Oxi-
Oxides dation
of ni- num- Bond Bond Physical
trogen ber Shape length order property Preparation
N2O +I Linear, asymmetricalN N= N N= Stable, rela- (i) Thermal decomposition of molten
molecule 112.6 pm 2.73 and tively unreac- ammonium nitrate at about 280°C
N O= N O= tive, neutral
N N O NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
Dinitrogen monoxide 118.6 pm 1.61 colourless
(nitrous oxide) gas.
(ii) Heating a solution of NH4NO3
acidified with HCl
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
NO +II N O Colourless (i) 3Cu + 8HNO3 → 2NO + 3Cu(NO3 )2 + 4H2O
Nitrogen monoxide gas, para-
3Cu + 8HNO3 → 2NO + 3Cu(NO3 )2 + 4H2O
(nitric oxide) magnetic;
diamagnetic
in the liquid (ii) 2HNO2 + 2H+ → 2NO + I2 + 2H2O
and solid (iii)
states.
2NaNO2 + 2FeSO 4 + 3H2SO 4 → 2NO
+ Fe2 (SO 4 )3 + 2NaHSO 4 + 2H2O
• NO readily forms coordination complexes with transition metal ions. These complexes are called nitrosyls.
Tip Fe2+(aq) and NO form the complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+, which is responsible for the colour in the “brown-ring test” for nitrates.
• NO often acts as a three-electron donor. Thus, three CO groups may be replaced by two NO groups:
H O
102° pm
121
96
O
(iii) Properties
• On exposure to light it turns slightly brown because of slight decomposition into NO2 and O2.
Strong acid
Cu + 4HNO3 → 2NO2 + Cu(NO3 )2 + 2H2O
Tip The enhanced ability to dissolve metals such as gold shown by aqua regia arises from the oxidizing power of HNO3 coupled with
the ability of Cl− (from HCl) to form complexes.
• Oxidation of non-metals
P4 + 20HNO3 → 4H3PO 4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O
Red phosphorus P P P Polymeric solid, which is much less Does not ignite unless
(heating white P to P P P P P P reactive. it is heated to 400°C
about 250°C, or a and is not chemilumi-
lower temperature P P P nescent.
in sunlight) Tetrahedral P4 molecules linked together
(b) Phosphine
(i) Preparation
• Hydrolyzing metal phosphides such as Na3P or Ca3P2 with water or dilute acids.
Ca3P2 + 6H2O → 2PH3 + 3Ca(OH)2
• Hydrolyzing white phosphorus with NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere.
P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3 + 3NaH2PO2
• Reaction of phosphonium iodide with KOH
PH4I + KOH → PH3 + KI + H2O
(ii) Properties
• Phosphine is a highly reactive and causes explosion when treated with traces of HNO3, Cl2 and Br2 vapours.
• It is a very weak base, but however reacts with acids to give phosphonium compounds.
PH3 + HBr → PH4Br
• Phosphine reacts with copper sulphate or mercuric chloride to form their respective phosphides.
3CuSO 4 + 2PH3 → Cu3P2 + 3 H2SO 4
• Pure PH3 is stable in air, but it catches fire when heated to about 150°C.
PH3 + 2O2 → H3PO 4
(iii) Uses
• Fumigant, smoke screens, synthesis of organophosphorus compounds and some alloys.
(c) Phosphorus halides
Two types of halides (X = F, Cl, Br, I), trihalides (PX3) and penathalides (PX5) formed.
2PCl3 + O2 → 2POCl3
6PCl3 + P4 O10 + 6Cl2 → 10POCl3
(Continued)
(Continued)
Structure Preparation Reactions
PCl5 Cl CCl PCl5 + 4H2O → H3PO 4 + 5HCl
PCl3 + Cl2
4
→ PCl5
Cl Phosphoric acid
240 pm
PCl5 + H2O → POCl3 + 2HCl
202 PCl5
heat
→ PCl3 + Cl2
P pm
Cl Cl 2Ag + PCl5 →
2AgCl + PCl3
OH
O O
Pyro- P P
O OH The acid contains four replaceable H
phosphoric HO
atoms in form of four P OH bonds,
acid
compounds have oxidizing properties.
and is tetrabasic.
H4P2O7 OH OH
Oxidation state of P is (+5);
H4P2O7
Phosphoric acid series
Tri- P P P
polyphos- HO O O OH The acid contains five replaceable H
atoms in form of five P OH bonds,
phoric acid
and is pentabasic.
H5P2O10 OH OH OH
H5P3O10
Tripolyphosphoric acid
O O−
P
O O O
O O
P P O O
Metaphosphates form a family of
Metaphosphoric acids −O P P
O O− ring compounds;
−O O O−
O O
−O P O P O−
Chapter-11.indd 336 7/30/2016 12:58:18 PM
O O−
P
O O O
O O
P P O O
−O O O− P P
−O O O− Summary 337
−O P O P O−
O O
−O P O P O−
O O
Tetra-metaphosphate ion
(cyclo-tetraphosphate)
OH OH
O P P O
Hypophosphoric acid,
Tetrabasic
H4P2O6 OH OH
Hypophosphoric
acid
H These are very strong reducing
compounds are reducing agents.
acid H3PO3
O The salts are known as phosphites.
O
The acid is monobasic and a very
Hypophosphorous
P strong reducing agent.
acid H3PO2 H H
OH
H H
Pyrophosphorous acid It is dibasic in nature.
HO P O P OH
H4P2O5
O O
First ion-
ization
Atomic Electronic config- Oxidation enthalpy m.p. b.p.
Elements Occurrence number uration states (kJ mol−1) (çC) (çC)
It exists in the free form as dioxygen molecules;
Oxygen Constituent of silicate minerals on the earth’s crust; –2, –1,
8 [He] 2s2 2p4 1314 –229 –183
(O) Also occurs as many metal oxide ores, and as +1, 2
deposits of oxosalts.
Sulphide ores, and as sulphates (particularly gyp-
Sulphur sum CaSO4∙2H2O.
16 [Ne] 3s2 3p4 –2, 2, 4, 6 999 114 445
(S) Occurring as traces in ores (MgSO4 ⋅ 7H2O), galena
(PbS), zinc blende (ZnS), copper pyrite (CuFeS2).
Selenium
Very scarce. They occur in small amounts as sele- 34 [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p4 2, 4, 6 941 221 685
(Se)
nides and tellurides in sulphide ores, particularly
Tellurium
those of Ag and Au; 52 [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p4 2, 4, 6 869 452 1087
(Te)
Pollonium occurs as the decay product of thorium
Polonium and uranium minerals 84 [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p4 2, 4 813 254 962
(Po)
(a) Oxygen, sulphur, selenium and tellurium are non-metals. Collectively, they are called “the chalcogens”.
(b) The atomic and ionic radii increase down the group.
(c) The ionization enthalpy decreases down the group because of increase in size. The values of ionization enthalpies are how-
ever much lower than the corresponding members of group 15 because of the stability associated with half-filled orbitals in
Group 15, which make the removal of electrons difficult.
(d) The electron gain enthalpy value becomes less negative down the group from sulphur onwards.
(e) From top to bottom in the group, the electronegativity decreases with increasing atomic size.
Tip Oxygen is the most electronegative among all elements, second only to fluorine.
(i) Many metal oxides with formulae M2O3 and MO2, though ionic, do not react with water. Examples include Tl2O3, Bi2O3 and
ThO2. These react with acids to form salts, and so are basic.
(ii) In some cases where a metal can exist in more than one oxidation state, and thus form more than one oxide, for example,
CrO, Cr2O3, CrO3, PbO, PbO2, and Sb4O6, Sb4O10.
(iii) Many metals yield oxides which are amphoteric, and react with both strong acids and strong bases. Examples include BeO,
Al2O3, Ga2O3, SnO and ZnO.
(iv) A few covalent oxides have no acidic or basic properties (N2O, NO, CO) and are called neutral oxides.
(c) Ozone
(i) Ozone O3 is the triatomic allotrope of oxygen.
O
Single valence bond structure
O O
O O
Resonance hybrids
O O O O
(ii) Preparation
Electric discharge
3O2
→ 2O3 ∆H(25°C) = +142 kJ
(iii) Properties
• O3 has a characteristic sharp smell, often associated with sparking in electrical equipment.
• O3 is an extremely powerful oxidizing agent, which can be attributed to the formation of nascent oxygen.
• Some reactions depicting oxidizing nature of ozone are given as follows:
(iv) Uses
Disinfectant, mild bleaching agent and an oxidizing agent.
16. Sulphur
(a) Allotropic forms
Melting Specific grav-
Allotrope point (K) ity (g cm–3) Preparation Arrangement of S atoms
Rhombic
Occurs naturally as large yel- All three forms
sulphur or 385.8 2.069
low crystals in volcanic areas. contain puckered S8
a-sulphur
rings with a crown
Made by melting the rhombic
Monoclinic or conformation, and
393 1.94–2.01 sulphur in a dish and then
b -sulphur differ only in the
allowing it to cool.
overall packing
Made by chilling hot concen- of the rings in the
g -Monoclinic 2.19
trated solutions of S in solvents crystal.
sulphur
such as CS2, toluene or EtOH.
205.7 pm
S S
Engel’s Contains S6 rings
sulphur arranged in chair
(e -sulphur) conformation. 102.2°
S S
Tip Transition temperature (369 K) is the temperature at which both a and b forms are stable. Above the transition
temperature, b form is stable and gets converted into a form below it and vice versa.
O
S
O
+ +
S S
− −
O O O O
(ii) Preparation
• By burning S in air.
S(s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)
• By burning H2S in air.
H2S(g) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g) + H2 (g)
• By roasting various metal sulphide ores with air in smelters.
4FeS2 (s) + 11O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3 (s) + 8SO2 (g)
• By treating a sulphite with dilute sulphuric acid.
+
SO2−
3 ( aq) + 2H ( aq) → H2O + SO2 ( g)
(iii) Properties
• Sulphur dioxide is a colourless gas (b.p. −10°C, m.p. −75.5°C) and is very soluble in water.
• It reacts with aqueous NaOH to form sodium sulphite and later bisulphate.
2NaOH + SO2 → Na2SO3 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O + SO2 → 2NaHSO3
• It reacts with chlorine in the presence of charcoal as catalyst to form sulphuryl chloride.
• Laboratory test for SO2: It turns a moist acidified potassium dichromate solution green, due to the formation of Cr3+ and
acts as a reducing agent.
K 2Cr2O7 + 3SO2 + H2SO 4 → Cr2 (SO 4 )3 + K 2SO 4 + H2O
It also turns starch iodate paper blue (due to starch and I2).
2KIO3 + 5SO2 + 4H2O → I2 + 2KHSO 4 + 3H2SO 4
(iv) Uses
Manufacture of H2SO4, making sulphites SO32− (for bleaching, and for preserving food and wine), as a non-aqueous solvent.
(c) Oxoacids of sulphur
(i) Sulphurous acid series
S
Sulphurous acid H2SO3 HO O +IV
HO
(Continued)
(Continued)
Name Formula Structure Oxidation number
S
Thiosulphurous acid H2S2O2 +IV, −II
HO S OH
O O
Di or pyrosulphurous acid H2S2O5 HO S S +V, +III
OH
O
S
Thiosulphuric acid H2S2O3 HO S OH +VI, −II
O
O O
Di or pyrosulphuric H2S2O7 S S +VI
O O O
OH OH
O O
O O
Peroxo disulphuric acid or
H2S2O8 S S +VI
Marshall’s acid O O O O
HO OH
(a) The atomic and ionic radii increase from F to I as the number of quantum shells increase.
(b) The atomic radii of halogens are the smallest in the respective periods due to maximum effective attraction of electrons by the
nuclear charge.
(c) The ionization enthalpies of the halogens decreases as the atoms increase in size. There is little tendency for the atoms to lose
electrons and form positive ions.
Tip The ionization enthalpy for F is appreciably higher than for the others, because of its small size.
(d) The electron gain enthalpies for all the halogens are negative.
(e) The electronegativity of the halogens is very high and it decreases from F to I. Fluorine is the most electronegative element in
the Group.
(f) The melting and boiling points of the elements increase with increased atomic number.
(g) All the elements exist as diatomic molecules, and they are all coloured.
Tip The colours arise from the absorption of light on promoting an electron from the ground state to a higher state.
(h) Bond energy in the X2 molecules decrease as the atoms become larger, other than F2. The bond energy in F2 is abnormally low
contributing to its very high reactivity.
18. Chemical properties of Group 17 elements
(a) Oxidation states
(i) Fluorine is always univalent while in Cl, Br and I, the oxidation state may be either (–1) or (+1).
(ii) Cl, Br and I also exhibit higher valencies, with oxidation numbers of (+III), (+V) and (+VII).
(iii) The oxidation states (+4) and (+6) occur in the oxides ClO2, BrO2, Cl2O6 and BrO3.
(iv) Chlorine has the highest electron gain enthalpy with a negative sign, so gaseous Cl atoms accept electrons most readily.
However, Cl is not the strongest oxidizing agent.
(v) Fluorine accepts electrons more readily than chlorine, so fluorine is the strongest oxidizing agent. There are two main
reasons for this change of order:
• F2 has a low enthalpy of dissociation (arising from the weakness of the F F bond).
• F2 has a high enthalpy of hydration (arising from the smaller size of the F− ion).
(b) Anomalous behaviour of fluorine
The reasons for the difference of fluorine from remaining group are:
(i) The first element is smaller than the rest, and holds its electrons more firmly.
(ii) It has no low-lying d orbitals which may be used for bonding.
(iii) HF is a liquid, while HCl and HBr are gases.
Tip The great reactivity of fluorine leading to exothermic reactions is attributable to two factors:
(i) The low dissociation energy of the F F bond (which results in low activation energy for the reaction).
(ii) The very strong bonds which are formed with other elements.
(Continued)
Reaction Comment
All the halogens form trihalides.
3X2 + 2P → PX3 As, Sb and Bi also form trihalides.
5X2 + 2P → PX5 F, Cl and Br form pentahalides.
AsF5, SbF5, BiF5, SbCl5
X2 + 2S → S2X2 Cl and Br
2Cl2 + S → SCl4 Cl only
3F2 + S → SF6 F only
X2 + H2S → 2HX + S All the halogens oxidize S2– to S.
• By the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solutions where it is liberated at anode in the manufacture of NaOH.
Electrolysis
2NaCl + 2H2O
→ 2NaOH + Cl2 + 2H2
• By Deacon’s process where HCl gas is oxidized by atmospheric oxygen in the presence of CuCl2 (catalyst) at 723 K.
CuCl
4HCl + O2
2
→ 2Cl2 + 2H2O
(ii) Properties
Reaction with Example
Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HOCl
Water
As a result of this reaction, chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing.
Bleaching action
Cl2 + H2O → 2HCl + O
Metals Cl2 + 2Na → 2NaCl
(Continued)
(Continued)
Reaction with Example
3Cl2 + 8NH3 → N2 + 6NH4 Cl
Ammonia
3Cl2 (excess) + NH3 → 3HCl + NCl3
Oxidation of
sulphur dioxide Cl2 + SO2 + 2H2O → H2SO 4 + 2HCl
(ii) Properties
K = 107
• Reaction with water: HCl(g) + H2O(l)
a
→ H3O+ (aq) + Cl− (aq)
• Decomposition of salts of weaker acids: K 2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O + CO2
• Reaction with ammonia: HCl + NH3 → NH4 Cl
(c) Oxoacids of halogens
Four series of oxoacids formed by halogens are HOX, HXO2, HXO3 and HXO4.
− − − O −
x x x x
O O O O O O
O O O
OX XO−2 XO3− XO4−
(d) Interhalogen compounds
The halogens react with each other to form interhalogen compounds. These are divided into four types XX′, XX′ 3 , XX′ 5 and XX′7.
(X = halogen of larger size, X′ = halogen of smaller size).
(i) Preparation
They can all be prepared by direct reaction between the halogens
200° C
Cl2 + F2 (equal volumes) → 2ClF
(e) A few ions are known, consisting of two or more atoms of which at least one is N, that have properties similar to those of the
halide ions. They are therefore called pseudohalide ions as shown in the below table.
Anion Acid Dimer
CN− Cyanide ion HCN Hydrogen cyanide (CN)2 Cyanogen
SCN− Thiocyanate ion HSCN Thiocyanic acid (SCN)2 Thiocyanogen
SeCN− Selenocyanate ion HOCN Cyanic acid (SeCN)2 Selenocyanogen
OCN− Cyanate ion H2NCN Cyanamide
NCN2− Cyanamide ion HOCN Fulminic acid
ONC− Fulminate ion HN3 Hydrogen azide
N3− Azide ion
The best known pseudohalide is CN−. This resembles Cl−, Br− and I− in the following respects:
(i) It forms an acid HCN.
(ii) It can be oxidized to form a molecule cyanogen (CN)2.
(iii) It forms insoluble salts with Ag+, Pb2+ and Hg+.
(iv) Interpseudohalogen compounds ClCN, BrCN and ICN can be formed.
(v) AgCN is insoluble in water but soluble in ammonia, as is AgCl.
(vi) It forms a large number of complexes similar to halide complexes, e.g. [Cu(CN)4]2− and [CuCl4]2−, and [Co(CN)6]3− and [CoCl6]3−.
20. General properties of Group 18 elements
The elements of Group 18 have been called the inert gases or the rare gases.
Atomic Atomic First ionization m.p. b.p.
Elements Occurrence number Electronic configuration radius (pm) enthalpy (kJ mol−1) (çC) (çC)
He 2 1s2 120 2372 –269.0
Ne 10 [He] 2s2 2p6 160 2080 –248.6 –246.0
Ar Atmosphere 18 [Ne] 3s2 3p6 191 1521 –189.4 –186.0
Kr 36 [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p6 200 1351 –157.2 –153.6
Xe 54 [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p6 220 1170 –111.8 –108.1
Decay of radioactive radi-
Rn 86 [Xe] 4ƒ14 5d10 6s2 6p6 1037 –71 –62
um and thorium minerals
(a) Helium has two electrons which form a complete shell 1s2. The other noble gases have a closed octet of electrons in their outer
shell ns2 np6. This electronic configuration is very stable explaining their inertness.
(b) These atoms have an electron affinity of zero and have very high ionization energies.
(c) Under normal conditions, the noble gas atoms have little tendency to gain or lose electrons. Thus, they have high electron gain
enthalpy, little tendency to form bonds, and so they exist as single atoms.
(d) They have high ionization enthalpy which decreases on descending the group due to increase in atomic size.
(e) The atomic radii of the elements are all very large, and increase on descending the group.
21. (a) Chemical properties of Group 18 elements
(i) Xenon–fluorine and Xenon–oxygen compounds
Oxida- m.p.
Formula Name tion state (çC) Structure Preparation
F
400°C, 1 bar
2 : 1 mixture XeF2
Linear 600°C, 7 bar
→
Xenon diflu-
XeF2 +2 129 (RnF2 and XeCl2 Xe Xe + F2 → 1 : 5 mixture XeF4
oride
are similar)
→
F F
Xenon Square planar Xe
XeF4 +4 117
tetrafluoride (XeCl4 is similar)
F F
(Continued)
(Continued)
Oxida- m.p.
Formula Name tion state (çC) Structure Preparation
F
Pyramidal
3XeF4 + 6H2O → 2Xe + XeO3 + 12HF
Xenon Ex- (tetrahedral Xe
XeO3 +6 + 121 O2
trioxide plodes with one corner O O
unoccupied)
XeF6 + 6H2O → XeO3 + 6HF
O
Pyramidal
Trigonal bipyr- O
amid Xe
Xenon dioxy
XeO2F2 +6 30.8 (with one
difluoride
position unoc- O
cupied)
F
XeO2F2
O
Square pyram- F F 2XeF6 + SiO2 → XeOF4 + SiF4
Xenon oxy idal
XeOF4 tetra fluo- +6 –46 (octahedral with Xe
XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
ride one position F F XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F4 + 4HF
unoccupied)
Square pyramidal
O
Xenon Xe
XeO4 +8 –35.9 Tetrahedral
tetroxide O
O O
F
Xenon trioxy Trigonal bipyr- O
XeO3F2 +8 –54.1 O Xe
difluoride amid O
F
Barium dec. >
Ba2[XeO6]4– +8 Octahedral
perxenate 300
(Continued)
(Continued)
Reaction type Example
XeF2 + 2HCl → 2HF + Xe + Cl2
Oxidation
XeF4 + 4KI → 4KF + Xe + 2I2
SO + XeF2 + Ce(SO 4 )3 → 2CeIV (SO 4 )2 + Xe + F2
SOLVED EXAMPLES
General Properties of Group 13 Elements (a) The atomic radius of gallium (Ga) is larger than that of alu-
minium (Al) because it lies below Al in the Group.
1. Which of these statements is not true? (b) Compounds such as AlCl3 and GaCl3 are covalent when
(a) NO + is not isoelectronic with O2. anhydrous but form cations in solution.
(b) B is always covalent in its compounds. (c) Both aluminium and thallium form trihalides only.
(c) In aqueous solution, the Tl (I) ion is much more stable than (d) Aluminium compounds are detected in solution when
Tl (III). addition of NH4OH gives white precipitate of Al(OH)3 that
(d) LiAlH4 is a versatile reducing agent in organic synthesis. dissolves in excess NH4OH.
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution
Solution
(b) The elements of Group 13 generally form covalent com-
(a), (b), (c), (d) All the options are correct. pounds because the sum of three ionization enthalpies
(a) The number of electrons in NO+ is 14 while O2 has 16 elec- for each element is high. The change from covalent to
trons. Thus, they are not isoelectronic. ionic happens for compounds such as AlCl3 and GaCl3
(b) Due to small size and high ionization enthalpy boron when the compounds are hydrated and the amount of
always form covalent compounds. hydration enthalpy is more than the ionization enthalpy.
(c) The Tl (I) ion is much more stable than Tl (III) due to inert The compounds thus ionize in solution.
pair effect. For option (a): The atomic radius generally decreases
(d) LiAlH4 is widely used as reducing agent in organic synthesis. on moving down a Group. However, atomic radius Ga
is smaller than that of Al due to ineffective shielding by
2. Which one of the following is an electron-deficient species?
− intervening 3d orbitals.
(a) B2H6 (b) NH3 (c) AIH4 (d) CH4
For option (c): Aluminium halide is trivalent, while thal-
Solution lium halide is monovalent. This is because of the inert
pair effect which causes the two s-electrons of the out-
(a) After having 3 center-2 electron bonds also, B2H6 is still
ermost electronic shell to remain non-participative in
electron deficient. The octet/duplet is complete for the
bonding. The trend increases down the Group, so Ga that
central atom in the rest of the hydrides, so they are not
comes after Al in the Group also forms trihalides (e.g.,
electron deficient.
GaF3) but thallium (the last element in the Group) has
H N only one p-electron available for bond forming and forms
H B B H TlCl only.
H H NH3: H H H
For option (d): The precipitate of Al(OH)3 formed does not
B2H6: H dissolve in excess NH4OH.
− H
H 4. The BCl3 is a planar molecule, whereas NCl3 is pyramidal
Al C because
(a) N Cl bond is more covalent than B Cl bond.
AlH−4: H H H CH4: H H H
(b) B Cl bond is more polar than N Cl bond.
(c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron.
3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Group (d) BCl3 has no lone pair but NCl3 has one lone pair of
13 elements/compounds? electrons.
12. Number of hydroxyl groups attached to boron in borax are (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) four. (b) five. (c) six. (d) ten. (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution
Solution
(a) Borax (Na2[B4O5(OH)4]·8H2O) is made up of two triangu-
(b) The amphoteric behaviour of Al(OH)3 can be explained
lar and two tetrahedral units. This ion is [B4O5(OH)4]2– and
when it reacts with acid and base. Al2O3∙ xH2O exist in
the other water molecules are associated with the metal
hydrated form. The reactions are
ions.
Al2O3∙ xH2O + H+ → [Al(H2O)6]3+
OH Base Acid
Al2O3∙xH2O + OH− → NaAl(OH)4
B− Acid Base Sodium aluminate
O O Thus, 1 and 3 set of reactions explain amphoteric charac-
HO B O B OH ter of Al2O3∙xH2O.
O O 16. Which of the following is formed when aluminium oxide and
B− carbon are strongly heated in dry chlorine gas?
(a) Aluminium chloride
OH
(b) Hydrated aluminium chloride
Thus, four OH groups are attached to boron in borax. (c) Anhydrous aluminium chloride
13. The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains (d) Aluminium carbide
(a) four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds. Solution
(b) two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds. (c) When aluminium oxide and carbon are strongly heated
(c) two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds. in dry chlorine gas anhydrous aluminium chloride is
(d) four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds. formed. The reaction involved is
Solution 100°C
Al2O3 + 3C + 3Cl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3CO
(a) Aluminium Anhydrous
2c-2e 3c-2e
H oxide aluminium chloride
bond bond
H H 17. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6, in solid state as
well as in solution of non-polar solvents such as benzene.
B B 2c-2e When dissolved in water, it gives
bond (a) [Al(OH)6]3− + 3HCl (b) Al2O3 + 6HCl
H H (c) Al3+ + 3Cl− (d) [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl−
H
Solution
2c-2e 3c-2e 2c-2e
bond bond bond (d) AlCl3 is covalent, but in water it becomes ionic due to
large hydration energy of Al3+.
Compounds of Aluminium Al2Cl6 + 6H2O → 2AlCl3∙ 6H2O or [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl−
14. Which one of the following is the correct statement? 18. Heating an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride to dry-
(a) Boric acid is a protonic acid. ness will give
(b) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six. (a) AlCl3 (b) Al2Cl6
(c) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged (c) Al2O3 (d) Al(OH)Cl2
chloride structures in solid phase. Solution
(d) B2H6⋅2NH3 is known as “inorganic benzene”.
(c) Al2Cl6∙ 6H2O → Al2O3 + 6HCl + 3H2O
(AIEEE 2008)
Solution General Properties of Group 14 Elements
(c) The structures of AlCl3 and BeCl2 are as follows: 19. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl in the sequence:
Al Al Be Be Be (a) PbX2 SnX2 GeX2 SiX2
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
(b) GeX2 SiX2 SnX2 PbX2
B3N3 is called inorganic benzene and boric acid is a Lewis acid.
(c) SiX2 GeX2 PbX2 SnX2
15. In the following sets of reactants, which two sets best exhibit
the amphoteric character of Al2O3⋅ xH2O? (d) SiX2 GeX2 SnX2 PbX2
(AIEEE 2007)
Set1: Al2O3. xH2O (s) and OH−(aq) Solution
Set2: Al2O3. xH2O (s) and H2O (l) (d) Due to inert pair effect, the stability of +2 oxidation state
Set3: Al2O3. xH2O (s) and H+ (aq) increases as we move down the group. Therefore,
Set4: A12O3. xH2O (s) and NH3 (aq) SiX2 GeX2 SnX2 PbX2
20. In which of the following pairs, the two species are not 22. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid
isostructural? state?
(a) PCl+4 and SiCl4 (b) BF4− and SF4 (a) Silicon (b) Sulphur
(c) SF6 and AlF63− (d) CO2 and NO2+ (c) Phosphorus (d) Iodine
Solution (JEE Main 2013)
(b) Solution
For option (a): Tetrahedral, tetrahedral (a) Silicon (Si) exists as covalent solid, sulphur (S8) exists as
+ molecular solid, phosphorus (P4) exists as molecular solid
Cl Cl and iodine (I2) exists as molecular solid.
P Si 23. The gas evolved on heating CaF2 and SiO2 with concentrated
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl H2SO4, on hydrolysis gives a white gelatinous precipitate. The
precipitate is
For option (b): Tetrahedral, see-saw (a) hydrofluosilicic acid. (b) silica gel.
BF4− has 4 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs on cen- (c) silicic acid. (d) calciumfluorosilicate.
tral atom. Hence, boron is sp3 hybridized and (JEE Main Online 2014)
tetrahedral in shape.
− Solution
F
(c) Silica is unreactive but its product when it reacts with
B H2SO4 and CaF2 followed by hydrolysis is
F F F H2SO4 + CaF2 → HF + CaSO4
SF4 has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair on the central atom. HF + SiO2 → SiF4 + H2O
Hence, sulphur is sp3d hybridized and see-saw in shape.
SiF4 + H2O → HF + Si(OH)4 or SiO2∙ 2H2O
F
Silicic acid
S F
F SiF4 comes in contact with a drop of H2O and hydrolyzed
F to silicic acid. This can be seen as white solid forming on
the surface of drop of water.
For option (c): Octahedral, octahedral
3−
24. Example of a three-dimensional silicate is
F F (a) zeolites. (b) ultramarines.
F F F F (c) feldspars. (d) beryls.
(JEE Main Online 2014)
S Al
Solution
F F F F (a), (b), (c) Zeolites, ultramarines and feldspars are all three
dimensional silicates.
F F
For option (d): Linear, linear 25. The water repellant characteristics of silicone is because
+ (a) Si atom has no vacant d-orbital available for nucleophillic
O C O O N O
attack by water molecule.
Compounds of Silicon (b) Silicone chain is surrounded by organic side groups and
looks like an alkane from outside.
21. Among the following substituted silanes, the one which will
(c) The average chain lengths of silicones are very high.
give rise to crosslinked silicone polymer on hydrolysis is
(d) Low thermal stability.
(a) R4Si (b) RSiCl3
(c) R2SiCl2 (d) R3SiCl Solution
(AIEEE 2008) (b)
Solution R R R R
(b) Hydrolysis of alkyl trichlorosilane RSiCl3 gives complex Si O Si O Si O Si
cross linked polymer.
R R R R
Si Si The Si O Si skeleton is protected by water repelling
O O alkyl groups that orient themselves towards the surface
Cl H2O
OH Condensation creating a water proof structure, like an alkane.
R Si Cl R Si OH R Si O Si R Option (a) is incorrect as Si has vacant 3d orbital.
Polymerization
Cl OH Option (c) is incorrect as there is no relation between
O O
chain length and water repelling characteristics.
Si Si
n
26. How many oxygen atoms are shared by silicate units in form- basic strength decreases as we move from NH3
ing pyrosilicates? to BiH3.
(a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 In option (d): Increasing ionization enthalpy: B < C < O < N.
Nitrogen has half-filled orbitals which have
Solution
extra stability so removal of electron is difficult
(b) The structure is as compared to B, C, O.
− −
29. Which of the following statements is wrong?
− − O
Si (a) Nitrogen cannot form dp–pp bond.
− − (b) Single N N bond is weaker than the single P P bond.
Si2O6−
7 ion (c) N2O4 has two resonance structures.
(d) The stability of hydrides increases from NH3 to BiH3 in
27. In silicon dioxide
Group 15 of the periodic table.
(a) each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms
(AIEEE 2011)
and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms.
Solution
(b) each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms
and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms. (d) Except statement (d) all the statements are correct.
(c) silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms. Stability of hydrides decreases down the group from
(d) there are double bonds between silicon and oxygen NH3 to BiH3 as the M H bond energy decreases. In other
atoms. words, as we move down the group the size of the central
atom increases, and hence its tendency to form covalent
Solution bond with small H atom decreases.
(a) Si is tetrahedrally surrounded by four O atoms. Each cor-
30. The molecule having smallest bond angle is
ner is shared with another tetrahedron, thus giving an
(a) NCl3 (b) AsCl3
infinite array. The difference between these structures is
(c) SbCl3 (d) PCl3
the way in which the tetrahedral SiO4 units are arranged.
(AIEEE 2012)
Si O Si O Si Solution
(c) On moving down in a group from nitrogen to antimony
O O O (Sb), the size of the central metal atom increases and
Si O Si O Si electronegativity decreases. As a result, lone pair–bond
pair repulsions increase and bond angle decreases.
O O O The order of increase in bond angle is
Si O Si O Si NCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3 > SbCl3
31. Which one of the following does not have a pyramidal shape?
General Properties of Group 15 Elements (a) (CH3)3 N (b) (SiH3)3N
(c) P(CH3)3 (d) P(SiH3)3
28. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not (JEE Main Online 2014)
strictly according to the property written against it?
(a) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2: Increasing oxidizing power. Solution
(b) HF < HCl < HBr < HI: Increasing acidic strength.
(b)
(c) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3: Increasing basic strength.
H3Si
(d) B < C < O < N: Increasing first ionization enthalpy.
(AIEEE 2009)
Solution N SiH3
(c)
SiH3
In option (a): Increasing oxidizing power: CO2 < SiO2 <
SnO2 < PbO2. This is because Pb in (+4) oxidation
state is the strongest oxidizing agent. Due to back bonding between N and Si atoms, (SIH3)3N
becomes planar.
PbO + 4HCl → PbCl + Cl2 + H2O
32. The best reducing agent among the following is
In option (b): Increasing acid strength: HF < HCl < HBr < HI. (a) NH3 (b) SbH3 (c) PH3 (d) AsH3
Higher bond dissociation energy, lower is the
degree of ionization and hence weaker is the Solution
acid and the bond dissociation energy is high- (b) In moving from top to bottom in a group, the reducing
est for HF. nature of hydride increases. Also, in moving from top to
In option (c): Increasing order of basic strength: SbH3 < AsH3 < bottom in a group, the bond length increases as size of
PH3 < NH3. As the size of central atom increases, central atom increases hence bond energy decreases and
the electron density on the central metal atom bond gets easily cleaved.
decreases and consequently its tendency to The increasing order of reducing agent is NH3 < PH3 <
donate a pair of electrons decreases. Hence, the AsH3 < SbH3.
34. The element that has the least tendency to show the inert- 38. (NH4)2CrO7 on heating liberates a gas. The same gas will be
pair effect is obtained by
(a) B (b) P (c) S (d) N (a) heating NH4NO2. (b) heating NH4NO3.
Solution (c) treating Mg3N2 with H2O. (d) heating H2O2 on NaNO2.
(d) Nitrogen since it can remove s electron only by remov- Solution
ing 3p electron. Therefore, net energy required is very (a) The reactions involved are
high which is unable to be overcome by lattice enthalpy, ∆
which is even less than B. (NH4 )Cr2O7
→ N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O
Chemical Properties of Group 15 Elements
Both evolve N2 gas.
35. The acid strength of the following hydrides increases in the
order: 39. N2 forms NCl3 whereas P can form both PCl3 and PCl5. Why?
(a) SiH4 < PH3 < H2S < HCl (b) H2S < PH3 < HCl < SiH4 (a) P has d orbitals which can be used for bonding but N2
(c) PH3 < H2S < HCl < SiH4 (d) H2S < SiH4 < PH3 < HCl does not have d orbitals.
(b) N atom is larger than P in size.
Solution
(c) P is more reactive towards Cl than N.
(a) As the polarity of the bond increases with increase in (d) The size of N is comparable to Cl while P size is greater
∆ c (electronegativity difference in a period from left to than that of Cl.
right with hydrogen), the tendency to lose H+ increases
in polar solvent. Solution
(a) P has empty d orbitals which can be used for bonding
36. Choose the correct options from the following orders. whereas N2 does not have d orbitals.
(a) Basicity order: NH3 > NH2 NH2 > NH2OH > NF3
(b) Melting point order: NH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 40. What may be expected to happen when phospine gas is
(c) Boiling point order: NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 mixed with chlorine gas?
(d) Thermal stability: NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 (a) The mixture only cools down.
(b) PCl3 and HCl are formed and the mixture warms up.
Solution
(c) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture cools down.
(a) (d) PH3∙ Cl2 is formed with warming up.
Option (a) is correct as all the three bond pairs are
attracted towards N-atom and increase the electron den- Solution
sity on N-atom in the case of NH3. While in the case of (b) The reaction is
NH2 NH2, bond pair is not attracted towards any
PH3 + Cl2 → PCl3 + HCl
N-atom; for NH2OH oxygen withdraws the bond pair
towards itself; and finally in NF3, three F-atom having −I
effect decrease the electron density on N-atom. Compounds of Phosphorus
Option (b) is incorrect as due to H-bonding in NH3, the 41. Which of the following compounds has a P P bond?
effective molecular mass increases, and overcomes all (a) H3PO4 (b) H4P2O6
other molecular masses. Thus, the melting point is high- (c) H4P2O7 (d) (HPO3)3
est in NH3.
(JEE Main Online 2015)
Option (c) is incorrect as at the boiling point temperature,
the extent of H-bonding is less and cannot overcome the Solution
molecular weight of SbH3. (b) Hypophosphoric acid contains P P linkage.
Option (d) is incorrect as the thermal stability depends O O
upon bond energy of M H bond, which is the highest
(shortest bond length) for NH3 and thus it has the highest P P
stability. HO OH
HO OH
37. PH3 and NH3 on separate reaction with bleaching powder Pyrophosphoric acid (H4P2O7) contains four P OH, two
produce respectively P O and one P O P bonds.
(a) P and N2. (b) PCl3 and NCl3. Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4) contains three P OH and
(c) PCl3 and N2. (d) PCl5 and NCl3. one P O bonds.
(b) Phosphorous acid on heating produces phosphine. (a), (b), (c), (d)
O
3H3PO2
∆
→ PH3 + 2H3PO3 Option (a): Correct, as O O is bent.
Option (b): Correct, as ozone is violet-black in solid state.
44. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Option (c): Correct, as ozone is a diamagnetic gas.
PH3 molecule? Option (d): Correct, as ONCl contains 32 electrons and
(a) It is extremely toxic and colorless gas ONO− contains 24 electrons. Hence they are not
(b) It has rotten fish smell isoelectronic.
(c) It is formed by hydrolysis of Na3P
(d) PH3 is highly soluble in water 48. Which of the following is the hybridized state of oxygen atom
in ozone molecule?
Solution (a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d
(d)
Solution
Option (a): is correct (information based)
Option (b): is correct (information based) (b) Ozone can be represented in terms of the following reso-
Option (c): is correct (Concept based) nance structures.
Solution 56. Which of the following is formed when HgO is treated with
(d) The structure of S3O9 is chlorine?
(a) ClO2 (b) Cl2O (c) Cl2O6 (d) Cl2O7
O O
S Solution
O O
O O (b) HgO + Cl2 → HgCl2∙ HgO + Cl2O
S S
O O O 57. What is the correct order of oxidizing nature among halogens?
(a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (b) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2
51. Which of the following species does not contain S S linkage?
(c) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (d) I2 < Br < F2 < Cl2
(a) S2O22− (b) S2 O32− (c) S2 O52− (d) SO32−
Solution
Solution
(a) The electrode potential value for F2 is the maximum and
(d)
that for I2 is the minimum.
O O
S O 58. Which of the following is formed when ICl3 is treated with
− −
S O O S S O water?
S S S (a) HIO (b) HIO2 (c) HIO3 (d) HIO4
− O−
O
− O
− O
− O
− O O
Solution
52. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxydisulphuric acid produces (c) ICl3 + H2O → ICl + HIO3 + HCl
(a) two moles of sulphuric acid.
(b) two moles of peroxymonosulphuric acid. Oxoacids of Halogens
(c) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxymono- 59. Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing order
sulphuric acid. of acid strength is
(d) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxymonosul- (a) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
phuric acid and one mole of hydrogen peroxide. (b) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3
Solution (c) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl
(d) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl
(a) Hydrolysis of peroxydisulphuric acid yields H2SO4
(JEE Main 2014)
O O O Solution
HO S O O S OH 2 HO S OH (c) Let us consider the stabilities of the conjugate bases,
ClO−, ClO2−, ClO3− and ClO4− formed from the acids, HClO,
O O O HClO2, HClO3 and HClO4, respectively. These anions are
stabilized by the delocalization of the charge over oxy-
53. The number of S S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer S3O9 is gen atoms. More oxygen atom causes more delocaliza-
(a) three. (b) two. (c) one. (d) zero. tion of charge on conjugate base. So, the stability order
of respective conjugate base is:
Solution
(d) No S S bond exists in S3O9. ClO − < ClO2− < ClO3− < ClO 4−
54. Which of the following allotropic forms of sulphur is thermo- Now from conjugate acid base pair definition, more
dynamically most stable? stable anion implies weaker is the conjugate base and
(a) Orthorhombic (b) b -monoclinic stronger is the respective acid. Thus, the acidic strength
(c) g -monoclinic (d) Plastic sulphur decreases in the order
(b) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor 11. The value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18 is
because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3 orbital (IIT-JEE 2010)
and is more directional. Solution
(c) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor (c) Be3Al2Si6O18 (Beryl)
because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3 orbital According to charge balance in a molecule
and is more directional.
2n + 2(+3) + 6(+4) − 18 (2) = 0
(d) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor
n=3
because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical
s-orbital and is less directional. 12. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is
Solution ____.
(c) On moving from top to bottom in a group, the bond H3PO4 H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO3 H2S2O7
angle decreases due to more p character in the bond
pair and subsequently more s character in the lone pair H3BO3 H3PO2 H2CrO4 H2SO3
orbital. (IIT-JEE 2010)
7c. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of Solution
the products. This is a (6) H2SO4, H3PO3, H2CO3, H2S2O7, H2CrO4, H2SO3
(a) dimerization reaction. H3PO3 is a diprotic acid since one of the proton (hydro-
(b) disproportionation reaction. gen) is bound to the phosphorus atom.
(c) condensation reaction.
13. All the compounds listed Column I react with water. Match
(d) precipitation reaction.
the result of the respective reactions with the appropriate
Solution options listed in Column II.
(b) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
There is a change (increase as well as decrease) in the oxi- Column I Column II
dation state of phosphorus from (0) to (+1) and (–3). (a) (CH3)2SiCl2 (p) Hydrogen halide formation
8. Aqueous solution of Na2S2O3 on reaction with Cl2 gives (b) XeF4 (q) Redox reaction
(a) Na2S4O6 (b) NaHSO4 (c) NaCl (d) NaOH (c) Cl2 (r) Reacts with glass
(IIT-JEE 2008)
(d) VCl5 (s) Polymerization
Solution
(t) O2 formation
(b) Na2S2O3 + 4Cl2 + 5H2O → 2NaHSO4 + 8HCl
(IIT-JEE 2010)
9. The reaction of P4 with X leads selectively to P4O6. Then X is Solution
(a) Dry O2 (b) A mixture of O2 and N2 (a) → p, s; (b) → p, q, r, t; (c) → p, q, t; (d) → p
(c) Moist O2 (d) O2 in the presence of
aqueous NaOH (a) (CH3)2SiCl2 + 2H2O → (CH3)Si(OH)2 + 2HCl
(IIT-JEE 2009) (hydrogen halide formation)
Solution (CH3)Si(OH)2 can undergo polymerization to form
silicones.
(b) P4 + 3O2 → P4O6 3
N2 is used to retard further oxidation. (b) 3XeF4 + 6H2O → XeO3 + 2Xe + 12HF + O2
2
10. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N N bond(s) is (are) (hydrogen halide formation, O2 formation, redox reaction)
(a) N2O (b) N2O3 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O5 (c) Cl2 + H2O → 2HCl + 21 O2
(IIT-JEE 2009) (hydrogen halide formation, O2 formation, redox reaction)
Solution (d) VCl5 + H2O → VOCl3 + 2HCl
(hydrogen halide formation)
(a), (b), (c)
14. Extra pure N2 can be obtained by heating
N2O N N O (a) NH3 with CuO (b) NH4NO3
O (c) (NH4)2CrO7 (d) Ba(N3)2
N2O3 N O N O N N (IIT-JEE 2011)
O O O Solution
N2O4 O O (d) It can be obtained by the thermal decomposition of bar-
N N ium nitride, that is,
O O Ba(N3)2 → Ba + 3N2(g)
O O 15. Among the following, the number of compounds that can
N2O5
N O N react with PCl5 to give POCl3 is ____.
O O O2, CO2, SO2, H2O, H2SO4, P4O10 (IIT-JEE 2011)
Solution Solution
(5) (b), (d) Diamond is hard and graphite is soft. Graphite is a
CO2 + PCl5 → POCl3 + COCl2 good conductor of electricity as it has one free electron
PCl5 + H2O → POCl3 + 2HCl which is responsible for the conduction.
PCl5 + SO2 → POCl3 + SOCl2 Diamond has higher thermal conductivity than graphite
because the structure of diamond is precise and thus the
PCl5 + H2SO 4 → POCl3 + HSO2Cl + HCl
Chlorosulphonic acid
transfer of heat is faster in it.
In case of graphite, the C C bond has a double bond
PCl5 + P4 O10 → 10POCl3 character so its bond order becomes higher than that of
diamond which has only single C C bonds.
16. Which ordering of compounds is according to the decreasing
order of the oxidation state of nitrogen? 20. The correct statement(s) about O3 is (are)
(a) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (b) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (a) O O bond lengths are equal.
(c) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (d) NO, HNO3, NH4Cl, N2 (b) Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic.
(IIT-JEE 2012) (c) O3 is diamagnetic in nature.
Solution (d) O3 has a bent structure.
(JEE Advanced 2013)
(b) In HNO3, the oxidation state of N is +5 while in NO, it is
Solution
+2. In N2, it is zero and in NH4Cl, the oxidation state of
nitrogen is −3. So, the decreasing order of oxidation state (a), (c), (d) As all electrons are paired, ozone is diamagnetic
of nitrogen is HNO3 > NO > N2 > NH4Cl. in nature. The structure is bent or V-shaped. The struc-
ture of ozone is resonance hybrid of the two structures
17. Which of the following hydrogen halides react(s) with with a delocalized p-orbital which covers all three atoms.
AgNO3(aq) to give a precipitate that dissolves in Na2S2O3(aq)? Because of this, the two O O bond lengths are equal.
(a) HCl (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HI
(IIT-JEE 2012) + +
Solution O O O
− −
(a), (c), (d) Only HF does not react with AgNO3. All others O O O O O O
react with AgNO3 to give precipitate of AgX which is sol-
21. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in Column I show
uble in Na2S2O3
missing reagent or condition (?) which are provided in
HX + AgNO3 → AgX ↓ + HNO3 (X = Cl, Br , I) Column II. Match Column I with Column II and select the cor-
rect answer using the code given below the lists.
AgX + Na2S2O3 → Na3 [Ag(S2O3 )2 ] + NaX
Soluble
Column I Column II
5s 5p 5d P Q R S
↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑ (a) 4 2 3 1
F O (b) 3 2 1 4
Xe (c) 1 4 2 3
F O (d) 3 4 2 1
(JEE Advanced 2013)
19. With respect to graphite and diamond, which of the state- Solution
ment(s) given below is (are) correct?
(d) The reactions involved are
(a) Graphite is harder than diamond. warm
(b) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond. (P) PbO2 + H2SO 4 → PbSO4 + H2O + 21 O2
(c) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond. (Q) 2Na2S2O3 + 2H2O + Cl2 → 2NaCl + 2NaHSO4 + 2S
(d) Graphite has higher C C bond order than diamond. (R) N2H4 + 2I2 → N2 + 4HI
(IIT-JEE 2012) (S) XeF2 + 2NO → Xe + 2NOF
22. Paragraph for Questions 22a and 22b: The reactions of Cl2 Complete
gas with cold-dilute and hot-concentrated NaOH in water hydrolysis
XeF6 P + Other product
give sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P
and Q, respectively. The Cl2 gas reacts with SO2 gas, in pres-
ence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with white OH−/H2O
25. Under ambient conditions, the total number of gases released as (a) The central boron atom in boric acid, H3BO3 is elec-
products in the final step of the reaction scheme shown below is tron deficient, so boric acid is a Lewis acid with one
p-orbital vacant. There is no d-orbital of suitable energy in Oxidation state of sulphur in compounds (A), (B), (C) and
boron atom. So, it can accommodate only one additional (D) are as follows:
electron pair in its outermost shell. NaHSO3 = (+1) + (+1) + x + 3(−2) = +4
Na2SO3 = 2(+1) + x + 3(−2) = +4
H2O + B(OH)3 OH+2 The oxidation state of S in Na2S2O3 is +6, and −2.
Base Acid B− S−2
HO OH −
O
OH S+6
O− O
[B(OH)4] − + H+
The oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6 is +5 and 0.
29. (CH3)2 SiCl2 on hydrolysis produces O O
(a) (CH3)2Si(OH)2 (b) (CH3)2Si O +5 0 0 +5
(c) [ O (CH3)2Si O ]n (d) (CH3)2SiCl(OH) O− S S S S O−
Solution O O
(c) It appears at the first sight that Me2SiCl2 on hydrolysis will 31. Which of the following isomers of phosphorus are thermo-
produce Me2Si(OH)2 which ultimately upon loss of water, dynamically least and most stable?
will form Me2Si O. But silicon atom, because of its very (a) White (least), Red (most) (b) Yellow (least), Red (most)
large size in comparison to oxygen, is unable to form (c) Red (least), White (most) (d) White (least), Black (most)
π-bond. Thus, the product of hydrolysis is polymeric in
nature. Solution
(d) Black phosphorous is most layered because it has lay-
SO2 Na2 CO3 Elemental I2 ered structure, whereas white is the least because it is
30. Na2CO3 → (A )
→ (B) Sulphur
/∆
→ (C )
→ (D)
very reactive and catches fire in air (so, it is stored under
Identify the compounds (A), (B), (C), (D), and give oxidation water).
state of sulphur in each compound.
32. A pale blue liquid obtained by equimolar mixture of two
Solution
gases at −30°C is
Na2CO3 + 2SO2 + H2O → 2NaHSO3 + CO2 (a) nitric oxide (b) nitrogen trioxide
(A) (c) nitrogen tetroxide (d) nitrogen pentoxide
2NaHSO3 + Na2CO3 → 2Na2SO3 + H2O + CO2 Solution
(B )
(b) N2O3 can only be obtained at low temperatures. It can be
Na2SO3 + S → 2Na2S2O3
made by condensing equimolar of NO and NO2 together.
(C)
This gives a blue liquid or solid which is unstable and dis-
2Na2S2O3 + I2 → 2Na2S4 O6 + 2NaI sociates into NO and NO2 at −30°C.
(D )
NO + NO2 → N2O3
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 5. Salicylic acid reacts with two equivalent of ICl vapour to
produce
Single Correct Choice Type (a) iodinated product. (b) chlorinated product.
1. Which of the following is not a peroxy acid? (c) mixture of both. (d) virtually no reaction.
(a) Caro’s acid (b) Marshall’s acid 6. Which of the following has the smallest bond angle?
(c) Thiosulphuric acid (d) Sulphurous acid (a) H2S (b) H2O (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
7. The most stable hydrate of noble gases is
2. Which of the following pairs of species are non-linear? (a) Kr ⋅ 4H2O (b) Kr ⋅ 6H2O
(a) OCN− and Br3− (b) (SCN)2 and I5− (c) Xe ⋅ 4H2O (d) Xe ⋅ 6H2O
2−
(c) NCN and N3 − (d) HN3 and (CN)2
8. Which of the following is an organo silicon polymer?
3. Xenon difluoride is (a) Silica (b) Orthosilicic acid
(a) linear. (b) angular. (c) Silicon carbide (d) Silicic acid
(c) trigonal. (d) pyramidal. 9. How many peroxy linkages are present in pyrophosphoric
acid?
4. The reagent used to distinguish between H2O2 and O3 is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(a) PbS. (b) starch and iodine. 10. A + SbF5 → B
(c) KMnO4. (d) bleaching powder. B + tert-butane → [tert-butyl]+ + X− + H2
40. Which of the following statements about H3BO3 is not correct? 51. Which of the following is thermally the most stable?
(a) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax. (a) H2S (b) H2O (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
(b) It has a layered structure in which planar B(OH)3 units are
52. Ozone is
joined by hydrogen bonds.
(a) an unstable, dark blue, diamagnetic gas.
(c) It does not act as proton donor, but acts as Lewis acid by
(b) an unstable, dark blue, paramagnetic gas.
accepting hydroxyl ions.
(c) a stable, dark blue, paramagnetic gas.
(d) It is a strong tribasic acid.
(d) found in the upper atmosphere where it absorbs UV
41. In which of the following elements, +1 oxidation state is more radiation.
stable than +3? Level II
(a) B (b) Al (c) Ga (d) Tl
Multiple Correct Choice Type
42. Which gas is evolved when urea is treated with NaOH?
(a) Ammonia (b) Nitrogen 53. Boric acid
(c) Laughing gas (d) NO (a) exists in polymeric form due to intermolecular hydrogen
bonding.
43. Which one of the following is correct statement? (b) is used in the manufacture of optical glasses.
(a) The hydroxide of aluminium is more acidic than that of (c) is a tribasic acid.
boron. (d) with borax, it is used in the preparation of a buffer
(b) The hydroxide of boron is basic, while that of aluminium solution.
is amphoteric.
(c) The hydroxide of boron is acidic, while that of aluminium 54. The oxidation states exhibited by oxygen in its compounds
is amphoteric. are
(d) The hydroxides of boron and aluminium are amphoteric. (a) −2 (b) −1 (c) +1 (d) +2
44. O3 reacts with KOH solution to produce 55. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
(a) O2 and KO2. (b) O3− and K2O. B2H6?
(c) O2 only. (d) O2 and KO3. (a) Banana bonds are longer but stronger than normal B H
45. Which of the following is the correct regarding B2H6? bonds.
(a) There is direct boron–boron bond. (b) B2H6 is also known as 3c–2e compound.
(b) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges. (c) The hybridization of B in B2H6 is sp3 while that of sp2 in
(c) The structure is similar to C2H6. BH3.
(d) All the atoms are in one plane. (d) It cannot be prepared by reacting BF3 with LiBH3 in the
presence of dry ether.
46. Silicon tetrafluoride reacts with HF to form
(a) SiF2 (b) SiF64− (c) SiF62− (d) H2[SiF4] 56. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Solid PCl5 exists as tetrahedral [PCl4]+ and octahedral
47. Which of the following interhalogen compound is used as [PCl6]− ions.
Wij's reagent? (b) Oxides of phosphorus, P2O3 and P2O5 exist as monomers.
(a) ClF3 (b) ICI (c) CIF (d) IBr (c) Solid PCl5 exists as [PCl4]+ Cl−.
48. Which of the following does not exist? (d) Solid N2O5 exists as NO+2 NO−3.
(a) [CCl6]2− (b) [SiCl6]2− (c) [GeF6]2− (d) [SnCl6]2−
57. In the reaction Al2(SO4)3 + NH4OH → X
49. Which of the following lead oxides is used as vermillion (a) X is a white-coloured compound.
(sindur)? (b) X is insoluble in excess of NH4OH.
(a) PbO (b) Pb2O3 (c) PbO2 (d) Pb3O4 (c) X is soluble in NaOH.
(d) X cannot be used as an antacid.
50. Hydrolysis of dimethyldichlorosilane, (CH3)2SiCl2, followed by
condensation polymerization yields straight-chain polymer of 58. White phosphorus has
O O (a) P P P bond angle is 60°.
(a) (b) four P P single bonds.
O Si Si O
(c) polymeric structure.
O O (d) six P P single bonds.
(b) Si O O Si 59. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c–2e as well as
CH3 CH3 2c–2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas at a certain temper-
ature, gives a compound (Y) isostructural with benzene.
(c) O Si O Si O Compound (X) with ammonia at a high temperature, pro-
CH3 CH3 duces a hard substance (Z). Then
(a) (X) is B2H6.
CH3 CH3
(d) (b) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite.
O Si Si O (c) (Z) having structure similar to graphite.
(d) (Z) having structure similar to (X).
CH3 CH3
60. Which of the following reactions are feasible? The mineral also contains Ca2+ ions, Cu2+ ions and water mol-
(a) Cl2 + 2Br− → 2Cl− + Br2 (b) Br2 + 2F− → 2Br− + F2 ecules in a 1:1:1 ratio mineral is represented as
− −
(c) I2 + 2Br → 2l + Br2 (d) F2 + 2Br− → 2F− + Br2 (a) CaCuSi3O10 ⋅ H2O
(b) CaCuSi3O10 ⋅ 2H2O
61. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(c) Ca2Cu2Si3O10 ⋅ 2H2O
(a) Aluminium is among the best conductors of electricity.
(d) CaCuSi3O10 ⋅ 3H2O
(b) Physical properties of aluminium are characteristic of a
true metal. Paragraph for Questions 68 to 70: The elements of Group 18
(c) Aluminium does not dissolve in aqueous sodium hydrox- have been called “the inert gases” or “the noble gases”. The name
ide solution. “noble gases” implies that they tend to be unreactive. Helium has
(d) Aluminium reacts vigorously with hot conc. HNO3, oxides two electrons which form a complete shell 1s2. The other noble
of nitrogen are evolved. gases have a closed octet of electrons in their outer shell ns2 np6.
62. Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur? This electronic configuration is very stable and is related to their
(a) H2S2O8 (b) H2SO3 (c) H2SO5 (d) H2S2O3 chemical inactivity. The low boiling points of the lighter noble
gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms and
63. On the basis of structure of graphite, which of the following is the absence of other interatomic interactions. Xe reacts directly
(are) correct? only with F2 to give a series of compounds with oxidation states
(a) It is a diamagnetic substance. (+2), (+4) and (+6). Xenon–oxygen compounds can be obtained
(b) It behaves like metal as well as semiconductor. from fluorides. XeF4 reacts violently with water to give XeO3. The
(c) C C bond length in it is more than the diamond. compounds of xenon exhibit varied geometries that can be pre-
(d) It is thermodynamically more stable as well as more dicted on the basis of the total number of electron pairs in the
dense than diamond. valence shell.
64. The noble gases which are lighter than air are 68. The structure of XeOF4 is
(a) Ar. (b) He. (c) Ne. (d) Kr. (a) linear. (b) planar.
(c) pyramidal. (d) T-shaped.
Passage Type
69. XeF2 and XeF4 are
Paragraph for Questions 65 to 67: Silica covers an entire group of (a) oxidizing. (b) reducing.
minerals, which have the general formula SiO2, the most common (c) unreactive. (d) strongly basic.
of which is quartz, which is a framework silicate with SiO4 tetrahe-
dra arranged in spirals. The spirals can turn in a clockwise or anti- 70. Argon is used in metallurgical processes because of its
clockwise direction resulting in two mirror images, optically active, (a) low reactivity with metal.
varieties of quartz. (b) ability to lower the melting point of metal.
(c) flammability.
65. The following structures represent various silicate anions. (d) high calorific value.
Their formulas are respectively
Matrix-Match Type
Silicon
Oxygen 71. Match the characteristics with the compound.
Column I Column II
(a) Lower oxidation state (+1) is (p) InCl
more stable
(a) SiO23 − and Si3O72 − (b) SiO 44 − and Si3O10
8−
(b) Covalent when anhydrous (q) Tl
(c) SiO24− and Si3O26 − (d) SiO34 − and Si3O78 − (c) Shows disproportionation (r) Al
reaction
(d) Undergoes thermite reaction (s) GaCl3
66. Si3O2−
9 (having three tetrahedral) is represented as
72. Match the reactions with the characteristic of products.
73. Match the compound with its characteristics. 75. The most common oxidation state of sulphur is ___.
Column I Column II 76. The number of isomers possible for distributed borazine,
(a) Inorganic benzene (p) An allotrope of carbon B3N3H4X2 is ______.
(b) Graphite (q) Orthosilicate 77. Amongst the following, the number of interhalogen mole-
(c) Phenacite (r) An ore of tin cules/ions is___.
(d) Cassiterite (s) Borazine (B3N3H6) XeO3, BrO3−, ClF, XeF2, OF2, XeF4, ICI4−, ClO−, IBr2−
78. Total number of elements of Groups 13 and 14 which form
Integer Type
basic oxides is ______.
74. The number of electrons in sp3 hybridized atom in one mole-
cule of borax is ______.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (d)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (d) 42. (a)
43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a)
49. (d) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (a)
Level II
53. (a), (b), (d) 54. (a), (b), (c), (d) 55. (a), (b), (c) 56. (b), (c) 57. (a), (b), (c) 58. (a), (d)
59. (a), (b), (c) 60. (a), (d) 61. (c), (d) 62. (a), (c) 63. (a), (b) 64. (b), (c)
65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (a) → q; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → r 72. (a) → q, s; (b) → p; (c) → s; (d) → r, s
73. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → r 74. (2) 75. (6) 76. (4) 77. (3)
78. (2)
10. (b) HF reacts with SbF5 to produce super acid H+[SbF6]– and
H H H H H
this super acid reacts with tertiary H-atom of a hydrocar-
B B N N
bon producing H2.
H H H H H
11. (a) H2SO5 is known as Caro’s acid. Diborane Hydrazine
12. (d) Sn + 4HNO3 → H2SnO3 + 4NO2 + H2O 31. (d) Some of the pseudohalide ions combine to form dimers
13. (d) Conceptual comparable with the halogen molecules X2. These
include cyanogen (CN)2, thiocyanogen (SCN)2 and sele-
14. (b) Correct Ionic mobility order: F−(aq) < Cl−(aq) < Br−(aq) nocyanogen (SeCN)2.
< I−(aq).
Correct stability order: Cl3− < Br3− < I3−. 32. (a) N has the oxidation states from +1 to +5 in the following
Correct reactivity order: F > Cl > Br > I. compounds: N2O, NO, NO2, N2O3, N2O3, N2O5.
Correct oxidizing powder order: F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. 33. (d) Due to electron-deficient nature of BH3, it forms three
15. (d) Conceptual electron two bonds and dimerizes to B2H6. For normal
covalent bond, 16 electrons are required, but in B2H6
16. (a) XeF4 is solid under ordinary conditions. (diborane) there are only 12 valence electrons: three from
17. (c) SO2 + SnCl2 + HCl → SnS2 + SnCl4 + H2O each boron atom and six from the hydrogen atoms. In
this way, it is an electron-deficient compound.
18. (d) +6. For example, H2SO4, SO3, etc.
34. (c) The structures are as follows:
19. (b) XeF2 (+2), XeF4 (+4), XeF6 (+6) as these oxidation states of
Xe are known. Si O Si O Si
20. (a) Boron nitride contains 12 electrons and C2 also contains O O O
12 electrons.
Si O Si O Si
21. (a) Conceptual
O O O
S
22. (d) This is because they have completely filled orbitals.
C OO C O O O Si O Si O Si
23. (b) Xenon trioxide XeO3 has pyramidal structure with bond
angle = 103°. 35. (a) The best known pseudohalide is CN− which resembles
Cl−, Br− and I− in various respects. It forms dimers, dis-
proportionates in alkaline medium similar to halogens,
whereas N3− and ONC− do not show these characteristics.
Xe
O O 36. (c) Lead pencil contains graphite.
O
24. (a) 37. (a) The simple halides of carbon are CF4, CCl4, CBr4 and CI4.
(a) Na2B4 O7 + 2HCl + 5H2O → 2NaCl + 4H3BO3 All these halides are known to exist. However, the stability
Boric acid of these tetrahalides decreases as the size of the halogen
(b) 2NaBH4 + I2 → B2H6 + 2NaI + H2 atom increases, that is, CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4. This is due
(c) 4BF3 + LiAlH4 → 2B2H6 + 3AlF3 + 3LiF to the reason that the bond energies of the carbon–halo-
(d) 2BF3 + 6NaH → B2H6 + 6NaF gen bonds decreases in order: C F > C Cl > C Br > C I.
25. (a) S + KOH → K2S + K2S2O3 + H2O Hence, iodide is least stable carbon halide.
S2− + H+ → H2S 38. (d) Germanium acts as metalloid.
S2O23 − + H+ → H2O + SO2 + S ↓
39. (c) The Br3− ion is much less stable and less common than I3−.
26. (c) Pseudohalide ions must contain N-atom (at least one) A few unstable Cl3− compounds are known, and the ion is
having one negative charge (in general). As SH− does not formed in concentrated solution. No F3− compounds are
contain N-atom so it is not a pseudohalide ion. known to exist.
27. (a) P2O5 + 2HNO3 → 2HPO3 + N2O5 40. (d) Boric acid (H3BO3) is soluble in water, and behaves as a
weak monobasic acid. It does not donate protons like
5N2 O5 + I2 → I2O5 + 10NO2
most acids, but rather accepts OH− ions. It is, therefore, a
Lewis acid and is better written as B(OH)3.
28. (d) Conceptual
B(OH)3 + 2H2O H3O + + [B(OH)4 ]−
29. (b) A pseudohalogen is any inorganic compound structurally
similar to halogens, but containing atleast one Hence, it does not behave as strong tribasic acid.
non-halogen radical such as cyanide. 41. (d) Tl+ shows +1 ionic state due to inert pair effect. The outer
30. (d) The structures are as follows: shell s electrons (ns2) penetrate to (n − 1)d electrons and
thus become closer to nucleus and are more effectively
CH3 CH3 H H
B H
O Si O Si O H B
CH3 CH3 H
H
51. (b) As the size of the atom increases, the H X bond becomes
weaker and breaks easily. B2H6 can be prepared by reacting BF3 with LiBH3 in the pres-
ence of dry ether.
52. (a) Ozone is that it is an unstable, dark blue, diamagnetic gas.
4BF3 + 3LiBH3 → 2B2H6 + 3BF3 + 3LiF
56. (b), (c) Oxides of phosphorus P2O3 and P2O5 exist as dimers, melts at 660°C and boils at 1800°C. The density of aluminium is
that is, P2O6 and P4O10. 2.7 g cm–3 (light metal).
Solid PCl5 exists as [PCl4]+ and [PCl6]−. Aluminium dissolves in aqueous sodium hydroxide solution
and liberates hydrogen gas.
57. (a), (b), (c) Al2(SO4)3 + NH4OH → (NH4)3 [Al(OH)6]
X 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2 ↑
Sodium meta
Solution aluminate (soluble)
(NH4)3 [Al(OH)6] is a white coloured compound that is insolu-
ble in excess NH4 OH by soluble in NaOH. 2Al + 6NaOH →
Fused
2Na3AlO3 + 3H2 ↑
Sodium aluminate
58. (a), (d) The structure of white phosphorus is
P Aluminium does not react with hot conc. HNO3 because Al is
60° rendered passive by nitric acid. This is due to oxidation and
formation of a thin film of oxide on its surface.
62. (a), (c)
P P
P O O O
White phosphorus HO S O OH HO S O O S OH
O O O
59. (a), (b), (c) B2H6 contains 3c 2e as well as 2c 2e bonds.
450 K (H2SO3) (H2S2O3)
B2H6 + 6NH3
→ 3B3N3H6 + 12H2 Peroxomonosulphuric acid Peroxydisulphuric acid
Borazine also known as Caro’s acid also known as Marshall’s acid
(Inorganic benzene)
(X) (Y) 63. (a), (b)
Excess of NH3 Graphite is a paramagnetic substance because the fourth
B2H6 + NH3 High
temperature
→ (BN) x valency of each carbon atom remains unsatisfied, that is, the
(Boron nitride)
fourth valence electron remains unpaired.
(X) (Z) It behaves like metal as well as semiconductor. It conducts
electricity due to unpaired electron in the structure.
H
B B B C C bond length in it is less than the diamond. In graph-
N N N N ite C C covalent distance is 1.42 Å and in diamond the
H B H
N N B B B B C C bond distance is 1.54 Å.
N N N
B B It is thermodynamically more stable as well as less dense than
N B B
H H N N B diamond. Density of graphite is 2.25 g cm–3 and that of dia-
H mond is 3.51 g cm–3.
Borazine Boron nitride 64. (b), (c) Density of the noble gases decreases down the group.
structure
Passage Type
C C C
C C C C 65. (a) Conceptual
C C C C 66. (a) Conceptual
C C C
67. (c) The mineral kinoite contains Ca2+ ions, Cu2+ ions and
C C C water molecules in a 1:1:1 ratio. So, the compound is
C C
Ca2Cu2Si3O10 ⋅ 2H2O.
Graphite structure 68. (c) The structure of xenon oxyfluoride is as follows.
60. (a), (d) F2 is the strongest oxidizing agent; while Cl2 will oxi- O
dize Br2 and I2, Br2 will oxidize only I2 and I2 is the weakest
F F
oxidizing agent.
61. (c), (d) Xe
Aluminium is among the best conductors of electricity,
because it easily loses electrons and acts as a reducing agent. F F
Al → Al3+ + 3e− (responsible for conduction)
XeOF4
Physical properties of aluminium are characteristics of a true Square pyramidal
metal because aluminium has a bluish white luster metal and (Octahedral with one
loses its luster on long exposure to air due to the formation of position unoccupied)
a thin film of oxide on the surface. It is malleable and ductile. It
69. (a) XeF2 oxidizes Cl− to Cl2 while XeF4 oxidizes I− to I2. Borax is made up of two triangular and two tetrahedral units.
This ion is [B4O5(OH)4]2– and the other water molecules are
XeF2 + 2HCl → 2HF + Xe + Cl2
associated with the metal ions. Hence, the number of elec-
XeF4 + 4KI → 4KF + Xe + 2I2
trons is 2.
70. (a) Ar provides inert atmosphere and thus has low reactivity
75. (6) S has 3s2 3p4, that is, it can have a maximum oxidation
with metal.
state of +6. For example, in SF6.
Matrix-Match Type 76. (4) Four isomers are possible for B3N3H4X2.
71. (a) → q; (b)→ s; (c)→ p; (d)→ r
X X
Unipositive ion in case of Tl is more stable due to inert pair
effect. H B− X H B− H
+ +
The type of bonds formed by Group 13 elements depends N N+ N N+
on which is the most favourable in terms of energy. For AlCl3 B− B− B− B−
and GaCl3, the hydration enthalpy exceeds the ionization N+ N+
H H H X
enthalpy, the compounds are covalent in nature.
H H
The reaction is In+(aq) → In(s) + In3+(aq)
72. (a) → q, s; (b) → p; (c) → s; (d) → r, s
∆ H X
(a) H3PO3
→ PH3 + 3H3PO 4
X H B− H
H B− +
(phosphorus is in +5 oxidation state, it is a tribasic non- + N N+
reducing acid). N N+
(b) XeF6 + 6H2O → XeO3 (explosive solid) + 6HF B− B− B− B−
N+ N+
(c) NO2 + H2O → 2HNO3 + NO H H H H
(nitrogen is in +5 oxidation state in HNO3) X
X
(d) 2HNO3 + P4O10 → 6N2O5 + 4H3PO4
(where P is in +5 oxidation state). −
77. (3) ClF, ICI4 and IBr −2 . The compounds formed when hal-
73. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → r ogens react with each other are called interhalogen
(a) Borazine is also called inorganic benzene because its compounds.
structure is similar to benzene.
78. (2) Only two basic oxides are formed from Group 13 and
H H Group 14; they are In2O3 and Tl2O3.
H B− H H C H
+
N N +
C C Group 13 B2O3 > Al2O3 > Ga2O3 > In2O3 > Tl2O3
Acidic nature Acidic Amphoteric Amphoteric Basic Strongly
B− B− C C basic
N+ C
H H H H Group 14 CO; Ge SnO PbO SiO2
H H Neutral ↓
Amphoteric Acidic
Borazine Benzene
B−
O O
HO B O B OH
O O
B−
OH
4 + 2x − 10 = 0 Solution
2x − 6 = 0 (b) The central atom is sp3 hybridized in all the given
compounds.
x = +3
However, the bond angles are:
3. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, Compound Hybridization Bond angle
respectively produces: PH3 sp3 98ο
(a) NO2 and N2O (b) N2O and NO2
(c) NO2 and NO (d) NO and N2O CH4 sp3 109. 28ο
(Offline) NH3 sp3 107ο
Solution H2O sp3 104.5ο
(b) 4Zn + 10HNO3 (dil.) → 4Zn (NO3)2 (aq) + N2O + 5H2O
Zn + 4HNO3 (conc.) → Zn (NO3)2 (aq) + 2NO2 + 2H2O In CH4, the geometry is tetrahedral with bond angle 109.
28°. In other compounds presence of lone pairs distorts
4. The non-metal that does not exhibit positive oxidation state is the geometry.
(a) chlorine. (b) iodine. (c) fluorine. (d) oxygen.
(Online) 7. Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) The S-S-S bond angles in the S8 and S6 rings are the same.
Solution (b) Rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8 molecules.
(c) Fluorine is the most electronegative element. It can gain (c) S2 is paramagnetic like oxygen.
one electron and hence shows the oxidation state −I only. (d) S8 ring has a crown shape.
The other halogen elements show positive oxidation (Online)
states of +I, +III, +V, +VII as shown below.
Solution
Element Oxidation state (a) Crystals of both rhombic and monoclinic allotropic
Cl HOCl (+I), HClO2(+III), HClO3(+V), HClO4(+VII) forms of sulphur are built up from zigzag rings of eight
Br HOBr (+I), HBrO3(+V), HBrO4(+VII) sulphur atoms. In these S8 has crown shaped, puckered
conformation. Another allotropic form, ε-sulphur, also
I HOI (+I), HIO3(+V), HIO4(+VII) known as Engel’s sulphur, contains S6 rings arranged in a
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
Hybridization, Shapes of Simple Molecules and Nomen- Electronic Displacement in a Covalent Bond, Isomerism
2007
clature, Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism
Hybridization, Shapes of Simple Molecules and Nomen- Electronic Displacement in a Covalent Bond, Isomerism
2008
clature – Structural and Stereoisomerism
Reaction Intermediates, Electronic Displacement in a
Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism, Reaction
2009 Covalent Bond, Hybridization, Shapes of Simple Mole-
Intermediates
cules and Nomenclature
2010 Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism
2011 Electronic Displacement in a Covalent Bond Electronic Displacement in a Covalent Bond
Hybridization, Shapes of Simple Molecules and Nomen-
2012
clature, Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism
2013 Reaction Intermediates
Hybridization, Shapes of Simple Molecules and Nomen- Electronic Displacement in a Covalent Bond
clature, Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism,
2014
Reaction Intermediates, Electronic Displacement in a
Covalent Bond
2015 Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism
2016 Optical Stereoisomerism
SUMMARY
1. Hybridization and shapes of molecules
(a) Hybridization refers to the mixing of atomic orbitals to form newly hybridized orbitals, which are involved in bonding and influ-
ence bonding properties as well as the overall molecular geometry.
(b) Orbital hybridization is a mathematical approach that involves the combining of individual wave functions for s and p orbitals to
obtain wave functions for new orbitals of equivalent energy (degenerate) and uniform shape.
(c) The new orbitals have the properties of the original orbitals taken separately in varying proportions and are called hybrid atomic
orbitals.
(d) sp3 hybridization
(i) Mixing one s and all three p atomic orbitals produces a set of four equivalent sp3 hybridized atomic orbitals. The four sp3
hybrid orbitals having 75% p character and 25% s character point towards the vertices of a tetrahedron.
(ii) In case of methane, CH4, each sp3 hybrid orbital of carbon containing 1 electron overlaps with 1s orbital of H atom to form a
s bond.
(e) sp2 hybridization
(i) Mixing of one s orbital and two p orbitals of a carbon atom gives rise to three sp2 orbitals. These three orbitals are equivalent
and are distributed at 120° to each other giving a planar triangle. Each orbital consists of 67% p and 33% s character struc-
ture. The remaining unchanged p orbital lies perpendicular to the plane of the three sp2 orbitals.
(ii) In case of ethene, each carbon uses two of its sp2 hybrids to form s bonds to hydrogen atoms. The third sp2 hybrid on each
carbon is used to form a s bond between the two carbon atoms. The remaining unhybridized 2p orbitals, one from each
carbon atom, overlap to produce a p bond, which accounts for the second bond of the double bond.
(f) sp hybridization
(i) The hybridization of one s orbital and one p orbital on a carbon atom gives rise to two equivalent sp hybrid orbitals. Generally
the pz orbital is involved in overlap with s orbital and the hybrid sp orbital has 50% s and 50% p character. The two hybridized
sp orbitals are in a linear arrangement and are 180° apart.
(ii) In case of ethyne the sp orbitals point in opposite directions and are used to form the s bonds. The unhybridized 2px and 2py
orbitals are perpendicular to the C C bond axis and overlap sideways to form two separate p bonds that surround the C C
s bond.
Tip The shortest C H bonds are associated with those carbon orbitals with the greatest s character. The sp orbitals
of ethyne with 50% s (and 50% p) in character form the shortest C H bonds. The sp3 orbitals of ethane with 25% s (and
75% p) in character form the longest C H bonds.
(iii) The relative acidities of ethyne, ethene, and ethane parallel the effective electronegativity of the carbon atom in each
compound.
(iv) The acidity constant, Ka, is expressed as the negative logarithm of pKa.
pKa = − log Ka
There is an inverse relationship between the magnitude of the pKa and the strength of the acid. The larger the value of the
pKa, the weaker is the acid.
(v) The protons of ethyne are more acidic than those of ethane, which in turn are more acidic than those of ethane.
H
H H H H
H C C H C C C C
H
H H H
H
Ethyne Ethene Ethane
pKa = 25 pKa = 44 pKa = 50
4. Dipole moment
(i) The dipole moment is defined as the product of the magnitude of the charge in electrostatic units (esu) and the distance that
separates them in centimeters (cm):
Dipole moment = charge (in esu) × distance (in cm)
m=e ×d
(ii) Any diatomic molecule in which the two atoms are different (and thus have different electronegativities) will, of necessity,
have a dipole moment. Because the electronegativity of chlorine is greater than that of carbon, each of the carbon–chlorine
bonds in CCl4 is polar.
5. Representation of structure
(a) Two dimensions
H H H
H H H
H OH
H C C C OH H C C C O CH3CH2CH2OH
H H H
H H H
Electron-dot formula Dash formula Condensed formula Bond-line formula
(b) Three dimensions
(i) The representation of three dimensional molecules in two dimensions can be done by the following ways: Wedge formula;
Sawhorse formula, Fischer projection and Newman projection formula.
CH3 H
H H H H
H H Br H
H
H H
H H Br H H
H H
H H CH3 H
Wedge and dash Sawhorse Fischer projection Newman projection
OH H OH H OH
HOH2C
H
CH2OH CH2OH
(R)-(+)-Glyceraldehyde Fischer projection
6. Classification of organic compounds
(a) Open chain or acyclic or aliphatic compounds
These compounds comprise of an open chain system of carbon atoms, which can be either non-branched or branched.
Straight chain compounds: CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 H2C CH2
Butane Ethene
CH3 CH3
2-Methylpropane 2,2-Dimethylpropane
(iso-butane) (neo-pentane)
H2 H2 H2
C C C
CH2 H2C CH2 H2C CH2 CH H2C CH HC CH
• Aromatic compounds: Carbocylic compounds which contain at least one benzene ring. The aromatic compounds may also
have a side-chain or a functional group attached directly to the ring or may contain more than one benzene rings fused
together.
H
CH3 OH NO2 CHO
C
H C C H
H C C H
C
Toluene Phenol Nitrobenzene Benzaldehyde Naphthalene Anthracene
H
Benzene
HC CH HC CH HC CH HC CH
N O S N
H
Pyridine Furan Thiophene Pyrrole
(a) Alkanes: In the IUPAC nomenclature, alkanes end with suffix ‘-ane’. For example, methane (CH4), ethane (C2H6), propane (C3H8).
Rings are designated by the prefix “cyclo”, for example, cyclopropane (C3H6), cyclobutane (C4H8).
(b) Alkenes: In the IUPAC nomenclature, alkenes end with suffix ‘-ene’. For example, ethene (C2H4), propene (C3H6), butene
(C4H8).
(c) Alkynes: In the IUPAC nomenclature, alkynes end with suffix ‘-yne’. For example, ethyne (C2H2), propyne (C3H4), butyne (C4H6).
(d) Nomenclature of molecules containing substituents and functional groups
R C OH
Aldehyde O oxo-(formyl) -al (carbaldehyde)
R C H
Ketone O oxo- -one
R C R
Alcohol R O H hydroxy- -ol
Amine amino- -amine
R N
• For compound containing multiple functional groups, the principal functional group determines suffix name and secondary
functional group determines prefix name.
Tip (a) The order of decreasing priority for some of the functional groups is
COOH, SO3H, COOR, COCl, CONH2, CN, HC O, >C O, OH, NH2, >C C<, C C
(b) The functional groups, alkyl ( R), phenyl (C6H5 ), alkoxy ( OR), halogens (F, Cl, Br, I) and nitro ( NO2) are
always treated as subordinate functional groups in presence of other functional groups.
8. Isomerism – structural and stereoisomerism
(a) Structural isomerism
Structural isomerism occurs when two or more organic compounds have the same molecular formula but different structural
formulae.
(i) Chain isomers: These differ in the order in which groups are bonded in a chain. For example, butane and isobutane.
(ii) Position isomers: These are compounds that differ in the position of the substituent or the functional group on the parent
carbon chain. For example, 1-bromopropane and 2-bromopropane.
(iii) Functional group isomers: These are compounds that have the same molecular formula but have different functional
groups. For example, ethanol and dimethyl ether.
Tip Tautomerism is a special case of functional isomerism, where an equilibrium exists between enol and a ketone. The
enol and ketone iosmers rapidly inter-convert via the migration of a proton.
(iv) Metamers: These are compounds that have different alkyl chains attached to the functional group. For example, ethers,
thioethers ketones, secondary amines, etc., show metamerism.
(v) Ring-chain isomerism: These are compounds that have the same molecular formula but possess open-chain or cyclic struc-
tures. This isomerism is generally exhibited by alkenes and cyclic compounds. For example, propene and cyclopropane.
(b) Stereoisomerism
Isomers that have the same molecular formula and ligands, but differ in the arrangement of those ligands in three dimensional
space.
(i) Geometrical isomerism
Geometric isomers are those which have the same structural formulas but differ in the arrangement of groups at a single
atom, at double bonds, or in rings. For example 2-butene can be represented by two structures: cis-2-butene (similar groups
on same side) and trans-2-butene (similar groups on opposite side).
cis trans
(ii) E & Z notation for geometrical isomers
• The Cahn-Ingold and Prlog sequence rule are used for naming geometric isomers.
ο Assign priority to the groups attached to the two double bonded carbons.
ο If groups of higher priority are on same side of double bond, the isomer is “Z” isomer (zusammen= together); if groups
of higher priority are on opposite side of double bond, the isomer is “E” isomer (entgegen= across).
• Rules for assigning priority are based on the highest atomic number of the atom directly bonded to the carbon.
1 17 high 1 6
H Cl priority H CH3
high
priority
H3C CH3 high H3C Cl high
6 6 priority 6 17 priority
(E)-2-Chloro-2-butene (Z)-2-Chloro-2-butene
ο If carbon is bonded to same atoms, rules are applied at first point of difference.
ο If carbon is bonded to isotopes of same element, isotope with higher mass number is given higher priority.
ο If carbon is bonded to double or triple bond, it is considered equivalent to the same number of single bonded atoms.
(iii) Optical isomerism
These are substances that can rotate the plane of plane-polarized light and generally contain a carbon atom attached to
four different groups (chiral centre). The stereoisomers that can exhibit optical isomerism can be either enantiomers or
diastereomers.
Tip (a) The number of optically active forms of a compound depends on the number of chiral carbon atoms. If there
are n chiral carbons, the number of optically active form will be 2n, provided the chiral atoms are not identically
substituted.
(b) In case of bridge/bicyclic compounds, the number of stereoisomers is equal to the number of chiral centres
because no carbon centres rotation possible.
• Enantiomers: These are optical isomers that are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.
CH3 CH3
H C Br Br C H
H C Br Br C H
C2H5 C2H5
• Diastereomers are one of a set of stereoisomers that are not enantiomers i.e. stereoisomers that are not mirror images of
one another and are non-superimposable on one another. Stereoisomers with two or more stereocentres can be
diastereomers.
CHO CHO
H OH HO H
Enantiomers
H OH HO H
CH2 OH CH2 OH
Diastereoisomers
CHO CHO
H OH H OH
Enantiomers
HO H HO H
CH2 OH CH2 OH
• Mesomers: These are optically inactive substances having two or more chiral centres and a plane of symmetry, which
bisects the compound into two equal parts that are mirror images of each other.
(iv) Chiral molecules without chiral centre
Sometimes, a compound shows optical activity even when there is no chiral centre present. For example, allenes (two ends
of allene are perpendicular causing molecular dissymmetry), biphenyls (plane of two phenyl rings are perpendicular to each
other and mirror images non-superimposable) and spiranes (similar to allenes).
Br
H Cl
CH3 H
C C C
H CH3
Cl H
Br
Dimethylallene Dibromobiphenyl Dicholorospiroheptane
HO H = HO H H OH = H OH
L D
(b) (R) and (S) configurations are assigned on the basis of the following procedure.
The Cahn-Ingold-Prelog priority rules are used for naming chirality centres.
(i) Each of the four groups attached to the stereogenic carbon is assigned a priority or preference a, b, c, or d. Priority is first
assigned on the basis of the atomic number of the atom that is directly attached to the stereogenic carbon. The group with
the lowest atomic number is given the lowest priority, d; the group with next higher atomic number is given the next higher
priority, c; and so on.
We can illustrate the application of the rule with the 2-butanol enantiomer, I:
CH3 (b or c)
(a) HO C H (d)
CH2 (b or c)
CH3
I
(ii) When a priority cannot be assigned on the basis of the atomic number of the atoms that are directly attached to the stereo-
genic carbon, then the next set of atoms in the unassigned groups is examined. This process is continued until a decision can
be made.
H
(c)
H C H (H, H, H)
(a) HO C H (d)
H C H
(b) (C, H, H)
H C H
H
I
(iii) We now rotate the formula (or model) so that the group with lowest priority (d) is directed away from us. Then we trace a path
from a to b to c. If, as we do this, the direction of our finger (or pencil) is clockwise, the enantiomer is designated (R). If the direc-
tion is counterclockwise, the enantiomer is designated (S). On this basis the 2-butanol enantiomer I is (R)-2-butanol
(c)
CH3
CH3
HO C H (d) H
OH
(a)
CH2 Viewer
CH3CH2
CH3 (b)
Arrows are clockwise
(R)-2-Butanol
Tip Groups containing double or triple bonds are assigned priorities as if both atoms were duplicated or triplicated.
Thus, the vinyl group, CH CH2, is of higher priority than the isopropyl group, CH(CH3)2. That is
H H H H
C C H> C C H
(C) (C) H
H C H
H
C, H, H > H, H, H
Vinyl group Isopropyl group
COOH
H OH
Plane of symmetry
H OH s
COOH
(b) Centre of symmetry (i): An imaginary point through which a line is drawn in a direction from an atom or group to the same atom
or group placed at the same distance just opposite to the imaginary centre. This rule is applicable for each atom of the molecule.
Cl CH3
C C
CH3 Cl
(c) Rotational axis of symmetry (Cn): It is an imaginary axis through which rotation of molecule, by certain angle will result the
same molecule. Examples are water (C2) and ammonia (C3).
(d) Alternating axis of symmetry (Sn): This operation involves rotation followed by reflection, that is, rotation by an angle of
360°/n about the axis and followed by reflection in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation. The resultant molecule is iden-
tical to the original molecule.
11. Electronic displacement in a covalent bond
(a) Inductive effect (+I or -I)
This effect arises because in a single covalent bond between two unlike atoms, the shared electron is displaced more towards
electronegative atom.
(i) The effect is said to be –I if a group pulls the electrons away from the carbon atom. Such a group is called an electron-with-
drawing group. Examples:
−
R3N+ > NO2 > CN− > COO− > F− > Cl− > Br− > I− > OAr− > OH− > Phenyl
(ii) The effect is said to be +I if a group pushes the electrons towards the carbon atom. Such a group is called electron-releasing
group. Examples:
O− > COO− > (CH3C) > (CH3C)2CH > CH3CH2CH2 > CH3CH2 > CH3
(iii) Inductive effect decreases with the increase in distance from the bond.
(iv) Inductive effect causes development of a dipole moment in the molecule, which increases with increase in inductive
effect.
(v) The bond length of the organic molecules decreases with increase in inductive effect.
(b) Electromeric effect (+E or -E)
This effect involves the displacement of p electrons in a multiple bond towards one of the bonded atoms at the demand of an
attacking species. It is a temporary displacement effect and ends when attacking reagent is removed from the reaction.
(i) If the transference of p electrons occurs towards the atom where attacking species attaches, it is called +E effect.
+
C C + H+ C C
H
(ii) If the transference of p electrons occurs away from the atom where the attacking group attaches, it is called −E effect.
−
O
−
C O + CN C
CN
Tip When inductive and electromeric effects are both operative in opposite directions, the electromeric effect
predominates.
N N
CH3 1 CH3
6
2
5 3
4
(P) (Q)
In compound (P) due to steric hindrance across nitrogen, bond rotation across C1 and nitrogen will be hindered and the lone
pair of electrons on nitrogen will not be involved in resonance with the phenyl ring. As a result, the compound (P) is more basic
than compound (Q).
(i) SIR can affect dipole moment of the compounds.
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
N N NO2 NO2
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
and
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
NO2 NO2
m = 6.87 D m = 4.11 D m = 3.95 D m = 3.39 D
(X) (Y)
• Bond lengths of C N are of the order b > a because of the SIR effect in compound (Y). NO2 group will not participate in
resonance with the phenyl ring in (Y).
• NO2 group is involved in resonance with phenyl ring lending double bond character to bond a.
CO2H CO2H
CH3
>
NH2 NH2
CH3
>
Aniline o-Toluidine
(iii) Para-substituted aniline is a stronger base than aniline.
NH2 NH2
>
OCH3
(g) Hyperconjugation
When s -electrons of a C H bond are in conjugation with an adjacent p bond, then this type of conjugation is called
hyperconjugation.
(i) Condition for Hyperconjugation
The presence of s -hydrogen at an alkene, alkyl carbocation, alkyl free radical or a phenyl group is the main condition for
hyperconjugation.
Hyperconjugation can be divided into five categories:
Type I: s -p conjugation in alkene
• The examples of this type of hyperconjugation are as follows:
a a a
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3 CH CH CH2
Propene 1-Butene 3-Methyl-1-butene
CH3
(3a -hydrogens) (2a -hydrogens) (1a -hydrogen)
Hyperconjugation explains the stability of alkenes. More the number of a-hydrogens in an alkene, more will be its stability.
Thus, the order of stability some alkenes is as follows
Type II: In 1935, Baker Nathan effect explained that hyperconjugation dominates inductive effect. The decreasing order of
electron density on phenyl ring is as follows:
CH3 CH3
The stability of the above noted carbocations follows the order 3° > 2° > 1° i.e., (C) > (B) > (A)
Type IV: Hyperconjugation in free radical
a a a
CH3 CH2 CH3 C CH3
a
CH3
(A) (B)
(3a -hydrogens) (9a -hydrogens)
Here again, more the number of a-hydrogens, more will be the stability of the radical. So, (B) is more stable than (A).
Type V: Hyperconjugation is also observed in systems of the following type
X
C C C
(X = halogen)
Cl Cl
Cl + + Cl +
Cl C CH CH2 C CH CH2 Cl − C CH CH2 Cl C CH CH2
Cl Cl
Cl Cl − Cl
Carbanion
(i) Carbocation
• It is a chemical species in which the trivalent carbon atom bears a positive charge. The carbocations are primary, second-
ary or tertiary depending on the number of carbons attached directly to the positively charged carbon.
(ii) Carbanion
• It is a chemical species in which a carbon atom bears a formal negative charge and possesses an unshared pair of
electrons.
• A carbanion is generated when carbon is attached to a less electronegative element or by nucleophilic attack on a
carbon–carbon multiple bond.
• The stability order can be explained on the basis of +I (inductive) effect of alkyl groups. The stability also increases in the
presence of electron withdrawing groups. Between the carbanions of an alkane, alkene and alkyne, the stability of the
carbanion having maximum s character is the maximum. This is because the electronegativity of carbon and hence its
ability to carry a negative charge increases with increase in s character.
(b) Homolytic fission
It is the fission of covalent bonds with the production of intermediates possessing unpaired electrons called radicals (or free
radicals). Free radical is generally a planar species in which the carbon atom lies in the centre of the triangle and the three
bonds are directed towards the three corners of planar trigonal geometry. The relative stability can be explained on the basis of
ease of formation. Lower the homolytic bond dissociation enthalpy, greater is the ease of formation of free radicals.
(i) Carbenes and nitrenes
• Carbenes are uncharged, electron deficient molecular species that contain a divalent carbon atom surrounded by a sextet
of electrons.
• Nitrenes are nitrogen analogues of carbenes. These are also uncharged, electron deficient molecular species that contain
a monovalent nitrogen atom surrounded by a sextet of electrons.
• Carbenes and nitrenes exists in two states:
Singlet state: wherein they are carbocation-like in nature with trigonal planar geometry and exhibit electrophilic
character;
Triplet state: diradical-like in nature, linear geometry.
+ +
R′ Y Y
R′ N N
C C Z Z
R R
Singlet carbene Triplet carbene Single nitrene Triplet nitrene
Tip Energy required for homolysis of covalent bond is supplied either by heating or irradiation with light.
(ii) Positively charged species, both of which are deficient in electrons for example,
+
H+, NO+, NO+2, R C, R+, Cl+, Br+, I+
O
(iii) Carbocations are also electrophiles because they are electron seeking species. They can fill their valence shell by accepting
a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.
(b) Nucleophiles: Any negative ion or any neutral molecule that has at least one unshared electron pair is called a nucleophile
(meaning nucleus loving).
(i) They are electron-rich species with a tendency to donate a pair of electrons.
(ii) They attack electron-deficient sites and could be neutral or negatively charged.
(iii) Examples of nucleophiles are:
NH3, RNH2, R2NH, R3N, H2O, ROH, ROR (Neutral)
(iv) Carbanions are nucleophiles, they seek a proton or some other positive centre to which they can donate their electron pair
and thereby neutralize their negative charge.
(c) Classification of organic reactions
(i) Substitution reactions: In these reactions, one group is replaced by another. These are characteristic reactions of saturated
compounds such as alkanes and alkyl halides and of aromatic compounds. For example,
CH3Cl + OH− → CH3OH + Cl−
(ii) Elimination reactions: In these reactions, one molecule loses the elements of another small molecule. These reactions are
used for preparing compounds with double and triple bonds.
• An elimination reaction in which both the groups or atoms are removed from the same carbon of the molecule is
called a-elimination reaction. This reaction is mainly given by gem dihalides and gem trihalides having at least one
a-hydrogen.
• An elimination reaction in which functional group (i.e., leaving group) is removed from a-carbon and other group (gener-
ally a hydrogen atom) from the b-carbon is called b-elimination reaction. For example,
H H
b a H H
KOH
H C C H C C
(−HBr)
H H
H Br
(iii) Addition reactions: Reactions in which the components of a species A–B are added to adjacent atoms across a carbon–
carbon multiple bond. An addition reaction is the reverse of an elimination reaction.
HCl + CH2 CH2 → CH3CH2Cl
(iv) Rearrangement reactions: In these reactions, a molecule undergoes a reorganization of its constituent parts.
For example,
H H H3C CH3
Acid
H3C C C C C
Catalyst
C H H3C CH3
H3C CH3
(d) Reaction mechanism:
The mechanism of different ionic reactions can be illustrated by following four characteristic patterns of electron flow.
(i) Nucleophilic attack
Br
− +
Br
Nucleophile Electrophile
(ii) Loss of leaving group
Br
−
+ Br
+
+ H
O −H+ O
− −
O OH O
H
(iv) Rearrangements
H H
+
+
H3C CH3
+ +
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Hybridization, Shapes of Simple Molecules and (c) 4,4-dimethyl-5,5-diethylpentane.
Nomenclature (d) 5,5-diethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane.
(AIEEE 2007)
1. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is Solution
Cl (a) Naming of the given organic compound is done by follow-
ing a step-wise process:
(i) Selection of longest chain.
(ii) Numbering is done from that end having lowest set of
Br locants for substitutents.
(a) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene. (iii) Writing the name by using the below formula:
(b) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene. Name of substituent with position in alphabetical order
(c) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene. + Root word + Suffix (nature of functional group)
(d) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene.
(AIEEE 2006) 6 2
4
7 5 3 1
Solution
(c) Cl 3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane
1
6 2
3. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional
5 3 groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC system of nomen-
Br clature is
4
(a) COOH, SO3H, CONH2, CHO
According to the order of precedence of groups the sub- (b) SO3H, COOH, CONH2, CHO
stituents are ordered alphabetically and the position is (c) CHO, COOH, SO3H, CONH2
mentioned by the first carbon of the double bond. (d) CONH2, CHO, SO3H, COOH
(AIEEE 2008)
2. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
Solution
(a) According to the IUPAC system priority order of various
functional group is
(a) 3-ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane . COOH > SO3H > CONH2 > CHO
(b) 1,1-diethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane.
(d) H C N 2s and 2p C H C H
H N H N+
7. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
H H
the molecule is non-planar; but if it contains odd number (c) H2N NH2
of adjacent double bonds, the molecule is planar.
H H
12. The shape of a carbanion is
(a) linear. (b) planar. Ph Ph
Plane of symmetry Achiral
(c) pyramidal. (d) tetrahedral.
(d) COOH
Solution
(c) The carbon atom bearing the negative charge in the H 2N H Two identical
groups attached
carbanion is in sp3 hybridized state. It is bonded to three
other atoms and the unshared electron pair occupies H Achiral
the apex of the tetrahedron.Thus, the shape of carboan- 15. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is
ion is pyramidal. (a) propene. (b) 2-methylpropene.
R (c) 2-butene. (d) 2-methyl-2- butane.
R C− (AIEEE 2009)
R Solution
sp3 hybridized carbon (c) 2-Butene exhibits geometrical isomerism. In rest of the
13. What is the correct IUPAC name for the following structure? compounds, two identical groups are attached to the
doubly bonded carbon atom, so their geometrical isom-
erism is not possible.
H H H CH3
C C C C
H3C CH3 H3C H
(a) 2−Ethylheptane (b) 2−Methylhexane cis trans
(c) 6−Methylhexane (d) 2−Methylpentane 16. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of
Solution the molecular formula CH3 CH CH CH(OH) CH3 is
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
(b) The IUPAC name of the compound is 2−methylhexane.
(AIEEE 2009)
5 3 1 Solution
(c) The compound has one chiral centre. Therefore,
6 4 2
2n = 21 = 2 optically active compounds are possible. Also,
two geometrical isomers (cis and trans) are possible. So,
total of four isomers are possible.
Isomerism – Structural and Stereoisomerism
H H H
14. Which of the following molecules is expected to rotate the CH3 C C
*
C OH
plane of plane-polarized light?
(a) (b) CH3
CHO
SH 17. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomer-
HO H
ism is
CH2OH (a) 2-methyl-2-pentene. (b) 3-methyl-2-pentene.
(c) 4-methyl-1-pentene. (d) 3-methyl-1-pentene.
(c) H2N NH2 (d) COOH (AIEEE 2010)
H 2N H Solution
H H
(b) The alkene that has chiral centre exhibits optical iso-
Ph Ph H merism.
(AIEEE 2007) CH3CH2 C CH2CH3 CH3CHCH2CH CH2
Solution
CH3 CH3
(a) The compound has a chiral carbon atom.
Chiral carbon 3-Methyl-2-pentene 4-Methyl-1-pentene
CHO (A carbon attached (No chiral carbon)
to four different
(No chiral carbon)
substituents)
HO * H H CH3CH2CH C CH3
18. Which one of the following acids does not exhibit optical (c) CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3 and
isomerism?
(a) Lactic acid (b) Tartaric acid O
(c) Maleic acid (d) a-Amino acids CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3
(JEE Main Online 2014)
O
Solution (d) CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3 and
(c) Except maleic acid all compounds are optically active.
O
CH COOH CH3
CH CH2 CHO
CH COOH CH3
(JEE Main Online 2015)
Since maleic acid has plane of symmetry, so it does not Solution
exhibit optical isomerism. (c) Compounds that differ in the position of the substituent
19. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical or the functional group on the parent carbon chain are
isomerism? known as the positional isomers.
(a) 3-Phenyl-1-butene (b) 2-Phenyl-1-butene O
(c) 1,1-Diphenyl-1-propane (d) 1-Phenyl-2-butene Thus, CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3 and
(JEE Main 2015)
O
Solution
(d) 1-Phenyl-2-butene CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3 are positional isomers.
Ph-H2C CH3 Ph-H2C H 22. The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is
C C C C (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
H H H CH3 (JEE Main Online 2015, IIT-JEE 2007)
(cis) (trans)
Solution
20. The optically inactive compound from the following is (c) Since the structural isomers refers to the compounds that
(a) 2-chloropropanal. have same molecular formula but different arrangement
(b) 2-chloropentane. of atoms or groups within the molecule. Based on this,
(c) 2-chlorobutane. following are the structural isomers for C6H14:
(d) 2-chloro-2–methylbutane.
(JEE Main Online 2015) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
n-Hexane
Solution
(d) Among the given compounds, 2-chloro-2–methylbu- H3C CH CH2 CH2 CH3 H3 C CH2 CH CH2 CH3
tane does not contain any chiral centre hence is optically
CH3 CH3
inactive.
2-Methyl pentane 3-Methyl pentane
Cl
* CH3
CH3 CH CHO CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH3
* H3C C CH2 CH3 H3 C CH CH CH3
Cl
2-Chloropropanal 2-Chloropentane CH3 CH3 CH3
2,2-Dimethyl butane 2,3-Dimethyl butane
CH3
* 23. Among the following four structures I to IV, it is true that,
CH3 CH2 CH CH3 CH3 CH2 C CH3
CH3 O CH3
Cl Cl
2-Chlorobutane 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane C2H5 CH C3H7 CH3 C CH C 2 H5
Solution A B C
(d) 2,3-Dichlorobutane has a plane of symmetry that divides Which of the following statements is the correct?
the molecule into halves that are mirror images of each (a) Compounds A and B are enantiomers.
other. (b) Compounds A and C are identical.
CH3 (c) Compounds B and C are enantiomers.
(d) Compounds A, B and C are optically active.
H Cl
Plane of symmetry Solution
H Cl (c) The Fischer projection of the given Newmann projection
are as drawn as follows.
CH3
CH3 CH3
26. Amongst the following compound, the optically active H Cl
alkane having lowest molecular mass is Cl H
(a) H3C (b) Cl H
CH3 H3C Cl H
CH CH3 CH3
(c) CH3 (d) CH3 A
H3C CH3 CH3
H Cl
C2H5 H3C CH3 H Cl
Cl H
Solution H Cl
(c) Among the given compounds, there is only one optically CH3
CH3
active alkane.
CH3 B
CH3 CH3
H3C *
Cl H
Cl H
C2H5 Chiral centre H Cl
Cl H
Four different substituents attached (chiral carbon)
CH3 CH3
27. Which of the following compound is not chiral? C
(a) 1-Chloropentane From Fischer projection, it is clear that compound A is
(b) 3-Chloro-2-methylpentane a meso compound since it has plane of symmetry, and
(c) 1-Chloro-2-methylpentane therefore, optically inactive. Compounds B and C are mir-
(d) 2-Chloropentane ror images of each other, and hence, are enantiomers.
Solution
30. The stereochemical relationship between the following mol-
(a) 1-Chloropentane is not chiral because it does not have a ecules is
chiral or asymmetric carbon atom.
I Br 33. Arrange the carbanions, (CH3 )3 C , CCl3 , (CH3 )2 CH, C6H5 CH2
in order of their decreasing stability:
(a) C6H5 CH2 > CCl3 > (CH3 )3 C > (CH3 )2 CH
31. Indicate the relationship of the pair of molecules shown below. Resonance +I Effect
H H 34. The order of stability of the following carbocations is
+
CH2
I I + +
(a) Constitutional isomers (b) Enantiomers H2C CH CH2 ; H3C CH2 CH2 ;
(c) Diastereomers (d) Different molecules
I II III
Solution
(a) II > III > I (b) I > II > III
(c) There is two stereocentres, so disastereomers are not elim- (c) III > I > II (d) III > II > I
inated. The molecules have the same formula and connec- (JEE Main 2013)
tivity so different molecules and constitutional isomers are
eliminated. The two molecules are not mirror images of Solution
each other and not superposable; therefore, enantiomers (c) Stability is directly proportional to extent of delocaliza-
are eliminated. The first molecule is (2R, 3S) and the second tion of positive charge. Thus, order of stability is
is (2R, 3R). So the molecules are disatereomers of each other. +
CH2
Reaction Intermediates
+ +
> CH2 CH CH2 > CH3 CH2 CH2
32. The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals
is
i i i i
(a) (CH3 )2 CH < (CH3 )3 C < (C6H5 )2 CH < (C6H5 )3 C 35. In which of the following pairs A is more stable than B?
i i i i
A B
(b) (C6H5 ) 3C < (C6H5 )2 CH < (CH3 )3 C < (CH3 )2 CH
i i i i (a)
(c) (C6H5 )2 CH < (C6H5 )3 C < (CH3 )3 C < (CH3 )2 CH
i i i i
(b) (CH3 )2 CH < (CH3 )3 C < (C6H5 )3 C < (C6H5 )2 CH
(b)
(AIEEE 2006)
Solution
(a) The relative stability of free radicals is measured through
(c)
the homolytic bond dissociation energies of R H
bonds. Greater is the value of bond dissociation energy
the lesser is the stability. Tertiary C H bond is easier to
(d) Ph3C• (CH3)3C•
break than secondary C H bond. Therefore, the order is
3° > 2° > 1° > methyl.
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution CH3
CH3 H
(d) Stability of radicals can be compared on the basis of +
(b) +
electronic effects and angle strain.
In option (a): B is more stable than A due to resonance.
CH3
CH3
< + +
(d) CH CH3 CH3
A B
In option (b): 3° radical is more stable as compared to 2°. 38. The correct order of stability of the following free radicals is
<
(a) (b) +
Solution
(a) A group of organic species having a positively charged
CH3 carbon atom bearing only six electrons around the car-
CH3
+ + bon are called carbocations. The stability order of carbo-
(c) (d) CH CH3
CH3 cations is 3° > 2° > 1°.
From the given structures, compound in option (a) is a
Solution tertiary carbocation, which is resonance stabilized and
(c) The rearrangement of a carbocation is possible only if it one of its resonance structure has an additional covalent
can form a more stable carbocation. Sometimes, it can bond with complete octet of all the atoms
also release angle strain present in relatively smaller or
bigger rings. Hence, (a), (b) and (d) rearrange as shown +
OMe OMe
below. The compound in (c) cannot rearrange because
formation of more stable carbocation is not possible by
+
shifting alkyl or halide group.
+ CH3
H CH2
+
(a)
Quick Tip From the stability order of a carbocation, you can
easily find the correct option (a).
40. Which of the following pairs contains identical compounds? 42. Which one of the following substituents at para-position is
CHO CHO O−
most effective in stabilizing the phenoxide ion?
H OH HO H
(a) and
H OH H OH
(a) CH3 (b) OCH3
CH2OH CH2OH (c) COCH3 (d) CH2OH
CHO CHO (JEE Main 2014)
Solution
HO H H OH
and (c) The substituent COCH3 is electron withdrawing due to
(b) H OH HO H (−I) and (−M) effect and increases stability of phenoxide
ion.
CH2OH CH2OH
O−
CHO CHO
H OH HO H
(c) and
H OH HO H
C
CH2OH CH2OH CH3 O
O
CH2OH CHO
Due to extended conjugation C CH3 group incre-
H OH HO H
and ases stability of the phenoxide ion.
(d) H OH HO H
43. In the anion HCOO−, the two carbon–oxygen bonds are found
CHO CH2OH to be of equal length. What is the reason for it?
(a) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridized.
Solution (b) The C O bond is weaker than the C O bond.
(c) The anion HCOO– has two resonating structures.
(d) In option (a) – diastereomers.
(d) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the
Option (b) – mirror images, so enantiomers.
acid molecule.
Option (c) – mirror images, so enantiomers.
Option (d) – rotating anyone compound by 180o in plane Solution
of paper produces second structure, so, both the struc- (c) The anion HCOO− can be represented as following
tures are identical. resonating structures.
Electronic Displacement in a Covalent Bond O O−
Solution
I II
(b) Cl– being an electron withdrawing group withdraws electron
density, thereby facilitating the release of proton. As the dis-
tance between Cl− and COOH increases, the dispersal of neg-
CH3O O− Br O−
ative charge of the corresponding carboxylate ion becomes
less pronounced, and hence acidic strength decreases.
The pKa values of the compounds are: III IV
Compound pKa (a) II > III > IV > I (b) I > IV > II > III
(c) III > II > IV > I (d) III > II > I > IV
HCOOH 3.75
Solution
CH3 CH2 CH COOH
2.86 (c) All given anions are basic in nature because they contain
Cl negative charge. Now this strength is enhanced by elec-
tron donating groups and decreases by electron with-
CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH drawing groups.
4.52
Cl Since COCH3 and Br groups are electron withdrawing,
they decrease the basic strength. CH3 and OCH3 are elec-
CH3COOH 4.76 tron donating groups, so they increase the basic strength.
So, the order of acidic strength of their conjugate acids is I > IV > 47. The heterolysis of O forms a
II > III and order of basic strength of anions is III > II > IV > I. (a) carbanion (b) carbocation
(c) free radical (d) cleavage not possible
45. Consider the structures given below, the pair which repre-
sents the resonance structures of each other is Solution
N O N OH (a) The heterolysis takes place as follows:
(a) and − Heterolysis
N N OH + O O + H2O
−
H H
H Carbanion
N O N OH
(b) and
N N Electrophiles, Nucleophiles and Type of Organic
Reactions
−
N O N O
(c) 48. The lowest nucleophilicity among the nucleophiles
and
N N
+ (a) CH3 C O O− (b) CH3O−
N OH N OH O
O
(d) and
N N (c) CN− (d) H3C S O−
Solution O
(c) For two structures to be in resonance only movement of
electrons takes place but there should be no change in Solution
the skeleton of the molecule. (d)
The structures given in option (c) are resonance hybrids O
of each other since they satisfy both the conditions.
CN− > CH 3 O− > CH3 C O O− > H3 C S O−
−
N O N O O O
H+ − Cl− Solution
51. The type of reaction CHCl3
→ : CCl3 → : CCl2
is Dichloro carbon (a) Two groups are removed from the same carbon. Thus,
(a) a-elimination (b) b-elimination this is a a-elimination reaction.
(c) g-elimination (d) elimination
(a) I > II > IV > III (b) I > III > II > IV
(c) II > I > III > IV (d) III > I > IV > II V IV III
(IIT-JEE 2009)
Solution
(b) Greater the number of p bonds, greater is the stability. H
Out of structures (II) and (IV), (II) is more stable as negative
charge is on more electronegative atom, that is, nitrogen. H 3C C CH3
Thus, the correct order is I > III > II > IV. H+
12. Which of the given statement(s) about N, O, P and Q with nine a-hydrogens and hence nine hyperconjugation
respect to M is (are) correct? structures.
H
HO C1
HO + H+
H H H C C CH3 H C C CH3
H
OH
HO C1 H CH3 HO H CH3 H CH3
OH H
H
CH3 C1 CH3 H H
M N O
H
C C CH3 H+
C C CH3
H+
CH3 CH3 CH3 H CH3
(Plus six more such structures from the other methyl groups.)
H OH HO H
Cl Cl Cl Cl
14. The total number of stereoisomers that can exist for M is
HO H HO H HO H H OH
_____.
HO H H OH HO H H OH HC CH3
3
Solution
(a) The hyperconjugation for tert-butyl carbocation involves
s → p (empty) electron delocalization. This is because
carbon having + charge has one vacant p-orbital. It has
O O O O O O O O
NO2 + O−
H OEt form than + N
I II III IV O−
(a) IV < II < I < III (b) III < I < II < IV (III) N and
(c) IV < III < II < I (d) III < IV < I < II
Solution NH are functional isomerism.
(a) Each of these compounds contains methylene ( CH2 ) CH3
group clamped between two electron withdrawing (IV) The combustion enthalpy of CH3C CH2 is less than
groups. So, after deprotonation from methylene group, H 3C H
negative charge can be delocalized and conjugate base
can be stabilized. If stronger electron withdrawing group C C
is attached with this methylene group, it will give more sta- H CH3.
ble conjugate base and is produced from a stronger acid.
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
H+ (c) II, III and IV only (d) All four are correct.
− +
O O O OH O OH
Solution
OEt OEt OEt (c) (I) In the case of Cl, (−I) effect is the dominating fac-
H H H H tor, so it deactivates the benzene ring weakly. But
OCOCH3 activates the benzene ring because lone pair
Since compound (IV) contains NO2 group which is most on oxygen atom increases electron density on the
electron withdrawing through −M effect and − I effect, its benzene ring. −
+ O
presence makes the compound most acidic. Compound
(II) N is more stable reso-
(III) contains COOEt group which is least electron with-
drawing. The OEt group shows mesomeric effect (+M) O
nance form because it contain more chemical bonds
and inductive effect (− I) but +M effect is more dominant
than − I effect. In the case of compound (I) and com- + O−
in comparison + N
pound (II), group COCH3 and CHO are more electron
withdrawing than COOEt. Therefore acidic order is IV O−
> II > I > III. Since pKa = − log Ka, so increasing order is
(III) N and
IV < II < I < III.
17. Consider the compound shown in the figure. NH
O OH are functional isomerism because chemical proper-
ties of these two amines are different.
CH3
O OH (IV) The combustion enthalpy of is less than
CH3C CH2
Which of the following statements is not correct? H 3C H
(a) Both protons are more acidic than acetic acid. CH3
C C because is a more stable
(b) All C C bonds in the dianion, C 4 O2−
4 are equal. CH3C CH2
H CH3
(c) All C O bonds in the dianion, C 4 O2−
4 are equal.
(d) The pKa1 and pKa2 values are equal for both alkene in comparison of trans alkene.
deprotonations.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 8. How many meso forms are possible for the following organic
compound?
Single Correct Choice Type CH3 OH Br OH CH3
1. How many chiral centres are there in the following compound? HOOC COOH
O H H H H H
(a) Zero (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
O
9. The compound that gives the most stable carbocation ion on
dehydration is
(a) CH3CH(CH3)CH2OH (b) (CH3)3COH
(c) CH2 CHCH2CH2OH (d) CH3CHOHCH2CH3
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 10. Which of the following statements would be true about this
compound?
2. Which of the following has a tendency to undergo
NO2
disproportionation? 5
(a) Tertiary carbocation (b) Tertiary carbanion
(c) Tertiary free radical (d) All of these 1 3
3. Which of the following carbon will give fastest deprotonation? NO2 NO2
Br
4 2
3 1 H
5
(a) All three C N bonds are of the same length.
O (b) C1 N and C3 N bonds are of the same length but
N shorter than C5 N bond.
(c) C1 N and C3 N bonds are of the same length but longer
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 3
than C5 N bond.
4. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the following (d) C1 N and C3 N bonds are of different length but both
compound? are longer than C5 N bond.
a b F Et
syn addition
C C (c) C C (d) None of these
Cl Et
b a
(a) Dextrorotatory (b) Laevorotatory 12. Which of the following is optically inactive?
(c) Racemic mixture (d) Meso form H CH3
6. How are the following compounds related?
(a) O (b)
H3C Cl CH3
Cl CH3
Cl
CH3 CH3
H Cl H
(c) (d)
(a) Diastereomers (b) Enantiomers CH3 CH3
(c) Meso compounds (d) Identical OH
7. The number of 3° carbon atoms in 2,2,4,4-tetramethylpentane 13. Which of the following has minimum enol content?
is (a) Phenol (b) Acetaldehyde
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) Acetoacetic ester (d) Pentane-2,4-dione
14. How many ethers are possible for the formula C5H12O includ- (III) The symbol D indicates that hydrogen atom lies left to
ing stereoisomers? the chiral centre in the Fischer projection diagram.
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (IV) The symbol D indicates that hydrogen atom lies right to
the a chiral centre in the Fischer projection diagram.
15. How many degrees of unsaturation are there in the following
(a) I only (b) I and IV (c) I and III (d) II only
compound?
OH 22. What type of isomerism is shown by following pairs?
O O
O
CH3 CH2 C O CH3 and CH3 C O C2H5
OH (a) Position isomers (b) Metamers
(c) Functional isomers (d) All of these
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 11 23. Among the following molecules, the correct order of C C
bond length is
16. If degree of unsaturation is three then the compound shows (a) C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H2
(a) one triple bond and one double bond. (b) C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 (C6H6 is benzene)
(b) one double bond and two rings. (c) C2H4 > C2H6 > C2H2 > C6H6
(c) one ring and two double bonds (d) C2H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 > C6H6
(d) All of these are correct.
24. Which of the following structures belongs to R-configuration?
17. (I) CH2 CH CH CH CH CH2
+ + F H 3C
(II) CH2 CH CH CH CH CH2
+ + (a) Br (b) H
(III) CH2 CH CH CH CH2
H 2N Cl H5C2 COOH
Among these three canonical structures (though more are
possible) what would be their relative contribution in the H 2N
hybrid? COOEt
(c) (d) None of these
(a) I > II > III (b) III > II > I
(c) I > III > II (d) III > I > II H Br
18. Which is not the position isomer of following compound? 25. Most stable carbocation among the given examples is
CH2Cl CH3 +
(a) + (b)
CH3 +
(a) (b) (c) CH2 (d) +CH
3
CH2Cl Cl
20. Heterolytic fission of a covalent bond in organic molecules 27. Select the most stable carbocation from among the
gives following.
(a) free radicals. (b) cations and anions. (a) +
(c) only cations. (d) only anions.
+
21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for (b)
D(+)glyceraldehyde? +
(I) The symbol D indicates the dextrorotatory nature of the (c)
compound. +
(II) The sign (+) indicates the dextrorotatory nature of the (d)
compound.
28. These are three canonical structures of naphthalene. Examine 34. Which of the following ions is most stable?
them and find correct statement among the following: + +
(a) CH3CH2 CH2 (b) CH3 CHCH2CH3
1 1 1
2 2 2
+ CH3
3 3 3 CH3 C CH3 +
(c) (d) CH C CH2
3
4 4 4 CH3
CH3
(a) All C C bonds are of same length.
(b) C1 C2 bond is shorter than C2 C3 bond. 35. How many cyclic and acyclic isomers can be made by the for-
(c) C1 C2 bond is longer than C2 C3 bond. mula C3H6O?
(d) None of these. (a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 4
29. Five alcohols can be drawn for formula C4H10O. How many of 36. Which of the following is the least stable carbocation?
these are optically active?
+
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 CH2
+
30. Which of the following carbonyl compounds will form car- (a) (b) C
banion most readily?
H
H3C O O
(a) (b) H3C
+
H3C CH3 CH3 (c) C (d)
+
C
O O
H3C H
(c) (d) H3C 37. HNCO in isocyanic acid exists as following resonating
CH3 CH3 structures
−
H N C O H N C O+
31. Which of the following can be applied to explain relative
I II
order of stability of carbocations?
(a) Resonance (b) Inductive effect
(c) Hyperconjugation (d) All of these + −
H N C O
+ III
32. If the carbocation CH2 rearranges to gain The correct order of stability is
H2C (a) I > III > II (b) I > II > III (c) II > III > I (d) II > I > III
stability, it will rearrange to 38. What kind of isomerism is possible in the following organic
CH3 +
compound?
(a) (b)
H2C +
+ H3C CH3
+ CH2
(c) CH2 (d) CH3
H3C
(a) Optical (b) Geometrical
33. Which of these shows incorrect representation of inductive (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
effect?
CH3 39. Which of the following is an example of elimination reaction?
O (a) Chlorination of methane.
(b) Dehydration of ethanol.
C OH (c) Nitration of benzene.
(a) (b) (d) Hydroxylation of ethylene.
40. How many enantiomeric pairs are obtained by monochlorin-
ation of 2,3-dimethylbutane?
(a) One (b) Four
CH3 (c) Two (d) Three
O 41. The total number of contributing structures for hyperconju-
−
CH3 C CH2 CH3 gation in CH3CH CH2 is
C O
(c) (d) (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
O
42. Which of the following structures represents 2-bromo- 48. For the formula C5H12O, eight alcohols can be drawn. How
6-isobutyl-4-methyldec-3-en-1-ol? many tertiary alcohols of these are optically active?
Br (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None of these
59. Removal of a hydride ion from methane molecule gives 69. Decreasing order of C C bond length is
(a) methyl radical (b) carbocation (I) C2H4 (II) C2H2 (III) C6H6 (IV) C6H12
(c) carbanion (d) methyl group (a) IV > III > I > II (b) I > II > IV > III
(c) II > I > IV > III (d) IV> I > III > II
60. IUPAC name of 4-isopropyl-m-xylene is
(a) 1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethylbenzene. 70. Name the family to which each belong:
(b) 4-isopropyl-m-xylene. O
(c) 4-isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene. CH3CH2CH2NH2 HOCH2CH2CH3
CH3CH2CH2COH
(d) 4-isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene.
(a) Acid, alkane, alcohol (b) Alkene, alcohol, ester
61. The number of functional groups in aspartame is (c) Acid, amine, alcohol (d) Amine, acid, alcohol
O
71. The structural formula of cyclohexyl alcohol is
O OH
N OH
NH2 H OCH3 (a) (b)
OH
O
CH2OH
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7
(c) (d) None of these
62. Which type of isomerism is not possible in alkenes?
(a) Chain isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism
(c) Metamerism (d) Positional isomerism 72. Name the following substance.
COOH
63. The reactive intermediate formed when CH3 Cu undergoes
Cl
heterolytic cleavage is
(a) carbocation. (b) carbanion.
(c) free radical. (d) none of these.
64. The IUPAC name for the compound is CH2CH3
CH2CH3 (a) 1-Ethyl-3-chlorobenz-4-oic acid
CH3 CH2 N CH2CH3 (b) 6-Chloro-4-ethyl benzoic acid
(c) 4-Ethyl-2-chlorobenzoic acid
(a) triethylamine. (b) ethyltriamine. (d) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl benzoic acid
(c) N,N-diethylethanamine. (d) None of these. 73. Which of the following is the correct bond line formula for the
65. Resonance effect involves given compound? (CH3)2C CHCH2CH3?
(a) delocalization of p electrons along a conjugated system. (a) (b)
(b) delocalization of n-electrons along a conjugated system.
(c) delocalization of s electrons into an adjacent p bond.
(d) All of these are correct.
(c) (d)
66. The compounds with structural formula R C N and R N C
are 74. The structure of the functional groups corresponding to acid,
(a) position isomers. (b) functional isomers. ester and ether are
(c) metamers. (d) chain isomers. (a) COR, COOR, COOH (b) O , COR, COOR
(c) COH, COOH, COOR (d) COOH, COOR, O
67. Identify the number of sp3 hybridized carbon atoms in the
given compounds (CH3)C CHC(CH3)2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 75. The heterolysis of forms a
68. The set which does not have structural isomers is Br
(a) carbanion. (b) carbocation.
(a) CH3CH2OH and CH3OCH3 (c) free radical. (d) cleavage not possible.
O O 76. Which of the following keto compounds will give the least
(b)
stable enol structure?
CH3CCH3 and CH3CH2CH
O O
O O
(c) (a) (b)
CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2COH O
O
O
OH O
(d) O
CH3CHCH2CH3 and CH3CCH2CH3 (c) (d)
O
77. The functional isomer of propan-1-ol is (c) It is difficult to replace chlorine from chlorobenzene than
(a) ethoxypropane. (b) dipropyl ether. from benzoyl chloride.
(c) methoxyethane. (d) methoxymethane. (d) Chlorobenzene on further chlorination gives
m-dichlorobenzene.
78. How many s and p bonds are present in the following mol-
ecule: CH2 CH CH2 C CH? 86. Which of the following represent the resonating structure of
(a) 7s bonds and 6p bond (b) 8s bonds and 5p bond
(c) 10s bonds and 3p bond (d) 9s bonds and 4p bond
79. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
+
CH3
(a) (b)
−
− + + −
(c) (d)
(a) 3-methyl cyclohexane.
(b) 1-methylcyclohex-2-ene. 87. Which of the following contain same number of linearly
(c) 6-methyl cyclohexane. arranged carbon atoms in their respective molecules?
(d) 1-methylcyclohex-5-ene. (a) CH2 CH C CH (b) HC C C CH
(c) H2C CH CH CH2 (d) CH3 C CH3
80. What is the shape of HCHO?
(a) Trigonal planar (b) Tetrahedral 88. Isovalent hyperconjugation explains the stability of
(c) Linear (d) Pyramidal (a) carbocations. (b) carbanions.
(c) free radicals. (d) carbenes.
81. Write formulas for the first three members of the homolo-
gous series beginning with H CH CH2 89. The greater stability of tert-butyl carbocation than methyl
(a) H CH CH2, CH3 CH2 CH CH2, CH3 CH CH CH3 carbocation can be explained on the basis of
(b) H CH CH, H3C CH CH2, CH3 CH2 CH CH2 (a) +I effect of the methyl groups.
(c) H CH CH2, CH3 CH2 CH CH2, CH3–CH2 CH2 CH CH2 (b) electromeric effect of the methyl groups.
(d) H CH CH2, CH3 CH2 CH CH2, CH3 CH CH2 (c) hyperconjugation effect of the methyl groups.
(d) −I effect of the methyl groups.
82. In the organic compound CH2 CH CH2 CH2 C CH, the
pair of hybridized orbitals involved in the formation of C2 C3 90. Which of the following species contain six electrons around
bond is the central carbon atom?
(a) sp–sp2 (b) sp–sp3 (c) sp2–sp3 (d) sp3–sp3 (a) Carbanion (b) Carbocation
(c) Carbene (d) Free radical
83. The number of resonance contributing structure(s) for the
following compound is 91. Homolytic fission yields
H (a) electrophiles.
H
H (b) nucleophiles.
C C H (c) free radicals.
−
C C (d) electrophiles and nucleophiles.
HO
H H 92. Which of the following are position isomers?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0 CH2 CH CH3 C CH3
(a) (b)
84. Which of the following is the highest priority in the CH2 CH3 CH2
Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system of prioritizing groups for R/S CH3 CH C CH
nomenclature? (c) (d) None of these
Br Cl CH3
Passage Type
(a) Propyl group (b) Methyl group Paragraph for Questions 93 to 94: A mixture of two or more
(c) Bromine (d) Chlorine structurally distinct compounds are present in many compounds.
Those in rapid equilibrium are called tautomers and the phenom-
Level II enon as tautomerism. For example, tautomerism between a car-
Multiple Correct Choice Type bonyl compound containing on a hydrogen and its enol form.
H H
85. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) The C Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter than in R C C R R C C R
chloroethane.
(b) The C Cl bond in chlorobenzene has some double H O O H
bond character.
Generally, keto form is more stable, but in the compound in which 97. The correct statement about T is
the enolic double bond is in conjugation with another double (a) It has two stereoisomers.
bond or in which enol is stabilized by internal hydrogen bonding, (b) It gives an achiral product (W).
enol form predominates. (c) It has two asymmetric carbon atoms.
(d) It has four stereoisomers and all are optically active.
93. In which of the following enol content is maximum?
(a) Ph2CHCHO (b) NCCH2COOC2H5 Matrix-Match Type
(c) CH3COCH2COCH3 (d) PhCOCH3
98. Match the compound with its characteristic.
94. Which structure (I or II) is more stable? Column I Column II
−
R2 C C R R2 C C R (a) Benzene (p) Aromatic
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (c) 42. (d)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d)
55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (b)
67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (a) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (c)
79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (c)
Level II
85. (a), (b), (c) 86. (a), (b), (c), (d) 87. (b), (d) 88. (a), (c) 89. (a), (c) 90. (b), (c)
91. (b), (c) 92. (a), (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (d)
97. (d) 98. (a) → p, q, r; (b) → r; (c) → q, s; (d) → p, q 99. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → r 100. (6)
101. (3) 102. (6) 103. (4) 104. (2) 105. (5) 106. (3)
107. (4) 108. (5)
Br H Br H Br H Br H
C 4 will give fastest deprotonation due to stabilization of
negative charge through conjugation. HO H HO H H OH H OH
4. (b) The number of geometrical isomers is calculated by the
formula 2n2 (where n is the number of double bonds) in H3C H H CH3 H CH3 H3C H
case both ends are identical. COOH COOH COOH COOH
For example, H3C CH CH CH3
However, if both ends are different, the number of geomet- All these four molecules possess symmetry; so, all are
rical isomers as in the given compound, can be calculated meso compounds.
by the formula 9. (b) (CH3)3COH gives (CH3)3C+ which is a tertiary carbocation,
2n−1 + 2p and thus very stable.
where p = n/2 for even number and p = (n + 1)/2 for odd 10. (c) C1 N and C3 N bonds are of the same length as they
number of double bonds. occupy symmetrical position in the molecule and due
In the given compound, n = 3. So, to the close proximity of electronegative atom Br they
3 +1 have longer bond length than C5 N bond.
p= =2 11. (d) Two or more organic compound having the same molec-
2
ular formula but different spatial arrangement of atoms
Substituting, we get 23−1 + 2(p) = 22 + 4 = 8
or groups, around doubly bonded (carbon) atoms, are
5. (c) We know that an alkene molecule is planar with the p cloud known as geometrical isomers and the phenomenon
above and below the plane. Thus, the addition of electro- as geometrical isomerism. Geometrical isomerism is not
phile to alkenes is done in two distinct pathways. In one, observed in a molecule if either of the doubly bonded
both parts of the reagent add to the p bond from the same atoms has two similar groups.
21. (b) CHO CHO X-ray diffraction studies show that, unlike benzene, all
carbon–carbon bonds in naphthalene are not of the
H C OH HO C H same length. In particular, the C1 C2 bond is consider-
ably shorter (1.36 Å) than the C2 C3 bond (1.40 Å). This
CH2OH CH2OH
difference can be understood if we examine the three
(+)-Glyceraldehyde (−)-Glyceraldehyde resonance forms given above. Notice that the C1 C2
D configuration L configuration bond is double in two structures (A and B) and single
in only one (C); whereas the C2 C3 bond is double in
The symbol D indicates the dextrorotatory nature of the
two structures (A and B) and single in only one (C). We
compound, that is, hydrogen atom lies right to the a chi-
would, therefore, except the C1 C2 bond to have more
ral centre in the Fischer projection formula.
double-bond character (shorter bond length), and
22. (b) Two or more organic compounds having the same
the C2 C3 bond to have more single-bond character
molecular formula but different structural formula due
(longer bond length).
to different nature of alkyl groups, around a polyvalent
29. (b)
functional group, are known as metamers and the phe-
nomenon as metamerism. Metamers include same class H CH3 H
of compounds. ∗
H 3C C CH2 CH3 H3C C OH H3C C CH2OH
23. (b) As the s-character increases in hybridized orbital, the
tendency of overlapping becomes more, giving rise to OH CH3 CH3
smaller bond length and higher bond energy.
C2H6 (1.54 Å) > C6H6 (1.39 Å) > C2H4 (1.34 Å) > C2H2 (1.20 Å) ∗
24. (d) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2OH H3C CH2 CH CH3
3
F 1 OH
1
Br 2 3
(a) 30. (c)
H 2N Cl 4 H H
4 2 O O
H 3C C2H5O− H 3C
S-configuration
3 −
H 3C 2
4 H CH3 CH3
H 3 1
(b) 2
Carbanion
H5C2 COOH 4
1 Because in the above compound electron-withdrawing
S-configuration group is present adjacent to carbanion. Hence, it is the
2
most readily formed carbanion.
H2N 3
3 31. (d) Stability of carbocations can be explained by resonance,
COOEt 1 2 inductive effect and hyperconjugation effect.
(c) 4
H Br 4 (a) Resonance: For example consider allyl carbocation
1 + +
CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH2
S-configuration
(b) Inductive effect: The order of stability of carbocation
25. (a) As it contains tertiary carbon atom. can also be explained on the basis of +ve inductive
26. (a) effect of alkyl group. Lesser the positive formal charge
4 3 on the carbon atom of the carbocation due to +I of
H 3 CH3 2
1 3 4 alkyl group, greater is the stability of carbocation.
Rotation
Cl CH3 2 1 H NH2 1 3 (c) Hyperconjugation: The stability of carbocations can be
270° 2
Cl explained on the basis of number of hyperconjugating
NH2 4
1
4
2 structures. As the number of hyperconjugating struc-
R-configuration R-configuration ture increases, the stability of carbocation increases.
32. (c)
27. (b) The most stable carbocation is the tertiary carbocation. +
+ CH2 +
CH2
H2C
28. (b)
1 1 1 33. (d) Inductive effect may be defined as the induction of
2 2 2 polarity in an otherwise covalent bond, due to incom-
plete shifting of the electron pair between the two
3 3 3
atoms that have different electronegativity. It is a per-
4 4 4
manent effect. It is represented by the symbol →. It
A B C propagates through the carbon chain.
37. (a) H C C C H H+ C C C H
− −
− + + −
H N C O H N C O H N C O H H
+
I II III IV III
Order of stability: I > III > II. In compound II the electron- 42. (d)
egative oxygen atom carries +ve charge hence this struc- OH
ture is unstable.
9 7 5 3
38. (c) The compound shows both optical and geometrical 10 8 6 4 2 1
isomerism. Optical isomerism is shown by those com-
pounds that contain at least one chiral carbon and Br
geometrical isomerism shown by the compound con-
taining double bond.
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 OH CH3 C CH2 OH 56. (b) Three different but equivalent structures are possible
*
CH3 for CO2−
3 .
2-Methylbutan-1-ol 2,2-Dimethylpropan-1-ol
− −
* * O O O
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH3 CH3 CH CH CH3
C C C
OH CH3 OH −O O− −O O O O−
Pentan-2-ol 3-Methylbutan-2-ol
1 2 3
CH3
57. (a) CH3+ is the most stable. The replacement of H by Br
CH3 C CH2 CH3 CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3 increases positive charge on carbon atom as Br is more
3
electronegative than H, and consequently the species
OH OH
becomes less stable.
2,2-Methyl-2-butan-2-ol Pentan-3-ol
58. (c) There are 8 chiral carbon atoms present. 73. (b) The carbon skeleton and the bond line formula are rep-
H 3C resented as
CH3 H3 C H CH3
CH3 C C
CH3 H2
H3C CH3
66. (b) R C N (cyanide) and R N C (isocyanide) are func- 78. (c) It has 10s and 3p bonds
tional isomers.
H H H
67. (d) The hybridization is as follows: s s s
p s s
3
sp each sp 2
sp sp 2 3
sp each H s C s C C C C s H
s 2p
( CH3)2 C = C H C (CH3 ) 2 1s
H
68. (d) They are not structural isomers because their molecular
79. (b) 1-Methylcyclohex-2-ene
formula is different. The rest are because they are func-
tional group isomers. 80. (a) Since the carbon is sp2 hybridized, the shape is trigonal
planar.
69. (a) The order of C C bond length is
81. (b) CH CH2 (Ethene); H3C CH CH2 (Propene);
> > H 3C CH2 > HC CH CH3 CH2 CH CH2 (But-1-ene) or CH3 CH CH CH3
(But-2-ene) followed by CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH2 (Pent-1-
ene) and so on.
1.54 A° 1.39 A° 1.34 A° 1.20 A°
6 5 4 3 2 1
As the s-character increases in hybridized orbitals, the ten- 82. (b) CH2 CH CH2 CH2 C CH. In the compound,
dency of overlapping becomes more giving rise to smaller
C2 is sp and C3 is sp3 hybridized
bond length and higher bond energy.
C6H12 > C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 83. (b) The resonating structures are
70. (c) Carboxylic acid, amine, alcohol H H
H H
71. (a) Cyclohexyl alcohol H H H H
C C
− −
72. (d) The name of the compound is 2-chloro-4-ethyl benzoic HO C C C HO C C C
acid. H H H H
COOH
1 84. (c) Priority is determined by atomic number, Br = 35, Cl = 17,
6
Cl
2 C = 6, C = 6. Therefore, Br has the highest priority.
5 3
4
CH2CH3
Level II H +
+ H
Multiple Correct Choice Type H C C H H C C H
85. (a), (b), (c)
H H H H
The C Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter than in chlo-
roethane because chlorobenzene undergoes resonance; as
a result, chlorine and C bonds have double bond character. H H
So, the C Cl bond is shorter. But in chloroethane, there is no
resonance; hence, C Cl bond is longer. H C C H H+ C C H
+
H
C6H5 Cl and C2H5 Cl H H H
In chlorobenzene, chlorine atom is involved in resonance
and in benzoyl chloride oxygen atom is involved in reso- (CH3 )3 C+ > H3C +
89. (a), (c)
nance. Hence, Cl from chlorobenzene is difficult to remove tert -Butyl carbocation Methyl carbocation
than from benzoyl chloride.
The stability of tertiary butyl carbocation can be explained on
C6H5 Cl and C6H5 COCl
the basis of (+I) inductive effect of methyl group. It is clear that
Chlorine group is ortho- and para-directing group; hence, lesser the positive formal charge on the carbon atom of the
incoming nucleophile enters into either para or ortho posi- carbocation due to +I of methyl group, greater is the stability
tion. Para position is more stable and forms major compound of carbocation.
because there is no steric hindrance between the two chlorine As the number of hyperconjugating structures increases, the
atoms. stability of carbocation increases. There are 4 hyperconjugat-
ing structures for methyl carbocation and 10 hyperconjugat-
Cl Cl Cl ing structures for tertiary butyl carbocation. Hence, it is more
Cl stable.
Cl2
+ 90. (b), (c)
hv
H H H
Cl H
(major) H C+ +C H C− H C
H
86. (a), (b), (c), (d) H H H
Carbocation Singlet carbene Carbanion Carbon free radical
+ (6 electrons) (6 electrons) (8 electrons) (7 electrons)
91. (b), (c) In homolysis, the covalent bond breaks in such a way
−
that each resulting species get its own electron. The neutral
fragments A and B are called free radicals.
Homolytic fission
+ − − + A : B
→ A i + Bi
Free radicals
Hence, homolytic fission yields free radicals and they also act
as nucleophiles.
92. (a), (b) These are position isomers because they have differ-
ent position of the double bond. In (c), the molecular formula
changes, and hence it is not an isomer.
87. (b), (d) The following two compounds contain same num- Passage Type
ber of linearly arranged carbon atoms.
93. (c)
H H O O O H O
H C C H H C C C H
H H H 3C C CH2 C CH3 H3 C C CH2 C CH3
Keto form Enol form
88. (a), (c) Isovalent hyperconjugation explain the stability of
carbocations and free radicals.
In the free radicals and carbocations, the canonical forms do O H OH
not display more charge separation than the main form.
H2 C C CH C CH3
(d)
104. (2) Two optical isomers of lactic acid are as follows:
COOH COOH
Naphthalene is aromatic in nature. It only has sp2 carbon
atoms. H C OH HO C H
99. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → r
CH3 CH3
105. (5) There are 5p bonds in the naphthalene structure. 107. (4) a = 2n where a = number of optically active isomers and
n = number of asymmetric carbon atoms
As n = 2, so a = 22 = 4.
108. (5) 2,5-Dimethyl-4-ethylheptane
106. (3) Three isomers are possible for disubstituted benzene.
X X X CH2 CH3
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
X CH3 CH2 CH CH CH2 CH CH3
CH3 CH3
X
X
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
Conformations of Alkanes,
2007 Chemical Properties of Alkenes
Chemical Properties of Alkynes
Chemical Properties of Alkenes,
2008
Chemical Properties of Alkynes
2009
2010 Chemical Properties of Alkenes Conformations of Alkanes
Chemical Properties of Alkanes,
2011 Chemical Properties of Alkenes
Methods of Preparation of Alkenes
Chemical Properties of Alkanes,
2012 Chemical Properties of Alkenes
Chemical Properties of Alkynes
2013 Chemical Properties of Alkenes
Chemical Properties of Alkanes,
Chemical Properties of Alkenes, Conformations of Alkanes,
2014
Chemical Properties of Alkynes, Physical Properties of Alkanes
General Method of Preparation of Alkenes
2015 Chemical Properties of Alkenes
General Method of Preparation of Alkenes, Chemical Prop-
2016
erties of Alkenes, Nomenclature
SUMMARY
Alkanes
1. Alkanes are those organic compounds that comprise of single-bonded carbon and hydrogen atoms entirely and are devoid of any
other functional groups. Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n + 2 and are also saturated hydrocarbons.
2. General methods of preparation
(a) Hydrogenation of alkenes and alkynes
C H Pt, Pd, or Ni C H C Pt H C H
+ + 2H2
Solvent, Solvent,
C H pressure
C H C pressure
H C H
(ii) Reduction of alkyl halides: Alkanes are obtained when alkyl halides are heated with reducing agents like LiAlH4/ether, Pd/H2,
Pt/H2, Zn/conc. HCl.
R − X → R − H + HX
(c) From Grignard reagents
Grignard reagent readily reacts with compounds containing active hydrogen, such as alcohols, acids, amines, water, ammonia,
etc. to form alkanes.
Dry ether
RMgX + H2O
→ R − H + Mg(OH)X
(d) From carboxylic acids
Two methods using these are
(i) Decarboxylation of sodium salt of carboxylic acid in presence of soda lime.
CaO
RCOO − Na+ + NaOH
∆
→ CH4 + Na2CO3
i i
R + R →R − R ↑
i
At the cathode: H2O + e − → OH− + H
i
2 H → H2
(e) Corey–House synthesis: This method involves coupling of two alkyl halides as in Wurtz reaction. However, one of the alkyl
halide is converted into lithium dialkylcuprate (R2CuLi) and then treated with second alkyl halide (R′—X). It can thus be used for
synthesis of symmetrical and unsymmetrical alkanes.
R2CuLi + R′ X R R′ + RCu + LiX
Lithium Alkyl halide Alkane
dialkylcuprate
3. Physical properties
(a) Alkanes are non-polar compounds with weak intermolecular interactions. They are insoluble in water due to low polarity and
inability to form hydrogen bonds.
(b) The boiling points of the unbranched alkanes show a regular increase with increasing molecular weight. Branching of the alkane
chain, however, lowers the boiling point. This can be explained on the basis of van der Waals forces.
(c) The unbranched alkanes do not show smooth increase in melting point with increase in atomic number. However, individually
even and odd carbon atom alkanes show a smooth increase with increasing molecular weight.
4. Chemical properties
(a) Oxidation
Alkanes undergo combustion reaction with oxygen when ignited (as in automobiles and furnaces). A complex series of reactions
takes place, ultimately converting the alkane to carbon dioxide and water. General reaction is
3n + 1
CnH2n + 2 + O → nCO2 + (n + 1)H2O
2 2
(b) Substitution reactions
(i) Halogenation: Alkanes react with molecular halogens to produce alkyl halides by substitution reaction called radical halo-
genation. The halogenation is catalyzed by dibenzoyl peroxide upon exposure to UV light or at elevated temperature.
R − H + X2 → R − X + HX
The reactivity order for halogens shows the order: F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. The reactivity order for H atom in alkane shows the order:
3° > 2° > 1° > CH4.
Mechanism for radical chlorination of methane
Heat
CH4 +Cl2 Light
→ CH3Cl + HCl
Step 1: Halogen dissociation—Under the influence of heat or light a molecule of chlorine dissociates; each atom takes one of the bond-
ing electrons.
Heat
Cl Cl Cl + Cl
or Light
H H
Cl + H C H Cl H + C H
H H
A chlorine atom This step produces a
abstracts a hydrogen molecule of hydrogen
atom from a chloride and a methyl
methane molecule. radical.
H H
H C + Cl Cl H C Cl + Cl
H H
A methyl radical This step produces a
abstracts a chlorine molecule of methyl
atom from a chlorine chloride and a chlorine
molecule. atom. The chlorine atom
can now cause a repetition
of Step 2.
(ii) Nitration
CH4 + HNO3→ CH3NO2 + H2O (at 400°C)
The reactivity order for nitric acid is: 3° > 2° > 1° > CH4
(iii) Sulphonation
C6H14 + H2SO4 → C6H13SO3H + H2O (at 400°C)
The reactivity order for sulphonation is 3° > 2° > 1° > CH4
(c) Isomerization
Straight chain alkanes on heating with AlCl3 + HCl at 200°C and 35 atm pressure isomerize into branched chain alkanes.
Anhy. AlCl3/HCl
CH3(CH2)4CH3 CH3CH (CH2)2 CH3 + CH3CH2 CH CH2 CH3
n-hexane
CH3 CH3
2-Methylpentane 3-Methylpentane
(d) Aromatization
CH3
Cr2O3 or V2O5
CH2 CH3 or Mo2O3
773K,
CH2 CH2 10–20 atm
CH2
(e) Pyrolysis
Pyrolysis (cracking) occurs when alkane vapours on passing through red hot metal tube in absence of air decomposes to simpler
hydrocarbons.
C6H12 + H2
C6H14 773K
C4H8 + C2H6
C3H6 + C2H4 + CH4
5. Conformations
(a) Conformations of ethane
The eclipsed and staggered conformation of ethane is shown below:
H HH
H H
H
H H H H
H H
Eclipsed Staggered
H3C CH3
HCH3 H H H CH3
H H
Eclipsed IV
H H H H
H3C H H CH3
Eclipsed II Eclipsed VI
Potential energy
19 kJ mol−1
16 kJ mol−1 16 kJ mol−1
3.8 kJ mol−1 3.8 kJ mol−1
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H H H3C H H CH3 H H
H H H H H H H H
CH3 H H CH3
Anti I Gauche III Gauche V Anti I
(ii) The anti-conformation (I) does not have torsional strain from steric hindrance because the groups are staggered and the
methyl groups are far apart. The anti-conformation is the most stable.
(iii) The methyl groups in the gauche conformations III and V are so close that they repel each other.
(iv) The eclipsed conformations (II, IV, and VI) represent energy maxima in the potential energy diagram.
(v) Eclipsed conformations II and VI have repulsive dispersion forces arising from the eclipsed methyl groups and hydrogen atoms.
(vi) Eclipsed conformation IV has the greatest energy of all because of the added large repulsive dispersion forces between the
eclipsed methyl groups as compared to II and VI.
Tip (a) Torsional strain (also called eclipsed interaction strain) is the strain that arises when non-bonded atoms separated by
three bonds are forced from a staggered conformation to an eclipsed conformation.
(b) The angle strain (also known as Baeyer’s strain) arises when the bond angles deviate from the ideal bond angles to
achieve maximum bond strength.
Boat
Twist Twist
45.2 kJ mol−1
20
30 kJ mol−1
23 kJ mol−1
Chair
Chair
0
Tip The reactivity of cycloalkanes is proportional to the angle strain. The reactivity decreases as the number of carbon atoms in the
ring increases. Thus, the order of reactivity is
Cyclopropane > Cyclobutane > Cyclopentane > Cyclohexane
H H H CH3 (Equatorial)
H H H H
H H
H H
(Less stable) (More stable by 7.6 kJ mol−1)
(ii) In cyclohexane derivatives with larger alkyl substituents, the strain caused by 1,3-diaxial interactions is even more pro-
nounced. The conformation of tert-butylcyclohexane with the tert-butyl group equatorial is estimated to be approximately
21 kJ mol−1 more stable than the axial form.
CH3
CH3 C CH3 H H
H
H H H H
H H H H CH3
H H H C CH3
H H H H
H H
H H CH
3
Axial tert-butylcyclohexane Equatorial tert-butylcyclohexane
(iii) In case of cis-1,4-disubstituted cyclohexane, when one ring substituent group is larger than the other and they cannot both
be equatorial, the conformation with the larger group equatorial will be more stable.
H3C
CH3 CH3
H3C
CH3 ring
H3C CH3
flip
H3C
(More stable because large (Less stable because large
group is equatorial) group is axial)
(iv) In case of trans-1,3-disubstituted cyclohexane, lower energy conformation is that with the largest group equatorial.
H3C
CH3
H3C
CH3 ring
H3C
flip
H3C CH3
CH3
(More stable because large (Less stable because large
group is equatorial) group is axial)
Alkenes
1. Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a carbon–carbon double bond. They are also known as olefins and are represented
by the general formula CnH2n.
2. General methods of preparation
(a) By dehydration of alcohols
Al2O3, 623 K
RCH2 CH2OH −H2O
RCH CH2
Alcohol Alkene
Step 2: The protonated alcohol loses a molecule of water to become a carbocation. This step is slow and rate determining.
R H R H
+
C C O H C C+ + O H
slow
(rate determining)
H R′ H R′
Step 3: The carbocation loses a proton to a base.
R R
C C+ + A− C C + H A
fast
H R′ R′
Alkene
(ii) Dehydration primary alcohols: An E2 mechanism
Step 1: The alcohol accepts a proton from the acid in a fast step.
H H H
fast +
C C O H + H A C C O H + A−
H H H H
Primary Acid catalyst Protonated alcohol Conjugate
alcohol (typically sulphuric or base
phosphoric acid)
Step 2: A base removes a hydrogen from the b carbon as the double bond forms and the protonated hydroxyl group
departs.
H H H H
+ slow
A− + C C O H C C +H A+ O H
(rate determining)
H H H
Alkene
If two alkenes may be formed due to dehydrohalogenation of an alkyl halide, the one which is most substituted is the main
and preferred product. This is known as Saytzeff’s rule (Zaitsev’s rule). For example, dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobu-
tane gives,
Br H3C CH CH CH3
Diethylethene (disubtitued): Main product
KOH (alcoholic)
H3C CH CH2 CH3
The order of reactivity of haloalkanes in dehydrohalogenation is: Tertiary > Secondary > Primary.
Mechanism
Elimination occurs by E2 mechanism.
−
B H
b a E2
C C C C + B H + X−
X
Reaction conditions that favor elimination by an E1 mechanism should be avoided because the carbocation intermediate in
an E1 reaction can undergo rearrangement of the carbon skeleton, or it can also undergo substitution by an SN1 mechanism,
which competes strongly with product formation by E1 path.
(ii) From vicinal dihaloalkanes
H2C Br Heat CH2
+ Zn (methanol) + ZnBr2
H2C Br CH2
Mechanism
R″ R′ R″ R″
R R′ R′
+ − +
C C R′″ R C C R′″ C C O P(C6H5)3
P(C6H5)3 O P(C6H5)3 R R′″
O +
Aldehyde Ylide Oxaphosphetane Alkene Triphenylphosphine
or ketone (+ diastereomer) oxide
R + Me H Me
N +
Me 150°C R O N
H O Me
A tertiary amine oxide An alkene N,N-Dimethylhydroxylamine
HO − H
+ + HOH + NR3
NR3 Heat
3. Physical properties
(a) Alkenes are non-polar compounds and the only attractive forces between their molecules are dispersion forces.
(b) They are weakly polar because the p- electrons of the double bond and have higher dipole moment than the corresponding
alkanes.
(c) The boiling points of unbranched alkenes are higher than the branched chain compounds.
(d) They are slightly soluble in water but dissolve in non-polar or low polarity solvents.
4. Chemical properties
Due to the presence of carbon-carbon double bond, they are more reactive than the alkanes. The most characteristic reaction of
alkenes is addition to the carbon–carbon double bond in which the p-bond is broken and, in its place, s -bonds are formed to two
new atoms or groups of atoms.
(a) Addition reactions
+d −d slow
C C + E − Nu C C + Nu−
+
E
Nu−
fast
C C + C C
+
E Nu E
H H X X
R C C R + X2 R C C R
H H
Mechanism
Step 1: The alkene functions as a nucleophile and attacks molecular bromine, expelling bromide as a leaving group and forming
a bridged intermediate, called bromonium ion.
−
C C C C + Br
d + Br Br
+
d − Br Bromonium ion Bromide ion
Step 2: Bromide functions as a nucleophile and attacks the bromonium ion in an SN2 process.
Br
−
C C + Br C C + enantiomer
Br Br
+
Bromonium ion Bromide ion vic-Dibromide
Tip The reaction with bromine is used for detection of double bond. The colour of bromine water disappears on formation of dibro-
moalkane if carbon–carbon double bond is present.
C C + HX C C
H X
• In asymmetrical alkenes, the addition of a HX takes place in a manner where by the halogen atom adds to the carbon atom,
which has lesser number of hydrogen atoms on it (Markovnikov’s rule).
• The addition of HBr to unsymmetrical alkenes in the presence of oxygen and peroxides is contrary to Markovnikov’s rule. This
is known as Peroxide effect or Kharasch effect. For example, propene reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxides, to form
1-bromopropane instead of 2-brompropane.
CH3−CH CH2 + HBr CH3−CH2−CH2Br
The mode of addition of hydrogen chloride or hydrogen iodide is not affected by the presence of peroxides.
(iii) Addition of sulphuric acid (in accordance to Markovnikov’s rule).
• Alkene donates a pair of electrons to a proton from sulphuric acid to form a carbocation.
• The carbocation reacts with a hydrogen sulphate ion to form an alkyl hydrogen sulphate
O H O HO3SO H
+ −
C C + H O S O H C C + O S O H C C
O O
Alkene Sulphuric Carbocation Hydrogen Alkyl hydrogen
acid sulphate ion sulphate
Mechanism
Step 1: The alkene is protonated forming a carbocation intermediate.
Step 2: Water functions as a nucleophile an attacks the carbocation intermediate.
Step 3: Water functions as a base and deprotonates the oxonium ion, yielding the product.
Proton transfer Nucleophilic attack Proton transfer
H
H O+ H
O H O H O HO H
H H H H + H H
+
O O
CH3 H
C C + H2O + Hg OCCH3 C C O + CH3COH
2 THF
H H
HO Hg OCCH3
Step 2: In the second step, demercuration, sodium borohydride reduces the acetoxymercury group and replaces it with
hydrogen.
CH3 H CH3 H O
HO Hg OCCH3 HO H
(viii) Hydroboration-oxidation
• Anti-Markovnikov hydration of a double bond can be achieved through the use of diborane (B2H6) or a solution of
borane in tetrahydrofuran (BH3: THF).
O O
KMnO4, OH−, H2O H3O+
CH3CH CHCH3 heat
2 C 2 C
CH3 O− CH3 OH
(cis or trans) Acetate ion Acetic acid
(ii) Cyclic product called ozonides is formed when alkenes add a molecule of ozone across the double bond in an inert solvent
like CCl4 or chloroform at low temperature. Ozonides on hydrolysis with water in the presence of a reducing agent give alde-
hydes. This reaction is termed as ozonolysis.
(d) Polymerization
O2
nCH2 CH2 ( CH2 CH2 )n
(trace)
(e) Isomerization
500–700°C
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3 C CH2
200–300°C
But-1-ene Cat.
CH3
Al2(SO4)3
2-Methylpropene
(Isobutane)
1,2-Addition 1,4-Addition
Cl
HCl H + H
25°C Cl
1,3-Butadiene 3-Chloro-1-butene 1-Chloro-2-butene
(78%) (22%, primarily E)
Mechanism
Step 1:
+ +
+ −
Cl H + Cl
An allylic cation
equivalent to
d+ d+
Step 2:
Cl
(a) (a)
1,2-Addition
d+ d + (b) −
+ Cl
(b)
Cl 1,4-Addition
high temperature
CH3 CH CH3 + X2 or low concentration of X2 CH3 CH CH2X + HX
(substitution reaction)
In this substitution a halogen atom replaces one of the hydrogen atoms of the methyl group of propene. These hydrogen atoms
are called the allylic hydrogen atoms, and the substitution reaction is known as an allylic substitution
H H
C C H
H
C Allylic hrydrogen atoms
H H
400° C
CH3 = CH − CH3 + Cl2 gas
phase
→ CH3 = CH − CH2Cl + HCl
3-Chloropropene
light or ROOR
CH2 CH CH3 + N Br CH2 CH CH2Br + N H
CCl4
O O
N-Bromosuccinimide 3-Bromopropane Succinimide
(NBS) (allyl bromide)
Tip N-Bromosuccinimide is nearly insoluble in CCl4 and provides a constant but very low concentration of bromine in the reaction
mixture. It does this by reacting very rapidly with the HBr formed in the substitution reaction. Each molecule of HBr is replaced
by one molecule of Br2:
O O
N Br + HBr N H + Br2
O O
Alkynes
1. Alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing carbon–carbon triple bonds. They have the general formula of CnH2n−2.
2. General methods of preparation
(a) From alkyl halides
(i) By dehydrohalogenation of vicinal dihalides (1,2-dihalides).
Vicinal dihalide Double dehydrohalogenation
formation H H
2NaNH2
RCH CHR + Br2 R C C R R C C R + 2NH3 + 2NaBr
Br Br
A vic-dibromide
3. Physical properties
(a) Alkynes also have properties similar to corresponding alkanes. Alkynes up to three carbons are gases at room temperature.
(b) The boiling points, melting points and densities increase with increase in molecular mass.
(c) They are non-polar and dissolve in non-polar or low polarity solvents.
(d) They are only slightly soluble in water but show better solubility than corresponding alkenes.
4. Chemical properties
(a) Acidic character of alkynes
(i) The electronegativity of differently hybridized carbon atoms follow the order, sp > sp2 > sp3. This increase in the electronega-
tivity of an alkyne carbon, (in comparison to that in alkenes and alkanes) polarize the C H electron bond towards carbon and
facilitate the release of proton(s). Therefore, the acid strength of hydrogens will follow the order, Alkynes > Alkenes > Alkanes.
(ii) The stabilities of the anion left after the removal of proton, that is, carbanions follow the order, RC C− > RCH CH− > R CH2
CH2− .
(iii) Sodium ethynide and other sodium alkynides can be prepared by treating terminal alkynes with sodium amide in liquid
ammonia.
CH3C C H + NaNH2 CH3C C: −Na+ + NH3
liq. NH3
Br Br
Br
Br2 Br2
C C C C C C
CCl4 CCl4
Br Br Br
Dibromoalkene Tetrabromoalkane
• Addition of one molar equivalent of chlorine or bromine to an alkyne generally results in anti-addition and yields
a trans-dihaloalkene.
HO2C Br
Br2
HO2C C C CO2H C C
(1 mol)
Br CO2H
Acetylenedicarboxylic (70%)
acid
(iii) Addition of hydrogen halides (in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule)
+ HX
R C + HX R CX R CX2
CH CH2 CH3
• The rate of addition of halogen acids follows the order, HI > HBr > HCl.
• In the presence of peroxides, the addition of HBr takes place according to the anti-Markovnikov’s rule.
(iv) Addition of hypochlorous acid (in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule).
HOCl +HOCl
R C + R C OH R C (OH)2 −H2O
R C O
OH O
H2SO4, H2O
R HgSO4
R R
Enol Ketone
(Not isolated)
Mechanism
• The enol and ketone are said to be tautomers, which are constitutional isomers that rapidly interconvert via the migra-
tion of a proton. The interconversion between an enol and a ketone is called keto-enol tautomerization.
• Tautomerization is an equilibrium process, which means that the equilibrium will establish specific concentrations for
both the enol and the ketone. Generally, the ketone is highly favored, and the concentration of enol will be quite small.
(vii) Addition of HCN
Ba(CN)2
R C + HCN R C CN
CH CH2
(viii) Hydroboration-oxidation
H OH O
1. BH3•
R 2. H2O2, NaOH
R R H
CR′ O O O O
(d) Polymerization
Hot Cu tube
CH C6H6 or
3
CH
CH Cu2Cl2/NH4Cl HC CH
H2C CH C CH H2C CH C C CH CH2
CH
Vinyl acetylene Divinyl acetylene
(e) Oxidation
Alkaline KMnO4 oxidizes ethyne to oxalic acid:
CH COOH
+ O2
CH COOH
R1 C C R2
R1 R2 R1 H
H H
H H H R2
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Alkanes In option (b) methyl group is equatorial while chloro
group is in axial position.
General Methods of Preparation In option (c) both the methyl and chloro groups are
1. Which of the following reaction would not produce saturated equatorial.
hydrocarbon as a major product? In option (d) methyl group is axial while chloro group is
(a) CH3CH2Br + Na
→
ether equatorial.
CH3 Solution
2-Methylbutane (d) All alkenes contain single double bond, so one equiv-
alent of hydrogen can be added to each alkene. After
Cl2/hv or heat hydrogenation, almost all products are equally stable but
reactants are not equally stable. The hydrogenation reac-
Cl tion is exothermic, so more energy will release from the
most unstable alkene.
CH3 CH CH2 CH2Cl + CH3 C CH2 CH3 The stability of alkenes can be explained by hypercon-
jugation which is directly proportional to alpha hydrogen
CH3 CH3
atoms. The alpha hydrogen atoms in (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(Achiral) (Achiral) options are 5, 8, 4 and 3, respectively. Hence, the alkene
∗ ∗ given in option (d) is the least stable for which heat of
+ H3C CH CH2 CH3 + CH3 CH CH CH3
hydrogenation will be the maximum.
CH2Cl CH3 Cl Tip/Alternate Solution Just look for the least stable alkene by
(Chiral) (Chiral) counting the least number of alpha hydrogens.
6. Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molec-
ular mass 72 u gives only one isomer of monosubstituted alkyl 9. For the following reaction
halide? C5H12 + Cl2
hn
→ C5H11Cl →(C )
Na / ether
(a) Tertiary butyl chloride (b) Neopentane (A ) (B)
(c) Isohexane (d) Neohexane
(AIEEE 2012) the products (A), (B) and (C) are
Solution CH3 CH3
(b) The reaction involved is (a) CH3 C CH3 CH3 C CH2Cl
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
Cl2/hv
CH3 C CH3 CH3 C CH2Cl
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 C CH2 CH2 C CH3
Neopentane Monosubstituted alkyl halide
All hydrogens are equivalent CH3 CH3
Molecular mass = C5H12 = 12 × 5 + 12 = 72 u
CH3 CH3
7. The major product obtained in the photocatalyzed bromina-
(b) CH CH CH2CH3 CH3 C CH2CH3
tion of 2-methylbutane is 3
(a) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane.
Cl
(b) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane. CH3 CH3
(c) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane.
(d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane. CH3 CH2 C C CH2CH3
(JEE Main Online 2014)
CH3 CH3
Solution
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) The reaction is
CH3 (d) None of these
CH3
Br2 Solution
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH3 C CH2 CH3 CH3 CH3
hv
Cl2 Na/ether
Br (a) CH3 C CH3 CH3 C CH2Cl
hn Wurtz
2-Bromo-2-methylbutane CH3 CH3
reaction
(major)
Neopentane Neopentyl chloride
8. Which one of the following alkenes has the maximum heat of (A) (B)
hydrogenation?
CH3 CH3
CH2CH3 CH2CH3
(a) (b) CH3 C CH2 CH2 C CH3
CH2CH3 CH2CH3 CH3 CH3
(C)
Alkenes Solution
General Methods of Preparation (c) For elimination, strong base is required. But more hin-
dered base will produce less substituted alkene.
10.
Me t-BuOK
+
∆ t-BuOH, 75°C
Me Br
+
N 2-Methyl-2-butene 2-Methyl-1-butene
Et (27.5%) (72.5%)
OH− n-Bu (more substituted) (less substituted)
The alkene formed as a major product in the above elimina- 13. What is the reagent needed for the following reaction?
tion reaction is OH
(a) Me (b) CH2 CH2
Me Me
(c) (d)
(a) concentrated sulphuric acid and high heat.
(b) 85% phosphoric acid and high heat.
(AIEEE 2006) (c) dilute sulphuric acid and heat.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Solution
Solution
(d) From Hofmann’s rule, the alkene having least alkylated
(b) The temperature and concentration of acid required to
double bond is the major product.
dehydrate an alcohol depend on the structure of the
11. The gas liberated by the electrolysis of dipotassium succinate alcohol substrate.
solution is Primary alcohols are the most difficult to dehydrate. They
(a) ethane. (b) ethyne. require concentrated sulphuric acid and a temperature of
(c) ethene. (d) propene. 180°C in order to dehydrate.
(JEE Main Online 2014) Secondary alcohols can be dehydrated using 85% phos-
phoric acid at 165–170°C.
Solution
OH
(c)
85% H3PO4
CH2 COOK CH2 COO− 165−170°C
+ 2K+
CH2 COOK CH2 COO−
Chemical Properties
H2O OH− + H+
14. HBr reacts with CH2 CH OCH3 under anhydrous condi-
+ 1 − tions at room temperature to give
At the cathode: H + e → H2
2 (a) CH3CHO and CH3Br (b) BrCH2CHO and CH3
At the anode: (c) BrCH2 CH2 OCH3 (d) H3C CHBr OCH3
O (AIEEE 2006)
Solution
CH2 COO− CH2 C O CH2
(d) The reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule.
(g) + 2CO2(g)
CH2 COO− CH2 C O CH2 HBr +
H2C CH OCH3 H2C CH OCH3
O
H Br −
12. Which of the following conditions/reagents would you Br
employ to obtain the best yields in the following reaction?
H3C CH OCH3
H H H H Solution
(d) Brine is 10% aqueous solution of NaCl, so the reaction
CH3 C O+O C CH3 CH3 C C CH3
mixture contains Br2, Cl− and H2O, out of which Br2 can
2-Butene initiate the reaction since the first step of addition is elec-
17. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as trophilic in nature. For the second step, a nucleophile is
one of the products. This confirms the presence of required for which Br−, Cl− and H2O are available and lead
(a) a vinyl group. to the following products.
(b) an isopropyl group.
Br Br Br
(c) an acetylenic triple bond. Br2, NaCl, H2O
(d) two ethylenic double bonds. + +
(AIEEE 2011)
Br OH Cl
Solution
(a) Vinyl group gives formaldehyde on ozonolysis which Formation of 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane is not possible in
confirms the presence of vinylic group –CH CH2 in the this reaction since the first step in the addition to double
compound. bond involves an electrophilic attack and chlorine is not
O available as Cl+ (electrophile) in the reaction mixture.
Zn
CH2 CH2 + O3 CH2 CH HCHO + HCHO 21. 1-Butene reacts with the following reagents given in the
H2O
options. Out of these, which will react through free radical
O O mechanism?
(a) HCl + peroxide (b) (i) BH3, (ii) H2O2, OH−
18. In the hydroboration – oxidation reaction of propene with (c) HBr (d) HBr + peroxide
diborane, H2O2 and NaOH, the organic compound formed is
(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3CHOHCH3 Solution
(c) CH3CH2CH2OH (d) (CH3)3COH (d) Electrophilic addition reactions are the characteristic
(JEE Main Online 2014) reactions of alkenes and these reactions are ionic in
nature, so, the reaction is completed by electrophiles and
Solution
nucleophiles. However, in the case of presence of perox-
(c) ide, reaction takes place through free radical formation.
1. B2H6 This behaviour is observed only in the case of addition
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
2. H2O2/OH− of HBr.
Solution
light (c)
RO OR or
2RO
∆ H+
an alkyl peroxide an alkoxy radical
+
R O + H Br R O H + Br
a bromine
radical
OH
Br + CH2 CHCH2CH3 CH2CHCH2CH3 +
OH−
Br
CH2CHCH2CH3 + H Br CH2 CHCH2CH3 + Br Tip Addition is according Markovnikov’s rule but we have to
Br Br H look for rearrangement of carbocation if it gives more stable
carbocation.
22. The correct order of reactivity of the following alkenes to 24. 3-Phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product)
acid-catalyzed hydration is (a) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 (b) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3
(a) (CH3)3C CH2 > H3CHC CH2 > H2C CH2 (c) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (d) C6H5CH(Br)CH CH2
Solution
(b) H3CHC CH2 > (CH3)3C CH2 > H2C CH2
(b)
(c) H2C CH2 > (CH3)3C CH2 > H3CHC CH2 H
+
(d) H2C CH2 > H3CHC CH2 > (CH3)3C CH2 CH2 CH CH2 CH CH CH3
HBr
(2°)
Solution
(a) Acid catalyzed hydration is the addition of water mole-
cule in the presence of acid. It occurs through carboca- Br
+
tion formation in the first step which is also slow step, CH CH3 CH CH2 CH3
so, more stable carbocation formation indicates faster CH2 Br−
reaction.
+
H+ (Major product)
H2C = CH2
→ H2 C CH3 (1° carbocation, least stable)
+
H+
H3CHC = CH2 → CH3 CHCH3 (2° carbocation, moder- 25. An unsaturated hydrocarbon upon ozonolysis gives one
ately stable) mole each of formaldehyde, acetaldehyde and methylglyoxal
+ (CH3COCHO). The structure of the hydrocarbon is
((H )22C = CH2 H→ (CH3 )2 C CH3
+
Solution Solution
(b) Terminal alkynes react with sodium metal to form sodium (d)
alkynides. +
Na
− + H+ +
→ H3C C C Na + 21 H2
H3C C C − H
Propyne NGP H
Sodium propylene
Solution Br
(c) Ozonolysis of a trisubstituted alkene produces an alde- Br
hyde and a ketone.
H O 30. What is the major product of the following reaction?
1. O3, CH2Cl2
O 2. Zn/AcOH
−78°C
O O +H
O
NaOMe/MeOH
(Ozonide)
∆
Cl
28. What product would you expect from addition of deuterium
chloride to 2-cyclohexyl-4-methyl-2-pentene?
Cl (a) (b)
D
(a) (b)
D H
Cl
D Cl
Br Br Br
(a) (b)
+ Enantiomer
Br (a) (b)
Br trans-2-Hexane
In this reaction, trans product is also formed because of
Alkynes an equilibrium between cis and trans alkenyl radicals. The
Chemical Properties trans radical is formed because it is more stable.
36. The reagent needed for converting
32. Which of the following reactions will yield
2,2-dibromopropane? Ph H
(a) CH3 C CH + 2HBr C C
Ph C C Ph
(b) CH3CH CHBr + HBr
(c) CH CH + 2HBr H Ph
(d) CH3 CH CH2+ HBr (AIEEE 2007) is
Solution (a) cat. hydrogenation (b) H2/Lindlar Catalyst
(c) Li/NH3 (d) LiAlH4
(a) The reaction is
(Markovnikov’s addition) (JEE Main Online 2014)
CH3 C CH + HBr CH3 C CH2
Solution
Br (c) The reaction is
(Markovnikov’s
addition)
HBr Ph Ph H
Li/NH3 _ NH3
Br Ph C C Ph _ C C C C
Ph H Ph
CH3 C CH3
Br 37. Which of the following ketones could not be prepared by an
2,2-Dibromopropane acid catalyzed hydration of an alkyne?
O O
33. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid
ammonia is (a) (b)
(a) CH3CH2CH2C CCH2CH2CH3
(b) CH3CH2C CH O
O
(c) CH3CH CHCH3
(c) (d)
(d) CH3CH2C CCH2CH3
(AIEEE 2008)
Solution
(b) Terminals alkyne are acidic hence they will react with Na Solution
in presence of liquid ammonia. (c) Alkynes on reacting with water in the presence of water
NH3 initially form an enol, which on tautomerization gives
CH3 CH2 C CH + Na
→ CH3 CH2 C C−Na+
ketone. So, in this structure we have to check whether an
34. The treatment of CH3MgX with CH3C C H produces alkyne is possible for the given structure of ketone.
(a) CH3 CH CH2 (b) CH3C C CH3 H O+ Tautomerization
(c) CH3CH CHCH3 (d) CH4 Alkynes
3
→ Enol → Ketone
(AIEEE 2008) R C C R + H2O
Solution H+
(d) Grignard reagents react with active H compound and lib- R C C R R CH2 C R
erate alkane from it.
CH3 MgX + CH3 C CH→CH4↑ + CH3 C C−MgX+ H OH O
1. Indentify the adduct formed in the following reaction. 2. The number of stereoisomers obtained by bromination of
trans-2-butene is
CH3 CH CH2 + NOCl
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH CH2 (IIT-JEE 2007)
(a) (b) Solution
Cl NO NO Cl (a)
NO
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH2 H3C H
(c) (d) + Br2 H C C H
Cl NO Cl C C
(b), (d) ∗
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH2 CH3
4 3 2 1
H3C CH2 C CH3 Cl CH3
(1 chiral carbon)
CH3 No. of enantiomeric
pair = 21 = 2
On C2–C3 bond axis X = CH3, Y = CH3
Cl
On C1–C2 bond axis X = H, Y = C2H5 ∗ ∗
+ H3C CH CH CH2 CH3 + H3C CH2 C CH2 CH3
4. The total number of alkenes possible by dehydrobromination
of 3-bromo-3-cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic KOH is ___. Cl CH3 CH3
(IIT-JEE 2011) (2 chiral carbons) (No chiral carbon)
Solution No. of enantiomeric 20 = 1
pair = 22 = 4
(5) The structures of five possible alkenes are as follows:
H3C CH CH C CH CH C CH CH CH3
H CH3
5. The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers)
that are possible on monochlorination of the following com- O3
pound, is ___.
CH3 H
O O O
H3C CH CH C CH CH C CH CH CH3
O O H O O CH3 O O
Chapter-13.indd 442 8/8/2016 2:28:37 PM
CH3 H
H3C CH CH C CH CH C CH CH CH3
H CH3
Advanced Level Problems 443
O3
CH3 H Cl
O O O Br CH3
H3C CH CH C CH CH C CH CH CH3 Br Cl
O O O O CH3 O O CH3
H
CH3
Achiral Achiral and
Column I Column II
(p) 1. Hg(OAc)2; and
(a) Cl
2. NaBH4
(q) NaOEt
(b) ONa OEt (II) (III)
,H O
→
3 2
Solution HO OH HO H
(c) First step of the reaction is reduction of alkyne in dis- CH3
solved metal from which trans alkene is obtained. But the H CH3 H
H CH3 OH
oxidation of alkene by OsO4 is syn addition which pro- 1. OsO4 CH3 H CH3
duces two enantiomers in equal amount, so, a recemic 2. NaHSO3, H2O
(R,R)
mixture is produced in this reaction. CH3 H
H CH3 H OH
trans-2-Butene H
CH3 H CH3 CH3
Na or Li H
CH3C CCH3 C C HO OH HO
NH3(liq) CH3
−78°C H CH3
2-butyne (S,S)
trans-2-Butene
Enantiomeric 2,3-butanediols
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 4. CH3 C C CH3
1. X
CH3 C C CH3
2. Zn/HO2
Single Correct Choice O O
In this reaction X is
1. NaNH 1. B H /THF
1. CH3 C CH 2. 2
→ A 2.
2 6
→B
CH CH Br 3 2 CH COOH 3 (a) HNO3 (b) O2 (c) O3 (d) KMnO4
The compound B is 5. Which of the following compound does not dissolve in conc.
CH3 CH2 CH3 CH3 H H2SO4 even on warming?
(a) (b) C C (a) Ethylene (b) Propylene
C C
H CH2 CH3 (c) Methane (d) 1,3-Butadiene
H H
CH3 CH3 6. Identify the hydrocarbon that gives:
CH3 H
(I) one mole each of ethanedial and butanedial on ozonolysis.
(c) C C (d) C C (II) mixture of ethanol and pentan-3-one.
H H H CH3 (a) Cyclohepta-1,3-diene; 3-methyl-pent-2-ene
(b) Cyclohexa-1,3-diene; 3-ethyl-pent-2-ene
(c) Cyclohex-1,3,5-triene; 3-methyl-pent-3-ene
Br2/hv Alc. KOH HBr/Peroxide (d) Cyclohepta-1,3-diene; 3-ethyl-pent-1-ene
2. X Y Z
7. Which of the following compounds on oxidative ozonolysis
The compound Z is gives malonic acid as only product?
Br Br (a) CH3CH2CH2C CH (b) CH3CH2C C CH3
(a) (b)
(c) Cyclohexa-1,3–diyne (d) Cyclohexa-1,4–diyne
(a) cis addition of hydrogen atoms. 39. In the oxidation of alkenes with a dilute KMnO4 solution fol-
(b) trans addition of hydrogen atoms. lowed by acidification with dilute H2SO4 to give diol:
(c) both cis and trans additions of hydrogen atoms. The rela-
tive amount of the two depends on temperature. C OH− dil. H2SO4 C OH
+ KMnO4 intermediate
(d) both cis and trans additions of hydrogen atoms. The rela- C C OH
tive amounts depend on the nature of alkyne.
The OH groups come from
28. Which of the following cycloalkanes is under the highest (a) NaOH (b) H2O
Baeyer’s strain? (c) KMnO4 (d) H2SO4
(a) Cyclobutane (b) Cyclopentane
40. How many eclipsed conformations are possible in butane?
(c) Cyclopropane (d) All are equal
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 6
29. What are the products obtained by the ozonolysis of
41. Ozonolysis of the following compound gives:
RCH CR1R2?
(a) R1CH2CH2R (b) R2CO
(c) R1COR2 (d) None of these
30. Increasing order of stability among the three main conforma-
tions (i.e., eclipse, anti, gauche) of 2-fluoroethanol is
O
(a) eclipse, anti, gauche. (b) anti, gauche, eclipse.
(a) 2 (b) O
(c) eclipse, gauche, anti. (d) gauche, eclipse, anti.
31. Polymerization reaction is shown by O
(a) disubstituted alkenes. (c) (d) 2 O
(b) higher molecular weight alkenes.
(c) only ethene.
(d) lower molecular weight alkenes. 42. Water can be added across a triple bond in the presence of
(a) acidic medium. (b) alkaline medium.
32. When 2-butyne is treated with H2 in presence of Pd-BaSO4, (c) neutral medium. (d) acid and HgSO4.
the product formed will be
(a) cis-2-butene. (b) trans-2-butene. 43. Addition of hypochlorous acid to propyne gives
(c) 1-butene. (d) 2-hydroxybutane. Cl
O
H3C
33. Which of the following the is most acidic? (a) Cl2HC (b)
(a) Butane (b) But-1-ene
H Cl
(c) But-1-yne (d) But-2-yne
O OH
34. Which among the following compounds will give 1,4-addi- Cl
tion reaction? (c) H3C (d) H C
Cl 3
OH
CH2 Cl
(a) H2C (b) H C Cl
2 CN
CH3 44. How many different staggered conformations are there for
(c) H C (d) All of these
2 2-methylpropane?
O (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
35. The treatment of ethene with cold alkaline potassium per-
45. Which of the following form alkynide?
manganate produces
H C C
(a) ethylene glycol. (b) formaldehyde.
(c) formic acid. (d) carbon dioxide and water. C C
(a) (b)
36. Which of these will not react with acetylene?
(a) NaOH (b) Ammoniacal AgNO3
(c) Na (d) HCl C C CH3
37. Which of the following reactions can be used to prepare (c) C C (d)
methane?
(a) Clemmensen reduction
(b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Reduction of CH2 CH2 by LiAlH4. 46. Which of the following statement is correct about acetylene
(d) Reduction of methyl iodide by using a zinc–copper. molecule?
(a) its C C bond distance being 121 pm.
38. Wurtz reaction between two moles of 1-bromopropane gives (b) its C H bond distance being 108 pm.
(a) hexane. (b) heptane. (c) its H C C bond angle being 180°.
(c) octane. (d) all of these. (d) all of these.
47. The highest boiling point is expected for 56. Which of the following isomer of C6H8 shall give
(a) iso-octane. (b) n-octane. OHC CH2 CHO on ozonolysis in presence of Zn?
(c) 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane. (d) n-butane.
H
48. A hydrocarbon (A), of formula C8H10, on ozonolysis gives
compound (B), C4H6O2 only. The compound (B) can also be CH3
obtained from alkyl bromide, (C) C3H5Br upon treatment with
magnesium in dry ether, followed by carbon dioxide and (a) (b) D
acidification. The compound (A) is D
(a) CH3 CH2 C C C C CH3
(b) CH3 C C CH2 C C CH2 CH3 CH3
(c) CH3 C C CH2 C C CH3 (c) (d) CD2 CH CH2 CH C CH2
D
(d) C3H5 C C C3H5
49. A conjugated alkadiene having molecular formula C13H22 on
ozonolysis yielded ethyl methyl ketone and cyclohexanecar- 57. Of the four isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can give two
baldehyde. Identify the diene. monochlorinated compounds is
(a) 1-cycloheptyl-4-methylhexa-1,3,5-triene (a) 2-methylpentane. (b) 2,2-dimethylbutane.
(b) 1-cyclohexyl-3-methylhexa-1ene (c) 2,3-dimethylbutane. (d) n-hexane.
(c) 1-cyclohexyl-4-methylhexa-1,3-diene 58. Which hydrocarbon cannot be obtained by the Kolbe’s elec-
(d) 1-cycloheptyl-3-methylhexa-1,3-diene trolytic method?
50. The final product in following sequence of reaction is (a) Ethane (b) Methane (c) Butane (d) Propane
NaNH2 CH3Br 59. The reactant A can be
CH CH A B
CH3 CH3
(a) CH2 CH CH CH2 (b) HC C CH3 HBr
(c) CH2 CH CH3 (d) CH3 CH2 CH3 A H3C CH3
Br CH2 CH3
(a) (b)
(a) 1. 3 eq. NaNH2 2. butyl chloride 3. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
(b) 1. 3 eq. NaNH2 2. butyl chloride 3. Li in NH3 4. NH4Cl
(c) 1. 3 eq. NaNH2 2. butyl chloride 3. H2/Pt
(d) 1. 3 eq. NaNH2 2. propyl chloride 3. Li in NH3 4. NH4Cl (c) (d) CH3
63. The reagent used in the conversion of isopropyl chloride to 72. Which of the following on treatment with warm dil. H2SO4 in
alkene is the presence of HgSO4 will give but -2-one?
(a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH2ONa (a) But-1-yne (b) But-2-yne
(c) CH3CH2OH (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) But-1-ene (d) But-2-ene
64. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it Passage Type
with ultraviolet light, it forms only one mono-chloroalkane.
This alkane could be Passage for Questions 73–75: Alkenes on catalytic hydrogenation
(a) propane. (b) pentane. give alkanes. The reactions are exothermic. The heat of hydrogena-
(c) isopentane. (d) neopentane. tion is a measure of stability of alkene. Lesser the heat of hydro-
genation more stable the alkene.
65. 1-Butyne may be converted to butane by reaction with
(a) Zn/HCl (b) Sn/HCl (c) Zn/Hg (d) Pd/H2 73. The relative rate of catalytic hydrogenation of the following
alkenes is
66. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to
the formation of
(a) primary alcohol.
(b) secondary or tertiary alcohol.
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols. I II III IV
(d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols. (a) II > III > IV > I (b) I > IV > III > II
67. Reaction of one molecule of HBr with one molecule of (c) II > IV > I > III (d) III > IV > I > II
1,3-butadiene at 40°C gives predominantly
74. The correct order of heat of hydrogenation is
(a) 3-bromobutene under kinetically controlled conditions.
(b) 1-bromo-2-butene under thermodynamically controlled
conditions.
(c) 3-bromobutene under thermodynamically controlled
conditions. I II III IV
(d) 1-bromo-2-butene under kinetically controlled
conditions. (a) IV > III > I > II (b) II > I > III > IV
(c) IV > III > II > I (d) II > III > I > IV
68 . The following two representations are of
75.
H3C alc. KOH X
C(CH3)3 CH3 (Major)
H and Br
H H Et3N Y
H (Major)
(a) same configuration (b) same molecule Which of the following statement is true?
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these (a) The heat of hydrogenation of X is more than Y.
(b) The heat of hydrogenation of Y is more than X.
Level II (c) Both X and Y has the same heat of hydrogenation.
Multiple Correct Choice Type (d) Both X and Y have same reactivity towards catalytic
hydrogenation.
69. Which of the following on reductive ozonolysis will give only
glyoxal? Passage for Questions 76–77: (A) 1, 2-dibromobutane on reac-
(a) Ethene (b) Benzene (c) Toluene (d) Acetylene tion with n moles of NaNH2 gives (B). (B) reacts with an alkyl iodide
(C) to give (D). (D) on reaction with Na/Liq. NH3 gives (E), (C) under-
70. Which of the following reactions cannot be used for the goes Wurtz reaction to give expected alkane (F) and unexpected
preparation of methane? alkane (G) and an alkene (H). (H) on treatment with CH2I2/Zn gives
(a) Kolbe’s electrolysis cyclo propane.
(b) Soda lime decarboxylation 76. (B) is formed from (A) by production of a gas X, X and n are
(c) Wurtz reaction (a) NH3, 3 (b) NH3, 2 (c) H2, 3 (d) H2, 2
(d) Reduction of CH3Cl with LiAlH4
77. (C) can be converted to (H) by the use of
1. Hg2+ (a) alc. KOH
71. CH CH + 2CH3COOH Products
2. ∆, 300–400°C (b) HI/Red P
Products is/are: (c) KCN followed by KOH
(a) CH3 CH(OCOCH3)2 (b) CH3CHO (d) Mg/ether followed by HCHO
O O O Passage for Questions 78–80: Alkanes may be prepared from
(c) (d)
alkyl halides by the Wurtz method where alkyl halides are reacted
CH3 C OCH3 CH3 C O C CH3
with Na in the presence of ether.
79. When the compound 83. Match the reaction with the type/isomeric products obtained.
Column I Column II
(a) CH2 CH—CH CH2 + H2 (p) One isomeric product
(b) CH2 CH—CH CH2 + CH2 (q) Two isomeric products
CH2
(c) CH2 CH—CH CH2 + HBr (r) Ionic reaction
is reacted with copper at 180°C then which of the following
compounds is formed? (d) C H 2 C H — C H C H 2+ (s) Free radical reaction
Buna-N
Integer Type
(a) (b)
84. An alkyne having molecular mass x × 10 (A) is treated with
Lindlar’s catalyst and H2 to give a compound (B). (B) reacts
with HCl to give a compound (C). When (C) reacts with metal-
lic sodium in presence of ether it gives (D). The molecular
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d)
mass of (D) is 86. What is the value of x?
85.
alc. KOH
80. The reactivity of which hydrogen atom is maximum for halo-
genation by free radical mechanism? Br
CH3 CH CH3 CH2 H The total number of possible products is ______.
(a) (b)
H 86. Ethyl chloride undergoes Wurtz reaction. Then the total num-
H ber of possible products (hydrocarbons) is ______.
87.
(c) CH3 CH CH3 (d) CH CH3
Br2/hv
Products
Matrix Match Type
81. Match the reactants with the reducing agents. The number of monobrominated products possible is ______.
88. The number of p-bonds in the product formed by passing
Column I Column II acetylene through dilute sulphuric acid containing mercuric
(a) CH3 CH CH2 (p) HI, Red P sulphate is ______.
(b) CH3 CH2 Br (q) H2, Pd
(c) Cyclohexane (r) Ni, C2H5OH 89. The number of possible alkynes with molecular formula C5H8
(d) CH3 CH2 I (s) Pd, C2H5OH is ______.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (a)
37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (d)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a)
55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d)
67. (b) 68. (d)
Level II
69. (b), (d) 70. (a), (c) 71. (b), (d) 72. (a), (b) 73. (a) 74. (b)
75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (d)
81. (a) → q, r; (b) → q; (c) → s; (d) → p 82. (a) → q, s; (b) → p, r; (c) → p; (d) → q, s 83. (a) → p; (b) → p; (c) → q; (d) → s
84. (40) 85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (1) 89. (3)
Br CH CH2 O CH O
O Ethanedial
Br2/hv Br CH CH O
alc. KOH HBr
Cyclohexa-1,3-diene
(Free radical Peroxide
O CH +
mechanism) (Anti Marko-
3° free radical (X) (Y) vnikov’s rule) (Z)
more stable CHO CH2 CH2 CHO
3. (a) Butanedial
O
18
C6H5 C O O H CH3CH2 CH3CH2 O
Peroxy benzoic acid O3
R CH CH R R CH CH R C CH CH3 C C CH3
O CH3CH2 CH3CH2 O O
18
Mechanism 3-Ethylpent-2-ene
Zn/H2O
R H O R H
18 H 18 H O
+ O O O
C
O C 6 H5 O CH3 CH2 C CH2 + CH3CHO
R H R H C6H5
Pentan-3-one Ethanal
Alkene Transition state
R H HO 7. (d)
18 +
O O O
O3
R H O C6H5
Epoxide 2 HO OH
(Oxirane)
8. (b) The reaction is as follows: the carbon atom is sp hybridized. As the s character is
maximum in ethyne (50% s and 50% p), it is more close to
Cl− Cl Hg+ the nucleus and hence it’s acidic character is more.
H C C H + Hg2+ H C C H C C
2+ H H 14. (a)
Hg
Acetal-
H+ OH
dehyde
C6H5COOOH H3O+
H Cl Hg+ O
−Hg2+ +
C CH2 C C H OH
Cl H H (X) (Y)
Vinyl chloride PCl5
CH3
29. (c)
21. (c)
R1 O R1
Ph Br R CH C
HBr/R2O2 (Markovnikov R CH C
C CH R2 R2 (Ozonide)
(1 equiv.)
H H addition)
O O
(X) H2O/Zn
Ph
H H H H O
HBr/Dark + HCHO
Ph H (Anti-Markovnikov
addition) C
H Br R1
Br Br Br R2
22. (c) 2 1
O3 30. (c) H2C CH2OH
2CH2(CHO)2
F
1,4-Cyclohexadiene 2-Fluoroethanal
Waals forces between them are repulsive. The eclipsed con- 39. (c) KMnO4 is responsible for OH group formation.
formation has greatest energy.
−
31. (d) As the alkene units act as monomers which combine to O O O O
C C OH
−
form polymers, this reaction is more applicable for lower + Mn Mn
Hydrolysis
molecular weight alkenes. C −O C O O
O
32. (a)
− O H
C OH C O C O
H2 H3C CH3 MnO3 +− 2H+ Mn
H3C C C CH3 − −
C C OH O O−
Pd/BaSO4 C C O C
2-Butyne H H O
Syn-1,2-diol
cis-2-Butene
40. (b) The three possible conformation of eclipsed form of
33. (c) But-1-yne is the most acidic because of its sp hybridiza-
butane are:
tion and hence greater electronegativity. It means that
the hydrogen atom is less tightly held by the carbon atom CH3 CH3 H CH3 H CH3
and can be easily removed. Therefore, it is the strongest
acid. In case of but-2-yne there are no hydrogen atoms on
H H H3C
C C, so it is the least acidic. H H H H H H
H CH3 H
34. (a)
1
41. (b) O
3 CH2 Br2 CH2 CH CH CH2
4
H2C 1,4-addition C
2 O3 O
Br Br
O
C
35. (a) The reaction is
cold KMnO4 (alk.)
O
H2C CH2 H2C CH2
OH OH 42. (d)
Ethylene glycol Hg2+ Rearrangement
36. (a) Acetylene will not react with NaOH as it is weakly acidic. HC CH + H2O H2C CHOH CH3CHO
H2SO4
Only strong base like NaNH2 is able to abstract the Acetylene Vinyl alcohol Ethanal
hydrogen.
43. (c)
Zn-Cu
37. (d) CH3I + 2[H] → CH4 + HI OH Cl
Methyl iodide HOCl
CH3 C CH + HOCI H3C C CH H3C C CH
38. (d) Since two alkyl halides can react in three different ways,
Propyne
therefore a mixture of three alkanes instead of the desired OH Cl OH Cl
alkane would be formed. For example, Wurtz reaction Unstable
between two moles of 1-bromopropane gives a mixture −H2O
of three alkanes, that is, hexane, heptane and octane as
O Cl
shown below.
H3C C CH Cl
CH3CH2CH2Br + 2Na + CH3CH2CH2Br →
→ 1,1-Dichloropropan-2-one
1-Bromopropane 1-Bromobutane
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 + 2NaBr 44. (a) One staggered conformation and one eclipsed confor-
n-Hexane
mation.
CH3 O O 55. (b) The product is a trans double bond. (i) Li in NH3 (ii) NH4Cl
is the only way to turn an alkyne into a trans double
C CH CH CH
bond.
H3CCH2 O O O O
56. (a)
Zn/H2O
H
H3C
C O+O CH + CHO Ozonolysis
OHC CH2 CHO + OHC CH CHO
H3C CH2 Zn
CHO
Ethyl methyl Cyclohexane Glyoxal D
ketone carbaldehyde D
Hence, IUPAC name of the conjugated alkadiene is 57. (c) 2,3-Dimethyl butane contains two type of hydrogen
1-cyclohexyl-4-methylhexa-1,3-diene. atom, that is, 1° and 3°.
68. (d) They are representation of the same molecule with differ-
1, 2-alkyl +
H2O ent conformation.
shift
H
Level II
61. (b) Due to branching, there is decrease in the surface area
Multiple Correct Choice Type
and also decrease in van der Waals forces of attraction.
62. (c) Staggered form is more stable because it has minimum 69. (b), (d)
repulsive forces, minimum energy, least torsional strain O
and thus maximum stability. C6H6 CCl
3
→ 3 OHC CHO
4
Glyoxal
H 1. O3
H H C C H 2. H2O/Zn
OHC CHO
H Glyoxal
H H
H 70. (a), (c) Kolbe’s electrolysis can be used to synthesize higher
Sawhorse
H H
projections alkanes except methane. Wurtz reaction is also used for syn-
H H of ethane thesis for higher alkanes.
H H
71. (b), (d)
Eclipsed Staggered
1. Hg2+
H CH CH + 2CH3COOH CH3CHO + CH3COOCOCH3
HH 2. ∆, 300°− 400°C
H H
Newman’s 72. (a), (b)
H H H projections
H H warm dil. H2SO4
H H of ethane CH3 CH2 C CH CH3 CH2 COCH3
HgSO4
Eclipsed Staggered But-1-yne But-2-one
Major
CH3 CH2 C C−Na+ + NH3 Br
(X) +
77. (a) Alkyl iodide (C) can be converted to alkene (H) by the use Minor
of alc. KOH through E2 elimination.
86. (1) Only one product is possible.
78. (d) CH2 CH2 cannot be formed because Wurtz method is
used to prepare alkanes.
CH3 CH2 Cl + Na + Cl CH2 CH3
79. (b)
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3
Cu
2
180° 87. (1) Tertiary carbon selectively brominated over primary or
secondary carbon.
—
—
CH3 CH3
3. The hydrocarbon with seven carbon atoms containing a neo-
I II pentyl and a vinyl group is
(a) 2, 2-dimethyl-4-pentene. (b) 4, 4-dimethylpentene.
— C — CH3
C2H5CH2 — (c) isopropyl-2-butene. (d) 2, 2-dimethyl-3-pentene.
—
CH3 (Online)
III Solution
(a) I and II (b) All of these (a) The hydrocarbon is 4, 4-dimethylpentene.
(c) I and III (d) III only CH3
H3C
(Offline)
H3C CH
Solution 2
(b)
4. Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given below
Cl yields:
— —
CH3ONa
CH 3 — C — CH 2 — CH2 — CH3 CH 3 — C —
— CH — CH2 — CH3 (l) Br2/hn
CH3OH
—
CH 3 CH 3
— C — CH2 — CH2 — CH3
+ CH2 — (ll) Br
Br
—
CH 3
OCH 3 (a) (b)
— —
Cl
1-Chloropropan-2-ol
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 Chemical Properties
2008 Chemical Properties Chemical Properties
2012 Structure of Aromatic Compounds
2013 Structure of Aromatic Compounds
2015 Chemical Properties
2016 Chemical Properties
SUMMARY
1. Aromatic compounds are a class of hydrocarbons, so called because many of them possess a fragrant smell. These are carbocylic
compounds containing at least one benzene ring within their structure. Benzene and its derivatives belong to a class of compounds
called arenes. For example, benzene, benzaldehyde or methyl salicylate.
O O
H OCH3
or
OH
Benzene Benzaldehyde Methyl salicylate
(in oil of almonds) (in oil of wintergreen)
6 3 6 3 2 9
5 4 5 10 4 1 10
Azulene
(c) Heterocyclic aromatic compounds
Cyclic compounds that include an element other than carbon are called heterocyclic compounds.
4
5 3 4 3 4 3 4 3
6 2 5 2 5 2 5 2
N N1 O S
1 1 1
H
Pyridine Pyrrole Furan Thiophene
(ii) The substituent and the benzene ring together form a commonly accepted base name. For example, toluene, phenol, ani-
line, anisole.
H
H H
CH3 O N
Br Br
Br
1,2-Dibromobenzene 1,3-Dibromobenzene 1,4-Dibromobenzene
(o-dibromobenzene) (m-dibromobenzene) (p-dibromobenzene)
ortho meta para
CH3 H3C
CH3
1,2-Dimethylbenzene 1,3-Dimethylbenzene 1,4-Dimethylbenzene
(o-xylene) (m-xylene) (p-xylene)
C6H5
(iv) Benzyl is an alternative name for the phenylmethyl group. It is sometimes abbreviated Bn.
CH2 CH2Cl
4. Benzene – structure
(a) According to the resonance theory, benzene molecule is a resonance hybrid of the following two structures.
(not )
I II
These structures are resonance contributors to the structure of benzene. They do not exist as such but are useful to visualize the
actual molecule.
(b) The hybrid structure of benzene is represented by inscribing a circle in the hexagon, which represents the six electrons that are
delocalized about the six carbon atoms of the benzene ring.
(c) Large resonance energy
Due to resonance, the p electron charge in benzene tends to get delocalized over the entire ring resulting in lowering the
energy of the resonance hybrid relative to the individual contributing structures. This decrease in energy is called resonance
energy. The resonance stabilization contributes to the unusual stability of benzene.
5. Structure of aromatic compounds
(a) Aromaticity
Aromatic compounds are those that contain alternate double and single bonds in a cyclic structure. They undergo substitution
reactions rather than addition reactions. The three general requirements for a compound to be aromatic are:
(i) The compound must be cyclic.
(ii) The compound must contain a cyclic cloud of delocalized p electrons above and below the plane of the molecule. The
delocalization of p electrons over the ring must result in a lowering of the electronic energy.
(iii) The compound must follow Hückel’s Rule (delocalized electrons cloud must contain a total of (4n + 2) p electrons, where
n is an integer equal to 0, 1, 2, 3 … and number of p electrons are 2, 6, 10, 14...
• Benzene (6 p electrons), naphthalene (10 p electrons) and anthracene (14 p electrons) are all aromatic compounds.
• Similarly, cyclopentadienyl anion and cycloheptatrienyl cation (tropylium ion) are also aromatic because these contain
6 p electrons.
H
H H H H
H H H H
−
+
H H H
O S N N
H
Furan Thiophene Pyrrole Pyridine
(b) Antiaromaticity
(i) When the cyclic molecule (with a conjugated p electron system) has higher energy due to the presence of 4n electrons in
the p electron cloud, the compound is said to exhibit antiaromatic character.
(ii) They are highly unstable, highly reactive and may change shape (i.e. become non-planar) and break some of the p interac-
tions, to avoid instability.
(iii) In other words, systems with 4, 8, 12 …, p electrons are antiaromatic.
+ −
(c) Nonaromaticity
(i) Compounds that meet Hückel’s rule (4n + 2 or 4n p electrons) but do not fulfill one of the other prerequisites for aromaticity
and avoid being antiaromatic by deviating from planarity are called non-aromatic. 1,3,5-Cycloheptatriene is an example of
non-aromatic compound.
1,3,5-Cycloheptatriene
(ii) They are less stable than aromatic compounds.
6. General methods of preparation
(a) Decarboxylation of sodium benzoate
Sodium benzoate on heating with soda-lime undergoes decarboxylation (removal of carbon dioxide) to give benzene.
COONa
Heat
+ NaOH + CaO + Na2CO3
OH
Heat
+ Zn
H3PO2
H2O
dry ether
+ Na + RX + NaX
E
or +E A +H A
The electrophiles are either a positive ion (E+) or some other electron-deficient species with a large partial positive charge.
Mechanism
Step 1: The electrophile takes two electrons of the six-electron p system to form a s bond to one carbon atom of the benzene ring.
δ+ δ− + E E E
E A
H H H
+ A:−
+ +
Arenium ion
(a delocalized cyclohexadienyl cation)
+ E E
H + H A
A−
(a) Halogenation
Benzene reacts with bromine and chlorine in the presence of Lewis acids to give halogenated product.
Cl
AlCl3
+ Cl2 + HCl
25°C
Chlorobenzene (90%)
Mechanism
Step 1: In the first step, the aromatic ring functions as nucleophile, forming an intermediate sigma complex.
Step 2: In the second step, the sigma complex is deprotonated, restoring aromaticity.
AlCl3 + −
Cl Cl Cl Cl AlCl3
Step 2
Step 1
H Proton transfer Cl
Nucleophilic attack
+ −
Cl
−
AlCl3
+ AlCl3 + HCl
Cl Cl AlCl3
− H H H
Cl Cl Cl
+ +
Sigma complex
(b) Nitration
Benzene undergoes nitration on reaction with a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid.
NO2
50−55°C −
+ HNO3 + H2SO4 + H3O+ + HSO4
85%
Mechanism
Step 1: The aromatic ring functions as a nucleophile, forming the intermediate sigma complex.
Step 2: The sigma complex is deprotonated, restoring aromaticity.
O H O S O H O O
O −H2O
−
N −
N
H N+
+
O OH O O+
O
H
Nitronium ion
Step 1 Step 2
H O Nucleophilic attack Proton transfer NO2
N+ H H
O O
+ H H H
NO2 NO2 NO2
+ +
Sigma complex
SO3H
Fuming H2SO4
(95%)
Mechanism
Step 1: The aromatic ring functions as a nucleophile forming as nucleophile, forming the intermediate sigma complex.
Step 2: The sigma complex is deprotonated, restoring aromaticity.
Step 3: The resulting anion is protonated.
Step 3
Proton transfer
−
O O O OH
S S
H O SO3H
H Step 1 O O
O O Nucleophilic attack
S − SO3H
O
O O O
O + H H H Step 2
− − − Proton transfer
S O S O S O
+ +
O O O
Sigma complex
Mechanism
Step 1: Formation of a carbocation
Cl Cl Cl
+
Cl + Al Cl Al− Cl + Cl Al− Cl
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Step 2: The carbocation then acts as an electrophile and attacks the benzene ring to form an arenium ion.
+ Cl Cl
+
H
+ Cl Al− Cl + HCl + Al
Cl Cl
Cl
(ii) Acylation
The Friedel –Crafts acylation reaction is often carried out by treating the aromatic compound with an acyl halide (often an acyl
chloride).
O
O
AlCl3
+ excess
+ HCl
Cl
benzene,
80°C
Acetyl Acetophenone
chloride (methyl phenyl ketone)
(97%)
The electrophile is the acylium ion formed by the reaction of acyl halide with Lewis acid (AlCl3).
O O
+
−
R C Cl + AlCl3 R C Cl AlCl3
(iii) Limitations of Friedel–Crafts reactions
• When the carbocation formed from an alkyl halide, alkene, or alcohol can rearrange to one or more carbocations that
are more stable, it usually does so, and the major products obtained from the reaction are usually those from the more
stable carbocations.
• Friedel–Crafts reactions usually give poor yields when powerful electron-withdrawing groups are present on the aro-
matic ring or when the ring bears an NH2, NHR, or NR2 group.
• Aryl and vinylic halides cannot be used as the halide component because they do not form carbocations readily.
• Polyalkylations often occur.
8. Directive influence in arenes
When the monosubstituted product is to be converted into disubstituted one, the existing substituent which is previously present
in the ring influences or directs the incoming group to a particular position. This is referred to as directive influence of the group.
(a) Ortho, para-directing groups
(i) The substituents or groups, which direct the incoming group to ortho and para positions. For example, CH3, C2H5,
Cl, OH, Br, NH2, NHR, NR2, NHCOCH3, OCH3, etc.
NH2 NH2 OH OH
Br Br Br Br
Br2 Br2
H2 O H2O
Br Br
2,4,6-Tribromoaniline 2,4,6-Tribromophenol
(~100%) (~100%)
(ii) All electron-donating groups are activating groups and are ortho–para directors.
(iii) Halogen substituents are weakly deactivating groups and are ortho–para directors.
(b) Meta-directing groups
(i) The substituents or groups which direct the incoming group to meta position. For example: NO2, CN, CHO, COR,
COOH, COOR, SO3H, etc.
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
NO2
HNO3
+ +
H2SO4
NO2
NO2
6% 1% 93%
(ii) With the exception of halogen substituents, all electron-withdrawing groups are deactivating groups and are meta directors.
(c) The effect of substituents on the reactivity of a benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution
Activating substituents Most activating
NH2
NHR
NR2 Strongly activating
OH
OR
O
NHCR
O Moderately activating
OCR Ortho/para-directing
R
Ar Weakly activating
CH CR2
Standard of comparison H
Deactivating substituents F
Cl
Weakly deactivating
Br
I
O
CH
O
CR
O
COR Moderately deactivating
O
Meta-directing
COH
O
CCl
C N
SO3H
+
+
NH2R Strongly deactivating
NH3 +
+ NR3
NHR2 NO2
Most deactivating
CH3
O2N
(b) When both the groups are o, p-directing and none of the vacant positions are ortho- and para- w.r.t. each, in such cases:
(i) Strong activating groups generally win over deactivating group or weakly deactivating groups.
O Br O
H Br2, Fe H
OH OH
(ii) If the substituents are meta to each other, substitution of incoming electrophile rarely takes place in between vacant sites.
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Br Br
Br2, Fe + +
Br Br Br Br
1% 37%
Br
62%
9. Addition reactions
(a) With hydrogen
Addition of hydrogen to benzene occurs under pressure using metal catalyst such as nickel.
Ni
+ 3H2
200° C
CH2CH2CH3 COOH
Hot KMnO4/OH−
+ 2CO2 + 3H2O
Tip Benzene is not oxidized by cold dilute alkaline potassium permanganate like other hydrocarbons. So the reaction can be used
to distinguish it from alkenes and alkynes which undergo oxidation with this reagent.
Br OH
1. NaOH, 70° C
2. H3O+
NO2 NO2
Mechanism
Step 1: In the first step, the aromatic ring is attacked by a nucleophile, forming the intermediate Meisenheimer complex.
Step 2: In the second step, a leaving group is expelled to restore aromaticity.
Cl OH
N − N −
O + O Cl OH Cl OH Cl OH Cl OH O + O
− −
OH − − − Cl
Step 1 Step 2
−
N − N − N − − N −
O + O O + O O + O O + O
Meisenheimer complex
Benzene 1,4-Cyclohexadiene
Mechanism
Step 1: A single electron is transferred from the sodium atom to the aromatic ring.
Step 2: Methanol donates a proton to the radical anion, generating a radical intermediate.
Step 3: A single electron is transferred from the sodium atom to the radical intermediate, generating an anion.
Step 4: Methanol donates a proton to the anion, generating an isolated diene.
Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 Step 4
Nucleophilic Proton transfer Nucleophilic Nucleophilic
H attack H H H attack H H attack H H
− O O
H H •
Na
H H H CH3 H H •
Na
H H H CH3 H H
H H H H H H H −
H H H
H H H H H H
A radical A radical An anion
anion
13. Benzylic radicals and cations
(a) Hydrogen abstraction from the methyl group of methylbenzene (toluene) produces a radical called the benzyl radical.
A
C H benzylic H CH2 CH2 C
R
hydrogen
Benzylic −RH
carbon
(b) Departure of a leaving group (LG) from a benzylic position produces a benzylic cation.
+
C LG C
−LG−
A benzylic cation
(c) Benzylic radicals and benzylic cations are conjugated unsaturated systems and both are unusually stable.
+
C C C C C C C C
+ +
Benzylic radicals are stabilized by resonance Benzylic cations are stabilized by resonance
(d) Halogenation of the side chain: Benzylic radicals
(i) Benzylic halogenation is carried out in the absence of Lewis acids and under conditions that favour the formation of radicals.
O O
CH3
light Br
+ N Br CCl4
+ N H
O Benzyl bromide O
(a-bromotoluene)
NBS (64%)
CH2 CH2Cl CHCl2 CCl3
Fast X2
X
Slow X2
1° Radical 1-Halo-2-phenylethane
(less stable) (minor product)
Tip Benzyl and allylic radicals are even more stable than tertiary radical.
Fridel–C
ation rafts acy
Bromin Frie
d
la tion
el–C
tion raft
rina Su sa lkyla O
Chlo lph
Desulphonation
on tion
ati
on
ion
Fuming AICl3
Nit
Clemmensen
1. KMnO4 reduction
Excess
Fe or Zn. NaOH, heat Zn(Hg). HCl
Reduction NBS
HCl Benzylic 2. H3O+ heat
bromination Oxidation
NH2 CBr3 O
OH
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Nomenclature Solution
(b) According to Hückel’s rule, two conditions should sat-
1. The correct name for the compound shown below is isfy for aromaticity. The planar cyclic compound with
Br (4n + 2) p electrons are aromatic compounds.
I. This carbon ring contains 6 p electrons with all car-
bon atoms in sp2 hybridized state. The angle strain in
Br
this ring is not much so it is also planar and aromatic.
NH2 II. Though nitrogen atoms can avail lone pairs for aro-
(a) 3,4-dibromoaniline (b) 2,4-dibromoaniline maticity, but in this case it is not required. Ring con-
(c) 2,5-dibromoaniline (d) 3,6-dibromoaniline tains 6 p electrons and all atoms in sp2 hybridized
state. So, the compound is aromatic.
Solution III. It contains 8 p electrons, so it is not an aromatic
(c) The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is compound.
2,5-dibromoaniline. IV. Ring contains 6 p electrons with all carbon atoms sp2
4 hybridized, so it is an aromatic compound.
3 Br
5 4. For the compounds given in the options, direction of dipole
2 6 moment is indicated by an arrow. Which of the following
Br 1 implies correct direction of dipole moment?
NH2
+ + − + d− d−
N
d +N
H
N Resonance hybrid
+
I II III IV
(a) I, II and III only (b) I, II, IV only The compound is very unstable since it
(c) II, III, IV only (d) All are aromatic contains antiaromatic rings. The p -bond between the
rings is broken down in such a way so that both the rings CH3 CH2OH
become stable aromatic rings.
−+ (a) (b)
OH
This implies that five membered ring is negatively ionized CH3
CH3
and three-membered ring is positively ionized. Therefore,
the dipole moment’s direction is incorrectly mentioned OH
in the option (c); it should be in opposite direction. (c) (d)
+ H2 (a)
(c) CH3 CH3 CH3
(d) + H2 NO2
− Nitration
+
Solution
(b) Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in nature, hence Toluene (ortho and
p electron energy decreases. para directing) NO2
Sn/HCl
Sn/HCl
Chemical Properties
CH3 CH3
7. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction NH2
Cl
NaCN
DMF
I NH2
NaNO2/HCl
is NaNO2/HCl
CN CN CH3 CH3
(a) (b)
NC N2+Cl−
CN I
Cl CN
(c) (d) N2+Cl−
CuBr/HBr
Sandmeyer’s
reaction
CN I
CH3 CH3
(AIEEE 2006)
Br
Solution
(d) It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction. Cl is replaced by CN.
8. The structure of the compound that gives a tribromoderivative
on treatment with bromine water is Br
12. The presence of a group on benzene ring affects the fur- (Nitronium ion)
ther reactions of the compound. In attempts to produce 1-
bromo-3-ethylbenzene from benzene, which one of the fol- Step 2
lowing reaction sequence would produce good yield of the O
product? + −
N O H NO2
(a) (i) CH3CH2Cl + AlCl3, (ii) Br2/FeBr3 fast
(b) (i) Br2/FeBr3, (ii) CH3CH2Cl + AlCl3 H O H −H3O+
+
(c) (i) CH3COCl + AlCl3, (ii) Br2/FeBr3, (iii) Zn(Hg) + HCl
(d) (i) HNO3 + H2SO4, (ii) CH3CH2Cl + AlCl3, (iii) Sn/HCl, HO− Step 1 is the rate determining step, where nitronium ion
(iv) NaNO2, HCl/CuBr reacts with benzene to produce the arenium ion.
14. What would be the product of the following reaction sequence? 16. What is the product of the following reaction?
OCH3
OH O
1. SOCl2
1. H AlCl3
2. C6H6, AlCl3
O 3. Zn(Hg), HCl, heat 2. Zn(Hg), HCl reflux
O
NO2
(a) (b)
OCH3 OCH3 O
OH
(c) (d) (a) (b)
NO2 NO2
Solution
OCH3 OCH3
(b)
OH 1. SOCl2
Cl (c) (d)
+
O O NO2 NO2 O
2. AlCl3
Solution
O (a) This is a Friedel–Crafts acylation followed by a
Clemmensen reduction at the ortho position.
3. Zn(Hg)
OCH3 OCH3
HCl, ∆ O
1. H AlCl3
15. What is the product of the following reaction? 2. Zn(Hg), HCl reflux
HNO3/H2SO4
NO2 NO2
NO2 When a meta directing group is para to the ortho-para
O2N directing group, the incoming group primarily goes to
ortho to the ortho-para directing group.
O2N
(a) (b) 17. For the following reaction what are the reagents A and B,
respectively:
NO2 Cl
NO2 NO2
(c) (d)
A
1.
NO2 B NO2
2.
Solution NO2
2.
B
(d) Nitration of the benzene ring occurs through electro- 1.
A
philic aromatic substitution. Benzene reacts with hot
concentrated nitric acid in the presence of concentrated
sulphuric acid to yield nitrobenzene. Sulphuric acid Cl
increases the rate of the reaction by increasing the con-
(a) Cl2 + AlCl3, conc. HNO3 + H2SO4
centration of the electrophile, the nitronium ion (NO2+ ).
(b) conc. HNO3 + H2SO4, Cl2 + AlCl3
NO2 (c) Cl2 + HNO3, H2SO4 + AlCl3
(d) Cl2, conc. HNO3
HNO3/H2SO4 Solution
(a) In the first reaction, chlorination is followed by nitration.
Cl Cl S S Br S
Br2
+
Cl2 + AlCl3 conc. HNO3 FeBr3
H2SO3
Br
NO2 NO2
NO2
conc. HNO3 Cl2 + AlCl3 Solution
H2SO4 (b) In the first step, the electrophilic substitution of benzene
Cl with oleum forms benzenesulphonate which on fusion
NO2 being an electron withdrawing group will be with alkali yields sodium phenoxide. This on acidifica-
meta directing, thus m-chloronitrobenzene is formed. tion forms phenol.
In the second step, the nitration of phenol with concen-
18. Among the following compounds the one that will not trated nitric acid leads to formation of picric acid in poor
undergo Friedel–Crafts alkylation yield. So phenol is first converted to 2,4-disulphonated
OCH3 C2H5 product and then treated with conc. nitric acid.
In the third step, the OH group is removed by passing
(a) (b) over zinc dust to obtain trinitrobenzene.
SO3H OH
NO2
CH3
1. Oleum 1. NaOH
(c) (d) 2. H+
substitution reactions. Therefore, the order of reactivity is 25. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of ferric
as follows: chloride gives predominantly
Chlorobenzene > p-nitrochlorobenzene > (a) benzoyl chloride. (b) m-chlorotoluene.
2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene. (c) benzyl chloride. (d) o-and p-chlorotoluene.
22. Iodination of benzene carried out in the presence of Solution
(a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3 (d) CH3 is electron releasing and ortho, para directing.
(c) HIO3 (d) Both (b) and (c).
26. What would you expect to be the major product obtained
Solution from the following reaction?
(d) Iodination of benzene is carried out in the presence of O2N
nitric acid or iodic acid because these acids oxidizes O
HI produced during the reaction to I2, and the reaction + AlCl3
O Br2
No reaction
O CCl4
COH
O +
Cl
29. What is the Birch reduction product of the following reaction?
Cl
Na, NH3
EtOH
Cl
Na, CH3OH
NH3
(c) (d)
O
O
Solution
(d)
(a) (b)
Na, NH3 − H+
EtOH
O O
Radical anion is
formed at b carbon
(c) (d)
30. Which reagent(s) would serve as the basis for a simple chemical
test that would distinguish between benzene and 1-hexene?
(a) NaOH in H2O (b) Br2 in CCl4
(c) AgNO3 in C2H5OH (d) NaHSO3 in H2O Solution
(a) The reaction is
Solution
O O
(b) The distinction can be made by using the reagent Br2 in
CCl4. Benzene does not react with bromine unless FeCl3
or AlCl3 is added in the solution to generate an electro- Na, CH3OH
phile. Hence, no colour change is observed. NH3
O2N
O Br
(b) 1,2-dibromo 1,4-dibromo
N benzene benzene
H (major product)
O O
O
(d) O2N N (c) (d)
H
(IIT-JEE 2007)
(IIT-JEE 2012)
Solution
Solution
(b) The lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom activates
(b), (c) The compounds in (b) and (c) does not follow Hückel’s
the ring, that is, increases the electron density at ortho and
rule, that is, they do not have (4n + 2)p electrons, so they are
para positions, so the substitution will occur at ortho or
antiaromatic and are unstable at room temperature.
para (preferably) positions.
4. Among P, Q, R and S the aromatic compound(s) is/are
O Cl
N C
AlCl3
H P
conc. HNO3
conc. H2SO4 NaH
Q
O
(NH4)2CO3
O 2N NH C R
100–115°C
O O
2. Statement 1: Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives O
1,4-dibromobenzene as the major product.
Statement 2: In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the HCl
S
bromo group is more dominant than the mesomeric effect in
direction the incoming electrophile.
(a) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
correct explanation for Statement 1 (IIT-JEE 2013)
Solution
(a), (b), (c), (d) The reactions involved are
(a) (b)
Cl
+
(a) AlCl3 −
AlCl4
Br
Aromatic (c) (d)
(P)
−
NaH + Solution
(b) Na + H2
(a) This reaction starts with the formation of electrophile
Aromatic which is required for this reaction, but electrophile is car-
(Q) bocation in the Friedel–Craft alkylation. So, it rearranges
to more stable carbocation by ring expansion. After rear-
(c) (NH4 )2CO3 ∆
→ 2NH3 + CO2 + H2O rangement, electrophilic substitution gives the product
given in option (a).
+ NH3 +
O O− NH2 O NH2 OH 7. What is the major product of the following reaction?
OO
H H
N O
H H H H Br2/FeBr3
+
N N N
∆
−2H2O
HO OH −O OH
Aromatic
H H
(R) O N O
N
O OH
(a) (b)
+ Br
HCl Cl−
(d)
Br
H Br
Aromatic Br N O H
(S) N O
8. In general, there are three steps to an electrophilic aromatic Fluorobenzene reacts faster because fluorine has more
substitution reaction. These are: positive resonating effect due to good overlap of 2p–2p
(a) formation of an _____________; orbitals of fluorine and carbon. Higher resonance effect
(b) reaction with an aromatic ring to form an ___________; concentrates more electron density at ortho or para
and position.
(c) loss of a _________ to reform the aromatic system.
+X
Solution X X
Electrophile; arenium ion; proton E
E+ E
9. The pKa of cyclopentadiene is found to be 16 while, by contrast, H
X = F, Cl, Br, or I
that of cycloheptatriene is found to be 36. Explain the large dif-
ference found in the two pKa values. Since in nucleophilic aromatic substitution reactions,
the first step is the rate determining so greater inductive
Solution
effect of fluorine helps to remove electron density from
The 20 order of magnitude difference in acidity of cyclo- benzene and eases the attack of nucleophile. Though the
pentadiene compared with cycloheptatriene lies in the C F bond is the strongest, but breaking of the bond is
fact that the conjugate base of cyclopentadiene is the relatively faster.
aromatic cyclopentadienyl anion, a very stable conjugate
base species. However, in the case of cycloheptatriene, X
removal of a proton produces the cycloheptatrienyl anion,
a cyclic, conjugated, planar system with 8 p-electrons, that
is antiaromatic. + Y−
B−
NO2
−
H H Aromatic Slow
H
anion
H H H X Y X Y X Y X Y X Y
− − −
Fast
B− + X−
−
Antiaromatic NO2 N N NO2 NO2
−O + −O +
O O−
10. Select the correct statement about the reaction of benzene
and its derivatives. Aniline cannot undergo Friedel–Craft’s reaction because
(a) C6H6 and C6D6 both react with concentrated HNO3 at the the catalyst used in this reaction reacts with nitrogen
same rate. atom and makes it a strong electron withdrawing group,
(b) Chlorobenzene reacts faster than fluorobenzene in elec- which deactivates the benzene ring towards electrophilic
trophilic substitution reactions. substitution reactions.
(c) Chlorobenzene reacts faster than fluorobenzene in + −
nucleophilic substitution reactions. H2N H2N AlCI3
(d) Aniline produces p-methyl aniline on reacting with chlo-
romethane in the presence of BF3. AlCI3
Solution
(a) In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the first
11. Give reasons:
step (attack of the electrophile) is the slowest step, so the
rate of reaction depends on this step only. C D bond is O O O
stronger than C H but this bond breaking takes place N N N
in the second step of reaction which is very fast. Hence, NO2
rates of reaction for both C6H6 and C6D6 are the same. conc. HNO3
+
(a) (i) conc. H2SO4
B
+ H H H
Slow
Y Y Y NO2
+ Y+
+ + NO2 NO2
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I (c) CH2 CH CH2 + H2
(d) CH2 − −
Single Correct Choice Type CH CH2 + H2
1. Which cyclization(s) should occur with a decrease in p elec- 2. Toluene, when treated with Br2/Fe, gives p-bromotoluene as
tron energy? the major product because the –CH3 group
(a) CH + H2 (a) is meta directing.
2 CH CH CH2
(b) deactivates the ring.
(b) CH2 CH CH2 + + + H2
(c) activates the ring by hyperconjugation.
(d) none of the above.
273 K
→
Br
(a) C6H5CH(Cl)CH3 (b) C6H5CH2CH2Cl
(c) C6H5C(Cl2)CH3 (d) Both (a) and (c) 9. In the Friedel–Crafts acylation, the electrophile is
5. Benzyl chloride (C6H5CH2Cl) can be prepared from toluene by (a) C6H5+ (b) AlCl3−
chlorination with
(a) SO2Cl2 (b) SOCl2 (c) Cl2 (d) NaOCl (c) CH3CO+ (d) C6H5CH2+
6. Which cyclization(s) should occur with an increase in p elec- 10. Arrange the following in order of decreasing boiling point:
tron energy? CH3
(I) (II)
(a) + H2
(b) + + H2 CH3
+
H3C CH3
− CH3
+ + H2 (III) (IV)
(c)
+ CH3
CH3
(d) + H2 CH3
+
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) IV > III > II > I
7. In which of the following polysubstitution takes place? (c) I > III > IV > II (d) II > III > I > IV
COCH3 11. In which case is the indicated unshared pair of electrons NOT
(a) + CH3COCl a contributor to the p aromatic system?
S
CH3 (a) (b)
(b) N
+ CH3Cl
NO2
(c) H2SO4 (c) (d) O+
+ HNO3 −
H
SO3H 12. The conversion can be effected using
(d)
+ H2SO4 CH2CH2CH3 CH2CH2CH3
33. Which of the following is not insoluble in water? 41. Name the final product obtained when benzene is treated with
(a) Benzene (b) 1,3-cyclohexadiene methyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride.
(c) 1,4-cyclohexadiene (d) All are insoluble. (a) Chlorobenzene. (b) Toluene.
(c) Ethylbenzene. (d) None of these.
34. Which of the following is not a meta-directing substituent
when present on the benzene ring? 42. Benzyl chloride (C6H5CH2Cl) can be prepared from toluene by
(a) NHCOCH3 (b) NO2 chlorination with
(c) N(CH3)3+ (d) C N (a) SO2Cl2. (b) SOCl2 (c) Cl2 (d) NaOCl
35. A mixture of chlorobenzene (1 mol) and acetanilide (1 mol) 43. We now know that the two Kekule structures for benzene are
is allowed to react with Br2 (0.5 mol) in the presence of trace related in the following way:
amounts of FeBr3. What is the principal product of the com- (a) They are each equally correct as a structure for benzene.
peting reactions? (b) Benzene is sometimes one structure and sometimes the
(a) 1-bromo-4-chlorobenzene other.
(b) 1-bromo-2-chlorobenzene (c) The two structures are in a state of rapid equilibrium.
(c) 1-bromo-3-chlorobenzene (d) Neither of the two structures adequately describes ben-
(d) 4-bromoacetanilide zene; benzene is a resonance hybrid of the two.
36. Why would 1,3-cyclohexadiene undergo dehydrogenation 44. What might be predicted to happen when the following sub-
readily? stance undergoes Friedel–Crafts acylation?
(a) It is easily reduced.
(b) Hydrogen is a small molecule. O2 N CH2
(c) 1,3-cyclohexadiene has no resonance energy.
(d) It would gain considerable stability by becoming benzene. A B
37. The nitration of which of the following compounds will be (a) Substitution occurs in ring B, p- to the methylene group.
most easy? (b) Substitution occurs in ring A, o- to the nitro group.
(a) benzene (b) m-dinitrobenzene (c) Substitution occurs in ring A, o- to the methylene group.
(c) toluene (d) None of these (d) Substitution occurs in ring B, m- to the methylene group.
38. Which of the following is not a condition for a compound to 45. What would you expect to be the major product obtained
be aromatic? from the monobromination of meta-dichlorobenzene?
(a) The molecule must possess planarity. Cl Cl Cl
(b) There should be complete delocalization of the p elec- Br
trons in the ring.
(c) The presence of (4n + 2)p electrons in the ring (Hückel’s
rule) where n is the integer. Cl Cl Br Cl
(d) The molecule must have atleast two double bonds. Br
39. 2-Bromo-4-nitroaniline is I II III
Br (a) I
Br
NH2 (b) II
(c) III
(a) (b)
(d) Equal amounts of I and II
NO2
NO2 Multiple Correct Choice Type
NH2
OCH3 46. Predict which of the following systems would be aromatic
and why?
Br
Br NO2
(c) (d) (a) (b)
H2N
NO2
(c) (d)
40. Which of the following structures will have number of elec-
trons more than 4p electrons?
47. Which of the following compounds are aromatic according to
(a) (b) Hückel’s rule?
(a) (b)
− + N
H
48. Benzoic acid may be prepared by the oxidation of 51. If we take FeCl3 in place of AlCl3 in question number 49, the
CH2CH3 product is
CH2OH (a) Only (a)
(a) (b) (b) Only (b)
(c) (a) and (b) both can be possible
(d) Not given
COCH3 OH
Matrix-Match Type
CH2CH3 CH3
(c) (d) 52. Column I (Reaction) Column II (Electrophile)
Lewis
+R X acid + HX H2SO4
(c) + H2SO4 (r) NO−
Me
Me
Me Me
Me Me
Me
(c) (d)
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a), (c) 47. (b), (d) 48. (a), (b)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (a) → q; (b)→ r; (c) → p; (d) → s 53. (3)
54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (3) 57. (3) 58. (5)
Cl Cl +
CHCl3 + AlCl3 CHCl2 + AlCl−4
Cl2, hv
C6H5CH2 CH3 C6H5 C CH3 + C6H5 C CH3 (Electrophile) Cl
273 K
H Cl CHCl2 CH
+
Cl2 + CHCl2
5. (c) C6H5CH3 C6H5CH2Cl + HCl AlCl3
COOH COOH COOH 31. (d) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH3
Cr O , V O and Mo O
Al
2 3 2 5 2 3
O , 773 K, 10 − 20 atm
→
> >
2 3
34. (a) NHCOCH3 is ortho, para directing while all other groups Multiple Correct Choice Type
are meta directing.
46. (a), (c) Only those compounds will be aromatic which follow
35. (d) Chloro group in chlorobenzene is a ring deactivating Hückel’s rule and are planar.
group, whereas in acetamido group in acetanilide is a ring (a) There are 10p electrons, that is, n = 2, so it is aromatic.
activator. Thus, the principal product of the competing (b) There are 4p electrons so n is not an integer, it is
reaction will be 4-bromoacetanilide. antiaromatic.
(c) There are two benzene rings with 6p electrons, that is,
36. (d) Conceptual
n = 1, so it is aromatic.
37. (c) In case of toluene, the presence of CH3 group increases (d) The molecule is not planar although it has 6p electrons,
the electron density on the ring and hence nitration so it is not aromatic.
becomes easier. In case of m-dinitro benzene, due to
47. (b), (d)
the presence of electron-withdrawing NO2 groups, the
electron density decreases and the electrophilic substi-
tution becomes difficult. In case of benzene which has
no group attachments will undergo nitration more eas- (a) (b)
N
ily than m-dinitrobenzene but less easily than toluene. H
The order of reactivity will, therefore, be toluene > ben- Non aromatic Aromatic
zene > m-dinitrobenzene.
38. (d) Conceptual H 2C CH2
48. (a), (b) The side chain of any type on benzene ring is oxidized
H2N to benzoic acid.
CH2 CH3 COOH
40. (d) Cycloheptadienyl ion has more than 4p electrons and
hence is aromatic. KMnO4
+ 6[O] + CO2 + 2H2O
41. (a) The reaction is Friedel–Craft alkylation reaction.
anhyd. AlCl
C6H6 + CH3Cl
3
→ C6H5Cl
CH2 OH COOH
Matrix-Match Type 55. (4) Benzene contains 12s bonds and 3p bonds. Hence, ratio
is 4:1.
52. (a) → q; (b) → r; (c) → p; (d) → s
Integer Type
53. (3) Three possible Dewar structures were considered as
56. (3)
minor resonance contributors in the overall description
of benzene. The major resonance contributors are of
course the two possible Kekulé structures.
Kekule structures Dewar structures
57. (3) Meta directors: NO2, SO3H, CHO.
58. (5) NO2, COCH3, COOH, Cl and I are deactivating out of which
Cl and I are ortho, para directing, while NO2, COCH3,
COOH are meta directing.
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
54. (3)
OH
(c) (d) In the reaction in option (d), the carbocation obtained under-
H2SO4 BF3. OEt2
goes 1,2-hydride shift and the resulting cation undergoes elec-
Solution trophilic substitution on the benzene ring to form tert-butyl
benzene.
(b), (c), (d) The reactions of the given compounds are as
follows:
H+ + −
In the reaction in option (a), tert-butyl benzene is not formed, OH + F3B − OEt2 O BF3
instead tert-butyl bromide undergoes elimination reaction.
H
Br NaOC2H5
Elimination
(E2) + 1,2-Hydride
+ + F 3B OH
shift
In the reaction in option (b), tert-butyl benzene is obtained by
Friedel–Crafts reaction with 2-methyl propyl chloride.
+
+ AlCl3 + AlCl4−
Cl
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
SUMMARY
1. The study of chemical species in the environment, their origin, reactions, dispersal, effects and fate in air/water/soil is known as envi-
ronmental chemistry.
2. Disruption in the natural environment caused by the release of harmful contaminants (pollutants) into the air, water or soil by natural
or artificial activities is called environmental pollution.
3. There are three types of pollution: air, water and soil. The air is contaminated with exhaust gases, soil polluted with pesticides used in
agriculture and water with toxic effluents from the industry.
4. Pollutants are classified as primary and secondary pollutants depending on the nature of their interaction with the
environment.
(a) Primary pollutants
These are pollutants which when formed and released into the environment remain there as such, causing harmful effects, for
example NO2, SO2 or NO.
(b) Secondary pollutants
These are pollutants that are formed by the chemical reactions between primary pollutants present in atmosphere or hydro-
sphere. For example peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN) formed by the reaction between primary pollutants, hydrocarbons and oxides of
nitrogen in the presence of sunlight.
5. Regions of atmosphere – Effect of air pollution on these regions
(a) The release of undesirable materials into the atmosphere either by natural phenomena or human activity that adversely affect
the quality of air and make it unfit for breathing is known as air pollution.
(b) The atmosphere of the earth is divided into the following layers:
(i) Troposphere is the layer closest to the earth spanning across 10 km from sea level. There is a lot of turbulence and vertical
mixing in this layer. It contains mainly water vapour and clouds.
(ii) Stratosphere
• Lies between troposphere and mesosphere between 10 km and 50 km above sea level.
• There is no turbulence in this layer and it contains gases such as ozone, nitrogen and oxygen and also some amount of
water vapour.
(iii) Tropospheric pollution
• Caused due to undesirable gaseous and solid emissions from vehicles, industries and refineries and natural activities like
forest fires and volcanoes, etc.
• The major air pollutants present in the troposphere are oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon, and hydrocarbons.
Tip The permissible value of a pollutant at which it does not cause any adverse effect to persons exposed to it for eight
working hours a day is known as its threshold limit value. Certain media present in the environment absorb or take up
some amounts of the pollutants and is known as sink for that pollutant
6. Tropospheric pollutants – Gaseous pollutants (Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, hydrocarbon); their sources, harmful
effects and prevention
(Continued)
Causes Effects
• Use of petrol, diesel, CNG, etc., by automobiles. • Sea levels will rise due to rising temperatures, as
• Farming practices and land-use changes. Use of chemical the polar caps melt.
fertilizers. • Some species will become endangered and face
• Deforestation extinction due to change in habitat.
• Emission of flue gases from factories. • Diseases will spread fast as most microorganisms
• Release of chlorofluorocarbons from air conditioning and will flourish under the warmer climate conditions.
refrigerating machines.
8. Acid rain is a broad term referring to a mixture of wet and dry acidic depositions from the atmosphere containing higher than normal
amounts of nitric and sulphuric acids.
(a) The deposition of acidic oxides of nitrogen and sulphur released into the atmosphere may occur directly on the solid and liquid
ground surfaces and this is known as dry deposition.
(b) The gases are carried by wind from drier regions to wetter regions where they undergo oxidation and then dissolve in rain-
water to form nitric acid, sulphuric acid, sulphurous acid, etc., and fall freely in the form of acid rain. The process is known as
wet deposition. The reactions are:
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) + H2O(l) → 2H2SO 4 (aq)
4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) + 2H2O(l) → 4HNO3 (aq)
9. Particulate pollutants comprise of suspended small particles present in the air, like smoke and dust or liquid droplets, with size
ranging from 0.002 µm to 500 µm. These are of two types:
(a) Viable
These comprise living microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, algae, etc., which may cause diseases.
(b) Non-viable
(i) These comprise non-living particulate matter.
(ii) These originate from natural sources such as volcanic eruptions, seawater sprays, blowing wind and dust or from factory, etc.
Non-viable
particulate Characteristic Sources Effects
Smoke (soot) Smallest size particles Incomplete combus- • Particulate pollutants larger than 5 μ block the
(0.005 µ) tion of fossil fuels, nasal passage.
May be solid or a garbage, dry leaves, • Particles of around 1 μ in size can get into the
mixture of solid and oil, cigarette. lungs, settle and act as sites for adsorption of
liquid particles carcinogenic materials. For example, Pneumoco-
niosis caused in industrial and mine workers by
Dust Small solid particles Crushing and grinding inhalation of dust particles.
of about 1 µ in size of stone and other • Aerosols such as smoke, fog, dust, mist contain
materials; sawing of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur which can cause
wood; pulverizing acid rain and fluorocarbons that can deplete the
coal; fly ash from fac- ozone layer.
tories and dust storms. • Particulates cause metal corrosion and damage
Mist Spray of liquids (such to buildings and sculpture.
as insecticides) or
condensation of
vapours in the air.
Fumes Condensation of cer-
tain materials that are
present as vapours in
the atmosphere, such
as organic solvents,
metals and metal
oxides.
10. Smog is a combination of two terms, smoke and fog and results from air pollution.
There are two types of smog:
(a) Classical (London) smog
(i) Characterized by the presence of high levels of carbon soot arising from unburnt coal and sulphur dioxide arising from
oxidation of sulphur present in the coal. It is also called as reducing smog.
Both NO2 and O3 formed react with unburnt hydrocarbons present in the air to form formaldehyde, acrolein and peroxyacetyl
nitrate (PAN).
• Formation of aldehydes and ketones
Tip Biomagnification is the accumulation or increase in the concentration of a substance in living tissue as it moves
through a food web (also known as bioaccumulation).
• Acids [HCl, H2SO4, HNO3 and H3PO4] and alkalis [NaOH, KOH, NH3 and Ca(OH)2] drained with effluents from different
industries.
• Oil spills
• Organic chemicals from use of pesticides and from industrial processes.
• Synthetic detergents
Tip Chemical oxygen demand measures the pollution load in water by measuring the amount of oxygen in parts per
million required for oxidation of total organic matter.
(c) Eutrophication is a process by which a water body develops a high concentration of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus
(in the form of nitrates and phosphates). These nutrients cause an increase in the growth of aquatic plants and production of blue
green bacteria and algae. The BOD of water goes up when these die and dissolved oxygen decreases affecting aquatic life.
13. Soil pollution
Major soil pollutants are:
(a) Pesticides
These have undergone four stages of development:
(i) First stage used simple inorganic compounds like arsenic that is highly toxic to living beings.
(ii) Second stage used petroleum based sprays and natural plant chemicals. Though safe, these are not very effective.
(iii) Third stage used synthetic organic chemicals, generally called chlorinated pesticides, for example DDT, aldrin, dieldrin, etc.
Most of the insects also become resistant to these pesticides over a period of time.
(iv) The fourth series of pesticides that are introduced are biodegradable and hence less persistent in the environment. These
include organophosphates and carbamates.
(b) Herbicides
These include alachlor, atrazine, cyanazine, metolachlor, sodium chlorate and sodium arsenite. These enter soil in heavy run-offs
and are toxic to living beings above permissible limits.
14. Strategies to control environmental pollution
(a) Integrated waste management
(i) Involves practices of reducing, reusing and recycling waste.
(ii) Control of pollution can be accomplished through chemical, physical or biological treatment and collection (for eventual
disposal), transformation or disposal of pollutants after they have been generated.
Tip Composting is a biochemical process in which organic materials such as kitchen scraps decompose to a rich, soil-like
material. The process involves rapid partial decomposition of moist solid organic waste by aerobic organisms.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Atmospheric Pollution Reaction without polar stratospheric clouds
1. Identify the wrong statements in the following: CFCl3 + UV light → Cli + CFCl2
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer
depletion. Cli + O3 → ClO + O2
(b) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming. ClO + NO2 → ClONO2 (Reservoirs)
(c) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the With polar stratospheric clouds
sun to reach the earth. O3
ClONO2 + HCl + Clouds Cl2 Cl• ClO•
(d) Acid rains are mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and (Moisture) + +
sulphur. (AIEEE 2008) O3
Cl• ClO•
Solution
(c) Ozone layer does allow infrared radiation from sun to Cl2O2 O2
reach earth, whereas it does not allow to pass UV radiation. The main reason for ozone depletion in polar region is that ice
2. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant crystals catalyze ozone depletion reaction.
in Bhopal gas tragedy was 4. Global warming is due to increase of
(a) methylamine. (b) ammonia. (a) methane and nitrous oxide in atmosphere.
(c) phosgene. (d) methyl isocynate. (b) methane and CO2 in atmosphere.
(JEE Main 2013) (c) methane and O3 in atmosphere.
Solution (d) methane and CO in atmosphere.
(JEE Main Online 2014)
(d) The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide
Solution
plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was methyl isocyanate
(C2H3NCO). (b) The increasing percentage of CO2 and CH4 in the atmos-
phere is the main cause of global warming. CO2 is most
3. Which of the following statements about the depletion of prevalent greenhouse gas and CH4 is second most preva-
ozone layer is correct? lent greenhouse gas.
(a) The problem of ozone depletion is less serious at poles
because NO2 solidifies and is not available for consuming 5. Two important sinks of CO2 are
ClO• radicals. (a) plants, vehicular exhaust. (b) oceans, plants.
(b) The problem of ozone depletion is more serious at poles (c) oceans, soil. (d) plants, limestone.
because ice crystals in the clouds over poles act as catalyst Solution
for photochemical reactions involving the decomposition (b) Oceans and plants are the two important sinks of CO2.
of ozone by Cl• and ClO• radicals.
(c) Freons, chlorofluorocarbons, are inert chemically, they do 6. Flue gases are generally made free from NOx by
not react with ozone in stratosphere. (a) mixing them with oxygen.
(d) Oxides of nitrogen also do not react with ozone in strato- (b) scrubbing them with H2SO4.
sphere. (JEE Main Online 2014) (c) passing them through heated platinum plates.
(d) passing them through water.
Solution Solution
(b) CFCl3 + UV light → CFCl2 + Cl i (b) The large amount of nitrogen oxides emitted from power
plants and industrial units can be removed by scrubbing
Cl i + O3 → ClO + O2 the flue gases with sulphuric acid. SO2 and NO2 present in
i i the flue gases first react to give NO and H2SO4.
ClO + O → Cl + O2
NO2 + SO2 + H2O → H2SO 4 + NO
NO and NO2 then react to form N2O3 that is scrubbed by sul- Solution
phuric acid to form H(NO)SO4: (b) Emission of NOx from vehicular exhaust can be reduced
by using catalytic converters.
NO + NO2 → N2O3 Removal of sulphur from the fuels can be done by
N2O3 + 2H2SO 4 → 2H(NO )SO 4 + H2O combustion, using chemical scrubbers like CaCO3 that
react with SO2 to form less harmful CaSO4.
The flue gases are thus freed of NO2 as well as SO2. The The high amount of CO, CO2 and hydrocarbons in
cleaned flue gases are then released into the atmosphere. The the atmosphere can be minimized by developing more
compound H(NO)SO4 is decomposed in a separate chamber efficient and internal combustion engines that con-
by heating where the following reaction takes place. sume less fuel and emit lesser amount of pollutants.
Compressed natural gas and liquefied natural gas can
2H(NO )SO 4 + 21 O2 + H2O → 2H2SO 4 + NO2 supplement gasoline as fuels. The emission of CO2 can
also be controlled by reducing the amount of harmful
The liberated H2SO4 is recycled into the scrubbing chamber. chemicals used in the industries and minimizing the
burning of fossil fuels.
7. CO is more toxic than CO2 because
(a) it affects the nervous system. 11. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(b) it damages lungs. (a) CH4 (b) H2O (c) O3 (d) NO2
(c) it reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin. Solution
(d) it forms acid with water.
(d) NO2 is not a greenhouse gas as it does not contribute to
Solution greenhouse effect.
(c) CO is more toxic than CO2 because it reduces the oxygen 12. Which of the following is true about greenhouse effect?
carrying capacity of haemoglobin. (a) The name “Greenhouse” has been given because glass
8. Hydrocarbons turn carcinogenic in concentrations above houses are made of green glass.
(a) 100 ppm (b) 300 ppm (b) Greenhouse effect was observed in houses used to grow
(c) 500 ppm (d) 700 ppm plants and these are made of green glass.
(c) The name “Greenhouse” has been given because the
Solution practice of encasing vegetation in glass chambers to
(c) Hydrocarbons turn carcinogenic in concentrations above protect them from frost particularly in cold countries.
500 ppm. The hydrocarbons in air by themselves alone (d) None of these.
cause no harmful effects. However, they undergo chem- Solution
ical reactions in the presence of sunlight and nitrogen
oxides forming photochemical oxidants. (c) This effect was observed that there was a continued rise
in temperature in such chambers even when the outside
9. Lung diseases are four times more in urban areas than rural temperature remained low. This enabled the warming up
areas. This is due to the presence of of vegetation inside the chamber, resulting in good plant
(a) SO2 (b) CO2 growth.
(c) N2 (d) water-vapour
13. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected
Solution rain water will have a pH value
(a) This is due to the presence of SO2 gas. A concentration of (a) slightly lower than that of rain water without
0.5 ppm of SO2 for full day or 0.2 ppm lasting for 3 days thunderstorm.
has been reported to damage the lungs and increase the (b) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not
rate of mortality. there.
(c) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm.
10. Match the gas pollutants with their methods of control. (d) which depends on the amount of dust in air.
A NOx (p) Minimizing burning of fossil fuels Solution
B SOx (q) Catalytic converters (a) This is because thunderstorm contains acidic oxides of
(r) Combustion, using chemical scrub- sulphur and nitrogen.
C COx
bers like CaCO3 14. Acid rain is produced in the atmosphere by the oxides of
D CxHy (s) Using CNG, LNG, etc. (a) sulphur (b) nitrogen
(c) carbon (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) A → (p); B → (q); C → (r, s); D →(s)
Solution
(b) A → (q); B → (r); C→ (p, s); D → (s)
(c) A → (r); B → (s); C → (p, q); D → (r) (d) Acid rain is produced in the atmosphere by the oxides of
(d) A → (s); B → (q); C → (r, s); D → (p) sulphur and nitrogen. SO2 and NO2 after oxidation and
reaction with water produce sulphuric acid and nitric Particulate Pollution
acid which are the major contributors to the acid rain.
17. Photochemical smog consists of excessive amount of X, in
addition to aldehydes, ketones, peroxy acetyl nitrile (PAN),
2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 2H2SO 4
and so forth. X is:
4NO2 + O2 + 2H2O → 4HNO3 (a) CH4 (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) O3
(JEE Main Online 2015)
15. Which of the following reactions does not contribute to air
pollution in the troposphere? Solution
(a) C 4H10(g) + 6O2(g) → CO(g) + 2CO2(g) + 5H2O(l) (d) Photochemical smog consists of excessive amount of
ozone (O3) in addition to nitrogen oxides (NOx), per
Lightning
(b) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO oxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) and volatile organic compounds
(VOCs) that are produced by reaction of sunlight.
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2 (g)
18. The smog is essentially caused by the presence of
(c) 2HCHO → CH4 (g) + CO2 (g) (a) O2 and O3.
i
(d) Cl + O3 (g) → ClO + O2 (g) (b) O3 and N2.
(c) oxides of sulphur and nitrogen.
Solution (d) O2 and N2.
(d) The first reaction takes place during incomplete com-
Solution
bustion of fossil fuels and releases oxides of carbon into
the troposphere. The second set of reactions represents (c) Classical smog contains oxides of sulphur, while photo-
formation of oxides of nitrogen in the troposphere. The chemical smog contains oxides of nitrogen.
third reaction represents formation of hydrocarbons due 19. PAN and ozone are
to incomplete combustion of fuels or anaerobic decom- (a) primary pollutants.
position of organic matter. The fourth reaction between (b) secondary pollutants.
chlorine radical and ozone takes place in the stratosphere (c) responsible for respiratory problems.
and leads to depletion of ozone in the stratosphere. (d) particulate pollutants.
Chlorine free radical is obtained from chlorofluorocar-
bons released into the atmosphere. Solution
(b) These are secondary pollutants formed as follows:
hn
F2CCl2(g) F2C Cl(g) + Cl(g) The oxygen free radical reacts with atmospheric oxygen
producing ozone.
16. Which of the following conditions does not show a polluted
O + O2 → O3
air environment?
(a) Air contains particulate matter of size 3 µ. Formation of peroxyacetyl nitrate is as follows:
(b) The rain falling has pH of 4.5. Hydrocarbon + O2 + NO2 + Light → CH3COOONO2
(c) The hydrochlorofluorocarbons emitted by the refrigera-
tion plant. 20. Which of the following is pollution related disorder?
(d) The SO2 and SO3 emitted by the thermal power plant (a) Hypertension (b) Leprosis
have concentration of 7 ppm and 2 ppm, respectively, in (c) Silicosis (d) Ulcer
the air. Solution
Solution (c) Silicosis, also known as potter’s rot, is a form of occupa-
(c) Option (a) refers to a polluted air condition because tional lung disease caused by inhalation of crystalline silica
particulate matter of size greater than 1 µ can get into dust, and is marked by inflammation and scarring in forms
the lungs and act as site for adsorption of carcinogenic of nodular lesions in the upper lobe of the lungs. It is a type
material. of pneumoconiosis. It is normally caused by particulates.
Option (b) refers to a polluted air condition because 21. In a coal fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are
the rain with pH of about 5 is called acid rain and contains installed to control emission of
nitric and sulphuric acids. It is formed by the presence of (a) SO2
oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the air that exceed the (b) NOx
permitted values. (c) Suspended particulate matter (SPM)
Option (c) refers to a non-polluted environment (d) CO
because hydrogen-containing chlorofluorocarbons are
destroyed in the troposphere itself, and not taken to strat- Solution
osphere where they could cause destruction of ozone. (c) In the coal fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators
Option (d) refers to a polluted air condition because lev- are installed to control emission of suspended particu-
els of SO2 at even 5 ppm can cause irritation of respiratory late matter. The particulates are usually produced by coal
tract and eyes. SO3 is harmful even at the concentration of fire power plant is soot, dust particulates, metal particles,
1 ppm causing discomfort particularly to the elderly. metal oxides, etc.
22. The particle size is smallest in case of (c) decrease in biological oxygen demand.
(a) mist. (b) soot. (c) fumes. (d) dust. (d) all of these.
Solution Solution
(b) Smoke (soot) contain smallest size particles (0.005 µ) that (a) Excessive growth of algae indicates eutrophication in
are released into the atmosphere by incomplete combus- which there is an increase in the amount of nutrients
tion of fossil fuels, garbage, dry leaves, oil, cigarette, etc. present in the water especially nitrogen and phospho-
Smoke particulates may be solid or a mixture of solid and rus. These algae form surface mats and reduce the light
liquid particles. availability to the algae below the surface which further
reduces photosynthesis. Besides, the decomposition of
23. How is photochemical smog produced?
dead algae also increases the biological oxygen demand
(a) Depletion of tropospheric ozone + SOx
and reduces the oxygen content of water.
(b) Incineration of toxic waste
(c) Solar radiation + NOx + organic compounds 27. Which of the following are organic pollutants?
(d) Burning of coal in urban areas + SOx (a) Acids and alkalis from industries
Solution (b) Alkyl benzene sulphonates
(c) Benzene sulphonamides
(c) Photochemical smog consists mainly of the compounds (d) All of these
that are produced by reaction of sunlight with chemicals
like nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds found Solution
in polluted air. Burning of coal in urban areas and oxides of (c) Organic pollutants are benzene sulphonamides, adipates
sulphur formed lead to the formation of classical smog. (esters of hexandioic acid), phthalates (esters of phthalic
acid) and DEHP, PCB.
Water Pollution
24. Addition of phosphate fertilizers to water bodies causes 28. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) enhanced growth of algae. (a) The main reason for river water pollution is industrial and
(b) increase in amount of dissolved oxygen in water. domestic sewage discharge.
(c) deposition of calcium phosphate. (b) Surface water contains a lot of organic matter, mineral
(d) increase in fish population. nutrients and radioactive materials.
(JEE Main Online 2015) (c) Oil spill in sea water causes heavy damage to fishery.
(d) Oil slick in sea water increases DO value.
Solution
Solution
(a) Addition of nutrients such as nitrogen and phospho-
rus (in the form of nitrates and phosphates) cause an (d) Oil slick results in reduction of dissolved oxygen (DO).
increase in the growth of aquatic plants and production
29. Which of the following causes water pollution?
of blue green bacteria and algae. This process is known as
(a) Smoke/fly ash
eutrophication.
(b) Automobile exhausts
25. Which of the following is not usually associated with (c) Aeroplanes
eutrophication? (d) PCBs and detergents
(a) Reduced photosynthesis Solution
(b) Increased heavy metal concentrations
(c) Increased nutrient concentrations (d) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) and detergents cause
(d) Reduced dissolved oxygen water pollution.
(c) The lower the concentration of DO, the more polluted is Soil Pollution
the water sample.
34. What is DDT among the following?
(d) The tolerable limit of lead in drinking water is 50 ppm.
(a) Greenhouse gas
Solution (b) A fertilizer
(b) In COD determination the pollutants resistant to microbial (c) Biodegradable pollutant
oxidation are oxidized by oxidizing agent like K2Cr2O7. (d) Non-biodegradable pollutant (AIEEE 2012)
32. Which of the following is the best measure for pollution in Solution
water? (d) DDT is a well-known insecticide. It is a non-biodegradable
(a) COD (b) Dissolved oxygen pollutant. DDT is not rapidly metabolized by animals, it
(c) BOD (d) Water transparency affects the reproductive system of animals.
The structure of DDT is
Solution
(c) Dissolved oxygen depends upon various factors, such as Cl
Cl Cl
temperature of the water, the amount of oxygen used
up by organisms, and the amount replenished by pho-
tosynthesizing plants, aeration, etc. COD refers to chem-
ical oxygen demand, and is less specific as it measures
both organic and oxidizable inorganic material that can Cl Cl
be chemically oxidized, rather than just levels of biologi- 1,1,1-Trichloro-2,2-bis
cally active organic matter. Biochemical oxygen demand (4-chlrophenyl) ethane
(BOD) is a more specific measure as it measures the
amount of the dissolved oxygen that would be needed 35. Sodium chlorate is a type of
by the microorganisms to oxidize organic waste present (a) pesticide. (b) herbicide.
in sewage water. (c) fertilizer. (d) insecticides.
33. The industrial waste pipeline that discharges effluent into a Solution
water body is (b) Herbicides are used to control weeds, which are the
(a) a non-point source of pollution. unwanted plants that grow along with the crops and thus
(b) a point source of pollution. compete with them for sunlight, nutrients, etc. Examples
(c) called acid mine drainage. include NaClO3 (sodium chlorate) and Na3AsO3 (sodium
(d) responsible for eutrophication. arsenite).
Solution 36. A new series of pesticides that have been introduced which
(b) Point sources of pollution are distinct and defined; their are biodegradable and hence less persistent in the environ-
origin can be identified and corrective measures for ment include
control can be taken. Therefore, water being discharged (a) phosphates. (b) organophosphates.
through industrial pipeline is a point source that can be (c) nitrates. (d) organosulphates.
treated and the pollutants can be regulated before it is Solution
discharged into the water body.
(b) To overcome the challenge posed by persistence of tox-
Non-point sources of water pollution are diffused and
ins from chlorinated organic pesticides, a new series of
intermittent. They cannot be identified easily, and hence
pesticides have been introduced which are biodegrada-
cannot have specific control measures.
ble and hence less persistent in the environment. These
Acid mine drainage refers to water with high concen-
include organophosphates and carbamates. However,
tration of sulphuric acid that drains from mines, mostly
these have been reported to be nerve toxins and have
coal mines.
resulted in deaths of agricultural workers.
Eutrophication is caused by the presence of excess
nitrogen and phosphorus in run-off waters from agricul-
tural fields.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 2. Temperature of troposphere decreases with altitude. This is
because of
Single Correct Choice Type (a) high pressure of air. (b) gases present in air.
1. COD refers to (c) lower density of air. (d) all of these.
(a) chemical oxygen demand.
(b) chemistry of diamonds. 3. In BOD test, oxygen plays an important role to
(c) catalyzed oxidation of dissolved salts. (a) destroy inorganic matter.
(d) combined oxygen demand. (b) destroy pollution.
(c) destroy waste organic matter. (c) converting fertile land into barren land by dumping ash,
(d) destroy living organism. sludge and garbage.
(d) none of these.
4. Smog is a common pollutant in places having
(a) high temperature. 15. Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan
(b) low temperature. cities mainly consists of
(c) excessive SO2 in the air. (a) ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx.
(d) excessive ammonia in the air. (b) smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO2.
5. Drained sewage has BOD (c) hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2.
(a) more than that of water. (b) less than that of water. (d) hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx.
(c) equal to that of water. (d) none of these. 16. Which of the following type of pollution is caused by invisible
6. The radiations which are concerned with global warming and pollutants?
ozone depletion are, respectively, (a) Thermal pollution. (b) Noise pollution.
(a) UV and IR (b) UV and UV (c) Radioactive pollution. (d) All of these.
(c) IR and IR (d) IR and UV
17. Atmosphere of metropolitan cities is mostly polluted by
7. Water is often treated with chlorine to (a) automobile exhausts. (b) pesticide residue.
(a) increase oxygen content. (c) household waste. (d) radioactive fallout.
(b) kill germs.
(c) remove hardness. 18. The part of the atmosphere where weather occurs is the
(d) remove suspended particles. (a) tropopause. (b) stratopause.
(c) troposphere. (d) stratosphere.
8. Which of the following is not a part of green chemistry?
(a) Photochemistry (b) Sonochemistry 19. About 20 km above the earth there is an ozone layer. Which
(c) Nuclear chemistry (d) Biochemistry one of the following statements about ozone and ozone layer
is true?
9. Which of the following statements about control of particu-
(a) Ozone layer is beneficial to us because ozone cuts out the
late pollution is false?
ultraviolet radiation of the sun.
(a) Gravity settling chamber removes larger particles from
(b) The conversion of ozone to oxygen is an endothermic
the air.
reaction.
(b) Cyclone collector removes fine particles in the diameter
(c) Ozone has a triatomic linear molecule.
range 5–20 µ.
(d) Ozone layer is harmful to us because it blocks radiations
(c) Wet scrubbers are used to wash away all types of
that are useful for photosynthesis.
particulates.
(d) In electrostatic precipitator, the particulates are made to 20. The brown, hazy fumes of photochemical smog are due to
acquire positive charge which are then attracted by the (a) nitrogen dioxide. (b) PAN formation.
negative electrode and removed. (c) aldehydes. (d) SO2.
10. As it passes into the food chain, the concentration of DDT 21. Atmospheric content of CO2 is
(a) remains the same. (b) decreases. (a) 0.0034% (b) 0.034% (c) 0.34% (d) 3.4%
(c) increases. (d) unpredictable.
22. Taj Mahal may be destroyed by
11. Which of the following is the biggest particulate matter? (a) flood in Yamuna.
(a) Soot (b) H2SO4 droplets (b) temperature-mediated spoilage of marble.
(c) Fly ash (d) HNO3 droplets (c) air pollutants from Mathura refinery.
12. Which of the following method is used in green chemistry? (d) all of these.
(a) Use of sunlight and microwaves. 23. What does BOD stand for?
(b) Use of sound waves. (a) Barometer of Decomposition
(c) Use of water as solvent (in complex reactions). (b) Bacterial Oxygen Dependency
(d) All of these. (c) Biodegradable Organic Damage
13. Global warming can be controlled by (d) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(a) increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of
human population. 24. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is
(b) reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel. (a) mercury. (b) tin.
(c) reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel. (c) cadmium. (d) lead.
(d) increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy 25. During the last two million years or so, the climate of the Earth
usage. has
14. Negative soil pollution is (a) been very nearly constant.
(a) reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and over use. (b) swung sharply both up and down in temperature.
(b) reduction in soil productivity due to addition of pesti- (c) slowly decreased in humidity.
cides and industrial wastes. (d) slowly increased in temperature.
26. Which pollutant causes burning sensation of throat and eyes In this analogy, the greenhouse effect would be like
and vomiting sensation? (a) putting the bucket on the stove.
(a) Hydrogen sulphide (b) Sulphur (b) increasing the stream of water pouring into the bucket.
(c) Hydrogen cyanide (d) Arsenic substances (c) decreasing the stream of water pouring into the bucket.
(d) plugging-up some of the holes in the bucket.
27. About 99% of all air in the Earth’s atmosphere is found in
(a) the troposphere. 35. The amount of the nutrients, phosphorus, and nitrogen in
(b) the tropopause. groundwater is usually
(c) the stratosphere. (a) greater in agricultural regions than in natural forests.
(d) the troposphere and the stratosphere. (b) the same in agricultural regions as in natural forests.
(c) an indicator of soil fertility.
28. Water quality determination is based on all of the following (d) an indicator of industrial seepage.
except
(a) effects on public health. 36. When huge amount of sewage is dumped in a river, the BOD will
(b) departure from the norm. (a) increase. (b) remain unchanged.
(c) source of the water. (c) decrease. (d) None of these.
(d) expected end use. 37. Carbon monoxide (CO) is harmful to man because
29. UV radiation from sun causes a reaction that produces (a) it forms carbolic acid.
(a) carbon monoxide. (b) sulphur dioxide. (b) it generates excess CO2.
(c) fluorides. (d) ozone. (c) it is carcinogenic.
(d) it competes with O2 for haemoglobin.
30. Scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
(a) Gases like sulphur dioxide. 38. Ozone layer in upper atmosphere (stratosphere) is destroyed
(b) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less. by
(c) Gases like ozone and methane. (a) hydrochloric acid.
(d) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above. (b) photochemical smog.
(c) chlorofluorocarbon (CFC).
31. Which of the following is responsible for catching most of (d) sulphur dioxide.
Earth’s back-radiation to space?
(a) Water vapour (b) Sulphur dioxide 39. By weight, the most abundant water pollutant is
(c) Particulate matter (d) Carbon dioxide (a) toxic chemicals.
(b) leachate from open dumps.
32. Air pollutants that produce photochemical oxidants include (c) organic waste.
(a) carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide. (d) sediment.
(b) nitrous oxide, nitric oxide and nitric acid.
(c) oxygen, chlorine and nitric acid. 40. Any precipitation (rain, fog, snow or dew) which has pH less
(d) ozone, chlorine and sulphur dioxide. than ___ is called acid rain.
(a) 4.6 (b) 6.6 (c) 5.6 (d) 5.0
33. Foul smell in the water of tanks, ponds, etc. is due to
(a) anaerobiosis. (b) aerobiosis. 41. The best definition of the term water pollution is
(c) biological magnification. (d) psammophytes. (a) release of primary treated sewage into natural water.
(b) water unsuitable for human consumption.
34. The figure below illustrates an analogy of the earth’s ther- (c) overdrafting in coastal areas.
mal balance. Water pouring into the bucket is equivalent to (d) degradation of water quality.
in-coming solar radiation, and the water leaking from holes
in the bucket is like outgoing thermal radiation. The amount 42. Pneumoconiosis is caused by inhalation of
of water in the bucket is equivalent to the amount of heat on (a) coal dust. (b) silica dust.
earth – a higher water level is like higher temperature on earth. (c) cotton fiber dust. (d) asbestos dust.
43. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) CO2 (b) Water vapour
(c) CH4 (d) O2
44. Eutrophication can be observed in
(a) saline soil. (b) desert.
(c) lake. (d) agricultural fields.
45. In which one of the following the biochemical oxygen
demand (BOD) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper
mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been
arranged in ascending order:
(a) SE < S < PE < DE (b) SE < PE < S < DE
(c) PE < S < SE < DE (d) S < DE < PE < SE
50. Choose the correct statements 55. Match the effects with the gases responsible for causing
(a) NO is more harmful than NO2. them.
(b) Acid rain contains mainly HNO3.
Column I Column II
(c) CO2 is responsible for greenhouse effect.
(d) CO2 can absorb infrared radiations but does not allow (a) Global warming (p) CO2
them to pass through. (b) Photochemical smog (q) SO2
51. Which of the following conditions do not show the polluted (c) Classical smog (r) NO2
environment?
(d) Acid rain (s) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
(a) Biochemical oxygen demand is 10 ppm.
(b) Eutrophication.
(c) pH of rainwater is 5.6. Integer Type
(d) Amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is 0.03%. 56. Water is considered as impure if it has BOD is greater than ___
52. The ozone layer is not depleted by ppm.
(a) NO. (b) SO2. (c) CxHy. (d) CFCs. 57. Hydrocarbons turn carcinogenic in concentrations above ___
ppm.
Matrix-Match Type
58. In measurement of BODx , x is generally taken as ___.
53. Match the substances/gases with their effects.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a)
37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (a)
43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c)
Level II
46. (b), (c), (d) 47. (a), (b) 48. (b), (d) 49. (a), (c), (d) 50. (c), (d) 51. (c), (d)
52. (b), (c) 53. (a) → p, s; (b) → r; (c) → p; (d) → q 54. (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → q
55. (a) → p; (b) → r, s; (c) → q; (d) → q, r 56. (17) 57. (500) 58. (5)
30. (b) Scrubbers are air pollution control devices that use Level II
liquid to remove particulate matter or gases from an
industrial exhaust or flue gas stream. Through scrubbers,
Multiple Correct Choice Type
the combustible gases like ammonia, sulphur dioxide 46. (b), (c), (d) Acid rain contains H2CO3, HNO3, and H2SO4.These
and particulate matter released from high temperature are formed from gaseous oxides of carbon, nitrogen and
exhaust fumes are trapped, cooled and release into the sulphur.
atmosphere.
47. (a), (b) Addition of phosphate-containing fertilizers in water
31. (a) Conceptual bodies causes enhanced growth of algae and decrease in
amount of dissolved oxygen in water.
32. (b) Air pollutants that produce photochemical oxidants
include nitrous oxide, nitric oxide, and nitric acid. These 48. (b), (d) The various greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide,
are responsible for the formation of photochemical water vapours, chlorofluorocarbons and oxides of nitrogen.
smog and nitric acid and is responsible for formation of 49. (a), (c), (d) The atmosphere contains mesosphere, thermo-
acid rain. sphere, stratosphere, troposphere, and exosphere.
33. (a) Foul smell in the water of tanks, ponds, etc. is due to 50. (c), (d) NO is less harmful than NO2. Acid rain contains mainly
anaerobiosis. It is the phenomenon in which an organ- H2SO4 and HNO3.
ism does not require oxygen for growth. When large 51. (c), (d) pH of rain water is 5.6. This pH cannot affect to the
amount of organic wastes are released into pond, the normal living things. pH below this can seriously effect liv-
DO content of the pond decreases and ultimately a stage ing things. Amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is 0.03%. This
reaches where there is no DO in pond water. As a result, percentage of CO2 is useful for plants for metabolism and it
only anaerobes can grow in this type of environment cannot affect the environment. If the concentration is above
and release foul odour. 0.03%, then it causes global warming.
34. (d) Conceptual 52. (b), (c) The ozone layer is not depleted by SO2 and CxHy
(hydrocarbons).
35. (a) Conceptual
Matrix-Match Type
36. (a) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is the measure of the
dissolved oxygen that would be needed by the micro- 53. (a) → p, s; (b) → r; (c) → p; (d) → q
organisms to oxidize organic waste present in sewage (a) Phosphate fertilizers in water encourage the formation
water. Hence, when huge amount of sewage is dumped of algae that reduces the dissolved oxygen concentra-
in a river, the BOD will increase. tion of water. This process is known as eutrophication.
37. (d) CO is harmful to man because it has 200 times more The BOD level of water increases due to the presence of
binding capacity to haemoglobin than oxygen. algae that reduces the DO concentration of water.
(b) Methane in air forms carbon dioxide and water that is
38. (c) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for destruction of responsible for global warming.
the ozone layer.
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
39. (d) Conceptual
(c) Synthetic detergents comprise surfactants. These are
40. (c) Any precipitation (rain, fog, show, or dew) that has pH surface active agents that are organic compounds hav-
less than 5.6 is called acid rain. ing polar or hydrophilic groups such as COOH, SO3H,
NH+4 . These surfactants are soluble in water and increase
41. (d) Conceptual
the BOD level of water.
42. (a) Pneumoconiosis is caused by the inhalation of coal dust. (d) Nitrogen oxides in air are responsible for formation of
43. (d) O2 is not a greenhouse gas. nitric acid rain.
44. (c) Eutrophication can be observed in lake. The addition of 2NO + O2 → 2NO2
phosphorus to water, in the form of the phosphate anion 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3
PO3−
4 , encourages the formation of algae, which reduces
NO2 + O3 → NO3 + O2
the dissolved oxygen concentration of water. This pro-
cess is known as eutrophication. NO2 + NO3 → N2O5
45. (c) Distillery effluent releases large amount of organic N2O5 + H2O → 2HNO3
wastes into water, as a result BOD of water is high.
HNO3, formed as above, comes down from the atmos-
Sugar mill effluent releases lesser waste material to the
phere in the form of nitric acid rain.
water and paper mill effluent releases least amount
of organic waste material into water. So, the order of 54. (a) → r; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → q
BOD is PE < S < SE < DE. (a) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) produced
by the incomplete combustion of organic matter are a
significant carcinogenic threat found in the environ- (b) Hydrocarbons undergo chemical reactions in the pres-
ment. PAHs cause DNA damage, mutagenesis, etc. ence of sunlight and nitrogen oxides forming photo-
(b) Modern waste incinerators are equipped with pollution chemical oxidants. These photochemical oxidants are
control equipment that reduces dioxin emissions to the responsible for the formation of photochemical
insignificant levels. Incineration of municipal solid waste, smog.
medical waste, sewage sludge, and hazardous waste
together produce less than 3% of all dioxin emissions. (c) Mixture of particulates with gaseous oxides of sulphur
present in atmosphere is called classical smog.
(c) IR active molecules are the cause for the global warming.
When IR radiations come from the sun, they reach the (d) SO2, NO2 present in the atmosphere results in the forma-
earth but due to presence of CO2 on the earth as cover; tion of acid rain.
the IR radiations cannot go out in space. This results in
excessive heating of the earth’s atmosphere. As more
SO2 + H2O → H2SO3
and more infrared radiations are trapped, the atmos- Sulphurous acid
phere becomes hotter and, therefore, temperature rises
and this leads to global warming. SO2 + O3 → SO3 + O2
Ozone
(d) Peroxyacetyl nitrate is formed when peroxyacyl free rad-
icals also combine with NO2 forming PAN that is highly SO3 + H2O → H2SO 4
Sulphuric acid
injurious to eyes.
O O
Integer Type
R C O O +NO2 R C O ONO2
Highly basic (PAN) 56. (17) It is considered that water is impure if it has the BOD
value is greater than 17 ppm.
The presence of excessive O3 together with PAN con-
stitute photochemical smog because these constituent 57. (500) Hydrocarbons turn carcinogenic in concentrations
irritate eyes, throat, nose, and also cause damage to the above 500 ppm. The hydrocarbons in air by themselves alone
plant life. cause no harmful effects. However, they undergo chemical
55. (a) → p; (b) → r, s; (c) → q; (d) → q, r reactions in the presence of sunlight and nitrogen oxides
forming photochemical oxidants.
(a) CO2 gas is responsible for global warming. CO2 cover
absorbs the IR radiations and does not allow the heat 58. (5) In measurement of BODx , x is generally taken as 5 because
radiation of the earth to go out in space. This causes clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm.
global warming.
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 Unit Cells, Crystal Lattice, Electrical Properties of Solids
2008 Formation of Voids in Close Packing Calculations Involving Unit Cell Dimensions
2009 Calculations Involving Unit Cell Dimensions Point Defects in Crystals, Formation of Voids in Close Packing
Calculations Involving Unit Cell Dimensions, Packing
2010 Packing Efficiency and Packing Fraction
Efficiency and Packing Fraction
2011 Unit Cells Crystal Lattices
2012 Calculations Involving Unit Cell Dimensions Formation of Voids in Close Packing
2013 Formation of Voids in Close Packing Radius Ratio Rule
Unit Cells, Crystal Lattices, Formation of Voids in Close
2014 Packing, Simple Ionic Compounds, Point Defects in
Crystals
SUMMARY
1. The solid state is characterized by its rigid form and definite shape. The constituent particles (atoms, molecules or ions) in a solid are
held together by strong intermolecular, interatomic or interionic forces. The extent of binding forces between these particles deter-
mines the structure and properties of solids compared to liquid and gases.
2. Solids have high density; are essentially incompressible; undergo little thermal expansion; have a fixed volume, mass and shape; have
strong intermolecular forces and are more rigid.
3. Classification of solids
(i) Based on arrangement of particles
Crystalline • Large number of crystals with well-defined regular shape such as a cube, octahedron or tetrahedron.
solids • Metallic elements like copper, silver, non-metallic elements like sulphur and iodine and most of the ionic
compounds such as NaCl, KNO3 are crystalline solids. Organic compounds such as benzoic acid, naphtha-
lene, etc., are also crystalline.
Amorphous • These do not have a definite geometrical shape.
solids • These are formed by sudden cooling of a liquid and are also sometimes called supercooled liquids or
pseudo solids. For example, coal, coke, glass, plastic, rubber, and quartz glass, etc.
Polycrystal- • Solids that have a structure that falls between the two extremes of amorphous and crystalline solids.
line solids • These are aggregates of large numbers of small crystals or grains within which the structure is regular, but
the crystals or grains are arranged in a random fashion. For example, aluminum and steel.
Tip Amorphous solids soften on heating over a range of temperature and become crystalline at some temperature. For example,
quartz exists in crystalline form and in amorphous form as quartz glass.
Tip Anisotropy is the property by which the magnitude of physical properties such as refractive index, thermal conductivity, etc.,
shows a variation with the direction in which it is measured. Isotropy is the property by which the substances exhibit the same values
of any physical property in all directions.
(Continued)
Tip The relation between number of faces (F), edges (E) and interfacial angle (C) for a crystal is given by:
F +C =E +2
(iii) The position of the atoms in the unit cell is defined by its coordinates (xi, yi, zi) along the crystallographic axes.
Unit cell
Lattice point
6. Crystal systems
(a) Primitive unit cell
(i) The constituent particles (atoms, ions or molecule) are present only at the corners of the unit cell.
(ii) The shapes of unit cells are restricted by symmetry as well as space considerations.
(iii) There are seven unique and basic unit-cell shapes (primitive unit cells) with varying elements of symmetry in a three-
dimensional space as shown below:
Tetragonal
Primitive Body-centred
Orthorhombic
Monoclinic
Primitive End-centred
Triclinic
Primitive
Rhombohedral or trigonal
Primitive
Hexagonal
Primitive
One atom
Number of atoms per unit cell = (8 × 1/8) Eight atoms at the corners = 8 × 1/8 = 1 One atom at each corner = (8 × 1/8 each)
= 1 atom atom = 1 atom
or rank (z) = 1 Atoms at the body centre = 1 atom Atoms at the six face centres
Number of atoms in a body-centred = (6 × 1/2 each) = 3 atoms
cubic unit cell = 1 + 1 = 2 atoms Number of atoms in a face-centred cubic
or rank (z) = 2 unit cell = 4 atoms
or rank (z) = 4
Number of nearest neighbours = 6 Number of nearest neighbours = 8 Number of nearest neighbours = 12
Atomic mass (MA ) Atomic mass (MA ) Atomic mass (MA )
Mass = Mass = 2 × Mass = 4 ×
Avogadro number (NA ) Avogadro number (NA ) Avogadro number (NA )
(Continued)
(Continued)
Simple cubic Body centred (bcc) Face centred (fcc)
Volume, Vc = a3 = 8r3 3
4r 64 Volume, Vc = a3 = (2r 2 )3 = 16r 3 2
Volume, Vc = a3 = = 3r 3
3 9
9. Close-packing in crystals
Coordination
Packing Feature number Figure
Close packing in one dimension
• The closest efficient packing is when the spheres 2
just touch each other.
(b)
(Continued)
(Continued)
Coordination
Packing Feature number Figure
(b) Placing • The spheres of the third layer can be placed in the
third layer voids of the spheres of second layer such that they
over the are exactly in the same positions as the spheres of
second first layer.
A
layer • Pattern in this type of packing is ABABAB… and is
B
called hexagonal close packing or hcp. A
B
A
B
A
Hexagonal
closest packed
structure
• Atoms in the third layer are placed such that they
are on the positions corresponding to the three
voids in the A layer that were not covered by the
atoms in the B layer, then the third layer is different A
from either A or B and is labeled C. B
• If a fourth layer is placed then it repeats the A layer C
orientation, and succeeding layers repeat the
A
pattern ABCABCA and the pattern is called ccp or
fcc. B
C
A
Cubic
closest packed
structure
Body centred The spheres in the second layer are placed at the top 8
cubic arrange- of the hollow spaces in the first layer and the spheres
ment in the third layer are placed exactly as in the first
layer. a
a
a
(Continued)
Packing Packing efficiency
Hexagonal close packing (hcp) Volume of six spheres in the unit celll
Packing efficiency = × 100
Total volume of the unit cell
8p r 3 p
= 3
× 100 = × 100 = 74%
24 2r 3× 2
Tetrahedral void
The radius of the tetrahedral void
relative to the radius of sphere is
r
0.225. i.e., void = 0.225
rsphere
A A
B
where the lattice vectors are orthogonal and of equal length, denoted by lattice constant a. The notation (hkl) is used to indicate
Miller indices, where h, k and l are Miller indices of cubic crystal plane for x-, y- and z-axes.
Structure Examples
Each of the ions is octahedral- Metal halides (except
Rock salt (or NaCl) type of structure
Zn2+ ion surrounded The Zn2+ cations are tet- CuCl, CuBr, CuI, AgI, BeS.
tetrahedrally by rahedrally surrounded by
four S2 − ions S2− anions, and each S2−
Sphalerite or zinc blende (ZnS) structure
surrounded by 8 F− at tetra-
hedral sites, all of which are
occupied.
Hence, the cations are
eight-coordinated. So the
fluorite structure has (8,4)-
coordination.
Number of CaF2 molecules
per unit cell = 4.
(Continued)
(Continued)
Structure Examples
Each Cs+ ion is surrounded CsBr, CsI, CsCN, TiCl, TiBr,
Cl − ion surrounded by
Caesium chloride (CsCl) type of structure
z
x Na
y
O
Vacancy defects • These result when some of the lattice sites in the crystal are vacant.
Non-ionic solids
Interstitial defects • These arise when some constituent particles (atoms or molecules) occupy
interstitial sites in the crystal.
• The density of the solid increases as a result of interstitial defect.
(Continued)
(Continued)
Due to anion- • In these defects, a negative ion may
A+ B− A+ B−
ic vacancies be absent from its lattice site, leaving
a “hole” which is occupied by an
electron, thereby maintaining the A+
B− B− A+
electrical balance.
• Anion sites occupied by electrons in
this way are called F-centres. A+ e− A+ B−
• These F-centres are associated with
F centre
the colour of the compound.
• Solids containing F-centres are para- B− A+ B− A+
Metal excess defect
(a)
unpaired.
Due to the These defects occur when an extra pos-
A+ B− A+ B−
presence of itive ion occupies an interstitial position
extra cations in the lattice, and electrical neutrality A+
in the inter- is maintained by the presence of an A+
B− B− A+
stitial sites interstitial electron.
e−
A+ B− A+ B−
B− A+ B− A+
(b)
Examples are, ZnO, CdO, Fe2O3 and Cr2O3.
Metal-deficient compounds may be represented by the general formula A1−d Χ. Crystals with metal defi-
deficiency
Tip Line defects are groups of atoms in irregular positions. Linear defects are commonly called dislocations or single dimensional
defects.
Conduction band
Conduction band
Partially
Valence band
filled
Valence band
Conductor Conductor
Energy Energy
Conduction band
Vacant Vacant
Conduction band
Partially
Valence band
filled
Valence band
Energy Energy
Conduction band
Vacant Vacant
Small gap
Large gap
Filled
Valence band
Filled
Insulator Semiconductor
(b) Doping
Pure semiconductor grade silicon needs to be incorporated with impurities for it to develop semiconductor properties. This
process is known as doping.
Impurity Conduction Type
Electron-rich impurities Adding electron-rich impurities Extrinsic; current is carried by n-type semiconduction
like As (or any Group 15 element) excess electrons.
Electron-deficient Group 13 elements (for e.g. Intrinsic semiconductors are not ex- p-type semiconduction
impurities Indium) ternally doped. Current is carried by
the migration of positive centres.
Tip (a) p type semiconduction is characterized by migration of “positive holes” across the crystal.
(b) Superconductors offer no resistance to the flow of current. They are derived from p-block elements as they become super-
conducting at room temperature. At 2−5 K, most of the metals become superconductors.
(c) Intrinsically silicon and germanium conduct a small current. However, the addition of a small amount of dopant atoms
into their regular crystal lattice produces dramatic change in their electrical properties, producing n-type and p-type
semiconductors.
(Continued)
Type Magnetization Unpaired electrons Net magnetic moment Examples Remarks
Antiferro- Zero net magnetiza- No net total moment in Metals, alloys and
magnetic tion applied magnetic field salts of transition
substance elements such as
MnO, MnSe, etc
Ferrimag- The atomic dipoles are Fe3O4, and ferri- Such materials are
netic sub- arranged antiparallel tes like MgFe2O4 weakly attracted by
stances to one another and the and ZnFe2O4. magnetic fields.
number of magnetic These lose ferrimag-
moments aligned in netism on heating
one direction is more and become para-
than that aligned in magnetic.
the other direction;
net magnetization is
observed
Tip When the main function is that of insulation, the materials are called insulators and when the charge storage is the main func-
tion, they are called dielectrics.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Unit Cells Number of atoms of B (per unit cell) = (1/2) × 5 (because
1 atom is missing from the face) = 5/2
1. In a face-centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner
Formula is A1B5/2 = A2B5
position and atom B occupies the face centre positions. If one
atom of B is missing from one of the face-centred points, the 2. How many unit cells are present in a cube–shaped ideal crystal
formula of the compound is: of NaCl of mass 1g?
(a) AB2 (b) A2B3 (c) A2B5 (d) A2B (a) 2.57 × 1021 unit cells
(AIEEE 2011, JEE Main Online 2014) (b) 5.14 × 1021 unit cells
Solution (c) 1.28 × 1021 unit cells
(c) Number of atoms of A (per unit cell) = 1/8 × 8 = 1 (d) 1.71 × 1021 unit cells
11. The structure of metals can be explained by close packing of (a) 152.5 pm (b) 121.3 pm
metal atoms. In structure of an unknown metal (M), atoms are (c) 148.6 pm (d) 117.1 pm
found to be packed in fcc lattice. Also, the effective radius of
Solution
atoms is 1.414 Å. If its density is found to be 5.8 g cm−3, the
atomic mass of metal is (d) For fcc, the radius is calculated as
(a) 55.8 g mol−1 (b) 111.6 g mol−1 a 4 00
r= = = 1414. pm
(c) 37.2 g mol−1 (d) 30.1 g mol−1 2(2)1/ 2 2(2)1/ 2
Solution The greatest sphere will fit in octahedral void because it is
bigger than tetrahedral void.
(a) Since metal atoms are packed in fcc,
Now, radius of the octahedral void (R) = 0.414 × r = 0.414
4 R 4 × 1.414 × 141.4 = 58.54 pm
2a = 4 R ⇒ a = = =4 Å
2 2 Therefore, diameter = 2R = 2 × 58.54 = 117.08 pm.
where a is the unit cell edge length and R is the radius of Packing Efficiency and Packing Fraction
the sphere.
In fcc lattice, the number of atoms per unit cell (z) = 4, 15. Percentage of free space in cubic close-packed structure and
So, atomic mass of metal is found as in body-centred packed structure are, respectively,
(a) 48% and 26% (b) 30% and 26%
zM r × a 3 × NA (c) 26% and 32% (d) 32% and 48%
r= 3
⇒M=
a NA z (AIEEE 2010)
Solution
5.8 × ( 4 × 10 −8 )3 × 6.022 × 1023
M= = 55.8 g mol−1 (c) This is because packing efficiency of cubic close packing
4
and body-centred packing are 74% and 68%. So, the free
12. The unit cell of a metallic element of atomic mass 108 and space will be 100 − 74 = 26% and 100 − 68 = 32%.
density 10.5 g cm−3 is a cube with edge length of 409 pm. The
structure of the crystal lattice is 16. Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has formula
(a) fcc. (b) bcc. M0.98O. Metal M, is present as M2+ and M3+ in its oxide.
(c) hcp. (d) simple cubic. Fraction of the metal which exists as M3+ would be
(a) 4.08% (b) 6.05% (c) 5.08% (d) 7.01%
Solution (JEE Main 2013)
(a) The density is given by Solution
z×M (a) Given, metal oxide = M0.98O. If x ions of M are in +3 state,
r=
NA × a 3 then 3 x + (0.98 − x ) × 2 = 2 ⇒ x = 0.04.
So, the percentage of metal in +3 state would be
Here , M = 108 , NA = 6.023 × 1023, a = 409 pm = 4.09 × 0.04
× 100 = 4.08%
10−8 cm, r = 10.5 g cm−2 0.98
Substituting the values, we get 17. Caesium chloride forms a body-centred cubic lattice. If the
Number of atoms per unit cell (z) = 4 radius ratio (r+/r−) is taken as 0.9, what is the packing effi-
So, the structure of the crystal lattice is fcc. ciency of edges to the total available edges?
13. A metallic element exists as cubic lattice. Each edge of the 9 3 3p 1 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
unit cell is 288 Å. The density of the metal is 7.20 g cm−3. How
19 8
2 3 19 3
many unit cell will be present in 100 g of the metal?
(a) 6.85 × 102 (b) 5.82 × 1023 Solution
(c) 4.37 × 105 (d) 2.12 × 106 r
(a) Given that + = 0.9 ⇒ r+ = 0.9r−
r−
Solution
(b) The volume of the unit cell = (288 Å)3 = 23.9 × 10 −24 cm3 3a
For bcc, 2r+ + 2r− = 3a ⇒ r− =
3.8
m 100
The volume of 100 g of the metal = = = 13.9 cm3 1.8a 3 9a 3
r 7.20 ⇒ 2r+ = =
3.8 19
13.9 cm3 2r
Therefore, packing efficiency of edges = + =
9 3
Number of unit cells in this volume = = 5.82 × 1023
23.9 × 10 −24 a 19
18. Calculate the percentage of volume unoccupied of packing in
13.9 cm3 case of a metal crystal for primitive cubic.
= = 5.82 × 1023
23.9 × 10 −24 (a) 56.5 % (b) 62.8 % (c) 47.6 % (d) 39.8 %
Solution
14. In face-centred cubic (fcc) crystal lattice, edge length is 400 pm.
Find the diameter of the greatest sphere which can be fitted (c) Consider the figure of primitive cubic unit cell as shown
into the interstitial void without distortion of the lattice. in the following figure.
3a
(a) rCs+ + rCl− = 3a (b) rCs+ + rCl− =
2
r r 3a
(c) rCs+ + rCl− = (d) rCs+ + rCl− = 3a
a 2
(JEE Main 2014)
From the figure, we have a = 2r where a is the edge length Solution
and r is the radius of the sphere. Then, number of spheres
present per unit cell = 8 × 1/8 = 1 (c) Body centred cubic lattice of CsCl is shown below.
Volume of sphere = 4/3p r3 Cs+ ion surrounded by
Volume of cube = a3 = (2r)3 = 8r3 8 Cl− ions
Cs+
3 Cl−
4/3p r
Packing efficiency = = 52.4%
8r 3
So, the percentage of unoccupied volume = 100 − 52.4
= 47.6%
(a) In ccp lattice tetrahedral voids are two times of number 23. Rubidium chloride has rock salt structure. If the edge length
of atoms. of unit cell is 658 pm and diameter of chloride ion is 362 pm,
Number of atoms of Y = 4 the radius of Rb+ ion is
2 (a) 232 pm (b) 284.27 pm
Number of atoms of X = × 8 (c) 388.84 pm (d) 148 pm
3
Hence, formula of compound will be X4Y3 Solution
20. The total number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a (d) In rock salt structure, cations and anions are in contact at
cubic close packed structure is the edges of the unit cell.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3
(JEE Main Online 2014) Cl− Rb+ Cl−
Solution
Rb+ Cl− Rb
+
(c) In ccp packing total octahedral voids are equal to num-
ber of atom. In ccp 4 atoms and 4 octahedral voids are
Cl− Rb+ Cl−
present. Hence, there is one void per sphere.
21. A solid is formed with three types of atoms A, B and C. A forms a 658 362
2rCl− + 2rRb+ = a ⇒ rRb+ = −r − = − = 148 pm
fcc lattice, while B atoms occupy all tetrahedral voids and 2 Cl 2 2
C atoms occupy half of the octahedral voids. The formula of 24. Consider the ionic and covalent solid crystal structures and
the solid is select incorrect statement?
(a) A2B4C (b) A2B2C (c) AB2C2 (d) AB2C (a) In rock salt structure, the centre to centre distance of cat-
ions and anions is equal to the half of the cell parameter.
Solution
1 1 (b) In fluorite structure, calcium ions form fcc lattice and flu-
(a) The atoms of A per unit cell = 8 × + 6 × = 4 oride ions occupy all tetrahedral voids.
8 2
(c) ZnS has diamond structure in which sulphide ions form fcc
The atoms of B per unit cell = 2 × 4 = 8 lattice and zinc ions occupy half of the tetrahedral voids.
1 (d) In diamond, the centre to centre distance of carbon
The atoms of C per unit cell = ×4=2 atoms is equal to the half of the face diagonal of unit cell.
2
Therefore formula is A4B8C2 A2B4C Solution
(d) In rock salt structure, anion forms fcc lattice and cations
Simple Ionic Compounds occupy all the octahedral voids exist in fcc. Since octa-
hedral void exist at edge and body centre, the centre to
22. CsCl crystallizes in body centred cubic lattice. If a is its edge centre distance of cations and anions is equal to the half
length then which of the following expressions is correct? of the edge length of unit cell.
In fluorite structure, calcium ions (cations) form fcc lattice Now, aRb+ = 30 + aK + = 30 + 376.181 = 406.181 pm
and fluoride ions (anions) occupy all tetrahedral voids.
ZnS has diamond structure in which sulphide ions form fcc aRb+ 406.181
lattice and zinc ions occupy half of the tetrahedral voids, Therefore, rRb+ = ⇒ rRb+ = = 143.58 pm
2 2 2 2
it implies that sulphide ions are in contact at face diago-
nal but in diamond, carbon cannot touch at face diag- Bragg’s Law
onal. It is so because same size of carbon atom occupy
void of the fcc lattice. Thus carbon atoms touch each 28. The interplanar spacing (in picometers) will be the maximum
other at body diagonal (line at which tetrahedral void when the X-ray beam having wavelength 141 pm is diffracted
exists). at an angle of (Assume that n = 1, sin 20° = 0.34202, sin 27.4°
= 0.4607, sin 35.8° = 0.5826)
25. The unit cell edge in sodium chloride has a length of 564.0 pm.
(a) 20.0° (b) 27.4°
The sodium ion has a radius of 95 pm. What is the diameter of
(c) 35.8° (d) cannot be predicted.
a chloride ion?
(a) 812.3 pm (b) 468.0 pm Solution
(c) 253.0 pm (d) 374.0 pm (a) From Bragg’s equation, nl = 2dsinq, we have
Solution 1× 141 pm
At 20.0°, d = = 206 pm
(d) Edge length = Diameter of cation + Diameter of anion 2 × sin 20.0°
564 = (2 × 95) + Diameter Cl 1× 141 pm
Diameter Cl = 564 − (2 × 95) = 374 pm At 27.4°, d = = 153 pm
2 × sin 27.4°
26. KCl crystallizes in the same type of lattice as does NaCl and 1× 141 pm
CsF in the CsCl type of structure. The molar mass of CsF is At 35.8°, d = = 121 pm
2 × sin 35.8°
twice that of KCl and the a value for KCl is 1.5 times than that
of CsF. Calculate the ratio of the density of CsF to that of KCl. 29. X-rays of wavelength 0.154 nm striking an aluminium crystal,
(a) 2.05 (b) 1.69 (c) 3.2 (b) 4.51 get diffracted at an angle 19.3° showing first-order diffrac-
tion. Calculate the spacing between the plane of aluminium
Solution
atoms in pm.
(b) Since, there are 4 KCl per unit cell, the relation for KCl is (a) 233 pm (b) 145 pm
a13 74.5 (c) 195 pm (d) 180 pm
× NA =
4 r1
Solution
Since there is 1 CsF per unit cell, the relation for CsF is
(a) According to Bragg’s equation, n l = 2d sinq where
a23 2 × 74.5 n = order of diffraction, l = wavelength, q = angle of dif-
× NA =
4 r2 fraction. Given that n = 1, l = 0.154 nm = 154 pm and
a13 1 r2 q = 19.3°. Therefore,
Dividing the above two expressions, we get = ×
4 a23 2 r1 nl 1× 154 154
d= = = = 233 pm
(1.5)3 a23 1 r2 r (1.5) 3 2 sinq 2 sin19.3° 2 × 0.33
Now, a1 = 1.5a2, so we have = × ⇒ 2= × 2 = 1.69
4 × a23 2 r1 r1 4
Point Defects in Crystals
(1.5)3 a23
1 r r (1.5)3
3
= × 2⇒ 2= × 2 = 1.69 30. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is gener-
4 × a2 2 r1 r1 4 ally due to
27. Each rubidium halide crystallizing in the NaCl type lattice has (a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect
a unit cell length 30 pm greater than for corresponding potas- (c) Interstitial position (d) F-centres
sium salt (rK + = 133 pm) of the same halogen. What is the ionic (JEE Main Online 2014)
radius of Rb+?
Solution
(a) 1265.3 pm (b) 1056.9 pm
(c) 985.6 pm (d) 143.58 pm (d) F-centre is a type crystallographic defect in which anionic
valency in a crystal is filled by one or more electrons.
Solution
31. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below?
(d) For NaCl type crystal (fcc), r = a/2(2)1/2. Given that
aRb+ = 30 + aK + and rK + = 133 ppm. Na+ Cl− Na+ Cl− Na+ Cl−
Now, we know that KCl also crystallizes in fcc structure, Cl− Cl− Na+ Na+
hence
a + Na+ Cl− Cl− Na+ Cl−
rK + = K ⇒ aK + = rK + × 2 2 = 133 × 2 2 = 376.181 pm
2 2 Cl− Na+ Cl− Na+ Na+
9. The number of hexagonal faces that are present in a truncated (a) 104 pm (b) 125 pm (c) 183 pm (d) 57 pm
octahedron is ___. (JEE Advanced 2013)
(IIT-JEE 2011) Solution
Solution (a) From the figure, it can be seen that the cation A+ occupies
(8) This can be seen from the figure below. octahedral void formed by the anion X−. The radius ratio
for an octahedral void is rA+ /rX − = 0.414. Now, given that
the radius of anion X− is 250 pm. So the radius of A+ is
rA+ = 0.414 × 250 = 103.50 104 pm
12. If the unit cell of a material has cubic close packed (ccp) array
of oxygen atoms with m fraction of octahedral holes occu-
pied by aluminum ions and n fraction of tetrahedral holes
occupied by magnesium ions, m and n, respectively, are
10. A compound MpXq has cubic close packing (ccp) arrangement 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) , (b) 1, (c) , (d) ,
of X. Its unit cell structure is shown in the following figure. The 2 8 4 2 2 4 8
empirical formula of the compound is (JEE Advanced 2015)
Solution
(a) For ccp lattice, number of atoms (z) = 4
Number of octahedral and tetrahedral holes is 4 and 8
M=
respectively. From the balance of charge on the salt, we
X= have 4 O2− equivalent of −8 charge, which is balanced by
2 Al3+ and 1 Mg2+ or a charge of +8. Therefore, the for-
mula is Al2MgO4.
1
Al3+ is present in of the octahedral holes.
2
1
Mg2+ are present in of the tetrahedral holes.
8
(a) MX (b) MX2 (c) M2X (d) M5X14
13. Sodium metal crystallizes in body-centred cubic lattice with
(IIT-JEE 2012)
the cell edge, a = 4.29 Å. What is the radius of sodium atom?
Solution
Solution
(b) As X is present at the corners of the cube and also at the
In a bcc arrangement, we have
faces of the cube, so the contribution of X will be
1 3a 3 × 4.29
8 (corners) × (contribution of each corner atom) r= = = 1.86 Å
8 4 4
1 14. The figure below shows the location of atoms in three crys-
+ 6 ( faces ) × (contribution of each face ) = 4
2 tallography planes in an fcc lattice. Draw the unit cell for the
corresponding structure and identify these planes in your
As M is present at the body centre and at four edges, so its
diagram.
contribution will be
1
4 (edges) × (contribution of each edge)
4
+ 1(body centre ) = 2
So, the unit cell formula becomes M2X4 and the empirical
Solution
formula will be MX2.
The unit cells are shown in the following figures, and the
11. The arrangement of X− ions around A+ ion in solid AX is given shaded portions represent the planes.
in the figure (not drawn to scale). If the radius of X− is 250 pm,
the radius of A+ is
X−
Solution MA × z 58.5 × 4
r= =
(a) The edge length of unit cell, a = 2 × y1/ 3 nm. NA a 3
6.023 × 10 23
× (0.564 × 10 −7 )3
Given that M = 6.023y g mol−1 = 6.023y × 10−3 g mol−1. = 2.16 g cm−3
For rock salt structure, z = 4. Therefore, density is
20. CsBr has bcc structure with edge length 4.3 Å. The shortest
M ( 4 × 6.023 × 10 −3 y kg mol−1) interionic distance in between Cs+ and Br− is
r=z× =
a 3 × NA (2 × y1/ 3 × 10 −9 m)3 × 6.023 × 1023 mol−1 (a) 3.72 Å (b) 1.86 Å (c) 7.44 Å (d) 4.3 Å
= 5 kg m−3 Solution
(b) As the observed density > calculated density, it means 31/ 2 31/ 2
(a) d = a= × 4.3 = 3.7238
that some impurity or extra metal ion is present in inter- 2 2
stitial sites. Hence, the defect is interstitial defect or metal
excess defect. 21. The coordination number of a metal crystallizing in a hexago-
nal close-packed structure is
16. An element crystallizes in fcc lattice having edge length (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 6
400 pm. Calculate the maximum diameter of atom which can
be placed in interstitial site without distorting the structure. Solution
Solution (a) Three spheres above, three below, and total six in that,
makes it 12.
In face-centred cubic arrangement (fcc), the interstitial
sites will be octahedral and tetrahedral voids. 22. In a solid AB having the NaCl structure, A atoms occupy the
For octahedral voids, r1/r2 = 0.414 corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face-centred atoms
(radius ratio for coordination number 6) along one of the axes are removed, then the resultant stoichi-
For tetrahedral voids, r1/r2 = 0.225 ometry of the solid is
(radius ratio for coordination number 4) (a) AB2 (b) A2B (c) A4B3 (d) A3B4
where r1 is the radius of atom in interstitial sites and r2 is Solution
the radius of atom arranged in fcc. Also, 4 r2 = 2a 1 1
For maximum diameter of atom in interstitial site, octa- (d) Number of A atoms = 8 × + 4 × = 3
8 2
hedral sites will be considered (since they are bigger than
1
tetrahedral voids). Then Number of B atoms = 12 × +1 = 4
4
2 × 0.414 × 400 Therefore, the formula is A3B4.
Diameter = 2r1 = 2(0.414 r2 ) = = 117.1 pm
2 2
23. In a compound, the anions (X) form hexagonal close packing
and cations (Y) occupy only one third of octahedral voids. The
17. Which of the following fcc structures contains cations in the
general formula for the compound is
alternate tetrahedral voids?
(a) YX (b) Y2X3 (c) YX3 (d) Y3X
(a) Na2O (b) ZnS (c) CaF2 (d) CaO
Solution
Solution 1 1
(c) The atoms per unit cell = 12 × + 2 × + 3 × 1 = 6.
(b) In ZnS, anions (S2−) are placed in fcc manner and cations 6 2
(Zn2+) are placed in alternate tetrahedral voids. So, the number of anions (X) per unit cell is 6.
Now since it is hexagonal close packing, the number of
18. Which of the following are not true about hexagonal close
octahedral voids in it is just equal to the number of ani-
packing?
ons in it, but only 1/3 of the voids are occupied by cations,
(a) It has a coordination number of 6.
so the number of cations (Y)
(b) It has 26% empty space.
1
(c) It has ABAB ... type of arrangement. = 6× =2
(d) It is as closely packed as body-centred cubic packing. 3
Therefore, formula is Y2X6 YX3
Solution
(a), (d) Hexagonal close packing has coordination number 24. Consider the 2D packing by bigger atoms with radius (R) and
12. Its packing is similar to cubic close packing and not body- small atoms just appropriate to fill the voids. What is the pack-
centred close packing. Its packing efficiency is 74%, so 26% ing efficiency for it?
space is empty and it has ABAB... type of structure.
19. A unit cell of sodium chloride has four formula units. The
edge length of the unit cell is 0.564 nm. What is the density of
sodium chloride?
Solution (a) 78% (b) 92% (c) 52.4% (d) 74%
NaCl has 4 formula units, that is, number of atoms per unit Solution
cell is 4. (b) Considering the unit cell in the figure, we get
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 9. In a crystal, both ions are missing from normal sites in equal
number. This is an example of
Single Correct Choice Type (a) F-centres. (b) interstitial defect.
1. Silver forms face-centred cubic crystals. The atomic radius of a (c) Frenkel defect. (d) Schottky defect.
silver atom is 144 pm. The atoms are in contact along the diag-
10. For a solid with the structure shown in the following figure, the
onal. Calculate the length of an edge of this unit cell.
coordination numbers of the points A and B, respectively, are
(a) 556 pm (b) 325 pm (c) 407 pm (d) 247 pm
2. Total volume of atoms present in a face-centred cubic unit cell
of a metal is (r is atomic radius)
12 3 16 3 20 3 24 3
(a) pr (b) pr (c) pr (d) pr
3 3 3 3
3. Which of the following statements is correct?
(I) The coordination number of cation occupying a tetrahe-
dral hole is 4.
(a) 6, 8 (b) 8, 8 (c) 6, 6 (d) 4, 6
(II) The coordination number of cation occupying a octahe-
dral hole is 6. 11. For tetrahedral coordination, the radius ratio (r+/r−) should be
(III) In Schottky defects, density of the lattice decreases. (a) 0.155 to 0.225 (b) 0.225 to 0.414
(a) I, II (b) II, III (c) I, II, III (d) I, III (c) 0.414 to 0.732 (d) 0.732 to 1.000
4. An element (with atomic mass = 250 u) crystallizes as a simple 12. An alloy of copper, silver, and gold is found to have copper
cubic. If the density of the unit cell is 7.2 g cm−3, what is the forming the simple cubic close-packed lattice. If silver atoms
radius of the element? occupy the face centres and gold atoms are present at the
(a) 1.93 × 10−6 cm (b) 1.93 × 10−8 cm body centre, then the formula of the alloy will be
(c) 1.93 × 10−13 cm (d) 1.93 × 10−12 cm (a) Cu3AgAu (b) CuAg3Au
(c) Cu4Ag2Au (d) CuAgAu
5. The Ca2+ and F− ions are located in CaF2 crystal, respectively, at
face-centred cubic lattice points and in 13. Fraction of total volume occupied by atoms in a simple cube
(a) tetrahedral voids. (b) half of tetrahedral voids. is
(c) octahedral voids. (d) half of octahedral voids. p 3p 2p p
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6. Metallic magnesium has a hexagonal close-packed structure 2 8 6 6
and a density of 1.74 g cm−3. Assuming magnesium atoms to 14. When NaCl is doped with MgCl2, the nature of defect pro-
be spherical, calculate the radius of magnesium atom. (Atomic duced is
mass of Mg = 24.3 u) (a) interstitial. (b) Frenkel.
(a) 1.6 × 10−8 cm (b) 2.5 × 10−8 cm (c) Schottky. (d) impurity defect.
−8
(c) 3.5 × 10 cm (d) 4.5 × 10−8 cm
15. Which of the following fcc structure contains cations in alter-
7. A crystal formula AB3 has A ions at the cube corners and B ions nate tetrahedral voids?
at the edge centres. The coordination numbers of A and B are, (a) NaCl (b) ZnS (c) Na2O (d) CaF2
respectively,
(a) 6 and 6 (b) 2 and 6 (c) 6 and 2 (d) 8 and 8 16. A metal crystallizes in two cubic phases – face-centred cubic
(fcc) and body-centred cubic (bcc) – whose unit cell length
8. Superconductors are derived from the compounds of are 3.5 Å and 3.0 Å, respectively. Calculate the ratio of density
(a) p-block elements. (b) lanthanoids. of fcc and bcc.
(c) actinoids. (d) transition elements. (a) 2.123 (b) 1.259 (c) 5.124 (d) 3.134
17. The unit cell that best describe the CsCl crystal lattice is 25. In spinel structure, O2− ions are cubic-closed packed, whereas
(a) bcc unit cell. (b) primitive cubic unit cell. 1/8th of the tetrahedral holes are occupied by A2+ cations and
(c) fcc unit cell. (d) hcp unit cell. 1/2 of the octahedral holes are occupied by cations B3+. The
general formula of this compound is
18. Choose the correct matching sequence from the possibilities
(a) A2BO4 (b) AB2O4 (c) A2B4O (d) A4B2O
given
(1) Crystal defect (p) AB AB AB type crystal 26. Aluminium crystallizes in ccp structure. Metallic radius of alu-
minium is 125 pm. Edge length of the unit cell of aluminium is
(2) hcp (q) Covalent crystal (a) 250 pm. (b) 353.5 pm.
(3) CsCl (r) Frenkel (c) 176 pm. (d) 216.5 pm.
(4) Diamond (s) Face-centred in cube 27. Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having a volume of the
(5) NaCl (t) Body-centred in cube unit cell as 132 × 10−24 cm3. If density of ice at the given tem-
perature is 0.92 g cm−3, then the number of H2O molecules
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) per unit cell is
(a) (r) (p) (q) (t) (s) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) (r) (p) (t) (q) (s) 28. If a be the edge length of the unit cell and r be the radius of an
(c) (r) (t) (p) (q) (s) atom, then for fcc arrangement, the correct relation is
(a) 4 a = 3r (b) 4 r = 3a
(d) (t) (p) (s) (q) (p)
(c) 4 r = 2a (d) 4 r = a / 2
19. In a tetragonal crystal
(a) a = b = g ≠ 90°; a = b = c 29. At a temperature of absolute zero, an intrinsic semiconductor
(b) a = b = g = 90°; a = b ≠ c is
(c) a = b = g = 90°; a ≠ b ≠ c (a) an insulator. (b) a p-type semiconductor.
(d) a = b = 90°, g = 120°; a = b ≠ c (c) a n-type semiconductor. (d) a conductor.
20. Xenon crystallizes in face-centred cubic lattice and edge of 30. The packing fraction for a body-centred cube is
the unit cell is 620 pm, then the radius of xenon atom is (a) 0.42 (b) 0.54 (c) 0.68 (d) 0.74
(a) 219.20 pm (b) 438.5 pm
31. The most unsymmetrical and symmetrical systems are,
(c) 265.5 pm (d) 536.94 pm
respectively
21. The lattice parameters are a = 5.62 Å, b = 7.41 Å, c = 9.48 Å. The (a) tetragonal, cubic. (b) triclinic, cubic.
three coordinates are mutually perpendicular to each other. (c) rhombohedral, hexagonal. (d) orthorhombic, cubic.
The crystal is
32. The interionic distance for caesium chloride crystal will be
(a) tetragonal. (b) orthorhombic.
(c) monoclinic. (d) trigonal. a 3a 2a
(a) a (b) (c) (d)
2 2 3
22. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon
atoms tetrahedrally. The number of carbon atoms per unit cell 33. In an fcc arrangement of P and Q atoms, P atoms are at the
is corners of the unit cell, Q atoms at the face centres and two
atoms are missing from two corners in each unit cell, then the
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
formula of the compound is
23. Bragg’s equation is (a) P2Q3 (b) P4Q (c) P4Q5 (d) PQ4
(a) nl = 2q sinq (b) nl = 2d sinq
34. The radius of a divalent cation A2+ is 94 pm and of divalent
(c) 2nl = d sinq (d) l = 2dnsinq anion B2− is 146 pm. The compound AB has
24. In the following structure, the sites S1 and S2 represent (a) rock salt structure.
(b) zinc blende structure.
(c) antifluorite structure.
S2 (d) caesium chloride like structure.
S1 x 35. The ratio of Fe3+ and Fe2+ ions in Fe0.9S1.0 is
(a) 0.28 (b) 0.5 (c) 2 (d) 4
36. An example of body-centred cube is
(a) sodium. (b) magnesium.
(c) zinc. (d) copper.
(a) both octahedral voids. 37. Iron crystallizes in a body-centred cubic structure. The radius
(b) both tetrahedral voids. of Fe atom (if edge length of unit cell is 286 pm) is
(c) S1 – octahedral void, S2 – tetrahedral void. (a) 120.9 pm (b) 123.8 pm
(d) S1 – tetrahedral void, S2 – octahedral void. (c) 23.8 pm (d) 223.8 pm
41. In which of the following defects, the cations are present in Paragraph for Questions 49 to 51: Density of a unit cell is the same
interstitial sites? as the density of the substance. So, if the density of the substance is
(a) Frenkel defect known, we can calculate the number of atoms or dimensions of the
(b) Schottky defect unit cell. The density of the unit cell is related to its formula mass
(c) Metal deficient non-stoichometric compound. (M), number of atoms per unit cell (z), edge length (a in cm), and
(d) Metal excess non-stoichiometric compound. Avogadro’s constant NA, as
z×M
42. Pick up the correct statements r= 3
a × NA
(a) The ionic crystal of AgBr has Schottky defect.
(b) The unit cell having crystal parameters, a = b ≠ c, 49. An element X crystallizes in a structure having an fcc unit cell
a = b = 90°,g = 120° is hexagonal. of an edge 100 pm. If 24 g of the element contains 24 × 1023
(c) In ionic compounds having Frenkel defect, the ratio atoms, the density is
r+/r− is high. (a) 2.40 g cm−3 (b) 40 g cm−3
(c) 4 g cm −3 (d) 24 g cm−3
(d) The coordination number of Na+ ion in NaCl is 4.
43. Crystal systems in which no two axial lengths are equal are 50. The number of atoms present in 100 g of a bcc crystal (density
(a) triclinic. (b) orthorhombic. = 12.5 g cm−3) having cell edge 200 pm is
(c) monoclinic. (d) tetragonal. (a) 1 × 1025 (b) 1 × 1024 (c) 2 × 1024 (d) 2 × 1026
44. Which of the following are true? 51. A metal A (atomic mass = 60) has a body-centred cubic crystal
(a) In NaCl crystals, Na+ ions are present in all the octahedral structure. The density of the metal is 4.2 g cm−3. The volume
voids. of unit cell is
(b) In ZnS (Zinc blende), Zn2+ ions are present in alternate (a) 8.2 × 10−23 cm3 (b) 4.74 × 10−23 cm3
(c) 3.86 × 10 cm−23 3 (d) 5.86 × 10−23 cm3
tetrahedral voids.
(c) In CaF2, F− ions occupy all the octahedral voids. Paragraph for Questions 52 to 54: In a primitive cubic unit cell, all
(d) In Na2O, O2− ions occupy half of the octahedral voids. the eight corners of the cube are occupied by the same atoms/ions
45. Select the correct statements: and not found anywhere else in the cube. The number of atoms
(a) The conductance through electrons is called p-type within a unit cell is called the rank of a unit cell. For primitive cubic
conduction. unit cell, the rank (z) is 1. In a bcc, the same atoms/ions are present
(b) The conductance through positive holes is called p-type at all the eight corners of a cube and one atom/ion is also present
conduction. at the centre of the cube. These atoms/ions are not present any-
(c) The conductance through electrons holes is called n-type where else in the cube. The rank of a bcc is 2. In an fcc, the same
conduction. atoms/ions are present at all the corners of the cube and are also
(d) The band gap in germanium is small. present at the centre of each square face. These atoms/ions are not
present anywhere else in the unit cell. The rank of an fcc is 4.
46. The density of KBr is 2.75 g cm−3. The length of the unit cell
is 654 pm. Atomic mass of K = 39, Br = 80. Then, which of the 52. How many unit cells are present in 39 g of potassium that
following statements are true? crystallizes in bcc structure (atomic mass of K = 39 u)?
(a) It has 4 K+ and 4 Br− ions per unit cell. (a) 0.5 NA (b) 0.25 NA (c) NA (d) 0.75 NA
(b) It has a body-centred structure. where NA is Avogadro’s constant.
53. Li crystallizes in bcc. The edge length of unit cell is 351 pm. Column I Column II
What would be radius of Li atom? (a) Schottky defects (p) Excess-cations occupy
(a) 151.98 pm (b) 273 pm interstitial sites
(c) 290 pm (d) 76 pm (b) Frenkel defects (q) Equal number of cations
and anions are missing
54. Sodium crystallizes in bcc lattice. If the length of the edge of from their lattice points
the unit cell is 424 pm, density of sodium is (atomic mass of (c) Metal excess defects (r) Act as p-type semicon-
sodium = 23 u) ductors
(a) 10.4 g cm−3 (b) 1.002 g cm−3 (d) Metal deficient defects (s) Are non-stoichiometric
(c) 50.4 g cm−3 (d) 25.68 g cm−3 defects
Paragraph for Questions 55 to 59: X-ray studies show that the 61. Match the types of solid with their examples/properties.
packing of atoms in a crystal of a metal is found to be in layers such Column I Column II
that starting from any layer, every fourth layer is exactly identical. (a) Molecular solid (p) Dry ice
The density of the metal is found to be 19.4 g cm−3 and its atomic (b) Covalent solid (q) Copper
mass is 197 u. (c) Metallic solid (r) Generally behave as
55. The coordination number of metal atom in the crystal is insulators
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12. (d) Ionic solid (s) Generally have low melt-
ing points
56. The fraction occupied by metal atoms in the crystal is
Integer Type
(a) 0.52 (b) 0.68 (c) 0.74 (d) 1.0
62. In hexagonal close packing, the difference in the number of
57. The approximate number of unit cells present in 1 g of metal is tetrahedral and octahedral voids in a unit cell is ___.
(a) 3.06 × 1021 (b) 1.53 × 1021
(c) 3.82 × 10 20 (d) 7.64 × 1020 63. Atoms of element A form hcp arrangement and those of ele-
ment B occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The total number of
58. The length of the edge of the unit cell will be A and B per formula unit is ___.
(a) 407 pm. (b) 189 pm. (c) 814 pm. (d) 204 pm.
64. The radius ratio of an ionic solid r+/r− is 0.524. The coordina-
59. Assuming the metal atom to be spherical, its radius will be tion number of this type of structure is ___.
(a) 103.5 pm. (b) 143.9 pm.
(c) 146.5 pm. (d) 267.8 pm. 65. Iron(II) oxide has a cubic structure and each unit cell has side
500 pm. If the density of the oxide is 4 g cm−3, the number of
Matrix-Match Type oxide ions present in each unit cell is ___. (Molar mass of FeO
= 72 g mol−1, NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol−1).
60. Match the imperfection in solids with the characteristic
features.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (a)
37. (b)
Level II
38. (a), (b) 39. (a), (c), (d) 40. (b), (d) 41. (a), (d) 42. (b), (c) 43. (a), (b), (c)
44. (a), (b) 45. (b), (c), (d) 46. (a), (c) 47. (a), (b) 48. (a), (b), (c) 49. (b)
50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (d)
56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b)
60. (a) → q; (b) → p, q; (c) → p, s; (d) → r, s 61. (a) → p, r, s; (b) → r; (c) → (q); (d) → (r)
62. (6) 63. (7) 64. (6) 65. (4)
1 3
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get 33. (d) Contribution of P = 6 × (as two atoms are missing) =
8 4
rfcc 4 33 4 ×3×3×3 1
= × = = 1.259 Contribution of Q = 6 × =3
rbcc 2 (3.5)3 2 × 3.5 × 3.5 × 3.5 2
17. (a) As in CsCl, Cs+ is present at the body centre and the Cl− Therefore the formula is P : Q = (3/4) : 3 = PQ4
ions are present at the corners of the cube.
34. (a) The radius ratio is found as r+/r− = 94/146 = 0.64. This
18. (b) Conceptual means AB has octahedral structural arrangement or rock
salt structure.
19. (b) Tetragonal system has a = b ≠ c and a = b = g = 90°, for
example, in SnO2, TiO2. 35. (a) Let the number of Fe2+ ions present be x. Then Fe3+
= 90 − x
20. (a) For the fcc lattice, 4 r = 2 × a Charge on Fe2+ and Fe3+ should be equal to 100 S2− ions
where a = 620 pm, as face diagonal atoms touch each
So, 2 x + 3(90 − x ) = 2 × 100 ⇒ x = 70
other.
Therefore, number of Fe2+ = 70 and Fe3+ = 20
1 1
r= ×a= × 620 pm = 219.20 pm Their ratio is Fe3+/Fe2+ = 20/70 = 0.28
2 2 2 2
36. (a) In crystals of Na, the Na atom is present at the body cen-
21. (b) For orthorhombic crystal, a ≠ b ≠ c, a = b = g = 90°.
tre as well as the corners of the unit cell.
22. (c) There are 8 carbon atoms present per unit cell in dia- Mg forms ccp arrangement.
mond, each having a coordination number 4. Zn forms ccp arrangement.
Cu also forms ccp arrangement.
23. (b) Bragg’s equation is nl = 2d sinq
37. (b) Edge length, a = 286 pm
24. (d) Tetrahedral void is the empty space left between four 3 3 1.732 × 286
spheres and octahedral is the void or the empty space For bcc, radius of atom, r =a= × 286 = = 123.8 pm
4 4 4
left between six spheres.
3 3 1.732 × 286
25. (b) Let the number of ions be N. r= a= × 286 = = 123.8 pm
4 4 4
Then number of tetrahedral voids is 2N. 3 3 1.732 × 286
The number of octahedral voids is N. r= a= × 286 = = 123.8 pm (body diagonal)
4 4 4
Then A2+ occupies one-eighth of tetrahedral voids which
means 1/8 × 2N = (1/4)N Level II
B3+ occupies half of octahedral voids which means Multiple Correct Choice Type
(1/2) × N = N/2
Therefore, the formula becomes 1/4N : 1/2N : N = AB2O4 38. (a), (b) Diamond is a covalent solid in which the constitu-
ent particles are held together by covalent bonds which
a
26. (b) For ccp or fcc, r = ⇒ a = r 2 2 . Therefore, makes it hard and non-conductor. In diamond, carbon is sp3
2 2 hybridized.
a = 125 × 2 × 1.414 = 353.5 pm
39. (a), (c), (d) CsCl has bcc arrangement with Cs+ at the body
z×M centre and Cl− ions at the corners of the cube and vice versa.
27. (d) Density is given by r =
a 3 × NA So, the coordination number is 8:8.
For fcc edge length (in NaCl) = 2(r+ + r−) = 2(95 + 181) = 552 pm
Substituting given values, we get
z × 18 40. (b), (d) Ni and Gd are ferromagnetic whereas silver and gold
0.92 = ⇒z=4 are not.
132 × 10 −24 × 6.023 × 1023
41. (a), (d) Frenkel defect arises when an ion goes missing from
28. (c) In fcc arrangement
its lattice site and occupies an interstitial site. Here excess cat-
2a = 4 r ions occupy interstitial sites.
Metal excess defect (non-stoichiometric) arises when an extra
29. (a) Because at absolute zero, there will be a gap between
cation occupies an interstitial site and the electrical neutral-
the valence band and the conduction band, so electrons
ity is maintained by an electron present in another interstitial
cannot jump into the conduction band and it will thus be
site.
an insulator.
(8/3)p r3 42. (b), (c) The ionic crystals of AgBr shows both Schottky and
30. (c) For bcc, packing fraction = = 0.68
64r 3 /3(3)1/ 2 Frenkel defects. Generally, Frenkel defect is favoured by crys-
31. (b) Most symmetrical is cubic as all the unit cell parameters tals with large difference between the sizes of positive and
are equal, that is, a = b = c and a = b = g = 90°. negative ions (i.e. r+ /r− is high). The unit cell with given crystal
The most unsymmetrical is triclinic as all the parameters parameter is hexagonal. The coordination number of Na+ in
are unequal a ≠ b = c and a ≠ b ≠ g = 90°. NaCl is 6.
32. (c) As CsCl has bcc structure, the interionic distance 43. (a), (b), (c) For triclinic a ≠ b ≠ c; for orthorhombic a ≠ b ≠ c; for
a monoclinic a ≠ b ≠ c and for tetragonal a = b ≠ c
r= 3× .
2
44. (a), (b) In NaCl crystal, there are 4 Na+ and 4 Cl− ions present z×M
in the crystal. So, there are 4 octahedral voids all of which are 51. (b) The density is given by r = . Therefore,
a 3 × NA
occupied by Na+ ions.
In ZnS, there are 4 S2− ions present in the unit cell so there are 2 × 60
a3 = = 4.74 × 10 −23 cm3
8 tetrahedral voids out of which half of them are occupied by 4.2 × 6.023 × 1023
Zn2+ ions.
In CaF2, there are 4 Ca2+ ions present in the unit cell. So, there 52. (a) 39 g of K = 1 mol, so in a bcc unit cell, number of K atoms
are 8 tetrahedral voids and all of them are occupied by F− ions. =2
In Na2O, each Na+ is surrounded by 4 O2− ions and each O2− Therefore, 1 mol of K is in Na/2 mol unit cells.
ions is surrounded by 8 Na+ ions. The Na+ ions thus occupy
53. (a) Edge length, a = 351 pm in bcc unit cell
half of the tetrahedral voids.
3
45. (b), (c), (d) Conductance through electrons is called n-type 3a = 4 r ; r =a = 151.98 = 152 pm
conduction. 4
z×M 54. (a) Given that a = 424 pm and z = 2, so density is
46. (a), (c) The density is given by r = 3 z×M 2 × 39
a × NA r= =
where M (KBr) = 39 + 80 = 119 u. Substituting values, we get NA × a3 × 10 −30 6.02 × 1023 × ( 424 )3 × 10 −30
z × 119 = 10.4 g cm−3
2.75 = ⇒z=4
(654 ) × 10 −30 × 6.02 × 1023
3
55. (d) As the metal has fcc arrangement, so its coordination
This means that it has fcc arrangement or rock-salt type number is 12.
structure. 56. (c) In fcc arrangement, the packing efficiency is 74%.
47. (a), (b) For bcc, number of atoms present per unit cell is 57. (d) For the metal, 197 g contains 197 × 1023 atoms.
8 × 1/8 (corners) + 1(body centre ) = 2 1 g will contain 6.023 × 1023/197 atoms.
As for fcc arrangement, there are 4 atoms present per
A+B−
with bcc structure, for example, CsCl has bcc arrange- unit cell.
ment with Cs+ at the body centre and Cl− ions at the corners So, the number of unit cells present in 1 g of metal is
of the cube and vice versa which means it has one formula
unit per unit cell. 6.023 × 1023
= 7.64 × 1020
r 95 197 × 4
48. (a), (b), (c) + = = 0.525
r− 181 z×M
58. (a) The density is given by r =
which lies in the range 0.414−0.732. Hence, its coordination a 3 × NA
number is 6 and structure is octahedral.
4 × 197
= 22r
Length of the unit cell rN == 2r (rNa+ + rCl− ) = 2(95 + 181) = 552 pm Therefore, a3 = ⇒ a = 407 pm
6.02 × 1023 × 10 −30 × 19.4
Passage Type a
59. (b) For fcc, r = = 0.3535 × 4 07 = 143.9 pm
49. (b) Given that 24 × 1023 atoms of the element has mass 24 g. 2 2
So, 6.023 × 1023 atoms will have mass
Matrix-Match Type
24 × 6.023 × 1023
M= = 6.02 g 60. (a) ã q; (b) ã p; (c) ã p, s; (d) ã r, s
24 × 1023
The density is given by In Schottky defect, equal number of cations and anions are
missing from their lattice points.
z×M 4 × 6.02 Frenkel defect arises when an ion goes missing from its lat-
r= =
a3 × N A 100 × 100 × 100 × 10 −30 × 6.023 × 1023 tice site and occupies an interstitial site. Here excess cations
= 40 g cm−3 occupy interstitial sites.
Metal excess defect is a type of non-stoichiometric defect as
z×M
50. (c) The density is given by r = . Therefore, the ratio of cation to anion differs from that in normal chemi-
a 3 × NA cal formula. Metal excess defect is caused due to anion vacan-
2×M cies and is similar to Schottky defect, here also conduction is
12.5 = ⇒ M = 30.1 g due to free electrons.
200 × 200 × 200 × 10 − 30 × 6.02 × 1023
Metal deficient defect, is also a type of non-stoichiometric
Now, 30.1 g contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms. So, 100 g will defect which occurs when a cation goes missing from a lattice
site and a similar cation with greater charge occupies adja-
6.023 × 1023 × 100 cent site. Here the conduction is due to positive holes, so it
contain = 2 × 1024 atoms
30.1 acts as a p-type semiconductor.
61. (a) ã p, r, s; (b) ã r; (c) ã (q); (d) ã (r) 63. (7) Let number of ions of element A = N
Dry ice is a molecular solid (non-polar) in which the constitu- Then number of ions of element B = 2 × 2/3N
ent molecules are held together by London dispersion forces The ratio of number of ions of A : B = 1 : 4/3
and is soft with low melting point. Therefore the formula is A3B4 and the total number of ions of
Covalent solids are those in which the constituent parti- A and B per formula unit is 3 + 4 = 7.
cles are held together by covalent bonds; they are hard and
64. (6) The ratio 0.524 lies in the range of 0.414−0.732 which
behave as insulators. For example, diamond.
means the geometry should be octahedral with coordination
Metallic solids are those in which the constituent particles are
held together by metallic bonds; they are good conductors number of 6.
with high melting points. For example, Cu. z×M
65. (4) The density is given by r = 3 . Therefore,
Ionic solids are those in which the constituent ions are held a × NA
together by columbic or electrostatic forces of attraction. z × 72
They are insulators but conduct electricity in molten state due 4= ⇒z=4
to the presence of free electron. 500 × 500 × 500 × 10 −30 × 6.023 × 1023
Integer Type
3
No. of Questions
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SUMMARY
1. A solution is a system in which one or more substances are homogeneously mixed or dissolved in another substance.
A simple solution has two components: a solute and a solvent.
The solute is the component that is dissolved or is the least abundant component in the solution. The solvent is the dissolving agent
or the most abundant component in the solution.
2. Type of solutions
(a) Binary solution
When a solution comprises of two constituents, the mixture is called a binary solution.
(b) Complex solution
When a solution contains more than one solute and/or more than one solvent, the mixture is called a complex solution.
The three states of matter—solid, liquid and gas—give us nine different types of solutions.
Tip At any given temperature, a saturated solution contains the maximum amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of a sol-
vent. It is important to state the temperature of a saturated solution, because a solution that is saturated at one temperature may
not be saturated at another. If the temperature of a saturated solution is changed, the equilibrium is disturbed, and the amount of
dissolved solute will change to re-establish equilibrium.
(v) Temperature: In most cases, the rate of dissolving of solid increases with temperature. For gases, the solubility decreases with
increase in temperature.
(vi) Pressure: This is generally applicable to solubility of gases and is governed by Henry’s law.
(d) Effect of nature of solute and solvent
(i) Molecular solutions
• When solute and solvent are both polar in nature, they tend to form a solution. For e.g, water and ethanol (C2H5OH).
• When solute and solvent molecules differ in polarity, solutions do not form. For example, water and benzene (C6H6) are
insoluble in each other.
(ii) Ionic solutions
• Polar solvents tend to dissolve polar and ionic compounds. For example, a crystal of NaCl dissolves in water.
• Non-polar solvents tend to dissolve non-polar compounds. For example, non-polar solids like wax are soluble in non-polar
solvents such as benzene.
(e) Effect of temperature on solubility
This effect is assessed using Le Chatelier’s principle. According to this principle, if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the sys-
tem will change in a direction that counteracts the disturbance and causes the system to return to equilibrium.
Tip The solubility of gases in liquids depends upon the critical temperature specific to a particular gas.
where Cgas is the concentration of the gas and pgas is the partial pressure of the gas above the solution. The proportionality
constant, KH, called the Henry’s law constant, is unique to each gas. The equation is true only at low concentrations and pres-
sures and for gases that do not react with the solvent.
An alternate (and commonly used) form of Henry’s law is
C1 C2
=
p1 p2
where the subscripts 1 and 2 refer to initial and final conditions, respectively.
Henry’s law can also be expressed in terms of mole fraction as “the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional
to the mole fraction of the gas in the solution”.
p = KH x
where p is the partial pressure, x is the mole fraction and KH is the Henry’s law constant.
Tip Henry’s law constant KH is different for every gas, temperature and solvent.
(a) For a given gas, it is different at different temperatures.
(b) At a given temperature, it is different for different gases.
(c) At a given pressure, higher the value of KH for the gas, lower will be its solubility in the solution.
(d) The value of KH generally increases with increase in temperature and hence the solubility of gas decreases with increase in
temperature.
ptotal = x A p oA + xB pBo
If yA and yB are the mole fractions of A and B, respectively, in the vapour phase, then by Dalton’s law
pA = y A ptotal and pB = yB ptotal
0 xsolvent 1
The change in vapour pressure equals the mole fraction of the solute times the solvent’s vapour pressure when pure.
o
( psolvent − psolution )
x solute = o
psolvent
5. Ideal solutions
Solution is said to be ideal if each of its components obeys Raoult’s law for the entire composition range. The enthalpy of mixing
∆Hmix is zero, that is, in preparation of an ideal solution no thermal change is observed.
(i) Vapour pressure of ideal binary liquid solution
1 pAo + ( pBo − pAo ) y A 1 1 1
= = + o − o yA
ptotal pBo pAo pBo pA pB
where p A( = x A p oA ) and pB( = xB pBo ) are the partial pressures exerted by vapours of the constituents x A , xB = mole fractions
pAo , pBo = vapour pressure of pure constituents. This can be derived as follows:
pA pAo x A
yA = = o
ptotal pB + ( pAo − pBo ) x A
pB xB pBo
yB = = 1 − yA = o
ptotal pA + ( pBo − pAo ) xB
y A pBo
xA =
pAo + ( pBo − pAo ) y A
y A pBo
ptotal = pBo + ( pAo − pBo ) x A = pBo + ( pAo − pBo )
pAo + ( pBo − pAo ) y A
6. Non-ideal solutions
(a) Solutions are non-ideal if they do not obey Raoult’s law over the entire composition range. In preparation of such solutions,
heat is either given out or absorbed (∆Hmix ≠ 0) and the volume of the final solution is not equal to the sum of volume of indi-
vidual components of the solution (∆Vmix ≠ 0). The vapour pressure of the solution is either higher or lower than that predicted
by Raoult’s law.
(b) Depending on type of deviation from ideal behaviour, non-ideal solutions may be classified as showing negative deviation
(lower vapour pressure than predicted) or positive deviation (higher vapour pressure than predicted).
Negative deviation
poB • In such solutions of components A and B, the A B interactions are stronger than
the A A and B B interactions.
• Lesser number of the molecules escapes compared to pure state.
p • Vapour pressure of the solution is lower than that predicted by Raoult’s law.
Vapour pressure
poA • Example of negative deviation is that of solution of phenol with aniline as well as
acetone and water.
B
p
pA
xA = 1 Mole fraction xB = 1
xB = 0 xA = 0
• Vapour pressure of the solution is higher than that predicted by Raoult’s law.
B
p
poA • Examples of mixtures showing positive deviation are: ethanol + hexane, acetone +
carbon disulphide; carbon tetrachloride + benzene; carbon tetrachloride + toluene;
p
A
etc.
xA = 1 Mole fraction xB = 1
xB = 0 xA = 0
Tip A separation technique called azeotropic distillation is used for separation of azeotropic mixtures.
Tip The basic assumption for describing colligative properties of dilute solutions is that the solute is non-volatile and is not present
in the vapour phase at all.
Colligative
Definition Mathematical relation
property
The presence of a non-
∆pA p oA − pA
volatile solute in a solvent = = xB
Relative lowering of
p oA p oA
vapour pressure
where Kb is a constant characteristic of the solvent (for water Kb = 0.512 m is molality). The
constant Kb is called molal boiling point elevation constant or Ebullioscopic constant
Determination of molar mass (using definition of molality)
1000 × wB × K b
MB =
∆Tb × w A
∂T RTb*2 MA
Kb = b =
∂m m→0 1000 × ∆Hvap
Addition of a solute lowers The difference in the freezing point of a solution containing a non-volatile solute and
the freezing point of a the freezing point of the pure solvent is known as freezing point depression (∆Tf )
solution. given by the equation
Since freezing point ∆Tf = Tfo − Tf
depression is a colligative
where ∆Tf is the number of Celsius (or Kelvin) degrees that the freezing point is
property, its magnitude
depressed, Tf is the freezing point of the solution and T of is the freezing point of pure
Depression in freezing point
is proportional to the
solvent.
relative amount of solvent
and solute. Relation with molality
∆Tf = K f m
where molal Kf is constant characteristic of the solvent and m is molality. The constant Kf
is called molal freezing point depression constant or cryoscopic constant.
Determination of molar mass from the definition of molality
1000 × wB × K f
MB =
∆Tf × w A
Relation between Kf and enthalpy of fusion
For dilute solutions, as m → 0, Tf → Tf∗, so
∂T RTf*2 MA
Kf = f =
∂m m→0 1000 × ∆Hfusion
Tip The values of both Kf and Kb are characteristic of each solvent. The units of constants Kf and Kb are K kg mol−1 or °C (molal)−1.
For example, the experimentally determined values of colligative properties of solution of acetic acid in benzene are lower than
those calculated theoretically. This is because the molecules of acetic acid aggregate in benzene by hydrogen bonding to form
dimers. Similarly, benzoic acid also dimerizes in benzene.
(c) The extent of dissociation or association of a solute in solution is expressed in terms of van’t Hoff factor i. It is defined as the ratio
of experimentally determined value of colligative property to the calculated value of colligative property based on Raoult’s law
and ideal behaviour.
Observed value of colligative property
i=
Calculated value off colligative property
Number of moles of solute after association/dissociation
i=
Number of moles of solute before dissolution
Normal molar mass
i=
Abnormal molar mass
(d) For solutes that associate or dissociate in solution, the modified equations of colligative properties are
Tips (a) The hypothetical van’t Hoff factor, i, is 2 for NaCl, KCl and MgSO4, which break up into two ions on 100% dissociation. For
K2SO4, the theoretical value of i is 3 because one K2SO4 unit gives three ions.
(b) With decreasing concentration (i.e., at higher dilutions) the experimental van’t Hoff factors agree better with their corre-
sponding hypothetical van’t Hoff factors.
(c) The increase in the percentage dissociation that comes with greater dilution is not the same for all salts.
p = KH x
∆pA p oA − pA
4. Relative lowering of vapour pressure = = xB
p oA p oA
p oA − pA nB wB × MA
For dilute solutions, = =
p oA nA MB × w A
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Solubility 2. Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at
298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg. Determine the solubility of methane
1. The solubility of pure oxygen in water at 20°C and 1 atm in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.
pressure is 43 mg O2 per litre of water. When air is in contact (a) 406 × 10 −5 (b) 206 × 10 −3
with water and the air pressure is 585 torr at 20°C, how much (c) 315 × 10 −3
(d) 178 × 10 −5
amount of oxygen is dissolved in 500 mL water? The average
concentration of oxygen in air is 21.1% (V/V). Solution
(a) 7 mg (b) 3.5 mg (c) 16.5 mg (d) 33 mg (d) Given that KH = 4.27 × 105 mm Hg. Now from Henry’s law,
we have p = K H × x where x is the mole fraction. Hence,
Solution
C1 p1 p 760
(b) From Henry’s law: C gas = K H pgas ⇒ = x= = = 178 × 10 −5
C2 p2 K H 4.27 × 105
Given that C1 = 43 mg L−1; p1 = 1 atm = 760 torr; C2 = ?;
Vapour Pressure of Ideal Solutions
21.1
p2 = 585 × = 123.435 torr 3. 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of water. The
100
vapour pressure of water for this aqueous solution at 100°C is
Substituting in the above expression, we get (a) 759.00 torr (b) 7.60 torr
123.44 × 43 (c) 76.00 torr (d) 752.40 torr
C2 = mg L−1 = 7 mgL−1 (AIEEE 2006)
760
7 Solution
Therefore, mass of O2 in 500 mL water = × 500 p o − ps n
1000 (d) According to Raoult’s law = x solute = (1)
ps N
= 3.5 mg
9. For an ideal solution of two components A and B, which of the Applying Dalton’s law for mole fraction in vapour phase,
following is true? we get
(a) ∆Hmixing < 0 (zero).
(b) ∆Hmixing > 0 (zero). pB po x 0.4 × 119
yB = = o B Bo = = 0.682
(c) A B interaction is stronger than A A and B B ptotal pT x T + pB xB 69.8
interactions. y T = 1− 0.682 = 0.318
(d) A A, B B and A B interactions are identical.
(JEE Main Online 2014) 13. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation
Solution from Raoult’s law?
(d) For ideal solution all type of interactions A A, B B and (a) Water–hydrochloric acid (b) Acetone–chloroform
A B are identical. (c) Water–nitric acid (d) Benzene–methanol
Solution
10. A solution at 20°C is composed of 1.5 mol of benzene and
3.5 mol of toluene. If the vapour pressure of pure benzene and (d) Benzene–methanol. This is because the A A and B B
pure toluene at this temperature are 74.7 torr and 22.3 torr, interactions are much stronger than A B interactions.
respectively, then the total vapour pressure of the solution So, when methanol combined with benzene the hydro-
and the benzene mole fraction in equilibrium with it will be, gen bonding of methanol breaks and its vapour pressure
respectively increases.
(a) 35.0 torr and 0.480 (b) 38.0 torr and 0.589 14. Pentane and heptane are two hydrocarbon liquids present in
(c) 30.5 torr and 0.389 (d) 35.8 torr and 0.280 gasoline. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of pentane is 420 torr
(JEE Main Online 2015) and that of heptane is 36 torr. What will be the total vapour
Solution pressure of a solution prepared by mixing of equal masses of
(b) The total vapour pressure of the solution is two liquids?
(a) 258.7 torr (b) 278 torr (c) 243.6 torr (d) 456 torr
ptotal = x C6H6 pCo6H6 + x C7H8 pCo7H8
Solution
1.5 3.5 1.5 3.5
= 74.7 + 22.3 = × 74.7 + × 22.3 (a) The molar masses of pentane (C5H12) and heptane (C7H16)
1.5 + 3.5 1.5 + 3.5 5 5 are 72 and 100, respectively.
112.05 78.05 The mole fraction in solution which contains equal
= + = 38.02 torrr
5 5 masses of each
Mole fraction of benzene in vapour state is 1/ 72
x C5H12 = = 0.58
pC6H6 / ) + (1100
(172 / )
y C6H6 = (By Dalton′ s law ) 1100
/
ptotal x C7H16 = = 0.42
/ ) + (1/100 )
(172
x C6 H 6 pCo6H6 112.05//5
= = = 0.589 Considering that pentane and heptane form ideal
Ptotal 38.02
solution and using Raoult’s law for solution of volatile
11. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, components,
(a) the enthalpy of mixing is zero. ps = pCo5H12 × x C5H12 + pCo7H16 × x C7H16
(b) the entropy of mixing is zero.
= 420 × 0.58 + 36 × 0.42 = 258.7 torr
(c) the free energy of mixing is zero.
(d) the free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each
zero. Alternate Solution The vapour pressure of solution should
lie between the vapour pressures of pure compounds. So,
Solution
option (d) can be neglected.
(a) Since there is no change in the magnitude of the attrac-
tive forces in the two compounds present, the heat
change on mixing, that is, ∆Hmix in such solutions must 15. Benzene and toluene form ideal solution over the entire
be zero. range of composition. The vapour pressure of pure benzene
and toluene at 300 K are 50.71 mm Hg and 32.06 mm Hg,
12. What is the composition of toluene in vapour phase of solution respectively. What will be the mole fraction of benzene in
at 30°C with a benzene–toluene solution which has a mole frac- vapour phase if 80 g of benzene is mixed with 100 g of toluene?
tion of benzene of 0.400? ( pBo = 119 torr and pTo = 37.0 torr) (a) 0.0675 (b) 0.675 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.5
(a) 1.318 (b) 2.318 (c) 3.318 (d) 0.318 Solution
Solution 80
(b) Number of moles of benzene: = 1.02
78
(d) Total pressure of the solution is given by (Raoult’s law)
ptotal = xB pBo + x T pTo = 0.4 × 119 + 0.6 × 37 Number of moles of toluene:
100
= 0.77
= 47.6 + 22.2 130
= 69.8 torr Total number of moles = 1.79. Therefore
36. The degree of dissociation (a) of a weak electrolyte, A xB y is For 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq), ∏ = 1 × 0.5 × RT = 0.5RT
related to van’t Hoff factor (i) by the expression: For 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), ∏ = 5 × 0.1 × RT = 0.5RT
i −1 x + y −1
(a) a = (b) a = For 0.250 M KBr(aq), ∏ = 2 × 0.25 × RT = 0.5RT
x + y +1 i −1
x + y +1 i −1 For 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq), ∏ = 4 × 0.125 × RT = 0.5RT
(c) a = (d) a =
i −1 x + y −1 So, all have the same osmotic pressure, and so they are
isotonic solutions.
(AIEEE 2011)
Solution 38. The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M solution of
Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2 at 25°C is 10.8 atm. The expected and exper-
(d) The van’t Hoff factor is
imental (observed) values of van’t Hoff factor (i) will be
i −1
i = 1 − a + na = 1 + a (n − 1) ⇒ a = respectively:
n −1 (R = 0.082 L atm K−1 mol−1)
For the reaction A xB y → xA y + + yB x − , n = x + y, we have (a) 5 and 4.42 (b) 4 and 4.00
(c) 5 and 3.42 (d) 3 and 5.42
i −1 i −1
a= = (JEE Main Online 2014)
n −1 x + y −1 Solution
∏ experimental
37. Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M (a) van’t Hoff factor is given by i =
∏ expected
Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at
25°C. Which statement is true about these solutions, assum- ∏ expected = CRT
ing all salts to be strong electrolytes? = 0.1 × 0.082 × 298
(a) They all have the same osmotic pressure. = 2.4
(b) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic
pressure. 10.8
i= = 4.5
(c) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure. 2.4
(d) 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure. For 100% dissociation the expected value of van’t Hoff
(JEE Main 2014) factor will be 5 as five ionic species will be formed after
Solution dissociation of Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2.
(a) According to van’t Hoff equation, ∏ = iCRT .
Standard freezing point of water = 273 K and of ethanol = 155.7 K. We can calculate i = 3 + 1 = 4. Now, from Eq. (1)
Molar mass of water = 18 g mol−1 and of ethanol = 46 g mol−1. wB 1000 0.1 1000
In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to ∆Tf = i × K f × × = 4 × 1.86 × ×
MB WA 329 100
be ideal dilute solutions and solutes to be non-volatile and non-
dissociative. = 0.0226 = 2.26 × 10 −2 = 2.3 × 10 −2 °C
(IIT-JEE 2008)
Freezing point of the solution = –2.3 × 10−2°C (as freezing
3a. The freezing point of the solution M is point of water is 0°C).
(a) 268.7 K (b) 268.5 K (c) 234.2 K (d) 150.9 K
6. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non-volatile, non-elec-
Solution trolyte solute in 100 g of water, the elevation in boiling point
(d) ∆Tf = Kf × m = 2 × 0.1 × 1000/(0.9 × 46) = 4.83 K at 1 atm pressure is 2°C. Assuming concentration of solute
Freezing point of solution = Freezing point of pure sol- is much lower than the concentration of solvent, the vapour
vent − ∆Tf = (155.7 − 4.83) = 150.9 K. pressure (mm Hg) of the solution is (Take Kb = 0.76 K kg mol−1)
(a) 724 (b) 740 (c) 736 (d) 718
3b. The vapour pressure of the solution M is
(IIT-JEE 2012)
(a) 39.3 mm Hg. (b) 36.0 mm Hg.
Solution
(c) 29.5 mm Hg. (d) 28.8 mm Hg.
(a) When a non-volatile solute is added to pure solvent, there
Solution is decrease in vapour pressure. So, according to relative
(a) Vapour pressure of water = mole fraction of water × po p o − ps
water = 0.1 × 32.8 mm Hg = 3.28 mm Hg lowering in vapour pressure, = x2
po
Vapour pressure of ethanol = mole fraction of ethanol ×
where x2 is the mole fraction of solute, po is the vapour
po ethanol = 0.9 × 40 mm Hg = 36 mm Hg
pressure of the pure solvent and ps is the vapour pressure
Total vapour pressure of solution = 3.28 + 36
of the solution. Now, x2 is also represented as n2/(n1 + n2).
= 39.28 mm Hg.
p o − ps n2
3c. Water is added to the solution M such that the mole fraction Thus, we have o
=
p n1 + n2
of water in the solution becomes 0.9. The boiling point of this Neglecting n2 from the denominator, and substituting
solution is po = 1 atm = 760 mm Hg, we get
(a) 380.4 K (b) 376.2 K (c) 375.5 K (d) 354.7 K
760 − ps 2.5/MB 1000 18
Solution = × = ×m (1)
760 100/18 1000 1000
(b) ∆Tb = Kb × m = 0.52 × 0.1 × 1000/(0.9 × 18) = 3.2 K According to elevation in boiling point, ∆Tb = Kb × m ⇒
Boiling point of solution = ∆Tb + boiling point of pure sol- 2 = 0.76 × m ⇒ m = 2/0.76.
vent = 373 + 3.2 = 376.2 K Putting this value in Eq. (1), we get
4. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water
760 − ps 18 2 18 × 2 × 760
at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. = × ⇒ ps = 760 −
The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 mol of 760 1000 0.76 1000 × 0.76
water at 298 K and 5 atm pressure is = 760 − 36 = 724 mm Hg
(a) 4.0 × 10−4 (b) 4.0 × 10−5
(c) 5.0 × 10 −4 (d) 4.0 × 10−6 7. Benzene and naphthalene form an ideal solution at room tem-
(IIT-JEE 2009) perature. For this process, the true statement(s) is (are) _____.
Solution (a) ∆G is positive. (b) ∆Ssystem is positive
(c) ∆Ssurroundings = 0 (d) ∆H = 0
(a) From Henry’s law, we have
(JEE Advanced 2013)
p = K H xN2 ⇒ 0.8 × 5 = 1 × 105 xN2 Solution
−5
⇒ xN2 = 4 × 10 (b), (c), (d) For an ideal solution formed by benzene and naph-
Therefore, in 10 mol of water, moles of N2= 4 × 10−4 thalene, ∆Hmixing = 0, ∆Ssystem > 0 and ∆Ssurroundings = 0.
5. The freezing point (in°C) of a solution containing 0.1 g of 8. MX2 dissociates into M2+ and X− ions in an aqueous solu-
K3[Fe(CN)6] (molecular weight 329 g mol−1) in 100 g of water tion, with a degree of dissociation (a) of 0.5. The ratio of the
(Kf = 1.86°C molal−1) is observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution
(a) –2.3 × 10−2 (b) –5.7 × 10−2 to the value of the depression of freezing point in the absence
(c) –5.7 × 10 −2 (d) –1.2 × 10−2. of ionic dissociation is _____.
(IIT-JEE 2011) (JEE Advanced 2014)
Solution
Solution
(a) The depression in freezing point is given by
(2) The reaction involved is
∆Tf = i K f m (1)
where i can be calculated if we consider the following MX2 M2 + + 2X −
reaction Initial moles 1 0 0
+ 3− Moles at equilibrium 1− a a 2a
K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ] → 3K + [Fe(CN)6 ]
Therefore, i = 1 − a + a + 2a = 1 + 2a . Given that a = 0.5, so the pressure of solution and po is the normal (initial) vapour
i = 1 + 2 × 0.5 = 2. pressure of the solvent.
75 3
Therefore, pressure of solution = × po = po
9. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a 100 4
cobalt(III) chloride ammonia complex (which behaves as a strong (as vapour pressure decreases by 25%).
electrolyte) is −0.0558°C, the number of chloride(s) in the coordi- Also given that MB = 60 g mol−1, MA = 18 g mol−1, wA = 100 g,
nation sphere of the complex is (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol−1) therefore, wB = 111 g. Hence, molality is
(JEE Advanced 2015)
Number of moles of solute
Molality = 8.52 molal−1
× 1000 = 18
Solution Weight of solvent
(a) The depression in freezing point is given by
12. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solution will have the
∆Tf = K f × m × i lowest freezing point: potassium sulphate, sodium chloride,
0.0558 = 1.86 × 0.01 × i urea and glucose.
i=3 Solution
Therefore, one mole of complex gives three moles of We know that ∆Tf = i × K f × m. Since i value of K2SO4 is high-
ions in solution. Hence, the complex is [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 est (i = 3), so the depression freezing point is maximum, and
and the number of Cl− ions inside the coordination hence freezing point is minimum.
sphere is 1.
13. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be
10. The molar volume of liquid benzene (density = 0.877 g mL−1) highest for which solution and why?
increases by a factor of 2750 as it vapourizes at 20°C and that C6H5NH3Cl (aniline hydrochloride), Ca(NO3)3, La(NO3)3,
of liquid toluene (density = 0.867 g mL−1) increases by a factor C6H12O6 (glucose)
of 7720 at 20°C. A solution of benzene and toluene at 20°C
Solution
has a vapour pressure of 46.0 torr. Find the mole-fraction of
benzene in the vapour above the solution. As i is smallest for glucose, hence from the expression
∆Tf = i × K f × m, the freezing point will be highest for C6H12O6
Solution (glucose).
In the vapour phase,
78 × 1 14. 0.2 molal acid HX is 20% ionized in solution. Kf = 1.86 K molal−1
1 mol (or 78 g) benzene has volume at 20°C = × 2750 mL then calculate the freezing point of the solution.
0.877
92 × 1 Solution
1 mol (or 92 g) toluene has volume at 20°C = × 7720 mL
0.867 The reaction involved is
The vapour pressures of pure benzene and toluene are
HX H+ + X −
pBo 78 × 2750 Initial moles 1 0 0
× = 1 × 0.0821 × 293 pBo = 74.74 mm Hg
760 0.877 × 1000 Moles at equilibrium 1 − 0.2 0.2 0.2
Total number of moles at equilibrium = 0.8 + 0.2 + 0.2 = 1.2 = i
pTo 92 × 7720
× = 1 × 0.0821 × 293 pTo = 22.32 mm Hg Therefore, depression in freezing point is
760 0.867 × 1000
∆Tf = i × K f × m = 1.2 × 1.86 × 0.2 = 0.45°C
Given that pmix = 46 mm Hg. So,
So, the freezing point, Tf = 0 − 0.45 = −0.45°C.
pmix = pBo xB + pTo x T ⇒ 46
= 74.74 xB + 22.32(1 − xB ) 15. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene, as deter-
mined, by depression in freezing point method corresponds
Solving, we get xB = 0.45. to which property of benzoic acid?
11. What weight of the non-volatile solute, urea (NH2 CO NH2) Solution
needs to be dissolved in 100 g of water, in order to decrease
Dimerization of benzoic acid takes place as follows in non-
the vapour pressure of water by 25%? What will be the molal-
polar solvent:
ity of the solution.
Solution 2C6H5COOH (C6H5COOH)2
The lowering of vapour pressure on addition of solute is given Therefore, Mobs and Mexpt can be calculated and related.
by
po − p wB /MB 16. Consider 100 mg of a protein to be dissolved in just enough
= xB = water to make 10.0 mL of solution. If this solution has an
po w A /MA + wB /MB
osmotic pressure of 13.3 mm Hg at 25 °C, what is the molar
Here wB and MB are weight and molecular weight of solute, wA mass of the protein? (Given that R = 0.0821 L atm mol−1 K−1
and MA are weight and molecular weight of solvent. Also, p is and 760 mm Hg = 1 atm.)
Ca(NO3 )2 Ca2 + + 2NO23 − 21. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2
Initial moles 1 0 0 in 1 kg of water using the following information will be (mol.
wt. of CuCl2 = 134.4 g mol−1 and Kb = 0.52 K molal−1.)
Moles at equilibrium 1−aa a 2a (a) 0.16°C (b) 0.05°C (c) 0.1°C (d) 0.2°C
Total number of moles at equilibrium = 1 − a + a + 2a ⇒ i = 1
Solution
+ 2a = 1 + 2(0.7) = 2.4
According to Raoult’s law, (a) The reaction involved is
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I (a) The solution shows negative deviation.
(b) A B interactions are stronger than A A and B B.
Single Correct Choice Type (c) The solution is an ideal solution.
1. If two substances A and B have pAo : pBo = 1: 2 and have mole (d) The solution shows positive deviation.
fraction in solution 1:2, then the mole fraction of A in vapours is 3. Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the lowest
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.52 (d) 0.2 freezing point?
2. The following figure represents boiling point composition dia- (a) 0.10 M KCl (b) 0.10 M Al2(SO4)3
gram of solution of component A and B, what is true among (c) 0.10 M C6H12O6 (d) 0.10 M C12H22O11
the following?
4. What is the composition of the vapour that is in equilibrium at
TAo 30°C with a benzene–toluene solution with a mole fraction of
TBo benzene of 0.400? ( pBo = 119 torr and pTo = 37.0 torr)
T(K) (a) 1.237 (b) 2.237 (c) 3.237 (d) 0.237
5. A 0.0020 molal aqueous solution of an ionic compound
CO(NH3)5(NO2)Cl freezes at −0.00732°C. Number of moles of
ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dis-
xA = 1 xA = 0
xB = 0 xB = 1 solved in water will be (Kf = −1.86°C molal−1)
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
6. Phenol associates in benzene to a certain extent to form dimer. (c) number of solute particles present in it.
A solution containing 2.0 × 10−2 kg of phenol in 1.0 kg of (d) number of moles of solvent only.
benzene has its freezing point decreased by 0.69 K. What is
the degree of association of phenol? (Kf for benzene = 5.12 17. Vapour pressure of water at 293 K is 17.535 mm Hg. What will
K molal−1) be the vapour pressure of water at 293 K when 25 g of glucose
is dissolved in 450 g of water?
(a) 0.734 (b) 0.367 (c) 0.437 (d) 0.763
(a) 17.44 mm Hg (b) 174.4 mm Hg
7. The molal freezing point constant of water is 1.86°C molal−1. (c) 34.88 mm Hg (d) 8.72 mm Hg
Therefore, the freezing point of 0.1 M NaCl solution in water is
expected to be 18. The azeotropic mixture of water (boiling point 100°C) and HCl
(a) −1.86°C. (b) −0.186°C. (boiling point 85°C) boils at 108.5°C. When this mixture is dis-
(c) −0.372°C. (d) +0.372°C. tilled, it is possible to obtain
(a) pure HCl.
8. Which of the following pairs of electrolytes will form an iso- (b) pure water.
tonic solution (assume complete dissociation of each salt)? (c) pure water as well as HCl.
(a) 0.02 M K2SO4 ⋅ Al2(SO4)3 and 0.04 M BaCl2 (d) neither HCl nor water in their pure states.
(b) 0.06 M CaCl2 and 0.04 M FeCl3
(c) 0.05 M Al2(SO4)3 and 0.05 M K2SO4 19. Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling
(d) 0.04 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.05 M K3[Cu(CN)4] point?
(a) 1% glucose (b) 1% sucrose
9. Which of the following statements is correct, if the intermo-
(c) 1% NaCl (d) 1% CaCl2
lecular forces in liquids A, B and C are in the order A < B < C?
(a) B evapourates more readily than A. 20. A solution of a pair of volatile liquids A and B shows negative
(b) B evapourates less readily than C. deviation from Raoult’s law. Which of the following holds true
(c) A and B evapourate at the same rate. for it?
(d) A evapourates more readily than C.
(a) pA < x A pAo and pB < xB pBo .
10. Which will form maximum boiling azeotrope? (b) The intermolecular forces A A, B B < A B.
(a) HNO3 + H2O solution (c) Both ∆Hmix and ∆Vmix are negative.
(b) C2H5OH + H2O solution (d) All of these.
(c) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution
(d) C6H6 + H2O solution 21. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 25°C is 639.7 mm Hg
and the vapour pressure of a solution of a solute in C6H6 at the
11. Which of the following colligative properties can help to deter- same temperature is 631.9 mm Hg. The molality of solution
mine the molar mass of a protein with the greatest precision? will be
(a) Elevation in boiling point. (a) 0.15 (b) 0.258 (c) 0.358 (d) 1.58
(b) Depression in freezing point.
(c) Osmotic pressure. 22. Certain substance trimerizes when dissolved in a solvent A.
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure. The van’t Hoff factor is (assume 100% association)
(a) 1 (b) 1/3
12. Equal volumes of ethylene glycol (molar mass = 62 g mol−1)
(c) 3 (d) Cannot be predicted.
and water (molar mass = 18 g mol−1) are mixed. The depres-
sion in freezing point of water is (Given Kf of water = 1.86 K 23. A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 mL chloro-
molal−1 and specific gravity of ethylene glycol is 1.114.) form and 50 mL acetone. The volume of mixture will be
(a) 0.0033 K (b) 3.33 K (c) 0.333 K (d) 33.3 K (a) > 80 mL. (b) < 80 mL. (c) = 80 mL. (d) − 80 mL.
13. van’t Hoff factors x, y, and z for association, dissociation and 24. 100 g of liquid A (molar mass 140 g mol−1) was dissolved in
no change of solute in the solution, respectively, are in the 1000 g of liquid B (molar mass 180 g mol−1). The vapour pres-
order: sure of pure liquid B was found to be 500 torr. What will be
(a) x < y < z (b) x > z > y (c) x < z < y (d) x > y > z the vapour pressure of pure liquid A and its vapour pressure
14. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution and the former has in the solution, respectively, if the total vapour pressure of the
stronger intermolecular forces. If xA and yA are the mole frac- solution is 475 torr?
tions of A in the solution and vapour phase in equilibrium, (a) 28.7 torr and 32 torr (b) 272.7 torr and 30 torr
then (c) 28.7 torr and 3.2 torr (d) 280.7 torr and 3.2 torr
(a) yA/xA = 1 (b) yA/xA > 1
25. The van’t Hoff factor for BaCl2 at 0.01 M concentration is 1.98.
(c) yA/xA < 1 (d) yA + xA = 1
The percentage dissociation of BaCl2 at this concentration is
15. 0.01 M solution each of urea, common salt, and Na2SO4 are (a) 49% (b) 69% (c) 89% (d) 98%
taken. The ratio of depression of freezing point is
26. Two liquids A and B are mixed at temperature T in a certain
(a) 1:1:1 (b) 1:2:1 (c) 1:2:3 (d) 2:2:3
ratio to form an ideal solution; it was found that the vapour
16. The colligative properties of a solution depend on pressure of A, that is, pA is equal to pB the vapour pressure of B
(a) nature of solute particles present in it. for the liquid mixture. What is the total vapour pressure of the
(b) nature of solvent used. liquid mixture in terms of pAo and pBo ?
29. In a mixture of A and B if the mole fraction of the component 37. A solution is obtained by mixing 300 g of 25% solution and
A in vapour phase is x1 and mole fraction of component A 400 g of 40% solution by mass. What will be the mass percent-
in liquid mixture is x2 ( pAo = vapour pressure of pure A; pBo = age of the solute and solvent of resulting solution?
vapour pressure of pure B), then total vapour pressure of the (a) 23% and 77% (b) 12.5% and 87.5%
liquid mixture is: (c) 33.6% and 66.4% (d) 50% and 50%
po x po x po x po x 38. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2
(a) A 2 (b) A 1 (c) B 1 (d) B 2
x1 x2 x2 x1 in 1 kg of water is (Given Kb = 0.52 K molal−1, molecular weight
of CuCl2 = 134.4 g mol−1.)
30. 0.15 g of a substance dissolved in 15 g of a solvent is boiled
(a) 0.05 K (b) 0.1 K (c) 0.16 K (d) 0.21 K
at a temperature higher by 0.216°C than that of the pure sol-
vent. Find out the molecular weight of the substance. (Kf for 39. Molarity of the liquid HCl if density of the solution is 1.17 g
solvent is 2.16 K kg mol−1.) cm−3 is
(a) 1.01 g mol−1 (b) 10.1 g mol−1 (a) 36.5 M (b) 18.25 M (c) 32.05 M (d) 42.10 M
(c) 100 g mol−1 (d) 1000 g mol−1
40. A 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.010 M solu-
31. For a weak monobasic acid, if pKa = 4, then at a concentration tion of glucose at the same temperature. The apparent degree
of 0.01 M of the acid solution, the van’t Hoff factor is of dissociation of Na2SO4 is
(a) 1.01 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.10 (d) 1.20 (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 85%
32. A 25 mL of certain aqueous solution of KCl required 40 mL of
41. The pH of 1 M solution of a weak monobasic acid (HA) is 2.
0.5 M AgNO3 solution for complete precipitation of Cl− ions. If
Then, the van’t Hoff factor is
KCl ionizes to a complete extent in solution, the freezing point
(a) 1.01 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.10 (d) 1.20
of the solution is (assume molality to be same as molarity and
Kf = 1.86°C molal−1) 42. Boiling point of pure H2O is 373.15 K. If 32.5 g of KCN is dis-
(a) −0.27°C (b) −5°C (c) −2.97°C (d) −5.95°C solved in 100 mL of H2O, what will the boiling point of solu-
33. Benzoic acid undergoes dimerization in benzene solution. tion? (Given Kb for H2O = 0.52 K kg mol−1 and molar mass of
The van’t Hoff factor (i) is related to the degree of association KCN = 65 g mol−1.)
“x” of the acid as (a) 105.20°C (b) 100.52°C (c) 373.67 K (d) 273.67 K
(a) i = (1 − x) (b) i = (1 + x)
(c) i = (1 − x/2) (d) i = (1 + x/2) 43. Depression in freezing point of 0.01 molal aqueous acetic acid
solution is found to be 0.02046°C. One molal urea solution
34. Which of the following graphs represent the positive devia- freezes at −1.86°C. Assuming molarity equal to molality, pH
tion from Raoult’s law? of acetic acid solution is
(a) (b) (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 3.2 (d) 4.2
p p
44. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 25°C is 143 mm Hg. If 0.5 g of a
non-volatile solute (molecular weight 65) is dissolved in
100 mL CCl4, find the vapour pressure of the solution. (Given
that density of CCl4 = 1.58 g cm−3).
(a) 141.93 mm Hg (b) 94.39 mm Hg
xA = 1 xA = 0 xA = 1 xA = 0 (c) 199.34 mm Hg (d) 143.99 mm Hg
xB = 0 xB = 1 xB = 0 xB = 1
51. Which of the following form nearly ideal solution? Passage Type
(a) Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene
(b) Hexane + Heptane Paragraph for Questions 60 to 63: The properties of solutions
(c) Ethanol + Cyclohexane that depend on the number of solute particles irrespective of
(d) Acetic acid + Pyridine their nature are called colligative properties. These properties
hold good if the solutions are dilute and solute molecules do not
52. Identify the correct statements. dissociate or associate in solution. Abnormal molar masses are
(a) The solution formed by mixing equal volumes of 0.1 M urea obtained by measuring colligative properties if the solute disso-
and 0.1 M glucose will have the same osmotic pressure. ciates or associates in the solution. The extent of dissociation or
(b) 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3 are isotonic association of a solute in solution is expressed in terms of van’t
solutions. Hoff factor i. It is defined as the ratio of experimentally determined
value of colligative property to the calculated value of colligative have positive deviations. On the other hand, if the forces of inter-
property based on the theoretical relations (Raoult’s law and ideal action between A and B molecules are more than those between
behaviour). A A and B B, the non-ideal solutions have negative deviations.
Normal molar mass 64. If two liquids A and B form an ideal solution, then
i=
Observed molar mass (a) the Gibbs energy of mixing is zero.
For solutes that associate or dissociate in solution, the equation (b) the entropy of mixing is zero.
of colligative properties need to be modified to include the van’t (c) the enthalpy of mixing is zero.
Hoff factor. (d) None of these.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (a) 42. (a)
43. (b) 44. (a)
Level II
45. (a), (b), (d) 46. (a), (c) 47. (a), (b) 48. (a), (c) 49. (a), (d) 50. (a), (c)
51. (a), (b) 52. (a), (b) 53. (b), (d) 54. (b), (c) 55. (a), (d) 56. (a), (c)
57. (c), (d) 58. (a), (b), (d) 59. (a), (b), (c) 60. (b) 61. (c) 62. (b)
63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c)
69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) → r; (b) → q; (c) → s; (d) → p, q, s
74. (a) → p, q; (b) → p; (c) → s; (d) → r 75. (5) 76. (4) 77. (8) 78. (8)
79. (3) 80. (5) 81. (2)
2. (d) It shows a positive deviation, that is, higher vapour pres- Therefore the freezing point of 0.1 M NaCl in water
sure than predicted. = 0 − 0.372 = − 0.372 °C.
3. (b) Depression in freezing point is a colligative property 8. (d) C × i = constant implies isotonic solutions.
which depends on the number of particles of solute in 0.04 × 5 = 0.2 for K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.05 × 4 = 0.2 for
solution which is highest in Al2(SO4)3. The reaction for K3[Cu(CN)6]
Al2(SO4)3 is as follows: 9. (d) Due to weakest intermolecular forces; evapouration is
3+ fastest in A.
Al2 (SO 4 )3 2Al + 3SO24−
10. (a) HNO3 + H2O will show negative deviation from Raoult’s
The total number of particles for Al2(SO4)3 is 5. law. In this case, we will observe a maximum boiling point
Proceeding in a similar way, for KCl, number of particles azeotrope in which the boiling point of the azeotrope is
is 2, so the depression of freezing point is less than that higher than pure H2O and that of nitric acid HNO3.
of Al2(SO4)3. 11. (c) Osmotic pressure is used for molar mass determination
Since C6H12O6 and C12H22O11 cannot dissociate into of protein because even a small concentration of protein
ions, the depression in freezing point is the least for (or any solute) produces a relatively large osmotic pres-
them. sure which can be measured precisely. It is given by
4. (d) Total pressure of the solution is given by (Raoult’s law) wRT
Π=
ptotal = xB pBo + x T pTo = 0.4 × 119 + 0.6 × 37 M ×V
= 47.6 + 22.2 = 69.8 torr where w is weight of protein, R is the gas constant, T is
the temperature, M is the molecular mass of protein and
Applying Dalton’s law for mole fraction in vapour phase, V is the volume of the solution.
we get
12. (d) Using the expression ∆Tf = K f × molality. Let us consider
pB po x 0.4 × 119
yB = = o B Bo = = 0.763 1000 mL of ethylene glycol. The number of moles of eth-
ptotal pA x A + pB xB 69.8
ylene glycol is calculated as
y T = 1 − 0.763 = 0.237
1000mL × 1.114 g mL−1 = 1.114 g
5. (d) We know that ∆Tf = i × Kf × m, so 0.00732 = i × 1.86 1114 g
× 0.002. Therefore, i = 1.967 ≅ 2. = 17.9 mol.
62g mol−1
6. (a) Mass of phenol, w2 = 2.0 × 10−2 kg; Kf = 5.12 K Given that Kf = 1.86°C molal−1 and substituting value, we
molal−1; mass of benzene, w1 = 1.0 kg; ∆Tf = 0.69 K. get ∆Tf = 1.86 × 17.9 = 33.33 K .
Therefore, according to the equation
13. (c) For association i < 1, for dissociation i > 1, and in normal
1000 K f w2 case, i = 1 (non-electrolyte).
M2 (observed) =
w1 ∆Tf In case of association, the number of particles in the
1000 g kg−1 × 5.12 K kg mol−1 × 2.0 × 10 −2 kg solution decreases and so the value of i < 1. For example,
= benzoic acid undergoes association to form a dimer.
1.0 kg × 0.69 K
In case of dissociation, there is increase in the number of
10.240 × 10 −2 −2 ions and the value of i > 1. For example, KCl dissociates as
= = 14840.58 × 10
0.69 K+ + Cl− where i = 2.
= 148.4 g mol −1 In case of non-electrolyte, there will be no association or
dissociation and the number of particles will be the same
Also, M2 for C6H5OH = 12 × 6 + 1 × 5 + 16 + 1 = 94 g mol −1 and hence i = 1. So x < z < y
(calculated). Therefore, p po x y po
14. (c) y A = A = A A ⇒ A = A < 1
M (calculated) 94 p p xA p
i= 2 = = 0.633
M2 (observed) 148.4 (Since the liquid A is less volatile, pAo < p)
2C6H5OH (C6H5OH)2 15. (c) ∆Tf = i K f × m ⇒ ∆Tf ∝ i where i = 1 for urea, i = 2 for NaCl
Initial moles 1 mol and i = 3 for Na2SO4. Therefore, ratio of number of mole-
Moles after dissociation 1−a a /2 cules after ionization = 1:2:3
16. (c) The colligative properties of a solution depend on the
a a
Total moles after dissociation = 1− a + = 1− . number of solute particles irrespective of nature.
2 2
Therefore, 17. (a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is
25
1− (a / 2) p o − ps nA 17.5 − ps 180
i= → a = 2(1 − i ) = 2 (1− 0.633) = 0.734 = ⇒ =
1 po nA + nB 17.5 25 450
+
180 18
7. (c) From the expression of depression in freezing 25 × 17.5
point, we get ∆Tf = iKf m = 2 × 1.86 × 0.1 = 0.372°C. Solving, we get ps = 17.5 − = 17.4 mm Hg
4525
18. (d) Azeotropes mixture cannot be distilled with change in 25. (a) For, BaCl2, the reaction is
composition. BaCl2 Ba2 + + 2Cl−
19. (d) Elevation of boiling point ∝ i (as CaCl2 , i = 3). Hence, it is Initial moles 1 0 0
highest for CaCl2. Also, the elevation in boiling point is Moles at equilibrium 1 − a a 2a
proportional to molality, which is different in all the four
Total moles after dissociation = 1 − a + a + 2a = 1 + 2a.
cases. Hence, it should also be factored in for finding the
So, i = (1 + 2a)/1 = 1 + 2a.
correct answer.
Given that i = 1.98, so
20. (d) For a solution showing negative deviation from Raoult’s 1 + 2a = 1.98 ⇒ 2a = 0.98 ⇒ a = 0.49
law, the interactions between A B are more than
A A and B B interactions so the escaping tendency of Thus, the degree of dissociation is 49%.
the molecule A B will be less than that of pure liquids.
26. (b) pA = x A pAo and pB = xB pBo = pBo (1 − x A )
The total vapour pressure will be less than that expected
from the Raoults law, that is, pA < x A pAo and pB < xB pBo .
There will be slight decrease in the volume and heat will pBo 2 pAo pBo
If pA = pB , then x A = ; ptotal = 2 pA =
be evolved on mixing two solutions showing negative pAo + pBo pAo + pBo
deviation, that is, ∆Hmix < 0 and ∆Vmix < 0.
p o − ps
21. (d) We know that relative lowering in vapour pressure = 27. (b) Applying Raoult’s law: = x solute, we get
mole fraction of solute. Therefore, po
10 10
p o − ps 639.7 − 631.9 = 0.2 ⇒ p o = = 50 mm Hg
= xB ⇒ = = 0.0122 po 0.2
po 639.7
Now, if po − ps = 20 mm Hg, then
Given that mole fraction of benzene = 1 − 0.0122
= 0.9878. 20
x solute = = 0.4 ⇒ x solvent = 1 − 0.4 = 0.6
The molar mass of benzene = 77.05 g. Therefore, 50
77.05 g contains = 0.0122 moles of solute
28. (a) Molarity (M) = number of moles of solute/volume of
0.0122
1 g contains = solution in liters, molality (m) = number of moles of
77.05 solute/mass of solvent in kg, r is the density of the solu-
0.122 tion = mass of the solution/volume of the solution and
1000 g contains = × 1000 = 1.58 mol M2 = mass of the solvent in kg mol−1
77.05
We can write molality as
22. (b) The reaction involved is
M
3A A3 m= ⇒ m( r − MM2 ) = M ⇒ M(1 + mM2 ) = mr
r − MM2
Initial moles 1 0 mr
Moles at equilibrium 1−a a /3 ⇒M=
1 + mM2
Total moles after dissociation = (1 − a) + a/3 = 1 − (2/3)a
or i = [1 + (2/3)a]/1 = 1 + (2/3)a 29. (a) According to Raoult’s law, pA = pAo x 2 and Dalton law, pA = ptotal x1
When a = 1, that is, degree of dissociation is 100%, weDalton law, pA = ptotal x1
get the maximum value of i = 1/3.
x
23. (b) Chloroform and acetone form a non-ideal solution, Therefore, ptotal = pAo × 2
x1
Chloroform and acetone have greater attraction when
mixed together than alone, and hence, the solution 30. (c) ∆T = K × m ⇒ m = 0.216 = 0.1
b b
shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law, that is, 2.16
where
∆Vmix < 0 ; ∆Hmix < 0
wA wA
Total volume of solution = < {30 + 50 mL} or < 80 mL m= × 1000 ⇒ MA = × 1000
MA × wB m × wB
100 0.15 × 1000
= = 100 g mol−1
p = p + p = p o
x + p o
x = 140 = 0 .11 0.1 × 15
24. (b) total A B A A B B 1000 100
+ 31. (c) pKa = 4, so Ka = 10−4.
180 140
Therefore, From the expression K a = Ca 2 (Ostwald’s dilution law),
we get
30
475 = pAo × 0.11 + 500(1 − 0.11) ⇒ pAo = = 272.7 torr
0.11 Ka 10 −4
a= = = 10 −1 = 0.10
o
Now, p = p × x = 272.7 × 0.11 = 30 torr C 0 .01
A A A
The reaction involved is 39. (c) Given that r = 1.17 g cm−3. This means 1.17 g of HCl dis-
HA H+ + A − solved in 1 mL. Therefore,
( m/M ) 1.17 × 1000
Initial moles 1 0 0 Molarity = × 1000 = = 32.05 M
V 36.5 × 1
Moles at equilibrium 1− a a a
40. (c) For isotonic solutions, the osmotic pressure is the same,
Total moles after dissociation = 1 − a + a + a = 1 + a. that is, Π1 = Π2 . Also, for glucose, i = 1 as it is a non-
So, i = 1 + a = 1 + 0.1 = 1.10 electrolyte. Therefore,
32. (c) From the question, 25 mL of KCl ≡ 40 mL of 0.5 M AgNO3 CNa2 SO4 × iNa2 SO4 = C Glucose × iGlucose
20 0.01 × 1
Therefore, 25 × m = 0.5 × 40 ⇒ m = molal ⇒ 0.004 × iNa2 SO4 = 0.01 × 1 ⇒ iNa2 SO4 = = 2.5
25 0.004
Given that Kf = 1.86°C molal−1, therefore,
20 Now, the reaction involved is
∆Tf = i K f m = 2 × 1.86 × = 2.97 °C
25 Na2SO 4 2Na+ + SO24−
Therefore, freezing point of the solution = Tf − ∆Tf = 0 − 2.97 Initial moles 1 0 0
Tf − ∆Tf = 0 − 2.97= − 2.97 °C Moles at equilibrium 1 − a 2a a
= − 2.97 °C Total moles after dissociation = 1 − a +2a + a = 1 + 2a.
So, i = (1 + 2a)/1 = 1 + 2a. Therefore,
33. (c) The reaction is i − 1 2.5 − 1
a= = = 0.75
2C6H5COOH (C6H5COOH)2 2 2
Initial moles 1 0 Hence, degree of dissociation is 75%.
Moles after dissociation 1− x x/2
x x 41. (a) For HA H+ + A − , we find that i = 1 + a
Therefore, i = 1 − x + = 1−
2 2 Now, 10 −2 = Ca ⇒ a = 10 −2 as C = 1 M. Therefore, i = 1
+ 0.01 = 1.01.
34. (d) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law means, ptotal is
greater than expected, as A–A and B–B attractive forces 42. (a) KCN → K + + CN−, where i = 2. Hence,
are stronger than A–B attractive force.
32.5 × 1000
35. (d) From the expressions ∆Tb = i × m × K b = 2 × × 0.52 = 5.2°C
65 × 100
RTf2
∆Tf = K f × molality and K f = ×M Therefore,
∆Hfusion1000
Tbs = 373.15 + 5.2 = 378.35 K = 378.35 − 273.15 = 105.20°C
(Given Tf = ∆H = 35.7 ca l g−1) 43. (b) Given that ∆Tf = 1.86°C and m = 1 molal for urea.
M
Therefore, we get Kf = 1.86°C molal−1. Now, for acetic acid
We get, M = 256.12 g mol−1. So, the molecular formula is solution
256.12/32 = 8, that is, S8.
∆Tf = iK f × m ⇒ 0.02046 = i × 1.86 × 0.01
36. (b) For any ideal solution, i = 1.
0.02046
⇒ i= = 1.1
300 × 25 1.86 × 0.01
37. (c) Weight of solute in 300 g solution = = 75g (as 25% of 300 g)
300 × 25 100
= = 75g (as 25% of 300 g) Now, from the reaction CH3COOH CH3COO − + H+ ,
100
400 × 40 we get i = 1 + a. Hence,
Weight of solute in 400 g solution = = 160 g (as 40% of 400 g)
400 × 40 100 1.1 = 1 + a ⇒ a = 1.1 − 1 = 0.1
= = 160 g ( as 40% of 400 g)
100 Now, the hydrogen ion concentration is
Therefore, the total weight of solution = 300 + 400 = 700 g [H+ ] = Ca = 0.01 × 0.1 = 10 −3 M (as m = C given)
Mass percentage of solute in resulting solution
Therefore, pH = − log[H+ ] = − log(10 −3 ) = 3
235
= × 100 = 33.6%
700 44. (a) According to Raoult’s law
Mass percentage of solvent in resulting solution = 0.5
(100 – 33.6%) = 66.4% p0 − ps 143 − ps
x solute = = 65 ⇒ = 0.00745
38. (a) From the expression ∆Tb = K b × molality, we get p0 0.5 158 143
+
65 154
13.44
∆Tb = 0.52 × = 0.052 K
134.4 × 1 Solving, we get ps = 141.93 mm of Hg.
53. (b), (d) Given that molality of solution = 0.5, van’t Hoff factor 61. (c) According to elevation in boiling point, ΔTb = Kb × m
of KCl = 2. Therefore, where m(molality) = 0.1/200
2. The solubility of N2 in water at 300 K and 500 torr partial pres- where nsolute and nsolvent are the number of moles of solute
sure is 0.01 g L−1. The solubility (in g L−1) at 750 torr partial pres- and solvent, respectively. Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2) gives
sure is
(a) 0.0075 (b) 0.005 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.015 x solute n 0.1 (3)
= solute =
(Online) x solvent nsolvent 0.9
Solution
Given that the density of solution is 2 g cm−3, we have
(d) Using Henry’s law
Wsolution = density × Vsolution = 2 × Vsolution
p1 = KH S1
p2 = KH S2 Wsolute + Wsolvent = 2 × Vsolution (4)
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
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SUMMARY
1. Electrolysis is the process by which electricity is used to enable non-spontaneous redox reactions for producing important
product.
2. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry dealing with production of electricity from energy released from spontaneous chemical
reactions which can be used to bring about non-spontaneous chemical transformation.
3. Electrochemical cells
The devices which convert electrical energy into chemical energy or vice versa are called electrochemical cells. These devices are
classified into two main categories:
(a) Electrolytic cells
The devices in which chemical changes occur in the presence of applied electrical energy. For example, a simple electrolytic cell
may be constructed by dipping two copper strips in a solution of copper salt. The impure copper (containing zinc, iron, silver and
gold as impurities) is used as the anode while the cathode is a thin sheet of very pure copper. When the cell is operated at the
correct voltage, the impure copper anode dissolves and the pure copper cathode grows larger.
(b) Galvanic (voltaic cells)
The devices in which electrical energy is generated on account of the chemical reactions occurring in them. These are further
divided into chemical cells and concentration cells.
4. Galvanic cells
(a) A galvanic cell consists of two electrodes immersed in solutions of their respective salts.
(b) The electrode at which reduction (or electron gain) takes place is known as the cathode and the electrode at which oxidation
(loss of electrons) takes place is known as the anode.
(c) Daniell cell is the most popular galvanic cell. It is built by two electrodes, Zn rod dipped in ZnSO4 solution and Cu rod dipped in
CuSO4 solution, connected by a salt bridge.
The Daniel cell is represented as Zn(s) ZnSO 4 (aq) CuSO 4 (aq) Cu(s)
The half-cell reactions are:
Zn(s) Zn2 + (aq) + 2e −
The overall cell reaction is Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)
(d) A galvanic cell can also be constructed when a silver electrode dips into a solution of AgNO3 on the left and a copper electrode
dips into a solution of Cu(NO3)2 on the right. The two electrodes are connected by an external electrical circuit and the two solu-
tions are connected by a salt bridge. The half-cell reactions are:
Reduction
Ag+ (aq) + e − → Ag(s)
Oxidation
Cu(s) → Cu2 + (aq) + 2e −
5. Electrode potential
(a) Electrode potential is the potential difference developing between the electrode and electrolyte. It is measured by voltmeter. The
electrode potential which is determined when the concentration of all solutes is unity at standard conditions of temperature and
pressure is known as standard electrode potential.
(b) The tendency of each half-cell to acquire electrons and proceed as a reduction is expressed quantitatively by the half-reaction’s
reduction potential.
(c) Standard reduction potential
When measured under standard conditions, the reduction potential is called the standard reduction potential. By definition,
a potential of 1 volt (V) is produced when 1 joule (J) of energy is used to transport 1 coulomb (C) of electrical charge across the
potential.
1J
1V =
1C
Tip The standard state for electrochemistry is defined as a system where the temperature is 298 K, all concentrations are 1 M, and
any gases are at 1.00 bar pressure.
Tip The term standard cell potential is used when system is at standard state (i.e., 1.00 M, 1.00 bar pressure and 298 K).
(iii) The potential generated by a galvanic cell, when no current is drawn through the cell, is called the electromotive force
(emf). Electromotive force (emf ) is the potential difference between the two terminals of the cell when no current is drawn
from it. It is measured by potentiometer.
(iv) The magnitude of the cell potential is a measure of the driving force behind a reaction.
• The larger the value of the cell potential, the farther is the reaction from equilibrium.
• The sign of the cell potential tells us the direction in which the reaction must shift to reach equilibrium.
• Reactions for which Eo is positive, have equilibrium constants that favour the formation of the products of the reaction.
A reaction with a positive Eo should occur naturally and is referred to as spontaneous.
Tip If charge flows from a cell, some of the cell’s voltage is lost in overcoming its own internal resistance, and the measured voltage
is less than the original Ecell.
The direction of cell reaction is reversed as follows when the opposing emf is slightly more than −1.09 V.
(ii) When an opposing emf is applied, the cell reaction is not reversed but takes place as follows:
7. Electrochemical conventions
S. No Convention Example
The interface across which a potential develops is denoted by either Cu | CuSO 4 (1 M) or Cu; CuSO 4 (1 M)
1.
a single vertical line (|) or a semicolon (;).
Representation of a cell will have the oxidation electrode (anode)
on the LHS and the reduction electrode (cathode) on the RHS. The Cu | CuSO 4 (1 M)|| AgNO3 (1 M)| Ag
2.
salt bridge used to connect the electrodes is represented by double
vertical lines.
3. The emf of a cell is represented as Ecell = Eright − Eleft Salt
Where Eright and Eleft are the standard electrode potentials (reduction bridge
electrode potentials) of RHS and LHS electrodes, respectively.
Anode Cathode
If reduction occurs at the electrode, the reaction taking place will be as follows:
Both oxidation and reduction take place on hydrogen electrode. As the potential cannot be measured directly, it is convention-
ally assumed to be zero at 298 K.
o
(i) The emf of the cell (Ecell ) is determined at a standard condition and since Eo of SHE is assumed to be zero, the potential of the
second electrode can be obtained.
(ii) The potential of an electrode measured at standard condition (298.15 K, 1 M concentration of ions and 1 bar pressure) is
known as standard electrode potential. The electrode potential, as a practice, is reported as reduction potential and is a
measure of reduction potential of an electrode with respect to SHE.
9. Electrochemical series
(a) The standard reduction potentials of many half-reactions are shown in below table. They are arranged in decreasing order – the
half-reactions at the top have the greatest tendency to occur as reduction, while those at the bottom have the least tendency to
occur as reduction.
PbO2 (s) + HSO 4− (aq) + 3H+ (aq) + 2e − PbSO4 (s) + 2H2O +1.69
(Continued)
Stronger oxidizing agent
Half-Reaction E° (V)
Cr 3+ (aq) + 3e − Cr ( s ) −0.74
RT [M]
E = E o − 2.303 log10
nF [M]n +
where R = gas constant, T = Kelvin temperature, Eo = emf of the cell, E = electrode potential of the cell, F = Faraday constant,
n = number of moles of electrons transferred. It defines the relationship of cell potential with ion concentration.
(Continued)
(Continued)
o 2.303 RT
Ecell = Ecell − log Q
nF
where Q is the reaction quotient.
n+ n+ [Mn + ][N] [Mn + ]
For a reaction: M(s) + N (aq) M (aq) + N(s), Q = =
[M][Nn + ] [Nn + ]
n+
o 2.303 RT [M ]
The Nernst equation is: Ecell = Ecell − log n +
nF [N ]
At equilibrium, the reaction quotient Q becomes equal to the equilibrium constant Keq.
2.303 RT
o
Ecell = log K eq
nF
Relation between electrochemical cell and Gibbs energy of reaction
∆rGo = −nFEo and ∆rGo = −RT lnK
12. Types of electrodes
Electrodes of a galvanic cell can consist of different components or constituents. Based on the constituents, they are classified as
follows:
A metal rod is dipped in an Half-cell reaction at the anode:
electrolytic solution of the
Metal–Metal ion half-cell
Mn+(C M)
Gas ion (C M)
(Continued)
(Continued)
In this electrode, the electrode For example, the quinhydrone electrode
potential results due to the which can be used to measure the hydro-
presence of ions of the same gen ion concentration (pH) of a solution
substance present in different
oxidation states. OH O
Redox half-cell
+ 2H+ + 2e −
(As anode)
OH O
Mx1+(C1 M)
Mx2+(C2 M)
AgCl
(saturated)
o o RT [Cl− ]
ECl−
/ AgCl/Ag = E Ag+ / Ag − ln
F K sp
An amalgam electrode is a 2.303RT [Zn]
Zn(Hg)| Zn2+ ( x M) o
E = EZn |Zn −
Amalgam
electrode
Those which are almost completely dissociated in their aqueous solu- HCl, HNO3, NaOH, KOH,
Strong electrolytes
tions and have a large value of conductance. NaCl and KCl
Those which do not undergo complete dissociation even in their dilute
aqueous solutions and have low value of conductance. In the solution of CH3COOH, HCOOH and
Weak electrolytes
a weak electrolyte, there exists equilibrium between the undissociated NH4OH.
molecules and their ions.
The SI unit of conductance is Siemens, represented by the symbol S and is equal to ohm−1(Ω−1), also called mho.
(b) The reciprocal of specific resistance is called the specific conductance (j ) or conductivity. Therefore,
1 1 l
k = = ×
r R A
Specific conductance is the conductance of the solution placed between two electrodes having the cross-sectional area of
1 m2 and placed 1 m apart. In other words, it is defined as the conductance of 1 cm3 of the solution and has units Siemens per
centimeter (S cm−1) in SI system. Thus, specifc conductance(k) has both units S cm−1 or S m−1 depending upon the units used
in a particular situation.
17. Measurement of the conductivity of ionic solutions
(a) Conductivity cells
The essential components of a conductivity cell include two platinum electrodes of known dimensions, length (l) and area of
cross-section (A), coated with platinum black. The ionic solution for which the resistance is to be measured is confined between
the two electrodes and its resistance is given by
1 l
R= ×
k A
The ratio of length to the cross-sectional area is called the cell constant (G*) and it is a characteristic parameter of conductivity
cell used for the experiment.
l
Cell constant (G *) =
A
(b) Wheatstone bridge
The Wheatstone bridge set up for measurement of resistance consists of two resistances R2 and R3, a variable resistance R1 and
the conductivity cell with unknown resistance Rx.
Conductivity cell
C
R3
AC generator
R1 R2
k
Λm =
1000 × C
where k is the conductivity of the solution and C is the molar concentration of the solution. If k is expressed in S m−1 and C in
mol m−3, then the units of molar conductance Λm are Sm2 mol−1.
k (S m−1)
Λ m (S m2 mol−1 ) =
1000 (L m ) × Molarity (mol L−1)
−3
Where k is the conductivity of the solution and V is the volume of the solution containing 1 g-equiv. of the substance.
In terms of concentration,
k 0 k (S/cm) × 1000 (cm3 / L )
Λ= or Λ m = × Solubility
1000 × C Molarity (mol / L )
160
140 KCl
100
60
CH3COOH
20
0 20 40 60 80
C× 104
(c) The extent and nature of variation of molar conductivity is however, different for weak and strong electrolytes.
The molar conductivity of a solution at a given concentration is the conductance of volume V of a solution containing one mole
of electrolyte between two electrodes with cross-sectional area A and distance of unit length between them.
kA
Λm = =kV
l
(d) On increasing dilution of the solution, the total volume (V) containing one mole of electrolyte increases and conductivity (k )
decreases. The first factor compensates the effect of the second factor and an overall increase in molar conductivity is observed
with decrease in concentration. As the concentration approaches zero, the molar conductance of the solution reaches the max-
0
imum value. This value is called limiting molar conductivity and is denoted by Λ m .
22. Variation in molar conductivity with concentration
(a) Strong electrolytes
(i) The variation in molar conductivity with concentration for strong electrolytes is given by an empirical relation proposed
by Kohlrausch based on a number of experimental observations. At low concentrations, the relation is represented by the
equation
0
Λm = Λm −k C
where k is a constant that is specific for a given solvent, at a given temperature but varies with the type of electrolyte that
is the number of charges on the ions produced by dissociation of the electrolyte.
(ii) Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions states that limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be rep-
resented as the sum of the individual contributions of the anion and cation of the electrolyte. Mathematically, the law can
be stated as
0
Λm = v + l+0 + v − l−0
0
where Λ m , l 0+ and l 0− are limiting molar conductivities of the electrolyte, cations and anions, respectively and v+ and v−
are the number of cations and anions.
Tip The conductivity of a strong electrolyte increases on dilution slightly. This is explained by the Debye–Hückel–Onsager equation
0 0
Λm = Λm − ( A + BΛ m ) C
0
where A and B are the Debye-Hückel constants. If a solution is at infinite dilution, that is, C is almost zero then Λ m = Λ m .
x Λ
The degree of dissociation in terms of molar conductivity is a = = m0
n0 Λ m
Λm
At any concentration (C) the degree of dissociation is a = 0
Λm
0
whereΛ m is obtained by measurement of resistance in a conductivity cell and Λ m is evaluated from Kohlrausch law of
independent migration of ions.
(Ca )(Ca ) Ca 2
(iv) For a weak electrolyte, the dissociation constant at concentration C is given by K = =
C (1 − a ) 1− a
2
C Λm C Λ2
K= = 0 0m
0 2 Λ Λm (Λm − Λm )
(Λm ) 1− m0
Λm
(ii) To calculate the ionic conductance: The ionic conductance ( l +0 ) can be calculated provided the transport number and
molar conductance at infinite dilution are known.
( l 0+ )
` t+ = (t+ is the transport number of the ion)
Λ0
(iii) To calculate the solubility of the sparingly soluble salt: A saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt is a very dilute solution.
If the specific conductance of the solution is determined, the concentration of the solution can be calculated.
0 k
Λm =
1000 × C
23. Conductometric titrations
Titration Curve Features
Strong acid (HCl) vs. Strong base (NaOH) • Initially with pure HCl, the conductance is very high due to the highly con-
ducting H+ ions.
• Upon adding NaOH, H+ (faster moving) are replaced with Na+ (slow mov-
Conductance (mho)
ing) thereby decreasing the overall conductance till the equivalence point,
where only NaCl is in solution.
• Upon further adding NaOH, the solution starts having an excess of OH−
ions, which increases the conductivity.
Equivalence point
Volume of NaOH
Mixture of acids (HCl + CH3COOH) vs. Strong base • The conductance of the solution gradually decreases due to the removal of
(NaOH) H+ ions of highly ionized HCl to form unionized water.
• Subsequently, the feebly ionized weak acid is neutralized.
• The conductance increases marginally due to the salts produced. After the
Conductance (mho)
w ∝ Q ⇒ w ∝ It or w = ZIt
Tips (a) The charge on one mole of electrons is called a Faraday and represented by symbol F.
(b) To simplify the calculation, an approximation of 1 F = 96500 C mol−1 is commonly used.
Overall reaction: NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) → Na+ (aq) + OH− (aq) + 21 H2 (g) + 21 Cl2 (g)
Electrolysis
Overall reaction: Cu2 + (aq) + 2Br − (aq)
→ Cu(s) + Br2 (aq)
MnO2
Overall cell reaction: Zn + 2MnO2 → ZnO + Mn2O3
(Continued)
(Continued)
Type Anode Cathode Electrolyte Electrode reactions
Lead Storage lead grid a lead grid H2SO4 solution −
At the anode: Pb(s) + SO2−
4 (aq) → PbSO 4 (s) + 2e
Cell (Lead– filled with packed with (20%)
Acid Battery) spongy lead oxide At cathode:
lead PbO2 (s) + 4H+ (aq) + SO24− (aq) + 2e − → PbSO4 (s) + 2H2O(l)
Overall cell reaction:
Secondary cells
20.
Transport number of the cation (t+) current carried by the cations q+
t+ = t+ =
total current carried by both the ions Q
Transport number of the anion (t–) current carried by the anions q−
t− = t− =
oth the ions
total current carried by bo Q
t+ v+ l +
21. The speeds of the ions are proportional to molar conductance = =
t− v− l −
Ionic velocity v
22. Ionic mobility = = = m2 V −1 s −1
Potential gradient dV /dt
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Electrode Potential where n is the number of electrons involved in the cell reac-
o o
tion, F is charge on one mole of electrons called faraday
1. Given that EFe 3+
/Fe = − 0.036 V , EFe2+ /Fe = − 0.439 V . The and E o is the standard electrode potential. Substituting
value of standard electrode potential for the change, the values, we have
Fe3+ (aq) + e − → Fe2 + (aq) will be
(a) 0.770 V (b) −0.270 V (c) −0.072 V (d) 0.385 V 966 × 103 J = 4 × 96500 × E o
(AIEEE 2009)
Solution 966000 1 ≈ 2.5 V
Eo = ×
(a) For the reaction, Fe3+ + 3e − → Fe E o = − 0.036 V (1) 96500 4
The Gibbs energy is given by o
3. The standard electrode potentials (EM +
/ M ) of four metals A, B,
∆G1o = − nFE o = −3 × F × ( −0.036 ) = + 0.108 F C and D are −1.2 V , 0.6 V, 0.85 V and − 0.76 V, respectively. The
sequence of deposition of metals on applying potential is
For the reaction Fe2 + + 2e − → Fe E o = − 0.439 V (a) A, C, B, D (b) B, D, C, A (c) C, B, D, A (d) D, A, B, C
(JEE Main Online 2014)
or Fe → Fe2 + + 2e − E o = 0.439 V (2)
Solution
The Gibbs energy is given by
(c) ∆G o = −nFE o
∆G2o = − nFE o = − 2F (0.439 ) = − 0.878 F For a process to be spontaneous, ∆G must be negative,
more negative value of ∆G represents greater spontaneity
For the reaction, Fe3+ + e − → Fe2 + (3) of a process.
o o o
The Gibbs energy is given by ∆G = − nFE = −1FE A B C D
Equation (3) can be obtained by adding Eqs. (1) and (2),
E° −1.2 0.6 0.85 −0.76
therefore
∆G° +1.2 nF −0.6 nF −0.85 nF +0.76 nF
∆G o = ∆G1o + ∆G2o
− FE o = 0.108F + ( − 0.878 )F = − 0.77F Hence sequence of deposition of metal would be
C > B > D > A.
E o = 0.77 V
4. A variable, opposite external potential (Eext) is applied to the
2. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500°C is as cell Zn|Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+ (1 M) | Cu, of potential 1.1 V. When
follows: Eext < 1.1 V and Eext > 1.1 V, respectively, electrons flow from
2
Al O
3 2 3
→ 4
3
Al + O2 , ∆rG = + 966 kJ mol−1 (a) anode to cathode and cathode to anode.
(b) cathode to anode and anode to cathode.
The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of
(c) cathode to anode in both cases.
Al2O3 at 500°C is at least
(d) anode to cathode in both cases.
(a) 5.0 V (b) 4.5 V (c) 3.0 V (d) 2.5 V
(JEE Main 2015)
(AIEEE 2010)
Solution Solution
(d) We know that Gibbs energy is related to the potential of (d) If Eext < 1.1 V, then Zn2+ acts as an anode while Cu2+ as
the cell by the relation cathode. Then electrons flow from anode (Zn2+) to cath-
∆G = − nFE o ode (Cu2+).
Eext
e
−
e− Oxidation half reaction:
Pb + 2Cl− PbCl2 + 2e − ; o
EPb = − 0.27 V
Cell reaction:
Cathode Anode MnO2 + Pb + 2Cl− + 4H+ Mn2 + + PbCl2 + 2H2O
o
Cu Ecell = 1.23 + 0.27 = 1.5 V
Zn 2+ + Cu2+
2e− Zn + 2e− 8. Electrolysis is planned for an aqueous solution that contains a
1M Zn2+ 1M mixture of 0.5 M ZnSO4 and 0.5 M NiSO4. On the basis of stand-
ard reduction potential, what products are expected to be
5. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials are 1.51 V for observed at the electrodes?
MnO 4− | Mn2 + , 1.36 V for Cl2/Cl−, 1.07 V for Br2|Br−, and 0.54 V o o o
[Given: ENi2+
/Ni = − 0.25 V ; E Zn2+ /Zn = − 0.76 V ; E S O2+ /SO2− = 2.01 V ,
for I2|I−. At pH = 3, permanganate is expected to oxidize 2 8 4
(a) The reduction potential of MnO 4− /| Mn2 + ,is more than that (c) Anode: Zn, Cathode: S2O2−
8
of Cl2/Cl−, Br2/Br− and I2/I−, so permagnate is expected to (d) Anode: H2, Cathode: O2
oxidize Cl−, Br− and I− beacuse Ecell
o > 0.o o
= Ecathode − Eanode = 0.77 −Solution
( −0.14 ) = 0.91 V
6. Consider the following Eo values, EFe o o (b) Since oxidation occurs at anode, the species with the high-
3+
/Fe2+ = 0.77 V and E Sn2+ /Sn = − 0.14 V
est oxidation potential would give a anodic product. As
o o
EFe 3+
/Fe2+ = 0.77 V and ESn 2+
/Sn = − 0.14 V. Under standard conditions the potential for reduction occurs at cathode, the species with the highest
3+ 2+
the reaction Sn(s) + 2Fe (aq) → 2Fe (aq) + Sn (aq) is 2+ reduction potential would give a cathodic product.
The competing reactions at the cathode are reduction
(a) 1.68 V (b) 0.63 V (c) 0.91 V (d) 1.40 V of Ni2+, Zn2+ and reduction of water, out of which Ni2+ has
Solution the maximum reduction potential, so the cathodic prod-
uct is Ni.
(c) At the cathode: Fe3+ + e − → Fe2 + Similarly, competing reactions at the anode are oxida-
2+ − tion of SO2−4 or oxidation of water, out of which oxidation
At the anode: Sn → Sn + 2e
potential is maximum for oxidation of water; so, the anodic
o o o product is O2 gas.
Ecell = Ecathode − Eanode = 0.77 − ( −0.14 ) = 0.91 V
9. At the standard state, a cell uses the half-cell reactions given
7. Consider the half reactions of a galvanic cell given below:
below:
MnO2 + H+ Mn2 + + 2H2O ; o
EMnO = 1.23 V
2 Al3+ (aq) + 3e − Al(s); EAl
o
3+
/Al = − 1.66 V
If the cell uses aluminium and copper metal electrodes, Electrochemical Series
which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Oxidation of Cu occurs at anode. 12. The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+/Ni, and
(b) Reduction of Al3+ occurs at cathode. Fe2+/Fe are −0.76 V, −0.23 V and −0.44 V, respectively. The
(c) The standard cell potential of the cell is 2.00 V. reaction X + Y2+ → X2+ + Y will be spontaneous when
(d) The mass of copper electrode decreases as electricity is (a) X = Ni, Y = Fe (b) X = Ni, Y = Zn
withdrawn. (c) X = Fe, Y = Zn (d) X = Zn, Y = Ni
(AIEEE 2012)
Solution Solution
(c) Aluminium’s reduction potential is negative but that (d) Looking at the standard reduction potentials, it is clear
of copper is positive, so Cu2+ will be reduced and Al is that Zn is the strongest reducing agent and Ni is the
oxidized in the cell reaction. The Al electrode will act as weakest reducing agent. So, Zn will displace both Ni and
anode and copper electrode will act as cathode. Since Al Fe. Fe will displace only Ni and not Zn as Zn is a stronger
is oxidized at anode, its mass will decrease on withdraw- reducing agent; while Ni will not displace either Zn or Fe
ing electricity from the cell. as it is the weakest reducing agent.
o
Ecell o
= Ecathode o
− Eanode = 0.34 − ( −1.66 ) = 2.00 V Zn + Fe2 + → Zn2 + + Fe
Fe + Ni2 + → Fe2 + + Ni
10. For the reaction
Zn + Ni2 + → Zn2 + + Ni
NiO2 (s) + Cl− (aq) + H+ (aq) → Cl2 (g) + Ni2 + (aq) + H2O , the
standard cell potential is 0.32 V. The value of ∆Go will be So the combination in option (d) is correct.
(a) −61.8 kJ (b) 61.8 J
13. Given below are the half-cell reactions
(c) −30.9 kJ (d) −123.6 kJ
Solution Mn2 + + 2e − → Mn; E o = − 1.18 V
(a) The balanced chemical equation is 2(Mn3+ + e − → Mn2+ ); E o = + 1.51 V
NiO2 (s) + 2Cl− (aq) + 4H+ (aq) → Cl2 (g) + Ni2 + (aq) + 2H2O The Eo for 3Mn2+ → Mn + 2Mn3+ will be
(a) −2.69 V; the reaction will not occur.
We know that ∆G o = − nFE o ; where n implies number of (b) −2.69 V; the reaction will occur.
electrons involved in the reaction, and F is 96500 C mol−1. (c) −0.33 V; the reaction will not occur.
Since NiO2 is converting from Ni4+ to Ni2+, two electrons (d) −0.33 V; the reaction will occur.
are involved per molecule of NiO2. Therefore, (JEE Main 2014)
∆G o = − 2 mol × 96500 Cmol−1 × 0.32 V Solution
6.18 × 10 4 (a) Mn2+ + 2e− → Mn; Eo = −1.18 V (1)
=− = − 61.8 kJ (C × V = J) [Mn3+ + e− → Mn2+] × 2; E° = +1.51 V (2)
1000
[Mn2+ → Mn3+ + e−] × 2; E° = −1.51 V (3)
11. A galvanic cell employs the following half reactions: Adding Eq. (1) and Eq. (3) , we get
Al3+ (aq) + 3e − Al(s); EAl
o
3+
/Al = − 1.66 V 3Mn2+ → Mn + 2Mn3+
= − 0.008 0.059 1
For pH = 5, Ecell = 0.14 − log −5 2 = − 0.16 V
2 (10 )
21. For the redox reaction:
o
Zn(s) + Cu2 + (0.1 M) → Zn2 + (1 M) + Cu(s) For standard state; Ecell = Ecell = 0.14 V
o
For pH = 2,
taking place in a cell, Ecell is 1.10 V. Ecell for the cell will be 0.059 1
[2.303 (RT/F) = 0.0591] Ecell = 0.14 − log −2 2 = 0.14 − 0.12 = 0.02 V
2 (10 )
(a) 2.14 V (b) 1.80 V (c) 1.07 V (d) 0.82 V
25. For the reaction
Solution
(c) According to Nernst equation, at STP we have I2 (s) + Cr2O72 − (aq) + H+ → IO3− (aq) + Cr 3+ (aq) + H2O; Ecell
o
= 0.135 V.
o 0.0591 [Zn2 + ] 0.0591 1 What is Ecell if [Cr2O72 − ] = 0.01 M , [H+ ] = 0.1 M, [IO3− ] = 0.0001 M
Ecell = Ecell − log 2 + = 1.1 − log = 1.07 V
n [Cu ] 2 0.1
and [Cr 3+ ] = 0.001 M ?
22. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the (a) 0.135 V (b) 0.115 V (c) 0.155 V (d) 0.215 V
standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The
Solution
equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25°C will be
(a) 1 × 10−10 (b) 29.5 × 10−2 (c) 10 (d) 1 × 1010 (c) The balanced form of cell reaction is
Solution 3I2 (s) + 5Cr2O72 − (aq) + 34H+ → 6IO3− (aq) + 10Cr 3+ (aq) + 17H2O
0.0591 −
[IO (aq)] [Cr (aq)]
o 6 3+ 10
(d) We know that Ecell = log K C . o 0.06
n Ecell = Ecell − × log 3 2 − 5 + 34
n [Cr2O7 (aq)] [H ]
Given that n = 2, so we have
2 × 0.295 The total number of electrons involved in the reaction
K C = antilog = 1 × 1010
0.0591 is 30. Substituting for n and concentrations of reactants
and products, we have
−4 6 −3 10
23. The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron change is 0.06 [10 ] [10 ]
found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant of the Ecell = 0.135 − × log −2 5 −1 34
30 [10 ] [10 ]
reaction is (F = 96,500 C mol−1, R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1)
(a) 1.0 × 101 (b) 1.0 × 1030 (c) 1.0 × 1010 (d) 1.0 × 105 0.06
= 0.135 − log(10 −10 )
30
Solution 0.06
o 0.0591 = 0.135 + × 10 = 0.155 V
(c) We have Ecell = log K C 30
n
1 × 0.591 Law of Electrolysis
So, log K C = = 10 ⇒ K C = 1 × 1010
0.0591
26. A current of 10.0 A flows for 2.00 h through an electrolytic
24. The reaction of tin metal with acid can be written as cell containing a molten salt of metal X. This results in the
decomposition of 0.250 mol of metal X at the cathode. The
Sn(s) + 2H+ (aq) Sn2 + (aq) + H2 (g); ESn
o
2+
/Sn = − 0.14 V oxidation state of X in the molten salt is: (F = 96,500 C)
(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4
Assume that [Sn2+ ] = 1 M and the partial pressure of hydro- (JEE Main Online 2014)
gen gas is 1 atm, then the Solution
(a) cell reaction is spontaneous at pH = 5. (c) From Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(b) cell reaction is non-spontaneous at standard conditions.
EIt
(c) cell reaction is spontaneous at pH = 2. w=
(d) cell reaction is spontaneous for all pH values. 96500
mIt m
Solution w= , E =
n factor × 96500 n
(c) Sn(s) + 2H+ (aq) Sn2 + (aq) + H2 (g) w It
=
Nernst equation for this cell reaction is m n factor × 96500
2+ 10 × 3600 × 2
o RT [Sn ] × pH2 n -factor = =3
Ecell = Ecell − ln 0.25 × 96500
nF [H+ ]2
Thus, oxidation state of metal is +3.
27. How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35 g of (d) One ampere current for a day would be required to
copper at the cathode during the electrolysis of an aqueous deposit minimum one mole of each metal.
solution of copper sulphate? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 u,
Solution
NA = Avogadro’s constant)
(c) In electrolytic cells, reduction of each metal takes place
NA NA NA NA on respective electrodes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 10 5 2
Fe2 + + 2e − → Fe and Cu2 + + 2e − → Cu
(JEE Main Online 2014)
Solution Since both the cells are connected in series, equal amount
(c) From the reaction of current passes through the cells. From the above reac-
Cu2+(aq) + 2e− Cu(s) tions, we find that each mole of iron and copper requires
2 F charge is required for 63.5 g two moles of electrons or 2 F current. So, in each cell,
For 6.35 g Cu = 0.2 F charge is required equal moles of metal will deposit at a particular time.
N Now considering inert metal electrodes used for
So, number of electron required = A electrons. the electrolysis, the electricity passed,
5
86400
Q = i × t = 1 × 24 × 60 × 60 = 86400 C = F = 0.9 F
28. Two faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of 96500
CuSO4. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is Since one mole of metal requires 2 F current, it will not
(atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u) deposit one mole of any metal.
(a) 63.5 g (b) 2 g (c) 127 g (d) 0 g
(JEE Main 2015) 32. What current would be required to deposit 1.00 m2 of chrome
Solution plate having a thickness of 0.052 mm in 4.5 h from a solution
of H2CrO4? The current efficiency is 74% and density of chro-
(a) According to Faraday’s law of electrolysis and according
mium is 7.19 g cm−3. [Atomic mass of Cr = 52 u.]
to the reaction,
(a) 347 A (b) 185 A (c) 125 A (d) 0.25 A
Cu2 + + 2e − → Cu
Solution
2 F will deposit 63.5 g of Cu.
(a) We know that
29. When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3, 9650 C of Mass of Cr deposited = Volume × Density
charge passes through the electroplating bath, the mass of
silver deposited on the cathode will be = (1 × 10 4 cm2 × 0.052 × 10 −1 cm) × 7.19 g cm−3
(a) 1.08 g (b) 10.8 g (c) 21.6 g (d) 108 g = 52 × 7.19 g
Solution Oxidation state of Cr in H2CrO4 = +6 ⇒ Cr 6 + + 6e − → Cr
Therefore, 1 mol or 52 g of Cr is reduced by 6 mol elec-
(b) 1 F of charge is required to deposit 108 g of silver.
trons or 6 F charge. Hence,
96500 C of charge is required to deposit 108 g of silver.
108 6F
9650 C will deposit × 9650 = 10.8 g silver. 52 × 7.19 g would be deposited by × 52 × 7.19 C
96500 52
1 l 1 l l −1 lC = l ∞− B C .
k = ⇒ 1.29 = ⇒ = 129 m
R a 100 a a
When R = 520 Ω, C = 0.2 M we have
Kohlraush’s Law
0 0
38. The molar conductivities ΛNaOAc and ΛHCl at infinite dilution
1 l 1 in water at 25°C are 91.0 and 426.2 S cm2 mol−1, respectively.
k = = (129 ) Sm−1
R a 520 0
To calculate ΛHOAc , the additional value required is
0 0 0 0
(a) ΛH2 O (b) ΛKCl (c) ΛNaOH (d) ΛNaCl
Now, molar conductivity (Λm) is Λ m = k × V where V is in
(AIEEE 2006)
cm3. If M is concentration of solution in mol L−1, then
Solution
1000 1 1000 (d) According to Kohlrausch’s law,
Λm = k × = × 129 × × 10 −6
M 520 0.2
Λ 0CH3 COONa = l 0CH COO − + l Na
0
+ (1)
. × 10 −3 = 12.4 × 10 −4 S m2 mol−1
= 124 0
3
ΛHCl = l H0 + + l Cl
0
− (2)
35. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The spe-
0 0 0
cific conductance of the solution is 1.4 S m−1. The resistance ΛNaCl = l Na ++ l
Cl− (3)
of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar Adding Eqs. (1) and (2) and subtracting Eq. (3) from the
conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol−1 is sum, we get
(a) 5 × 10−4 (b) 5 × 10−3 (c) 5 × 103 (d) 5 × 102
(JEE Main 2014) Λ 0CH3 COOH = l 0CH COO − + l H0 + = Λ 0CH3 COONa + ΛHCl
0 0
− ΛNaCl
3
Solution
39. The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at
(a) Given that specific conductance of 0.2 M solution,
infinite dilution in H2O (where ions move freely through a
k = 1.4 S m−1 = 1.4 × 10 −2 S cm−1 solution) at 25°C are Λ CH3 COONa = 91.0 Scm2equiv −1 and
We know that 0
ΛHCl = 426.2 Scm2 equiv −1. What additional information/
0
1 1 l l quantity is needed to calculate Λ m of an aqueous solution
k = = × ⇒ = 1.4 × 10 −2 × 50 = 0.7 cm−1
r R A A of acetic acid?
0
(a) Λ m of chloroacetic acid (CICH2COOH)
For 0.5 M solution, 0
(b) Λ m of NaCl
1 l 1
k = × = × 0.7 = 2.5 × 10 −3 S cm−1 0
(c) Λ m of CH3COOK
R A 280
(d) The limiting equivalent conductance of H+ ( l H0 + )
and its molar conductivity is
1000 × k 1000 × 2.5 × 10 −3 (AIEEE 2007)
Λm = = = 5 S cm2 mol−1 Solution
M 0.5
(b) According to Kohlrausch’s law equivalent conductance
= 5 × 10 −4 S m2 mol−1
of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution cannot be deter-
36. The highest electrical conductivity among the following mined experimentally therefore it is calculated by indi-
aqueous solutions is of rect method where we can use equivalent conductance
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid. of three strong electrolytes as given by the following
(b) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid. expression
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid. Λ 0CH3 COOH = Λ CH
0 0
+ ΛHCl 0
− ΛNaCl
3 COONa
(d) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid.
Solution 40. The limiting molar conductivities Λ0 for NaCl, KBr and KCl are
(d) This is because the electrical conductivity depends on 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol−1, respectively. The Λ0 for NaBr is
the strength of the acid, and difluoroacetic acid is the (a) 128 S cm2 mol−1 (b) 302 S cm2 mol−1
2
(c) 278 S cm mol −1 (d) 176 S cm2 mol−1
strongest among these.
Solution o
(a) Eox will increase by a factor of 0.65 from Eox .
Suppose solubility of AgBr in presence of 10−7 M AgNO3 solu- o
tion is S. Then the reactions involved are (b) Eox will decrease by a factor of 0.65 from Eox .
o
(c) Ered will increase by a factor of 0.65 from Eox .
AgBr → Ag+ + Br −
o
S S (d) Ered will decrease by a factor of 0.65 from Eox .
AgNO3 → Ag+ + NO3− Solution
10 −7 M 10 −7 M
(c) On increasing the concentration of NH3, the concentra-
The concentration terms [Ag+] = [S + 10−3] and [Br−] = S. Now, tion of H+ ions decreases. Therefore, Ered increases.
Ksp = [Ag+][Br−], substituting values, we get
2c. Ammonia is always added in this reaction. Which of the fol-
12 × 10 −14 = ( S + 10 −7 )S ⇒ S 2 + 10 −7 S − 12 × 10 −14 = 0 lowing must be incorrect?
which is quadratic in S, solving and ignoring negative root, (a) NH3 will combines with Ag+ to form a complex.
we get (b) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+ is a stronger oxidizing reagent than Ag+.
(c) In absence of NH3, silver salt of gluconic acid is formed.
−10 −7 ± 10 −14 + 4 × 12 × 10 −14 (d) NH3 affects the standard reduction potential of glucose/
S=
2 gluconic acid electrode.
−10 −7 + 7 × 10 −7
= = 3 × 10 −7 M Solution
2
(d) It is clear from the reaction that NH3 combines with Ag to
In the solution, we have [Ag+] = S + 10−7 = 3 × 10−7 + 10−7 give [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+. Also, the value of Ered
o
of Ag+ is greater
= 4 × 10−7 M; [Br−] = S = 3 × 10−7 M; [NO3− ] = 10 −7 M . +
than [Ag(NH3 )2 ] , which means it is a stronger oxidizing
Now, specific conductance is
k = k Ag+ + k Br − + k NO − agent than Ag+, and in absence of ammonia, silver salt of
3 gluconic acid is formed.
= l (0Ag+ ) × C( Ag+ ) + l (0Br − ) × C(Br − ) + l (0NO − ) × C(NO − )
3 3 3. Read the passage below and answer the questions that
= (6 × 10 −3 × 4 × 10 −7 + 8 × 10 −3 × 3 × 10 −7 + 7 × 10 −3 × 10 −7 ) follow.
Redox reactions play a pivotal role in chemistry and biol-
× 10 −3 Sm−1 ogy. The values of standard redox potential (Eo) of two half-cell
= 55 × 10 −7 Sm−1 reactions decide which way the reaction is expected to pro-
ceed. A simple example is a Daniel cell in which zinc goes into
2. Read the paragraph below and answer the questions that solution and copper gets deposited. Given below are a set of
follow. half-cell reactions (acidic medium) along with their Eo (V) with
Tollens’ reagent is used for the detection of aldehyde. respect to normal hydrogen electrode) values. Using this data
When a solution of AgNO3 is added to glucose with NH4OH obtain the correct explanations to Questions 3a to 3c.
then gluconic acid is formed. I2 + 2e − → 2I− E o = 0.54
Ag+ + e − → Ag; EAg
o Cl2 + 2e − → 2Cl− E o = 1.36
+
/Ag = 0.8 V
3b. While Fe3+ is stable, Mn3+ is not stable in acid solution Solution
because (d) Na−Hg (amalgam) formed at the cathode = 2 mol
(a) O2 oxidizes Mn2 + to Mn3+. = (200 + 23) × 2 = 446 g.
(b) O2 oxidizes both Mn2 + to Mn3+ and Fe 2 + to Fe3+ . 4c. The total charge required for complete electrolysis is
(c) Fe3+ oxidizes H2O to O2. (a) 24125 C (b) 48250 C
(c) 96500 C (d) 193000 C
(d) Mn3+ oxidizes H2O to O2.
Solution
Solution
(d) 2 mol of electrons are required or 2F of charge is required
(d) Reaction of Mn3+ with H2O is spontaneous.
+ − o
for complete electrolysis. Now 1 F = 96500 C. So, 2 F =
At the anode: O2 + 4H + 4e → 2H2O; E = 123
. V 96500 × 2 = 193000 C.
At the cathode: Mn3+ + e − → Mn2 + ; E o = 15
. 0V
5. Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl solution was carried out
o o o by passing 10 milliampere current. The time required to liber-
Ecell = Ecathode − Eanode = 15
. 0 − 123
. = 0.27 V
ate 0.01 mol of H2 gas at the cathode is (1 Faraday constant =
Since Ecell is positive, the reaction is spontaneous because 96500 C mol−1)
Gibbs energy is negative = −nFEcell. (a) 9.65 × 104 s (b) 19.3 × 104 s
3c. Sodium fusion extract, obtained from aniline, on treatment (c) 28.95 × 104 s (d) 38.6 × 104 s
with iron(II) sulphate and H2SO4 in presence of air gives a prus- (IIT-JEE 2008)
sian blue precipitate. The blue colour is due to the formation of Solution
(a) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (b) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 (b) We know that
(c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2 (d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3 (1)
Q = I × t = 10 × 10 −3 × t
Solution
(a) The reactions involved are as follows: In the reaction 2H2O + 2e − → H2 + 2OH− to liberate 0.01
mol of H2, 0.02 F charge is required. The charge Q = 0.02
Na + C + N → NaCN × 96500 C. Substituting in Eq. (1), we get
6NaCN + FeSO 4 → Na4 [Fe(CN)6 ] + Na2SO 4
0.02 × 96500 C = 10 −2 × t ⇒ t = 19.3 × 10 4 s
Na4 [Fe(CN)6 ] + Fe3+ → Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3
Ferric ferrocyanide 6. For the reduction of NO3− ion in an aqueous solution, Eo is
+0.96 V. Values of Eo for some metal ions are given below:
4. Read the passage below and answer the questions that
follow. V2+(aq) + 2e− → V Eo = −1.19 V
Chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and mol-
Fe3+(aq) + 3e− → Fe Eo = −0.04 V
ecules. A large number of atoms/molecules (approximately
6.023 × 1023) are present in a few grams of any chemical Au3+(aq) + 3e− → Au Eo = +1.40 V
compound varying with their atomic/molecular masses. To Hg2+(aq) + 2e− → Hg Eo = +0.86 V
handle such large numbers conveniently, the mole concept
was introduced. This concept has implications in diverse areas The pair(s) of metals that is (are) oxidized by NO3− in aqueous
such as analytical chemistry, biochemistry, electrochemistry solution is (are)
and radiochemistry. The following example illustrates a typi- (a) V and Hg (b) Hg and Fe
cal case, involving chemical/electrochemical reaction, which (c) Fe and Au (d) Fe and V
requires a clear understanding of the mole concept. (IIT-JEE 2009)
A 4.0 molar aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared and 500 Solution
mL of this solution is electrolyzed. This leads to the evolution o
(a) , (b), (d) ENO − = 0.96 V and V, Fe, Hg have low value of
of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes (Atomic mass: Na = 23, standard reduction potential with respect to NO3− . So, V, Fe,
3
+ Solving, we get
of which [H+] becomes constant and [(C2H5 )3 NH]
o o 0.11
increases. 3EFe 3+
/Fe = − 0.11 ⇒ EFe3+ /Fe = − = − 0.036 V ≈ −0.04 V
3
For Q: KI (0.1 M) + AgNO3 (0.01 M) → AgI + KNO3
For Q: The half reactions and net reactions are as follows:
X Y
Initially, only Ag+ is replaced by K+, so the number of
2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4 e − E o = − 1.23 V
ions in the solution remain constant till all of AgNO3 pre-
cipitated as AgI. After this precipitation, conductance 4 e − + O2 + 2H2O → OH− E o = 0.40 V
increases due to increases in number of ions.
4H2O → 4H+ + 4 OH− E o = ?
For R: CH3COOH + KOH → CH3COOK + H2O
X Y For the overall reaction, E o = − 1.23 + 0.40 = − 0.83 V
Initially conductance decreases due to replacement of For R: The half reactions and net reactions are as follows:
OH− by CH3COO− and then slowly increases due to the
increases in number of H+ ions. Cu2 + + 2e − → Cu E o = + 0.34 V
For S: NaOH + HI → NaI + H2O 2Cu → Cu+ + 2e − E o = − 0.52 V
X Y
Initially, conductance decreases due to replacement of Cu2 + + Cu → 2Cu+ E o = ?
H+ ions by Na+ and then increases due to the increase in
For the overall reaction, E o = 0.34 − 0.52 = − 0.18 V
OH− ions.
For S: The half reactions and net reactions are as follows:
11. The standard reduction potential data at 25°C is given
below. Cr 3+ + 3e − → Cr
Eo(Fe3+, Fe2+) = + 0.77 V; Eo(Fe2+, Fe) = − 0.44 V Cr → Cr 2 + + 2e −
Eo(Cu2+, Cu) = + 0.34 V; Eo(Cu+, Cu) = + 0.52 V
Eo[O2(g) + 4H+ + 4e− → 2H2O] = + 1.23 V; Cr 3+ + e − → Cr 2+
Eo[O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e− → 4OH−] = + 0.40 V
Eo(Cr3+, Cr) = – 0.74 V; Eo(Cr2+, Cr) = – 0.91 V For the overall reaction,
Match Eo of the redox pair in Column I with the values given ∆G3o = ∆G1o + ∆G2o
in Column II and select the correct answer using the code o
−1F × ECr 3+
/Cr 2+ = 3 F × 0.74 − 2 F × 0.91
given below the lists.
Column I Column II o
Solving, we get ECr3+ /Cr2+ = − 0.4 V
P. Eo (Fe3+, Fe) 1. −0.18 V
+ −
12. In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge
Q. Eo ( 4H2O 4H + 4 OH ) 2. −0.4 V
(a) does not participate chemically in the cell reaction.
R. Eo(Cu2+ + Cu → 2Cu+) 3. −0.04 V (b) stops the diffusion of ions from one electrode to another.
S. Eo(Cr3+, Cr2+) 4. −0.83 V (c) is necessary for the occurrence of the cell reaction.
(d) ensures mixing of the two electrolytic solutions.
Codes: (JEE Advanced 2014)
Solution
P Q R S
(a), (b) The salt bridge contains neutral electrolyte and hence
(a) 4 1 2 3
does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) 2 3 4 1
13. Copper is purified by electrolytic refining of blister copper.
(c) 1 2 3 4 The correct statement(s) about this process is (are)
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) Impure Cu strip is used as cathode.
(JEE Advanced 2014) (b) Acidified aqueous CuSO4 is used as electrolyte.
Solution (c) Pure Cu deposits at cathode.
(d) For P: The half reactions and net reactions are as follows: (d) Impurities settle as anode mud.
Fe3+ + e − → Fe2 + (JEE Advanced 2015)
Fe2 + + 2e − → Fe Solution
(b), (c), (d) In electrolytic refining of blister copper acidified
Fe3+ + 3e − → Fe
aq. CuSO4 act as an electrolyte. At the anode, oxidation of
For the overall reaction, impure copper strip takes place and impurities get settled as
∆G3o = ∆G1o + ∆G2o anode mud.
o
−3 F × EFe 3+
/Fe = − 1 F × 0.77 − 2 F × ( −0.44 )
Cu(s) → Cu2+ (aq) + 2e−
Taking negative log of both the sides of Eq. (1), we get In+ → In3+ + 2e − ∆G3o = − 2 × 0.42 = − 0.84 F
o
reaction in form of a cell. Calculate Ecell and find
2+ 2+
o 2 .303 RT [ Zn ] o 2 .303 RT [ Zn ] log K of AgCl.
E2 − E1 = E1 − log 2 + − E1 + log 2 + 10 sp
2F [Cu ]2 2F [Cu ]1 (b) 6.539 × 10−2 g of metallic Zn (atomic mass = 65.39) was
2.303RT [Zn2 + ] [Zn2 + ] added to 100 mL of saturated solution of AgCl, calculate
= log 2 + − log 2 + 2+
2F [Cu ]1 [Cu ]2 log10 [Zn ] . Given that
2.303RT [Zn2 + ] [Cu2 + ]2 2.303RT [Cu2 + ]2 [Ag+ ]2
= log × = log
2F [Cu2 + ]1 [Zn2 + ] 2F [Cu2 + ]1 Ag+ + e − → Ag o
Ecell = 0.80 V
Solution
(a) 100.32/0.0591 (b) 100.32/0.0295
(a) The cell reactions are
(c) 100.26/0.0295 (d) e 0.32 / 0.295
+ 1 −
Ag + Cl → AgCl
2 Solution
Ag → Ag + e − +
(b) Consider the reaction Zn + Fe2 + → Zn2 + + Fe
1 − −
Cl
2 2
+ e → Cl o 0.0591
E = Ecell − log K C
The net reaction is Ag+ (aq) + Cl− (aq) → AgCl(s). n
The cell representation is Ag|Ag+ |AgCl|| Cl− |Cl2 , Pt. o
0.2905 = Ecell
0.0591
−
0.1
log
2 0.01
ΔGo = −109 − (−129 + 77) = −109 + 129 − 77 = −57
= −1 × F × Eo o
Solving, we get Ecell = 0.2905 + 0.02905 = 0.32.
o 57000
Therefore, Ecell = = 0.59 V 0.0591 0.0591
96500 o
Now, Ecell = log K C ⇒ 0.32 = log K C
o
Now, ΔG = −2.303 RT log K. So, we have n 2
57 × 1000
logK = = 9.98 ≈ 10 ⇒ K = 1010 Solving, we get K C = 100.32 / 0.0295.
2.303 × 8.314 × 298
20. From the following data
But, Ksp = 1/K, so Ksp = 10−10 ⇒ log Ksp = −10.
The solubility, S is calculated as follows. 2H+ (aq) + 21 O2 (g) + 2e − → H2O(l) Ecell
o
= 1.23 V
Ksp = S2 ⇒ S = (10−10)1/2 = 10−5 mol L−1
Fe2 + (aq) + 2e − → Fe(s) Ecell
o
= − 0.44 V
(b) Adding the following reactions
show that ∆Go for
2Ag+ + 2e − → 2Ag EAg
o
/ Ag = 0.80 V
2Fe(s) + 4H+ (aq) + O2 (g) → 2Fe2 + (aq) + 2H2O(l) is
+
2+ − o
Zn → Zn + 2e EZn = + 0.76 V
/ Zn2+ (a) −322.3 kJ mol−1 (b) −483.5 kJ mol−1
we get (c) −644.6 kJ mol−1 (d) 644.6 kJ mol−1
2Ag+ + Zn2 + → 2Ag + Zn Ecell
o
= 0.80 + 0.76 = 1.56 V Solution
+
2Ag + Zn 2+
→ 2Ag + Zn o
Ecell = 0.80 + 0.76 = 1.56 V (c) The reactions involved are
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 8. How many coulombs of electric current would be needed to
reduce the aluminium in 1.0 mol of Al2(SO4)3 to aluminum
Single Correct Choice Type metal?
1. What mass of Cu could be plated out by electrolyzing aqueous (a) 2.89 × 10 4 C (b) 3.58 × 10 4 C
CuSO4 for 12 hours at 2.0 amperes? (c) 5.79 × 105 C (d) 7.02 × 105 C
(a) 58 g (b) 28 g (c) 120 g (d) 430 g
9. The specific conductance of a saturated AgCl solution is
2. The standard electrode potential of OX−/X− and X−/X2, respec- found to be 1.86 × 10−6 S cm−1 and that for water is 6.0 × 10−8
tively, is 0.94 V and −1.36 V. The Eo value for OX−/X2 will be S cm−1. The solubility of AgCl is (Λ oeq = 137.2 S equivalent−1
(a) −0.42 V (b) +0.42 V (c) 0.21 V (d) −1.04 V cm2)
(a) 1.7 × 10−3 mol L−1 (b) 1.3 × 10−5 mol L−1
−4 −1 (d) 1.3 × 10−6 mol L−1
3. By how much would the oxidizing power of the (MnO 4− | Mn2 + ) (c) 1.3 × 10 mol L
couple change if the H+ ions concentration is decreased 100
10. In passing 3 F of electricity through the three electrolytic
times at 25°C?
cells connected in series containing Ag+ , Ca2+ , and Al+3 ions,
(a) It will increase by 189 mV.
respectively. The molar ratio in which the three metal ions
(b) It will decrease by 189 mV.
are liberated at the electrodes is
(c) It will increase by 19 mV.
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 3:2:1 (c) 6:3:2 (d) 3:4:2
(d) It will decrease by 19 mV.
11. The standard potentials at 25°C for the following half-cell
4. Calculate the electrode potential of copper, if the concentra- reactions are given as
o
tion of CuSO4 is 0.206 M at 23.1°C. Given that ECu2+
/ Cu = +0.34 V.
(a) 0.50 V (b) 0.41 V Zn+2 + 2e − → Zn Ecell
o
= − 0.762 V
(c) 0.32 V (d) 0.28 V Mg2 + + 2e − → Mg Ecell
o
= − 2.37 V
5. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to the When zinc dust is added to a solution of magnesium
(a) atomic number of cation. chloride,
(b) atomic number of anion. (a) no reaction will take place.
(c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte. (b) zinc chloride is formed.
(d) speed of the cation. (c) zinc dissolves in solution.
6. Which of the following statements is correct? (d) magnesium is precipitated.
Galvanic cell converts 12. Passage of three faraday of charge through aqueous solution
(a) chemical energy into electrical energy. of AgNO3, CuSO4, Al(NO3)3 and NaCl will deposit metals at
(b) electrical energy into chemical energy. the cathode in the molar ratio of
(c) metal from its elemental state to the combined state. (a) 1:2:3:1 (b) 6:3:2:6 (c) 6:3:0:0 (d) 3:2:1:0
(d) electrolyte into individual ions.
13. Conductivity (units Siemens, S) is directly proportional to the
7. If the molar conductance values of Ca2+ and Cl− at infinite area of the vessel and the concentration of the solution in it
dilution are, respectively,118.88 × 10−4 and 77.33 × 10−4 S m2 and is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel, then
mol−1, then that of CaCl2 is (Sm2 mol−1) the unit of constant of proportionality is
(a) 118.88 × 10−4 (b) 154.66 × 10−4 (a) S m mol−1 (b) S m2 mol−1
(c) 273 × 10−4 (d) 196.21 × 10−4 (c) S−2 m2 mol (d) S2 m2 mol−2
14. A current of 9.65 A is drawn from a Daniell cell for exactly 1 h. 25. In the electrochemical cell
The loss in mass at anode and gain in mass at cathode, respec- H2 (g) 1 atm | H+ (1 M) || Cu2 + (1 M) | Cu(s) ,
tively, are which one of the following statements is true?
(a) 11.43 g, 11.77 g (b) 11.77 g, 11.43 g (a) H2 is anode, Cu is cathode.
(c) 22.86 g, 23.54 g (d) 23.54, 22.86 g (b) Cu is anode, H2 is cathode
15. According to Faraday’s law of electrolysis, the mass deposited (c) Oxidation occurs at Cu electrode.
on an electrode is proportional to (d) Reduction occurs at H2 electrode.
(a) m ∝ Q (b) m ∝ Q2 26. The compound exhibiting maximum value of equivalent con-
(c) m ∝ I 2 (d) Both (b) and (c) ductance in a fused state is
16. If the hydrogen electrodes in two solutions of pH = 3 and pH (a) SrCl2 (b) CaCl2 (c) MgCl2 (d) BeCl2
= 6 are connected by a salt bridge, the emf of the resulting 27. How many seconds would it take a 10.0 A current to produce
cell is enough aluminium from Al3+ to make a 27.0 g aluminium
(a) 0.177 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.052 V (d) 0.104 V can?
4 3
(a) 2.89 × 10 (b) 9.65 × 10
17. Standard electrode potential of standard hydrogen electrode
(c) 3.22 × 10 3
(d) 9.65 × 10 4
(SHE) at 298 K is
(a) 0.05 V (b) 0.10 V (c) 0.50 V (d) 0.00 V 28. If 0.3605 g of a metal is deposited on the electrode by pass-
ing 1.2 A current for 15 min through its salt, what will be its
18. Calculate the minimum voltage required to bring about the
valence? (Atomic weight of the metal is 96.)
electrolysis of 1 M copper sulphate solution at 25°C. Given
o o (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
that ECu 2+
/Cu = 0.34 V and EH2 O/H+ = − 1.23 V .
(a) 0.25 V (b) 0.56 V 29. Units of ionic mobility are
(c) 0.89 V (d) 0.42 V (a) m V−1 s−1 (b) m2 V−2 s−1
(c) m2 V−1 s−1 (d) m−2 V s−1
19. Find the value of equilibrium constant for the reaction,
2Fe3+ + I3 − 2Fe2 + + I− . The standard reduction poten- 30. Value of EHo2 O/H2 (1 atm) at 298 K would be
tials in acidic conditions are 0.77 V and 0.54 V, respectively, for (a) −0.207 V (b) +0.207 V (c) −0.414 V (d) +0.414 V
Fe3+ | Fe2 + and I− | I3 − couples
(a) 5.2 × 108 (b) 6.26 × 107 31. Which one of the following metals cannot be obtained on
(c) 3.8 × 109 (d) 4.3 × 1010 electrolysis of aqueous solution of its salts?
(a) Mg (b) Ag (c) Cu (d) Cr
20. Determine the concentration of Cd2+ ions in the following
electrochemical cell: 32. The E° for half cells Fe/Fe2+ and Cu/Cu2+ are –0.44 V and +0.32 V,
respectively. Then
Fe|Fe2+ (0.1M)||Cd2+ (xM)|Cd (a) Cu2+ oxidizes Fe. (b) Cu oxidizes Fe2+.
Given that Ecell = −0.02 V and Eo = 0.04 V at 298 K. (c) Cu reduces Fe2+. (d) Cu2+ oxidizes Fe2+.
(a) 7.4 × 10−4 M (b) 8.2 × 10−4 M 33. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298 K is
−4
(c) 5.6 × 10 M (d) 9.3 × 10−4 M expressed as x × 10y.
21. In an electrolysis of acidulated water, 4.48 L of hydrogen was 2Fe3+ + 2I− → 2Fe2 + + I2 , Ecell
o
= 0.235 V
produced by passing a current of 2.14 A. For how many hours The value of y is ___.
was the current passed? (a) 2 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 6
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 5
34. Calculate the concentration of NiCl2 in the nickel elec-
22. Specific conductance of 0.01 M KCl solution is x S cm–1. When trode having potential of −0.16942 V at 24.9°C. Given that
o
conductivity cell is filled with 0.01 M KCl the conductance ENi2+
/ Ni = −0.14 V.
observed is y S. When the same cell is filled with 0.01 M H2SO4, (a) 0.152 V (b) 0.1011 M
the observed conductance is z S cm–1. Hence specific con- (c) 0.213 V (d) 0.201 M
ductance of 0.01 M H2SO4 is
(a) xz (b) z/xy (c) xz/y (d) xy/z 35. One coulomb of charge passes through solution of AgNO3
and CuSO4 connected in series and the concentration of the
23. The same amount of electricity was passed through two sepa- two solutions being in the ratio 1:2. The ratio of weight of Ag
rate electrolytic cells containing solutions of nickel nitrate and and Cu deposited on Pt electrode is
chromium nitrate, respectively. If 0.3 g of nickel was depos- (a) 107.9:63.54 (b) 54:31.77
ited in the first cell, the amount of chromium deposited is (c) 107.9:31.77 (d) 54:63.54
(Atomic weight Ni = 59 u, Cr = 52 u)
(a) 0.1 g (b) 0.17 g (c) 0.3 g (d) 0.6 g 36. For HCl solution at 25°C, the equivalent conductivity at infinite
dilution is 425 S cm−1 equiv.−1 The specific conductance of a
24. How many faradays are required to reduce 1 mol of BrO3− to solution of HCl is 3.825 S cm−1. If the apparent degree of dis-
Br−? sociation is 90%, the normality of solution is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4 (a) 0.9 (b) 10.00 (c) 1.1 (d) 1.2
37. Consider the following electrolytes: (i) AgNO3; (ii) CuSO4; concentration of anodic solution reduced to 0.0005124
(iii) AlCl3; (iv) Bi2(SO4)3. The quantity of electricity needed to equiv. The weight of Cu deposited was 0.03879 g. Calculate
electrolyze separately 1 M solutions of these electrolytes will the transport numbers of Ag+ and NO3− in AgNO3 solution.
be (F is faraday) (a) 0.4214, 0.5786 (b) 0.3256, 0.4568
(a) 1 F, 2 F, 3 F, 6 F (b) 2 F, 3 F, 6 F, 1 F (c) 0.4589, 0.6021 (d) 0.3562, 0.7526
(c) 3 F, 6 F, 2 F, 1 F (d) 6 F, 3 F, 2 F, 1 F
48. The same quantity of electricity that liberates 4.316 g of sil-
38. From the following molar conductivities at infinite dilution, ver from AgNO3 solution was passed through a solution of
Λm0
for Ba(OH)2 = 457 Scm2 mol−1, Λ m 0
for BaCl2 = 240.6 Scm2 mol−1 gold salt. If the atomic weight of gold be 197 and its valency
in the above-mentioned salt be 3. Calculate the weight of
0
Λm for BaCl2 = 240.6 Scm2 mol−1 and Λ m 0
for NH4 Cl = 2129.8 Scm2 mol−1,. calcu-
gold deposited at the cathode and the quantity of electricity
0
late Λ m for NH4 OH. passed.
2 −1 2 −1 (a) 4021.5 C (b) 5023.3 C
(a) 2056 Scm mol (b) 2238 Scm mol
2 −1 2 −1 (c) 6213.5 C (d) 3854.1 C
(c) 2536 Scm mol (c) 2698 Scm mol
49. The standard reduction potential of Cu2+/Cu is +0.34 V.
2+ 3+
39. Emf of the cell Ni|Ni (0.1M)|| Au (1.0 M)| Au will be Calculate the reduction potential at pH = 14 for the
o o above couple in a saturated solution of cupric hydroxide.
2+ = 0.25 V , E
(Given ENi/Ni Au/Au3+ = 1.5 V) Ksp (Cu(OH)2) = 1 × 10−19 M3.
(a) 1.75 V (b) +1.7795 V (a) −1.06 V (b) −0.22 V (c) −1.25 V (d) −0.39 V
(c) +0.7795 V (d) −1.7795 V
50. How many grams of Cl2 are produced when molten NaCl
40. Which of the following is displaced by Fe? undergoes electrolysis at a current of 4.25 A for 35.0 min?
(a) Ag (b) Zn (a) 5.21 g (b) 2.51 g (c) 3.28 g (d) 4.09 g
(c) Na (d) All of these
41. The density of Cu is 8.94 g cm−3. The quantity of electricity Level II
needed to plate an area of 10 cm × 10 cm to a thickness of
Multiple Correct Choice Type
10−2 cm using CuSO4 solution would be
(a) 13586 C (b) 27172 C (c) 40758 C (d) 20348 C 51. Lead storage battery contains
(a) Lead rod as anode.
42. The element which can displace three other halogens from
(b) Lead rod as cathode.
their compounds is
(c) Lead plates coated with PbO2 act as cathode.
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
(d) H2SO4 as the electrolyte.
43. The conductivity of a strong electrolyte
52. Which of the following statements is (are) correct?
(a) increases on dilution slightly.
(a) The reactivity of metals decreases in going down the
(b) decreases on dilution.
electrochemical series.
(c) does not change with dilution.
(b) A metal can displace any other metal placed above it in
(d) depends upon density of electrolytes itself.
the electrochemical series from its salt solution.
44. When current of 5 A is passed through a solution of zinc sul- (c) The oxidizing power of the substances decrease from
phate for 40 min, the amount of zinc deposited at the cath- the top to the bottom in the electrochemical series.
ode is (d) A redox reaction is feasible when the substance having
(a) 4.065 g (b) 8.065 g higher reduction potential gets reduced and the one
(c) 16.065 g (d) 32.065 g having lower reduction potential gets oxidized.
45. An alloy of Pb–Ag weighing 1.08 g was dissolved in dilute 53. Which are true for a standard hydrogen electrode?
HNO3 and the volume made to 100 mL. A silver electrode (a) The hydrogen ion concentration is 1 M.
was dipped in the solution and the emf of the cell setup as (b) Temperature is 25°C.
(c) Pressure of hydrogen is 1 atm.
Pt(s), H2 (g)| H+ (1 M)|| Ag+ (aq)|Ag(s)
(d) It contains a metallic conductor which does not adsorb
o
was 0.62 V. If Ecell is 0.80 V, what is the percentage of Ag in the hydrogen.
alloy? (At 25°C, RT/F = 0.06) 54. Hydrogen gas will reduce
(a) 25 (b) 2.50 (c) 10 (d) 50 (a) heated cupric oxide.
46. Molar conductances of BaCl2, H2SO4, and HCl at infinite dilu- (b) heated silver oxide.
tions are x1, x2, and x3, respectively, equivalent conductance (c) heated zinc oxide.
of BaSO4 at infinite dilution will be (d) heated aluminum oxide.
(a) (x1 + x2 − x3)/2 (b) x1 + x2 − 2x3
(c) (x1 − x2 − x3)/2 (d) (x1 + x2 − 2x3)/2 55. For the cell Tl | Tl+ (0.001 M)|| Cu2 + (0.1 M)| Cu,. given that Ecell is
0.83 V. Then can be increased by
47. A decinormal solution of AgNO3 was electrolyzed between (a) increasing [Cu2+]. (b) increasing [Tl+].
Pt electrodes. After passing a small current for two hours, (c) decreasing [Cu ]. 2+ (d) decreasing [Tl+].
67. Match the electrode with its naming convention. Integer Type
Column I Column II 69. Suppose 0.25 mol of propane is subjected to combustion.
If this reaction is used for making a fuel cell, the number of
(a) Electrode on which oxidation occurs (p) Anode
moles of electrons involved in each half cell for this amount
(b) Electrode on which reduction (q) Cathode of propane will be ___.
occurs
70. The number of faraday of electricity required to deposit 81 g
(c) Electrode connected to negative (r) Negative pole of Al from electrolysis of AlCl3 is ___.
pole of the battery
(d) Electrode connected to the positive (s) Positive pole 71. In an electrolysis of acidulated water, 4.48 L of hydrogen was
pole of the battery produced by passing a current of 2.14 A for ____.
72. Three litres of 0.5 M K2Cr2O7 solution have to be completely
68. Match the quantity with the units. reduced in the acidic medium. The number of faraday of
electricity required will be ___.
Column I Column II
73. At equimolar concentration of Fe2+ and Fe3+ what must
(a) Conductance (p) S m2 mol−1
[Ag+] be so that the voltage of the galvanic cell made from
(b) Conductivity (q) S m−1 Ag+/Ag and Fe3+/Fe2+ electrodes equals zero? The reaction
(c) Molar conductance (r) m−1 is Fe2 + + Ag+ Fe3+ + Ag. Determine the equilibrium con-
o
(d) Cell constant (s) S stant at 25°C for the reaction. Given: EAg +
/Ag = 7.99 V and
o
EFe+ /Fe2+ = 0.771V.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
Single Correct Choice Type
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (a)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d)
49. (b) 50. (c)
Level II
51. (a), (c), (d) 52. (a), (d) 53. (a), (b), (c) 54. (a), (b) 55. (a), (d) 56. (a), (b), (c)
57. (a), (c) 58. (a), (d) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (b)
63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) → p; (b) → q; (c) → r; (d)→ r, s
67. (a) → p, r; (b) → q, s; (c) → q; (d) → p 68. (a) → s; (b) → q; (c) → p; (d) → r 69. (5) 70. (9)
71. (5) 72. (9) 73. (3)
2. (a) o
Ecell o
= Ecathode o
− Eanode = 0.96 − 1.36 = − 0.42 V W
10. (c) Faraday’s second law states that = constant
E
3. (b) The reaction involved is On passing equal amount of charge from three electro-
MnO 4− + 5e − + 8H+ → Mn2 + + 4H2O lytic cell
According to Nernst equation, For 1 F charge Ag+ deposited
7. (c) o
Λm 0
(CaCl2 ) = l m (Ca2 + ) + 2l m
0
(Cl− )
9.65 × 1 × 3600
14. (b) Number of farads passed =
= 118.88 × 10 −4 −4
+ 2(77.33 × 10 ) 96500
Let WZn grams of zinc be discharged at anode and WCu
= 273.54 × 10 −4 Sm2 mol−1
grams of copper be discharged at cathode.
8. (c) Al2(SO4)3 → 2Al3+ + 3(SO4)2− 63.5 × 9.65 × 3690
Al3+ + 3e− → Al WCu = = 11.43 g
96500 × 2
1 mol of Al2(SO4)3 will give 2 mol of Al3+. To reduce 1 mol 65.4 × 9.65 × 3600
WZn = = 11.77 g
of Al3+, 3 mol of electrons are required. For 2 mol of Al3+ 96500 × 2
we need 6 mol of electrons or 6 F of electricity, that is,
15. (a) According to Faraday’s law of electrolysis, the mass
6 × 96500 = 5.79 × 105 C.
deposited on an electrode is proportional to the quan-
9. (b) Specific conductance k AgCl = ksolution−kwater tity of electricity passed through the electrolyte. If 1 F
= 1.86 × 10−6 − 6 × 10−8 (96500 C) of electricity is passed through copper solu-
tion, the mass deposited on electrode will be the equiva-
= 180 × 10-8 lent weight of copper ion, that is, 63.5 g.
Therefore, solubility is found as
16. (a) The half cell reactions in the cell are:
1000 −8 1000
SAgCl = k AgCl × = 180 × 10 × At the anode : H2 → 2H+ + 2e −
Λ oeq 137.2
At the cathode : 2H+ + 2e − → H2
. × 10 −5 mol L−1
= 13
E o = 0.34 + ( −1.23) = − 0.89 V 26. (a) Equivalent conductance is the conducting power of all
the ions produced by one gram equivalent of an elec-
So, the minimum voltage required to bring about electro- trolyte in a given solution. In SrCl2, gram equivalent
lysis = 0.89 V. mass is larger as a result of which the compound shows
19. (b) According to the Nernst equation, maximum value of equivalent conductance in a fused
0.059 state.
o
Ecell = Ecell − log K
2 27. (a) For the reaction Al3+ + 3e− → Al
At equilibrium, Ecell = 0. Therefore, Q M
We have from Faraday’s law m = ×
0.059 F Z
o
Ecell = log K where m = mass of the substance discharged at the
2 electrode
0.059
0.23 = log K Q = total electric charge passed through the substance
2 = I (amp) × t (seconds)
0.46 F = 96500 C
⇒ log K = = 7.79 ⇒ K = 6.16 × 107
0.059 M = Molar mass of the substance
20. (d) According to Nernst equation, for the cell reaction Z = number of electrons transferred per ion.
It M
Fe(s) + Cd2 + (aq) → Fe2 + (aq) + Cd(s) So, m= ×
Therefore, F Z
o 0.0591 [Fe2 + ][Cd] m×Z ×F
Ecell = Ecell − log t=
n [Fe][Cd2 + ] I×M
Substituting given values, we get
27 × 3 × 96500
=
0.0591 [0.1] 0.0591 [0.1] 10 × 27
−0.02 = 0.04 − log ⇒ − 0.06 = − log
2 [x] 2 [x]
= 3 × 9650 = 28950 or 2.89 × 10 4 s
[0.1]
2.03 = log ⇒ 2.03 = − 1− log[ x ] ⇒ 3.03 = − log[ x ] 28. (a) We know that q = w/E and q = I × t. So,
[x]
log x = − 3.03 w I ×t 0.3605 1.2 × 15 × 60
= ⇒ =
On taking antilog, we get x = 0.00093 M = 9.3 × 10−4 M. E 96500 96/n 96500
Thus, 1 mol of H2, that is, 22400 cm3 at NTP requires 1.2 × 15 × 60 × 96
Therefore, n= = 2.9803 ≅ 3
2F = 2 × 96500 C 0.3605 × 96500
29. (c) Ionic mobility is defined as the distance travelled by an For example, for Ag = 1 electron, for Cu = 2 electrons,
ion per second under a potential gradient of 1 volt per Al = 3 electrons, etc.
meter.
38. (b) The expressions are
Ionic velocity v (m/s)
Ionic mobility = = = = m2 V −1s −1 0 0 0
Potential gradient dV /dx ( V /m) Λm (Ba(OH)2 ) = l Ba2− + 2l
OH− (1)
30. (c) For water at 298 K, [H+] = 10−7 M 0
Λm 0
(BaCl2 ) = l Ba2+ + 2l
0
(2)
Cl−
Reduction reaction is H+ + e − → 1
H
2 2 0 0 0
Λm (NH4 Cl) = l NH+ + l (3)
RT (pH)1/ 2 (pH)1/ 2 4Cl−
Therefore, Ecell = − ln = − 0.591 log
F +
[H ] [H+ ] Dividing Eqs. (1) and (2) by 2 and subtracting them, and
1 adding this difference to Eq. (3), we get
= − 0.0591 log −7 = − 0.4137 −0.414 V.
10 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0
Λ m(NH4 OH)
= l NH+ + l
OH− = Λ m[Ba(OH)2 ] − Λ m(BaCl2 ) + Λ m(NH4 Cl)
31. (a) Ag, Cu, Cr all lie below hydrogen in the reactivity series
4
2 2
while Mg lies above hydrogen. A metal with greater oxi- 1 1
= × 457 − 240.6 + 2129.8 = 2238 Scm2 mol−1
dation potential can displace metals with lower oxida- 2 2
tion potential.
39. (b) Cell reaction: 3Ni + 2Au3+ → 3Ni2 + + 2Au
32. (a) Because the Eo value for Cu is more than Fe means it is a
stronger oxidizing agent. 0.0591 [Ni2 + ]3
o
Ecell = Ecell − log
o 0.059 2 × 0.235 6 [Au3+ ]2
33. (b) Ecell = log K C ⇒ log K C = = 7.96
2 0.059
0.0591 (0.1)3
⇒ K = x × 107 = (0.25 + 1.5) − log
g 2
6 (1)
0.0591
34. (b) Applying Nernst equation, = 1.75 + × log(1) = 1.75 + 0.0295 = + 1.7795 V
2
o 2.303RT 1
ENi2+ /Ni = ENi2+
/ Ni − log 2 + 40. (a) As Fe is more reactive than Ag but less reactive than Zn
nF [Ni ] and Na.
Here n = 2. So,
2.303 × 8.314 × 297.9 41. (b) The reaction is Cu2+ + 2e − → Cu
−0.16942 = −0.14 + × log x
2 × 96500 Mass
Volume = = Area × Thickness deposited
where x = [Ni2+]. So, Density
−0.16942 = −0.14 + (0.02955)log x = 100 × 10 −2 cm3
−0.02942 = 0.02955 log x
Mass of Cu2+ ion deposited on plate = 1 × 8.94 g
We get x = [NiCl2] = 0.1010 M
EIt EQ
W Now, Mass = =
35. (c) According to Faraday’s second law = constant 96500 96500
E
WAg WCu 63.5 × Q
So , = 8.94 = ⇒ Q = 27172 C
EAg ECu 2 × 96500
M 42. (a) As Eo value for fluorine is the largest among all other hal-
Ag+ + e − → Ag; EAg = ogens which means it is the strongest oxidizing agent.
1
WAg WCu 107.9 107.9 M 43. (a) The conductivity of a strong electrolyte increases on
= = = Cu2 + + 2e − → Cu; ECu = dilution slightly. This is explained by the Debye–Hückel–
EAg ECu 63.54/2 31.77 2
Onsager equation
Therefore,
WAg WCu 107.9 107.9 M
0
Λm = Λm ( 0
− A + BΛ m ) C
= = = Cu2 + + 2e − → Cu; ECu =
EAg ECu 63.54/2 31.77 2 where A and B are the Debye-Hückel constants. If a solu-
Λm Λ tion is at infinite dilution, that is, C is almost zero then
36. (b) a = 0
= m = 0.9 ⇒ Λ m = 382.5 S cm−1 g. equiv−1 Λm = Λm 0
.
Λm 425
44. (a) For the given cell q = I × t = 5 × 40 × 60 = 12000 C
382.5 The reaction is Zn2+ + 2e − → Zn
Therefore, Λ m = k × N ⇒ N = = 10 N
3.825 2F(2 × 96500 C) is required to reduce 1 mol, that is, 65.3 g
37. (a) Quantity of electricity needed is proportional to the of Zn
65.3 × 12000
number of electrons involved in the reduction reaction. 12000 C is required to reduce = 4.065 g of Zn
2 × 96500
47. (a) Given that decrease in concentration = 0.0005124 equiv. 56. (a), (b), (c) Salt bridge is used to eliminate liquid junction
and amount of Cu deposited = 0.03879 g. Therefore, potential that arises due to different speed of ions present
0.03879 in cathodic and anodic compartments. In options (a), (b), (c)
equivalent of Cu deposited = = 0.001216 equiv.
31.9 salt bridge is not required beacuse sulphuric acid and KOH
Then transport number of Ag+ = serves as the electrolyte in both oxidation and reduction cell.
w It 9.65 × 3600 +
Equiv. of Ag+ lost 0.0005124 57. (a), (c) = = = 0.36 equiv. of Ag
t Ag+ = 2+
= = 0.4214 E n × 96500 96500n
Equiv. of Cu deposited 0.001216
= 0.36 mol of Ag+( n = 1) and 0.18 mol of Cu2+(n = 2). So, Ag
Now, t Ag+ + tNO − = 1 ⇒ tNO − = 1 − 0.4214 = 0.5786
3 3
will oxidize to Ag+ and Cu2+ will reduce to Cu.
w Ag EAg 58. (a), (d) During electrolysis of H2SO4, the following two reac-
48. (d) We know that = tions are possible at anode:
w Au
EAu
For dilute: H2SO4, 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e −
4.37 107.9
Substituting values, we get = ⇒ w Au = 2.62 g
w Au 65.6 For concentrated: H2SO4, 2SO24− → S2O28 − + 2e −
96500 × 2.62 F− ions have much lower oxidation potential than H2O.
Therefore, Q = = 3854.1 C
65.6 Hence, F− ions are not oxidized in the aqueous solution to
give F2.
49. (b) Given that pH = 14, so pOH = 0. Therefore, [OH−] = 1 M. Passage Type
Now, the solubility product is
Ksp = [Cu2+][OH−]2 ⇒ [Cu2+] = 10−19 M.
59. (c) A general representation of galvanic cell by cell nota-
Also given that for the reaction
tion is as follows:
Cu2 + + 2e − → Cu ECu
o
2+
/Cu = 0.34 V.
Anode; anode electrolyte (C1)||Cathode electrolyte (C2);
cathode
Applying Nernst equation, we get
Pt|H2(g)|HCl(aq)||AgCl(s)|Ag
o 0.0591 [Cu] 0.0591 1 o o o
Ecell = Ecell − log 2 + = 0.34 − log −19 60. (c) Ecell = EAu3+
/Au − ENi2+ /Ni = 15
. 0 − ( −0.25) = 175
. V.
n [Cu ] 2 10
= 0.3
34 − 0.56 = − 0.22 V 61. (d) Subtracting the given equations
50. (c) The reaction is 2Cl−(l) → Cl2(g) + 2e−. The number of AgCl(s) → Ag+ (aq) + Cl− (aq) E o = − 0.58 V
Coulombs is
4.25 A × 35.0 min × 60 s min−1 = 8.92 × 103 C Using Nernst equation, we get
The number of grams of Cl2 that will be produced
o 0.0591 [Ag+ ][Cl− ]
− Ecell = Ecell − log
1 mol e 1 mol Cl2 70.91 g Cl2 1 [AgCl(s)]
g Cl2 = (8.92 × 103 C)
96500 C 2 mol e − 1 mol Cl2 0.0591
o
= Ecell − log[Ag+ ][Cl− ] (as [AgCl(s)] = 1)
= 3.28 g Cl2 1
At equilibrium, Ecell = 0. Also, Ksp = [Ag+][Cl−], so Conductance is due to the presence of ions in the solu-
o tion, as the number of ions increases, the conductance also
Ecell = − 0.0591 × log K sp ⇒ − 0.58 = 0.0591 × log K sp
increases.
K sp = antilog( −0.58 / 0.0591) = antilog( −9.813)
67. (a) ã p, r; (b) ã q, s; (c) ã q; (d) ã p
= 1.53 × 10 −10 The anode acts as a negative pole because on oxidation elec-
0.0591 0.0591 trons are released and it is connected to the positive pole of
o
62. (b) Ecell = ⇒ K c = antilog = 10 the battery. The cathode acts as a positive pole because on
2 log K c 2 × 0.295
reduction, the positive ions get reduced. It is connected to the
−1 0
63. (c) Given that R = 1000 Ω, Λ m0 2
( Cl− ) = 80 S cm mol ; Λ m(SO 4 ) = 160 S cm
2−
2
mol−pole
negative
1
. of the battery.
0 2 −1 0 2 −1
Λm ( Cl− ) = 80 S cm mol ; Λ m(SO 4 ) = 160 S cm mol .
2−
68. (a) ã s; (b) ã q; (c) ã p; (d) ã r
Now applying equations, 1
o
Λm Conductance = = ohm−1 = Siemen = S
(NaCl) = 107 + b c (1) Resistance
0
Λm (2) 1 1
(NaCl) = 97 + b c Conductivity(k ) = =
Subtracting Eq. (2) from Eq. (1), we get Resistivity r
rl RA 1 l Sm
0 = 10 + b(2 × 10 −2 ) − b(3 × 10 −2 ) Now, R = ⇒ r= ⇒ =k= = = S m−1
A l r RA m2
10 = b(3 × 10 −2 − 2 × 10 −2 )
1000 Sm−1
10 = 10 −2 b or b = 103 Λ m (molar conductance) = k × = = S m2 mol−1
C mol m−3
Therefore,
1 m
o
Λm (NaCl) = Λ NaCl + b c Cell constant = 2 = m−1
A m
= 107 + 103 (2 × 10 −2 )
Integer Type
= 107 + 20 = 127 S cm2 mol−1
64. (d) We have 69. (5) The reaction involved is C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
0
Λm = Λ m − b C = 127 − 103 25 × 10 −4
70. (9) The reaction is Al3+ + 3e − → Al
3 −2
= 127 − 10 × 5 × 10 = 77 3 F is required to reduce 1 mol, that is, 27 g of Al.
0 1000 27 g is deposited by 3 F
Λm = k × C = 77 = K × V = K × 81
25 × 10 −4 So, 81 g requires 3 × =9F
27
Hence, k = 77 × 25 × 10 −7 = 1925 × 10 −7
Now, 71. (5) The reaction occurring is 2H+ + 2e − → H2
1 l l Thus, 1 mole of H2, i.e., 22400 cc at NTP requires 2F = 2
k = × ⇒ = 1925 × 10 −7 × 1000 = 0.1925 cm−1 × 96500 C
R A A 2 × 96500 × 4480
5 × 10 −3 Therefore, 4480 cc requires = = 38600C
65. (d) We know that N = M × 2 ⇒ M = . As Q = I × t 22400
2
l Q 38600
We found that = 0.1925 cm−1 t= = = 18037.38 s = 5h
A I 2.14
1000 × 2 1 l 1000 × 2
L =k ×V =k × = × × 72. (9) The reaction is Cr2O72− + 14H+ + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O
5 × 10 −3 R A 5 × 10 −3
For 1 mol, 6 F is required.
1 1000 × 2 Given that molarity = 0.5 M, so number of moles
= × 0.1925 ×
400 5 × 10 −3 = molarity × volume (in L) = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5 mol
For 1.5 mol, the quantity of electricity required is 1.5 × 6
= 0.009625 × 10 4 = 9 F.
= 192.5 S cm2 mol−1
o o o
Matrix-Match Type 73. (3) Ecell = EFe 2+
/ Fe3+ + E Ag+ / Ag = − 0.771 + 0.799 = 0.028 V
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 Second-Order Reactions, Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant Order and Molecularity of Reactions
2008 Rate of Reactions Zero-Order Reactions, First-Order Reactions
2009 First-Order Reactions Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant
Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant, Order
2010 Rate of Reactions, Zero-Order Reaction
and Molecularity of Reactions
2011 Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant First-Order Reactions
2012 First-Order Reactions First-Order Reactions
2013 Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant First-Order Reactions
Rate of Reactions, Second-Order Reactions, Experimental Determination of
2014 Order and Molecularity of Reactions
Rate Law, Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant
Rate of Reactions, First-Order Reactions, Second-Order Reactions, Effect of
2015
Temperature on Rate Constant
2016 First-Order Reactions, Second-Order Reactions, Elementary Reactions Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant
SUMMARY
1. Chemical kinetics deals with the study of the rate of chemical reactions and with the elucidation of the mechanisms by which they
proceed.
2. Rate of a chemical reaction
(a) The rate or velocity of a chemical reaction can be defined as the rate of appearance of one or more of its products, or as the rate
of disappearance of one or more of its reactants in unit time. When chemical reactions occur, the concentrations of reactants
decrease as they are used up, while the concentrations of the products increase as they are formed.
Products
Reactants
Time (s)
− dA dB
rinst = =
dt dt
4. Dependence of relative rates of reaction on coefficients in the equation
(a) For reactions in which the stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants and products are the same, the rate of disappearance of
any of the reactants is same as the rate of appearance of the products. For example, for the reaction SO2Cl2 (g) → SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(b) In reactions where the stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants and products are not the same, the rate of reaction depends
on the coefficients of the reactants/products in the balanced chemical equation. For example, in the combustion of propane
d[A]
− = k[A ] x [B] y
dt
Here exponents x and y may or may not be equal to the stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants. This equation is known
as differential rate equation and k is a constant of proportionality, known as the rate constant.
6. Elementary and complex reactions
(a) Elementary reactions
The reactions that proceed in a single step are known as elementary reactions.
(b) Complex reactions
Reactions that involve more than one step, that is more than one elementary reaction, are known as complex reactions. The
sequence of reactions in a complex reaction is representative of the mechanism of reaction. Complex reactions may involve fol-
lowing type of reactions.
(i) Consecutive reactions: These are reactions taking place in a series of steps, represented as
A1 → A2 → A3
(ii) Reverse reactions: These occur in forward and reverse steps and are represented as
A B
(iii) Parallel reactions: In these reactions, some side reactions take place leading to the formation of some byproducts along
with the main product.
A →B
↓
C
7. Order and molecularity of reactions
(a) Order
Order of the reaction is the sum of the powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law. Based on this value, reactions
may be classified as first-order, second-order, third-order, etc.
(i) Certain reactions in which concentration of the reactant does not affect the reaction rate are called zero-order reactions.
(ii) A reaction whose order is different from the actual due to large excess concentration of one of the reactants is called pseudo-
order reaction.
Some examples of pseudo-order reactions are as follows:
• Hydrolysis of an ester: Ethyl acetate on hydrolysis in aqueous solution using a mineral acid as catalyst forms acetic acid
and ethyl alcohol.
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O → CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Here excess of water is used and the rate law can be written as
This reaction is actually a second-order reaction but, in practice, it is found to be first-order. Hence it is a pseudo-first-order
reaction.
• Hydrolysis of sucrose: Sucrose upon hydrolysis in the presence of a dilute mineral acid gives glucose and fructose.
If large excess of water is present, its concentration is practically constant and the rate may be written as
Though the actual order is 2, its experimental order is 1. Thus it is a pseudo-first-order reaction.
(b) Molecularity
It is defined as the total number of reacting species (molecules, atoms or ions) taking part in an elementary reaction. Molecularity
represents the number of reactant molecules undergoing collisions to bring about the chemical reaction. Based on the value of
molecularity, the reactions are classified as
(i) Unimolecular reactions: These reactions have molecularity 1.
F2O2 (g) → F2 (g) + O2 (g)
It is the number of atoms, ions or molecules that must It is the sum of the concentration terms on which the rate of
collide with one another simultaneously so as to result reaction actually depends or it is the sum of the exponents of
into a chemical reaction. the molar concentrations in the rate law equation.
dx 1
k= × = mol L−1 time −1
dt [Concentration]0
(ii) First-order reaction: Here n = 1,
dx 1 mol L−1 1
k= × = × = time −1
dt [Concentration]1 time mol L−1
dx 1 mol L−1 1
k= × = × = L mol−1 time −1
dt [Concentration]2 time (mol L−1)2
dx 1 mol L−1 1
k= × = × = L2 mol−2 time −1
dt [Concentration]3 time (mol L−1)3
Tip The exponents in the rate law for an elementary process are equal to the coefficients of the reactants in the chemical equation
for that elementary process. For a multistep complex reaction, the rate law for the slowest step in a mechanism should agree with the
experimental rate law.
(c) The characteristics of rate of reaction, rate law and rate constant are summarized as follows:
Zero-order
reaction
[A]0
Slope = −k
[A]
[A] = −kt + [A]0
t
(b) First-order reactions
These are reactions whose rate is determined by the change of only one concentration term. The differential form of rate equa-
tion is, therefore,
d[A]
Rate = − = k[A ] or d[A ] = − kdt
dt [A ]
where k, which is a proportionality constant, is called the velocity constant, rate constant or specific rate constant.
The integrated form of rate law equation for first-order reaction is
[A ] 1 [A ]
ln = − kt or k = − ln
[A]0 t [A ]0
(i) The integrated rate equation at two time intervals t1 and t2, when the concentrations are [A]1 and [A]2, respectively,
given by
1 [A ]
The expression for rate constant is k = ln 1
(t2 − t1) [A ]2
(ii) If the reaction is first-order in A, a plot of experimental data of ln A vs. time should fit the integrated form of the first-order
rate law, that is
ln[A ] − ln[A ]0 = − kt
Since the equation has two variables and two constants, it represents equation for a straight line. If the reaction is first-order
in A, a plot of the natural logarithm of the concentration of A vs. time will be a straight line with a slope equal to −k and inter-
cept equal to [A]0.
First-order reaction
ln[A]0
Slope = −k
ln[A]
2.303 [A ] [A ] kt
k= log 0 or log 0 =
t [A ] [A ] 2.303
0 t
(c) For first-order gas phase reaction
When the reactants and products are gaseous, the concentration can be expressed in terms of partial pressure. For example, for
decomposition of N2O5, the rate constant is given by
2N2O5 (g) → 2N2O 4 (g) + O2 (g)
2.303 pi
k= log
t 3 pi − 2 pt
Slope = k
1/[A])
0 t
1 x
Rate constant of second-order reactions having only one reactant, is given by k = .
t a(a − x )
The quantity x/(a − x) is dimensionless, so units of k are (concentration)−1 time−1, that is, L mol−1 time−1.
(ii) When the reaction is A + B ã Products: In such reactions, the rate is determined by the change of two concentration terms
of two different reactants.
d[A ]
− = k[A ][B]
dt
where [A] and [B] are the concentration of reactants A and B, respectively, at any given time t, and k is the velocity
constant.
1 2.303 b(a − x )
k= log
t a−b a(b − x )
The units of rate constant are (1/time) × (1/mol L−1) × [(mol L−1)(mol L−1)/( mol L−1)( mol L−1)] = L mol−1 time−1.
(e) Third-order reactions
(i) When the reaction is A + B + C ã Products: If the reactants are all present in different initial concentrations a, b, c and x is
dx
the decrease in the concentration of each reactant at time t, then the third-order rate equation is = k (a − x )(b − x )(c − x )
dt
1 x (c − a) c(a − x )
On integration, we get k = 2 a( a − x )
+ ln
t (c − a) a(c − x )
(ii) When the reaction is 2A + B ã Products: The concentrations at any time t are (a − 2x) and (b − x). The rate equation
dx
becomes = k(a − 2x )2 (b − x )
dt
1 2 x (2b − a) b(a − 2 x )
On integration, we get k= + ln
t (2b − a)2 a(a − 2 x ) a(b − x )
(iii) When the reaction is 3A → Products: In such reactions, a = b = c, for which the rate equation can be written as
dx
= k (a − x )3
dt
1 x (2a − x )
On integration, we get k =
2ta2 (a − x )2
Tip Integrated rate law equations quantitatively give concentration as a function of time and its form depends on the order of the
reaction. The integrated rate equations can be fitted with kinetic data to determine the order of a reaction.
t1/2
0 [A]0
0.693
Since ln 2 is equal to 0.693, it can also be written as t1/2 =
k
Since k is a constant for a given reaction, the half-life is also a constant for any particular first-order reaction (at any given tem-
perature). It can be easily calculated if the rate constant of the reaction is known.
t1/2
0 [A]0
(c) Second-order reactions
Half-life period is given by t1/2 = 1/k[A]0. Hence t1/2 of second-order reaction is inversely proportional to the initial concentration
of reactant.
t1/2
0 1/[A]0
(d) Third-order reactions
Half-life period can be deduced as t1/2 = 3/2 k[A]02. It is inversely proportional to [A]02.
t1/2
0 1/[A]02
1 2n −1 − 1
t1/ 2 = .
k (n − 1) [A ]0n −1
11. Complex reaction kinetics
Complex reactions Differential equations Integrated rate equations Examples
Consecutive reactions d[A ] 1. The pyrolysis of acetone
= k1[A ] [A] = [A]0 e − k1t
k1 k2
dt 2. Decomposition of ethyl-
A
→ B
→C k1
d[B] [B] = [A ]0 (e − k1t − e − k2t ) ene oxide
= k1[A ] − k2 [B] k2 − k1
dt
k1
d[C]
= k2 [B] [C] = [A ]0 1− (e − k1t − e − k2t ) − e − k1t
dt k2 − k1
Parallel reactions d[A ] 1. Dehydration of 2-
− = (k1 + k2 )[A] [A ] = [A]0e −( k1 + k2 )t
k1 dt methyl-2-butanol
B k1[A]0
d[B] [B] = 1− e −( k1 + k2 )t 2. Nitration of phenol
A
k2
C = k1[A] (k1 + k2 ) )
dt
k2 [A]0
d[C] [C] = 1 − 1 − e −( k1 + k2 )t
= k2 [ A ] (k1 + k2 ) )
dt
(Continued)
(Continued)
Complex reactions Differential equations Integrated rate equations Examples
Reversible or Opposing − d[A ] d[B] [A ] = A eq + x eqexp[ −(k f + kr ) t ] 1. Dissociation of hydro-
reactions = = k f [A ] − kr [B] gen iodide in gas phase
dt dt
kf 2. Reaction between CO
A
B and NO2 gases
k r
(t1/ 2 )1 a (t ) − (t )
log = (n − 1)log 2 ⇒ (n − 1) = log 1/ 2 1 1/ 2 2
(t1/ 2 )2 a1 log a2 − log a1
− dA1 − dA2
= kC1n and = kC2n
dt dt
Taking logarithms and performing subtraction, we get
− dA1 − dA2
log10 − log10
dt dt
n=
(log10 A1 − log10 A2 )
where −dA1/dt and −dA2/dt are determined from concentration vs. time graphs and the value of n can be obtained.
(d) Initial rate method
n1A + n2B + n3C → Products
Suppose the order of the above reaction with respect to A, B and C is x, y and z, respectively.
Then the rate is given by
Starting with two different initial concentrations of A, keeping the concentrations of B and C constant, the initial rates of the
reaction are determined, then
This is the order with respect to A. Similarly, order with respect to B and C can be determined. On adding, we get the overall
order of the reaction (= x + y + z).
(e) Ostwald’s isolation method
(i) This method is applicable for reactions in which there are two or more reactants.
(ii) It consists of performing a series of experiments in which all but one of the reactants are taken in excess turn by turn, so
that its concentration does not very sensible during course of the reaction. Then order of reaction is determined with
respect to isolated reactant, i.e, which is taken in small amount.
(iii) The sum of individual order, when each reactant is taken separately in small amount, is the overall order of the reaction.
R
Q10 = (T +10 )
RT
(c) The relationship between temperature and the rate of a reaction can be explained by assuming that the rate constant depends
on the temperature at which the reaction is run, as suggested by Arrhenius.
(d) According to Arrhenius theory, for a reaction to take place, the reacting molecules must collide to form an intermediate com-
plex which is unstable and breaks up to form the products. This intermediate complex is known as the activated complex and
the energy required to form this complex is called the activation energy.
(e) The relation between temperature and rate constant is given by Arrhenius equation.
k = Ae − Ea /RT
where k is the rate constant for the reaction and A is a proportionality constant that is known as Arrhenius factor or frequency
factor. It is also called pre-exponential factor and is specific for a reaction. R is the ideal gas constant in joules per mole
kelvin (J mol−1 K−1), e is the base of natural logarithms, Ea is the activation energy for the reaction and T is the temperature in
kelvins.
Ea
(f) The logarithmic form of Arrhenius equation is given by ln k = ln A −
RT
We can plot a graph of ln k vs. 1/T. The graph is a straight line whose slope = −Ea/R and intercept = ln A.
(g) Using Arrhenius equation at two different temperatures, the activation energy of a reaction can be calculated by determining
the rate constants of the reaction at these temperatures.
k2 Ea 1 1 k2 Ea 1 1
log =− − or log = −
k1 2.303R T2 T1 k1 2.303R T1 T2
(h) A catalyst is a substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction without itself being used up.
Although the catalyst is not part of the overall reaction, it does participate in the reaction by changing the mechanism of the
reaction. The catalyst provides a path to the products that has a rate-determining step with lower activation energy than that
of the uncatalyzed reaction as shown in the following figure.
Number of molecules
Ea catalyzed Ea uncatalyzed
Kinetic energy
A larger proportion of the collisions that occur between reactants now have enough energy to overcome the activation energy
for the reaction, as shown in below figure.
Ea without a catalyst
Ea with a catalyst
Energy
Reactants
∆H °
Products
Reaction coordinate
where s is the molecular diameter, v the average molecular velocity in cm s−1 and n* the number of molecules per cm3.
(ii) When two different molecules are involved, Z is taken to be Z1,2 and is given by
2
s + s 2 ( M2 + M1)
Z1,2 = n1* n2* 1 8p RT
2 M1M2
where s1 and s2 are the molecular diameters of the respective molecules, M1 and M2 their molecular masses, n1* and n2*
the numbers of the respective molecules per cm3 at temperature T.
(d) Suppose Z is the number of molecules colliding per cm3 per second in the reacting system containing 1 mol L−1 of reactant and
q is the fraction of these that are activated, then reaction constant k of the reaction is given by
k = Zq
Substituting for q from the following expression
[A ] 1 [A ]
3. Integrated first-order rate law: ln = − kt or k = ln
[A]0 t [A ]0
4. Integrated second-order rate law
d[A]
(a) For second-order reaction of the form, 2A → Products; − = k[A]2
dt
1 1
− = kt
[A ]t [A ]0
d[A]
(b) For second-order reaction of the form, A + B → Products; − = k[A][B]
dt
b(a − x )
ln = kt (a − b )
a(b − x )
5. Rate constant and half-life time
Order Expression for rate constant Half-life (at t = t1/2, [A] = [A]0/2)
Zero [A]0 − [A] [A]0 − (1/2)[A]0 [A ]
k= k= ⇒ t1/2 = 0
t t1/2 2k
Second 1 1 1 1 1 1
kt = ln − (for the same reactant) t1/ 2 = ln − ⇒
[A ] [A 0 ] k [A 0 ] / 2 [A 0 ] k [A 0 ]
Ea
6. Arrhenius equation ln k = ln A −
RT
7. Arrhenius equation at two different temperatures
k2 Ea 1 1 k2 Ea 1 1
log =− − or log = −
k1 2.303R T2 T1 k1 2.303R T1 T2
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Rate of Reactions
1 Solution
1. For a reaction A → 2B, rate of disappearance of A is related to
2 1
(b) For the reaction A → 2B , the instantaneous rates are
the rate of appearance of B by the expression 2
d[ A ] 1 d[B] dx − 2d[ A ] d[B]
d[A] 1 d[B] = =+
(a) − = (b) − = dt dt 2dt
dt 2 dt dt 4 dt
d[ A ] d[B] d[A ] d[B] dx − d[ A ] 1 d[B]
(c) − = (d) − =4 = =
dt dt dt dt dt dt 4 dt
(AIEEE 2008)
[A] moles/liter
(d) increased to four times of its initial value
0.03
Solution
(c) The rate law for the reaction is Rate = k [O2] [NO]2.
0.02
When volume is reduced to half, concentration becomes
double the initial concentration, so the rate law becomes P
Rate = k [2O2] [2NO]2 ⇒ Rate = 8k [O2] [NO]2. 0.01
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (3), we get (c) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a tempera-
ture, T.
1.2 × 10 −3
x
k[0.1] x [0.1] y 1 1 (d) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the
= ⇒ = ⇒ x =1
2.4 × 10 −3
k[0.2] x [0.1] y 2 2 activation energy of the reaction
(AIEEE 2006)
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get
Solution
1.2 × 10 −3
y
k [0.1] x [0.1] y 1
= ⇒ 1= ⇒ y = 0 (b) Ea is the activation energy which represents the mini-
1.2 × 10 −3 k [0.1] x [0.2] y 2
mum energy that the reacting molecules must possess
dC before undergoing a reaction. As Ea increases, the rate
= k[A].
Therefore, rate of formation of C is
dt constant k decreases.
34. For the reaction, 2 NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl at 300 K, following data
36. The energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions
are obtained
for A2 + B2 2AB are 180 kJ mol−1 and 200 kJ mol−1, respec-
Initial concentration tively. The presence of a catalyst lowers the activation energy
Experiment Initial rate
[NO] [Cl2] of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100 kJ mol−1. The
enthalpy change of the reaction (A2 + B2 → 2AB) in the pres-
1. 0.010 0.010 1.2 × 10 −4 ence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol−1)
(a) 20 (b) 300 (c) 120 (d) 280
2. 0.010 0.020 2.4 × 10 −4 (AIEEE 2007)
Solution
3. 0.020 0.020 9.6 × 10 −4 (a) Consider the following figure,
In absence of catalyst
The specific rate constant will be
(a) 1.2 × 102 mol−2 L2 s −1 (b) 2.5 × 102 mol−2 L2 s −1 In presence of catalyst
Potential energy
Effect of Temperature on Rate Constant Therefore, 32 k1 = k2. This means when the temperature
is raised by 50°C, then the rate increases by 32 times.
35. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as:
38. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes
k = Ae − Ea / RT
from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy of such a reaction will
In this equation, Ea represents be (R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1 and log 2 = 0.301)
(a) the energy above which all the colliding molecules will (a) 48.6 kJ mol−1 (b) 58.5 kJ mol−1
react. (c) 60.5 kJ mol −1 (d) 53.6 kJ mol−1
(b) the energy below which colliding molecules will not (JEE Main 2013)
react.
Solution
6.0
(d) As per Arrhenius equation:
k2 E 1 1
ln = − a −
In Keq
k1 R T2 T1
Ea 1 1
2.303 log 2 = − −
8.314 310 300
2.0
which gives Ea = 53.6 kJ mol−1 . 1 −1
1.5 × 10−3 (K ) 2.0 × 10−3
39. The rate coefficient (k) for a particular reactions is 1.3 × 10−3 T
M−1 s−1 at 100°C and 1.3 × 10−3 M−1 s−1 at 150°C. What is the The reaction must be
energy of activation (EA) (in kJ) for this reaction? (R = molar (a) exothermic
gas constant = 8.314 JK−1 mol−1) (b) endothermic
(a) 16 (b) 60 (c) 99 (d) 132 (c) one with negligible enthalpy change
(JEE Main Online 2014) (d) highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
Solution Solution
k2 Ea 1 1 (a) ∆G ° = ∆H ° − T ∆S °
(b) log = −
k1 2.303R T1 T2 − RT ln K eq = ∆H ° − T ∆S °
− ∆H ° ∆S °
1.3 × 10 −3 Ea 1 1 ln K eq = +
log = − RT R
1.3 × 10 −4 2.303 × 8.314 373 423 −∆H °
Slope = = + ve
Ea R
−1 = ( −0.00031) ⇒ Ea = 60.784 J = 60.784 kJ
19.147 Therefore, ΔH° is negative, hence, the reaction is
40. For the equilibrium, A(g) B(g), ΔH is −40 kJ mol−1. If the exothermic.
ratio of the activation energies of the forward (Ef ) and reverse
43. The rate constant for the first-order decomposition of ethyl-
(Eb) reaction is (2/3) then:
ene oxide into CH4 and CO is represented as
(a) Ef = 60 kJ mol−1; Eb = 100 kJ mol−1
(b) Ef = 30 kJ mol−1; Eb = 70 kJ mol−1 1.25 × 10 4 K
log10 k (s −1) = 14.34 −
(c) Ef = 80 kJ mol−1; Eb = 120 kJ mol−1 T
(d) Ef = 70 kJ mol−1; Eb = 30 kJ mol−1 Determine Ea of the reaction.
(JEE Main Online 2015) (a) 239.3 kJ mol–1 (b) 103.9 kJ mol–1
Solution (c) 5.42 kJ mol–1 (d) 57.57 kJ mol–1
(c) A(g) B(g) ∆H = −40 kJ Solution
2 2x 3x E
E
Since, f = , therefore, E f = and Eb = (a) Arrhenius equation is k = A × exp − a
RT
Eb 3 5 5
Taking natural logarithm, we get
Eb − E f = + 40 E Ea
ln(k ) = ln( A) − a ⇒ log(k ) = log( A) −
RT 2.303RT
3x 2x x
− = + 40 ⇒ = 40 ⇒ x = 200 Plot of log(k) vs. 1/T for Arrhenius equation gives a straight
5 5 5
line. The slope of this line is −Ea/2.303R. Comparing this
Therefore,
slope with the given equation’s slope, we get
3x 3 × 200
Eb = = = 120 kJ mol−1 −
Ea
= −1.25 × 10 4
5 5 2.303R
2x 2 × 200 ⇒ Ea = 12.5 × 2.303 × 8.314 = 239.3 kJ mol−1
Ef = = = 80 kJ mol−1
5 5
44. The activation energy of a reaction is 24.0 kcal mol−1 at 27°C
− E a / RT and the presence of catalyst changes its activation energy to
41. In respect of the equation k = Ae in chemical kinetics,
which one of the following statements is correct? one-fourth at the same temperature. The approximate ratio
(a) k is equilibrium constant (b) A is adsorption factor of rate in the presence of catalyst to rate in the absence of
(c) Ea is energy of activation (d) R is Rydberg’s constant catalyst will be (use R = 2 cal mol−1 K−1).
(a) 1.0 × 104 (b) 1.0 × 103
Solution
(c) 2.07 (d) 1 × 1013
(c) Ea is the activation energy, T is the temperature, R is the
gas constant and A is the pre-exponential factor. Solution
(d) From Arrhenius equation, k = Ae − Ea / RT
42. A schematic plot of ln Keq versus inverse of temperature for a Let the rate in the absence of catalyst be k1 = Ae−24/RT and
reaction is shown in the following figure in the presence of catalyst is k2 = Ae−24/4RT
Ea Solution
Also log k = log A − (2)
2.303RT (a), (b), (d) According to first-order reaction,
Comparing both Eqs. (1) and (2) and solving, we get −d[N2O5]/dt = k[N2O5]. The half-life can be found as
2.303 a
2000 t= log
k
Ea
6− ≡ log A − a− x
T 2.303RT
where a = 100 and a − x = 100 − 99.6 = 0.4. The half-life period
log A = 6 ⇒ A = antilog(6 ) = 106 s −1 for first-order reaction is
Ea 2000 ln 2 0.693
= ⇒ Ea = 2000 × 2.303 × 8.314 = 38.3 kJ mol−1 t1/2 = =
2.303RT T k k
If temperature increases, k increases (according to Arrhenius
equation) and since t1/2 is inversely proportional to k, so if k
4. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with increases then t1/2 decreases.
temperature (T) are given. The plot that follows Arrhenius If the reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion then,
equation is
(a) (b) 2.303 100 2.303 0.693
t 99.6 = log = 2.4 = 8 × = 8t1/2
k 0.4 k k
k k
(9) Using the expression for first-order reaction
2.303 [A ]
t= log 0
k [A ]
when the compound is decomposed to 1/8th of its initial
T T value then the time taken is
(IIT-JEE 2010) 2.303 1 2.303
t1/ 8 = log = log 8 (1)
Solution k (1/ 8 ) k
(a) According to the Arrhenius equation k = Ae − Ea / RT. As temp- when the compound is decomposed to 1/10th of its ini-
erature increases, rate constant (k) increases exponentially. tial value then the time taken is
5. The concentration of R in the reaction R → P was measured as 2.303 1 2.303
t1/10 = log = log 10 (2)
a function of time and the following data are obtained: k (1/ 10 ) k
[R] (mol L−1) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10 Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get
t (min) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of the reaction is ___. t1/ 8 log 8
= = log(23 ) = 3 × 0.3 = 0.9
(IIT-JEE 2010) t1/10 log 10
Solution
[t1/ 8 ]
(0) Considering zero-order kinetics, k1 = x/t = 0.25/0.05 = 5 So, the value of × 10 = 9.
[t1/10 ]
and k2 = x/t = 0.60/0.12 = 5. Since the rate constants are
coming to be constant, so the reaction follows zero-order 8. In the reaction, P + Q → R + S, the time taken for 75% reaction
kinetics. of P is twice the time taken for 50% reaction of P. The concen-
tration of Q varies with reaction time as shown in the figure.
6. For the first-order reaction
The overall order of the reaction is
2N2O5 (g) → 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
(a) The concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially [Q]0
with time.
[Q]
(b) The half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing
temperature.
(c) The half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concen-
tration of the reactant.
Time
(d) The reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-
life direction. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
(IIT-JEE 2011) (JEE Advanced 2013)
Solution
(b) The rate equation is rate = k[A][B]0 or rate = k [A]. Putting
(b) The reaction can be expressed as rate = 0.1 mol L−1 s−1 and [A] = 0.2 mol L−1, we get
16. For the given reaction A + B → Products , the following data 1.25 × 10 4
were given ln k = 14.34 −
T
Initial conc. of [A] (mol L−1) 0.1 0.2 0.1 Calculate (a) the energy of activation, (b) the rate constant
Initial conc. [B] (mol L−1) 0.1 0.1 0.2 at 500 K and (c) at what temperature will its half-life period
be 256 min?
Initial rate (mol L−1 s−1) 0.05 0.1 0.05
Solution
(a) Write the rate equation. From the Arrhenius equation, we have
(b) Calculate the rate constant. Ea
log k = log A −
Solution 2.303RT
(a) Let the order w.r.t reactants A and B be x and y, The given expression is
respectively. 1.25 × 10 4 14.34 1.25 × 10 4
x y ln k = 14.34 − ⇒ log k = −
Rate = k [A ] [B] T 2.303 2.303T
Putting rate = 0.05 mol L−1 s−1; and [A] = 0.1 mol L−1 and Comparing the two equations, we get
[B] = 0.1 mol L−1, we get Ea
(a) = 1.25 × 10 4 ⇒ Ea = 1.25 × 10 4 × 2.303 × 8.314
2.303R
0.05 = k[0.1] x [0.1] y (1)
= 2.393 × 105 J
Again putting rate = 0.1 mol L−1 s−1; and [A] = 0.2 mol L−1
1.25 × 10 4
and [B] = 0.1 mol L−1, we (b) When T = 500 K, we get ln k = 14.34 − = 14.34 − 25 = −10.66
500
0.1 = k[0.2] x [0.1] y (2) 1.25 × 10 4
ln k = 14.34 − = 14.34 − 25 = −10.66
500
−10.66
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get Therefore, k = e = 2.35 × 10 −5 s −1
x x (c) When t1/2 = 256 min, rate constant is
0.05 k[0.1] 1 1
= x
⇒ = , therefore x = 1
2 2 0.693 0.693
0.1 k[0.2] k= = = 4.51× 10 −5 s −1
t1/ 2 256 × 60
Now, 0.05 = k [0.1] x [0.2] y (3) Substituting in the given expression, we get
Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (3), we get 1.25 × 10 4 1.25 × 10 4
ln( 4.51× 10 −5 ) = 14.34 − ⇒T = = 513.4 K
x y y T 14.34 + 10.0066
0.05 k[0.1] [0.1] 1
= ⇒ 1 = , therrefore y = 0 1.25 × 10 4 1.25 × 10 4
0.05 k[0.1] [0.2] y
x 2 ln( 4.51× 10 −5 ) = 14.34 − ⇒T = = 513.4 K
T 14.34 + 10.0066
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I and the initial reaction rate is 4.42 × 10−7 mol L−1s−1. What is
the half-life of this system?
Single Correct Choice Type (a) 1.48 × 103 s (b) 2.63 × 104 s
(c) 1.96 × 10 s2 (d) 3.06 × 103 s
1. The reaction rate increases with rise in temperature due to
(a) increase in activation energy
11. The half-life periods of a reaction at initial concentrations 0.1
(b) increase in effective collisions between molecules
mol L−1 and 0.5 mol L−1 are 200 s and 40 s, respectively. The
(c) decrease in activation energy
order of the reaction is
(d) decrease in minimum kinetic energy (threshold energy)
(a) 1 (b) 1/2 (c) 2 (d) 0
required for the reaction to occur
12. For a first-order reaction,
2. Calculate the rate constant for the following acid–base reac-
(a) t0.75 = 3t0.5 (b) t0.75 = 2t0.5
tion if the half-life for the reaction is 0.0282 s at 25°C and the
(c) t0.75 = 1.5t0.5 (d) t0.75 = 4t0.5
reaction is first-order in the NH4+ ion.
13. A first-order reaction is carried out starting with 10 mol L−1
NH+4 (aq) + H2O(l) NH3 (aq) + H3O + (aq)
of the reactant. It is 40% complete in 1 h. If the same reac-
(a) 30.4 s−1 (b) 23.9 s−1 (c) 29.6 s−1 (d) 24.6 s−1 tion is carried out with an initial concentration of 5 mol L−1,
k1 the percentage of the reaction that is completed in 1 h
3. For an elementary reaction 2A B the rate of disappear-
k2 will be
ance of A is equal to (a) 40%. (b) 80%. (c) 20%. (d) 60%.
2k1 2
(a) [A ] (b) −2k1[A ]2 + 2k2 [B] 14. The rate constant, the activation energy and the Arrhenius
k2
parameter of a chemical reaction at 25°C are 3.0 × 10−4 s−1,
(c) 2k1[A ]2 − 2k2 [B] (d) (2k1 − k2 ) [A ] 104.4 kJ mol−1, and 6.0 × 1014 s−1, respectively. The value of
4. For the reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g), the experimen- the rate constant as T → ∞ is
tal data suggests Rate = k[H2][Br2]1/2. The molecularity and (a) 2.0 × 1018 s−1 (b) 6.0 × 1014 s−1
order of reaction for the reaction is, respectively, (c) infinity. (d) 3.6 × 1030 s−1
(a) 2 and 2 (b) 2 and 3/2 15. A plot of log t1/2 vs. log C0 is given in the following figure:
(c) 3/2 and 2 (d) 3/2 and 3/2
5. The slope in the log k vs. 1/T curve is 5.42 × 103. The value of
log t1/2
22. The half-life of a substance in a first-order reaction is 15 min. 32. According to the reaction
The rate constant is
(a) 2.46 × 102 min−1 (b) 4.62 × 10−2 min−1 Cr2O72 − + 5H+ + 3HNO2 → 2Cr 3+ + 3NO3− + 4H2O
−2
(c) 6.74 × 10 min −1 (d) 7.18 × 102 min−1
The rate of disappearance of Cr2O72− is found to be 2.4 × 10−4
23. The rate of a reaction increases 8 times when the concentra- mol L−1 s−1. Find the rate of appearance of Cr3+ during given
tion of the reactant increases four times. The order of the reac- time interval.
tion is (a) 4.8 × 10 −4 mol L−1 s −1 (b) 5.9 × 10 −4 mol L−1 s −1
(a) 2.5 (b) 2.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 0.5
(c) 6.2 × 10 −4 mol L−1 s −1 (d) 9.5 × 10 −4 mol L−1 s −1
24. Which represents first-order reaction out of I, II and III in the
following figure? 33. The inversion of cane sugar is represented by
C12H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6. It is a reaction that is
(a) second-order. (b) pseudo unimolecular.
log (a − x)
a−x
t1/2
II II III
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) I and III
1/Concentration
25. The decomposition of A into product has value of k as (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
4.5 × 103 s−1 at 10°C and energy of activation 60 kJ mol−1. At
what temperature, would k be 1.5 × 104 s−1? 35. If the temperature of a reaction is increased from 25°C to 75°C,
(a) 12°C (b) 24°C (c) 48°C (d) 36°C (a) the reaction rate decreases, but k remains the same.
(b) the reaction rate and k both decrease.
26. The temperature coefficients of two reactions are 2 and 3, (c) the reaction rate increases, but k remains the same.
respectively. Which would be correct for these reactions? (d) the reaction rate and k both increase.
(a) E < E a1 a2
(b) Ea1 > Ea2
36. Which of the following curves represents a first-order reaction?
(c) Ea1 = Ea2 (d) Cannot be predicted. (a) (b)
27. A first-order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition.
t1/2 t1/2
Calculate t1/2.
(a) 77.7 min (b) 27.2 min (c) 55.3 min (d) 67.3 min
a a
55. The plot of [A] vs. t for zero-order reaction gives slope 0.693
(c) Molar concentration (r) t1/ 2 =
k k (d) Half-life period of zero order k
(a) − (b) (c) 2.303k (d) −k a
2.303 2.303 reaction (s)
2k
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)
Level II
41. (a), (b) 42. (a), (c) 43. (c), (d) 44. (b), (c) 45. (a), (c) 46. (a), (b)
47. (a), (d) 48. (a), (b) 49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (b)
53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (a) → r; (b) → p; (c) → r; (d) → q 60. (a) → q; (b) → s; (c) → p; (d) → r 61. (a) → r; (b) → q; (c) → p; (d) → s
62. (a) → s; (b) → s; (c) → p, r; (d) → q, r 63. (2) 64. (3) 65. (4)
The half-life of the system is found using the half-life 17. (d) R1 = k[A][B]2 = k[0.6][0.80]2. The reaction involved is
equation for a second-order reaction A + 2B → C + D
1
t1/ 2 = 0.6 − 0.2 0.8 − 0.4 0.2 0.2
k × (initial concentration of reactant )
0.4 0.4 0.2 0.2
1
= −1 −1
So, R2 = k(0.4)(0.4)2. Comparing the rates, we get
(1.03 L mol s )(6.54 × 10 −4 mol L−1)
R2 (0.4 )(0.4 )2 1
= =
= 1.48 × 103 s R1 (0.6 )(0.8 )2 6
n −1
t a
11. (c) We know that 1 = 2 . 18. (c) For first-order reaction, half-life period is given by
t2 a1
0.693 0.693
Substituting given values, we get t1/ 2 = or k =
k t1/ 2
n −1
200 0.5 Given that at T1 = 27°C = 300 K; t1/2 = 20 min. Therefore,
= ⇒n=2
40 0.1 0.693
k1 = = 0.0346 min−1
20
12. (b) For a first-order reaction
At T2 = 77°C = 305 K; t1/2 = 5 min. Therefore,
0.693 0.693 0.693
t 0.5 = ⇒k = k2 = = 0.1386 min−1
k t 0.5 5
When the reaction is 75% complete, The activation energy is related to rate constants at two
2.303 [ a] 2.303 [a] different temperatures by the equation
t 0.75 = log = log
k [a − x ] k [a − 0.75a] TT k
Ea = 2.303 R × 1 2 × log 2
2.303 2.303 T2 − T1 k1
t 0.75 = log 4 = × t 0.5 × 0.603 = 2t 0.5
k 0.693 Substituting values in the equation, we get
13. (a) The time taken for completion of the whole reaction is 300 × 350 0.1386
Ea = 2.303 × 8.314 × × log
2.303 a 350 − 300 0.0346
t= log 0 = 19.147 × 2100 × log 4 = 24205.63 J mol−1
k a − x 0
For 40% completion of the reaction, = 24.205 kJ mol−1
2.303 10
t1 = log = 1 h
k 6 19. (a) Using the expression
If the initial concentration, that is, a = 5 mol L−1, then k Ea T2 − T1
lo g 2 = ,
2.303 5 k1 2.303 R T1 T2
t2 = log
k 5 − x
Ea 40 − 0
Given that t1 = t2 = 1 h. So, log(3) =
2.303 R 273 × 313
5 5 5 5 2.303 × 2 × 273 × 313
log = log or = or x = 2 ⇒ Ea =
3 5 − x 3 5− x 40
log 3
0.693 0.693 kT Ea 1 1
20. (b) k = = = 0.0693 log = −
t1/ 2 10 k283 2.303 R 283 T
2.303 a 2.303 0.08 1.5 × 10 4 s −1 6000 J mol−1
T − 283
So, t = log = log = 30 min log =
k a− x 0.0693 0.01 4.5 × 10 s 2.303 × 8.3 JK −1 mol−1 283 × T
3 −1
21. (a) In a second-order reaction, with one reactant, the inte-
On solving, we get T = 297 K = 24°C.
grated rate law equation is given by
1 x 26. (a) More is the temperature coefficient, more is the activa-
k=
t a(a − x ) tion energy.
where a = initial concentration of reactant at time = 0; 27. (a) Extent of reaction = 30% and time taken = 40 min
x = number of moles of reactant reacted at time = t; For a first-order reaction,
a − x = concentration of reactant after time t. 2.303 a 2.303 1
t= log = log
Given that a = 0.2 mol L−1, t = 20 min. At 40% comple- k a− x k 1− ( x /a)
tion of reaction, 2.303 1
40 min = log
a− x =a−
40
a = 0.6a k 1− 0.3
100 2.303 1
or x = a − 0.6a = 0.4 a or k = log = 8.92 × 10 −3 min−1
40 min 0.7
The rate constant may be obtained by substituting val- 2.303 log 2
ues in the above equation We know, for a first-order reaction, t1/ 2 =
k
1 0.4 a 1 2 2.303 log 2
k= = = 0.1667 L mol−1min−1 t1/ 2 = = 77.7 min
20 a(0.6a) 20 3 × 0.2 Then,
8.92 × 10 −3 min−1
At 75% completion of reaction,
28. (c) The expression for Rate = k [A]m[B]n
75
a− x =a− a = 0.25a or x = 0.75a Rate = x = k [0.1]m[0.1]n (1)
100 Rate = 4x = k [0.1]m[0.2]n (2)
Substituting values in integrated rate law equation, we Dividing Eq. (2) by Eq. (1), we get n = 2.
get Now, Rate = 16x = k[0. 4]m[0.2]n (3)
1 x Dividing Eq. (2) by Eq. (3), we get m = 1.
k=
t a(a − x ) Therefore, order of the reaction = m + n = 3.
35. (d) On increasing the temperature, the rate of the reaction 1 d[NH3 ] 1 d[O2 ] 1 d[NO] 1 d[H2O]
as well as the rate constant increases because num- − =− = =
4 dt 5 dt 4 dt 6 dt
ber of effective collisions increases and quantitatively,
the effect has been explained by Arrhenius equation d[NH3 ] 4 d[O2 ] d[NH3 ] d[NO]
or − =− or − =
k = Ae − Ea / RT . dt 5 dt dt dt
r = k[A ] x [B] y (1) 48. (a), (b) Given that 100 ∝ (0.1)1− n and 50 ∝ (0.025)1− n .
Dividing, we get
8r = k[2A] x [2B] y (2) log 2
2 = 41− n ⇒ log 2 = (1− n)log 4 ⇒ 1− n =
x
2r = k[A ] [2B] y
(3) log 4
log 2 log 2 1 1
On dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (3), we get y = 1; and on divid- ⇒ n = 1− = 1− = 1− =
ing Eq. (2) by Eq. (3), we get x = 2. So, the rate equation is log 4 2 log 2 2 2
r = k [A]2[B].
We have 100 ∝ (0.1)1/ 2 and t1/ 2 ∝ (1)1/ 2 . Dividing these two, we
Level II get
1/ 2
Multiple Correct Choice Type t1/ 2 1
= or t1/ 2 = 100 10 min
100 0.1
− E a /RT
41. (a), (b) According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae .
Therefore, Passage Type
Ea 2700 × 1
log k = log A − ⇒ log k = 2.1× 1010 − 49. (a) Since the reaction is of zero order with respect to B,
2.303RT 2.303RT hence any change in the concentration of B has no effect
42. (a), (c) For the reaction 4NH3 (g) + 5SO2 → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g), on the rate of reaction.
t
64. (3) The reaction is 2A → A2. The expression for rate of reac-
tion is Rate = k[A].
56. (b) According to the figure, in the given time of 4 h (1 to 5),
concentration of A falls from 0.5 M to 0.3 M, while in Rate = k [X]a (1)
the same time concentration of B increases from 0.2 M
27(Rate) = k [3X]a (2)
to 0.6 M.
Decreases in concentration of A in 4 h = 0.5 − 0.3 = 0.2 M. Dividing Eq. (1) by Eq. (2), we get
Increases in concentration of B in 4 h 0.6 − 0.2 = 0.4 M
a
Thus increase in concentration of B in a given time is 1 1
=
twice the decrease in concentration of A. Thus n = 2. 27 3
[B]2eq [0.6]2 So, a = 3 or order = 3.
57. (b) K = = = 1.2
[A]eq 0.3
1 1
58. (a) Initial rate of conversion of A = change in concentration 65. (4) In general, t1/ 2 ∝ . Given that t1/ 2 ∝ , this means
of A during 1 h [A]n0 −1 [A]30
0.6 − 0.5 n − 1 = 3 or n = 4.
= = 0.1 mol L−1 h−1
1
3
No. of Question
JEE (Main)
2
JEE (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
Topics Covered
Year
JEE (Main) JEE (Advanced)
2007 Properties, Classification and Purification of Colloids
2008 Protection of Colloids Properties, Classification and Purification of Colloids
2009 Adsorption Coagulation or Precipitation of Colloids
2011 Adsorption
Properties, Classification and Purification of Colloids,
2012 Adsorption Isotherms
Adsorption Isotherms
2013 Properties, Classification and Purification of Colloids Adsorption
Adsorption, Properties, Classification and Purification of
2015
Colloids
SUMMARY
1. The phenomenon of assimilation of higher concentration of any species at the surface of a solid or liquid as compared to that present
in the bulk of the material is known as adsorption.
2. The solid or liquid on whose surface gas or liquid is adsorbed is called adsorbent or substrate, and the gas or solution which is held
to this surface is called adsorbate.
3. The process of removal of an adsorbed substance from the surface is known as desorption. It occurs when the concentration (or
pressure) of the substance in bulk phase is lowered.
4. The distinguishing features of absorption and adsorption are:
Absorption Adsorption
Absorption is a bulk phenomenon in which the concentration The phenomenon of assimilation of higher concentration of any
of molecular species is uniformly distributed throughout the species at the surface of a solid or liquid as compared to that
body of the solid or liquid. present in the bulk of the material.
Slower process and the attainment of equilibrium takes longer Faster process and attainment of equilibrium takes shorter time.
time.
For example, adsorbents (charcoal or a mixture of products)
For example, ammonia is absorbed by water, whereas it is
used in the gas mask adsorb these gases and prevent their
adsorbed by charcoal.
inhalation.
5. Mechanism of adsorption
(a) The phenomenon of adsorption occurs due to the presence of unbalanced or residual forces at the solid or liquid surface. As a
result of these residual forces, the surface of the solid or liquid is in a state of strain and has a tendency to attract and retain mol-
ecules of another species, thus creating an excessive concentration at the surface.
(b) Adsorption reduces these residual forces, and this result in a decrease in the surface energy which appears in the form of heat.
This is known as heat of adsorption and the process of adsorption is an exothermic process.
6. Adsorption can be classified on the basis of the forces of attraction between the adsorbent and the adsorbate, into two types:
(a) Physisorption, also known as physical adsorption or van der Waals adsorption.
(b) Chemisorption, also called chemical adsorption or activated adsorption.
7. The distinguishing features of two types of adsorption are:
Physisorption Chemisorption
Forces of attraction involved between adsorbent and adsorbate Forces of attraction involved between adsorbent and adsorb-
are weak, long-range van der Waals forces. ate are strong chemical bonds.
No formation of a surface complex. Formation of a surface complex between adsorbate and
adsorbent.
Reversible in nature, as the gas adsorbed can be recovered back Irreversible in nature because it involves formation of chemi-
by lowering pressure or raising the temperature. cal bonds between adsorbent and adsorbate.
Occurs at low temperatures due to low activation energy (∼5 kJ). Occurs at high temperature due to high activation energy.
Magnitude of adsorption decreases with increase in tempera- Magnitude of adsorption increases with increase in tempera-
ture. ture.
Heat (enthalpy) of adsorption is low (20–40 kJ). Heat (enthalpy) of adsorption is high (80–240 kJ mol−1).
Adsorption is generally multilayered. Adsorption is monolayered.
where x is the mass of the adsorbate and m is the mass of the adsorbent at pressure p; k and n are constants depending upon the
nature of adsorbate and adsorbent. The value of n is usually greater than 1. Taking logarithm of the equation, we have
x 1
log = log k + log p
m n
A plot of log (x/m) vs. log p gives a straight line with a slope of (1/n) and intercept of log k as shown below.
log(x/m)
slope = 1/n
log k
log p
where k1= ka/kd which is a constant known as distribution constant. Also q is proportional to the amount of gas adsorbed (x)
per unit mass of the adsorbent (m), so
x
= k2q
m
where k2 is another constant. Substituting the value of q from the above equation, we have
x k1k2 p
=
m 1+ k1p
This is known as the Langmuir equation. Taking the reciprocal of Langmuir equation, we have
1 1+ k1p 1 1
= = +
( x /m) k1k2 p k1k2 p k2
p 1 p
= +
( x /m) k1k2 k2
A plot of p/(x/m) versus p gives a straight line with a slope of (1/k2) and intercept of (1/k1k2) from which the values of k1 and
k2 can be calculated.
9. Adsorption from solutions
(a) The relationship between the adsorption of solutes from solution and the concentration of the solution can be expressed in
terms of the Freundlich’s equation as:
x
= kC 1/n
m
where C is the constant depending upon the nature of solute and adsorbent.
Taking the logarithm of the equation, we get
x 1
log = log k + log C
m n
(ii) Negative catalysts or inhibitors: There are certain substances which, when added to the reaction mixture, retard its reac-
tion rate instead of increasing it. These are called negative catalysts or inhibitors. The examples of this type are antifreezes
like glycerol which retards rusting of the machine.
(d) Types of catalytic reactions
The catalysis process may be classified as follows:
(i) Homogeneous catalysis: In this catalytic reaction, the catalyst is in the same phase as the reactants. For example,
NO(g)
2CO(g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g)
(ii) Heterogeneous catalysis: In this catalytic reaction, the catalyst is in a different phase from the reactants. The example is
as follows where the reactants are gases whereas the catalyst is a solid.
Ni
CH2 CH2 + H2
→ CH3CH3
Tip The metals of Groups 5 to 11 show an increasing order of catalytic activity in hydrogenation reaction.
(h) The ability of a catalyst to affect the rate of certain reactions and prevent the other side reactions is known as selectivity of the
catalyst. This is also known as specificity of the catalyst, which implies that the use of a catalyst is specific to a reaction.
Tip Zeolites are can act as catalysts for reactions in which the size of reactants and/or products selectively fit into the pores and
cavities of the zeolite. This is known as shape-selective catalysis.
Products
Substrate
∗ ∗
Tip Two important characteristics of micelle formation are Kraft temperature (TK), which is the temperature above which micelle
formation takes place and critical micelle concentration (CMC), which is the concentration above which micelle formation takes
place.
Tip Milk is an unusual emulsion that is stable because it contains the naturally occurring protein called casein as
emulsifier.
(d) Emulsions also show mechanical properties of colloidal solutions such as Brownian motion and Tyndall effect.
(e) Emulsions can be precipitated by addition of electrolytes, since the particles are negatively charged.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Adsorption Solution
(c) The phenomenon of adsorption occurs due to the pres-
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
ence of unbalanced or residual forces at the solid or liq-
physisorption?
uid surface. As a result of these residual forces, the surface
(a) It occurs because of the van der Waals forces.
of the solid or liquid is in a state of strain and has a ten-
(b) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily.
dency to attract and retain molecules of another species,
(c) Under high pressure, it results into multimolecular layer on
thus creating an excessive concentration at the surface.
adsorbent surface.
Adsorption reduces these residual forces, and this results
(d) Enthalpy of adsorption (∆Hadsorption) is low and positive.
in a decrease in the surface energy which appears in the
(AIEEE 2009)
form of heat.
Solution
(d) 3. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for
(a) When a gas is held on the surface of solid by van der Waals physical adsorption?
forces without resulting in the formation of any chemical (a) Adsorption on solids is reversible.
bond between the adsorbate and adsorbant, it is called (b) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature.
physisorption. (c) Adsorption is spontaneous.
(b) Easily liquefiable gases, that is, gases having high critical (d) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative.
temperature, are adsorbed more strongly because they Solution
have stronger van der Waals forces of attraction.
(c) As the layers of the gas can be adsorbed one over the other (b) Because physical adsorption decreases with increase in
by van der Waals forces, multimolecular layers are formed temperature.
under high pressure. 4. Rate of physisorption increases with
(d) As physisorption involves only van der Waals forces of attrac- (a) decrease in temperature.
tion and no chemical change, the process is exothermic but (b) increase in temperature.
the enthalpy of adsorption is quite low (20–40 kJ mol−1). (c) decrease in pressure.
2. The following statements relate to the adsorption of gases on a (d) decrease in surface area.
solid surface. Identify the incorrect statement among them. Solution
(a) Enthalpy of adsorption is negative.
(b) Entropy of adsorption is negative. (a) According to physisorption,
(c) On adsorption, the residual forces on the surface are Absorbate + Absorbent Gas/solid + Heat
increased.
(d) On adsorption decrease in surface energy appears as heat. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, decrease in tem-
(JEE Main Online 2015) perature will shift the equilibrium to right or rate of
Vc ( 4/3)p (10 −6 /2)3 10 −18 In Bredig’s arc method, an electric arc is struck between
= = = 103 the electrodes suspended in a water bath. The heat thus
Vs ( 4/3)p (10 −7 /2)3 10 −21
produced converts the metal into vapours which are
condensed immediately by the water bath and colloidal
14. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and col-
size particles are formed.
loidal gold is positively and negatively charged, respectively.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
18. Which of the following processes can be used for the purifi-
(a) Magnesium chloride solution coagulates, the gold sol
cation of colloids?
more readily than the iron (III) hydroxide sol.
(a) Coagulation (b) Dialysis
(b) Sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in both
(c) Flocculation (d) All of these.
the sols.
(c) Mixing the sols has no effect. Solution
(d) Coagulation in both sols can be brought about by
(b) Dialysis is a process used for purification of colloids as it
electrophoresis.
allows separation of small particles from colloids. It can
Solution be used to purify solutions containing protein molecules
(c) On mixing oppositely charged sols, their charge gets and solute.
neutralized. Both the sols can be either partially or com-
pletely precipitated. Protection of Colloids
15. Gold sol is negatively charged. The flocculation values of 19. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50,
effective ions vary in the order: 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The correct order of their
(a) Sn4+ < Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+ protective powers is
(b) PO33 − < SO24− < Cl− (a) D < A < C < B (b) C < B < D < A
(c) A < C < B < D (d) B < D < A < C
(c) Na+ > Al3+ > Ba2+ > S4+
(AIEEE 2008)
(d) SO24− < Na+ < PO34− < Ba2 +
Solution
Solution
(c) Gold number is number of milligram of protective col-
(a) According to Hardy–Schulze rule, greater the valence of loid that will prevent precipitation of 10 ml gold solution
the active ion or flocculating ion, greater will be its coag- on addition of 1 ml 10% NaCl solution.
ulating power. Lesser the gold number of a protective colloid, the
16. Which of the following methods is not employed for the greater is its protective power.
purification of colloids?
20. The protective power of lyophilic sol is
(a) Electrodialysis (b) Dialysis
(a) dependent on the size of colloidal particles.
(c) Ultracentrifugation (d) Peptization
(b) expressed in terms of gold number.
Solution (c) expressed by x/m.
(d) Electrodialysis, dialysis and centrifugation are employed (d) directly proportional to the magnitude of charge on it.
for the purification of colloids. Solution
(b) Gold number measures the protective ability of colloid.
17. Metals like silver and copper can be obtained in the colloidal
state by
21. Gold number is minimum in the case of
(a) peptization. (b) Bredig’s arc method.
(a) gelatin. (b) egg albumin.
(c) dialysis. (d) coagulation.
(c) gum Arabic. (d) starch.
Solution
Solution
(b) Metals like silver and copper can be obtained in a colloi-
(a) Gelatin has the minimum gold number. It has the high-
dal state by Bredig’s arc method.
est capacity to prevent coagulation of 10 mL of standard
gold sol when 1 mL of 10% NaCl solution is added to 24. Which of the following has largest protecting power?
gold sol. (a) Gelatin (gold number = 0.01)
(b) Dextrin (gold number = 15)
22. The coagulation of 10 cm3 of gold sol is completely pre-
(c) Potato starch (gold number ≈ 25)
vented by addition of 0.025 g of starch of it. The gold number
(d) Albumin (gold number ≈ 0.25)
of starch is
(a) 0.025 (b) 0.25 (c) 2.5 (d) 25 Solution
Solution (a) Smaller the gold number, greater is its protective power.
(d) Gold number is the minimum amount of lyophilic col- Emulsions
loid in milligrams which prevents the coagulation of
10 mL gold sol against 1 cm3 of 10% NaCl. 25. The type of emulsion is mentioned against the emulsion in
10 cm3 of gold sol requires 0.025 × 103 mg of starch each of the following. Which is not correctly matched?
So, gold number = 25. (a) Milk: o/w (b) Vanishing cream: w/o
(c) Butter: w/o (d) Cold cream: w/o
23. Gold number of Gum Arabic is 0.15. The amount of Gum
Arabic required to protect 100 mL of red gold sol from coag- Solution
ulation by 10 mL of 10% NaCl solution is (b) Vanishing creams (i.e., stearic acid creams) are o/w
(a) 0.15 m mol (b) 0.15 mg emulsions.
(c) 1.5 m mol (d) 1.5 mg
26. The emulsifying agent present in milk that makes it stable is
Solution (a) lactose. (b) maltose.
(d) Gold number is the minimum amount of lyophilic col- (c) casein. (d) Lactic bacilli.
loid in milligrams which prevents the coagulation of Solution
10 mL gold sol against 1 mL of 10% NaCl. Therefore,
1.5 mg will be used. (c) Casein or milk protein stabilizes milk.
2. Among the electrolytes Na2SO 4 , CaCl2 , Al2 (SO 4 )3 and NH4 Cl, Solution
the most effective coagulating agent for Sb2S3 sol is (a), (b), (d)
(a) Na2SO4 (a) During adsorption, there is always decrease in surface
(b) CaCl2 energy which appears as heat. In other words, we can say
(c) Al2(SO4)3 that adsorption is an exothermic process.
(d) NH4Cl
(IIT-JEE 2009)
Potential energy
surface by chemisorption.
(c) Low temperature is favourable for physiosorption; it Eads
0
decreases with increase of temperature. High temper- Distance of molecule from the surface
ature is favourable for chemisorption; it increases with ∆Hads = 150 kJ mol−1
increase of temperature.
(d) Energy of adsorption is high in chemisorption which is
about 80–240 kJ mol−1 as compared to physiosorption
where the energy is about 20–40 kJ mol−1. (IV)
4. Choose the correct reason(s) for the stability of the lyophobic (a) I is physisorption and II is chemisorption.
colloidal particles. (b) I is physisorption and III is chemisorption.
(a) Preferential adsorption of ions on their surface from the (c) IV is chemisorption and II is chemisorption.
solution. (d) IV is chemisorption and III is chemisorption.
(b) Preferential adsorption of solvent on their surface from (IIT-JEE 2012)
the solution. Solution
(c) Attraction between different particles having opposite
charges on their surface. (a), (c) In case of physisorption, with the increase of tem-
(d) Potential difference between the fixed layer and the perature and pressure the rate of adsorption decreases
diffused layer of opposite charges around the colloidal because according to Le Chatelier’s principle, increase of
particles temperature and pressure will shift the equilibrium to the
(IIT-JEE 2012) left.
Adsorbate + Adsorbent Adsorption + Heat
Solution
(a), (d) In case of lyophobic sols, the ionic colloid adsorbs This is shown in Graphs I and III; whereas in case of
ions common to its own lattice during the preparation chemisorption, there is a formation of strong bond
of the sol. So they are stable and also the potential dif- between the adsorbate and the adsorbent and so the
ference which arises between the fixed layer and the dif- rate of adsorption increases with increase in temperature
fused layer makes lyophobic sols more stable. (Graphs II and IV).
5. The given graphs/data I, II, III and IV represent general trends 6. Methylene blue, from its aqueous solution, is adsorbed on
observed for different physisorption and chemisorption pro- activated charcoal at 25°C. For this process, the correct state-
cesses under mild conditions of temperature and pressure. ment is
Which of the following choice(s) about I, II, III and IV is (are) (a) The adsorption requires activation at 25°C.
correct? (b) The adsorption is accompanied by a decrease in enthalpy.
(c) The adsorption increases with increase of temperature.
(d) The adsorption is irreversible.
Amount of gas adsorbed
Given that the surface area of charcoal = 3.01 × 102 m2, so Solution
the area occupied by single acetic acid molecule on the (c) They are fairly stable and cannot be coagulated easily.
2 Some examples are starch, gum, gelatin, etc. dissolved
3 × 10
surface of charcoal is = 5 × 10 −19 m2 in a suitable solvent.
6.023 × 1020
10. Different concentrations of aqueous solutions placed with
8. 20% surface sites have adsorbed N2. On heating N2 gas charcoal which adsorbs a part of solute from solution as
evolved from sites and was collected at 0.001 atm and 298 K reported below at equilibrium.
in a container of volume is 2.46 cm3. Density of surface sites is
6.023 × 1014 cm−2 and surface area is 1000 cm2, find out the Concentration of solution × 102 2.0 4.0
number of surface sites occupied per molecule of N2. x/m 0.185 0.290
Solution Calculate the values of log k and n.
(2) Given that pN2 = 0.001 atm, T = 298 K, V = 2.46 cm3. By Solution
ideal gas equation, we have pV = nRT. So, x 1
log = log k + log C
m n
pV 0.001× 2.46 × 10 −3 1
n= = = 1.0 × 10 −7 log 0.185 = log k + log(2 × 10 −2 )
RT 0.0821× 298 n
Now, molecules of N2 = 6.023 × 1023 × 1 × 10−7
1
= 6.023 × 1016 log 0.290 = log k + log( 4 × 10 −2 )
n
Also, the total sites available = 6.023 × 1014 × 1000
= 6.023 × 1017. Solving, we get x = 0.64, k = 83.5 and log k = 1.92.
Therefore, surface sites used to adsorb N2 = 20% of the 11. Compare the coagulating power of AlCl3 with that of
20 NaCl. Given that their coagulation values are 0.093 and 52,
total sites available = × 6.023 × 1017 = 12.04 × 1016
100 respectively.
Therefore, the sites occupied per molecule of Solution
Surface sites used to adsorb N2 12.04 × 1016
N2 = = =2 Coagulating power is inversely proportional to the coagu-
Molecules of N2 6.02 × 1016 lating value. So,
9. Which of the following statements is correct for lyophilic Coagulating power of AlCl3 Coagulation value of NaCl
=
sols? Coagulating power of NaCl Coagulation value of AlCl3
(a) The coagulation of the sols is irreversible in nature. 0.52
(b) They are formed by inorganic substances. = = 559
0.093
(c) They are self-stabilized.
which means that AlCl3 has 559 times greater coagulation
(d) They are readily coagulated by addition of electrolytes.
power than NaCl.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
Level I 4. A colloidal system has particles of what size?
(a) 10−4 m to 10−9 m (b) 10−5 m to 10−7 m
Single Correct Choice Type −6 −9
(c) 10 m to 10 m (d) 10−6 m to 10−7 m
1. The Brownian movement of colloidal particles is because of 5. Which type of a property is the Brownian movement of colloi-
(a) convection currents in the fluids. dal solution?
(b) unequal bombardments by the molecules of the disper- (a) Electrical (b) Optical
sion medium on colloidal particles. (c) Mechanical (d) Colligative
(c) setting of dispersed phase under gravity. 6. Lyophilic solutions are more stable than lyophobic solutions
(d) thermal gradient in the medium. because
2. When FeCl3 solution is added to NaOH, a negatively charged (a) the colloidal particles have positive charge.
sol is obtained. It is due to the (b) the colloidal particles have negative charge.
(a) presence of basic group. (c) the colloidal particles are solvated.
(b) preferential adsorption of OH− ions. (d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the neg-
(c) self-dissociation. atively charged colloidal particles.
(d) electron capture by sol particles. 7. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicro-
3. A catalyst added to a reversible reaction scope, we can see
(a) changes the position of equilibrium. (a) light scattered by colloidal particles.
(b) increases the concentration of products. (b) size of the particle.
(c) increases the equilibrium constant. (c) shape of the particle.
(d) speeds up both forward and backward reactions. (d) relative size of the particles.
31. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum floc- (c) The adsorbed molecules do not interact with each other.
culation value for Fe(OH)3 sol? (d) The adsorption takes place in unimolecular layer.
(a) NaCl (b) Na2S
41. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) (NH4)3PO4 (d) K2SO4 (a) Flocculation value is inversely proportional to the coag-
32. Which of the following methods is used for sol destruction? ulating power.
(a) Condensation. (b) Alum is used for cleaning muddy water.
(b) Dialysis. (c) Milk is an emulsion of protein in water.
(c) Diffusion through animal membrane. (d) Gelatin added to ice cream acts as an emulsifier.
(d) Addition of an electrolyte. 42. Which of the following are accompanied by adsorption?
(a) Decrease in entropy of the system
33. Gold number gives the indication of
(b) Decrease in enthalpy of the system
(a) gram-molecules of gold per 1000 mL of colloidal solution.
(c) T∆S for the process is negative
(b) percentage of gold in the suspension.
(d) Increase in enthalpy of the system
(c) charge on the colloids.
(d) protective power of a colloid. 43. Which of the following are lyophilic colloids?
(a) Starch sol (b) Gum sol
34. Which of the following is not applicable to chemisorption?
(c) Gold sol (d) Protein
(a) Effect of pressure is given by Freundlich adsorption
isotherm. 44. Forces of attraction involved between adsorbent and adsorb-
(b) There is formation of a monomolecular layer. ate are
(c) It occurs at high temperature. (a) weak.
(d) It involves the formation of chemical bonds between (b) strong.
adsorbent and adsorbate. (c) long-range van der Waals forces.
(d) strong chemical bonds.
35. Blue colour of water in sea is due to
(a) refraction of blue light by impurities in sea water. Passage Type
(b) refraction of blue sky by water. Paragraph for Questions 45 to 48: The aggregation of Fe(OH)3 sol
(c) scattering of light by water. can be done by adding ionic solution, especially if the solution con-
(d) None of these. tains multiple-charged anions (e.g., phosphate ions). Coagulation
36. In which of the following colloidal systems the dispersion is the process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid undergoes
medium is a solid? aggregation, and thus separates from the continuous phase.
(a) Soap lather (b) Smoke 45. The electrolyte that has the least effect in the coagulation of
(c) Boot polish (d) Clouds Fe(OH)3 is
(a) potassium carbonate. (b) sodium sulphate.
Level II
(c) potassium ferrocyanide. (d) potassium iodide.
Multiple Correct Choice Type 46. Colloidal sulphur particles are negatively charged with thio-
37. Which of the following decrease the activation of a solid sulphate ions, S2O2−3 , and other ions on the surface of the
adsorbent? sulphur. Indicate which of the following would be most
(a) Subdividing the solid adsorbent. effective in coagulating colloidal sulphur.
(b) Polishing the surface of the solid adsorbent. (a) NaCl (b) KCl
(c) Carrying out the adsorption at very high temperature. (c) MgCl2 (d) Al2(SO4)3
(d) Blowing superheated steam through the porous 47. Which of the following solution is negatively charged?
adsorbent. (a) Arsenious sulphide
38. Emulsions also show mechanical properties of colloidal solu- (b) Aluminium hydroxide
tions such as (c) Ferric hydroxide
(a) Brownian motion. (b) Tyndall effect. (d) Silver iodide in silver nitrate solation
(c) Both (a) and (b). (d) none of these. 48. Which of the following anions will have minimum floccula-
tion value for the ferric oxide solution?
39. Crystalloid and colloid differ with respect to
(a) Cl− (b) Br−
(a) Tyndall effect. 2−
(b) particle size. (c) SO 4 (d) [Fe(CN)6]3−
(c) diffusion through a membrane.
Paragraph for Questions 49 to 53: Previously, the term “colloids”
(d) number of particles per unit volume.
was used for a category of substances. However, later, the term
40. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced based on the colloidal state of matter was preferred. Colloidal dispersions have
assumption: been classified into different types depending upon the physical
(a) The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to state of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium or the
adsorb the particles. nature of interactions between them or the nature of the colloidal
(b) The heat of adsorption varies with coverage. particles. They are prepared in the industry or in the laboratory
by a number of methods and then purified. Their properties have 56. Equilibrium in chemisorption attained
also been studied in detail. Hardy and Schulze made a substantial (a) relatively fast.
contribution in studying the coagulation of the colloids. The pro- (b) not possible.
tective action of lyophilic colloids was studied by Zsigmondy and (c) on changing temperature.
he introduced a term, called “gold number”. (d) relatively slowly.
49. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because Matrix-Match Type
(a) the colloidal particles have positive charge.
57. Match the colloidal dispersion with the nature of dispersion.
(b) the colloidal particles have negative charge.
(c) the colloidal particles are solvated. Column I Column II
(d) there is strong electrostatic repulsions between the (a) Milk (p) Solid in liquid
particles.
(b) Mist (q) Liquid in gas
50. Which one of the following forms micelles in aqueous solu- (c) Gold sol (r) Solid in solid
tion above certain concentration?
(a) Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride (d) Ruby glass (s) Liquid in liquid
(b) Glucose 58. Match the processes with their purpose.
(c) Urea Column I Column II
(d) Pyridinium chloride
(a) Electrophoresis (p) Purification of colloids
51. Identify the correct statement about the colloids. (b) Electrodialysis (q) Protection of colloids
(a) Colloidal sulphur is a substance. (c) Electrodispersion (r) Preparation of colloids
(b) A colloid can be defined as homogenous system.
(d) Addition of lyophilic sol (s) Coagulation of colloidal
(c) A colloidal state is intermediate between a true solution
particles
and a suspension.
(d) None of these. 59. Match the sol with its type.
52. Gold number is associated with Column I Column II
(a) electrophoresis. (b) amount of pure gold. (a) Gelatin sol (p) Lyophilic
(c) protective colloid. (d) precipitation of colloid. (b) Gold sol (q) Associated
53. The diameter of colloidal particle ranges from (c) Soap sol (r) Multimolecular
(a) 10–9 m to 10–6 m (b) 10–9 m to 10–12 m
(d) Starch sol (s) Macromolecular
(c) 103 m to 10–3 m (d) 10–3 m to 10–6 m
Paragraph for Questions 54 to 56: The adsorption is called phys- Integer Type
ical adsorption or physisorption if the accumulation of gas on the 60. Among the following, the number of substances that will
surface of a solid occurs due to weak van der Waals forces. The adsorb water vapour is ___.
adsorption is called chemical adsorption or chemisorption when Silica, alumina, charcoal, calcium chloride, calcium car-
the gas molecules or atoms are held to the solid surface by chem- bonate, powdered cellulose, kieselguhr, fuller’s earth.
ical bonds that are either ionic or covalent. Chemisorption is often
referred to as activated adsorption because it has a rather high 61. In a linear plot for log(x/m) vs. log p, if the slope is 45° and the
energy of activation. intercept on log(x/m) is 0.3010, then amount of gas adsorbed
in grams at 0.5 atm pressure is ___.
54. Which of the following is not a characteristic of chemisorption?
(a) Adsorption is irreversible. 62. In an experiment, addition of 4.0 mL of 0.005 M BaCl2 to 16.0
(b) ∆H is of the order of 40 kJ. mL of arsenious sulphide sol just causes the complete coagu-
(c) Adsorption is specific. lation in 2 h. The flocculating value of the effective ion is ___.
(d) Adsorption increases with increase of surface area.
63. The coagulation of 100 mL of a colloidal solution of gold is
55. Magnitude of physical adsorption decreases with completely prevented by adding 0.08 g of starch to it before
(a) decrease in temperature. (b) increase in temperature. adding 10 mL of 10% NaCl solution. The gold number of
(c) constant temperature. (d) high pressure. starch is ___.
ANSWER KEY
Level I
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c)
Level II
37. (b), (c) 38. (a), (b), (c) 39. (a), (b), (c) 40. (a), (c), (d) 41. (a), (b), (d) 42. (a), (b), (c)
43. (a), (b), (d) 44. (a), (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (a) → s; (b) → q; (c) → p; (d) → r 58. (a) → s; (b) → p; (c) → r; (d) → q
59. (a) → p, s; (b) → r; (c) → q; (d) → p, s 60. (5) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (8)
9. (b) This is in accordance with adsorption theory of hetero- 31. (a) The reaction involved is (NH4 )3PO 4 → 3NH+4 + PO34− .
geneous catalysis. Greater is the valency, greater is the coagulating power
and coagulating power is inversely proportional to the
10. (d) Due to coagulation of blood forming a clot. coagulation value or flocculation value. As Fe(OH)3 is a
11. (a) Forms positively charged SnCl4. positively charged sol so, a negative ion will be needed
to coagulate it. Out of the given anions, PO3− 4 has the
12. (c) Chemisorption involves chemical bonds, and hence is
maximum coagulating power and Cl− has the least coag-
specific in nature.
ulating power. In other words, PO3− 4 has the least floccu-
13. (b) Conceptual lation value and Cl− has maximum flocculation value.
14. (b) Isotherms are curves, showing variation of adsorption 32. (d) An electrolyte addition can destroy a sol by coagulating
with pressure at constant temperature (hence the term it.
isotherms).
33. (d) Gold number is used for the protective power of colloid,
15. (c) Solvation of colloidal particles along with same charge smaller the gold number, greater is its protective power.
on colloidal particles favours stability of lyophilic colloids.
34. (a) Physisorption is well dealt by the Freundlich isotherm,
16. (a) Langmuir adsorption isotherm is based on the assump- but not chemisorption.
tion that every adsorption site is equivalent and the abil- 35. (c) Blue colour of water in sea is due to scattering of light by
ity of a particle to bind is independent of whether or not water and this effect is known as Tyndall effect.
nearby sites are occupied.
36. (c) Boot polish contains a solid as a dispersion medium.
17. (a) Peptization takes place forming a colloidal sol of FeCl3.
18. (b) Dispersion medium and dispersed phase are the two Level II
phases of colloids. Multiple Correct Choice Type
19. (a) In this type, the phase of the catalyst and the reactants/ 37. (b), (c) On polishing the surface or making the surface
products are different. smooth, rate of adsorption decreases. The activation of a solid
20. (c) In aerosol, the dispersion medium is a gas while dis- adsorbent decreases with increase in temperature. A quantity
persed phase is a liquid. of heat known as heat of adsorption is evolved on adsorption
21. (b) Multimolecular adsorption takes place at temperature of one mole of gas. By Le Chatelier’s principle, high tempera-
83 K. ture would shift the equilibrium towards desorption.
38. (a), (b), (c) Emulsions also show mechanical properties of 53. (a) The diameter of the colloidal particle ranges from
colloidal solutions such as Brownian motion and Tyndall 1–1000 nm or 10−9 m to 10−6 m.
effect. 54. (b) ∆H for chemisorptions is about 40–400 kJ.
39. (a), (b), (c) Tyndall effect is observed in colloids and not
55. (b) Magnitude of physical adsorption decreases with
crystalloid.
increase in temperature.
The particle size of colloids is 1–1000 nm whereas that of
crystalloid is >1000 nm. 56. (d) Equilibrium in chemisorption is attained relatively
Colloids cannot diffuse through semi-permeable membrane, slowly.
whereas crystalloid can pass through the same membrane.
The number of particles per unit volume is the same for both Matrix-Match Type
crystalloid and colloid. 57. (a) ã s; (b) ã q; (c) ã p; (d) ã r
40. (a), (c), (d) According to is Langmuir adsorption isotherm, Milk is an emulsion of liquid fat in water, that is, liquid in
the whole of the surface is assumed to be unimolecular liquid.
layer of gas molecules. The number of molecules striking per Mist is an aerosol in which dispersed phase is liquid, whereas
unit area is proportional to pressure. There is no interaction the dispersion medium is gas.
between the adsorbed molecules. Gold sol is a sol in which dispersed phase is solid, whereas
41. (a), (b), (d) Flocculation value is inversely proportional to dispersion medium is liquid.
the coagulation value. More is the coagulation value, less is Ruby glass is a solid sol in which dispersed phase as well as
the flocculation value. medium is solid.
The negatively charged colloidal particles get neutralized by 58. (a) ã s; (b) ã p; (c) ã r; (d) ã q
the Al3+ ions (present in alum) and settle down, thus pure Electrophoresis is the movement of colloidal particles under
water can be separated out. the influence of electric field. The colloidal particles reach
Milk is an emulsion of liquid fat in water. oppositely charged electrodes and get neutralized and
Gelatin acts as a stabilizing agent when added to ice cream. coagulated.
42. (a), (b), (c) During adsorption, surface energy decreases and Electrodialysis is the process of purification of colloids from
also the molecules of the adsorbate are held together on the crystalloids by passing them through a semi-permeable mem-
surface of solid adsorbent, so entropy also decreases and brane and electric field is applied to speed up the process.
according to the equation Electrodispersion is a method for the preparation of col-
∆G = ∆H − T∆S loids. Sols of gold, silver are prepared by this method.
∆G is negative only when T∆S will be positive As lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols so to
prevent the coagulation or precipitation of colloids, lyophilic
43. (a), (b), (d) Starch sol, gum sol and protein are solvent lov-
sols are added.
ing (lyophilic) whereas gold sol is lyophobic.
59. (a) ã p, s; (b) ã r; (c) ã q; (d) ã p, s
44. (a), (c) Forces of attraction involved between adsorbent and
Gelatin sol is an example of lyophilic, macromolecular colloid.
adsorbate are weak, long-range van der Waals forces.
Gold sol is an example of multimolecular colloid.
Passage Type Soap sol is an associated colloid.
Starch sol is a lyophilic, macromolecular colloid
45. (c) Fe(OH)3 is a positively charged colloid and can be coag-
ulated by negatively charged ion. Among the given Integer Type
ions, that is, CO23 − , SO24− , CN− and I− , the least effect
60. (5) Adsorption can be physical or chemical. Silica, alumina,
will be of CN− as the valency is the least.
charcoal, calcium chloride, and powdered cellulose will
46. (d) According to Hardy–Schulze rule, greater the valence adsorb water vapour.
of the active ion or flocculating ion, greater will be its
coagulating power. 61. (1) On plotting log x/m vs. log p we get intercept as log k
which is equal to 0.3010. So, k = 2.
47. (b) Aluminium hydroxide solution is negatively charged.
The slope is 45°, so 1/n = 1 or n = 1.
48. (d) Greater the valence of the active ion or flocculating ion, Therefore, according to Freundlich adsorption isotherm,
greater will be its coagulating power. x/m = kp1/n ⇒ x/m = 2p = 2(0.5) = 1.
49. (c) This is because the lyophobic sols get precipitated by
62. (1) As S4 sol is negatively charged owing to preferential
the addition of electrolytes whereas lyophilic sols do not.
adsorption of S2 ions. Cation would be the effective ion in
50. (a) Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride forms micelles coagulation. Flocculating value = minimum mmol of the
at critical micelle concentration (CMC).
4 × 0.005 × 103
51. (c) A colloidal state is intermediate between a true solution effective ion per litre of sol = = 1.0
4 + 16
and a suspension. For example, sulphur is a substance,
but colloidal sulphur is sulphur dispersed in water, in 63. (8) Amount of starch adsorbed (in 100 mL) = 0.08 × 1000
which sulphur atoms combine to form multimolecules. = 80 mg
52. (b) Gold number is associated with gold sol and is used Gold number = 80 × 10% (NaCl) = 80 × 10/100 = 8.
to compare the protective action of different lyophilic
colloids.
3
No. of Questions
JEE (Main)
2
Jee (Adv)
0
2016 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009 2008 2007
SUMMARY
1. Radioactivity refers to the particles which are emitted from nuclei as a result of nuclear instability. The most common types of radi-
ation are called alpha, beta, and gamma radiation.
2. Nuclides
(a) A particular combination of protons and neutrons is called a nuclide.
(i) Nuclides with the same number of protons are called isotopes.
(ii) Nuclides with the same mass number are isobars.
(iii) Nuclides with the same number of neutrons are isotones.
(iv) A radioactive nuclide that has excess nuclear energy, making it unstable is called a radionuclide.
39 19 235 231
(b) Isodiaphers are those radioactive nuclides that have the same (N − Z) or (A − 2Z) values. For example, 19 K and 9 F (A − 2 Z = 1); 92 U and 90Th (A − 2 Z
39 19 235 231
19 K and 9 F (A − 2 Z = 1); 92 U and 90Th (A − 2 Z
= 51).
(c) Isosters are those molecules that have the same number of atoms as well as electrons. For example, CO2 and N2O (atoms = 3,
electrons = 22); N2 and CO (atoms = 2, electrons = 14).
3. Stability of nucleus
(a) Forces in the nucleus
(i) In a stable nucleus, the attractive forces are greater than the repulsive forces.
(ii) In an unstable nucleus the repulsive forces exceed the attractive forces and spontaneous fission occurs.
(b) Stability
(i) Even number of protons and neutrons: Elements of even atomic number are more stable and more abundant than neigh-
bouring elements of odd atomic number (Harkin’s rule).
(ii) Certain nuclei are extra-stable due to a filled shell. Nuclei with 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82 or 126 neutrons or protons are particularly
stable and have a large number of isotopes. These numbers are termed magic numbers.
(c) The ratio of neutrons to protons
(i) For the most stable nuclei the ratio n/p = 1.
(ii) Elements with higher atomic numbers are more stable if they have a slight excess of neutrons. Thus the ratio n/p increases
progressively up to about 1.6 at Z = 92 (uranium).
(iii) In elements with still higher atomic numbers, the nuclei have become so large they undergo spontaneous fission.
40 40
19 K → 20 Ca + −1e
Electron
nucleus.
• The electron captured by the nucleus in this reaction is usually a 1s
electron
reaction.
0 0
−1 e + −1 e → 2g
(Continued)
(Continued)
• The daughter nuclides produced by a-decay or b-decay are often 60 60 m 0
26 Fe → 27 Co + −1e
Gamma emission
110 n
=
p 1.49
100
90
80
70
Neutrons
107
60 47 Ag
n
=
p 1.28
50
n
40 p =1
56
Fe
26
30 n = 1.15
p
20
10
20 n
10 Ne p = 1
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Protons
(a) The solid line represents a neutron-to-proton ratio of 1:1. There is no stable nuclides with atomic numbers larger than 83.
(b) Nuclei that lie above this line have too many neutrons and are therefore neutron-rich.
(c) Nuclei that lie below this line don’t have enough neutrons and are therefore neutron-poor.
6. Binding energy and nuclear stability
(a) The difference between the mass of an atom and the sum of the masses of its protons, neutrons, and electrons is called the mass
defect.
(b) The mass defect is also known as the binding energy (BE) of the nucleus.
(i) Larger the BE, the more stable is the nucleus.
(ii) The BE of a nuclide can be calculated from its mass defect with Einstein’s equation, E = ∆mc2.
(iii) BE gradually increases with atomic number; they tend to level off near the end of the periodic table.
Tip Calculations of the binding energy can be simplified by using the following conversion factor between the mass defect in atomic
mass units and the binding energy in million electron volts (MeV).
1 u = 931.5016 MeV
(c) Binding energy per nucleon can be obtained by dividing the binding energy for a nuclide by the total number of protons and
neutrons it contains.
7. Kinetics of radioactive decay
(a) Radioactive nuclei decay by first-order kinetics.
(b) From an atom A undergoing radioactive decay to form B, the rate of radioactive decay is
d(N )
Rate = − = k (N )
dt
where N is the initial concentration of the radioactive substance and dN is the amount that disintegrates in time t.
Tips (a) The negative sign shows that the number of isotopes of the atom decrease with increases in time.
(b) The rate of radioactive decay does not depend on the chemical state of the isotope.
(c) The constant k is known as the disintegration or decay constant and is represented by l.
−1 dN
l=
N dt
Disintegration constant can be defined as the fraction of the total number of atoms disintegrating per second.
lnN = lt + A (A is the integration constant)
N N
At t = 0, N = N0, so, ln N = − lt + ln N0 ⇒ ln 0 = lt ⇒ 0 = e lt
N N
or N = N0e − lt ⇒ N = N0 10 − lt / 2.303
(d) The time required for decay of any specific fraction (n) of the isotope is proportional to the initial concentration: t1/ n ∝ [N0 ]
N −N N
(e) The fraction of atoms (a) decayed in time t is given by a = 0 = 1− = 1− e − lt
N0 N0
8. Half-life period
(a) The half-life for the decay of a radioactive nuclide is the length of time it takes for exactly half of the nuclei in the sample to decay.
ln 2 0.693
= t1/ 2 =
l l
(b) The half-life of a nuclide can be used to estimate the amount of a radioactive isotope left after a given number of half-lives. If the
initial amount of radioactive substance is N0, then the amount of radioactive substance decomposed and left after subsequent
half-life times is given below:
Number of half-life times (nt1/2) Amount of radioactive substance (N) Amount of radioactive substance
decomposed (N0)
0 N0 0
( 21 ) N0
1 1
1N = 1− 21 N0 = 21 N0
2 0
( 21 )
2 2
1N = N0 1− 41 N0 = 43 N0
4 0
( 21 ) N0
3 3
1N = 1− 81 N0 = 78 N0
8 0
( 21 )
4 4 1 N = 15 N
1 N = N0 1− 16 0 16 0
16 0
( 21 ) ( 21 )
n n n
N0 1− N0
9. Average life
(a) The average or mean life of an atom is the sum of lives of all atoms divided by the total number of atoms.
Total life time of all atoms
Average life (t avg ) =
Total number of atoms
(b) Let initially the number of radioactive atoms in a sample be N0 and at time t be N. If the number of atoms disintegrating between
time t and (t + dt) is given by dN, then, total life of dN atoms can be given by dN × (t + dt) or dN × t (neglecting dt as it is very small).
Therefore,
N0 ∞
Total life of all the atoms =
∫
0
tdN =
∫
0
tdN as number of initial number of atoms is very large.
t avg =
∫ 0
tdN
=
∫ 0
−t lNdt
(as −
dN
= kN )
N0 N0 dt
∞
=
∫ 0
−t lN0e − lt dt
(as N = N0e − lt )
N0
∞ 1
=
∫0
−t le − lt dt =
l
The average life is thus equal to the reciprocal of the decay constant.
(c) The average life in terms of half-life time is
0.693
t1/ 2 = = 0.693 × t avg ⇒ t avg = 1.44t1/ 2
l
If t = 1/l, then N = N0e − lt = N0e −1 = 0.37N0
Thus, the number of atoms of A and B are in the ratio of their average life times.
N (t )
Since t1/2 = 0.693/l, substituting in equilibrium relation, we have 1 = 1/ 2 1 .
N2 (t1/ 2 )2
Case 1: When The parent • The number of parent nuclei at any time t is given by:
k1 < k2 and element is longer N1 = N0e −l1t
(t1/2)1 ≈ (t1/2)2 lived than the
daughter element • The amount of daughter element formed at any time t can be calculated using the relation:
but half-lives of N l
N2 = 0 1 [e − l1t − e − l2t ]
both are nearly the l2 − l1
same
• When t is sufficiently large, e −l2t e −l1t , so the number of daughter nuclei being formed at
any time t is
l1 l1
N2 = ⋅ N0e − l1t = ⋅ N1
l2 − l1 l2 − l1
N1 l2 − l1
Therefore, =
N2 l1
This condition is known as transient equilibrium and is the steady state where ratio of the
parent and daughter element becomes constant.
• The time at which maximum activity of the daughter element is observed can be calculated
using the relation
2.303 l
tmax = log10 2
l2 − l1 l1
(Continued)
(Continued)
Case 2: When When the parent In this case steady state is not achieved.
k1 > k2 and element has shorter
(t1/2)1 < (t1/2)2 half-life time than
the daughter
element.
l1 = [Fractional yield of B] × l
l2 = [Fractional yield of C] × l
27 30
13 Al(a , n)15 P
(c) Artificial radionuclides are also synthesized in nuclear reactors, which are excellent sources of slow-moving or thermal neu-
trons. The absorption of a neutron usually results in a neutron-rich nuclide.
16. Transmutation
(a) Transmutation is the conversion of one chemical element or isotope into another through nuclear reaction.
(b) All of the elements beyond neptunium (atomic number 93 and higher, known as the transuranium elements) are synthetic.
(c) To make the heaviest elements, bombarding particles larger than neutrons are used, such as a-particles or the nuclei of heavier
atoms.
17. Dating by radioactive decay
The 14C dating technique is based on the following assumptions.
(a) 14C is produced in the atmosphere at a more or less constant rate.
(b) Carbon atoms circulate among the atmosphere, the oceans, and living organisms at a rate very much faster than they decay. As
a result, there is a constant concentration of 14C in all living things.
(c) After death, organisms no longer pick up 14C.
(d) Thus, by comparing the activity of a sample with the activity of living tissue, we can estimate how long it has been since the
organism died.
(e) Samples used for 14C dating can include charcoal, wood, cloth, paper, seashells, limestone, flesh, hair, soil, peat, and bone.
18. Nuclear reactions
(a) It is a process in which two nuclei, or a nucleus of an atom and a subatomic particle such as a proton, neutron, high energy
electron or a-particle from outside the atom, react to produce one or more new elementary particles (nuclides).
(b) Some important types of nuclear reactions are:
Particle capture In these reactions the particle used for bombarding is absorbed by the sub- 27 1 28
reaction stance, with or without the emission of g -radiation. 13 Al + 0 n → 13 Al + g
Particle-particle In these reactions, the collision of a nucleus with the bombarding particle 14 1 14 1
reaction leads to formation of a new nucleus and a new elementary particle. Most of 7N + 0 n → 6 C + 0H
Spallation reac- In these reactions, high energy projectiles remove a fragment of the heavy 75 2 56 1 1
tion nucleus to form two new nuclei and a new elementary particle 33 As + 1H → 25 Mn + 1H + 12 0 n
Fission reaction In these reactions a heavy nucleus is broken down into two heavy or medi- 235 1 139 94 1
92 U + 0 n → 56 Ba + 36Kr + 30 n
um fragments and is accompanied by release neutrons and large amount of
energy
Fusion reaction In these reactions, light nuclei fuse together to form new nuclei that are com- 7 1 2
paratively heavy and release a large amount of energy 8 Li + 1H → 2 4 He + Energy
(b) The reaction that is most likely to fuel the first fusion reactor is the thermonuclear deuterium–tritium, reaction.
2 3 4 1
1 H + 1H → 2He + 0 n
Tip Most of the energy radiated from the surface of the sun is produced by the fusion of protons to form helium atoms within its
core.
(c) Each fusion reaction is characterized by a specific ignition temperature, which must be surpassed before the reaction can occur.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Modes of Radioactive Decay 23
(c) the nuclide 11 Na.
1. In the transformation of 238 234
92 U to 92 U, if one emission is an
23
(d) the isobar of 11 Na.
a -particle, what should be the other emission(s)?
Solution
(a) Two b − (b) Two b − and one b + 24 23
(c) 12 Mg → 11Na + 11p
(c) One b − and one g (d) One b + and one b +
(AIEEE 2006) 4. Which of the following is the element X?
234 4 0
Solution 92Th → 7 2He + 6 −1 e + X
238 234 4 0 −
(a) 92 U → 92 U + 2 He + 2 −1 e .
Change of 4 units in atomic
(a) Pb (b) Sn (c) Tl (d) Hg
mass is compensated by one a -particle but there should
be emission of two b −-particles also to compensate Solution
0
atomic number. (a) The reaction is 234 4 A
90Th → 72 He + 6 −1 b + Z X.
2. Which of the following nuclear reactions will generate an Now, 234 = 7(4) + 6 (0) + A ⇒ A = 206 and
isotope? 90 = 7(2) + 6 (−1) + Z or Z = 82.
(a) b-particle emission (b) Neutron particle emission Therefore, X is Pb.
(c) Positron emission (d) a-particle emission 5. Calculate the number of neutrons in the 238
92 X atom produced
(AIEEE 2007) after the emission of alpha particle.
Solution (a) 152 (b) 144 (c) 185 (d) 135
(b) In beta (b-particle) emission: A neutron is converted into a Solution
proton. 238 234 4
1 1 0
(b) 92 X → 90Y + 2He
0 n → 1 p + −1e
Number of neutrons = 234 − 90 = 144
14 14 0
6 C → 7 N+ −1e
Atomic number is different but it has the same mass
number. Radioactive Decay Rate
In neutron particle emission: Mass number gets decreased 6. A radioactive element gets spilled over the floor of a room. Its
due to removal of one neutron. half-life period is 30 days. If the initial activity is 10 times the
87 86 1
36 Kr → 36 Kr + 0 n permissible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter
Isotopes have same atomic number but different mass the room?
number. Hence isotope is formed in neutron particle (a) 100 days (b) 1000 days
emission. (c) 300 days (d) 10 days.
In positron emission: Protons are converted into neutron. (AIEEE 2007)
Solution
1 1 0
1 p → 0 n + 1e (a) We know that
19 19 0
10 Ne → 9 F+ 1e dN
Activity = − ∝N
Species with smaller atomic number is obtained. dt
In a-particle emission: Mass number is decreased by four
n n
units and atomic number is decreased by two units. 1 N 1
N = N0 ⇒ =
2 N0 2
238 234 4
92 U → 90Th+ 2 He+Energy
n
24 1 1
3. A photon knocks a proton out of 12 Mg nucleus to form Therefore, = ⇒ 10 = 2n
(a) the isotope of parent nucleus. 10 2
(b) the isobar of parent nucleus. Taking log on both sides, we get
log10 = n log 2 24
9. Calculate the half-life of 11 Na if 2.4 × 10−5 g sample disinte-
1 grates at the rate of 7.75 × 1012 atoms s−1.
or n= = 3.32 (as log 2 = 0.3010)
0.301
(a) 0.539 × 105 s (b) 0.439 × 105 s
Therefore, t = n × t1/ 2 = 3.32 × 30 = 99.6 days
(c) 0.269 × 105 s (d) 0.359 × 105 s
7. You have 0.1 gram-atom of a radioactive isotope ZA X (half-life = Solution
5 days). How many number of atoms will decay during the elev- (a) The disintegration constant,
enth day?
Disintegration rate
(a) 2.10 × 1022 (b) 3.05 × 1022 l=
Number of atoms present
(c) 1.31× 1022 (d) 4.32 × 1022
The number of atoms of 24Na present
Solution 1
= 2.4 × 10 −5 × × 6.023 × 1023 = 6.023 × 1017 and given
(c) The number of atoms undergoing decay is N0 = 0.1 × 6.023 24
× 1023 = 6.023 × 1022 atoms. that rate = 7.75 × 1012 atoms s−1.
After 11 days, the number of atoms decayed = On substituting, we get
7.75 × 1012
N0e − lt = 6.023 × 1022 × e −( 0.693 × 11)/ 5
= 6.023 × 1022 × 0.2177 l= = 1.286 × 10 −5 s −1
22 6.023 × 1017
= 1.31× 10
0.693 0.693
8. Calculate the number of disintegrations per minute in Therefore, t1/ 2 = = = 0.5388 × 105 s
l 1.286 × 10 −5
a 1.00 mg sample of 238U, assuming that the half-life is 4.47
× 109 years.
Energy Changes in Nuclear Reactions
(a) 653 (b) 746 (c) 589 (d) 825
10. The observed mass of 56 26 Fe is 55.9375 amu. Using the masses
Solution of proton and neutron as 1.00732 amu and 1.00866 amu,
(b) Rate = lN respectively, calculate the binding energy per nucleon in MeV
and in joules.
0.693 0.693
l= =