1.

The results of blood smear from EDTA tube of a patient is as follows:

 crescent-shaped gametocytes
 presence of all sizes of red blood cells
 Maurer’s dots
 multiple delicate rings with 2 chromatin dots in red cells
What is the most likely organism identified?

a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium knowlesi
d. Plasmodium ovale

2. Protozoan trophozoites may be destroyed when processing stool specimen using ______ technique.

a. culture
b. concentration
c. viral isolation
d. direct microscopy

3. Which culture medium does NOT inhibit Gram-positive organisms while allowing the growth of
Gram-negative rods?

a. Salmonella-Shigella Agar
b. Tetrathionate Broth
c. Blood Agar
d. Selenite Broth

4. What selective and differential medium is used to isolate Vibrio species?

a. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar

b. Campy blood agar
c. Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar
d. Thioglycollate broth

5. Which special media is used for growing organisms that need low oxygen content, reduced
oxidation reduction potential and extra nutrients?

a. Alkaline Peptone Water

b. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
c. Thioglycollate Broth
d. Pseudocel agar

6. What is the color change of the methylene blue infused strip when an anaerobic environment has
been achieved in an anaerobic jar?

a. Blue
b. Colorless
c. Green
d. White

7. The favorable energy source for many enteric pathogens is

a. mannitol
b. sodium citrate
 c. lysine
d. V factor

8. Which of the following is the correct result for E. coli using the Methyl Red Voges-Proskauer test?

a. MR+/VP-
b. MR-/VP-
c. MR+/VP+
d. MR-/VP+

9. Curved Gram negative bacilli seen in a 35 years old patient with gastric ulcers. What can be used to
confirm a possible GI tract infection?

a. H2S test
b. culture the organism in agar
c. Urease test
d. PYR test

10. Sealed centrifuge buckets with liquid culture media are appropriately unloaded in a __________.

a. fume hood
b. dry laboratory bench
c. disinfected table top
d. biological safety cabinet

11. The drug of choice for treatment of Paragonimus infections is

a. Praziquantel
b. Thiabendazole
c. Albendazole
d. Ivermectin

12. Why is a second dengue infection worse than the first?

a. Infection with other serotypes

b. Infection with related viruses
c. Inadequate treatment
d. Inadequate immune response

13. When undercooked meat is ingested, the larvae of this parasite is resistant to the gastric pH so that
they eventually pass to the intestines where they invade the mucosa. What organism is described?

a. T. cati
b. T. canis
c. T. spiralis
d. D. medinensis

14. The specimen to be collected for Epstein Barr virus PCR amplification is _______.

a. synovial fluid
b. serum
c. whole blood in 5mL EDTA
d. sputum
15. A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal swab is the collection device of choice for recovery of
______ from the nasopharynx.

a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Bacteroides fragilis

16. What is chocolate agar made of?

a. lysed red blood cells

b. clotted blood
c. brown-colored nutrient agar
d. chocolate added to plain agar

17. Stool specimens for the diagnosis of typhoid fever are POSITIVE _______ of illness

a. after the first week

b. during second week
c. after first day of illness
d. during first week

18. Transmission of food-borne trematodes may be influenced by _______.

a. sex
b. geography
c. climate change
d. age

19. Which of the following parasites cause a food borne parasitic zoonosis causing an acute syndrome
with cough, abdominal pain, discomfort and low grade fever that may occur 2-15 days after infection.
Long term infection may mimic tuberculosis. Consumption of shellfish specialty dishes are implicated
in this condition.

a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Paragonimus westermani

20. Which of the following is the ultimate goal of the National External Quality Assurance Scheme
(NEQAS) for Parasitology?

a. An unsatisfactory result is a basis for discontinuing the testing

b. Validate the entire testing process
c. Validate the performance characteristics of reagents
d. Verify accuracy and reliability of testing

21. When performing the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, what is the
MOST appropriate remedial action when the zone diameters are too large or too small with all the
antimicrobials?

a. Standardize illumination
b. Take fresh culture from stock
 c. Check the inoculum size
d. Check the preparation of inoculum

22. An organism capable of growth in cold environment is a __________.

a. mesophile
b. thermophile
c. hyperthermophile
d. psychrophile

23. The first larval stage of a trematode which is hatched from an egg often ciliated and free swimming
is _______.

a. rediae
b. cercaria
c. miracidium
d. metacercaria

24. During specimen collection, how do you minimize contamination of skin scrapes?

a. wipe the area with dry sterile gauze

b. clean the area with 70% alcohol
c. clean the area with soap and water
d. wipe the area with iodine disinfectant

25. Identify the parasite form ingested by the female Anopheles mosquito during a blood meal.

a. schizont
b. gametocyte
c. merozoite
d. sporozoite

26. Determining an organism’s ability to liquefy _______ aids in the classification of the
Enterobacteriaceae.

a. peptone
b. mannitol
c. nutrient gelatin
d. beef extract

27. A solution used for routine examination of stool samples is

a. phosphate buffered saline

b. normal saline
c. half normal saline
d. plain water

28. What is the purpose of flaming an inoculating loop before and after use?

a. to prevent accumulation of dust particles

b. to sterilize
c. to prevent cross-contamination
d. to test integrity of the loop
29. What type of infection mimics acute viral enteritis, bacillary bacterial poisoning and traveler’s
diarrhea where the dysentery, diarrheic stools lack blood, mucus, and cellular exudate?

a. Cryptosporidiosis
b. Giardiasis
c. Balantidiosis
d. Sarcocysticosis

30. What additional tests are included when IMViC tests are done?

a. sugar & Simmon’s citrate

b. motility & H2S
c. oxidase & urease
d. catalase & coagulase

31. Which of the following can be used as positive control in Gram staining?

a. E. coli
b. S. pyogenes
c. P. aeruginosa
d. S. aureus

32. What differentiates modified acid-fast staining from regular AFB staining?

a. the staining time takes longer than AFB staining

b. the decolorizer is weaker in modified acid-fast staining than the acid alcohol in regular AFB staining
c. the stain is more concentrated when staining for AFB
d. a counterstain must be used for modified methods

33. All these aerobes have cell walls containing mycolic acid, EXCEPT:

a. Nocardia
b. Rhodococcus
c. Corynebacterium
d. Streptomyces

34. A structure that helps in the locomotion of certain forms of bacteria is:

a. flagellum
b. pili
c. cilium
d. fimbria

35. In thioglycollate broth medium, where do you find obligate aerobe?

a. middle of the tube

b. at the bottom of the tube
c. at the top of the tube
d. evenly spread in the tube

36. Bacteria that thrive in extreme heat are called _______.

a. thermophiles
b. psychrotrophs
 c. mesophiles
d. psychrophiles

37. At what phase of the bacterial growth curve are microorganisms most susceptible to antibiotics?

a. lag phase
b. log phase
c. stationary phase
d. decline phase

38. What does a dessicator do?

a. preserve moisture sensitive items

b. precipitate
c. dilute concentrated acids
d. agglutinate

39. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the skin be cleansed with:

a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution

b. 70% alcohol then 2% iodine or an iodophore
c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
d. 95% alcohol only

40. The wearing of masks is a precaution to prevent infection due to ____________.

a. gram negative organisms

b. gram positive organisms
c. droplet nuclei
d. viruses

41. A lesion from the buccal mucosa of a patient with C. albicans in exudate shows _________.

a. blastoconidia, occasional mycelium

b. macroconidia, chlamydospores
c. macroconidia, blastoconidia
d. blastoconidia, chlamydospores

42. Which staining method is utilized to demonstrate the presence of diffuse capsule surrounding the
bacteria?

a. negative staining
b. gram staining
c. positive staining
d. simple staining

43. Which of the following is NOT true of virions?

a. contains RNA
b. reproduce independently
c. contains DNA
d. extracellular
44. The most common viral syndrome of pericarditis, myocarditis, and pleurodynia (pain upon
breathing) is caused by:

a. Herpes simplex virus

b. Respiratory syncytial virus
c. Epstein Barr virus
d. Coxsackie B virus

45. Scabies is a/an _____________.

a. invasion
b. parasitism
c. infection
d. infestation

46. Animals that harbor parasites and serve as an important source of infection are known as ____
host.

a. reservoir
b. accidental
c. natural
d. intermediate

47. Which is an activity during the pre-analytical phase of Parasitology testing?

a. correct patient identification

b. use of controls
c. standardized reporting of parasite concentration
d. ensure proper storage of reagents and stains being used

48. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has _________.

a. central karyosome, ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia

b. ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, uneven chromatin
c. ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, large glycogen vacuoles
d. large, blotlike karyosome, ingested WBCs, granular pseuodopods

49. Which substance interferes with stool sample testing?

a. cooking oil
b. mineral oil
c. calcium
d. hair dye

50. Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is commonly caused by ___________.

a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Acanthamoeba spp.
c. Entamoeba hartmanni
d. Dientamoeba fragilis