Final tests on the subject

"Basics of rehabilitation"

1. Primary physioprophylaxis is a warning:

a.       diseases
b.      relapse
c.      exacerbations of diseases
d.      complications

2. Mucous membranes are irradiated with doses of:

a.      small erythema
b.      mean erythema
c.     suberitic
d.     zero

3. Ultraviolet rays are emitted by lamps:

a.      incandescent
b.     arc mercury tubular
c.      Minin
d     "Sollux"

4. What have an effect indifferent baths in 5-7 minutes on the body :

a.      relaxing
b.    tonic
c.      regenerating
d.      stimulating

5. During the Charcot shower, the stream of water should not be directed to :
a.      legs
b.      back surface of the body
c.      genitals
d      side surfaces of the body

6. How often the couch is processed in the PTF and offices:

a.      1 per day
b.      2 times a day
c.      after each patient
d.      Once a week

7. In diadynamic therapy is used:

a.      low current direct current
b.      medium frequency alternating current
c.      high frequency alternating pulse current
d      low frequency constant current pulse

8. The complex of measures aimed at restoring impaired body functions is:

a.      reformation
b.     rehabilitation
c.      translocation
d      transplantation

9. Feelings that the patient should experience under the electrodes during the
procedure of diadynamic therapy:
a.      vibration
b.      heat
c.      burning
d      breeze

10. Therapeutic effect of electrosleep:

a.      desensitizing
b.      anti-inflammatory
c.      decongestant
d.      sedative

11. Contraindications to the appointment of electrostimulation:

a.      atrial fibrillation arrhythmia
b.      paresis
c.      intestinal atony
d      violation of peripheral circulation

12. Contraindications to the appointment of darsonvalization:

a.      pronounced hypotension
b.      phlebeurysm
c.      psoriasis
d      chronic gynecological diseases

13. For local darsonvalization use:

a.      capacitor plates
b.      hollow glass electrodes
c.      metal electrodes
d      induction coil

14. Indication for inductothermia:

a.      malignant neoplasms
b.     chronic adnexitis
c.      bleeding
d      active tuberculosis

15. Induction is a therapeutic effect:

a.      bactericidal
b.      venotonic
c.      vasodilator
d      myostimulating

16. Dosing procedures for UHF-therapy is carried out according to :

a.      output power of the device and time of exposure
b.      current strength
c.      current density
d      energy absorbed

17. Contraindications to the use of low-frequency magnetic therapy:

a.     bronchial asthma
b.      hypotension
c.      chronic gynecological diseases
d.      eye diseases

18. Indications for the appointment of low-frequency magnetic therapy:

a.      acute cerebrovascular accident
b.   chronic diseases of internal organs
c.      hypotension
d.      bleeding

19. Exposure to the procedure of magnetic therapy is carried out using the device:
a.   electrode
b.      radiator
c.      inductor
d.      capacitor plates
20. As a result of exposure to a low-frequency magnetic field:
a.      blood clotting increases
b.     going down coagulability of blood
c.      antispasmodic effect develops
d.      antibacterial effect takes place

21. Contraindication to the appointment of ultrasound therapy:

a.      respiratory diseases
b.     thrombophlebitis
c.      diseases of the digestive system
d.      gynecological diseases

22. Ultrasound therapy is carried out using the device:

a.      electrodes
b.      capacitor plates
c.      emitters
d.      inductors

23. Indications for use of ultrasound therapy

a.      thrombophlebitis
b.      osteoporosis
c.      pregnancy
d.      gynecological diseases

24. The most appropriate use of ultrasound:

a.      in the acute phase of inflammation
b.      in subacute phase inflammations
c.      in case of purulent, encased inflammation
c.      in case of purulent unbounded inflammation

25. Contraindications to the use of infrared rays:

a.      bleeding
b.      non-purulent inflammatory processes
c.      diseases of the peripheral nervous system
d.      diseases of ENT organs

26. Erythema after infrared irradiation disappears through :

a.      2-3 hours
b.      2-3 days
c.       40-60 minutes
d.      6-8 hours

27. contraindications to the appointment of ultraviolet radiation:

a.      long-term unhealed wounds
b.      bronchial asthma
c.      malignant neoplasms
d.      diseases of the peripheral nervous system

28. Biodoza is:

a.      ultraviolet intensity
b.      ultraviolet energy
c.     the shortest ultraviolet exposure time under certain irradiation conditions
d.      irradiation time without any conditions of exposure

29. Indications for the use of aromatic baths:

a.     diseases and injuries of the musculoskeletal system
b.      weeping dermatitis
c.      bleeding
d.      Lih about Radka

30. Contraindications to paraffin :

a.      diseases of the peripheral nervous system
b.     acute purulent inflammatory processes
c.      chronic diseases of internal organs
d.     chronic gynecological diseases

31. Contraindications to inhalation therapy:

a.      giant caverns in the lungs
b.      third-degree pulmonary heart disease
c.      massive pulmonary hemorrhage
d.     all of the above is true

32. What do the infrared rays dosed:

a.      biodozy
b.      W / cm  2

c.      by of time impacts

d.      in volts
33. In acute and purulent inflammatory processes, UHF-therapy is used in :
a.      strongly thermal dose
b.      thermal dose
c.      low heat dose
d.      non-thermal dose

34. Therapeutic effect of UHF - therapy:

a.     anti-inflammatory
b.      venotonic
c.      ion-correcting
d.      defibrosing

35. UHF procedures - Therapy is carried out with the help of:
a.      emitters
b.      inductors
c.      metal electrodes
d.      capacitor plates

36. To increase the duration of the analgesic effect of amplipulse therapy, you should:

a.      increase exposure time
b.      increase current strength
c.      conduct amplipulse local anesthetics
d.      change modulation depth

37. Indication for prescribing EHF-therapy:

a.      pregnancy
b.     disease musculoskeletal apparatus
c.      melanoma
d.      pronounced violations of the sensitivity of the skin.

38. What color is the treatment of physiological jaundice of newborns?

a.      red
b.      green
c.      blue
d.      yellow

39. Contraindication to the appointment of ultraviolet radiation:

a.      long-term unhealed wounds
b.      bronchial asthma
c.      malignant neoplasms
d.      diseases of the peripheral nervous system

40. Indications for use of gas baths:

a.      chronic gynecological diseases
b.      pregnancy
c.      fever
d.      acute inflammatory processes

41. What is the reason for the blurred vision in a patient after an electrosign procedure:
a.      intolerance to the procedure
b.      safety breach
c.      high current
d.     pressure of electrodes on the eyeballs

42. The indication for UHF therapy is:

a.      severe hypotension
b.      adhesion process
c.      acute inflammatory process
d.     bleeding tendency

43. The device for magnetic therapy is:

a.      "IKV - 4"
b.      "Pole -1"
c.      "Rennet"
d.      "Wave"

44. Therapeutic effect of exercise:

a.      tonic
b.     anti-inflammatory
c      relaxation
d sedative      

45. Indications for the appointment of exercise therapy:

a.      exacerbation of rheumatism
b.      tachycardia at rest
c.      hypertension 1 degree
d.      atrial fibrillation

46. The main objectives of exercise therapy for respiratory diseases:

a.      strengthen the respiratory muscles
b.    strengthening the abdominal muscles
c.      promote stretching of the stomach
d.     strengthen the extensor middle finger

47. The main objectives of exercise therapy for diseases of the digestive system:
a.      strengthening the abdominal muscles
b.      promote stretching of stomach
c.      improvement of myocardial function
d.      elimination of stagnation in the lower extremities

48. Contraindications to the appointment of exercise therapy in peptic ulcer disease:

a.      constant pain
b.      jumps
c.      bleeding
d.      bad mood

49. The initial position used when performing exercises for pregnant women:

a.      vises on the wall bars
b.      exercises from the knee-articular position
c.      jumps
d.      exercises on a log

50. Indications for the appointment of exercise therapy for gynecological diseases:
a.      algomenorrhea
b.      sharp metritis
c.      bleeding
d.      ESR above 25 mm / h

51. Exercise therapy for pregnant women is conducted using the following subject:
a.      metbola
b.    exercises on a log
c.      rods
d.      jump ropes

52. The main objectives of exercise therapy for diseases and injuries of the brain, spinal
cord and peripheral nervous system:
a.      leg curvature correction
b.      restoration of impaired cortical regulation
c.      prevention of muscle atrophy
d.      improvement of intestinal motility

53. The main objectives of exercise therapy for injuries of the musculoskeletal system:
a.      contracture warning
b.      improvement of intestinal motility
c.      promote stretching of the pleural adhesions
d.      improve urination

54. Objectives of physical therapy at a nursery age:

a.      motion correction education
b.      development of the equilibrium reflex
c.      elimination of factors contributing to the development of flatfoot and impaired posture
d.      all answers are correct

55. Fat deposition is considered normal if the skin fold is thick:

a.      up to 3 cm
b.      up to 5 cm
c.      up to 10 cm
d.      up to 7cm

56. Forms of the back are:

a.      round concave
b.      cylindrical
c.      flattened
d.     round 

57. Foot can be:

a.      flat
b.      round
c.      round concave
d.      cylindrical

58. Forms of scoliosis:

a.      right sided
b.      flattened
c.      coccyx
d.      total

59. For the diagnosis of scoliosis take into account:

a.      epigastric angle
b.      symmetry of the waist triangles
c.      chest circumference
d.      chest excursion

60. All physical exercises are divided into :

a.      gymnastic
b.      on balance
c.      tonic
d.      trophic

61. Gymnastic exercises include:

a.      on balance
b.      water exercises
c.      run
d.      tonic

62. Sports and applied exercises include:

a.     walking
b.      static exercises
c.      ideomotor
d.     water exercises

63. Terrenkur is:

a.      level walking
b.      therapeutic ascent
c.      close tourism
d.      cross country walking

64. Chest Excursion is:

a.      the number of breaths and exhalations in 1min
b.      oscillation frequency of the chest in 1min
c.     the difference between inhalation and exhalation
d.      the amount between inhalation and exhalation
65. For the diagnosis of scoliosis take into account:
a.      epigastric angle
b.      symmetry of the waist triangles
c.      diamond shape michaelis
d.      chest circumference

66. What games do not happen:

a.      sedentary
b.      movable
c.      preparatory
d.      sports

67. Indications for exercise therapy in operative gynecology:

a.      acute purulent inflammatory process
b.      extensive adhesions in the pelvis
c.      movable cyst on the leg
d.      pelvic thrombophlebitis

68. Contraindications to exercise therapy in operative gynecology:

a.      presence of foci of chronic infection
b.      obesity
c.      severe pain syndrome
d.      with a large volume and trauma surgery

69. The task of exercise therapy for chronic inflammatory diseases of the female genital
organs:
a.     restoration of mobility and normal ratios of the pelvic organs
b.      nurturing the skills of "figurative representations"
c.      muscle hypotrophy prevention
d.      life skills training

70. The first increase in the growth rate falls on the period from ...:
a.      2-3 years
b.      4-7 years
c.      10-13 years
d.      60-70 years old

71. Flatfoot -e then:
a.      normal foot shape
b.     flat foot
c.      flattening of the arch of the foot
d.      hollow shape

72. Anthropometry is ...:

a.      human dimension
b.      foot length measurements
c.      descriptions of the structure of the human body
d.      plantography

73. Hygienic gymnastics can engage in:

a.      only sick
b.      only healthy
c.     sick and healthy
d.      only children

74. For asthenic body type is characteristic:

a.      wide skeleton
b.      relatively long legs and short body
c.      long torso and short legs
d.      excessively developed subcutaneous fat layer

75. Lung capacity is determined by:

a.      alcoholometer
b.      spirometer
c.      dynamometer
d.      cardiograph

76. Tour of the chest in men is:

a.      2-3 cm
b.      6-8 cm
c.      10-1 cm
d.      4-6 cm

77. Somatoscopy includes:
a.      posture assessment
b.      shoulder circumference measurement
c.      arm length measurement
d.      legs shape evaluation

78. Posture is:

a.      curvature of the spine back
b.      curvature of the spine forward
c.      human habitual pose
d.      curvature of the spine to the right or left

79. Grease deposition is determined by:

a.      5 cm distance from the lower edge of the left shoulder blade
b.      on the hips
c.      on the stomach
d.      distance of 5 cm from the bottom edge of the right shoulder blade

80. How many sections consists of exercise therapy:

a.      from 5
b.     of 3
c.      of 2
d.      from 7

81. Contraindications to exercise therapy is:

a.      severe pain
b.      scoliosis
c.      hypertension of I degree
d.      clubfoot

82. Indications for the appointment of exercise therapy for cardiovascular diseases is:
a.      exacerbation of rheumatism
b.      tachycardia at rest
c.    hypertension of I degree
d.      atrial fibrillation

83. The indication for the appointment of exercise therapy for injuries of the
musculoskeletal system is:
a.      the presence of foreign bodies near large vessels and nerves
b.      chronic pneumonia
c.      the presence of pain in the damaged part
d.      bleeding

84. Contraindications to the appointment of exercise therapy during pregnancy is:

a.      respiratory diseases
b.      placenta previa
c.      chronic gastritis
d.      muscular atrophy

85. The indication for the appointment of exercise therapy for myocardial infarction is:
a.      chronic constipation
b.      increasing circulatory failure
c.      repeated myocardial infarction
d.      thromboembolic processes in the vessels

86. The indication for the appointment of exercise therapy for diseases of the
respiratory system is:
a.      acute stage of the disease
b.      high body temperature
c.     bronchiectasis
d.      asthma attack

87. Indications for antenatal gymnastics are:

a.      threatened miscarriage
b.      placenta previa
c.      respiratory diseases
d.      severe toxicosis of pregnancy

88. For respiratory diseases, physical exercises are used:

a.      special breathing exercises
b.      High jump
c.      sports and applied exercises
d.      sport games

89. Excursion of a chest at the woman makes:

a.      2-3 cm
b.      4-6 cm
c.      8-10 cm
d.      1 meter

90. It is better to strengthen the muscle, straightening the spine:

a.      standing up
b.      sitting on the floor
c.      lying on your stomach
d.      supine

91. Drainage starting positions improve:

a.      circulation
b.      outflow of pathological contents from the bronchi and alveoli
c.      respiratory surface
d.      lymph flow

92. In diseases of the digestive system, great importance is attached to dynamic physical
exercise on the muscles:
a.      upper shoulder girdle
b.      torso
c.      abdominals
d.      lower limbs

93. The massage procedure consists of sections:

a.      one
b.      two
c.     three
d.      four

94.        Sections of therapeutic massage are called:

a.     introductory, main, final
b.      first second Third
c.      initial, middle, final
d.      I , II , III

95.        The minimum allowable temperature of the air in the massage room:
a.      18   С
0

b.     20   С
0

c.      22   С
0

d.      24   С
0

96.        One massage unit corresponds to:

a.      10 min
b.      12 min
c.      15 minutes
d.      20 minutes
97.        Therapeutic massage for soft injuries is indicated:
a.      from 5-6 days
b.      right after the injury
c.      in a month
d.      from 2-3 days with no breaks in large vessels, muscles

98.        Minimum area of massage room:

a.      5m  2

b.      18m  2

c.     25m  2

d.      30m  2

99.        Massage is dosed by the parameters:

a.      force, initial position, intensity
b.      intensity, duration, density
c.      force, pace, duration
d.      starting position, pace, density

100. In hygienic massage is more often used:

       

a.      eastern technique
b.      classical technique
c.      connective tissue massage
d.      acupressure

101. In case of spinal injuries in the early period, massage is used for :

       

a.      spinal flexibility development

b.     strengthen back muscles
c.      bedsore prevention
d.      asphyxia

102. For diseases of the joints massage is used:

       

a.      to aggravation stage

b.     in remission
c.      in the presence of pain
d.      in all cases

103. Vibration method does not apply:

       

a.      on the head

b.     in the projection of the kidneys and heart
c.      on the stomach
d.      on the lower and upper extremities

104. The pressure method is applied:

       

a.      on the spine

b.     on scars
c.      on the stomach
d.      on the heart

105. In case of edema, massage should be started:

       

a.      from overlying segments

b.      from the underlying segments
c.      areas of edema
d.      all of the above

106. A great effect when kneading is achieved if the movements are produced:
       

a.      slow
b.      quickly
c.      no difference
d.      very fast

107. The most gentle method of kneading:

       

a.      tingling
b.      rolling
c.      wallow
d.      shifting

108. The toughest method of kneading:

       

a.      tingling
b.     rolling
c.      wallow
d.      shifting

109. Contraindications to massage is:

       

a.      chronic pneumonia
b.      thrombophlebitis
c.      flat feet
 d.      ostehondrosis

110. The initial position of the patient during a back massage is:
       

a.      lying on your stomach, hands up

b.    lying on the stomach, arms along the body
c.      lying on your side
d.      sitting

111. Callus formation accelerates:

       

a.      stroking
b.      trituration
c.      kneading
d.     vibration

112. Duration of a general massage for an adult:

       

a.      30 minutes
b.      40 minutes
c.      50 minutes
d.     60 minutes

113. On average, the duration of the massage course is:

     

a.      5-10 procedures
b.      10-15 procedures
c.      15-20 procedures
d.      20-25 procedures

114.       Easy flushing of the skin and the rise of local temperature reached   2-3 basic
about

massage techniques:
a.      stroking
b.     trituration
c.      kneading
d.      vibration

115. Vibration method does not apply:

       

a.      on the head

b.      kidney and heart projections
c.      on the stomach
d.      on the upper limbs
116.       As for the current of lymph and against it, the massage method is performed:
a.     stroking
b.      trituration
c.      kneading
d.      vibration

117.   As an active means of promoting health and preventing diseases, massage is
applied:
a.      healing
b.     hygienic
c.      cosmetic
d.      sports

118. Before the massage procedure, the patient must do:

       

a.      therapeutic exercises
b.      physiotherapy
c.     hygienic shower
d.      cleansing enema

119. In order to preserve physical development and fitness, massage is applied:

       

a.      healing
b.  hygienic    
c.  sports    
d.      cosmetic

120. Each massage procedure begins and ends with the following method:
       

a..  stroking    
b.  trituration    
c.  kneading    
d.   vibration

121. Massage affects individual organs and systems:

       

a.  skin and subcutaneous fat    

b.  circulatory and lymphatic systems    
c.  nervous system    
d.    all of the above

122. With proper massage the patient should not be:

       

a. pleasant warmth    
b. slackness    
c. increase joint mobility    
d.    pain at the treatment site

123.        If it is impossible to carry out a massage in a certain area (gypsum,

bandage), it is necessary:
a.  cancel the procedure    
b.  transfer the procedure to complete recovery    
c.  massage the symmetric area    
d.      all of the above

124. The stretching method is applied:

       

a. on the spine    

b. on scars and contractures    
c. on large surfaces    
d.      all of the above

125. The main stroking techniques include:

       

a. flat and deep stroking    

b. spike-shaped stroking    
c. rake-like stroking    
d.  comb-like stroking

126. In the massage room should be:

       

a.  couch with rollers and pillows    

b.  linen storage cabinet    
c.  first-aid kit, sink with hot and cold water    
d.     all of the above

127. The main method of kneading is:

       

a.  wallow    
b.  shifting    
c.  longitudinal kneading    
d.    shaking

128. At what age can you begin to massage?

       

a. newborn    
b.  from 3 months    
c.  from 6 months    
d.   from 1 year
129.        The rate of massage movements 24 per minute, when performing which of
the following methods:
a.  vibration    
b.  kneading    
c.  stroking    
d.   trituration

130. On the performance of any of the techniques is given 50% of massage

       
time:
a. trituration    
b. kneading    
c. vibration    
d. stroking

131. Passive gymnastics for muscles is:

       

a. intermittent vibration    
b. stroking    
c. trituration    
d.   kneading

132. Auxiliary stroking technique is:

       

a.  ironing    
b.  pressure    
c.  flat stroking    
d.    grasping stroke

133. Name the massage technique for swelling of the joints after a fracture:
       

a.  fracture area    

b. "Suction"    
c.  reflex segmental    
d.  general method

134. Therapeutic massage has a physiological effect on :

       

a.  skin, hypoderm    
b.  circulatory and lymphatic systems    
c.  joint apparatus    
d.   coordination of movements

135. By what method of massage is performed for bone fractures for 2-3 days:
       

a. fracture area    
b. "Suction"    
 c reflex segmental    
d.  general method

136. Which muscle is not subjected to massage during a back massage:

       

a. front gear    
b. the broadest muscle of the back    
c. trapezoid    
d.    general extensor trunk

137. Which method does not apply to intermittent vibration:

       

a. chopping    
b. pat    
c. shaking    
d.  finger shower

138.        Which of the massage techniques consists in transmitting oscillatory

movements to the massaged parts of the body:
a. stroking    
b. tingling    
c.  shaking    
d.   quilting

139. When abrasions, scratches, skin damage, you must:

       

a. cancel the procedure    

b. move the procedure until healing    
c. disinfect or stick with adhesive tape    
d.   perform the procedure as usual

140. Which of the massage methods is the preparatory stage for kneading:
       

a.  stroking    
b. trituration    
c.  kneading    
d.  vibration