SAQ 1.

1 Hardware

Q1 Function of a control unit of a CPU is to:-

A. Control the flow of Data & Instructions to and from memory

B. Store the data after processing
C. Perform the arithmetical operations
D. All of the above

Q2 Softwares that perform tasks that users are directly interested in:-

A. System Software
B. Application Software
C. Device Drivers
D. Sort Utilities

Q3 Control Unit (CU):

A. Fetches Programme from Memory and determines their type

B. Performs Mathematical Operations and/or Logical Operations
C. Stores Temp Results
D. Bridge speed Difference between processor and RAM

Q4 Registers:

A. Fetches Programme from Memory and determines their type

B. Performs Mathematical Operations and/or Logical Operations
C. Stores Temporary Results
D. Control the flow of Data & Instructions to and from memory

Q5 Used to Bridge speed differences between registers & RAM & ROM:

A. Virtual Memory
B. Secondary Memory
C. Cache Memory
D. Primary Memory

Q6 Planning and monitoring of the computer resources to ensure that the systems are
running effectively & efficiently:-

A. Capacity Planning
B. Hardware Monitoring
C. Hardware Maintenance
D. Auditing Hardware

Q7 For effective computer capacity planning the most essential activity is:
 A. Liaising with the management and hardware suppliers
B. Evaluating for the cheapest Hardware
C. Determining the workload of applications
D. Evaluating a cost effective DBMS

Q8 A Company selling used computers would ensure that:

A. The computers were not used to store confidential data.

B. A nondisclosure agreement has been signed.
C. Data from data storage media are Erased
D. No backups are retained

Q9 From the perspective of Hardware maintenance, which is the best option?

A. Low MTBF and Low MTTR

B. Low MTBF and High MTTR
C. High MTBF and Low MTTR
D. High MTBF and High MTTR

Q10 To Take care of e-waste regulations we need:

A. Hardware Monitoring Plans

B. Audit of Hardware
C. Hardware Maintenance Plans
D. Hardware Retirement Policies
ANSWERS

1 A 6 A

2 B 7 C

3 A 8 C

4 C 9 C

5 C 10 D
 SAQ 1.2 System Software

Q1 The main function of systems software is to:

A. Direct the working of computer hardware

B. Perform useful tasks beyond the running of the computer
C. Allows sharing of resources and information
D. Create a well-organized database

Q2 The capability of OS to execute two or more applications simultaneously:

A. Multithreading
B. Multitasking
C. Multiprocessing
D. Spooling

Q3 One of the following is NOT a function of System Software?

A. Lays a platform for Application software.

B. Provides for optimal use of computer resources.
C. Provides software for accounting purpose
D. Manages users connected to the system

Q4 While acquiring an application software an organisation would ensure that:-

A. Operating system (OS) being used is compatible with the existing hardware platform.
B. OS updates have been scheduled to minimize negative impacts on company needs.
C. OS has the latest versions and updates.
D. Applications are compatible with the current or planned OS

Q5 Provides & maintains platform for application software:

A. DBMS
B. Device Drivers
C. System Software
D. General Purpose Softwares

Q6 Technologies and systems that prevent unauthorized users from privileges prescribed by
owner of the contents are:

A. HM (Hardware Management)
B. DRM (Digital Rights Management)
C. SAM (Software Asset Management)
D. DBMS (Database Management Systems)
Q7 To protect its Intellectual property rights (IPR) an Enterprise needs:

A. DBMS (Database Management Systems)

B. SAM (Software Asset Management)
C. DRM (Digital Rights Management)
D. HM (Hardware Management)

Q8 Software License Terms (EULA) & Certificate of Authenticity are required for:

A. Information system Layers

B. DBMS
C. Hardware Components
D. Proof of ownership

Q9 When choosing off-the-shelf software, which of the following are the two most important
criteria?

A. Documentation and response time

B. Flexibility and functionality
C. Vendor viability and vendor support
D. Cost and functionality

Q10 Which of the following are ways of validating purchased software information?

A. Using the software yourself and running it through a series of tests based on the criteria for
selecting software
B. Sending prospective vendors a questionnaire asking specific questions about their
packages
C. Reviewing software documentation and technical marketing literature
D. All of the above
ANSWERS

1 A 6 B

2 B 7 C

3 C 8 D

4 D 9 C

5 C 10 D
 SAQ1.3 DBMS

Q1 Which of the following ensures that each row can be uniquely identified by an attribute
called primary key?

A. Domain Integrity
B. Entity Integrity
C. Referential integrity
D. All of the above

Q2 The language used by application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to
as the:

A. DDL
B. DML
C. DCL
D. None of the above

Q3 The schema that defines the contents of database from users perspective is

A. External Schema
B. Conceptual Schema
C. Internal Schema
D. Logical schema

Q4 One of the main objectives of a DBMS is to

A. Create a database for an organization

B. Allow sharing application programs
C. Replace file based systems
D. Facilitate sharing of a database by current and future applications

Q5 One of the advantages of moving to DBMS is

A. Limited Data Sharing

B. Low Data Integrity
C. High Dependence between Data and Application
D. Reduced Data Redundancy

Q6 Which of the following Integrity Constraints ensures that Data values of primary key are all
valid & not null

A. Entity Integrity
B. Domain Integrity
C. Referential Integrity
D. All of the above
Q7 Which of the following is disadvantage of Normalisation.

A. Reduced Redundancy
B. Data integrity
C. Optimise Storage Space
D. Reduced processing Efficiency

Q8 Applications request information from the DBMS using which of the following Language

A. DDL(Data Definition Language)

B. DML(Data Manipulation Language)
C. DCL (Data Control Language)
D. None of the above

Q9 A Database Administrator does which oft the following

A. External Schema
B. Conceptual schema
C. Internal schema
D. Liaising with users

Q10 In a Bank, what type of relationship exists between a Customer table and Account table?

A. One to one
B. One to many
C. Many to many
D. One to many and many to many
ANSWERS

1 B 6 A

2 B 7 D

3 A 8 B

4 D 9 C

5 D 10 B
 SAQ 1.4 HARDWARE SOFTWARE DEPLOYMENT STRATEGIES

1. One of the following is a disadvantage of Centralized Approach:-

A. Sharing of resources
B. Single point of Failure
C. Centralised Patch Management
D. Achieving Economies of scale

2. One of the following is a disadvantage of Decentralized Approach:-

A. No single point of failure
B. Deployments could be in phases
C. Latency
D. Greater fit between system & local needs.

3. Decentralization might be an appropriate approach in which of following:-

A. System is Critical to functioning of organisation.
B. Data is drawn from many different sources.
C. Data required by all users.
D. Systems and data are relevant only to individual department.

4. A Data is to be used by all departments, which strategy should be deployed:-

A. Centralized.
B. Decentralized.
C. Regional Approach.
D. None of the above can be used.

5. Internet Router & Two factor Authentication, are part of which component of a Data Centre
in a CBS?
A. Hardware.
B. EMS.
C. Application Solutions.
D. Network & Security.

6. Identifying and managing of configurations of significant IT components, is referred as:-

A. Hardware/Software Management.
B. Hardening Systems.
C. Capacity Management.
D. Configuration Management.

7. Management of Configuration Items & Related Documentation is -

A. Configuration Identification.
B. Configuration Control.
 C. Configuration Status Reporting.
D. Configuration Audit.

8. Recording & Reporting changes in IS components refers to :-

A. Configuration Identification.
B. Configuration Control.
C. Configuration Status Reporting.
D. Configuration Audit.

9. Designing a System Architecture that prevents Intrusion is:

A. Configuration Control.
B. System Hardening
C. Hardware Monitoring.
D. System Auditing.

10. To Ensure the Hardening of OS, we:-

A. Enable guest Accounts.
B. Do not apply latest patches.
C. Never put password on Privileged Administrator accounts
D. Disable/uninstall unused services
ANSWERS

1 B 6 D

2 C 7 B

3 D 8 C

4 A 9 B

5 D 10 D
 SAQ 2.1 Networking Basics

Q1 Which of the following devices forwards data packets to all connected ports?

A. Router
B. Switch
C. Bridge
D. Hu

Q2 Your Company in planning to upgrade the networks. Vendor is offering both active and
passive hubs. The passive hubs are cheaper than the active ones. To take a decision what is the
difference between an active and a passive hub?

A. Passive hubs forward data based on MAC address.

B. Passive hubs do not regenerate the data signal.
C. Passive hubs forward data to all ports on the hub, not just the one for which they are
intended.
D. Passive hubs cannot be used in full-duplex mode.

Q3 Which of the following devices passes data based on the MAC address?

A. Hu
B. Switch
C. MAU
D. Router

Q4 The main disadvantage of peer-to-peer networking is:

A. The networks are difficult to configure

B. The networks are expensive
C. The network is less secure than a server based network
D. It follows a Master/Slave topology

Q5 Which of the following is disadvantage of star network topology?

A. If a cable breaks, the entire network is affected

B. If the hub fails, the entire network can fail
C. Network expansion is difficult
D. Isolating problems is difficult

Q6 A topology in which every node is physically connected to every other node is

A. Tree
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Bus
Q7 An ISP which wants a highly Fault tolerant Network Topology will select which of the
following?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Mesh

Q8 Which of the following does not degrade the quality of a signal?

A. Attenuation
B. Delay Distortion
C. Security
D. Noise

Q9 Which of the following devices would you find only on a Token Ring network?

A. MAU
B. Hu
C. Switch
D. Router

Q10 Which of the following is not a switching Technique?

A. Packet Switching
B. Circuit Switching
C. Token Switching
D. Message Switching
ANSWERS

1 D 6 C

2 B 7 D

3 B 8 C

4 C 9 A

5 B 10 C
 SAQ 2.2 Networking Standards

Q1 The following is a mechanism used by Networked systems to send notification of

datagram problems back to the sender.

A. ICMP
B. TCP
C. SMTP
D. FTP

Q2 SNMP is a protocol used in which of the following layer of TCP/IP suite.

A. Network
B. Application
C. Physical
D. Data Link

Q3 Which of the following is not a function of the Network layer?

A. Message addressing
B. Path determination
C. Physical addressing
D. Routing

Q4 Which one of the layers handles the task of data compression?

A. Transport Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Physical Layer
D. Application Layer

Q5 Which of the following is not a Data Link layer activity?

A. Physical addressing
B. Error detection
C. Routing
D. Flow control

Q6 Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service between
hosts?

A. IP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Q7 If a router interface is congested, which protocol in the IP suite is used to tell neighbour
routers?

A. RARP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. TCP

Q8 A Wi-Fi Networks uses which of the following waves to transmit

A. Electrical
B. Radio
C. Soun
D. Infrared

Q9 What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

A. Security algorithm for Ethernet

B. Security algorithm for wireless networks
C. Security algorithm for USB communication
D. None of the mentioned

Q10 Which of the following Protocols is used to send E-mails?

A. POP3
B. MIME
C. SMTP
D. S-MIME
ANSWERS

1 A 6 D

2 B 7 C

3 C 8 B

4 D 9 B

5 C 10 C
 SAQ 2.3 THE IP NETWORKS

1. Which of the following is a traditional scheme of IP Addressing?

A. IPv6
B. IPv4
C. Broadcasting
D. None of these

2. Which of the of the following Classes of IPV4 addresses has Maximum number of Networks?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class C

3. Ports up to _______ are called well-known ports.

A. 1500
B. 255
C. 1023
D. 1024

4. IPV4 Address is
A. 8 bit
B. 16 bit
C. 32 bit
D. 128 bit

5. Each IP packet must contain

A. Only Source address
B. Only Destination address
C. Source and Destination address
D. Source or Destination address

6. Which of the following IP address class is Multicast

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

7. Which of the following is correct regarding Class B Address of IP address

A. Network bit – 14, Host bit – 16
B. Network bit – 16, Host bit – 14
C. Network bit – 18, Host bit – 16
D. Network bit – 12, Host bit – 14
8. DNS (Domain Name System) is a ------- database
A. flat
B. hierarchical
C. organized
D. none of the above

9. IPv6 addresses are ____bits long.

A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128

10. Which is a benefit of On Demand computing?

A. Vendor lock in
B. Security
C. Privacy
D. Reduced cost
ANSWERS

1 B 6 D

2 D 7 A

3 C 8 B

4 C 9 D

5 C 10 D
 SAQ 3.1 Firewalls
1. A Firewall is a
A. Hardware device
B. Software
C. Combination of hardware and software
D. None of the above

2. A packet filtering firewall operates on which layer of following OSI model?

A. Network layer
B. Application layer
C. Transport layer
D. Session layer
E.
3. A Unified threat management system
A. Integrates into a single appliance firewall, IPS, VPN, web content filtering security
solutions
B. Works at the physical layer of OSI model
C. Is highly efficient and uses low bandwidth
D. Is not impacted with the OS vulnerabilities

4. The most robust configuration in firewall rule base is

A. Allow all traffic and deny the specified traffic
B. Deny all traffic and allow the specified traffic
C. Dynamically decide based on protocol
D. None of above

5. The first step in installing a Firewall in a large organization is

A. Develop Security Policy
B. Prepare Information technology assets’ inventory
C. Prepare risk profile
D. Configure the firewall

6. The firewall that allows traffic from outside only if it is in response to traffic from internal hosts,
is
A. Application level gateway firewall
B. Stateful Inspection Firewall
C. Packet filtering Router
D. Circuit level gateway

7. Packet filtering firewalls can be exposed to the risks of

A. Tiny Fragments attack
B. Source Routing attacks
C. Source IP address spoofing
D. All of above
8. Which of following in respect of Appliance Firewalls is False
A. They are highly efficient
B. They have scalability issues
C. They are immune to the operating system vulnerabilities
D. They are a single point of failure

9. A Circuit level Gateway

A. Works at the session layer of OSI model
B. Establishes two separate connections
C. Can work as hybrid of proxy services for inbound connection and circuit level functions
for outbound connections
D. All of above

10. Giving open access to Internet to the employees of an organization through its network for
market research and knowledge enhancement may lead to
A. Increased employee motivation and productivity
B. Better usage of the network resources
C. Malicious attacks on important data
D. Better employee bonding with their customers through social sites and mail services.
ANSWERS

1 C 6 B

2 A 7 D

3 A 8 C

4 B 9 D

5 A 10 C
 SAQ 3.2 CONFIGURING PERSONAL FIREWALLS

1. Which of the following is a feature of an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

A. Gathering evidence on attack attempts
B. Preventing any malicious inbound packets
C. Blocking access to sites on the Internet
D. Preventing certain applications from accessing Internet

2. Which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS) are placed at a strategic point or
points within the network to monitor traffic to and from all devices on the network?
A. HIDS
B. Anomaly-based IDS
C. Passive IDS
D. NIDS

3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Signature Based IDS?

A. It works very fast
B. Checks events based on behaviour
C. Fails against new types of Attacks
D. Based on Statistics

4. Which of the following would provide the BEST prevention against the intrusion of a computer
connected to the Internet?
A. An Intrusion Detection System
B. A proxy server
C. A DMZ
D. A personal firewall

5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Personal Firewall?

A. Malware can manipulate them
B. Allows user to control which application can connect
C. Alert user to any outbound connections
D. Monitor /Control all incoming network traffic
ANSWERS

1 A

2 D

3 C

4 D

5 A
 SAQ 3.3 CRYPTOGRAPHY & PKI

1. Which of the following elements proves that it is actually the sender who has sent the
message.
A. Integrity
B. Privacy
C. Non-repudiation
D. Authentication

2. A CA e-mails Audit Reports to clients and wants reasonable assurance that no one has
altered the Report. This objective can be achieved by:
A. Signing the document using the CA's Symmetric Key.
B. Encrypting the hash of the Report using the CA's private key.
C. Encrypting the hash of the Report using the CA's public key.
D. Encrypting the report using the CA's symmetric key

3. The security of a Symmetric Key depends on the number of:

A. Encryption key bits.
B. Messages sent.
C. Keys.
D. Algorithms used

4. The use of digital signatures:

A. Ensures privacy of message
B. Provides encryption to a message.
C. Provides authentication of message.
D. Ensures message confidentiality

5. A digital signature contains a Hash to:

A. Authentication of source.
B. Ensure privacy of message.
C. Efficient message transmission.
D. Ensure Integrity of message maintained during transmission.

6. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a:

A. Certificate authority.
B. Certificate Revocations List
C. Digital certificate.
D. Registration authority

7. Symmetric encryption:
A. Can cause key management to be difficult
B. Provides authentication
 C. Is slower than asymmetric encryption
D. Ensures integrity

8. To ensure authentication and integrity of a message, the sender should encrypt the hash of
the message with:
A. Sender’s Public key
B. Sender’s Private Key
C. Receiver’s Public Key
D. Receiver’s Private Key

9. To ensure authentication, confidentiality and integrity of a message, the sender should

encrypt the hash of the message with:
A. Sender’s public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key.
B. Sender’s private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key.
C. Sender’s Public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key.
D. Sender’s Private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key.

10. Which of the following ensures integrity.

A. Hash Code
B. Encrypting with Symmetric Key
C. Encrypting message with Sender’s public Key
D. Encrypting message with receiver’s private key
ANSWERS

1 C 6 C

2 B 7 A

3 A 8 B

4 C 9 B

5 D 10 A
 SAQ 3.4 APPLICATION OF CYPTOGRAPHIC SYSTEMS

1. The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol addresses the confidentiality of a message through:
A. Public Key of Server
B. Hash function.
C. Symmetric encryption
D. Digital signature certificates

2. Which of the following operates in Transport Mode or Tunnel Mode?

A. S-MIME
B. HTTPS
C. SSL
D. IPSec

3. In the following mode end to end (Host to host) security of data is provided.
A. Tunnel
B. Transport
C. Either Tunnel or Transport
D. None of the above

4. When we are browsing on to a secure Income Tax site which protocol are we using?
A. IPsec
B. S-MIME
C. HTTPS
D. SET

5. Security of e-mails can be ensured using

A. HTTPS
B. S-MIME
C. IPSEC
D. SET
ANSWERS

1 C

2 D

3 B

4 C

5 B
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.3 IT ASSURANCE SERVICES AND ROLE OF CA IN BPO-KPO

1 Why do Chartered Accountants need to embrace IT?

A. IT is a trendy thing
B. IT is a buzzword
C. IT is a key enabler in Enterprises
D. IT is interesting

2 Which of the following is an advantage of Outsourced services?

A. Privacy and confidentiality
B. Attrition of staff
C. Cost cutting
D. Legal compliances

3 While auditing an Outsourced agreement, an IS auditor would be most concerned with

A. The commercial terms of outsourcing arrangement
B. The continuity of operations in case of failure of service provider
C. The location from which services are provided
D. The loss of in-house IT competencies

4 Embracing IT will enable Auditors provide Consulting and Assurance services to an enterprise in the areas of
A. IT Risk Management
B. IT Strategic Planning
C. IT Security Management
D. All of the above.

5 An IS Auditor auditing the on-line transaction processing system of an organization outsourced to a third party
will be most concerned that
A. Transactions are authorized by the outsourced agency.
B. Transaction log is not printed on daily basis.
C. Organization does not have adequate trained IT personnel.
D. The third party is providing outsourced services to other clients also.
ANSWERS
1 C
2 C
3 B
4 D
5 A
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.4 Business Intelligence

1 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
A. To create a new data warehouse
B. To create data marts
C. To eliminate need to understand business
D. To discover useful patterns in large volume of diverse data

2 A Data Warehouse is which of the following?

A. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data
B. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data
C. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data
D. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data

3 Which of the following is a tool that helps in predicting future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers
to make proactive, knowledge driven decisions
A. Data warehouse
B. Data mining
C. Data marts
D. Data Dictionary

4 Which of the following is false?

A. Data mart contains more detailed data than DW.
B. Data Marts are used only by large Companies.
C. Data mart requires less powerful Hardware than DW.
D. Data for a single aspect of business is stored in Data mart.

5 Which of the following is Challenge in ERP?

A. Improved Data Access
B. Improvement in work processes.
C. Standardized Business processes.
D. Selection and configuration of ERP package

6 E-commerce is:
A. Any electronic communication between a Company and its shareholders
B. Organization using electronic media to link to its employees
C. Conduct of business activities over computer networks electronically.
D. The use of electronic communications for all business processes.
ANSWERS
1 D
2 C
3 B
4 B
5 D
6 C
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.3 IT ASSURANCE SERVICES AND ROLE OF CA IN BPO-KPO

1 Why do Chartered Accountants need to embrace IT?

A. IT is a trendy thing
B. IT is a buzzword
C. IT is a key enabler in Enterprises
D. IT is interesting

2 Which of the following is an advantage of Outsourced services?

A. Privacy and confidentiality
B. Attrition of staff
C. Cost cutting
D. Legal compliances

3 While auditing an Outsourced agreement, an IS auditor would be most concerned with

A. The commercial terms of outsourcing arrangement
B. The continuity of operations in case of failure of service provider
C. The location from which services are provided
D. The loss of in-house IT competencies

4 Embracing IT will enable Auditors provide Consulting and Assurance services to an enterprise in the areas of
A. IT Risk Management
B. IT Strategic Planning
C. IT Security Management
D. All of the above.

5 An IS Auditor auditing the on-line transaction processing system of an organization outsourced to a third party
will be most concerned that
A. Transactions are authorized by the outsourced agency.
B. Transaction log is not printed on daily basis.
C. Organization does not have adequate trained IT personnel.
D. The third party is providing outsourced services to other clients also.
ANSWERS
1 C
2 C
3 B
4 D
5 A
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.4 Business Intelligence

1 A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
A. To create a new data warehouse
B. To create data marts
C. To eliminate need to understand business
D. To discover useful patterns in large volume of diverse data

2 A Data Warehouse is which of the following?

A. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data
B. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data
C. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data
D. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data

3 Which of the following is a tool that helps in predicting future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers
to make proactive, knowledge driven decisions
A. Data warehouse
B. Data mining
C. Data marts
D. Data Dictionary

4 Which of the following is false?

A. Data mart contains more detailed data than DW.
B. Data Marts are used only by large Companies.
C. Data mart requires less powerful Hardware than DW.
D. Data for a single aspect of business is stored in Data mart.

5 Which of the following is Challenge in ERP?

A. Improved Data Access
B. Improvement in work processes.
C. Standardized Business processes.
D. Selection and configuration of ERP package

6 E-commerce is:
A. Any electronic communication between a Company and its shareholders
B. Organization using electronic media to link to its employees
C. Conduct of business activities over computer networks electronically.
D. The use of electronic communications for all business processes.
ANSWERS
1 D
2 C
3 B
4 B
5 D
6 C
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.5 Cloud Computing

1 Which of the following is not a service model for cloud

A. IaaS (Infrastructure as a service)
B. Paas (Platform as a Service)
C. SaaS (Software as a Service)
D. DaaS (Display as a Service)

2 Which of the following would not be a reason to move to cloud computing?

A. Agility
B. Scalability
C. Security
D. Resource Pooling

3 Which is not a benefit of cloud computing?

A. Vendor lock in
B. Ability to access the application & data from anywhere
C. Reduce Hardware Costs
D. Reduce need for physical space

4 Which is not an advantage of Mobile Computing?

A. Saves Time
B. Entertainment
C. Health Hazard
D. Location flexibility
ANSWERS
1 D
2 C
3 A
4 C
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.6 Emerging Technologies

1 Which of the following is not a concern of BYOD:-

A. Reluctance of Employees
B. Compatibility issues
C. Reduced IT support requirement
D. Security Administration issues

2 Which of the following facilitates data exchange & defining of tags:-

A. HTML
B. Social Media
C. BYOD
D. XML

3 In which of the following content is managed & supplied by user:-

A. XBRL
B. XML
C. BYOD
D. Social Media

4 Social Media benefits both users and marketers because:

A. It leads to an increase in Internet traffic.
B. Through use of social media marketers will have a more robust online presence.
C. Marketers will have monopoly over users.
D. Users will have less influence over the marketplace.

5 Which is not an advantage of XBRL:-

A. Accuracy
B. Speed
C. Reusability
D. Taxonomies are always accurate
ANSWERS

1 C
2 D
3 D
4 B
5 D
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.7 Business Information Systems

1 This System can process Semi-structured problems:-

A. Expert systems
B. DSS
C. Artificial Intelligence
D. Transaction processing Systems

2 Which of the following refers to a normal operational activity for conduct of business?
A. DSS
B. Expert Systems
C. Artificial Intelligence
D. Transaction Processing Systems

3 A technology that manages Huge amount of data from diverse sources:-

A. Big Data
B. DSS
C. Expert Systems
D. Transaction Processing Systems

4. A computer program that embodies specialized knowledge in a specific domain is called?

A. Automatic Processor
B. Intelligent planner
C. Expert System
D. Transaction processing systems

5 Which of the following systems is used to present high-level overview of information as well as the ability to
drill down to details for senior managers?
A. Decision support system
B. Executive support system
C. Expert support system
D. Transaction-processing system
ANSWERS
1 B
2 D
3 A
4 C
5 B
 Module: 1, Primer on Information Technology – Facilitated e-Learning

1.8 emerging technologies risk control & audit

1 Which of the following is not a Green IT Practice?-

A. Decommissioning Unused Systems
B. Consolidation of unused systems
C. Virtualization
D. Printing rather than Electronic records

2 Which of the following is not a reason to adopt Green IT?

A. Short term profits
B. Economic
C. Social and Environmental
D. Regulatory

3 Which of the following is a characteristic of Web 2.0 applications?

A. Multiple users schedule their time to use it one by one
B. Focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online
C. They provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it
D. Web 2.0 application use only static pages

4 Which of the following is not a use of Web 2.0 applications?

A. Blogs
B. Wikis
C. Personal Read only websites
D. Social Networks

5 Which of the following is not a Security Concern of Web 2.0 applications?

A. Collaboration and Third Party content
B. Click jacking
C. Community based
D. Extended validation Tools
ANSWERS
1 D
2 A
3 B
4 C
5 D