NEET - 2021 AIIMS

Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
(Where A is the amplitude)
01. The velocity of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion is A
(1) A 2 (2)
(1) 2 A 2  x 2 (2)  A 2  x 2 2

(3)  A2  x 2 (4) 2 A2  x 2 2 2 2
(3) A (4) A
02. The maximum speed of a particle executing SHM 3 3
is 10 m/s and maximum acceleration is 08. The function sin t  cos t represents
31.4 m/s 2 . Its periodic time is 
(1) 2s (2) 4s (1) a simple harmonic motion with a period

(3) 6s (4) 1s
03. The potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg 2
in moti on along the x-axis is g iven by (2) A simple harmonic motion with a period

U  4(1  cos 2x)J, where x is in metres. (3) A periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
The period of small oscillations (in s) is 
(1) 2 (2)  with a period

(3)  /2 2(4) (4) A periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
04. Which of the following relationships between the 2
with a period
acceleration a and the displacement x of a 
particle involve simple harmonic motion ? 09. Two particles execute SHM of same amplitude
(1) a  0.7x (2) a  200x2 and frequency along the same straight line from
same position. They cross one another without
(3) a  10x (4) a  100x 3 collision , when going in opposite directions,
05. Two simple harmonic motions are represented
3
by the equations each time their displacement is th of their
5
(1) A11  A 22  A 3 3
amplitude from equilibrium position. The phase
2 difference between them is
(2) A 2  A 2  A 3
1 1 2 2 3
[Given sin 370  3 /5 , cos 370  4 /5 ]
(3) A121  A 222  A 233
(1) 740 (2) 1200
2 2 2 2 2 2
(4) A   A   A 
1 1 2 2 3 3 (3) 900 (4) 1060
06. If <T> and <U> denote the average kinetic and 10. The displacement of a particle is represented by
the average potential energies respectively of a  
mass executing a simple harmonic motion over the equation y  3cos   2t  . The motion of
 4 
one period, then the corresponding relation is the particle is
(1)  T  2  U  (2)  T  2  U 
(1) simple harmonic with period 2 / 
U
(3)  T  U  (4)  T  (2) simple harmonic with period  / 
2
(3) periodic but not simple harmonic
07. The kinetic energy of a particle executing SHM will (4) non-periodic
be equal to (1/8)th of its potential energy when its
dispalcement from the mean position is

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NEET - 2021 FoundationAIIMS _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
11. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. (3) The sign of velocity, acceleration and force
The radius of the circle, the period, sense of on the particle when it is 4 cm away from B
revolution and the initial position are indicated going towards A are negative
on the figure. The simple harmonic motion of (4) The sign of acceleration and force on the
the x-projection of the radius vector of the particle when it is at points B is negative
rotating particle P is 14. What is the phase difference between two simple
y
 2 t  harmonic motions represented by
(1) x (t )  B sin   p(t=0)
 30   
T=30s x1  A sin  t   and x 2  A cos t
B  6
 t     2
(2) x (t )  B cos   x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 15  6 3 2 3
 t    t   15. Which of the following is not characteristic of
(3) x (t )  B sin    (4) x (t )  B cos    simple harmonic oscillation?
 15 2   15 2 
(1) The motion is periodic
12. The displacement-time graph of a particle (2) The motion is along straight line about the
executing SHM is shown in figure. Which of the mean position
following statement is false ? (3) The acceleration of the particle is directed
towards the extreme positions
displacement

(4) The oscillations are responsible for the energy

2T/4 T transpotation
0 T/4 3T/4 5T/4 time(s) 16. The angular velocity of a wheel increases from
100 rps to 300 rps in 10 seconds. The number of
revolutions made during that time is
3T
(1) The force is zero at t  (1) 600 (2) 1500 (3) 1000 (4) 2000
4
4T 17. A torque of 50Nm acting on a wheel at rest
(2) The acceleration is maximum at t 
4 rotates it through 200 radian in 5 sec. Calculate
T the angular acceleration produced
(3) The velocity is maximum at t 
4
T (1) 8 rad sec 2 (2) 4 rad sec 2
(4) The PE is equal to KE of oscillation at t 
2
13. A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion (3) 16 rad sec 2 (4) 12 rad sec 2
between two points. A and B, 10 cm apart (figure)
take the direction from A to B as the positive 18. Five particles of mass 2kg are attached to the
direction and choose the incorrect statements rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1m & negligible
A O C B mass. Moment of inertia of the system about the
A 0  0B  5 cm axis passing through the centre of the disc and
AC  8 cm perpendicular to its plane is
(1) The sign of velocity, acceleration and force
(1) 1kg  m 2 (2) 0.1kg  m 2
on the particle when it is 3 cm away from A
going towards B are positive (3) 2kg  m 2 (4) 0.2kg  m 2
(2) The sign of velocity of the particle at C going
towards B is negative

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NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
19. Four thin rods of same mass M and same length 5 5
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
l , form a square as shown in figure. Moment of 2 21
inertia of this system about an axis through 23. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness.
centre O and perpendicular to its plane is The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure.
4 2 l I AB , I BC , I CA are the moments of inertia of the
(1) Ml
3 plane about AB, BC, CA respectively. Which one
of the following relations is correct
Ml 2 l O l
(2) A
(1) I CA is maximum
3
(2) I AB  I BC 4 5
Ml 2 2 2 l
(3) (4) Ml
6 3 (3) I BC  I AB
20. From a uniform wire, two circular loops are made B 3 C
(4) I AB  I BC  I CA
(i) P of radius r and (ii) Q of radius nr. If the
moment of inertia of Q about an axis passing 24. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD,
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane whose centre is O
is 8 times that of P about a similar axis, the value
(1) 21AC  I EF A E B
of n is (diameter of the wire is very much
smaller than r or nr)
(2) I AD  3I EF O
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
21. Three rings each of mass M and radius R are (3) I AC  I EF (4) I AC  2I EFD F C
arranged as shown in the figure. The moment
25. A wheel having moment of inertia 2kg  m 2
of inertia of the system about YY” will be about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60
Y rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop
(1) 3 MR 2
the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be
3 2 
(2) MR 2 N m N m
2 (1) (2)
15 12
7  
(3) 5 MR 2 (4) MR 2 (3) N m (4) N m
2 Y’ 15 18
22. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are 26. The total torque about pivot A provided by the
connected with a massless rod of length 2R as forces shown in the figure, for L  3.0 m, is
shown in the figure.What will be the moment of
inertia of the system about an axis passing
through the centre of one of the spheres and
perpendicular to the rod

21 M M
(1) MR 2
5 R/2 R/2

2 (1) 210 Nm (2) 140 Nm

(2) MR 2
5 2R (3) 95 Nm (4) 75 Nm

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NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
27. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is
rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity  . Four objects each of mass m, are kept
gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of
the ring will be
(1) x = x 1 (2) x = x 2
M (M  4m )
(1) (2) (3) Both x1 and x 2 (4) Neither x1 nor x 2
M  4m M
31. With what velocity should a particle be projected
(M  4m ) M so that its height becomes equal to radius of
(3) (4) earth ?
M  4m 4m
28. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal 1/2 1/2
 GM   8GM 
to the discs and passing through the centres of (1)   (2)  
 R   R 
the discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m
1/2 1/2
radius and initial angular velocity of 50 rads 1 .  2GM   4GM 
(3)   (4)  
 R   R 
Discs D2 has 4 kg mass, 0.1m radius and
32. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of
initial angular velocity of 200 rad s 1 . The two mass m from the earth surface (radius R) to
discs are brought in contact face to face, with infinity is
their axes of rotation coincident. The final
mgR
angular velocity (inrads 1 ) of the system is (1) (2) 2mgR
2
(1) 60 (2) 100
mgR
(3) 120 (4) 40 (3) mgR (3)
2
29. A sphere of mass 0.5 kg and diameter 1m rolls 33. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a
without sliding with a constant velocity of circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v.
5 m /s , calculate what is the ratio of the For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half the
rotational K.E. to the total kinetic energy of the earth’s radius the orbital velocity is
sphere
3 3 2 2
(1) v (2) v (3) v (4) v
7 5 2 1 2 2 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
10 7 7 2
34. The period of revolution of planet A round the
30. The force acting on a body moving along x-axis sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from
varies with the position of the particle as shown the sun is how many times greater than that of
in the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium B from the sun ?
at - (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

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NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
35. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit 41. If orbital velocity of planet is given by v  Ga MbR c ,
around the earth has total mechanical energy
E0 . Its potential energy is then
(1) 2E0 (2) 1.5E0 (3) 2E0 (4) E0 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) a  ,b  ,c   (2) a  ,b  ,c  
36. If mean radius of earth is R, its angular velocity is 3 3 3 2 2 2
, and the acceleration due to gravity at the 1 1 1 1 1 1
surface of the earth is g, then the cube of the radius (3) a  ,b   ,c  (4) a  ,b   ,c  
2 2 2 2 2 2
of the2orbit of geostationary satellite will be
R g R 22 R 2g Rg 42. A planet is revolving round the sun in an
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 2 elliptical orbit, If v is the velocity of the planet
 g  
37. Two identical satellites are orbiting at distances when its position vector from the sun is r, then
R and 7R from the surface of the earth, R being areal velocity of the planet is
the radius of the earth.
The ratio of their (1) |v  r| (2) 2|r  v|
(1) kinetic energies is 4
(2) potential energies is 4 1
(3) (r  v) (4) None of these
(3) total energies is 4 (4) All of these 2
38. What is not conserved in case of celestial bodies 43. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit about
revolving around sun all the time ? the sun with an orbital period T. If A be the area
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Mass of orbit, then itsangular momentum would be
(3) Angular momentum (4) None of these mA
2mA
39. A mass m is placed inside a hollow sphere of (1) (2) mAT (3) (4) 2mAT
T 2T
mass M as shown in figure. The gravitation force
on mass m is 44. What additional velocity must be given to a
satellite orbiting around earth with radius R to
become free from earth’s gravitational field ?
r m Mass of earth is M.

GM GM
(1) ( 2  1) (2) ( 2  1)
R 2R
R
GM GM
(3) ( 3  1) (4) ( 2  1)
R R
GMm GMm GMm 45. Four equal masses (each of mass M) are placed at
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) (R  r)2 (4) zero
R r the corners of a square of side a. The escape velocity
of a body from the centre O of the square is
40. If gravitational attraction between two points masses
m1m2
be given by F  G . Then the period of a 2GM 8 2 GM
rn (1) 4 (2)
satellite in a circular orbit will be proportional to a a

n 1 n 1
(1) (2) 4GM 4 2GM
r 2 r 2 (3) (4)
a a
n
(3) (4) independent of n
r2

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NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
46. If K1 and K 2 are equilibrium constants for re- 51. For the synthesis of ammonia Kc is 1.2 at 3750 C ,
action (i) and (ii) respectively for

N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)

N2  O2  2NO .........(i)
What is Kp at this temperature
1 1 (1) 4.1  108 (2) 4.2  104

N2  O2  NO .......(ii)
2 2 (3) 1.3  103 (4) 3.4  103
Then 52. In an experiment carried out at 1377 K, HI was
(1) K1  K 2 (2) K 2  K1 found to be 25% dissociated. The Kc for the dis-
sociation
1
(3) K1  2K 2 (4) K1  K2 
2HI(g)  H2 (g)  I2 (g) is
2
47. For which reaction, K p is less than K C 9 1 1
(1) (2) 9 (3) (4)
4 9 36

(1) N2O4  2NO2 53. In a closed system

(2) 2HI  H 2  I2 
A (s )  2B(g )  3C(g ) .
If the partial pressure of C is doubled at equilib-

(3) 2SO2  O2  2SO3 rium, then partial pressure of B will be
 (1) Two times the original value
(4) N2  O2  2NO
(2) One half of its original vlaue
48. 2 moles of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel 1
(3) times the original value
of 2 Litre capacity. At equilibrium 40% of PCl5 2 2
dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2 . The value of equi- (4) 2 2 times the original value
librium constant is 54. For reaction at 270 C , G  12.7 kJ when the
(1) 0.267 (2) 0.53 reaction quotient   10 . What is the value of
(3) 2.63 (4) 5.3 G0 for the reaction ?
 (1) 12.1kJ (2) 7.0 kJ
49. For the reaction CO(g )  Cl 2(g )  COCl2(g ) then
(3) 18.4 kJ (4) 37.5 kJ
Kp/Kc is equal to
55. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows
1 in a closed reaction vessel.
(1) (2) 1.0
RT 
PCl5(g )  PCl3(g )  Cl 2(g )
(3) RT (4) RT If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction
50. Which statement characteries a chemical sys- mixture is, P and degree ofdissociation of PCl5
tem at equilibrium
(P) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to is x. The partial pressure of PCl3 will be
the rate of the reverse reaction
(Q) The concentration of the reactants and prod-  x   2x 
(1)  P (2)  P
ucts are equal  x 1 1  x 
(1) P only (2) Q only
 x   x 
(3) Both P and Q (4) Neither P nor Q (3)  P (4)  P
 x  1 1  x 
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NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
56. Introduction of inert gas (at the same tempera- 61. Solution of 0.1N NH4OH and 0.1 NH4Cl has pH
ture) will affect the equilibrium if. 9.25. The find out PK b of NH4OH
(1) Volume is constant and ng  0
(1) 9.25 (2) 4.75
(2) Pressure is constant and ng  0 (3) 3.75 (4) 8.25
(3) Volume is constant and ng  0 62. Which one of the following is basic buffer solu-
(4) Pressure is constant and ng  0 tion ?
57. For the equilibrium system
(1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

CO(g )  2H2(g )  CH 3 OH() what is K ?
c (2) CH COOH  NH Cl
3 4

CH3OH CH3OH (3) NH4OH  NH4Cl

(1) K C  2 CO H (2) K C  2
  2  CO H2  (4) CH3COONa  NH4OH
1 1 63. In the reaction I2  I  I3 . The lewis base is
(3) K C  2 CO  H  (4) K C  CO H 2
2   2  (1) I2 (2) I
58. For the following reaction, formation of the
(3) I3 (4) None of these
product is favoured by
64. pH value of HCl and NaOH solution each of

A 2(g )  4B2(g )  2AB4(g ) H  0 N
(1) Low temperature and high pressure strength will be the respectively
100
(2) High temperature and low pressure (1) 12 and 2 (2) 2 and 12
(3) Low temperature and low pressure (3) 2 and 2 (4) 2 and 10
(4) High temperature and high pressure 65. The pH value of decinormal solution of NH4OH
59. At temperature T, a compound AB 2(g ) dissociates which is 20% ionised is
according to the reaction (1) 12.95 (2) 12.30

2AB2(g )  2AB(g )  B2(g ) (3) 14.70 (4) 13.30
With a degree of dissociation, x, which is small 66. BF3 is an acid according to
compare with unity. Deduce the expression for (1) Arrehenius concept
K p in terms of x and the total pressure P (2) Bronsted-Lowry concept
(3) Lewis concept (4) Ostwald
Px 3 Px 2 Px 3 Px 2 67. The increasing order of basic strength of
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 3 2 2 
Cl CO3 , CH3COO , OH , F  is
60. The degree of dissociation of PCl5(g ) obeying the
(1) Cl   F   CH3COO  CO32  OH 

equilibrium PCl5  PCl3  Cl2 is approxi- (2) Cl   F   CO23  CH3COO  OH
mately related to the pressure at equilibrium by
(3) CH3COO  Cl   F   CO32  OH
(Given x < 1)
(4) None of these
1 68. The pH of the solution obtained mixing 10ml of
(1) x  P (2) x 
P
101 N HCl and 10ml of 101 N NaOH is
1 1 (1) 8 (2) 2
(3) x  (4) x  (3) 7 (4) None of these
P2 P

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NEET - 2021 AIIMS
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
Batch _ III _17.01.2020 Class Test
69. Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is (1) Only b (2) a & b
(1) HN2 
(2) N 3 (3) c & d (4) a, b, c, d
77. Which of the following is most stable ?
(3) N3  (4) N 2
70. 10 6 M HCl is diluted to 100 times, its pH is
(1) (2)
(1) 6.0 (2) 8.0
(3) 6.95 (4) 9.5
71. pH for the solution of salt undergoing anionic
hydrolysis (say CH3COONa) is given by
1 (3) (4)
(1) pH  PK w  PK a  log C
2 Ph Ph
1 78. Which of the following resonating structures of
(2) pH  PK w  PK a  log C 
2 1 – methoxy – 1, 3 – butadiene is least stable ?
1 +
(3) pH  PK w  PK b  log C (1) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
2 ..
(4) None of these .. +
(2) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
72. The solubility of AgCl will be minimum in ..
(1) 0.001 M Ag NO3 (2) 0.01 M NaCl .. + ..
(3) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
(3) 0.01M CaCl2 (4) Pure water ..
.. + ..
73. The solubility of A 2 X 3 is S mol L1 . Its solubility (4) CH2  CH  CH  CH  O  CH3
..
prode is 79. In which case, resonance is not possible ?
(1) 6S4 (2) 64 S4 
(1) C 6H5  CH CH3 (2) CH3  CH  CH  O
5 5
(3) 36 S (4) 108 S

74. Number of OH in 1 ml solution of pH  13 is (3) CH2  CH  NH3
 
(1) 1  1013 (2) 6  107 (4) CH3  CH  CH  CH CH3
(3) 6  1013 (4) 6  1019 80. Which of the following has highest inductive
effect ?
75. The solution of NH4Cl i s
(1) – CH3 (2) – CH2 – CH3
(1) Acidic (2) Alkaline (3) –CH(CH3)2 (4) (CH3)3C –
(3) Neural (4) Coloured 81. Which of the following do not characterize ionic
76. Which of the following are aromatic in nature ? compounds ?
+ (1) These compounds usually exist in solid state
(a) (b) (2) These posses high melting & boiling points
(3) These are insoluble in solvent with high
dielectric constant
+
(4) These are good conductors of electricity an
(c) (d) aq. state.

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82. The compound with maximum lattice energy is 90. In which of the following molecule Dipole
– moment (Observed) is found to be greater than
(1) NaF (2) NaCl Dipole moment (theoretical) ?
(3) AlF3 (4) MgF2 Cl CH3
83. Which of the following is not an odd electron Cl CH3
molecule ? (1) (2)
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) O2 (4) None of these
NO2 O-H O
84. Select the incorrect statement
NO2 N
(1) In dsp2 hydridization d x 2  y2 participates (3) (4) O
(2) In sp3d2 hybridization d x 2  y2 & d z 2 participate
(3) In sp3d hybridization d z 2 participates
91. Which of the following represents tracheophytes
(4) None of these (i.e., vascular plants) ?
85. Select the correct statement about ClO3 & SO23 (1) Bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms
(1) Both are isostructural but not isoelectronic (2) Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes
(2) Both are isoelectronic but not isostructural (3) Pteridophy tes, gy mno sperms and
(3) Both are neither isoelectronic nor isostructural angiosperms
(4) Both are isoelectronic & isostructural (4) Algae, fungi and bryophates
86. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? 92. Match the coloumn w.r.t. green algae :
(1) XeO2F2 & SF4 have see – saw shape Column – I Column – II
(2) Among IF7 & PCl5,PCl5 has lesser number of A. Unicellular algae (i) Ulothrix
atoms in XY plane B. Filamentous algae (ii) Spirogyra
(3) SF4 is planar molecule with collar shaped
(4) O atom in H2O is sp3 hybridized chloroplast
87. Which of the following is a wrong order w.r.t. the C. Filamentous algae (iii) Volvox
property mentioned against each ? with ribbon shaped
chloroplast
(1) O22  O2  O2 (magnetic moment) D. Colonial coenobial (iv) Chlamydomonas
(2) NO  NO  NO (Bond length) algae
(1) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)
(3) H2 > H2  He2 (bond energy) (2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(4) NO2  NO2  NO2 (bond length) (3) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(4) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (ii)
88. Arrange the following in decreasing order of bond
93. Match the column :
angles of X–C–X
Column – I Column – II
COF2,COCl2, COBr2, COI2
A. Carrageen (i) Brown algae
(1) COF2 > COCl2 > COBr2 > COI2
B. Algin (ii) Red algae
(2) COI2 > COBr2> COCl2 >COF2
C. Agar – agar (iii) Gelidium
(3) COF2 = COCl2 > COBr2 > COI2
(iv) Gracilaria
(4) None of these
(1) A = (ii), B = (iii, iv), C = (iv)
89. Which of the following paris is iso – structural ?
(2) A = (i), B = (ii, iii), C = (iv)
(1) NO2 & CO2 (2) HCN & SnCl2 (3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii, iv)
(3) SO3 & CH4 (4) None of these (4) A = (i, ii), B = (iii), C = (iv)

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94. Read the following statements :
(i) Agar – Agar is used to grow micoboes and in
the preparation of ice – creams and jellies
(ii) Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae,
rich in pro tein s an d are used as fo od
supplements by space travellers
(iii) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are
poisonous
(iv) Algae are photosynthetic
(v) Spirogyra is a filamentous fungi
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?
(1) Five (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Two
95. Pyrenoids :
(1) Are located in the chloroplasts of most of the
members of chlorophyceae
(2) Contain protein besides starch
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Are lipid bodies
96. Green algae usually have :
(1) A rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of
cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
(2) Chlorophyll – a and chlorophyll – d
(3) Cell – wall made of murein
(4) All are correct
97. The giant brown algae usually have their plant
body differentiated into :
(1) Holdfast – For attachment to substratum
(2) Stipe – i.e., stalk
(3) Frond – i.e., leaf like photosynthetic organ
(4) All of the above
98. Identify the brown algae given below labelled as
A, B and C :
(1) A = Fucus, B = Dictyota, C = Laminaria
(2) A = Dictyota, B = Laminaria, C = Fucus
(3) A = Laminaria, B = Dictyota, C = Funcus
(4) A = Laminaria, B = Fucus, C = Dictyota
99. Gemma :
(1) Is an asexual bud, green and multicullar
(2) Develops in small receptacles called gemma cup
(3) Get detached from the parent body and
germinate to form new individuals
(4) All are correct
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100. Which of the following is correct for bryophytes ?
(1) Their plant body is more differentiated than
algae
(2) They may possess root – like leaf – like or
stem – like stryctures
(3) They lack gamete formation
(4) More than one option is correct
101. Which of the following is not incorrect ?
(1) Species of Funaria provide peat
(2) Mosses alongwith lichens are the first
organism to colonise rocks and hence, are of
great ecological importance
(3) Bryoph yte are more evolve d th an
pteridophytes
(4) Bryophytes in general are to great economic
importance
102. Identify the pteridophyte and the structure
marked
(1) Sel agin ella, A = fl oati ng l eave s, B =
Submerged leaves
(2) Equisetum, A = Submerged leaves, B = floating
leaves
(3) Salvinia, A = Submerged leaves, B = floating
leaves
(4) Salvinia, A = floating leaves, B = submerged leaves
103. The spread of living bryophytes and pteridophytes is
restricted to moist, damp and shady places as :
(1 ) They require water for fertilization and
gametophyte required cool, damp and shady places
(2) They lack motile gametes
(3) They are weak plants
(4) They lack vascular bundles
104. Select the correct incorporation sequence of one
structure within the other in a gymnosperm :
(1) Spores  Sporophylls  Strobilus  Sporangia
(2)Sporangia  Spores  Sporophylls  Strobilus
(3) Sporangia  Strobilus  Sporophylls  Spores
(4) Spores  Sporangia  Sporophylls 
Strobilus
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 NEET - 2021 AIIMS
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105. Match the columns : (2) In bryophytes and pteridophytes
Column – I Column – II (3) In gymnosperms only
A. cedar wood oil (i) Pinus gerardiana (4) In algae and gymnosperms
B. Ephedrine (ii) Cycas revoluta 108. Identify the life cycle pattern :
C. Chilgoza (iii) Juniperus
D. Sago (iv) Ephedra
(1) A= (iii), B =(iv), C = (i), D = (ii) Sporophyte
(2) A= (iii), B =(ii), C = (i), D = (iv) (2n)
(3) A= (iv), B =(i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(4) A= (iv), B =(ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
106. Identity the life cycle pattern :

A
Zygote (2n)
Zygote Gametogenesis
(2n) Meiosis
Sy B
ng
am
y (n)
Spores Gametophyte
O (n)
A
Gametogenesis B
O CH2––O––C––R
B (1) Diplontic (2) Haplontic
(3) Diplo – haplontic (4) Haplo – diplontic
R2––C––O––CH O 109. Protonema is :
(1) Haploid and is found in mosses
(2) Diploid and is found in liverworts
(3) Diploid and is found in pteridophytes
OH
Gametophyte (4) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
(n) 110. How many charachters in the box are related to
mosses ?
Diploid antherozoid mother cells, Protonema,
fig Rhizoisa, Vasular sporophyte, Haploid spore
(1) Haplo – diplontic mother cells, Fragmetation, Non – photosynthetic
(2) Haplontic sporophyte, Avascular gametophyte, Diploid
(3) Diplontic prothallus
(4) Diplo-haplontic (1) Eight (2) Four
107. The life cycle pattern shown below is seen in (3) Six (4) Five
which group of plants ? 111. Largest gymnosperms is :
(1) Zamia (2) Sequoia
(3) Cedrus (4) Ginkgo
Sporophyte
Zygote (2n) 112. Glycolysis is a part of
(2n) (1) Only anaerobic respiration
(2) Kreb’s cycle
A (3) Only aerobic respiration
Syn
gam (4) Both aerobic and anerobic respiration
y
Meiosis 113. Which product of glycolysis is consumed in
alcoholic fermentation ?
Gametogenesis (1) NADH + H+ (2) ATP
B Spores (3) ATP and NADH + H+ (4) CO2
(n)
114. The first member of the TCA cycle is
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Citric acid
Gametophyte (3) OAA (4) Pyruvic acid
(n)

(1) In algae only

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115. Recognise the figure and find out the correct fatty acid, b – glycerol
matching. (3) c – DHAP, e – acetyl CoA, d – pyruvic acid, a –
fatty acid, b – glycerol
Outer (4) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, a –
side ATP fatty acid, b – glycerol
120. When malic acid is respiratory substrate, the
amount of CO2 released is
(1) More than O2 consumed
2H+ (2) Less than O2 released
a b
(3) Equal to O2consumed
(4) CO2 is not released
d 121. Assertion : In living organisms, respiratory
ADP Pi substates are often more than one.
c Reason : Pure proteins or fats are never used as
respiratory substrates
(1) a – F1, b – F0,c– intermembrane space, d –
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
outer mitochondrial membrane
the correct option in question
(2) a – F0, b – F1, c – intermembrane space, d –
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
inner mitochondrial membrane
reacon is the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) a – F 1 , b – F 0 ,c – matrix, d – inn er
(2)If both assertion and reason are true but reson
mitochondrial membrane
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) a – F0, b – F1,c– matrix, d – inner mitochondrial
(3) If assertion is ture but reason is false
membrane
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
116. In electron transport system (ETS) which of the
122. From mesophyll cells, sucrose moves into
following cytochromes reacts with oxygen
companion cells and then into the sieve tube
(1) Cyt a3 (2) Cyt b
cells by
(3) Cyt b3 (4) Cyt c
(1) Transpiration
117. Succinate + FAD forms
(2) Simple diffusion
(1) Fumarate + FADH2
(3) Passive transport
(2) Malate + NADH2
(4) Active transport
(3) Isocitrate + NADH2
123. When root pressure is high, some herbaceous
(4) Citrate + Water
plants lose small quantity of excess water in the
118. Succinate is oxidised to fumarate in Kreb’s cycle
form the drops from the margins or tips of leaves.
by
This phenomenon is called
(1) Removal of hydrogen (2) Loss of electrons
(1) Imbibition (2) Guttation
(3) Addtion of oxygen (4) Removal of oxygen
(3) Osmosis (4) Diffusion
119. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
124. A hypothetical arrangement of four plant cells
matching
A, B, C and D is given below. Find the correct
sequence of movement of water among these
cells.
Fats Carbohydrates Proteins
Simple sugars
a b Amino acids
e.g.Glucose
Glucose - 6 – phosphate

Fructose 1, 6 – biphosphate

c Glyceraldehyde 3 – phosphate

H2O Kreb's
cycle CO2
(1) (2)

(1) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, b –

fatty acid, a – glycerol
(2) d – DHAP, e – acetyl CoA, c – pyruvic acid, a – (3) (4)

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125. The orientation of cellulose microfibirls in the 129. Choose the correct option w.r.t. transport of
cell wall of guard cell is substances.
(1) Longitudinal (2) Radial A. Sucrose B. Minerals
(3) Oblique (4) Tangential C. Water D. Hormones
126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. girdling (1) A + B  Multidirectional in xylem
experiment. (2) C + D  Bidirectional in xylem
(1) It is an experimental demonstration of
(3) A + C  Unidirectional in phloem
translocation of food by phloem in one direction
(2) Swelling ob bark above the girdled part is due (4) B + C  Unidirectional in xylem
to accumulation of nutrients 130. How many are associated with apoplastic
(3) In this experiment, upward movement of movement of water ?
water is not affected initially Through cell wall, Independent of gradient,
(4) In a girdled plant, shoot dies first than the Through mass flow, Slow process, Through
root intercellular spaces
127. Read the following statements and identify the (1) Four (2) Three
incorrect difference between transpiration pull (3) Two (4) Five
and root pressure. 131. The physical properties of water like cohesion,
Transpiration pull Root pressure adhesion and surface tension give water
(1) Acts as manin driving It estabilishes chain (1) Low capillarity and low tensile strength
force for translocation of water molecules (2) High capillarity and low tensile strength
of water in tall trees in xylem of tall trees (3) High capillarity and high tensile strength
(2) It magnitude is Its magnitude is (4) Low capillarity and high tensile strength
maximum during day maximum during 132. ______ Seeds cannot germinate and establish
time early morning and withour the presence of mycorrhizae.
night (1) Oryza (2) Cycas
(3) It generates a strong It is a negative (3) Pinus (4) Triticum
positive water hydrostatic pressure 133. Uptake of most of the minerals by root is
potential in xylem developed xylem (1) Passive, involving specific proteins
(4) It is manifestation It generates from (2) Active, ATP dependent
of passive water active water (3) Symplastic, Passive
absorotion absorption (4) Active, apoplastic
128. Choose the correct option w.r.t. following 134. Stomata movement is not affected by :
diagram. (1) Temperature
(2) Light
(3) O2 concentration
(3) CO2 concentration
135. For a plasmolysed cell which equation is correct :
(1) DPD = OP +TP (2) DPD = – TP
(3) DPD = OP (4) DPD = OP – TP

136.

(1) A – Transport lipid Given below is the ECG of a normal human.

B – Lipoidal substance Which one of its components is correctly
(2) A – Transmembrane protein interpreted below ?
B – Hydrophobic molecule (1) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and
(3) A – Transport protein diastolic blood pressures
B – Substance with hydrophilic moiety (2) Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction
(4) A – Special protein only
B – Porin (3) Complex QRS – One complete pulse
(4) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction

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137. The most popularly known blood grouping is the (1) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium
ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC tissues.
because ‘‘O’’ in it refers to having :- (2) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(1) No antigens A and B on RBCs. (3) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
(2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs. (4) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation
(3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for at 96%
A and B types. 147. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(4) One antibody only–either anti–A or anti–B (1) The volume of blood in pulmonary circulation
on the RBCs. is more than the volume of blood in systemic
138. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner circulation at any instant.
walls of blood vessels is :- (2) The blood pressure in pulmonary circulation
(1) Squamous epithelium is less than that of the systemic circulation
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Double circulation is characteristic of all
(3) Columnar epithelium vertebrates
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium (4) A double aortic arch is seen in birds and
139. Histamine in blood is secreted by :- mammals.
(1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages 148. In a cardiac output of 5250 ml/minute, with 75
(3) Eosinophils (4) Basophils heart beats per minute, the stroke volume is :-
140. In higher vertebrates, SA node helps in :- (1) 80 ml (2) 70 ml
(1) Opening of tricuspid valve (3) 60 ml (4) 55 ml
(2) Initiation of heart beat 149. The second heart sound during the cardiac cycle
(3) Conduction of blood is produced by the :-
(4) Opening of bicuspid valve (1) Simultaneous opening of the atrioventricular valves.
141. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to (2) Simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular valves.
the diastolic right atrium of heart due to :- (3) Simultaneous opening of the semilunar
(1) Pressure difference between the post caval valves.
and atrium (4) Simultaneous closure of the semilunar
(2) Pushing open of the venous valves valves.
(3) Suction pull 150. An increase in the blood flow to the atria of the
(4) Stimulation of the sino auricular node heart can cause the release of :-
142. Which is the correct sequence of arrangement (1) Erythropoeitin
of types of W.B.C. in decreasing order in terms (2) Atrial natriuretic factor
of number per mm3 of human blood ? (3) Renin
(1) Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils (4) Aldosterone
(2) Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils 151. Match Column I with Column II and select the
(3) Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils correct option from the codes given below :-
(4) Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils Column I Column II
143. Bundle of His is a network of :- (Plasma Protein) (Functions)
(1) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles A- Fibrinogen (i) Defence mechanism
(2) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall B- Globulins (ii) Osmotic balance
(3) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the C- Albumins (iii) Coagulation of blood
heart walls (1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii.
(4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart (2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii.
144. Diastole occurs due to :- (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i.
(1) Nerve impulse from vagus (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii.
(2) Elastic recoil of arteries 152. Match Column I with Column II and select the
(3) Relaxation of heart muscles correct option from the codes given below :-
(4) All of them Column I Column II
145. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are A- RBC (i) Coagulation
primarily involved in :- B- Antibody (ii) Immunity
(1) Clotting of blood C- Platelets (iii) Contraction
(2) Defence mechanisms of body D- Systole (iv) Gas transport
(3) Osmotic balance of body fluids (v) Hypertension
(4) Oxygen transport in the blood (1) A-v, B-i, C-iv, D- iii.
146. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i.
the human blood even after its uptake by the (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii.
body tissues. This O2 :- (4) A-iii, B-v, C-ii, D-iv.

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153. In which one of the following pairs, two terms (3) Cerebellum – Language comprehension
represent the same thing ? (4) Corpus callosum – Communication between
(1) Lymphocyte  Erythrocyte the left and right cerebral cortices
(2) Plasma  Serum 161. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present
(3) Mitral valve  Bicuspid valve on :
(4) Atrioventricular node  pacemaker (1) pre – synaptic membrane
154. A decrease in plasma albumin levels is likely (2) tips of axons
to affect :- (3) post – synaptic membrane
(1) Clot formation (4) membrane of synaptic vesicles
(2) Oxygenation of hemoglobin 162. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of :
(3) Osmotic balance (1) Nucleic acid and SER
(4) Immune functions (2) DNA and RNA
(3) Proteins and lipids
155 Which one of the following statement is correct (4) free ribosomes and RER
one ? 163. Restoration of resting potential of the membrane
(1) The volume of blood in pulmonary circulation at the site of excitation is achieved by :
is more than the volume of blood in systemic (1) diffusion of K+ outside the membrane
circulation at any instant. (2) diffusion of Na+ outside the membrane
(2) The blood pressure in pulmonary circulation (3) diffusion of K+ inside the membrane
is less than that of the systemic circulation. (4) diffusion of Na+ inside the membrane
(3) Double circulation is characteristic of all 164. Association area perform which of the following
vertebrates. function ?
(4) A double aortic arch is seen in birds and (I) Intersensory association
mammals. (II) Communication
156. Mark the vitamin present in rhodopsin : (III) Memory
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (1) Only (I) (2) Only (II)
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D (3) (I) and (III) (4) (I), (II) and (III)
157. The organ of Corti is a structure present in : 165. Which part of brain contains several group of
(1) external ear (2) middle ear neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones
(3) semi – circular canal (4) cochlea ?
158. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
is given.Identify correctly at least two of A – D. (3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla
166. Urge for eating and drinking controlled by :
(1) thalamus (2) cerebrum
(3) amygdala (4) hypothalamus
167. Limbic system perform which of the following
functions ?
(1) Excitement (2) Pleasure
(3) Fear (4) All of these
168. Cerebrum is part of :-
(1) Mesencephalon (2) Metencephalon
(3) Prosencephalon (4) Myelencephalon
169. Homeostasis is maintained by :-
(1) A – Receptor; C-Synaptic vesicles (1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum
(2) B – Synaptic connection; D – K+ (3) Diencephalon (4) Me dulla
(3) A – Neurotransmitter; B – Synaptic cleft oblongata
(4) C – Neurotransmitter; D – Ca++ 170. Which is odd one ?
159. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron (1) Arachnoid (2)
occurs at : Duramatter
(1) the neuromuscular junction (3) Piamater (4) Medulla oblongate
(2) the transverse tubules 171. How many statements are correct regarding
(3) the myofibril hypothalamus ?
(4) the sacroplasmic reticulum (A) It controls urge of eating and drinking
160. Which of the following regions of the brain is (B) It does not contribute in thermoregulation
incorrectly paired with its function ? (C) Lies at the base of thalamus
(1) Cerebrum – Calculation and contemplation (D) It contains group of neurosecretory cells
(2) Medulla oblongata – Homeostatic control (E) It regulates function of pituitary gland

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(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) A – Temporal bo ne, B – Incu s, C –
(3) 4 (4) 5 Semicircular canal, D – Pinna
172. In the diagram of the lateral view of the human (2) A – Temporal bone, B – Stapes, C – Cochlea,
brain, parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose D – Tympanic membrane
the answer in which these alphabets have been (3) A – Parietal bone, B – Stapes, C – Vestibule, D
correctly matched with the part which they – Eardrum
indicate. (4) A – Parietal bone, B – Malleus, C – Vestibule,
D – Eustachian tube
177. Match the following columns :
Column – I Column – II
(A) Sacral nerves (i) 1 pair
(B) Thoracic nerves (ii) 8 pairs
(C) Coccygeal nerves (iii) 7 pairs
(D) Cervical nerves (iv) 12 pairs
(v) 5 pairs
Codes :
A B C D
(1) iv i iii ii
(2) v iii i ii
(3) iii iv ii i
(1) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C – (4) v iv i ii
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Frontal 178. Medulla controls :
lobe (1) respiration
(2) A – Frontal lobe, B – Temporal lobe, C – (2) gastric secretions
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Occipital (3) cardiovascular reflexes
lobe (4) all of the above
(3) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C –
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Frontal
lobe
(4) A – Frontal lobe, B – Temporal lobe, C –
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Pariental
lobe
173. The inner layer of eyelids which is also the
thinnest epidermis in animal body is :
(1) sclera (2) Choroid
(3) retina (4) Conjunctiva 179.
174. The posterior part of retina, which is just opposite
to the lens is :
(1) cornea (2) yellow spot
(3) fovea centralis (4) both (2) and (3)
175. Organ of corti is found in :
(1) scala rotundus (2) scala media
Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the diagram given above
(3) scala vestibule (4) scala tympani
:
176. Given below is a diagrammatic view of ear.
Which of the following option is correctly
(1) A –Neurotransmitter, B –Schwann cell,
representing A to D ?
C– Synaptic knob
(2) A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic knob,
C – Schwann cell
(3) A –Nissl’s granules, B – Schwann cell,
C–Synaptic knob
(4) A – Nissl’s granules, B – Synaptic knob,
C – Schwann cell
180. Forebrain contains :
(1) Olfactory lobes (2) thalamus
(3) cerebrum (4) all of these

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