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Ashoksen SSB Ah
Ashoksen SSB Ah
higgs model
Sarthak Duarya
a
International Centre for Theoretical Sciences,Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Shivakote,
Bengaluru 560089, India.
E-mail: sarthak.duary@icts.res.in
Abstract: In this note, we review spontaneous symmetry breaking broadly, ideas of global
and local symmetries. We see how abelian higgs model arises in the context of a charged
scalar field coupled to U (1) gauge field.
The note is based on 4 online lectures given by Prof. Ashok Sen in the course titled
Quantum Field Theory II.
Lecture link:
Lecture 19.(Last part) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pbHJjvz3zqM
Lecture 20. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lnnFpv0693E
Lecture 21. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KJGnFiF1qvA
Lecture 22. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pfOyWZZFeZc
Keywords: Spontaneous symmetry breaking, covariant derivative, abelian higgs model etc.
Contents
Consequence is it vansihes for n =odd. In general for fields {φi the symmetry tranformation
~ (this tranformation can depend not only on φ(x) but also its derivatives. )
is φi (x) → Fi [φ].
–1–
Now,the correlation function-
Y
[Dφ]eiS[φ] ( φi (x))
R
* +
i
Y
φi (x) = R
iS[φ]
i
[Dφ]e
Y
[Dχ]eiS[F (~χ)] ( Fi [~
R
χ])
i
= R (change variable from φi to χi ,defined through φi = Fi [~
χ])
[Dχ]eiS[F (~χ)]
Y
[Dχ]eiS[~χ] ( Fi [~
R
χ])
i
= R (action is invariant under this-S[F (~
χ)] = S[χ])
[Dχ]e χ]
iS[~
Y
[Dφ]eiS[φ] ~
R
Fi [φ]
i
= R (χ → φ)
[Dφ]eiS[φ]
* +
Y
= ~
Fi (φ) .
i
Consider the action of eq.(1.1) and m2 < 0.(m2 = −µ2 , µ2 > 0.) Rewritten the action we get-
Z
1 1 λ
S = d4 x[− ∂µ φ∂ µ φ + µ2 φ2 − φ4 ].(λ is a small parameter) (1.3)
2 2 4
p
Pole is at p2 − µ2 = 0 ⇒ p0 = p~2 − µ2 .Velocity of the particle,
∂E pi
vi = =p .
∂pi p~2 − µ2
Squaring it,
p~2
~v 2 = >1
p~2 − µ2
where we consider p~2 > µ2 . Such particle will travel faster than the speed of light(in our units
c = 1) leading to acausal propagation.Such particle is known as tachyon. This conclusion
is reached by doing perturbation theory where O(φ4 ) term is neglected with respect to φ2
term.Now,we will see that is it justified or not?
Consider equation of motion-−φ = µ2 φ,if ∇φ = 0,then∂02 φ = µ2 φ.
Solution is
φ = Aeµt + Beµt .
φ grows with time for generic initial condition.
Figure 1 gives the shape of the potential.
Potential is
1 λ
V (φ) = − µ2 φ2 + φ4 (1.4)
2 4
r
0 2 3 µ2
V (φ) = −µ φ + λφ = 0 ⇒ φ = ± .
λ
–2–
Figure 1: Potential with two symmetric wells
2
Potential has a local maxima at φ = 0 i.e. ddφV2 < 0 and minima at ±φ0 where φ0 = µ2 /λ..
p
So, doing perturbation theory sitting at φ = 0 is not correct way to treat this theory because
it’s an unstable point.Remedy is to do perturbation theory around φ0 .
Conclusion in brief: If we naively try to quantize the theory around φ = 0 we would led to
the conclusion that we have a particle of negative m2 which translates to a particle moving
at speed > c,those we called tachyonic particle. Then we see that this is not a correct way to
quantize the theory because if we are at this point we can see that any small fluctuations is
going to drive the system away from φ = 0.This is an unstable point, hence the correct way
to do is to analyze the theory around ±φ0 .
The meaning of quantizing the theory around one of these point is when we perform path
integral over the field we have to put some boundary condition at infinity and typically the
boundary condition one puts is φ → 0 at infinity that’s because φ = 0 is the minimum of the
potential. But in this case,as we go to infinity we can either put φ = φ0 orφ = −φ0 , that
choice breakes the symmetry between the two vacua,whether we choose φ0 or −φ0 . Other way
of saying it φ = −φ which is in V (φ) is broken by the boundary condition because boundary
condition we have to fix is either φ = φ0 or φ = −φ0 . 1 .
Lets see now what happens if we quantize the theory around φ = φ0 .
1
Similar thing occurs in spontaneous magnetization where the net magnetization is up or down. This is
determined by what boundary condition we put on the spins.
–3–
q
µ2
Define χ = φ − φ0 ⇒ φ = φ0 + χ = λ . We substitute it in eq.(1.4) and expand-
r 2 r
4
1 µ2 µ2λ
V = − µ2 +χ + +χ
2 λ λ 4
r ! 2 2 r 2 3 r 2 2 r !
1 2 µ2 µ2 2 λ µ µ µ 2 µ2 3 4
=− µ +2 χ+χ + +4 +6 χ +4 χ +χ
2 λ λ 4 λ λ λ λ
r r ! !
µ4 2 µ2 2 µ2 1 2 3 2 p λ
=− +χ −µ +µ 2
+ χ − µ + µ + χ3 µ 2 λ + χ4
4λ λ λ 2 2 4
µ2 p λ
=− + µ 2 χ2 + χ3 µ 2 λ + χ4 .
4λ 4
This has no symmetry under φ → −φ. This is due to the fact that boundary condition
that we put on the field φ on the path integral breaks φ → −φ symmetry.In terms of χ
boundary condition i.e. χ → 0 as we go towards ∞ and that clearly breaks the φ → −φ
boundary condition. Action is invariant but boundary condition that we are putting is not
invariant.Here,we are breaking the symmetry by putting a boundary condition.
Mathematically,φ0 + χ → −φ0 − χ ⇒ χ → −2φ0 − χ(symmetry of the action). χ → 0 as
x → ∞ that boundary condition is not respected by this transformation. χ → 0 becomes
χ → −2φ0 . In contrast, if µ2 = −ve = −m2 .Then V (φ) will be-
m2 2 λ 4
V (φ) = φ + φ . (1.5)
2 4
Then we put a boundary condition φ → 0 as x → ∞ then both the boundary condition as
well as the potential is invariant under φ → −φ. So, there will be no spontaneous breaking
of symmetry. Here,the breaking of symmetry comes because of the opposite sign here.Now
the consistent boundary condition are not φ → 0 as x → ∞ but φ → +φ0 or φ → −φ0
as x → ∞.Those break the symmetry under φ → −φ. In this case,the way we’re defining
–4–
the correlation function is by path integral by taking χ fluctuation as small. So,we put the
boundary condition χ which is χ → 0 as x → ∞ which in terms of φ translates to φ → φ0 as
x → ∞ and that boundary condition is not invariant under φ − φ.
The correlation function don’t have an obvious symmetry.
φ=0 is the maximum of the potential.Because of the negative sign of the potential, if we try
to quantize around φ = 0 we naively get a particle with m2 = −ve representing tachyon. This
is not true as at this point a small fluctuation is going to drive away from this point.(φ = 0
is the maximum of the potential.)
µ2 2 λ
V =− (φ1 + φ22 ) + (φ21 + φ22 )2 (1.7)
2 4
The symmetry of the potential is φ → eiα φ. (α is any real number.) Here we can change
α continuously as α is a continuous variable. So,we call it a continuous symmetry. We can
represent it as - ! ! !
φ1 cos α − sin α φ1
→ . (1.8)
φ2 sin α cosα φ2
Now,
φ0 = φ01 + iφ02
= (cos αφ1 − sin αφ2 ) + i(sin αφ1 + cos αφ2 )
(1.9)
= (cos α + i sin α)φ1 + i(cos α + i sin α)φ2
= eiα φ
Plotting the potential V as a function of φ1 and φ2 we get-
2
Minima at (φ2 = 0) V = µ2 φ21 + λ4 φ41 .
q q
2 2 2
Differentiating, −µ2 φ1 +λφ31 = 0 ⇒ φ21 = µλ ⇒ φ1 = µλ . ⇒ φ = √12 (φ1 +iφ2 ) = µλ . Now,
we know if one point is minimum and any other point related by symmetry transformation
are minimum.q(Symmetry relates all points which all are equivalent.) If the potential has a
µ 2
minimum at λ then it has a minima at all other points which are related by symmetry
transformation. Therefore making the symmetry transformation-
r
µ2 iβ
φ= e
2λ
–5–
Figure 2: Potential V (φ1 , φ2 ) 3D plot
–6–
V = −µ2 φ̄φ + λ(φ̄φ)2
r
2
! r
2
! "r
2
r 2 #2
µ µ µ µ
= −µ2 + χ̄ +χ +λ + χ̄ +χ
2λ 2λ 2λ 2λ
" r #
2 2
µ µ
= −µ2 + χ + χ̄ + χ̄χ
2λ 2λ
" 2 2 r r #
µ4 µ2 µ2 µ 2 µ2 µ2
+λ + χ + χ̄ + χχ̄ + 2 χ + χ̄ + 2 χ̄χ + 2 χ + χ̄ χ̄χ
4λ2 2λ 2λ 2λ 2λ 2λ
r r r
µ4 µ2 µ2 µ2 µ2 λ
2 2 2 2 2
=− + χ + χ̄ −µ +µ + χ̄χ(−µ + µ ) + (χ̄ + χ) + 2 (χ + χ̄)χ̄χ + λ(χ̄χ)2
4λ 2λ 2λ 2 2
µ4 p √ 1 λ
=− + µ2 χ21 + 2µ2 λ 2χ1 (χ21 + χ22 ) + (χ21 + χ22 )2
4λ 2 4
µ4 p λ
=− + µ2 χ21 + µ2 λχ1 (χ21 + χ22 ) + (χ21 + χ22 )2 .
4λ 4
Therefore, the potential-
µ4 p λ
V =− + µ2 χ21 + µ2 λχ1 (χ21 + χ22 ) + (χ21 + χ22 )2 . (1.10)
4λ 4
Therefore, χ1 has got a positive (mass)2 , χ2 is massless i.e no mass term for χ2 . We have
chosen our vacuum to around the point marked by black dot on the axis of φ1 given below.
φ2
χ1 fluctuation), then the potential is supposed to go up, because it’s a local minimum. χ1
has got mass.If we move in the transverse direction,then the potential doesn’t change due
to symmetry. This is why, χ2 is massless.Deformation generated by χ2 are such that the
potential doesn’t change in those direction, that’s why the field is massless. 2 Now, χ2 is the
Goldstone bosons associated with continuous symmetry.
Summerize: We worked out a specific example of spontaneous symmetry breaking.We had
a single complex scalar field which transforming under a U (1) gauge symmetry and we saw
that under certain condition of the potential, scalar field may get a non-zero value at its
2
Mass essentially is the statement that fluctuation around field direction costs energy,potential has 1
2
m2 φ2
means it costs energy to move in the φ direction.
–7–
minimum. The minimum of the potential may be at a non-zero value of the scalar field
which breaks the symmetry spontaneously and as a result of that we got a massless scalar
field at the end.When we study the fluctuation around the minimum, we found a massless
scalar. Physical interpretation of that is quite clear. Once the symmetry is broken, now we
don’t have a unique vacuum (minima of the potential) which are related by the symmetry
transformation. Along those direction, because the potential doesn’t change the mass of the
corresponding scalar should be zero,because the second derivative vanish.
Φ → R(g)Φ, g ∈ G. (2.1)
Kinetic term as well as potential terms are invariant under this transformation. Now the
kinetic term is ∂µ ΦT ∂ µ Φ is manifestly invariant if RT R = I.
Now, V (R(g), Φ) = V (Φ) for all g ∈ G.φ0 is a minimum of V (φ).(not necessarily unique)
Now, if R(g)Φ0 = Φ0 ⇒ g is unbroken,
if R(g)Φ0 6= Φ0 g is broken.
Claim:Suppose H is the subset of element of G which are unbroken i.e. if h ∈ H ⇒ R(h)Φ0 =
Φ0 .We’ll show that H is a group.
Proof: If h1 , h2 ∈ H ⇒ R(h1 ) = Φ0 , R(h2 ) = Φ0 .
R(h1 h2 )Φ0 = R(h1 )R(h2 )Φ0 = Φ0 .(where we used since R is a representation R(h1 h2 ) =
R(h1 )R(h2 ).).
Now, g0 ∈ G but g0 ∈ / H, Φ00 = R(g0 )Φ0 6= Φ0 . Let, g0 is the symmetry of the
0
potential.R(g0 )Φ0 = Φ0 is also minima of the potential if Φ0 is the minima of the poten-
tial.
Suppose,h ∈ H then
R(h)Φ00 = R(h)R(g0 )Φ0 6= Φ0 .
This is because R(h)R(g0 ) 6= R(g0 )R(h). Now,let H 0 is the subset of elements of G such that
R(h0 )Φ00 = Φ00 ⇒ h0 ∈ H.
Claim:If h ∈ H,then g0 hg0−1 ∈ H 0 .(conjugated by g0 )
Proof:Using property of representation we decompose R(g0 hg0−1 .).
Now,
–8–
Similarly in identical way we can prove if h0 ∈ H 0 ,then g0−1 h0 g0 ∈ H.
Now, we’ll show if h01 , h02 are conjugation of h1 and h2 ,then h01 h02 is conjugation of h1 h2 .
h01 h02 = g0 h1 g0−1 g0 h2 g0−1 = g0 h1 h2 g0−1 = g0 hg0−1 . ⇒ H, H 0 are isomorphic.
V (R(g)Φ0 ) = V (Φ0 )
nG
X
⇒ V (Φ0 + i εa T a Φ0 ) = V (Φ0 ).
a=nH +1
This means that,we can move starting from Φ0 there are nG − nH directions in which we
can move but the potential doesn’t change.It implies there are nG − nH massless goldstone
bosons.
2. We will now see what happens in case of discrete symmetry.Considering the potential
which has a discrete Z2 symmetry,
Z2 : x → −x
Figure 3 describes a potential with two symmetric wells and it preserves the discrete
Z2 symmetry.
–9–
Figure 3: Potential with two symmetric wells
In quantum mechanics with two symmetric wells (potential of the type illustrated in
Figure 3) the true ground state is a symmetric linear superposition of wave functions,
concentrated near each well. This property of the ground state arises as a consequence
of tunneling between the wells.
So,the conclusion is there is no spontaneous breaking of discrete symmetry in quantum
mechanics(0+1 dimensional QFT.)3 . In 1+1 dimensional QFT,we have field configura-
tion φ1 (x) = a, φ2 (x) = −a.Consider, the potential with the symmetry,
h : φ → −φ
Suppose, we prepare the state in the φ1 (x) = a,if it has to go the other ground state
φ2 (x) = −a what is required is that spontaneously everywhere it has to tunnel and go
to the other ground state. In field theory,this tunneling must take place simultaneously
in the whole space, thus its amplitude vanishes.The tunneling probablity vanishes. In
the context of QFT, this is called Mermin-Wagner-Coleman Theorem.
Mermin-Wagner-Coleman Theorem:
– 10 –
(b) When the dimension of spacetime is >2,spontaneous breakdown of continuous is
possible.
Here, α can be identified with α ∼ α + 2π, θ = qα,q ∈ Z. If L contains one scalar field, then
q doesn’t play any role. If same SO(2) is acting on two different fields, in that case there will
be a distinction because two different fields may have different q value.
Let, L(φi , ∂µ φi ) is such that SO(2) is a symmetry. Suppose, we have a spontaneous symmetry
breaking of SO(2) saying,
φ21 + φ22 = a2 , (φ1 , φ2 ) = (0, a).
Unbroken symmetry of this will be SO(1).
If SO(2) is broken down to Zq , i.e.H = Zq (rotations by α = 2π
q ).G = SO(2), H = Zq .
Goldstone’s theorem still say that there is one goldstone boson because dim(H) = 0 in terms
of continuous counting.
Can we make a L that is invariant under local SO(2) transformations i.e α = α(x)?
1
L = (∂µ φ1 ∂ µ φ1 + ∂µ φ2 ∂ µ φ2 ) − U (φ21 + φ22 ) (3.2)
2
The potential energy term in eq.(3.2) is invariant under local SO(2) transformations.
φ = φ1 + iφ2
(3.3)
φ̄ = φ1 − iφ2
We get,
φ0 = φ01 + iφ02
= (cos qαφ1 − sin qαφ2 ) + i(sin qαφ1 + cos qαφ2 )
(3.4)
= (cos qα + i sin qα)φ1 + i(cos qα + i sin qα)φ2
= eiqα φ
From eq.(3.4), we get
φ0 = eiqα(x) φ
(3.5)
φ̄0 = e−iqα(x) φ̄
In QFT, these are like particle-antiparticle. L can be rewritten in terms of complex basis,
1
L = (∂µ φ∂ µ φ) − U (|φ|2 )
2
– 11 –
Computing ∂ µ φ0 ,∂µ φ̄0
Dµ0 φ0 = eiqα(x) Dµ φ
Dµ0 φ̄0 = e−iqα(x) Dµ φ̄
We postulate the existance of a new field Aµ (x) that transforms under local SO(2) as-
Dµ φ ≡ ∂µ φ − iqAµ φ
Dµ φ̄ ≡ ∂µ φ̄ − iqAµ φ̄
Dµ0 φ0 = ∂µ φ0 − iqA0µ φ0
= ∂µ (eiqα φ) − iq(Aµ + ∂µ α)eiqα φ
= eiqα Dµ φ + iqα iqα
φ −
iq∂ αe
µ iq∂ αe
µ φ
= eiqα Dµ φ
Leibnitz rule satisfied by ordinary derivates is also satified by covariant derivatives. But,covariant
derivative need not commute. The obstraction to commutativity is interesting in itself. First,
we need to check that the rule of covariant derivative.
Rule is if a field φ has charge +q then Dµ0 φ0 = ∂µ φ0 − iqA0µ φ0 .
Check:Dµ (φ2 ) = (∂µ − i2qAµ )φ2 (using the rule)
We’ll compute the same thing using leibnitz rule,
– 12 –
4 The Higgs mechanism in the U (1) case:
Antisymmetrizing,
[Dµ , Dν ]φ = −iq(∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )φ
= −iqFµν φ
Fµν = ∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ
Dµ φ = ∂µ φ − igAµ φ
V (φ, φ̄) = −µ2 φ̄φ + λ(φ̄φ)2 .
= eigα(x) Dµ φ
Thus-
Dµ0 φ0 = eigα(x) Dµ φ
Dµ0 φ̄0 = e−igα(x) Dµ φ̄.
4
Dν φ and φ has same charge.
– 13 –
Therefore, kinetic term is gauge invariant,other terms are manifestly gauge invariant.
Define, r
1 µ2
χ = √ (χ1 + iχ2 ) = φ −
2 2λ
r r
µ2 1 µ2
φ= + √ (χ1 + iχ2 ) = + χ.
2λ 2 2λ
q
2
φ = 0 is a maximum,V (φ) has minimum at φ = µ2λ .
Lets look at the term 5 -
Z Z
− d4 xDµ φ̄Dµ φ = − (∂µ φ̄ + igAµ φ̄)(∂ µ φ − igAµ φ)d4 x
Z " r #
1 µ µ µ2 µ µ2 2 µ
=− ∂µ χ1 ∂ χ1 + ∂µ χ2 ∂ χ2 − 2 gAµ ∂ χ2 + g Aµ A + · · · .
2 λ λ
(where · · · representsq
cubic and quadratic in fields term.)
Define , Bµ = Aµ − µλ2 g −1 ∂µ χ2 . We think of Bµ as independent variable rather than Aµ .
6
" #
Z
1
Z
µ 2
− d4 xDµ φ̄Dµ φ = − d4 x ∂µ χ1 ∂ µ χ1 + g 2 Bµ B µ .
2 λ
Fµν = ∂µ Bν − ∂ν Bµ
" #
1 1 µ 2 µ 4
S = d4 x − Fµν F µν − ∂µ χ1 ∂ µ χ1 + g 2 Bµ B µ − µ2 χ21 + + ··· . (4.2)
4 2 2λ 4λ
To obtain eq.(4.2) we have used the result obtained in eq.(1.10) and . . . denotes cubic and
higher order terms in fields.
– 14 –
2. One field χ2 is disappeared from the kinetic term.So,we’ve gotten rid of the problem
from the gauge field sector but χ2 propagator is ill-defined.
To see this let’s see the problem. The kinetic term has zero eigenvalue because the theory has
gauge invariance. Now,Aµ → Aµ + ∂µ ε ⇒ δAµ = ∂µ ε, φ → eigα(x) φ ⇒ δφ = igα(x)φ. Now,
r
µ2 1
φ= + √ (χ1 + iχ2 ) (4.3)
2λ 2
From this we get,
r !
1 µ2 1
δφ = √ (δχ1 + iδχ2 ) = igα(x) + √ (χ1 + iχ2 ) . (4.4)
2 2λ 2
– 15 –
q
2
χ2 has field independent term. (g in numerator, λ in denominator.) Important thing is g µλ
is independent of field.Because of the field independent term if we look at the χ2 kinetic term
it must have a zero eigenvalue because if we change χ2 by a constant the kinetic term should
not change.Kinetic term is-
χ2 (−k)M (k)χ2 (k).
Replace χ2 (k) by constant it should be invariant.
M (k)(constant) = 0.
( for arbitary value of the constant.) Only choice is M (k) = 0. The fact that χ2 has no kinetic
term,it looks surprising but it’s forced by Gauge-invariance. It’s impossible to write a kinetic
term for χ2 which will be invariant under a transformation of this kind-
r
µ2
δχ2 = g α(x) + gα(x)χ1 (x).
λ
We have to resolve the problem that χ2 has no propagator.We resolve this by gauge-fixing.
In this case, we choose gauge function to be χ2 (x)-
H(x) = χ2 (x).
Now, δH = δχ2 (x) ⇒ removing integration over χ2 and setting χ2 = 0 in the path inte-
gral.This gauge is called Unitary gauge.
Now, consider Sghost -
δH α (x)
Z
d4 xd4 yb(x) c(y).
δα(y)
r
α µ2
H = χ2 + g α(x) + gα(x)χ1 (x)
rλ
δH α µ2 4
⇒ =g δ (x − y) + gχ1 (x)δ 4 (x − y).
δα(y) λ
– 16 –
4.4 No Goldstone boson,gauge field becomes massive a more rigorous way
We see that when we have a abelian gauge field coupled to a complex scalar and the minima
of the potential for a complex scalar is not at zero but at some finite value of the field.The
action-
!
µ2 2
Z Z
1 4 µν 1 4 µ µ 2 2
S=− d xFµν F − d x ∂µ χ1 ∂ χ1 + g Bµ B + 2µ χ1 + · · · (4.8)
4 2 λ
Ghost fields which we’ve to add in the action are non-dynamical since their propagator has
no poles.Their is one more field χ2 , we’ve gauge fixed to zero.First of all,χ2 didn’t appear in
the kinetic term,but χ2 appears in the interaction term. Now,
Fµν = ∂µ Bν − ∂ν Bµ .
From eq.(4.9) we see that χ1 represent a real scalar field of m2χ1 = 2µ2 . Now we can look at
Bµ . Bµ kinetic term is-
d4 x
Z
1
Bµ (−k)M µν (k)Bν (k).
2 (2π)4
Now we get
M µν (k) = −k 2 η µν + k µ K ν − g 2 v 2 η µν .
q
µ2
where v = λ .Minimum is at φ1 = v, φ2 = 0. Now we calculate-
D E
B˜µ (k1 )B˜ν (k2 ) = (2π)4 δ (4) (k1 + k2 )i(M (k)−1 )µν . (4.10)
Now,
(M (k)−1 )µν = Aηµν + Bkµ kν .
Again using-
(M (k)−1 )µν (M (k))νρ = δµρ .
We calculate- !
1 kµ kν
(M (k))−1
µν =− 2 µν
η + 2 2 .
k + g2v2 g v
Poles are at k 2 = −g 2 v 2 ⇒ m2 = g 2 v 2 .Now going to the rest frame (k0 , 0, 0) since mass is
positive.We get- !
1 k µ kν
M (k)−1
µν = η µν + 2 2 . (4.11)
(k 0 )2 − g 2 v 2 g v
– 17 –
From eq.(4.11) we can write M (k)−1 as matrix form-
0
1
g2 v2
1
(k0 )2 −g 2 v 2
M (k)−1 = .
1
(k0 )2 −g 2 v 2
0
1
(k0 )2 −g 2 v 2
χ1 (scalar) → 1state
Bµ → 3states.
– 18 –