CHAPTER 14

Exercises

E14.1 If one grasps the wire with the right hand and with the thumb pointing
north, the fingers point west under the wire and curl around to point east
above the wire.

E14.2 If one places the fingers of the right hand on the periphery of the clock
pointing clockwise, the thumb points into the clock face.

E14.3 f  qu  B  ( 1.602  10 19 )10 5 ux  uy  1.602  10 14 uz

in which ux, uy, and uz are unit vectors along the respective axes.

E14.4 f  iB sin(θ )  10(1)0.5 sin(90  )  5 N

E14.5 (a) φ  BA  Bπr 2  0.5π (0.05) 2  3.927 mWb

λ  Nφ  39.27 mWb turns
dλ 39.27  10 3
(b) e    39.27 V
dt 10 3
More information would be needed to determine the polarity of the
voltage by use of Lenz’s law. Thus the minus sign of the result is not
meaningful.

μI 4π  10 7  20
E14.6 B    4  10 4 T
2πr 2π10 2

E14.7 By Ampère’s law, the integral equals the sum of the currents flowing
through the surface bounded by the path. The reference direction for
the currents relates to the direction of integration by the right-hand
rule. Thus, for each part the integral equals the sum of the currents
flowing upward. Refering to Figure 14.9 in the book, we have

 H  d  10 A
Path 1
 H  d  10  10  0 A
Path 2
 H  d  10 A
Path 3

1
E14.8 Refer to Figure 14.9 in the book. Conceptually the left-hand wire
produces a field in the region surrounding it given by
μI 4π  10 7  10
B    2  10 5 T
2πr 2π10 1
By the right-hand rule, the direction of this field is in the direction of
Path 1. The field in turn produces a force on the right-hand wire given by
f  Bi  2  10 5 (1)(10)  2  10 4 N
By the right-hand rule, the direction of the force is such that the wires
repel one another.

E14.9 The magnetic circuit is:

The reluctance of the iron is:

 iron 27  10 2
Riron  
μr μ0Airon 5000  4π  10 7  4  10 4
Riron  107.4  10 3
The reluctance of the air gap is:
 gap 10 2
Rgap  
μ0Agap 4 π  10 7  9  10 4
Rgap  8.842  10 6
Then we have
φ  BgapAgap  0.5  9  10 4  0.45 mWb
(Riron  Rgap )φ (107.4  103  8.842  10 6 )(0.45  10 3 )
i    4.027 A
N 1000

E14.10 Refer to Example 14.6 in the book. Neglecting the reluctance of the iron,
we have:
Rc  0
 gap 1  10 2
Ra    8.842  10 6
μ0Aa 4 π  10  9  10
7 4

2
  gap 0.5  10 2
Rb    6.366  10 6
μ0Ab 4π  10  6.25  10
7 4

Ni 500  2
φa    113.1 μWb
Ra 8.842  10 6
φa 113.1  10 6
Ba    0.1257 T
Aa 9  10 4
compared to 0.1123 T found in the example for an error of 11.9%.

Ni 500  2
φb    157.1 μWb
Rb 6.366  10 6
φb 157.1  10 6
Bb    0.2513 T
Ab 6.25  10 4
compared to 0.2192T found in the Example for an error of 14.66%.

N2i2 200i2
E14.11 φ2    2  10 5 i2
R 10 7

λ12  N1 φ2  200  10 5 i2

λ12
M  2 mH
i2

E14.12 By the right-hand rule, clockwise flux is produced by i1 and

counterclockwise flux is produced by i2. Thus the currents produce
opposing fluxes.

If a dot is placed on the top terminal of coil 1, current entering the dot
produces clockwise flux. Current must enter the bottom terminal of coil
2 to produce clockwise flux. Thus the corresponding dot should be on the
bottom terminal of coil 2.

The voltages are given by Equations 14.36 and 14.37 in which we choose
the minus signs because the currents produce opposing fluxes. Thus we
have
di di di di
e1  L1 1  M 2 and e2  M 1  L2 2
dt dt dt dt

3
E14.13 (a) Using the right-hand rule, we find that the fluxes produced by i1 and
i2 aid in path 1, aid in path 2, and oppose in path 3.

If a dot is placed on the top terminal of coil 1, the corresponding dot

should be on the top terminal of coil 2, because then currents entering
the dotted terminals produce aiding flux linkages of the coils.

(b) For i2 = 0, the magnetic circuit is:

Then the reluctance seen by the source is

1
Rtotal  R1   1.5  10 6
1 / R2  1 / R3
Ni N12i1
φ1  1 1 λ11  N1 φ1 
Rtotal Rtotal
λ11 N2
L1   1  6.667 mH
i1 Rtotal
The flux φ1 splits equally between paths 2 and 3. Thus we have
φ21  φ1 / 2. Then
N1N2i1 λ NN
λ21  N2 φ21  and M  21  1 2  10 mH
2Rtotal i1 2Rtotal
Similarly, we find L2  60 mH.

(c) Because the currents produce aiding flux linkages, the mutual term
carries a + sign.

E14.14 The energy lost per cycle is Wcycle  ( 40 J/m3 )  (200  10 6 m3 )  8 mJ ,

and the power loss is P  Wcyclef  8  10 3  60  0.48 W.

4
 NI 1000
E14.15 H gap    200  103 A/m
 gap 0.5  10 2

Bgap  μ0H gap  0.2513 T

Bgap
2

W  Wv  Volume  (2  10 2  3  10 2  0.5  10 2 )  0.0754 J

2 0

E14.16 Refer to Figure 14.26c in the book.

Vs  1000 
I2    3.536  45 
Rs  Z L 10  10  j 20

V2  Z L I2  (10  j 20) I2  79.0618.43 V
2
 3.536 
PL  I 2
RL  
2rms  (10)  62.51 W
 2 

2 2
N  1
E14.17 RL   1  RL    400  25 Ω
 N2  4
1000 
I1   1.5380 
Rs  RL
N 
I2   1 I1  0.38460 
 N2 
V2  RL I2  153.80 
PL  RLI 12rms  RL I 22rms  29.60 W

E14.18 For maximum power transfer, we need

Rs  RL
However we have
2 2
N  N 
RL   1  RL   1  400
 N2   N2 
Thus we have
2
N 
Rs  40   1  400
 N2 
Solving we find
N1 1

N2 10

5
 Problems

P14.5 By Lenz’s law, the polarity of the induced voltage is such that the current
flowing through a resistance placed across the terminals of the coil tends
to oppose the change in flux linkages. As the magnet approaches, the coil
would produce a field pointing toward the magnet. This requires a
current from a to b through the coil. Thus, we find that b must be
positive so vab is negative.

I 4  10 7  20
P14.6 We have B    0.1  3  10 5 T . Solving, we find r 
2 r 2 r
133.33 cm.

P14.8 Equation 14.4 in the text states:

f  iB sin θ
Since the wire is perpendicular to the field, θ  90 . Solving for the
magnetic flux density and substituting values, we have:
f 3
B   0.15 T
i  20  1.0

B 0.2
P14.10    2  10 2 Wb Am
H 10
 2  10 2
r    15915.5
0 4  10 7

P14.12 The flux linking the coil is the product of the coil area and the flux
density.
  BA  B r 2  2    0.22  0.2513 Wb

The flux linkages are given by:

  N  5  0.2513  2.513 Wb turns

Thus the induced voltage is

d   2.513
e    2513 V
dt t 10 3

6
  gap  core
P14.24 Rgap   Rcore 
μgapA μcoreA
Rearranging, we find that
core 4000 0
 core   gap  0.2  800 cm
gap 0

P14.25 Without the gap, the reluctance of the left-hand leg becomes:
a 30  10 2
Ra  
μr μ0Acore 1000  4π  10  7  4  10  4
Ra  596.8  103
As in Example 14.6, we have:
Rc  1.989  105
Rb  6.953  106
1
Rtotal  Rc   748.5  103
1 Ra  1 Rb
Ni 500  2
c    1.336  10 3 Wb
Rtotal 748.5  10 3

Ra
φb  φc  105.6 μWb
Ra  Rb

This compares to φb  137.0 μWb in Example 14.6. The flux in the right-
hand leg is less after the gap in the left-hand leg is filled because the
flux takes the lower reluctance path.

P14.27 Magnetomotive force F  Ni in a magnetic circuit is analogous to a

voltage source in an electrical circuit. Reluctance R is analogous to
electrical resistance. Magnetic flux φ is analogous to electrical current.

P14.31 The flux must pass through two gaps, one at the left-hand of the end of
the plunger and the other in the center of the plunger. The area of the
gap surrounding the center of the plunger is approximately:

A   (d   g )L
Thus, the reluctance is given by:

7
 g
Rcenter 
 0 (d   g )L
The reluctance of the gap at the left-hand end of the plunger is:

x
Rleft 
μ0 π d 2
2

The total reluctance is:

R  Rcenter  Rleft
g x
 
 0 (d   g )L  0 d 2
2

The flux is given by

NI NI
 
R g x

 0 (d   g )L  0 d 2
2

P14.36 Because coil 2 is short circuited, we have v 2 t   0 . Thus, we have

di di di di
0M  L2 2  1.0 1  20 2
dt dt dt dt
di2 di
 0.05 1
dt dt

which implies that i2  0.05i1  C , in which C is a constant of integration

to be determined later. After the switch closes, we have
di (t ) di (t )
L1 1 M 2  15
dt dt
Substituting results found above, this becomes
di
0.15 1  15
dt
Integrating and using the fact that i1 0   0 , we have
i1 t   100t
Substituting into the equation found earlier for i2, we have
i2  5t  C
However because we are given that i2 is initially zero, we have C = 0
resulting in
i2  5t

8
 The sketches are:

P14.37 The impedance of the inductance to a sinusoidal current is:

V 150
XL  L  rms   75 
Irms 2
For an f = 60-Hz source, we have:
ω  2πf  377

Thus, the inductance is

X 75
L L   0.1989
 377
Rearranging Equation 14.25, we have:
N2 5002
R   125.68
L 0.1989
N2 10002
R   50.28  10 4
L 0.1989

Rearranging Equation 14.21, we have:

 20  10 2
   795.5  10 6
RA 50.28  10  5  10
4 4

 795.5  10 6
r    633.07
0 4  10 7

P14.38 According to Equation 14.25, inductance is given by:

N2
L
R
Thus, inductance is proportional to the square of the number of turns,
and the inductance of the 400 turn coil is 1600 mH.

9
P14.39 The voltages are given by Equations 14.36 and 14.37. We select the +
signs because both currents enter dotted terminals and produce aiding
fluxes.
di di
e1  L1 1  M 2
dt dt
di di
e2  M 1  L2 2
dt dt
2d 2cos 377t   1.0d 1.0 cos 377t  
e1  
dt dt
1.0d 2cos 377t   4d 1.0 cos 377t  
  
e2  
dt dt
e1  1885 sin 377t 
e2  2262sin 377t 

P14.50 Two causes of core loss are hysteresis and eddy currents. To minimize
loss due to hysteresis, we should select a material having a thin
hysteresis loop (as shown in Figure 14.21 in the book). To minimize loss
due to eddy currents, we laminate the core. The laminations are
insulated from one another so eddy currents cannot flow between them.

If the frequency of operation is doubled, the power loss due to

hysteresis doubles and the power loss due to eddy currents is quadrupled.

P14.51 Assuming constant peak flux density, power loss due to eddy currents
increases with the square of frequency. Power loss due to hysteresis is
directly proportional to frequency. Thus, the power loss at 400 Hz is
2
 400   400 
P 1   0.5   
 60   60 
 28.88 W

P14.59 (a) The dots should be placed on the top end of coil 2 and on the
right-hand end of coil 3.

N2 V2
(b) V2  V1  500  I2   100
N1 5
N V
V3  3 V1  1000 I3  3  100
N1 10 

10
 (c) The total mmf is:
F  N1 I1  N2I2  N3I3
(Notice that the mmfs of I2 and I3 oppose that of I1.) Since we
assume that the reluctance of the core is negligible, the
net mmf is zero and we have:
N1 I1  N2I2  N3I3  0
Solving for I1 and substituting values, we have:
I1  N2 N1 I2  N3 N1 I3
 150 

P14.60 If we tried to make the 25  load look like 100  by adding 75  in

series, 75% of the power delivered by the source would be dissipated in
the 75- resistance. On the other hand, when using the transformer,
virtually all of the power taken from the source is delivered to the load.
Thus, from the standpoint of efficiency, the transformer is a much
better choice.

P14.61 If residential power was distributed at 12 V (rather than 120 V) higher

currents (by an order of magnitude) would be required to deliver the
same amounts of power. This would require much larger wire sizes to
avoid excessive power loss in the resistances of the conductors.
On the other hand, if residential power was distributed at 12 kV, greater
safety hazards would result.

P14.70 The equivalent circuit of a real transformer is shown in Figure 14.28 in

the book. The resistances R1 and R2 account for the resistance of the
wires used to wind the coils of the transformer. L1 and L2 account for
flux produced by each coil that does not link the other coil. Lm accounts
for the current needed to set up the mutual flux in the core. Finally, Rc
accounts for core losses due to eddy currents and hysteresis.

P14.71 We follow the method of Example 14.13. The results are:

I2  8.333  36.87  A rms
N 1
I1  2 I2   8.333  36.87   0.25 - 36.87  A rms
N1 33.33
V2  Vload  R2  jX2 I2
V2  240.88  j 0.90

11
 N1
V1  V
N2 2
V1  8029.4  j 30.0
Vs  V1  R1  jX1 I1
Vs  8050.60.368
Vs 2
Ploss   I12R1  I 22R2
Rc
Ploss  324.1  0.9  1.4
Ploss  326.4 W
Pload  VloadI 2  power factor
Pload  2 kVA  0.8  1600 W
Pin  Pload  Ploss
Pin  1926.4 W
 P 
Efficiency   1 - loss   100%
 Pin 
Efficiency  83.06%
Next, we can determine the no-load voltages. Under no-load conditions,
we have:
I1  I 2  0
V1  Vs  8050.6
N
Vno-load  V2  V1 2  241.5
N1
V V
Percent regulation  no -load load  100%  0.625%
Vload

P14.72 The voltage across a transformer coil is approximately equal to

dφ
N
dt
in which N is the number of turns and   BA is the flux in the core. If
B is reduced in magnitude, either N or the core area A would need to be
increased to maintain the same voltage rating. In either case, more
material (i.e., iron for the core or copper for the windings) is needed for
the transformer.

On the other hand if the peak value of B is much higher than the
saturation point, much more magnetizing current is required resulting in
higher losses.

12
 Practice Test

T14.1 (a) We have f  iB sin( )  12(0.2)0.3 sin(90  )  0.72 N . ( is the angle
between the field and the wire.) The direction of the force is that of il 
B in which the direction of the vector l is the positive direction of the
current (given as the positive x direction). Thus, the force is directed in
the negative y direction.
(b) The current and the field are in the same direction so   0 and the
force is zero. Direction does not apply for a vector of zero magnitude.

T14.2 The flux linking the coil is

  BA  0.7[sin(120t )](0.25) 2  43.75  10 3 sin(120t ) Wb
The induced voltage is
d d
v  N  10  43.75  10 3  120 cos(120t )  164.9 cos(120t ) V
dt dt

T14.3 e  Blu  0.4  0.2  15  1.2 V

T14.4 (a) The magnetic circuit is:

The permeability of the core is:

core   r  0  1500  4  10 7  1.885  10 3
The reluctance of the core is given by
 core 33.7  10 2
Rcore    298.0  10 3
core Acore 1.885  10 3  2  10 2  3  10 2
To account for fringing, we add the gap length to the width and depth of
the gap.
0.3  10 2
R gap   3.145  10 6
4  10  2.3  10  3.3  10
7 2 2

The equivalent reluctance seen by the source is:

13
 Req  Rcore  R gap  3.443  10 6
The flux is :
F 4  350
   406.6  10 -6 Wb
Req 3.443  10 6

Finally, the flux density in the gap is approximately

 406.6  10 6
B gap    0.5357 T
Agap 2.3  10 2  3.3  10 2
(b) The inductance is
N2 350 2
L   35.58 mH
Req 3.443  10 6

T14.5 The two mechanisms by which power is converted to heat in an iron core
are hysteresis and eddy currents. To minimize loss due to hysteresis, we
choose a material for which the plot of B versus H displays a thin
hysteresis loop. To minimize loss due to eddy currents, we make the core
from laminated sheets or from powered iron held together by an
insulating binder. Hysteresis loss is proportional to frequency and eddy-
current loss is proportional to the square of frequency.

T14.6 (a) With the switch open, we have I2rms  0, I1rms  0 and the voltage
across Rs is zero. Therefore, we have V1rms  120 V and V2rms 
(N2/N1)V1rms  1200 V. (The dots affect the phases of the voltages but
not their rms values. Thus, V2rms  1200 V would not be considered to be
correct.)
(b) With the switch closed, the impedance seen looking into the primary
is RL  (N1 / N2 ) 2 RL  10 . Then, using the voltage division principle, we
RL
have V1rms  120  114.3 V. Next, V2rms  (N2/N1)V1rms  1143 V.
Rs  RL
The primary current is I 1rms  120 /(10.5)  11.43 A. The secondary
current is I2rms  (N1/N2)I1rms  1.143 A.

T14.7 Core loss is nearly independent of load, while loss in the coil resistances
is nearly proportional to the square of the rms load current. Thus, for a
transformer that is lightly loaded most of the time, core loss is more
significant. Transformer B would be better from the standpoint of total
energy loss and operating costs.

14