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MCQ of Villamor Electronics Books PDF
MCQ of Villamor Electronics Books PDF
A. Atoms
B. Electrons
C. Protons
D. Neutrons
ANSWER: A
4. To determine whether a material can support the flow of electricity or not, we need to
examine its
A. atomic structure
B. physical state
C. molecular structure
D. chemical composition
ANSWER: A
17. Approximately, how many electrons that could equal to the mass of a single proton or
neutron?
A. 1,863 electrons
B. 1,683 electrons
C. 1,638 electrons
D. 1,836 electrons
ANSWER: D
18. The maximum number of electrons (Ne) that can occupy a given shell (n) is determined
by the formula
A. Ne = 2n2
B. Ne = n2
C. Ne = 2n
D. Ne = 2n
ANSWER: A
19. The discrete amount of energy required to move an electron from a lower shell to a
higher shell.
A. negative energy
B. positive energy
C. quantum
D. quanta
ANSWER: C
21. Electron is derived from the Greek name elektron which means
A. huge
B. tiny
C. particle
D. amber
ANSWER: D
23. In an atomic structure, what particle that has no charge and therefore has no effect on its
atomic charge
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. nucleons
ANSWER: C
26. If an element has an atomic number of 12, there are how many protons and electrons?
A. 6 protons and 12 electrons
B. 12 protons and 6 electrons
C. 12 protons and 12 electrons
D. 12 protons and 24 electrons
ANSWER: C
27. Suppose there is an atom containing eight protons and eight neutrons in the nucleus,
and two neutron are added to the nucleus, the resulting atomic weight is about
A. 8
B. 10
C. 16
D. 18
ANSWER: D
41. From the combined energy-gap diagram, which material has the widest gap between
valence band and the conduction band?
A. conductor
B. semiconductor
C. super conductor
D. insulator
ANSWER: D
42. From the combined energy-gap diagram, which material has the smallest energy gap
between valence band and the conduction band?
A. conductor
B. semiconductor
C. super conductor
D. insulator
ANSWER: A
44. The difference in energy between the valence and conduction bands of a semiconductor
is called
A. band gap
B. extrinsict photoeffect
C. conductivity
D. energy density
ANSWER: A
45. The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band of a conductor is in the
order of
A. zero electron volt (0 eV)
B. one electron volt (1 eV)
C. five electron volt (5 eV)
D. ten electron volt (10 eV)
ANSWER: A
47. In materials, what do you call the region that separates the valence and conduction
bands?
A. energy gap
B. forbidden band
C. insulation band
D. energy gap or forbidden band
ANSWER: D
48. What do you call the potential required to remove a valence electron?
A. valence potential
B. threshold potential
C. critical potential
D. ionization potential
ANSWER: D
49. A factor that does not affect the resistance of the material.
A. atomic structure
B. mass
C. length
D. cross-sectional area
ANSWER: B
52. What will happen to an atom if an electron is either taken out or taken into the same
atom?
A. Becomes negative ion
B. Becomes positive ion
C. Becomes an ion
D. Nothing will happen
ANSWER: C
55. Refers to the lowest voltage across any insulator that can cause current flow.
A. conduction voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. voltage flow
D. voltage drop
ANSWER: B
57. When all atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called
A. a crystal
B. an element
C. a compound
D. an ion
ANSWER: B
58. An isotope
A. has a negative charge
B. has a positive charge
C. might have either positive or negative charge
D. is neutral
ANSWER: D
59. Isotope means, the same element but with different number of
A. electrons
B. neutrons
C. protons
D. atoms
ANSWER: B
61. A structure for solids in which the position of atoms are predetermined
A. Crystalline
B. Polycrystalline
C. Lattice
D. Non-Crystalline
ANSWER: A
62. A solid, which has no defined crystal structure.
A. Crystalline
B. Non-crystalline
C. Amorphous
D. Non-crystalline or Amorphous
ANSWER: D
63. States that each electron in an atom must have a different set of quantum numbers.
A. Quantum principle
B. Fermi-Dirac principle
C. Spin principle
D. Exclusion principle
ANSWER: D
64. Given an atomic structure of a certain material, what data can you determine out from it?
A. atomic number
B. atomic mass
C. the number of protons and electrons
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
65. Ideally, all atoms have the same number of positively charged protons and negatively
charged electrons, and is therefore considered as
A. electrically neutral
B. physically stable
C. magnetically aligned
D. technically rigid
ANSWER: A
66. When the charge of an atom becomes unbalanced, the atom is said to carry
A. Electric charge
B. Magnetic charge
C. Electromagnetic charge
D. Electrical current
ANSWER: A
68. An atom or group of atoms that carries a net electric charge is called
A. ion
B. anion
C. cation
D. domain
ANSWER: A
73. __________ is the procedure by which an atom is given a net charge by adding or
taking away electron.
A. Polarization
B. Irradiation
C. Ionization
D. Doping
ANSWER: C
74. Is a process by which an atom is constantly losing and then regaining electrons?
A. oxidation
B. passivation
C. metallization
D. ionization
ANSWER: D
83. The rate at which electrons pass a given point in the circuit gives the magnitude of
A. electron current
B. magnetic current
C. drift current
D. diffusion current
ANSWER: A
86. When one coulomb of electric charge continuously passes a given point every second,
the electric current is said to
A. 1 µA
B. 1 mA
C. 1 A
D. 10 A
ANSWER: C
90. The greater the diameter of a wire, the _______ is the resistance.
A. greater
B. lesser
C. harder
D. bigger
ANSWER: B
92. If a conductor’s cross-sectional area is doubled and its length is halved, the value of its
resistance will
A. double
B. quadruple
C. decrease by a factor of two
D. decrease by a factor of four
ANSWER: D
93. The amount of resistance that a wire has with regards to the flow of electric current
A. is less for a conductor than for an insulator
B. is less for an insulator than for a semiconductor
C. is less for a semiconductor than for a conductor
D. is high for a semiconductor than for an insulator
ANSWER: A
95. A 100m long wire with a cross-sectional area A=10-3 m2 has a resistance of 10Ω.
Determine the resistivity of the wire.
A. 10-2 Ω-m
B. 10-3 Ω-m
C. 10-4 Ω-m
D. 10-5 Ω-m
ANSWER: C
97. The science of physical phenomena at very low temperature, approaching absolute zero
is called ________.
A. crytanalysis
B. cybernetics
C. temperature inversion
D. cryogenics
ANSWER: D
98. What happens in the resistance of copper wire when its temperature is raised?
A. decreased
B. steady
C. increased
D. zero
ANSWER: C
99. A wire has a resistance of 5Ω at room temperature and a temperature coefficient
α=4x10-3/°C, calculate the wire resistance at 75°C.
A. 8.925 Ω
B. 7.925 Ω
C. 6.925 Ω
D. 6.050 Ω
ANSWER: D
103. Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for DC?
A. Because of skin effect
B. Because conductors are non-linear devices
C. Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequency
D. Because of the Heisenberg effect
ANSWER: A
104. The ability of a material to resist current flow is called “resistance”. What is (are) the
factor(s) that affect its value?
A. temperature
B. length & cross-sectional area
C. atomic structure
D. all of these
ANSWER: D
105. Find the charge in coulombs of dielectric that has a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to the
18th power protons.
A. 29 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
B. 14.5 x 10 to the 16th Coulombs
C. 14.5 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
D. 29 x 10 to the 18th Coulombs
ANSWER: C
108. What law that describes the force of attraction or repulsion between two charges is
directly proportional to their strengths and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them?
A. Coulomb’s first law
B. Coulomb’s second law
C. Coulomb’s third law
D. Coulomb’s law or law of electrostatics
ANSWER: D
109. What is the law whereby the force of attraction and repulsion between poles is
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
A. Newton’s first law
B. Newton’s second law
C. Norton’s law
D. Coulomb’s second law
ANSWER: D
112. Three charges of +5 C, -6 C and +7 C are placed inside a sphere, what is the total
charge of the sphere?
A. +5 Coulomb
B. -6 Coulomb
C. -7 Coulomb
D. +6 Coulomb
ANSWER: D
113. A combination of two charges, with equal charge magnitude but opposite signs.
A. magnetic dipole
B. static dipole
C. dynamic dipole
D. electric dipole
ASNWER: D
114. The space outside or surrounding an electric charge where it has a force of attraction
or repulsion.
A. Electric field
B. Magnetic field
C. Electromagnetic field
D. Electric flux
ANSWER: A
115. Refers to a force of field that exists between ions where they either repel or attract
each other.
A. Resisting field
B. Potential field
C. Dielectric
D. Electromotive
ANSWER: D
117. What is true in visualizing electric field lines of force from a charge body?
A. Field lines are continuous curve and they never intersect.
B. The spacing between these lines increases as they get far from the charged
body.
C. The number of field lines is directly proportional to the magnitude of the electric
field.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D
118. What do you call the total number of electric lines of force in an electric field?
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER: B
119. The number of lines per unit area in a plane perpendicular to the electric lines of force.
A. Electric field
B. Electric flux
C. Electric flux density
D. Electric lines of force
ANSWER: C
120. Electric lines of force leave and enter the charge surface at what angle?
A. 15°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°
ANSWER: D
126. Three charges of +5 C, -6 C, and +7 C are inside a sphere, what is the total electric
flux passing through the surface of the sphere?
A. 5 Coulombs
B. 6 Coulombs
C. 7 Coulombs
D. 8 Coulombs
ANSWER: B
127. An electric charge produces a total electric field of 6 Coulombs, calculate the electric
flux density in an area of one square meter (1m2).
A. 1 C/m2
B. 2 C/m2
C. 4 C/m2
D. 6 C/m2
ANSWER: D
129. The ability of the material to store electrical potential energy under the influence of an
electric field.
A. capacity
B. permeability
C. permittivity
D. conductivity
ANSWER: C
133. What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an
electrostatic field?
A. Volts
B. Watts
C. Coulombs
D. Joules
ANSWER: D
137. Charge body at rest is said to exhibit electric field, which interacts with other bodies.
The study of this phenomena is known as
A. electricity
B. electrostatics
C. electromagnetism
D. field interactions
ANSWER: B
139. The force between the two electrically charged body is called
A. electromotive force
B. electrostatic force
C. electromagnetic force
D. magnetic force
ANSWER: B
141. In 1784, who demonstrated that the force between charges is inversely related to the
square of the distance between them?
A. Maxwell
B. Gauss
C. Tesla
D. Coulomb
ANSWER: D
142. Determine the force in Newton between 4μC charges separated by 0.1 meter in air.
A. 1.44 N
B. 14.4 N
C. 144 N
D. 1440 N
ANSWER: B
143. What will happen when two opposite charges get closer?
A. repels less
B. attracts less
C. repels more
D. attracts more
ANSWER: D
145. The measure of electric field strength per unit length is known as electric field intensity
or simply electric intensity. What is its unit?
A. Volt/meter (V/m)
B. Joules/Coulomb-meter (J/Cm)
C. Newton/Coulomb (N/C)
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
146. Calculate the electric field intensity 10cm from a charge Q=5nC.
A. 450 N/C
B. 900 N/C
C. 4.5 x 103 N/C
D. 9.0 x 103 N/C
ANSWER: C
147. Determine the magnitude of the electric field inside a sphere that encloses a net
charge of 2μC.
A. 0 (zero)
B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
D. infinite
ANSWER: A
148. Calculate the total electric field at the surface of a sphere of radius r=1cm, and
enclosing a net charge of 2μC.
A. 0 (zero)
B. 9 x 107 N/C
C. 1.8 x 108 N/C
D. infinite
ANSWER: C
150. A charged body in free space produces 10-V potential at a distance 25cn away. What
will be the potential at 50cm away?
A. 5.0 Volts
B. 7.5 Volts
C. 10.0 Volts
D. 15.0 Volts
ANSWER: A
151. What do you call the phenomenon whereby substance attracts pieces of iron?
A. Permeability
B. Magnetism
C. Naturalism
D. Electromagnetism
ANSWER: B
152. The condition in which a substance attracts pieces of iron is known as
A. Electromagnetism
B. Electrolysis
C. Magnetism
D. Magnetic Induction
ANSWER: C
156. In a magnet, what do you call the point in which the magnetic lines of force is
maximum?
A. maximum pole
B. intensified pole
C. unit pole
D. magnetic pole
ANSWER: D
158. Is believed to be the pole where the magnetic lines of force are originating.
A. North Pole
B. South Pole
C. Unit Pole
D. Universal Pole
ANSWER: A
159. What do you call a pole that when place in air with a similar and equal pole will cause
a force of repulsion of 1/4πμο Newtons?
A. South Pole
B. Unit pole
C. Convergence pole
D. Universal Pole
ANSWER: B
160. In a magnet, the straight line passing through the two poles is called
A. real axis
B. imaginary axis
C. Cartesian axis
D. magnetic axis
ANSWER: D
161. The phenomenon in which a substance becomes a magnet when placed near a
magnet.
A. magnetic transfer
B. magnetic induction
C. electromagnetism
D. magnetism
ANSWER: B
163. What do you call the quantity of magnetism retained by a magnetic material after the
withdrawal of a magnetizing force?
A. Left over magnetism
B. Coercivity
C. Hysteresis
D. Residual magnetism
ANSWER: D
164. Is the property of magnetic materials, which retain magnetism after the withdrawal of
magnetizing force.
A. retentivity
B. permeability
C. reluctivity
D. susceptability
ANSWER: A
173. Materials with permeability slightly less than that of free space.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER: A
174. Materials with permeability slightly greater than that of free space.
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER: B
175. What do you call materials, which possess very high permeabilities?
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. antimagnetic
ANSWER: C
182. The space outside a magnet where its poles has a force of attraction or repulsion on
another magnetic pole.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: A
184. What do you call the total number of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic field?
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: B
185. The number of lines per unit area in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic lines of
force.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux
C. magnetic flux density
D. magnetic lines of force
ANSWER: C
187. The entire group of magnetic field lines flowing outward from the north pole of a
magnet.
A. magnetic field
B. magnetic flux density
C. magnetic flux
D. electromagnetic field
ANSWER: C
191. A magnetic flux of 25,000 maxwell in an area of 5 sqcm. results in flux density of
A. 5,000 Gauss (G)
B. 125,000 G
C. 5,000 Tesla (T)
D. 125,000 T
ANSWER: A
192. Calculate the flux density in Gauss (G) having a flux of 12,000 Mx through a
perpendicular area of 6cm.
A. 200 G
B. 2,000 G
C. 7,200 G
D. 72,000 G
ANSWER: B
195. The typical saturation flux density for most magnetic materials.
A. 0.1 Wb/m2
B. 2 Wb/m2
C. 10 Wb/m2
D. 20 Wb/m2
ANSWER: B
196. The force between two magnetic poles is _________ permeability of the medium.
A. directly proportional to the
B. inversely proportional to the
C. not dependent of the
D. exponentially proportional to the
ANSWER: B
197. If the distance between two magnetic poles is halve, the force between them
A. decreases two times
B. decreases four times
C. increases two times
D. increases four times
ANSWER: D
208. What do you call the force that sets up or tends to set up magnetic flux in a magnetic
circuit?
A. electromotive force
B. potential difference
C. magnetomotive force
D. dynamic force
ANSWER: C
216. Is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies the readiness of a material to develop
magnetic flux.
A. elastance
B. permeance
C. susceptance
D. conductance
ANSWER: B
218. It is easier to establish flux line in soft iron than it is to establish them in air, this is
because iron has a lower
A. Permeance
B. Inductance
C. elastance
D. reluctance
ANSWER: D
219. The Oersted (Oe) is the same as
A. 1 Gb/cm
B. 1 Gb/m
C. 10 Gb/cm
D. 10 Gb/cm
ANSWER: A
227. The current needed for a coil of 200 turns to provide a 400 ampere turn magnetizing
force is
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 6 A
D. 8 A
ANSWER: A
230. When you demagnetize property by applying an AC field and then gradually reduced it
to zero, it is called
A. damping
B. decaying
C. degaussing
D. gaussing
ANSWER: C
231. In a magnetic circuit, a flux that drifts away from its intended path is called
A. lost flux
B. linked flux
C. drift flux
D. leakage flux
ANSWER: D
232. Is the quantity of magnetizing force needed to counter balance the residual magnetism
of a magnetic material.
A. hysteresis
B. degaussing
C. retentivity
D. coercivity
ANSWER: D
233. What do you call the loss of electrical energy in counter balancing the residual
magnetism in each cycle?
A. hysteresis
B. magnetomotive
C. leakage
D. coercivity
ANSWER: D
234. The amount of magnetic field needed to remove residual magnetism from a
transformer core during each half cycle is called the
A. coercive force
B. residual field
C. hysteresis field
D. demagnetizing force
ANSWER: A
235. If a wire coil has 100 turns and carries 1.3 A of current, calculate the magnetomotive
force in Gilbert.
A. 163.3
B. 16.33
C. 1.633
D. 0.1633
ANSWER: A
240. Which of the following determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
A. amount of current
B. diameter of the conductor
C. length of the conductor
D. amount of voltage
ANSWER: A
241. The magnetic flux around a straight, current carrying wire, is stronger
A. near the edge
B. near the wire
C. at the center
D. at both edge
ANSWER: B
242. In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current is flowing?
A. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule.
B. Always in a clock wise direction.
C. Always in a counter clockwise direction.
D. In a direction determined by the right-hand screw rule.
ANSWER: A
243. If the electrical current carried by each of the two long parallel wire is doubled, and
their separation is also doubled, the force between them
A. also doubles
B. increases by a factor of four
C. decreases by a factor of four
D. decreases by a factor of two
ANSWER: A
246. What law that describes the force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic
poles is directly proportional to their strengths?
A. Coulomb’s first law
B. Coulomb’s second law
C. Ampere’s law
D. Gauss’ law
ANSWER: A
247. What is the law whereby the force of attraction or repulsion between poles is inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them?
A. Coulomb’s first law
B. Coulomb’s second law
C. Coulomb’s third law
D. Coulomb’s law
ANSWER: B
248. The physical motion resulting from the forces of magnetic fields.
A. motor action
B. linear motion
C. rectilinear motion
D. generator action
ANSWER: A
249. What law in electronics where an induced current will be in such a direction that its
own magnetic field will oppose the magnetic field that produces the same?
A. Electromagnetic law
B. Nortons law
C. Lenz law
D. Maxwell law
ANSWER: C
251. The emf induced in a coil due to the change of its flux linked with it is called
A. mutual emf
B. crossfire induced emf
C. self induced emf
D. virtually induced emf
ANSWER: C
252. If two coils are close enough together for their magnetic fields to interact, a change in
current in one will induce a corresponding voltage in the other, This condition is known
as
A. self-inductance
B. mutual inductance
C. crossfire inductance
D. linked inductance
ANSWER: B
253. If the magnetic flux through a coil changes, the induced EMF acts in such a direction
as to
A. oppose that change
B. magnify that change
C. augment that change
D. amplify that change
ANSWER: A
254. When a conductor is moved through a magnetic field a voltage is always induced. The
amount of voltage is always proportional to
A. the diameter of the conductor used
B. the length of the conductor
C. the distance of the conductor from the field
D. the rate at which the conductor is moved
ANSWER: D
257. When current in a conductor increases, Lenz’ law states that the self-induced potential
will
A. produce current opposite to the increasing current
B. tend to produce more magnetic field
C. tend to augment the increase in current
D. produce current with the same direction to the increasing current
ANSWER: A
258. If a magnetic flux occurs across 100 turns at a rate of 2 Wb/sec. What is the induced
voltage as per Faraday’s law?
A. 100 V
B. 400 V
C. 200 V
D. 800 V
ANSWER: C
259. The circuit element that is used represent the energy stored in a magnetic field.
A. resistance
B. capacitance
C. inductance
D. elastance
ANSWER: C
260. Which of the given below can produce the most induced voltage?
A. 1 A dc
B. 1 A, 60 Hz
C. 50 A dc
D. 1 A, 400 Hz
ANSWER: D
261. In all cases of electromagnetic induction, the current set-up by an induced voltage
tends to create flux whose direction opposes any change in the existing flux. This law
is called
A. Ampere’s law
B. Lenz’ law
C. Coulomb’s law
D. Faraday’s law
ANSWER: B
262. In electromagnetism, what law that determines the polarity of an induced voltage?
A. Ampere’s law
B. Lenz’ law
C. Coulomb’s law
D. Faraday’s law
ANSWER: B
263. In electromagnetism, what law that determines the amount of induced voltage?
A. Ampere’s law
B. Lenz’ law
C. Coulomb’s law
D. Faraday’s law
ANSWER: D
264. Electromotive force (emf) is induced whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux
A. Faraday’s first law
B. Faraday’s second law
C. Coulomb’s first law
D. Coulomb’s second law
ANSWER: A
265. The magnitude of electromotive force (emf) that is induced when a conductor cuts
magnetic flux is directly proportional to its rate.
A. Faraday’s first law
B. Faraday’s second law
C. Coulomb’s first law
D. Coulomb’s second law
ANSWER: B
266. The effect that describes the ability of a mechanically stressed ferromagnetic wire to
recognize rapid switching of magnetization when subjected to a DC magnetic field.
A. Wiegand effect
B. Wertheim effect
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect
ANSWER: A
267. The concept whereby a small voltage is generated by a conductor with current in an
external magnetic field is known as
A. Wiegand effect
B. Hall effect
C. Wiedemann effect
D. Wall effect
ANSWER: B
270. The force between two magnetic poles in relation to their pole strength is ________.
A. not related
B. inversely proportional
C. directly proportional
D. independent
ANSWER: C
1. The total resistance of a two similar wire conductors connected in parallel is ________.
A. resistance of one wire multiplied by 4
B. same resistance of one wire
C. one half the resistance of one wire
D. double the resistance of one wire
ANSWER: C
2. What is the value of a resistor with colors from left: Orange, Blue, Gold, and Silver?
A. 34 ohms ± 10%
B. 3.6 ohms ± 10%
C. 3.4 ohms ± 10%
D. 36 ohms ± 10%
ANSWER: B
3. Determine the value of a resistor with colors from left to right; Brown, Green, Gold, and
Silver.
A. 1.5 ohms ± 10%
B. 15 ohms ± 10%
C. 1.5 ohms ± 20%
D. 15 ohms ± 20%
ANSWER: A
4. Resistors with high value usually have lower wattage ratings because of _________.
A. varying current
B. lower current
C. bigger size
D. high current
ANSWER: B
15. A parallel plate capacitor has the following values: k=81; d=0.025 inches; A=6 square
inches. What is the capacitance of the capacitor?
A. 4.372 picofarad
B. 43.72 picofarad
C. 4372 picofarad
D. 437.2 picofarad
ANSWER: C
17. If two micro-farad capacitors are connected in series, what will be the total effective
capacitance?
A. 0.125 microfarad
B. 0.0624 microfarad
C. 2.5 microfarad
D. 0.50 microfarad
ANSWER: A
18. A 20 μF capacitor is charged by a 12-V battery. What is the stored energy at the
capacitor?
A. 2.88 x 10-3 J
B. 1.07 x 10-3 J
C. 1.44 x 10-3 J
D. 2.88 x 10-2 J
ANSWER: C
20. A coil of wire wound, with or without a magnetic core designed to have a higher self-
inductance than a straight wire.
A. Inductor
B. Solenoid
C. Toroid
D. Inductive relay
ANSWER: A
21. With the same voltage applied, which of the following allows more current?
A. 25 ohms
B. 250 ohms
C. 0.25 ohms
D. 2.5 ohms
ANSWER: C
22. In electrical circuits, current is known as the flow of charged carriers, such as electrons.
When can this happen?
A. when an electrical force (called emf) is applied
B. when material used allows electrons to flow
C. when there is circuit continuity
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
24. An electronic device draws 300 watts from its 24-volt power source. Find effective
resistance.
A. 1.92 ohms
B. 19.20 ohms
C. 1.25 ohms
D. 12.50 ohms
ANSWER: A
25. A 50Ω resistor is connected in series with a 150C resistor and to a supply voltage of
20V. What is the current through the 50Ω resistor?
A. 0.01 A
B. 0.1 A
C. 1.0 A
D. 10 A
ANSWER: B
26. Two resistors, 10Ω and 100Ω are connected in parallel, approximately, aht is the total
resistance?
A. 10Ω
B. 50Ω
C. 90Ω
D. 100Ω
ANSWER: A
27. A shunt resistor is used to limit the load current to 0.5 A, if the load resistance is 100Ω
and the original current is 1amp, what should be the value of the shunt resistance?
A. 25Ω
B. 50Ω
C. 75Ω
D. 100Ω
ANSWER: D
28. How many 1kΩ resistors to be connected in parallel are needed in order to get 100Ω?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
ANSWER: C
29. Two resistors, R1=100Ω and R2=200Ω are connected in series, if the voltage across R2
is 20V, what is the voltage across R1?
A. 5 V
B. 10 V
C. 15 V
D. 20 V
ANSWER: B
30. Two resistors, R1=100Ω and R2=200Ω are connected in parallel. If the current through
R1 is 1 A, what would be the current on R2?
A. 0.125 A
B. 0.25 A
C. 0.35 A
D. 0.50 A
ANSWER: D
31. A 6A current source drives a load consisting a parallel combination of R1 = 50Ω and R2 =
25Ω. Determine the current I1 through R1.
A. 1 amp
B. 2 amps
C. 3 amps
D. 4 amps
ANSWER: B
33. If 12 V are applied to a circuit that consumes 78 W, what is the current flow through the
circuit?
A. 6.5 A
B. 936 A
C. 0.15 A
D. 9.36 A
ANSWER: A
34. Find the current that flows through the filament of a 400 watts flat iron connected to a
220 Volt power line.
A. 50 mA
B. 5 A
C. 5 mA
D. 500 mA
ANSWER: D
35. An electrical device has a resistance of 10Ω and is supplied with a 5 ampere constant
current source. If the deice is rated 100 Vdc, determine its power consumed.
A. 250 W
B. 450 W
C. 750 W
D. 1000 W
ANSWER: A
36. The power dissipated by a 10 Ω load resistor with a current rating of 5 amperes is
_________ if supplied with a 20 volt dc potential.
A. 40 W
B. 80 W
C. 160W
D. 250 W
ANSWER: A
37. The power in a circuit consisting of two equal resistors in series is known to be 10 watts.
If the two resistors are connected in parallel, what would be the circuit power
dissipation?
A. 2.5 watts
B. 5 watts
C. 20 watts
D. 40 watts
ANSWER: D
38. How many nodes are needed to completely analyze a circuit according to kirchhoff’s
current law?
A. two
B. all nodes in the circuit
C. one less than the total number of nodes in the circuit
D. one
ANSWER: C
40. What theorem we should use in solving electrical circuits with several voltage sources?
A. superposition
B. Norton
C. Thevenin
D. Kirchhoff
ANSWER: A
41. In a mesh, the algebraic sum of all voltages and voltage drops is equal to zero.
A. superposition theorem
B. Norton’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s first law
D. Kirchhoff’s second law
ANSWER: D
42. The sum of all currents entering a junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving away
from that junction.
A. Kirchhoff’s first law
B. Kirchhoff’s second law
C. Norton’s theorem
D. Thevenin’s theorem
ANSWER: A
43. Theorem used to simplify complex circuits wherein, the simplified circuit contains an
equivalent open circuit resistance and open circuit voltage.
A. Norton’s
B. Thevenin’s
C. Maxwell’s
D. Kirchhoff’s
ANSWER: B
45. A certain Thevenin equivalent circuit has parameters RTH = 10 Ω and VTH = 20 V. If this
is converted to Norton’s equivalent circuit, RN and IN would be
A. 10Ω and 2A
B. 10Ω and 4A
C. 0.10 and 2A
D. 0.10 and 4A
ANSWER: A
46. RN and IN of a Norton’s equivalent circuit are known to be 100Ω and 10A, respectively. If
a 400Ω load is connected, it will have a load current of
A. 1 A
B. 2 A
C. 3 A
D. 4 A
ANSWER: B
47. A chosen closed path of current flow in a network. In making this current path there
should be no node nor elements that are passed more than once.
A. node
B. junction
C. mesh
D. loop
ANSWER: C
48. A set of circuit elements that forms a closed path in a network over which signal can
circulate.
A. node
B. junction
C. mesh
D. loop
ANSWER: D
49. In a network, what do we call a reference point chosen such that more branches in a
circuit met.
A. node
B. junction
C. ground
D. mesh
ANSWER: A
50. A common connection between circuit elements or conductors from different branches.
A. node
B. junction
C. ground
D. mesh
ANSWER: B
51. The return point in a circuit, where all voltage measurements are referred.
A. node
B. junction
C. ground
D. loop
ANSWER: C
52. Mesh analysis is best used together with what circuit law?
A. KVL
B. KCL
C. VDT
D. CDT
ANSWER: A
54. Three 100Ω resistors are connected in a tee-form (T) network and is set up between a
100 V supply and a load resistor RL. If maximum power transfer is desired, what should
be the resistance of the load resistor RL?
A. 50 Ω
B. 75 Ω
C. 125 Ω
D. 150 Ω
ANSWER: D
55. Theorem used in simplifying circuit analysis by considering the effect of supply voltages
one at a time.
A. Thevenin’s theorem
B. Norton’s theorem
C. Superposition
D. KVL
ANSWER: C
57. The description of two sine waves that are in step with each other going through their
maximum and minimum points at the same time and in the same direction
A. phased sine wave
B. sine waves in phase
C. sine wave in coordination
D. stepped sine waves
ANSWER: B
63. The time taken by an alternating voltage, v = 100sin240πt to reach 50V for the first time
A. 358 μs
B. 695 μs
C. 358 ms
D. 695 ms
ANSWER: D
64. An alternating voltage of sine-wave form has a maximum voltage of 311V. What is its
value at 225°?
A. 110 V
B. 220 V
C. -220 V
D. -110 V
ANSWER: C
65. If an alternating voltage has a magnitude of 10 V at 30°, what is its maximum voltage?
A. 20 V
B. 30 V
C. 40 V
D. 50 V
ANSWER: A
66. What is the frequency of an alternating current, if it reaches 90° within 4.167 ms?
A. 20 Hz
B. 30 Hz
C. 50 HZ
D. 60 Hz
ANSWER: D
67. At what angle does an alternating voltage of cosine-waveform reaches its negative
peak?
A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 180°
ANSWER: D
68. When comparing rms voltages and average voltages, which of the following statement is
true, assuming sine waves?
A. Either the rms voltage or the average voltage might be larger
B. The rms voltage is always greater than the average voltage
C. There will always be a very large difference between the rms voltage and the
average voltage
D. The average voltage is always greater than the rms voltage
ANSWER: B
74. In an ac-circuit, if the voltage and current are in phase, the circuit is
A. resistive
B. reactive
C. capacitive
D. inductive
ANSWER: A
75. If the current in an ac-circuit leads the voltage by 90°, the circuit is
A. resistive
B. capacitive
C. inductive
D. purely inductive
ANSWER: B
77. If the current and voltage in an ac-circuit has a phase difference, it would mean the load
is
A. resistive
B. capacitive
C. inductive
D. reactive
ANSWER: D
78. A resistive and a capacitive load of equal magnitude is connected in series, determine
the phase difference between the voltage and the current.
A. current leads the voltage by 45°
B. current lags the voltage by 45°
C. current leads the voltage by 90°
D. current lags the voltage by 90°
ANSWER: A
80. The impedance in the study of electronics is represented by resistance and ________.
A. inductance and capacitance
B. inductance
C. reactance
D. capacitance
ANSWER: C
81. A series circuit consists of an 80 mH inductor and a 150μF capacitor. Calculate the total
reactance if it is connected to a 220-volt 60-cycle source.
A. 12.5 Ω inductive
B. 12.5 Ω capacitive
C. 47.8 Ω inductive
D. 47.8 Ω capacitive
ANSWER: A
82. Ignoring any inductive effects, what is the impedance of RC series capacitor made up of
a 56 kilo ohms resistor and a 0.33 μF capacitor at a signal frequency of 450 Hz?
A. 66,730 ohms
B. 57,019 ohms
C. 45,270 ohms
D. 10,730 ohms
ANSWER: B
83. A 220-volt, 60-Hz source is driving a series RL circuit. Determine the current in the
circuit if R = 100 Ω and XL = 100 Ω.
A. 1.10 A (lagging)
B. 1.55 A (lagging)
C. 2.20 A (lagging)
D. 4.40 A (lagging)
ANSWER: B
84. How many electrical degrees a current will lead the voltage in a series RC load with R =
100 Ω and XC = 50 Ω?
A. 13.28°
B. 26.56°
C. 31.72°
D. 63.44°
ANSWER: B
85. What will be the current equation in a series RC network if supplied with v = V msin120πt
source. The circuit has a power factor pf = 0.5?
A. i = Imaxsin(120πt + 60)
B. i = Imaxsin(120πt - 60)
C. i = Imaxsin(120πt + 30)
D. i = Imaxsin(120πt - 30)
ANSWER: A
87. What is the power factor (pf) of a series RL circuit having R = 50Ω and X L = 20Ω?
A. 0.63
B. 0.71
C. 0.81
D. 0.93
ANSWER: D
88. A 200Ω resistor if connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 100 will give a total
circuit impedance of
A. 173.2 Ω
B. 223.6 Ω
C. 250.6 Ω
D. 300.0 Ω
ANSWER: B
89. What will happen when the power factor of a circuit is increased?
A. reactive power increases
B. active power increases
C. both active and reactive powers increases
D. both active and reactive powers decreases
ANSWER: B
90. A series RL network is supplied with a 200-volt, 60-cycle source. If the voltage across
the resistor R is 100 V, what is the voltage across the inductor L?
A. 0 V
B. 100 V
C. 173.2 V
D. 200 V
ANSWER: C
91. A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply
voltage is 200 V, what is the power consumed by the circuit?
A. 2400 W
B. 4000 W
C. 5000 W
D. 6666.67 W
ANSWER: A
92. A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply
voltage is 200 V, what is the circuit current magnitude?
A. 14.28 A
B. 20 A
C. 25 A
D. 33.33 A
ANSWER: B
93. A 6-Ω resistor is connected in series with a capacitive reactance of 8 Ω. If the supply
voltage is 200 V, what is the apparent power of the circuit?
A. 1200 W
B. 2400 W
C. 3200 W
D. 4000 W
ANSWER: D
96. A network has a true power and a reactive power of 2400 W and 3200 W respectively.
What is its apparent power?
A. 800 W
B. 1600 W
C. 4000 W
D. 5600 W
ANSWER: C
97. What is the total impedance of a series circuit consisting of R = 6Ω, XC = 8Ω, and XL =
16Ω?
A. 10 Ω
B. 14 Ω
C. 24.73 Ω
D. 30 Ω
ANSWER: A
99. A parallel RL circuit with R = 60Ω, and XL = 40Ω has a total impedance of
A. 24.3 Ω
B. 28.3 Ω
C. 33.3 Ω
D. 38.3 Ω
ANSWER: C
102. What is the power factor of a circuit if the inductive susceptance and conductance
have the same value?
A. 0.325
B. 0.525
C. 0.673
D. 0.707
ANSWER: D
106. If you need an LC circuit to be resonant at 2500 Hz and use a 150 mH coil, what
should the capacitance value be?
A. 0.027 μF
B. 0.015 μF
C. 0.15 μF
D. 27 μF
ANSWER: A
112. Find the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit, which has a resonant
frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218.
A. 606 kHz
B. 58.7 kHz
C. 16.5 kHz
D. 47.3 kHz
ANSWER: C
114. What will happen to a parallel ac-circuit if its line frequency is more than the resonant
frequency?
A. becomes purely resistive
B. becomes purely capacitive
C. becomes inductive
D. becomes capacitive
ANSWER: D
115. In a series ac-circuit, if the line frequency is more than the resonant frequency, the
circuit behaves as
A. resistive
B. inductive
C. reactive
D. capacitive
ANSWER: B
116. If the line frequency of a parallel ac-circuit is less than the resonant frequency, the
circuit behaves as
A. resistive
B. reactive
C. capacitive
D. purely inductive
ANSWER: B
117. If an ac-series circuit is supplied with a source whose frequency is less than that of f r,
the circuit becomes
A. resistive
B. reactive
C. inductive
D. capacitive
ANSWER: D
119. A parallel LC network with L = 100 mH and C = 25μF will resonate at what frequency?
A. 25 Hz
B. 45.5 Hz
C. 75.6 Hz
D. 100 Hz
ANSWER: D
7. The atomic weight of a silicon atom is approximately 28 amu. How many electrons,
protons and neutrons does the atom consist?
A. 14, 42, 14
B. 14, 14, 42
C. 42, 14, 14
D. 14, 14, 14
ANSWER: D
8. What is the total charge at the nucleus of silicon atom?
A. -12e C
B. 12e C
C. -14e C
D. 14e C
ANSWER: D
9. In materials, what do you call the area that separates the valence band and the
conduction band?
A. energy gap
B. forbidden band
C. insulation band
D. A and B are correct
ANSWER: B
18. If the substance used in doping has less than four valence electrons, it is known as
A. acceptor
B. donor
C. trivalent
D. pentavalent
ANSWER: A
22. What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and acceptor
impurities?
A. double doped semiconductor
B. compensated semiconductor
C. compound semiconductor
D. diffused semiconductor
ANSWER: B
26. Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its several advantages, what do you think
is its most significant advantage?
A. abundant
B. cheap
C. temperature stable
D. low leakage current
ANSWER: D
27. Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to the applied electric field.
A. diffusion current
B. conventional current
C. drift velocity
D. drift current
ANSWER: D
28. The movement of charge carriers in a semiconductor even without the application of
electric potential.
A. diffusion current
B. conventional current
C. drift current
D. saturation current
ANSWER: A
29. Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to the conduction
band for a doped semiconductor?
A. 0 eV
B. 0.05 eV
C. 1.0 eV
D. 5.0 eV
ANSWER: B
31. Theoretically, where does the conduction of holes occur in a doped semiconductor?
A. conduction band
B. forbidden band
C. valence band
D. empty band
ANSWER: C
34. In a semiconductor material, what will happen to the number of free electrons when the
temperature rises?
A. increases
B. decreases exponentially
C. decreases
D. remains the same
ANSWER: A
35. The electrical resistance of a semiconductor material will ________ as the temperature
increases.
A. increase
B. increase exponentially
C. decrease
D. not change
ANSWER: C
36. The potential required to removed a valence electron
A. valence potential
B. threshold potential
C. critical potential
D. ionization potential
ANSWER: D
39. Semiconductor that is very rare, it only occurs in minute quantities in many metal
sulfides
A. silicon (Si)
B. germanium (Ge)
C. tin (Sn)
D. lead (Pb)
ANSWER: B
41. What semiconductor that is mostly used in devices requiring the emission or absorption
of lights?
A. amorphous semiconductor
B. organic semiconductor
C. compound semiconductor
D. elemental semiconductor
ANSWER: C
42. For high-speed integrated circuit, which semiconductor material given below is best to
be used?
A. silicon
B. germanium
C. carbon
D. gallium arsenide
ANSWER: D
43. How much impurity concentration is needed for a sample of silicon to change its
electrical property from a poor conductor to a good conductor?
A. one part per hundred
B. one part per thousand
C. one part per million
D. one part per billion
ANSWER: C
44. The restriction of certain discrete energy levels in a semiconductor material can be
predicted generally by using what model?
A. Bohr model
B. string model
C. wave model
D. particle model
ANSWER: A
45. Is defined as the energy acquired by an electron moving through a potential of one volt.
A. electron Joules (eJ)
B. electron-potential
C. oxidation potential
D. electron Volt (eV)
ANSWER: D
49. A silicon material has an intrinsic concentration ni=1010 per cubic centimeter at room
temperature. If it is doped with 1015 antimony atoms per cubic centimeter, what is now
the approximate electron concentration at the conduction band?
A. 105 electrons
B. 1010 electrons
C. 1015 electrons
D. 1020 electrons
ANSWER: C
50. When an electron at the conduction band falls back to the valence band it will recombine
with the hole. This is known as
A. regeneration
B. reunion
C. combination
D. recombination
ANSWER: D
53. Among the given semiconductors below, which has the highest mobility?
A. silicon
B. germanium
C. gallium arsenide
D. indium antimonide
ANSWER: D
55. For an electroluminescent of green and red lights, which semiconductor is best?
A. silicon carbide
B. gallium arsenide
C. indium antimonide
D. gallium phosphide
ANSWER: D
56. Typical range of power dissipation for a semiconductor to be considered as “low power”
or “small signal”
A. less than 1 watt
B. 5 < P < 10 watts
C. 10 < P < 20 watts
D. 20 watts above
ANSWER: A
57. In the design of high power semiconductor devices, it involves what factors?
A. making the size of the semiconductor bigger
B. packing the device into a bigger case
C. excellent contact between the semiconductor and the case
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
59. Before an electron can participate in the conduction of electricity, it must leave from the
valence band and transfer to the conduction band. Transferring to the conduction band
involves energy acquisition by an electron from external sources and this energy must
be greater than the energy gap of the material. Which semiconductor material has the
highest energy gap?
A. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS)
B. silicon (Si)
C. germanium (Ge)
D. Indium Antimonide (InSb)
ANSWER: A
60. Which of the following semiconductors has the smallest energy gap?
A. ZnS
B. Si
C. Ge
D. InSb
ANSWER: D
61. The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or hole) moves in a semiconductor
material is known as mobility. It is also defined as the average drift velocity of electrons
and holes per unit electrostatic field. Which of the semiconductor materials has the
highest value of electron-mobility?
A. InSb
B. Ge
C. Si
D. AlP
ANSWER: A
62. In semiconductor materials, electrons have a higher value of mobility than holes, but
which semiconductor material has the slowest electron-mobility?
A. InSb
B. GaP
C. GaAs
D. AlP
ANSWER: D
63. Solar cell is a semiconductor electric-junction device, which absorbs the radiant energy
of sunlight and converts it directly and efficiently into electrical energy. This device, uses
what type of semiconductor materials?
A. single-crystal silicon
B. amorphous or polycrystalline silicon
C. GaAs, CdS, CdTe, CuS
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
64. What is formed when n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together?
A. pn junction
B. semiconductor junction
C. energy band gap
D. semiconductor diode
ANSWER: A
65. PN junction acts as a one way valve for electrons because _________.
A. the circuit in which the diode is used, only attempts to pump electrons in one
diode
B. electrons tend to follow the direction of the hole
C. there is a little mechanical switch inside a diode
D. when electrons are pump from P to N, free electrons and holes are force apart
leaving no way for electrons to cross the junction
ANSWER: D
66. The device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought
together
A. pn junction
B. semiconductor junction
C. depletion region
D. junction diode
ANSWER: D
67. An external voltage applied to a junction reduces its barrier and aid current to flow
through the junction
A. reverse bias
B. external bias
C. junction bias
D. forward bias
ANSWER: D
69. Unidirectional conduction in two-electrodes in any device other than a diode, such that
rectification between the grid and cathode of a triode, or asymmetrical conduction
between the collector and base of a transistor is called
A. rectification
B. diode action
C. clipping
D. clamping
ANSWER: B
72. The area in the semiconductor diode where there are no charge carriers
A. depletion layer
B. depletion region
C. depletion mode
D. depletion area
ANSWER: B
73. Depletion region is an area in a semiconductor device where there are no charge
carriers exist. This will be always near the junction of n-type and p-type materials. What
causes this junction to be depleted by charge carriers?
A. Due to the recombination of holes and electrons at the junction
B. Due to the cancellation of positively charge protons and negatively charge
electrons
C. Due to the annihilation of charge carriers
D. Due to the combination of positively charge holes and negatively charge
electrons
ANSWER: D
76. When the diode is supplied with forward direction potentials but with a magnitude less
than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not “turn-on” and will only allow a very
small amount of current to pass. This very small current is known
A. as leakage current
B. as forward saturation current
C. as holding current
D. as cut-off current
ANSWER: D
77. The minimum voltage required before a diode can totally conduct in a forward direction.
A. triggering voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. saturation voltage
D. threshold voltage
ANSWER: D
78. What will happen to the threshold voltage of the diode when it operates at higher
temperatures.
A. increases
B. increases exponentially
C. decreases
D. decreases exponentially
ANSWER: C
79. The forward current in a conducting diode will ______________ as the operating
temperature increases.
A. not be affected
B. decrease
C. decrease exponentially
D. increase
ANSWER: D
81. The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor device has reverse
bias
A. surge current
B. bias current
C. reverse current
D. current limit
ANSWER: C
82. Normally, diodes will not conduct when reverse-biased, but if the reverse voltage is
increased further, a point will be reached where the diode gives up and allowing the
current to surge. This voltage is one of the limiting parameter of diodes and is known as
A. breakdown voltage (VBR)
B. peak inverse voltage (PIV)
C. peak reverse voltage (PRV)
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
83. For a silicon diode, calculate the current at room temperature if the forward voltage VF =
0.3 V and the reverse saturation current IS = 100 nA.
A. 32.8 μA
B. 10.8 μA
C. 32.8 mA
D. 10.8 mA
ANSWER: A
85. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at 100 0C.
A. 0.113 V
B. 0.188 V
C. 0.215 V
D. 0.513 V
ANSWER: A
86. A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at room temperature. If the
operating temperature is raised by 50°C, what is now the reverse saturation current?
A. 105.56 nA
B. 287.73 nA
C. 827.89 nA
D. 1.66 µA
ANSWER: D
87. In every increase of 10°C in the operating temperature of a diode will cause its reverse
saturation current to
A. decrease
B. double
C. triple
D. quadruple
ANSWER: B
88. What do you call the resistance of the diode when operating at a steady state voltage?
A. dc resistance
B. dynamic resistance
C. ac resistance
D. average resistance
ANSWER: A
89. The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating with a small ac signal
A. dc resistance
B. static resistance
C. dynamic resistance
D. average resistance
ANSWER: C
90. When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the resistance that is to be considered is
A. dc resistance
B. static resistance
C. dynamic resistance
D. average resistance
ANSWER: D
91. At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the applied
voltage is increased?
A. will also increase
B. will increase exponentially
C. will decrease
D. will not change
ANSWER: C
94. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in between
positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of a
capacitor, this capacitance is called what?
A. diffusion capacitance
B. storage capacitance
C. stray capacitance
D. transition capacitance
ANSWER: D
95. In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance between
terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of the junction is
called
A. diffusion capacitance
B. transition capacitance
C. depletion-region capacitance
D. diode capacitance
ANSWER: D
98. The capacitance of a varactor will _______ when the forward bias voltage is increased.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. exponentially decrease
D. not change
ANSWER: A
99. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward conduction
A. reverse recovery time
B. forward recovery time
C. reverse holding time
D. reverse time constant
ANSWER: A
100. In operating a diode at high-speed switching circuits, one of the most important
parameters to be considered is
A. ac resistance
B. diode capacitance
C. noise figure
D. reverse recovery time (trr)
ANSWER: D
101. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value after
switching the diode from its reverse-to-forward-biased state.
A. reverse recovery time
B. forward recovery time (tfr)
C. saturation time
D. conduction time
ANSWER: B
104. What will happen to the power handling capability of the diode if it is to be operated at a
higher temperature?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. increases exponentially
D. will not be affected
ANSWER: A
105. Diode parameter that will inform the user as to what factor does the power handling
capability of the diode is reduced as the operating temperature is increased.
A. power derating factor
B. power dissipating factor
C. power reduction constant
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
106. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperature and
a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/°C. How much power the diode can handle if
operated at 50°C.
A. 625 mW
B. 505 mW
C. 495 mW
D. 375 mW
ANSWER: D
108. Refers to a special type of diode which is capable of both amplification and oscillation.
A. Junction diode
B. Tunnel diode
C. Point contact diode
D. Zener diode
ANSWER: B
109. The effect obtain when the electric field across a semiconductor is strong enough which
causes the free electrons to collide with valence electrons, thereby releasing more
electrons and a cumulative multiplication of charge carriers occur.
A. Gunn
B. avalanche
C. tunneling
D. diffusion
ANSWER: B
110. A negative resistance diode commonly used in microwave oscillators and detectors, it is
sometimes used as amplifiers. This device is also known as Esaki diode.
A. varactor diode
B. Schottky diode
C. IMPATT diode
D. tunnel diode
ANSWER: D
115. A diode whose negative resistance is dependent on the classical effects of phase shift
introduced by the time lag between maximum field and maximum avalanche current, and
by the transit time through the device.
A. Read diode
B. IMPATT diode
C. TRAPATT diode
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
116. What semiconductor diode that have a fine wire (called a cat-whisker) whose
point is in permanent contact with the surface of a wafer of semiconductor material such
as silicon, germanium or gallium arsenide?
A. point-contact diode
B. diac
C. PiN diode
D. thyrector
ANSWER: A
117. When the p-n junction of a semiconductor diode is inserted with an intrinsic material,
the diode becomes a
A. backward diode
B. Read diode
C. Schokley diode
D. PiN diode
ANSWER: D
118. A four layer semiconductor diode whose characteristic at the first quadrant is similar to
that of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR).
A. Shockley diode
B. thyrector
C. Schottky diode
D. diac
ANSWER: A
119. A diode that is especially processed so that its high-current flow takes place when the
junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode.
A. Esaki diode
B. Read diode
C. zener diode
D. backward diode
ANSWER: D
120. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up to certain
voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conducting state. It can be
viewed as two zener diodes connected back-to-back in series.
A. bizener diode
B. diac
C. thyristor
D. thyrector
ANSWER: D
121. A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped n-type material as its drift region
A. IMPATT diode
B. TRAPATT diode
C. TUNNETT diode
D. MITATT
ANSWER: A
122. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge-rectifier
integrated circuit.
A. diode array
B. diode IC
C. diode pack
D. combined diode
ANSWER: C
123. Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes, capacitance of the
junction, and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor diode.
A. diode impedance
B. diode ac resistance
C. diode reactance
D. diode ac parameter
ANSWER: A
124. In a reverse-biased pn junction, the sudden large increase in current that occurs when a
particular value of reversed voltage is reached, and which is due to ionization by the high
intensity electric field in the depletion region.
A. Zener effect
B. Hall effect
C. breakdown voltage
D. ionization
ANSWER: A
126. The impedance presented by a junction operating in its zener breakdown region.
A. diode impedance
B. zener impedance
C. breakdown impedance
D. critical impedance
ANSWER: B
127. A curve showing the relationship between the voltage and the current of the diode at
any given temperature
A. characteristic curve
B. transfer curve
C. transfer characteristic curve
D. all are correct
ANSWER: A
128. The line that is plotted in the diode characteristic curve which represents the load
A. linear line
B. operating line
C. load line
D. transfer load line
ANSWER: C
129. Diode is said to be operating at a point where the characteristic curve and the load line
intersect. This point is technically termed as
A. Q-point
B. operating point
C. quiescent point
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
130. What will happen to the magnitude of the load-line slope when the load resistance is
decreased?
A. it will also decrease
B. it will increase
C. it will increase exponentially
D. is not affected by the load
ANSWER: B
132. A germanium diode is connected to a load resistance of 1.5 kΩ and is supplied with 12-
V such that the diode will be forward biased. What is the voltage across the diode?
A. approximately 12 V
B. approximately 0.7 V
C. approximately 0.3 V
D. lack of data and can’t be solved
ANSWER: C
133. What is the drop across the diode when it is connected in series to a resistor of 1.8 kΩ
and a supply voltage of 50 V. The supply voltage causes the diode to be reverse-biased.
A. 50 V
B. 0.7 V
C. 0.3 V
D. can not be solve, lack of data
ANSWER: A
134. Two germanium diodes are connected in series and have a load resistance of 10 kΩ
and a forward supply voltage of 5 V. Calculate the voltage across the load resistor.
A. 4.7 V
B. 4.4 V
C. 0.6 V
D. 0.3 V
ANSWER: B
135. A silicon diode is in parallel with a germanium diode and is connected to a load resistor
having a value of 20 kΩ and a forward supply voltage of 10 V. What is the approximate
voltage across the silicon diode?
A. 10 V
B. 1.0 V
C. 0.7 V
D. 0.3 V
ANSWER: D
136. What is the output voltage across a load resistor if it is paralleled with a forward biased
silicon diode? The resistor network is supplied with 10 V.
A. 0.7 V
B. 9.3 V
C. 10 V
D. Can’t be solve, lack of data.
ANSWER: A
137. Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal
A. clipper
B. clamper
C. peak detector
D. level shifter
ANSWER: A
138. A clipper circuit wherein the diode is connected in series with the load
A. series clipper
B. parallel clipper
C. shunt clipper
D. series feed clipper
ANSWER: A
139. What do you call a clipper circuit wherein the diode is shunted with the load?
A. series clipper
B. parallel clipper
C. cascade clipper
D. cascade clipper
ANSWER: B
140. A network with a diode and a capacitor that is used to shift the dc-level of the input
signal
A. clipper
B. clamper
C. shifter
D. level inverter
ANSWER: B
143. How many capacitors are used in a diode-capacitor half- wave voltage doubler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
ANSWER: B
145. In a diode-capacitor voltage quadrupler, what is the voltage across the third stage
capacitor?
A. Vmax
B. 2 Vmax
C. 3 Vmax
D. 4 Vmax
ANSWER: B
148. A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used in a circuit with a supply voltage of 5 V. What
should be the value of the resistor needed by the LED to operate normally?
A. 25 Ω
B. 250 Ω
C. 25 kΩ
D. 250 kΩ
ANSWER: B
149. A simple voltage-regulator whose output is the constant voltage drop developed across
a zener diode conducting in the reverse breakdown region. The regulator circuit consists
of a zener diode in parallel with the load and an appropriate limiting resistor.
A. ordinary voltage regulator
B. zener voltage regulator
C. series voltage regulator
D. switching voltage regulator
ANSWER: B
150. Logic circuitry in which a diode is the logic element and a transistor acts as an inverting
amplifier.
A. RTL
B. DTL
C. HDTL
D. ECL
ANSWER: B
151. What is a bridge rectifier having diodes in two arms and resistors in the other two?
A. full-wave bridge
B. half-wave bridge
C. half-bridge
D. full bridge
ANSWER: C
152. An over-voltage protection circuit employing a zener diode and an SCR whose function
is to produce high overload by-pass current on a circuit.
A. regulator
B. current enhancer
C. crowbar
D. shunted zener
ANSWER: C
153. The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when used in electronic circuit is from _______.
A. collector to base
B. collector to base
C. emitter to collector
D. base to emitter
ANSWER: C
154. A three terminal, three layer semiconductor device that has the ability to multiply charge
carriers. This device was first introduced at Bell Laboratories, by Brattain and Bardeen in
1947 and which opens a completely new direction of interest and development in the
field of electronics.
A. triode
B. triac
C. SCR
D. transistor
ANSWER: D
156. Transistor replaces the old vacuum tubes because it has several obvious advantages,
what are they?
A. smaller, lightweight and rugged construction
B. no heater loss, low operating voltage and therefore efficient
C. low power consumption and low power dissipation
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
157. Which of the three regions/areas in a transistor that is the smallest in construction?
A. emitter
B. collector
C. base
D. all are equal
ANSWER: C
159. A transistor in which the base is diffused and the emitter is alloyed. The collector is
provided by the semiconductor substrate into which alloying and diffusion are affected.
A. alloy-transistor
B. alloy-diffused transistor
C. alloy junction transistor
D. diffused junction transistor
ANSWER: B
161. In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction formed by alloying a suitable material such as
indium with the semiconductor.
A. alloy junction
B. diffused junction
C. depletion junction
D. storage junction
ANSWER: A
163. A two-junction transistor whose construction takes the form of a pnp or a npn. Such
device uses both electron and hole conduction and is current-driven.
A. bipolar transistor
B. unipolar transistor
C. bi-directional transistor
D. double junction transistor
ANSWER: A
166. The ratio of the total width of the outer layers to that of the center layer
A. 100:1
B. 150:5
C. 150:1
D. 1:150
ANSWER: C
167. The ratio of the doping level of the outer layers to that of the sandwiched material
A. 10:3 or more
B. 10:2 or more
C. 10:3
D. 10:1 or less
ANSWER: D
169. The term ________ reflects the fact that holes and electrons participate in the injection
process into the oppositely polarized material.
A. unipolar
B. bipolar
C. tetrode
D. pentode
ANSWER: B
173. For general-purpose transistors, IC is measured in ____, while ICO is measured in ____.
A. micro and nanoamperes
B. milliamperes and microamperes
C. milliamperes and nanoamperes
D. b and c above
ANSWER: D
174. Is temperature sensitive, and can severely affect the stability of the system, when not
carefully examined during design
A. IC
B. ICO
C. IS
D. IE
ANSWER: B
175. For the transistor, the arrow in the graphic symbol defines the direction of _______
through the device
A. leakage current flow
B. emitter electron flow
C. majority carrier flow
D. emitter conventional current flow
ANSWER: D
176. In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IE due to the majority carriers are related by the
quantity
A. alpha (α)
B. beta (β)
C. gamma (γ)
D. A and B above
ANSWER: A
178. Phrases “not pointing in” and “pointing in” simply mean
A. npn and pnp
B. pnp and npn
C. npn only
D. pnp only
ANSWER: A
179. In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IB are related by a quantity called
A. α
B. β
C. γ
D. A and B above
ANSWER: B
182. It is a particularly important parameter that provides a direct link between current levels
of the input and output circuits for a common-emitter configuration.
A. α
B. β
C. A and B above
D. none of the above
ANSWER: B
184. It is referred to as the communication link between the manufacturer and user
A. specification sheet
B. characteristic manual
C. characteristic curve
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
186. With an ohmmeter, a large or small resistance in either junction of an npn or pnp
transistor indicates
A. faulty device
B. well functioning device
C. leaky device
D. either A or C
ANSWER: A
187. At base-emitter junction, using an ohmmeter, if the positive (+) lead is connected to the
base and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a low resistance reading would indicate
A. npn transistor
B. pnp transistor
C. germanium transistor
D. silicon transistor
ANSWER: A
188. At base-emitter junction, if the positive (+) lead is connected to the base and the
negative (-) lead to the emitter, a high resistance reading would indicate
A. npn transistor
B. pnp transistor
C. germanium transistor
D. silicon transistor
ANSWER: B
190. On a voltage-current condition curve, the point belong to which a further increase in
voltage produces no (or very little) further increase in current.
A. saturation flux
B. saturation value
C. saturation point
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C
191. It is applied to any system where levels have reached their maximum values
A. saturation
B. active
C. cutoff
D. quiescent point
ANSWER: A
192. For an “on” transistor, the voltage VBE should be in the neighborhood of
A. 0.3 V
B. 0.55 V
C. 0.7 V
D. 1.7 V
ANSWER: C
193. Among the three characteristics of a transistor amplifier, which region is normally
employed for linear (undistorted) amplifiers?
A. active region
B. cutoff region
C. saturation region
D. capital region
ANSWER: A
194. In the active region, the collector-base junction is ________, while the base-emitter
junction is ________.
A. forward and forward-biased
B. forward and reverse-biased
C. reverse and reverse biased
D. reverse and forward-biased
ANSWER: D
195. It is necessary, in order to establish the proper region of operation for ac amplification.
A. ac biasing
B. dc biasing
C. A and B above
D. none of the above
ANSWER: B
196. At cutoff region, the collector-base and base-emitter junctions of a transistor are
A. both reverse-biased
B. forward and reverse-biased
C. both forward-biased
D. reverse and forward-biased
ANSWER: A
197. In saturation region, the collector-base and base-emitter junctions of a transistor are
A. both reverse-biased
B. forward and reverse-biased
C. both forward-biased
D. reverse and forward-biased
ANSWER: C
198. If the base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the base-collector junction is forward
biased, the transistor will be at what region of operation?
A. active region
B. cut-off region
C. saturation region
D. breakdown region
ANSWER: B
199. Under what region does the transistor operate if both the base-emitter and base-
collector junctions are reverse-biased?
A. active region
B. cut-off region
C. saturation region
D. breakdown region
ANSWER: B
200. What region the transistor should be operating to have minimum distortion at the output
signal?
A. active region
B. cut-off region
C. saturation region
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
201. In dc biasing, it means quiet, still, inactive
A. passive
B. quench
C. static
D. quiescent
ANSWER: D
203. Which indicates the degree of change, in operating-point due to temperature variation in
the dc biasing?
A. temperature coefficient
B. factor of safety
C. merit factor
D. stability factor
ANSWER: D
204. What best describes the transistor current that flows between the collector and emitter
terminals when the base is open?
A. leakage current
B. cut-off current
C. reverse saturation current
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B
205. Solve for the base current if collector current is 600 mA and the current gain is 20.
A. 30 mA
B. 3 mA
C. 12 mA
D. 1.2 mA
ANSWER: A
209. A transistor with β = 100 is connected as common base, was found to have a leakage
current ICBO = 1µA. If the transistor is configured as common emitter, what is the
approximate value of its ICEO?
A. 0.01 µA
B. 1.0 µA
C. 100 µA
D. 10 mA
ANSWER: C
210. The most correct technical term of the reverse leakage current that flows between the
collector and base junctions when the emitter is open circuited.
A. leakage current
B. saturation current
C. reverse saturation current
D. cut-off current
ANSWER: C
211. How is the collector cut-off or reverse saturation current ICBO related to the emitter cut-
off current IEBO?
A. ICBO β IEBO p
B. ICBO IEBO/β
C. ICBO IEBO(1-α)
D. ICBO IEBO
ANSWER: D
213. The maximum voltage that can be applied across the collector-emitter terminal for a
given transistor is specified as
A. VCEO
B. VECO
C. V(BR)BEO
D. V(BR)CEO
ANSWER: D
214. If the current-gain-bandwidth product of transistor is 250 MHz and is operated at 100
MHz, what is the effective current gain of the transistor?
A. 2.5
B. 25
C. 250
D. 350
ANSWER: A
215. The current gain of a transistor decreases as the operating frequency increases. As the
operating frequency is increased continuously, a point occurs where the current gain
becomes unity. This point, is best described by what transistor parameter?
A. unity gain frequency
B. 0 dB frequency
C. cut-off frequency
D. unity gain bandwidth product or unity current gain bandwidth product
ANSWER: D
216. When base is common to both the input and output sides of the configuration and is
usually the terminal closes to, or at ground potential, it is called what?
A. common-emitter terminology
B. common-collector terminology
C. common-base terminology
D. all of the these
ANSWER: C
218. One of the following amplifier characteristic refers to that of a common-base (C-B) as
compared to common-emitter (C-E) and common-collector (C-C) amplifiers.
A. Has larger current gain
B. Has lower input resistance
C. Has higher input resistance
D. Has larger voltage gain
ANSWER: B
220. Most frequently used transistor configuration for pnp and npn
A. common-base
B. common-collector
C. common-emitter
D. A and C above
ANSWER: C
221. Calculate the common-emitter amplification factor β of a transistor with a common-base
amplification factor α=0.99.
A. 10
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
ANSWER: C
222. Which transistor configuration hybrid parameters, that is usually specified by the
manufacturers?
A. for common-base
B. for common-collector
C. for common-emitter
D. a combination of the three configurations
ANSWER: C
223. For a common-emitter transistor configuration, the hybrid parameter hfe stands for
forward transfer current ratio. This parameter is approximately equal to
A. HFE
B. βac
C. β
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
225. The input impedance of a common-base configuration is hib, and its magnitude is
approximately equal to
A. hie/hfe
B. hie/(1+β)
C. re for dynamic model
D. all of these
ANSWER: D
228. Common-base configuration has a high voltage gain and a current gain of
A. low
B. moderate
C. high
D. approximately equal to one (1)
ANSWER: D
229. Common-collector has the lowest power gain and a voltage gain of approximately one.
In contrast to this, what configuration has the highest power gain?
A. common-base
B. common-collector
C. common-emitter
D. emitter follower
ANSWER: C
230. Which of the following transistor characteristic curves that is most useful?
A. input characteristic curve
B. output characteristic curve
C. transfer characteristic curve
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B
231. The graph of the product of collector-emitter voltage VCE and collector current IC in the
transistor output characteristic curve.
A. maximum power curve
B. minimum power curve
C. saturation power curve
D. breakdown curve
ANSWER: A
232. The base of a transistor serves a purpose to what element of the FET?
A. source
B. ground
C. substrate
D. gate
ANSWER: D
233. What is the primary difference between the BJT and the FET?
A. current-controlled device and voltage-controlled device, respectively
B. voltage-controlled device and current-controlled device, respectively
C. impedance transformed device and conductance transformed device,
respectively
D. A and C above are correct
ANSWER: A
234. Another difference between a BJT and a FET with regards to its normal biasing.
A. The input circuit is forward-biased for BJT while reverse for FET.
B. The input circuit is reverse-biased for BJT while forward for FET.
C. The output circuit is forward-biased for BJT while reverse for FET.
D. The output circuit is reverse-biased for BJT while forward for FET.
ANSWER: A
235. Field-effect transistors (FETs) offer high input impedance than BJT. What makes FETs
have high input impedance?
A. The way FETs are constructed.
B. Because of the materials used.
C. Due to the level of doping
D. Due to the reverse-biased input circuit of FETs
ANSWER: D
236. The operation of BJT involves both the flow of electrons and holes and is therefore,
considered as a bipolar device. Unlike BJT, FET’s operation involves only either
electrons or holes and is considered as a _________ device.
A. single polar
B. unipolar
C. unpolar
D. polarized
ANSWER: B
238. Junction field effect transistor or JFET has three terminals, which corresponds to the E-
B-C of the BJT?
A. D-S-G
B. D-G-S
C. S-G-D
D. S-D-G
ANSWER: C
241. What do you call the area in a JFET where current passes as it flows from source (S) to
drain (D).
A. channel
B. substrate
C. depletion
D. drift
ANSWER: A
242. What will happen to the channel of a JFET as current flows to it?
A. widens
B. narrows
C. skews
D. nothing
ANSWER: C
243. For a normal operation of an n-channel JFET, how do you bias the gate-source
junction?
A. positive-negative respectively
B. negative-positive respectively
C. forward-biased
D. any of the above
ANSWER: B
244. The voltage across the gate-source terminal of a FET that causes drain current ID equal
to zero.
A. saturation voltage
B. threshold voltage
C. cut-off voltage
D. pinch-off voltage
ANSWER: D
245. The current that flows into the channel of a JFET when the gate-source voltage is zero.
A. drain-source saturation current
B. drain-source cut-off current
C. drain-source leakage current
D. drain-source pinch-off current
ANSWER: A
246. The graph of the drain current ID versus drain-source voltage VDS with VGS as the
parameter.
A. transfer characteristic curve
B. output characteristic curve
C. input characteristic curve
D. current-voltage characteristic curve
ANSWER: D
247. In FET, the conduction path of the output is controlled by the electric field as its name
implies. How does an electric field in FET established?
A. By the charges present at the gate due to the reverse-biased junction.
B. By the application of reverse-biased between the gate and drain.
C. By the charges produced due to the applied potential between drain and source
VDS.
D. By the charges present at each terminal due to the applied potential.
ANSWER: A
248. An early version of the field effect transistor in which limited control of current carriers
near the surface of a semiconductor bar or film was obtained by an external electric field
applied transversely.
A. fieldistor
B. JFET
C. IGFET
D. MOSFET
ANSWER: A
251. In order to increase further the input resistance of a FET, its gate is insulated. An
example of this type is the
A. fieldistor
B. JFET
C. MOS-FET
D. A and B above
ANSWER: C
253. An n-channel JFET has a drain-source saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a gate-
source pinch-off voltage Vp = -4 V. If the applied reverse gate-source voltage VGS = 2 V,
calculate the drain current ID.
A. 2.5 mA
B. 5.0 mA
C. 10.0 mA
D. 22.5 mA
ANSWER: A
254. Base from Shockley’s equation of a JFET, what is the drain current when the applied
voltage VGS is exactly equal to the pinch-off voltage Vp?
A. IDSS
B. maximum
C. minimum
D. zero
ANSWER: D
256. A field-effect transistor in which the gate electrode is not a pn junction (as in the junction
field-effect transistor) but a thin metal film insulated from the semiconductor channel by a
thin oxide film.
A. MOSFET (enhancement type)
B. MOSFET (depletion type)
C. IGFET
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
257. In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will be constructed and is
formed from a silicon base
A. substrate
B. slab
C. source
D. base
ANSWER: A
258. A type of MOSFET wherein originally there is no channel between the drain and the
source
A. depletion type
B. enhancement type
C. break type
D. insulated type
ANSWER: B
259. What type of MOSFET whose channel is originally thick but narrows as the proper gate
bias is applied?
A. enhancement
B. depletion
C. transverse
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B
260. The amount of voltage needed at the gate-source terminal for an enhancement type
MOSFET so that a channel can be formed for the current to flow.
A. “ON” voltage
B. pinch-off voltage
C. threshold voltage
D. trigger voltage
ANSWER: C
261. To switch off the depletion type MOSFET, the channel should be depleted. Depletion of
the channel is done by applying enough voltage across the gate-source terminal. What
do you call this voltage?
A. pinch-off voltage
B. trigger voltage
C. holding voltage
D. threshold voltage
ANSWER: A
263. In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, the gate voltage should be ________
with respect to the source in order to produce or enhance a channel.
A. the same
B. positive
C. negative
D. either positive or negative
ANSWER: B
264. To deplete a channel from a p-channel IGFET depletion type, the gate voltage should
be ________ with respect to the source.
A. the same
B. positive
C. negative
D. either positive or negative as long as it is greater
ANSWER: B
269. Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel MOSFET enhancement type if the gate-
source voltage VGS = -8 V, threshold voltage VT = -4 and a constant k = 0.3 mA/V2.
A. 1.2 mS
B. 2.4 mS
C. 3.6 mS
D. 7.2 mS
ANSWER: B
270. One drawback of JFET devices is the strong dependence of the devices’ parameters on
the channel geometry. Which parameter is an example of this?
A. drain saturation current (IDSS)
B. pinch-off voltage (VP)
C. transconductance (gm)
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
273. Generally, MOSFET has low power handling capability than BJT. To increase MOSFET
power, the channel should be made
A. narrow and long
B. narrow and short
C. wide and long
D. wide and short
ANSWER: D
275. A type of FET wherein the channel is formed in the vertical direction rather than
horizontal
A. JFET
B. MOSFET
C. IGFET
D. V-MOSFET
ANSWER: D
277. In general, which of the transistors is particularly more useful in integrated-circuit (IC)
chips?
A. BJTs
B. FETs
C. UJTs
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B
279. A junction field effect transistor has a drain saturation current of 10 mA and a pinch-off
voltage of -4 V. Calculate the maximum transconductance.
A. 2.5 mS
B. 5.0 mS
C. 25.0 mS
D. 50.0 mS
ANSWER: B
5. A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal swings more than 180° but less than
360°.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class AB
ANSWER: D
7. A full 360° sine-wave signal is applied as an input to an unknown class of amplifier, if the
output delivers only a pulse of less than 180°, of what class does this amplifier belongs?
A. class AB
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
ANSWER: C
9. How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify either amplitude modulated (AM) or
frequency modulated (FM) signals?
A. class C
B. class BC
C. class D
D. class S
ANSWER: D
12. A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%, but this can be increased if the output
is coupled with a transformer. Up to how much is its efficiency will reach due to
coupling?
A. 36.5%
B. 50%
C. 68.5%
D. 78.5%
ANSWER: B
13. Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of 180° and have a maximum efficiency of
A. 50%
B. 68.5%
C. 78.55
D. above 90%
ANSWER: C
15. For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is mostly used. How efficient is a class D
amplifier?
A. about 25% efficient
B. less efficient than class B
C. more efficient than class A but less efficient than class B
D. its efficiency reaches over 90%
ANSWER: D
16. An amplifier of class AB means its output signal is between the output of class B and A,
such that it varies from 180° (class B) to 360° (class A). How about its efficiency?
A. Efficiency of class AB is in between the efficiency of class A and B, that is from
25% - 78.5%.
B. It is always as efficient as class A (25%).
C. It is always as efficient as class B (78.5%)
D. The efficiency of class AB is the average of the efficiencies of both class A and
class B (25% + 78.5%)/2 = 51.75%
ANSWER: A
17. Among the given amplifiers below, which is the most efficient?
A. class A (series-fed)
B. class A (transformer-coupled)
C. class A (directly-coupled)
D. class A (capacitor-coupled)
ANSWER: B
18. In order to have the best efficiency and stability, where at the loadline should a solid
state power amplifier be operated?
A. Just below the saturation point
B. At 1.414 times the saturation point
C. Just above the saturation point
D. At the saturation point
ANSWER: A
23. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can be set or positioned at what region in the load
line?
A. below saturation
B. above cutoff
C. at cutoff
D. any of the above
ANSWER: D
26. What do you call an amplifier that is biased to class C but modulates over the same
portion of the curve as if it were biased to class B?
A. class S
B. class D
C. class AB
D. class BC
ANSWER: D
27. Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the
other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both output signals are then coupled by a
transformer to the load.
A. transformer-coupled push –pull amplifier
B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier
D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier
ANSWER: A
28. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the positive and
negative cycles respectively.
A. transformer-coupled push –pull amplifier
B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier
D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier
ANSWER: B
29. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The circuit
configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry.
A. transformer-coupled push –pull amplifier
B. complementary-symmetry amplifier
C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier
D. feed-back pair amplifier
ANSWER: C
32. A type of distortion wherein the output signal does not have the desired linear relation to
the input.
A. linear distortion
B. nonlinear distortion
C. cross-over distortion
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B
33. Distortion that is due to the inability of an amplifier to amplify equally well all the
frequencies present at the input signal.
A. nonlinear distortion
B. amplitude distortion
C. harmonic distortion
D. cross-over distortion
ANSWER: B
34. A nonlinear distortion in which the output consists of undesired harmonic frequencies of
the input signal.
A. amplitude distortion
B. frequency distortion
C. cross-over distortion
D. harmonic distortion
ANSWER: D
35. Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an output signal having a fundamental
amplitude of 3V and a 2nd harmonic amplitude of 0.3V.
A. 1.0%
B. 10%
C. 23.33%
D. 43.33%
ANSWER: B
36. An amplifier has the following percent harmonic distortions; D2=10%, D3=5% and
D4=1%. What is the amplifier % THD?
A. 5.33%
B. 11.22%
C. 16.0%
D. 22.11%
ANSWER: B
39. If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in cascade, how much is the overall gain?
A. 72
B. 24
C. 512
D. 8
ANSWER: C
40. A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a conventional series manner, the output of
one stage is forward-coupled to the next stage.
A. cascaded amplifier
B. cascoded amplifier
C. darlington configuration
D. feed-back pair configuration
ANSWER: A
41. A direct-coupled two-stage transistor configuration wherein the output of the firs
transistor is directly coupled and amplified by the second transistor. This configuration
gives a very high current gain.
A. cascade configuration
B. cascode configuration
C. darlington configuration
D. feed-back pair
ANSWER: C
42. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage provides
input to the emitter of the second stage. The final output is then taken from the collector
of the second stage.
A. cascade configuration
B. cascode configuration
C. quasi-complementary
D. complementary amplifier
ANSWER: B
43. Famous transistor amplifier configuration designed to eliminate the so called Miller
effect.
A. cascode amplifier
B. darlington amplifier
C. differential amplifier
D. complementary-symmetry
ANSWER: A
46. What is the approximate threshold voltage between the base-emitter junction of a silicon
darlington transistor?
A. 0.3 V
B. 0.6 V
C. 1.6 V
D. 3.0 V
ANSWER: C
47. Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington but uses a combination of pnp
and npn transistors instead of both npn.
A. differential
B. common
C. cascode
D. feedback pair
ANSWER: D
48. An amplifier basically constructed from two transistors and whose output is proportional
to the difference between the voltages applied to its two inputs.
A. differential amplifier
B. cascode amplifier
C. complementary amplifier
D. quasi-complementary amplifier
ANSWER: A
49. An amplifier having high direct-current stability and high immunity to oscillation, this is
initially used to perform analog-computer functions such as summing and integrating.
A. operational amplifier (op-amp)
B. parametric amplifier (par-amp)
C. instrumentation amplifier
D. DC-amplifier
ANSWER: A
50. One of the most versatile and widely used electronic device in linear applications.
A. SCR
B. FET
C. UJT
D. op-amp
ANSWER: D
51. It is a very high-gain differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low
output impedance.
A. par-amp
B. op-amp
C. differential amp
D. complementary amp
ANSWER: B
53. An operational amplifier must have at least how many usable terminals?
A. 3 terminals
B. 5 terminals
C. 8 terminals
D. 14 terminals
ANSWER: B
55. An amplifier whose output is proportional to the difference between the voltages applied
to its two inputs.
A. differential amplifier
B. differencing
C. delta amp
D. cascode-amp
ANSWER: A
56. In op-amps functional block diagram, what follows the differential amplifier?
A. cascode-amplifier
B. complementary amplifier
C. level shifter
D. high gain amplifier
ANSWER: D
58. Ideally, op-amps have infinite input resistance and ________ output resistance.
A. infinite
B. zero
C. variable
D. a highly stabilized
ANSWER: B
60. What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps?
A. differential amplifier
B. cascade-amplifier
C. complementary amplifier
D. darlington stage amplifier
ANSWER: C
61. The transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps
A. cascode configuration
B. common emitter
C. common collector
D. common base
ANSWER: C
62. Why do most op-amps use a common collector at the output stage?
A. to have a higher output power
B. to have a better frequency response
C. to have a low harmonic distortion
D. to have a very low output resistance
ANSWER: D
63. The stage followed by the output complementary in op-amps functional block diagram.
A. level shifter
B. phase shifter
C. current mirror
D. polarizer
ANSWER: A
65. Primarily, op-amps are operated with bipolar power supply, however, we can also use
single polarity power supply by
A. generating a reference voltage above ground.
B. “floating” the negative supply terminal (V-) of the op-amp.
C. simply connecting the negative supply terminal (V-) of the op-amp to ground.
D. isolating the negative supply terminal (V-) by a capacitor.
ANSWER: A
66. Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the inverting (-) and non-inverting (+) inputs.
What is the significance of its name?
A. If a sine-wave is applied to the inverting (-) input, the output will be inverted or
shifted by 180°, while if applied to the non-inverting (+) there will be no phase
shift at the output.
B. If pulses are applied to the inverting (-) input, the positive pulse becomes
negative at the output and vice versa, while if applied at the non-inverting (+)
there will be no reversal of the pulse at the output.
C. In dc amplifier applications, increasing input at the inverting (-) terminal causes
the output to decrease and vice versa, while at the non-inverting (+) input, the
output magnitude goes with the input.
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER: D
67. When the same signal is applied to both inverting and non-inverting input terminals of an
ideal op-amp, the output voltage would be
A. zero (0) V
B. +VSAT
C. –VSAT
D. offset voltage
ANSWER: A
68. The operating mode of an op-amp, when both inputs are tied together or when the input
signal is common to both inputs.
A. differential mode
B. rejection mode
C. double-ended mode
D. common mode
ANSWER: D
69. What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if operated in common mode input?
A. differential gain
B. common gain
C. double-ended gain
D. rejection gain
ANSWER: B
70. When one input of the op-amp is connected to ground and the other is to the signal
source, its operation is called
A. single-ended output
B. double-ended output
C. single-ended input
D. double-ended input
ANSWER: C
71. If op-amps are operated in differential mode, its gain is technically termed as
A. common-mode differential gain
B. differential gain
C. open-loop gain
D. closed-loop gain
ANSWER: B
73. The ratio of the differential gain and common gain of an op-amp
A. differential-common mode ratio
B. common-mode ratio
C. differential-mode rejection ratio
D. common-mode rejection ratio
ANSWER: D
75. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differential-
mode gain of 100,000.
A. 1000 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 80 dB
D. 40 dB
ANSWER: C
76. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV and
1.0 mV, respectively. If the op-amp has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a
differential-mode gain of 10,000, what is its output voltage?
A. 5.0 V
B. 5.0125 mV
C. 5.0125 V
D. 25.0125 V
ANSWER: C
78. The µA741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode voltage amplification of
200,000.What is the op-amp’s common-mode voltage gain?
A. 31,622.778
B. 632.40
C. 6.324
D. 0.158
ANSWER: C
80. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small input current
called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a slight difference. What
do you call this difference?
A. differential input current
B. differential bias
C. input offset difference
D. input offset current
ANSWER: D
82. The reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is
due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This unsymmetrical condition
also produces a difference in input voltage called what?
A. drift voltage
B. differential voltage
C. input offset voltage
D. input threshold voltage
ANSWER: C
83. As electronic circuit operates, its operating temperature changes which causes device
parameters to change. In op-amps, what do you call the change in input offset voltage
due to the change in temperature?
A. input differential drift
B. input offset voltage drift
C. slew rate
D. PSRR
ANSWER: B
84. It is known through experiment that the input bias currents at the non-inverting (IB+) and
inverting (IB-) inputs of a certain op-amp is 100 nA and 80 nA, respectively. Determine
the op-amp’s input offset current.
A. -20 nA
B. 20 nA
C. 90 nA
D. 180 nA
ANSWER: B
85. Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input signal, however,
in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as
A. minimum output voltage
B. pinch-off voltage
C. output offset voltage
D. saturation voltage
ANSWER: C
88. An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100 kΩ and input resistor of 10
kΩ. If the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0 mV, approximate the amplifier output offset
voltage due to this input offset voltage.
A. 10 mV
B. 11 mV
C. 20 mV
D. 22 mV
ANSWER: D
89. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current and voltage. If 1
mV is due to the input offset current and 22 mV due to the input offset voltage, what is
the total output offset voltage of the op-amp?
A. 11.5 mV
B. 22 mV
C. 23 mV
D. 45 mV
ANSWER: C
90. How will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset current of an op-
amp?
A. by installing a bias-current-compensating resistor
B. by increasing the value of the feedback resistor
C. by decreasing the value of the input resistor
D. B and C above
ANSWER: A
92. The approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits is
A. equal to the feedback resistor
B. equal to the input resistor
C. equal to the series combination of the input and feedback resistors
D. equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors
ANSWER: D
93. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by
A. a battery
B. a signal generator
C. Thevenin’s voltage source
D. Norton’s current source
ANSWER: A
94. The battery representing the input offset voltage in op-amp circuit analysis is connected
where?
A. between the inverting and ground terminal
B. between the non-inverting and ground terminal
C. between the inverting and non-inverting terminal
D. either B and C above
ANSWER: B
95. What is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no
feedback element?
A. causes the output to be always at cutoff
B. causes the output to saturate towards positive
C. causes the output to saturate towards negative
D. causes the output to saturate either towards positive or negative
ANSWER: D
96. How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the
output offset voltage?
A. by making the feedback resistance small
B. by making the feedback resistance large
C. by making the input resistance small
D. by making the input resistance large
ANSWER: A
97. An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resistances of 1
kΩ and 100 kΩ, respectively. When the input signal is set to zero, the output was found
to have an offset voltage of 101 mV. Calculate the input offset voltage.
A. 0.01 mV
B. 0.1 mV
C. 1.0 mV
D. 10.0 mV
ANSWER: C
98. What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp?
A. by reducing the value of the feedback resistor
B. by increasing the value of the input resistor
C. by a capacitor-compensation technique
D. by properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals
ANSWER: D
99. What cause(s) the well-adjusted output offset voltage of op-amps to change?
A. change in operating temperature
B. component aging
C. variations in supply voltage
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
100. Which op-amp parameter(s) that normally affects its small signal dc-amplification
performance?
A. input bias current
B. input offset voltage
C. input offset current
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
102. In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least effect on its
performance?
A. drift
B. slew rate
C. input offset voltage
D. input offset current
ANSWER: A
103. For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance.
A. input offset current and voltage
B. input bias current and voltage
C. drift and slew rate
D. slew rate and frequency response
ANSWER: D
104. If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter you should greatly
consider to ensure better performance?
A. input bias current
B. drift
C. frequency response
D. slew rate
ANSWER: C
107. What will happen to the voltage gain of op-amp when its operating frequency is
increased?
A. also increases
B. increases exponentially
C. will decrease
D. decreases exponentially
ANSWER: C
110. A reduction of op-amp’s voltage gain by a factor of two each time the frequency
doubles.
A. 2 dB/octave
B. 2 dB/decade
C. 6 dB/octave
D. 6 dB/decade
ANSWER: C
112. The low and high cutoff frequencies of an amplifier is also called
A. corner frequencies
B. 0.707 frequencies
C. 3-dB frequencies
D. all of these are correct
ANSWER: D
113. Calculate the cutoff frequency (fc)of an op-amp having a unity-gain bandwidth product
B1 = 1 MHz and a open-loop voltage gain AOL = 100,000.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 200 Hz
ANSWER: A
114. An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3 µs, calculate its unity-
gain bandwidth.
A. 0.857 MHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.167 MHz
D. 2.334 MHz
ANSWER: C
115. Rise time is defined as the time required for the output voltage to rise from _______ to
________ of its final value.
A. 0% - 100%
B. 1% - 99%
C. 5% - 95%
D. 10% - 90%
ANSWER: D
118. What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a
specified slew rate of 0.5 V/µsec? The maximum output voltage desired is 5 V.
A. 16 kHz
B. 32 kHz
C. 100 kHz
D. 1 MHz
ANSWER: A
119. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an undistorted
output voltage of .10 V ac a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec?
A. 0.1 V/µsec
B. 0.5 V/µsec
C. 1.0 V/µsec
D. 6.28 V/µsec
ANSWER: C
120. When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the output voltage would be +VSAT if
A. V+ > V-
B. V- > V+
C. V- = V+
D. V- and V+ are both zero
ANSWER: A
121. Two comparators using op-amps, configured such that it can detect voltage levels
within a certain range of values rather than simply comparing whether a voltage is
above or below a certain reference.
A. analog comparator
B. regenerative comparator
C. parallel comparator
D. window comparator
ANSWER: D
127. Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier having a feedback and
an input resistance of 100 kΩ and 10 kΩ, respectively.
A. 10
B. 11
C. 100
D. 110
ANSWER: A
128. The gain of an inverting amplifier is determined by the ratio of the feedback and input
resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we can select any value of resistors as long as its ratio is the
same. What op-amp parameter that helps us determine the appropriate values of
these resistors?
A. CMRR
B. PSRR
C. SR
D. input bias current
ANSWER: D
130. A unity-gain summing amplifier has three inputs, V1 = 1.0 mV, V2 = 1.5 mV, and V3 =
2.5 mV, calculate the total output voltage.
A. 2.5 mV
B. 3.5 mV
C. 4.0 mV
D. 5.0 mV
ANSWER: D
131. The random voltage at the output of an op-amp which could occupy the entire
bandwidth.
A. noise
B. hash
C. interference
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
132. Which of the following of the resistor combinations that provides lesser noise in op-
amp circuits?
A. Make both the feedback and input resistances as large as possible
B. Make the feedback as large as possible, while the input as low as possible.
C. Make the feedback as low as possible, while the input as large as possible.
D. Make the feedback and input resistances as small as possible.
ANSWER: D
133. In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small
capacitance, what is its purpose?
A. to prevent oscillation
B. to improve stability
C. to minimize high frequency noise
D. to compensate for high frequency loss
ANSWER: C
134. Approximate the noise gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has five inputs.
A. unity (1)
B. two (2)
C. four (4)
D. six (6)
ANSWER: D
135. Op-amps with internal frequency compensation are very stable with respect to signal
frequencies. However, the trade-off for frequency stability is (are)
A. limited small-signal bandwidth
B. slow slew rate
C. limited open-loop frequency response
D. all of these
ANSWER: D
140. Op-amps designed to operate at high slew rate, about 2000 V/µsec and at high
frequencies, more than 50 MHz.
A. general purpose op-amps
B. high power op-amps
C. high-stability op-amps
D. high-frequency, high-slew rate op-amps
ANSWER: D
142. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classified as a low-
input offset voltage op-amp
A. 0.2 mV
B. 2.0 mV
C. 2.5 mV
D. 5.0 mV
ANSWER: A
143. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorize
as
A. general purpose op-amps
B. programmable op-amps
C. variable op-amps
D. externally compensated op-amps
ANSWER: B
144. What op-amp parameter(s) that can be governed by the bias control in a
programmable op-amp?
A. open-loop gain and slew rate
B. unity-gain bandwidth
C. input bias current
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
145. The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which
of these corresponds to TO-99?
A. metal can
B. 8-pin DIP
C. SMT
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
146. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as
A. TO-99
B. TO-91
C. TO-116
D. TO-220
ANSWER: C
147. For high density ICs involving many op-amps, what packaging is suitable?
A. metal can
B. 14-pin DIL
C. SMT
D. flat-pack
ANSWER: C
152. What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coli in the tuned circuit?
A. Pierce
B. Colpitts
C. Hartley
D. Ultraudion
ANSWER: C
154. Type of oscillator whose frequency is dependent on the charge and discharge of RC
networks.
A. Hartley oscillator
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: C
156. A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedback portions by
a capacitive voltage divider.
A. Hartley capacitor
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: B
157. A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedback portions by
an inductive voltage divider or a tapped coil.
A. Hartley oscillator
B. Copitts oscillator
C. Relaxation oscillator
D. Klystron oscillator
ANSWER: A
158. A circuit usually containing two transistors or tubes in an RC-coupled amplifier, the two
active devices switch each other alternately on and off.
A. Multivibrator
B. Signal generator
C. Oscillator
D. Thyristor
ANSWER: A
159. A multivibrator that generates one output pulse for each input trigger pulse.
A. monostable
B. astable
C. bistable
D. tristate
ANSWER: A
160. Monostable multivibrator is also known as
A. one shot
B. single shot
C. direct shot
D. one shot or single shot
ANSWER: D
3. A secondary cell whose active positive plate consists of nickel hydroxide, and active
negative-plate material is powdered iron oxide mixed with cadmium. Its typical output
when fully charged is VO = 1.2V
A. Leclanche cell
B. dry cell
C. Edison cell
D. lead-acid cell
ANSWER: C
5. What type of cell that cannot be recharged which cannot restore chemical reaction?
A. nickel-cadmium cell
B. secondary cell
C. primary cell
D. lead-acid wet cell
ANSWER: C
7. A voltage source in a single container made from one or more cells combines in series,
parallel, or series-parallel.
A. photoelectric
B. thermocouple
C. battery
D. piezo-electric
ANSWER: C
8. A battery means
A. cells connected in series
B. cells connected in parallel
C. cells connected in series-parallel
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
9. A battery is used to
A. supply a steady dc voltage
B. supply an unstable dc voltage
C. supply an ac voltage
D. supply an ac/dc voltage
ANSWER: A
10. In a dry cell, what will happen to the internal resistance as it aged?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains constant
D. decreases or increases, depends on the chemical composition
ANSWER: B
11. The maximum current a cell can deliver through a 0.01 ohm load during testing
A. flash current
B. surge current
C. ideal current
D. full-load current
ANSWER: A
12. In batteries, the material used to insulate the positive plates from negative plates are
technically called
A. insulator
B. break-point
C. coupler
D. separator
ANSWER: D
13. How long will a battery need to operate a 240 Watts equipment, whose capacity is
100Ah and 24 volts rating?
A. 5 hrs
B. 10 hrs
C. 1 hr
D. 0.10 hr
ANSWER: B
14. A battery is rated 20 A-hr and is delivering a current of 2A. How long does it last?
A. 1 hr
B. 5 hrs
C. 8 hrs
D. 10 hrs
ANSWER: D
15. A primary cell with carbon and zinc as its positive and negative electrodes respectively,
and an electrolyte of either a gel or paste. This is commonly known as dry cell.
A. Leclanche cell
B. Edison cell
C. storage cell
D. solar cell
ANSWER: A
19. The flat 9-V battery, has how many cells in series?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
ANSWER: C
24. A junction between two conductors that exhibits electrical characteristics under condition
of changing temperature
A. pn junction
B. photojunction
C. thermoelectric junction
D. hydroelectric junction
ANSWER: C
26. The source of mechanical power to turn the rotors of alternators, large and small, A.C.
and D.C.
A. prime contactor
B. primer
C. prime mover
D. prime user
ANSWER: C
30. Electrical machine that changes ac voltage at one frequency to another ac voltage at
another frequency.
A. generator
B. motor
C. rotary converter
D. frequency converter
ANSWER: D
31. It consist of a single coil rotated in a magnetic field and produces an A.C. voltage.
A. field winding
B. armature
C. commutator
D. elementary generator
ANSWER: D
34. In electrical machines, what do you call the set of conductors wound on laminated cores
of good magnetic permeability?
A. armature core
B. armature winding
C. rotary winding
D. rotary core
ANSWER: B
37. In electrical machines, what type of voltage is generated at the armature winding?
A. dc
B. pulsating dc
C. ac
D. ac or dc depending on the type of machine
ANSWER: C
39. A dc generator whose excitation is produced by a winding connected to its own positive
and negative terminals.
A. series generator
B. separately excited shunt generator
C. self-excited shunt generator
D. compound generator
ANSWER: C
41. In a compound generator, which field winding usually, has a lower resistance?
A. series field winding
B. shunt field winding
C. armature winding
D. excitation winding
ANSWER: A
42. Which winding in a dc-compound generator that is relatively made of fine wires?
A. armature winding
B. excitation winding
C. shunt field winding
D. series field winding
ANSWER: C
44. What is the purpose of laminating the field poles and armature of a dc machine?
A. to reduce eddy current
B. to avoid contaminants
C. to provide isolation
D. to beautify the machine
ANSWER: A
45. An alternator with a lagging power factor of 0.8 will have a ________ voltage regulation
at unity power factor.
A. 0%
B. less than
C. greater than
D. 100%
ANSWER: C
46. With alternators connected in parallel, the frequency of the system can be changed by
A. increasing the field excitation
B. decreasing the field excitation
C. changing the rpm of the prime movers
D. synchronizing the prime movers
ANSWER: C
47. With alternators connected in parallel, the voltage of the system can be changed by
A. changing the field excitation
B. increasing the speed of the prime movers
C. changing the rpm of the prime movers
D. synchronizing the prime movers
ANSWER: A
48. If an ac generator is to be driven from prime mover having variable speed, such as
aircraft engine, a ________ must be used.
A. constant speed drive (CSD)
B. regulator
C. conditioner
D. peak limited
ANSWER: A
49. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in the armature of a 10 pole, 1,200 rpm
generator.
A. 100
B. 1000
C. 10
D. 0.1
ANSWER: D
50. What should be the speed of a 6-pole ac generator in order to have a frequency of
50Hz?
A. 100 rpm
B. 500 rpm
C. 1000 rpm
D. 1500 rpm
ANSWER: C
51. What is the voltage regulation when the full load voltage is the same as no-load voltage
assuming a perfect voltage source?
A. 100%
B. 1%
C. 10%
D. 0%
ANSWER: D
52. Calculate the voltage regulation of a generator having a no-load voltage of 220 V and a
full load voltage of 180 V.
A. 18%
B. 22%
C. 28%
D. 32%
ANSWER: B
56. For what reason, why carbon brushes are widely used dc machines?
A. it is abundant
B. it is cheap
C. it has a high voltage drop
D. it lubricates and polishes the contacts
ANSWER: D
59. What term applies to the use of two or more generators to supply a common load?
A. on-line operation
B. series operation
C. cascaded operation
D. parallel operation
ANSWER: D
61. Description used for generators trying to self-adjust its parameters before paralleling with
on line generators.
A. synchronizing
B. sequencing
C. jogging
D. alighning
ANSWER: C
62. In changing power from one generator to another, what do you call the operational
sequence wherein the incoming generator is connected first before removing the existing
generator?
A. No Break Power Transfer (NBPT)
B. UPS
C. LIFO
D. Standby Power transfer
ANSWER: A
65. In electrical power distribution, what do you call the first distribution line from the main
generating station?
A. main transmission lines
B. primary distribution lines
C. sub transmission lines
D. secondary distribution lines
ANSWER: A
66. The lines which carry the energy from the transformer to a customer’s services are
called ________.
A. main transmission lines
B. primary distribution lines
C. sub transmission lines
D. secondary distribution lines
ANSWER: D
67. In electrical power Generating/distribution Company, which do you think is their highest
expenses?
A. generation of power
B. distribution of power to the consumers
C. power transmission
D. substations
ANSWER: B
77. What is the primary reason why carbon brushes are preferred over copper brushes in dc
motors?
A. they have low loss
B. they are more strong
C. they produce less arcing
D. all of the above
ANSWER: C
78. In dc motors, the emf developed which opposes to the supplied voltage.
A. residual emf
B. induced emf
C. coercive emf
D. counter emf or back emf
ANSWER: D
79. To minimize arcing during starting of dc motors, a resistance should be added to limit the
current in the ________
A. series field winding
B. shunt field winding
C. armature winding
D. all of these
ANSWER: C
80. Which dc motors whose speed is greatly affected by a change in load? It will even run-
away if the load is removed.
A. series
B. shunt
C. cumulatively compounded
D. differentially compounded
ANSWER: A
82. When a dc motor has no load, what will happen to the back emf?
A. reduces
B. increases
C. becomes maximum
D. becomes zero
ANSWER: C
85. One causes why the shaft torque is less than the developed armature torque of a dc
motor.
A. eddy current
B. field loss
C. brushes loss
D. friction loss
ANSWER: D
86. For heavy-duty dc motor, how does the effect of armature reaction be corrected?
A. using interpoles & brush shifting
B. using interpoles
C. using compensatory winding
D. B & C are correct
ANSWER: D
88. What is the most common method used in varying the speed of a dc motor?
A. by varying the supply voltage
B. by changing the effective number of conductors in series
C. by varying the armature resistance
D. by varying the field strength
ANSWER: D
89. The running speed of a dc series motor is greatly affected by what factor?
A. field excitation
B. load
C. armature resistance
D. supply voltage
ANSWER: B
90. In choosing a motor for a particular application, what characteristic you should consider?
A. speed-torque
B. speed-armature current
C. speed efficiency
D. speed power
ANSWER: A
91. What will happen to the dc shunt motor if the load torque greatly increases?
A. the speed will decrease
B. there will be a great increase in current
C. the speed almost remains constant
D. B and C are correct
ANSWER: D
92. What will happen to a dc series motor when its load is removed?
A. the motor will stop
B. the motor speed remains the same
C. the torque remains the same
D. the motor will overspeed
ANSWER: D
95. One advantage of a cumulatively compounded motor is that it does not run widely at
light loads, this feature is due to
A. shunt winding
B. brake winding
C. series winding
D. clutch winding
ANSWER: A
96. In applications where an almost constant speed is required, a _______ motor is a good
choice.
A. dc shunt
B. dc series
C. cumulatively compounded
D. differentially compounded
ANSWER: A
97. In applications where a high torque is needed during starting a _______ motor is
preferred.
A. dc shunt
B. dc series
C. differentially compounded
D. cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: B
98. In applications where sudden heavy loads happen for short duration, a _______ motor is
the best choice.
A. dc shunt
B. dc series
C. cumulatively compounded
D. differentially compounded
ANSWER: C
99. In motors of the same rating, which has the least starting torque?
A. dc shunt
B. dc series
C. differentially compounded
D. cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: A
105. Which motor that produces the highest increase in torque considering the same
increase in current?
A. dc shunt
B. dc series
C. differentially compounded
D. cumulatively compounded
ANSWER: B
109. When armature current is increased in a dc motor, its armature reaction will
A. also increase
B. decrease
C. increase exponentially
D. decrease exponentially
ANSWER: A
110. Why does in dc motor, brushes are positioned such that they will be with the direction
of the rotation?
A. to reduce sparking
B. to last long
C. to have less loss
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
111. Motors are used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. What type of motor
that is best suited for heavy-load application?
A. dc series motors
B. dc compound motors
C. single phase motors
D. polyphase motors
ANSWER: D
112. DC shunt motor speed can be controlled electronically by using a _______ in series
with the armature winding.
A. thyrector
B. potentiometer
C. rheostat
D. thyristor
ANSWER: D
120. What converter must be used if one wished to change dc-voltage into ac-voltage?
A. inverter
B. cycloconverter
C. dc-converter
D. ac-converter
ANSWER: A
122. In electronic converters, what signal is mostly used to trigger the active device?
A. sine-wave
B. square-wave
C. triangular-wave
D. sawtooth-wave
ANSWER: B
124. Transformer is considered by many as an efficient device due to the fact that
A. it uses an inductive coupling
B. it is magnetically coupled
C. it is a static device
D. it is electrically coupled
ANSWER: C
128. When the transformer secondary winding is short-circuited, its primary inductance will
A. become zero
B. decrease
C. increase
D. not be affected
ANSWER: C
129. Cooling system for transformers with ratings less than 5kVA
A. forced-air cooling
B. oil-cooling
C. natural air cooling
D. water cooling
ANSWER: C
132. In constructing transformers, the primary and secondary windings should have
A. good electrical coupling
B. loose magnetic coupling
C. tight magnetic coupling
D. best inductive coupling
ANSWER: C
133. What are the two parameters in transformers that are the same in both primary and
secondary?
A. power and voltage
B. power and current
C. power and impedance
D. voltage per turn and ampere-turns
ANSWER: D
136. What will happen if a power transformer is to be operated at a very high frequency?
A. it will have a very high core loss
B. its impedance will decrease
C. its core permeability will be greatly increased
D. its core permeability will be greatly reduced
ANSWER: A
139. What do you think will happen to a transformer when its primary is connected to a DC
supply?
A. It will become more efficient
B. It will become less efficient
C. It will have good regulation
D. It might burn out
ANSWER: D
140. Generally, in what application you consider the use of core-type transformers?
A. low voltage and low current
B. low voltage and high current
C. high voltage and low current
D. high voltage and high current
ANSWER: C
141. In ________ transformers, when its primary is energized the secondary should never
be open-circuited.
A. power
B. voltage
C. current
D. matching
ANSWER: C
144. ________ currents are wasteful currents which flows in cores of transformers and
produces heat.
A. Residual
B. Eddy
C. Sneak
D. Magnetizing
ANSWER: B
145. What will happen to the eddy current loss in transformers when the load is increased?
A. will also increase
B. will decrease
C. will become infinite
D. nothing will happen
ANSWER: D
148. In transformers, the voltage per turn at the primary is ________ the secondary.
A. less than that of
B. greater than that of
C. a factor of
D. the same as
ANSWER: D
151. Practically how many percent is copper loss to the total loss in transformers?
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 85%
D. 100%
ANSWER: C
152. What is the purpose of laminating the core of a transformer?
A. to decrease eddy current loss
B. to increase eddy current loss
C. to decrease copper loss
D. to decrease hysteresis loss
ANSWER: A
155. The ratio of the amount of magnetic flux linking a secondary coil compared to the flux
generated by the primary coil:
A. coupling factor
B. mutual coupling
C. coefficient of coupling
D. hysteresis factor
ANSWER: C
158. One of the following items below is not one of the main components of an alternating
current power supply.
A. Power transformer
B. Voltage regulator
C. Rectifier
D. Filter
ANSWER: C
159. Most electronic devices/circuits require dc-voltage to operate. A battery is a good
power source, however, its operating time is limited. The use of battery also proves to
be expensive. A more practical alternative is to use the household main supply, and
since this is an ac-voltage, it must be converted to a dc-voltage. The circuit that
converts this ac-voltage to a dc-voltage is called
A. rectifier
B. clamper
C. filter
D. regulator
ANSWER: A
160. A rectifier that uses either the positive or negative portion only of the main ac-supply
A. half-wave
B. full-wave
C. full-wave bridge
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
161. For a half-wave rectifier, the average output voltage is _______ of the maximum ac-
voltage.
A. 31.8%
B. 45%
C. 63.6%
D. 90%
ANSWER: A
163. Calculate the dc-voltage at the output of a half-wave rectifier with a 12Vrms input.
A. 2.7 V
B. 3.8 V
C. 4.5 V
D. 5.4 V
ANSWER: D
164. To double the capability of the half-wave rectifier, a _______ must be used.
A. full-wave rectifier
B. full-wave bridge
C. dual-supply
D. A or B is correct
ANSWER: D
167. Find direct current voltage from a full-wave rectifier with 120 V peak rectified voltage.
A. 60 V
B. 7.639 V
C. 76.39 V
D. 6.0 V
ANSWER: C
169. Relate the magnitude of the dc-output voltage to the ac input rms voltage of a full-wave
rectifier.
A. VDC = 0.318 Vrms
B. VDC = 0.45 Vrms
C. VDC = 0.636 Vrms
D. VDC = 0.90 Vrms
ANSWER: D
170. Determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier when the input ac-voltage is 24
Vrms.
A. 7.63 V
B. 10.8 V
C. 15.3 V
D. 21.6 V
ANSWER: D
173. Factor(s) that can reduce the ripple voltage of a power supply.
A. filter capacitance
B. reduction of load current
C. increase in input frequency
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
175. Find the ripple factor (kr) of a sinusoidal signal with peak ripple of 4 volts on an
average of 30.
A. 0.094
B. 0.013
C. 0.130
D. 0.94
ANSWER: A
176. Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple voltage of a 20 V full-wave power supply with a filter
capacitor C = 220 µF when delivering a load current of 50 mA.
A. 2.0 Vpp
B. 3.79 Vpp
C. 5.67 Vpp
D. 7.9 Vpp
ANSWER: A
177. In capacitor-filtered power supply, what will happen to the ripple voltage if the load is
disconnected?
A. increases
B. becomes infinite
C. becomes unpredictable
D. drops to zero
ANSWER: D
178. For a power supply with a peak-to-peak ripple voltage of 5 Vpp, determine its rms
ripple.
A. 1.44 Vrms
B. 1.77 Vrms
C. 2.88 Vrms
D. 3.54 Vrms
ANSWER: B
179. A 20-Vdc power supply was found to have a ripple voltage of 2 Vrms when supplying
1.5 amps load. Calculate its percent ripple.
A. 7.5 %
B. 10.0 %
C. 12.5 %
D. 15.0 %
ANSWER: B
180. Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage?
A. capacitor filter
B. RC-filter
C. LC-filter
D. multi-section LC-filter
ANSWER: D
181. Ripple voltage in power supplies causes unwanted effects on the load it is supplying,
i.e. a hum in audio amplifiers. To minimize this effect several filtering techniques are
used, however, ripple still exists. What is a better alternative to reduce further the
ripples?
A. truncation
B. clipping
C. clamping
D. regulation
ANSWER: D
185. In voltage regulators, what do you call the element/device that controls the amount of
current/voltage/power?
A. sampling circuit
B. comparator
C. limiter
D. control element
ANSWER: D
186. The element/device used as a comparator in most voltage regulators.
A. zener diode
B. BJT
C. IGBT
D. op-amp
ANSWER: D
189. The most efficient voltage regulator and is therefore used in high-current high-voltage
applications.
A. series regulators
B. shunt regulators
C. hybrid regulators
D. switching regulators
ANSWER: D
190. A 12 VDC power supply is regulated using 7805 IC and is used in TTL circuits that
require a 0.2 amps current. Determine the dropout voltage of the system.
A. 4 V
B. 5 V
C. 6 V
D. 7 V
ANSWER: D
191. A load draws 1 A current from a 10-V regulated power supply. Calculate the power
dissipated by the regulator if it has an input voltage of 16 V.
A. 6 Watts
B. 10 Watts
C. 12 Watts
D. 16 Watts
ANSWER: A
195. What three-terminal IC regulator that has a variable negative voltage output?
A. 317
B. 337
C. 723
D. 741
ANSWER: B
196. In a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage regulator (317), what is the band-gap
voltage between the output terminal and adjustment terminal?
A. 1.25 V
B. 2.5 V
C. 3.25 V
D. 4.125 V
ANSWER: A
198. The three-terminal voltage regulators, such as the 78XX series has a typical current
rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say 30 amperes, how will you make
modifications from this regulator in order to provide the required current?
A. by cascading them
B. by the use of a crowbar circuit
C. by connecting them in parallel
D. by the use of external pass transistor
ANSWER: D
199. What is the simplest way of protecting power supplies from reverse-polarity/reverse-
current flow?
A. by a forward-biased diode
B. by a reverse-biased diode
C. by a crowbar circuit
D. by a snubber circuit
ANSWER: B
202. Which of the regulators dissipates less power and therefore generates less heat?
A. series
B. shunt
C. switching
D. UPS
ANSWER: C
203. In switching regulators, what are the semiconductor devices that can be used as
controllable power switches?
A. BJTs and MDs
B. MOSFETs and IGBT
C. GTOs and thyristors
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
204. In voltage regulators, the control element plays a major part in providing proper and
efficient regulation. What are the desirable characteristics of the control element to be
used if excellent regulator is desired?
A. very small off-state leakage current and high on-state current ratings
B. large forward and reverse blocking voltage and very small on-sate voltage
C. short turn-on and turn-off times so that it can be used in high-speed switching
regulators
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
205. Active devices used in switching regulators may experience large over-currents during
conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-voltages during turn-off. These excessive
currents and voltages may cause distraction or damage of the active devices. How do
we protect them?
A. by the use of a crowbar circuit
B. by providing a buck-boost circuit
C. by shunting a thyrector
D. by installing a snubber circuit
ANSWER: D
206. One of the major concerns in power electronics is to clean-up or shape-up the utility-
supply voltage (the wall-outlet 220 V/60 Hz) from disturbances such as, overvolt,
undervolt, voltage spikes, and harmonic distortions. What circuit is used for this?
A. power conditioners
B. UPS
C. power inverters
D. line scanning
ANSWER: A
2. The art or process of determining the existence or knowing the magnitude of something,
directly or indirectly in terms of a recognized standard.
A. Measurement
B. Testing
C. Recording
D. Evaluating
ANSWER: A
4. In measurement, what do you call the degree of exactness compared to the expected
value of the variable being measured?
A. precision
B. accuracy
C. sharpness
D. correctness
ANSWER: B
7. In measurements, the sum of a set of numbers divided by the total number of pieces of
data in the given set is called
A. geometric mean
B. algebraic mean
C. arithmetic mean
D. effective value
ANSWER: C
9. Errors due to frictions of the meter movement, incorrect spring tension, improper
calibration or faulty instruments:
A. Observational errors
B. Environmental errors
C. Instrument errors
D. Gross errors
ANSWER: C
12. Errors in analog meter reading due to your physical position with respect to the meter
scale.
A. parallax error
B. angular error
C. linear error
D. deviation
ANSWER: A
13. What do you call the difference between any number within the set of numbers and the
arithmetic mean of that set of numbers?
A. parallax error
B. angular error
C. linear error
D. deviation
ANSWER: D
14. An instrument or device having recognized permanent or stable value that is used as a
reference.
A. standard instrument/device
B. reference instrument/device
C. fixed instrument/device
D. ideal instrument/device
ANSWER: A
15. The smallest change in a measured variable to which an instrument will respond.
A. quantize value
B. resolution
C. minimum
D. step size
ANSWER: B
16. A device or mechanism used to determine the value of a quantity under observation.
A. measuring kit
B. evaluator
C. instrument
D. sensor
ANSWER: C
18. An instrument used to detect and measure the presence of electrical current is generally
called
A. D’Arsonval meter
B. electrodynamometer
C. galvanometer
D. potentiometer
ANSWER: C
22. What is that device, which depends on the action of a movable permanent magnet, in
aligning itself in the resultant field, produced either by a fixed permanent magnet and
adjacent coil or coils carrying current, or by two or more current-carrying coils whose
axes are displaced by a fixed angle?
A. D’Arsonval meter movement
B. induction instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. moving-iron instrument
ANSWER: C
27. This instrument refers to that one, which measures the intensity of the radiation,
received from any portion of the sky.
A. megaohmmeter
B. pyranometer
C. Megger
D. galvanometer
ANSWER: B
28. What is the normal indication on a megger (megohmmeter) when checking insulation?
A. one
B. infinity
C. middle of scale
D. zero
ANSWER: B
32. An indicating instrument whose movable coils rotate between two stationary coils,
usually used as wattmeter.
A. induction-type meter
B. radial-vane instrument
C. electrodynamometer
D. concentric-vane instrument
ANSWER: C
36. For a dynamometer to be able to measure high current, a ________ should be used.
A. shunt resistor
B. multiplier
C. CVDT
D. current transformer
ANSWER: D
41. Decreasing the value of the shunt resistor of an ammeter, its current measuring
capability
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
42. Increasing the value of the series resistor of a voltmeter, its voltage measuring capability
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
43. A device that is used to measure current without opening the circuit
A. megger test
B. clamp probe
C. ammeter
D. multi-meter
ANSWER: B
45. To prevent damage of the multirange ammeter during selection, a/an _______ should be
used.
A. direct shunt
B. selected shunt
C. Ayrton shunt
D. shunt fuse
ANSWER: C
46. For the greatest accuracy, what should be the input impedance of a VOM be?
A. 1,000 ohms/V
B. 50,000 ohms/V
C. as large as possible
D. as small as possible
ANSWER: C
49. If a meter with a full-scale current of 100μA is used as an ac voltmeter with half-wave
rectification, its ac sensitivity is
A. 10,000 Ω/V
B. 4,500 Ω/V
C. 9,000 Ω/V
D. 100 Ω/V
ANSWER: B
51. An ammeter has a full-scale deflection current of 100mA. If the same ammeter is used to
measure a full-scale current of 1.0 ampere, what is the value of the shunt resistor in
ohms if the voltage across the meter is 9.0 volts?
A. 9.0
B. 10
C. 900
D. 100
ANSWER: B
62. In indicating instruments, what will happen to the controlling torque if the deflection
becomes greater?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. drops to zero
ANSWER: A
63. The force(s) that is(are) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument as it rest on its
final deflected position. (Note: damping torque is 0).
A. controlling torque
B. deflecting torque
C. damping torque
D. A & B above
ANSWER: D
64. What is(are) the force(s) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument when it is in
motion?
A. controlling and deflecting torques
B. damping and deflecting torques
C. controlling and damping torques
D. controlling, damping, deflecting torques
ASNWER: D
68. In a moving coil ammeter, a _________ is connected in series with the soil to
compensate for temperature variations.
A. limiting resistor
B. shunt resistor
C. multiplier
D. swamping resistor
ANSWER: D
70. What is the meter that depends for its operation on the forces of attraction and repulsion
between electrically charged bodies?
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. D’Arsonval meter movement
ANSWER: B
71. What do you call of an instrument that depends for its operation on the reaction between
magnetic flux set up by currents in fixed windings and other currents set up by
electromagnetic induction in movable conducting parts?
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. D’Arsonval meter movement
ANSWER: A
72. A meter for its operation, it depends on a movable iron vane which aligns itself in the
resultant field of a permanent magnet and an adjacent current carrying coil.
A. induction instrument
B. electrostatic instrument
C. moving-magnet instrument
D. permanent-magnet moving coil-instrument
ANSWER: D
73. What is the measuring instrument that uses the force of repulsion between fixed and
movable magnetized iron vanes, or the force between a coil and a pivoted vane-shaped
piece of soft iron to move the indicating pointer?
A. pyrometer
B. vane-type instrument
C. electrostatic instrument
D. moving-magnet instrument
ANSWER: B
74. It’s an electrostatic voltmeter in which an assembly of figure – 8 – shaped metal plates
rotates between the plates of a stationary assembly when a voltage is applied between
the assemblies. The length of the arc of rotation is proportional to the electrostatic
attraction and thus, to the applied voltage.
A. varmeter
B. variometer
C. potentiometer
D. Kelvin voltmeter
ANSWER: D
75. What is that instrument used for measuring the strength and direction of magnetic fields?
A. varmeter
B. potentiometer
C. magnetometer
D. Kelvin voltmeter
ANSWER: C
76. What do you call of that instrument used for measuring reactive power in vars?
A. varmeter
B. pyrometer
C. reactive volt-ampere meter
D. A or C is correct
ANSWER: D
77. What is this instrument or circuit that has four or more arms, by means of which one or
more of the electrical constants of an unknown component may be measured?
A. bridge
B. Hazeltine circuit
C. Loftin – White circuit
D. D’Arsonval meter movement
ANSWER: A
78. A four-arm bridge. Al arms of which are predominantly resistive; used for measuring
resistance.
A. bridge
B. resistance bridge
C. Wheatstone bridge
D. B or C is correct
ANSWER: D
79. This is the method of using a Wheatstone bridge to determine the distance from the test
point to a fault in a telephone or telegraph line or cable.
A. Mesh
B. Varley loop
C. Batten system
D. Cordonnier system
ANSWER: B
80. This refers to a four-arm ac bridge used for measuring inductance against a standard
capacitance.
A. Maxwell bridge
B. slide-wire bridge
C. resistance bridge
D. Wheatstone bridge
ANSWER: A
81. Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the inductance and Q of an inductor in terms of
resistance, frequency and a standard capacitance.
A. Hay bridge
B. Maxwell bridge
C. slide-wire bridge
D. Wheatstone bridge
ANSWER: A
82. This is a special bridge for measuring very low resistance (0.1Ω or less). The
arrangement of the bridge reduces the effects of contact resistance, which causes
significant error when such low resistances are connected to conventional resistances
bridges.
A. Hay bridge
B. Maxwell bridge
C. Wheatstone bridge
D. Kelvin double bridge
ANSWER: D
83. A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in which the unknown capacitance is compared
with a standard capacitance. This bridge is frequently employed in testing electrolytic
capacitors, to which a dc polarizing voltage is applied during the measurement. What is
this bridge?
A. Hay bridge
B. Maxwell bridge
C. Schering bridge
D. Wheatstone bridge
ANSWER: C
84. What do you call of that frequency-sensitive bridge in which two adjacent arms are
resistances and the other two arms are RC combinations?
A. Hay bridge
B. Wein bridge
C. Maxwell bridge
D. Schering bridge
ANSWER: B
85. When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are replaced by inductors, the bridge becomes
A. Wein-bridge filter
B. variometer
C. Schering bridge
D. Wein inductance bridge
ANSWER: D
86. A simplified version of the Wheatstone bridge wherein, two of the ratio arms are
replaced by a 100 cm long Manganin of uniform cross-sections and provided with a
slider.
A. Hay bridge
B. Schering bridge
C. slide-wire bridge
D. Wein inductance bridge
ANSWER: C
87. Bridge used to measure both inductive and capacitive impedances at higher
frequencies.
A. Hay bridge
B. Schering bridge
C. Wein bridge
D. radio-frequency bridge
ANSWER: D
88. A bridge wherein all legs are electrically identical
A. balance bridge
B. balance circuit
C. balance line
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
90. What is an electronic instrument capable of showing on screen and maybe on print,
relative spacing of transmitter carriers, their sidebands and harmonics?
A. Counters
B. Spectrum analyzer
C. Triggered oscilloscope
D. Multimeter
ANSWER: B
94. An electronic measuring device that provide instantaneous visual indication of voltage
excursions.
A. voltmeter
B. power meter
C. oscilloscope
D. power line meter
ANSWER: C
96. Types of oscilloscopes that are able retain the display for a longer period for analysis.
The display is retained by the use of flood gun.
A. sampling oscilloscope
B. digital storage oscilloscope
C. storage oscilloscope
D. delayed sweep oscilloscope
ANSWER: C
97. What do call an oscilloscope that uses sampling technique in processing signals having
frequencies beyond its normal capabilities?
A. sampling oscilloscope
B. digital storage oscilloscope
C. storage oscilloscope
D. delayed sweep oscilloscope
ANSWER: A
99. A device or instrument, which delivers signals of pre3cise frequency and amplitude,
usually over a wide range.
A. synthesizer
B. frequency generators
C. signal generators
D. modulators
ANSWER: C
102. A device or instrument able to generate noise with accurate voltage for test purposes.
A. signal generator
B. synthesizer
C. frequency generator
D. noise generator
ANSWER: D
104. In RF or microwave system, what instrument is used to measure the incidental and
reflected signals.
A. oscilloscope
B. reflectometer
C. incident-wave meter
D. spectrum analyzer
ANSWER: B
107. A type of dip meter employing a vacuum tube oscillator, whose indicating dc
microammeter is in the grid circuit.
A. reflectometer
B. inclinometer
C. dip meter
D. Grid-dip meter
ANSWER: D
108. In meter movement, how do you prevent the meter from oscillation and overswing?
A. by shorting
B. by coupling
C. by swamping
D. by damping
ANSWER: D
110. A meter when _______ damped will become insensitive to small signals.
A. underdamped
B. overdamped
C. critically damped
D. negatively damped
ANSWER: B
1. One type of circuit control device which may be manual, automatic or multi-contact
A. fuse
B. breaker
C. switch
D. relay
ANSWER: B
7. An electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity and can
withstand overloads better.
A. Thyristors
B. ignitrons
C. SCR
D. triac
ANSWER: B
8. A semiconductor, electronic switch that has the highest single-device current rating
A. thyristor
B. triac
C. SCR
D. Quadric
ANSWER: C
9. The purpose of installing thyrectors across the incoming power lines to the speed control
system is to ___________
A. cause the motor to caution
B. protect drive circuits from high voltage transient surges
C. increase the counter emf
D. allow the field winding current to continue flowing
ANSWER: B
11. Using electronic devices as switches, what is(are) the general methods of controlling
electrical power?
A. phase control
B. zero-voltage switching
C. static switching
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
12. Which power control switching method that greatly generates RFI or EMI and is
therefore limited to low-frequency applications?
A. phase control
B. zero-voltage switching
C. inverter control
D. static switching
ANSWER: A
14. Which of the trigger diodes has the highest holding voltage?
A. bidirectional-trigger diac
B. bidirectional-diode-thyristor diac
C. Shockley diode
D. thyrector
ANSWER: A
15. General term of electronic devices used to control or trigger large-power switching
devices.
A. thyristor
B. thyrector
C. break-over devices
D. triggering devices
ANSWER: C
17. A four-element solid state device that combi9nes the characteristics of both diodes and
transistors
A. varactor
B. zener diode
C. tunnel diode
D. SCR
ANSWER: D
20. How do you stop conduction during which SCR is also conducting?
A. remove voltage gate
B. increase cathode voltage
C. interrupt anode current
D. reduce gate current
ANSWER: C
22. What is true about SCRs after they are being switched “ON”?
A. The anode (A) to cathode (K) continues to conduct even if the gate triggering
voltage is removed.
B. The gate (G) must be provided with the required holding current to continue its
conduction.
C. A small holding voltage at the gate is required for a continuous conduction.
D. B and C above
ANSWER: A
23. The voltage across the anode (A) and cathode (K) terminals of an SCR when
conducting.
A. holding voltage
B. breakdown voltage
C. breakback voltage
D. trigger voltage
ANSWER: A
24. The minimum amount of current needed for an SCR to conduct continuously.
A. holding current
B. triggering current
C. threshold current
D. average sustaining current
ANSWER: A
26. The voltage decreased across the anode (A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from non-
conducting state to conducting state.
A. holding voltage
B. forward breakdown voltage
C. triggering voltage
D. breakback voltage
ANSWER: D
27. An SCR rated 10 A is used as the controlling switch in a circuit powered by 50Vdc.
When the SCR fires ON, its anode (A) to cathode (K) voltage was observed to be 2 V.
Calculate the breakback voltage of the SCR.
A. 25 Vdc
B. 32 Vdc
C. 41 Vdc
D. 48 Vdc
ANSWER: D
28. The needed voltage at the gate of an SCR before it conducts.
A. minimum-gate trigger voltage
B. maximum-gate trigger voltage
C. minimum-gate peak-inverse voltage
D. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage
ANSWER: A
31. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling are examples of external cooling in
SCRs and other devices. Which of these is the only recommended to be used for the
largest power dissipating device?
A. metal heat sinks
B. forced air
C. water cooling
D. A and B above
ANSWER: C
33. In connecting two SCRs in series, during “OFF” state, the voltage source must be
properly shared between them, but due to devices’ differences, there might be unequal
voltages across each SCR. How do we equalize these voltages?
A. by installing a snubber circuit
B. by adding a gate-to-cathode resistor
C. by shunting a capacitor across the anode (A) and cathode (K) of each SCR
D. by using a blocking-equalizing resistor
ANSWER: D
35. A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of SCRs in
series.
A. snubber circuit
B. crow-bar
C. clipper
D. clamper
ANSWER: A
36. When a high current is needed, SCRs are connected in parallel. The problem with
paralleled SCRs is, when they are not perfectly matched, one will conduct first before the
other and carries the full-load current that is for sure greater than its maximum rating. To
avoid this situation, both SCRs should be turned ON at the same time. How can we do
this?
A. by using high triggering gate voltage
B. by using a gate-triggering transformer
C. by using reactors
D. all of the above are possible
ANSWER: D
37. In controlling electrical power using phase control method with SCR/triac being the
active device, what do we call the period of the cycle before the device switches to
conduction?
A. trigger time
B. trigger delay time
C. firing frequency
D. firing delay angle
ANSWER: D
38. How many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it is operated in
a full-wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz?
A. 30 times
B. 60 times (HV)
C. 90 times
D. 120 times (FW)
ANSWER: D
39. A three terminal device that behaves roughly like SCR, except that it can conduct current
in either direction when at ON.
A. thyristor
B. SUS
C. SBS
D. GTO
ANSWER: C
40. What is the difference between a triac and a silicon bilateral switch (SBS)?
A. An SBS is usually used as breakover device, while a triac is a load controlling
device.
B. An SBS is for low voltage applications, while a triac is generally for high voltage
applications.
C. An SBS has better and stable symmetrical-firing voltage than a triac.
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
44. A silicon bilateral switch may be considered as s small power triac, and has three
terminals namely,
A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate (G)
B. mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2 (MT2), and gate (G)
C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G)
D. both A and B are acceptable
ANSWER: D
45. A thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except that it has low voltage and current
ratings. It is very temperature stable, and is therefore suitable to be used as triggering
device.
A. UJT
B. GTO
C. SBS
D. SUS
ANSWER: D
46. Silicon unilateral switches (SUSs) generally have a breakover voltage of 8 V, however,
this value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode. How is the diode
installed?
A. across the gate (G) and cathode (K) terminals, with the diode’s anode at the gate
B. anode to anode, cathode to cathode
C. diode’s cathode to SUS’s anode and diode’s anode to SUS’s cathode
D. diode’s cathode to SUS’s gate and diode’s anode to SUS’s cathode
ANSWER: D
47. A silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward breakover voltage of 8 V. a zener diode is
connected between its gate and cathode terminals with the diode’s cathode at SUS’s
gate. If the zener voltage is 3.9 V, what is the new forward breakover voltage of the
device?
A. 0.49 V
B. 2.05 V
C. 4.50 V
D. 11.9 V
ANSWER: C
48. Thyristor whose characteristic curve closely resembles that of SCR’s and SUS’s, except
that its forward breakover voltage (+VBO) is not alterable, for the device has no gate
terminal.
A. diac
B. thyrector
C. UJT
D. Shockley diode
ANSWER: D
49. What will happen to the forward breakdown or breakover voltage of SCRs and triacs if
the gate current is increased?
A. will decrease
B. will also increase
C. will not change
D. will either increase or decrease, it depends on their current coefficient
ANSWER: A
50. A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three terminal breakover-type switching device. Its
three terminals are called base 1, base 2, and emitter. Though this is a transistor and
has base and emitter terminals, this operates very different from a BJT and is not used
as a linear amplifier. Its applications are for
A. timers and oscillators
B. signal generators
C. triggering control for SCRs and triacs
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
51. A UJT has an internal resistances of RB1 = 6 KΩ and RB2 = 3 KΩ, what is its interbase
resistance?
A. 2 KΩ
B. 3 KΩ
C. 6 KΩ
D. 9 KΩ
ANSWER: D
53. Semiconductor devices with inherent ON-OFF behavior and has no linear operating
regions are called thryistors. Examples are SCRs, triacs, SUSs, SBSs, Shockley diodes,
diacs, PUTs, and SCSs. In selecting thyristors for a particular application, which of the
statement below is generally desirable?
A. thyristors with high current and voltage ratings
B. thyristors with high holding current/voltage
C. faster thyristors
D. thyristors with high breakback-voltage
ANSWER: D
55. Portion in the welding process interval during which the welding current is flowing is
called ____________.
A. cool sub-interval
B. released interval
C. squeeze interval
D. heat sub-interval
ANSWER: D
56. In automatic welding system, basically there are how many intervals?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
ANSWER: B
57. In automatic welding what do you call the first interval wherein the material to be welded
are held together?
A. squeeze interval
B. weld interval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: A
58. After the squeeze interval, what comes next in an automatic welding system?
A. squeeze interval
B. weld interval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: B
59. During the welding or weld interval, when a welding current is flowing the system is said
to be at
A. weld interval
B. cool subinterval
C. heat subinterval
D. hold interval
ANSWER: C
60. The portion of the weld interval during which the current is absent
A. cool subinterval
B. heat subinterval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: A
61. After the welding interval, it goes to _________ interval wherein the electrode pressure
is maintained on the metal surfaces.
A. cool subinterval
B. heat subinterval
C. hold interval
D. standby interval
ANSWER: C
63. After the release interval in automatic welding, the system will go to
A. cool interval
B. squeeze interval
C. standby interval
D. hold interval
ANSWER: C
64. Refers to the system that has no feedback and is not self correcting
A. Close-loop system
B. Coal slurry system
C. Feed forward control system
D. Open-loop system
ANSWER: D
65. The system is ____________ if a position servo system does not respond to small
changes in the input.
A. under stabilized
B. underdamped
C. stabilized
D. overdamped
ANSWER: D
66. What is the purpose of using a differential synchro instead of a regular synchro?
A. Handles more signals only
B. Performs addition and subtraction function only
C. Differential synchros can handle more signals and also performs addition and
subtraction function
D. Handles two signals only
ANSWER: C
72. In closed-loop system, what do you call the difference in the measured value and the set
value or desired value?
A. error
B. differential voltage
C. potential difference
D. threshold
ANSWER: A
73. Error signal in closed-system is also known as
A. difference signal
B. deviation
C. system deviation
D. all are correct
ANSWER: D
74. In a closed-loop control system, when the error signal is zero the system is at
A. null
B. saturation
C. cut-off
D. halt
ANSWER: A
75. The small error signal or system deviation where the system cannot correct anymore
A. threshold
B. holding
C. offset
D. bias
ANSWER; C
77. In control system, the manner in which the controller reacts to an error is termed as
A. mode of operation
B. type of operation
C. mode of control
D. reaction style
ANSWER: C
78. What are the general basic modes of control in control system?
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: D
79. Mode of control wherein the controller has only two operating states. This mode is also
known as bang-bang control.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: A
80. ____________ is a mode of control wherein the controller has a continuous range of
possible position, not just two as in bang-bang control.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: B
81. Proportional mode of control wherein the controller is not only considering the magnitude
of the error signal but as well as the time that is has persisted.
A. On-Off
B. Proportional
C. Proportional plus integral *
D. Proportional plus derivative
ANSWER: C
82. Proportional mode of control wherein the controller is not only considering the magnitude
of the error signal but as well as its rate of change.
A. Proportional
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus derivative *
D. Proportional plus integral plus derivative
ANSWER: C
83. What is (are) being considered in Proportional plus Integral plus Derivative (PID) mode
of control?
A. error signal magnitude
B. error signal period of occurrence
C. error signal rate of change
D. all are considered *
ANSWER: D
84. If On-Off mode of control is the simplest, what is its opposite or the most complex?
A. Proportional
B. Proportional plus integral
C. Proportional plus derivative
D. Proportional plus integral plus derivative *
ANSWER: D
85. The __________ are two of the most common mechanical configuration of industrial
robots.
A. Spherical and pneumatic
B. Articulated arm and cylindrical *
C. Spherical and hydraulic
D. Jointed-arm and electric
ANSWER: B
87. ____________ includes tow of the actuator type used in industrial robots.
A. Pneumatic and Jointed-arm
B. Hydraulic and Pneumatic
C. Electric and Spherical
D. Hydraulic and Cylindrical
ANSWER: B
88. A system in which the precise movement of a large load is controlled by a relatively
weak signal.
A. hydraulic
B. electro
C. synchro
D. servo
ANSWER: D
91. What is(are) the common mechanical configurations for industrial robots?
A. articulated-arm or jointed-arm
B. spherical configuration
C. cylindrical configuration
D. all of these
ANSWER: D
94. Which of the actuators that has the greatest force capability?
A. electric
B. hydraulic fluid
C. pneumatic
D. magnetic
ANSWER: B
103. A robot software or program that produces only two-position motion for a given robot
axis.
A. positive-stop
B. point-to-point
C. continuous-path
D. hard interrupt
ANSWER: A
104. A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within the range but
without specific path.
A. positive-stop program
B. point-to-point program
C. continuous path program
D. compound program
ANSWER: B
105. A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within the range with
specific path.
A. positive-stop program
B. point-to-point program
C. continuous path program
D. compound program
ANSWER: C
106. When a robot moves on several axis at the same time, it is to have
A. intrinsic motion
B. extrinsic motion
C. compound motion
D. universal motion
ANSWER: C
2. Built a computer in 1946 at the Institute of Advance Study (IAS), Princeton, USA, that
uses binary numbers and stores information.
A. Vannevar Bush
B. John Van Neumann
C. John Atannasoff
D. Clifford Berry
ANSWER: B
11. Refers to the increased use of data conversion circuits as a result of increased
application.
A. Op Amps
B. Linear circuit
C. Computers
D. Digital equipment
ANSWER: C
12. What is a group of circuits that provides timing and signals to all operations in the
computer?
A. Output unit
B. Memory unit
C. Control unit
D. Input unit
ANSWER: C
14. What does ALU which carries arithmetic and logic operations process?
A. Binary coded decimal
B. Hexadecimal numbers
C. Octal numbers
D. Binary numbers
ANSWER: D
17. Electronics methodology in solving application problems using circuits, in which there
are only two possible voltage levels.
A. digital electronics
B. switching techniques
C. state diagramming
D. bistable electronics
ANSWER: A
18. In digital electronics, there are mainly two possible voltage levels and these make _____
number system to be useful in its analysis.
A. binary
B. octal
C. hexadecimal
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
19. 1 and 0 in binary number system are used to represent the two different voltage levels or
logic levels in digital circuits. However, in most applications, a long string of 1’s and 0’s
occur, and makes the data presentation “nasty”. To condense this long string of 1’s and
0’s, the ___________ number system is (are) also used.
A. octal
B. decimal
C. hexadecimal
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
20. How many symbols are used in octal digital number system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 2
ANSWER: C
21. How many symbols does hexadecimal digital number system used?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
ANSWER: A
28. Conversion from binary to octal number system needs a grouping of bits by
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: B
31. The most practical way of converting hexadecimal numbers to binary is to give each
number its _________ equivalent bits.
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: C
36. What is the difference between the given binary numbers, 110.1101 and 11.01?
A. 110.0000
B. 111.1010
C. 11.1010
D. 11.1001
ANSWER: D
39. Mathematics used in expressing, analyzing, and designing of digital electronic circuits.
A. Boolean algebra
B. Numerical methods
C. Statistical approach
D. Logical mathematics
ANSWER: A
41. Karnaugh map is the most commonly used method in simplifying Boolean expression or
logical functions. In this method only 1’s and 0’s are entered into the table, while
________ includes variables into the table.
A. Boolean algebra
B. Map-entered variable technique
C. Superposition method
D. Quine-McCluskey tabular method
ANSWER: B
42. A suitable method in simplifying Boolean expression when the system deals with more
than six variables.
A. Boolean algebra
B. Karnaugh map
C. Map-entered variable technique
D. Quine-McCluskey tabular method
ANSWER: D
44. What level is used to represent logic “0” in a negative logic circuit?
A. high level
B. low level
C. negative transition level
D. positive transition level
ANSWER: A
45. _________ is a gate which has two or more low inputs signals to get a low output.
A. AND
B. Inverter
C. OR
D. NAND
ANSWER: C
46. What is the logic circuit having two or more inputs but only output, with high output of
any or all inputs are high, with low output only if all inputs are low?
A. AND gate
B. OR gate
C. NOR gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: B
47. A logic gate whose output is HIGH when a single HIGH at its input is present.
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: A
48. An output of logic zero can be generated by what logic gate(s) if all inputs are zero?
A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NOR gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: A
49. Logic gate that generates an output of logic zero if and only if all inputs are zero.
A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NOR gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: A
50. A solid state device which only gives a “1” output if all inputs are also “1” is called
A. an AND gate
B. a NAND gate
C. a NOR gate
D. an OR gate
ANSWER: A
51. Only when all inputs are logic one that this gate can delver an output of logic one.
A. NOR gate
B. AND gate
C. NAND gate
D. XOR gate
ANSWER: B
52. A solid state logical device which only gives a “1” output if all inputs are “0” is called a
_________ gate.
A. NOT
B. NOR
C. NAND
D. OR
ANSWER: B
53. To cause a three-state buffer to output 0-1 levels, the following must be true:
A. The output enable must be false
B. The output enable must be true
C. The information must have been stored in the buffer
D. The signal OE must be at logic 1
ANSWER: D
54. The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you that the logic node being probe
A. Has rapidly changing logic activity
B. Is struck
C. Is at an illegal logic level
D. Has an unstable logic activity
ANSWER: A
58. What logic circuit is analogous to a single pole mechanical selector switch?
A. Decoder
B. Encoder
C. Multiplexer
D. Exclusive OR
ANSWER: C
60. _____________ is called the time sharing of one line with multiplex signals.
A. Simultaneous transmission
B. Bi-directional
C. Relay
D. Multiplexing
ANSWER: D
64. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be
A. Resistive
B. Current
C. Capacitive
D. Static charge
ANSWER: C
65. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as ___________.
A. Logic levels
B. Noise margin
C. Power consumption
D. Propagation delay
ANSWER: B
69. What is the process of converting multiple analog input signals sequentially to digital
output?
A. Time division multiplexing
B. Analog to digital conversion
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Pulse code modulation
ANSWER: A
70. What do you call a circuit that changes pure binary code into ASCII?
A. Decoder
B. Encoder
C. Demultiplexer
D. Code converter
ANSWER: D
73. Logic gate whose output is HIGH when one or all of its inputs is LOW.
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: D
74. What logic gate that generates an output of logic zero (LOW) only when all its inputs are
logic one (HIGH)?
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
ANSWER: D
75. Only when all inputs are LOW thus, this logic gate produces an output of HIGH.
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. AND gate
D. NOR and NAND
ANSWER: A
76. A logic gate whose output is logic zero every time one of its inputs goes to logic one.
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. XOR gate
D. A and C
ANSWER: A
77. Gate with HIGH output level every time one of its inputs goes LOW.
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. XNOR gate
D. B and C
ANSWER: B
78. What logic gate that gives an output of logic one if there is an odd number of 1’s at the
input?
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. XOR gate
D. XNOR gate
ANSWER: C
79. Logic gate that gives a HIGH output when the input has an even number of 1’s.
A. NOR
B. NAND
C. XOR
D. XNOR
ANSWER: D
80. A circuit that converts the input logic level to its complement.
A. Inverter
B. NOR gate with all inputs tied
C. NAND gate with all inputs tied
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
81. If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an ___________ should be used.
A. Inverter
B. Amplifier
C. Buffer
D. Isolator
ANSWER: C
82. A buffer multiplies the number of gates a certain output can drive, and this can also be
used as a/an
A. Voltage follower
B. Current amplifier
C. Isolator
D. All of the above are correct
ANSWER: D
84. A logic gate that can be wired to function like any other gate.
A. International gate
B. Flexible gate
C. Variable gate
D. Universal gate
ANSWER: D
89. Which of the following is the probable output if all inputs of a TTL gate are binary 1?
A. Determinable
B. Binary 0
C. Binary 1
D. Indeterminate
ANSWER: B
90. Logic devices are broadly divided or categorized into two families, bipolar and MOS.
What are the examples of bipolar?
A. RTL and DTL
B. IIL and ECL
C. TTL and HLDTL
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
91. CMOS, NMOS, and PMOS belong to MOS family, what is (are) the significance of these
devices?
A. They have lower power dissipation than bipolar devices
B. They are generally slower than bipolar devices
C. They are most sensitive to electrostatic
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
92. Refers to the ability of logic circuit it withstand noise superimposed on its input signal.
A. LOW noise immunity
B. HIGH noise immunity
C. Noise immunity
D. Noise figure
ANSWER: C
93. The number of logic gates of the same family that can be connected to the input of a
particular gate without degrading the circuit performance.
A. Fan-in
B. Fan-out
C. Input-drive
D. Input noise immunity
ANSWER: A
94. Refers to the number of logic gate of the same family that can be driven by a single
output of a particular logic gate.
A. Output drive
B. Output noise margin
C. Fan-in
D. Fan-out
ANSWER: D
95. A bipolar logic family that uses resistors as its input circuit.
A. RTL
B. DTL
C. ECL
D. TTL
ANSWER: A
96. Logic family that uses diodes and transistors as its circuit elements. This logic family is
more resistant to noise than RTL.
A. DTL
B. TTL
C. ECL
D. I2L or IIL
ANSWER: A
97. A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25 V, and are generally used in industry
where machinery causes electrical noise and large power line transients to occur.
A. HLDTL
B. 74HXX
C. NMOS
D. CMOS
ANSWER: A
102. Of all bipolar logic families, TTL is widely used. What do you think is (are) the reason(s)
why?
A. Its speed is just enough for most applications
B. Its power consumption/dissipation is manageable
C. It has a good noise immunity
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
109. In digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, what output configuration is used if they are
intended for “busing”?
A. Totem-pole
B. Tri-state output
C. Complementary
D. Open-collector
ANSWER: B
111. In TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a high-input impedance at both logic states
(HIGH and LOW state)?
A. MET
B. Input with kicker transistor
C. Diode cluster input
D. Substrate PNP input
ANSWER: D
112. What is the purpose of the internal clamping diodes at the input of a logic circuit?
A. To minimize negative ringing effects
B. To minimize positive ringing effects
C. To regulate the input signal
D. To protect reverse-polarity connection
ANSWER: A
113. In TTL ICs with more than one gate available, sometimes not all gates are used. How ill
you handle these unused gates?
A. Force the output to go LOW
B. Force the output to go HIGH
C. Provide pull-down resistors to all inputs
D. Provide all inputs with pull-up resistors
ANSWER: B
114. How ill you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/ logic IC?
A. Leave them floating
B. Pull them down
C. Pull them up
D. Pull them down or up, depending on circuit function
ANSWER: D
115. What is the memory element used in clocked sequential logic circuit?
A. Gates
B. Flip-flop
C. Static-RAM
D. Read-only memory
ANSWER: B
117. What is the reason why more cells can be stored in a given area with dynamic cells?
A. They consume less power
B. They are similar
C. They are larger
D. They travel faster
ANSWER: B
118. A ______________ is a solid state memory device, which depends on the magnetic
polarization of domains, usually in a garnet type material.
A. Magnetic disk
B. Magnetic core
C. Magnetic bubble
D. Magnetic drum
ANSWER: C
121. A memory circuit that has 9 address inputs has how many storage locations?
A. 1024
B. 256
C. 512
D. Not determined by sets of input
ANSWER: C
126. What is the higher voltage level in digital gates and flip-flop circuits?
A. Yes or One
B. One or Zero
C. Zero or No
D. Yes or No
ANSWER: A
130. ___________ is a segment register which normalcy access variables in the program.
A. Extra
B. Stack
C. Data
D. Code
ANSWER: B
132. _____________ is a device that stay on once triggered and store one or two conditions
as a digital circuit.
A. Gate
B. Latch
C. Integrator
D. Oscillator
ANSWER: B
135. ____________ is a kind of memory where only manufacture can store program and has
s group of memory locations each permanently storing a word.
A. ROM
B. SOS memory
C. RAM
D. Hard memory
ANSWER: A
136. In shift registers made up of several flip-flops, the clock signal indicates ________.
A. A bit of information stored in flip-flop
B. Information of time
C. What time is it
D. When to shift a bit of data from input of the flip-flop to the output
ANSWER: D
137. What do you call the duration within it takes to read the content of a memory location
after it has been addressed?
A. Execution time
B. Data rate
C. Cycle time
D. Access time
ANSWER: D
139. ___________ is called a memory device which holds fixed set of data in a circuit.
A. RAM
B. Register
C. Logic
D. ROM
ANSWER: D
141. ___________ refers to a circuit that stores pulses and produces an output pulse when
specified numbers of pulses are stored.
A. Counter
B. Register
C. Flip-flop
D. Buffer
ANSWER: A
144. An RS flip-flop constructed from NOR-gates would have an undefined output when the
inputs R/S combinations are
A. LOW / LOW
B. LOW / HIGH
C. HIGH / LOW
D. HIGH / HIGH
ANSWER: D
145. When a flip-flop is constructed from two NAND-gates, its output will be undefined if the
R/S inputs are
A. LOW / LOW
B. LOW / HIGH
C. HIGH / LOW
D. HIGH / HIGH
ANSWER: A
146. A flip-flop whose output is always the same as its input. This is sometimes used as delay
element.
A. RS flip-flop
B. D flip-flop
C. T flip-flop
D. JK flip-flop
ANSWER: B
147. Flip-flop that changes state every time the input is triggered.
A. RS flip-flop
B. Master slave flip-flop
C. T flip-flop
D. JK flip-flop
ANSWER: C
148. Flip-flop arrangement, such that the first receives its input on the positive edge of a clock
pulse, and the other receives its input from the output of the first during the negative
edge of the same pulse.
A. Clocked RS flip-flop
B. Clocked JK flip-flop
C. Cascaded flip-flop
D. Master/slave flip-flop
ANSWER: D
149. Combination of flip-flop, arranged so that they can be triggered at the same time.
A. Clocked flip-flop
B. Delayed flip-flop
C. Sequential flip-flop
D. Asynchronous flip-flop
ANSWER: A
150. A flip-flop without an undefined output state condition whatever the input combination is
A. JK flip-flop
B. T flip-flop
C. D flip-flop
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
153. Memory whose contents are lost when, electrical power is removed.
A. Nonvolatile
B. Temporary
C. Dynamic
D. Volatile
ANSWER: D
155. Type of memory wherein the data are permanently stored. Usually the storing of data is
done during manufacturing of the component.
A. ROM
B. PROM
C. EPROM
D. EEPROM
ANSWER: A
156. A semiconductor memory device in which data can be stored after fabrications.
A. PROM
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
157. A type of ROM that allows data to be written into the device by a programmer. After it
has been programmed it cannot be reprogrammed again.
A. PROM
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. A and B above
ANSWER: A
158. What memory device that can be programmed, and reprogrammed after the old
programs are erased usually by an ultraviolet light?
A. EEPROM
B. EPROM
C. RPROM
D. B and C
ANSWER: D
159. A variation of PROM, wherein its stored data can be erased by electrical signal instead
of ultraviolet light.
A. EEPROM
B. Dynamic ROM
C. RAM
D. EEPROM and dynamic RAM
ANSWER: A
162. Semiconductor-based, volatile data storage device that can be written and read
randomly.
A. RAM
B. PROM
C. EPROM
D. EEPROM
ANSWER: A
164. Dynamic RAM (DRAM) uses capacitor as its data storage element, while static RAM
(SRAM) uses what?
A. Inductor
B. Magnet
C. Register
D. Flip-flop
ANSWER: D
165. Type of memory that is formed by a series of magnetic bubbles at the substrate.
A. Magnetic disk
B. Bubble sort
C. Bubble chart
D. Bubble memory
ANSWER: D
169. Register wherein data can be serially inputted, while the output can be retrieved in
parallel manner.
A. Serial to parallel register
B. Parallel storage
C. Parallel to serial register
D. Serial register
ANSWER: A
170. Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose internal connections of logic arrays
can be programmed by passing high current through fusible links.
A. PLA
B. PAL
C. APL
D. A and B
ANSWER: D
171. What is the difference between a read only memory (ROM) and a programmable logic
array (PLA)?
A. All input combinations of a ROM produce an output, while in a PLA, some input
combinations do not affect the output.
B. Only the OR-functions in a ROM are programmable, whereas in a PLA, both OR
and AND-functions are programmable.
C. In ROM, all the possible states must be programmed, while not all for a PLA.
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
172. The difference between a programmable logic array (PLA) and a programmable array
logic (PAL) is that,
A. With PLA, only OR-gates are programmable, whereas both OR and AND gates
are programmable in PAL
B. With PLA, both OR and AND-gates are programmable, while in PAL only OR-
gate is programmable
C. With PLA, both OR and AND-gates are programmable, while in PAL, only AND-
gate is programmable
D. Only AND-gate is programmable with PLA, whereas both OR and AND-gates are
programmable for PAL
ANSWER: C
173. A circuit used for selecting a single output from multiple inputs.
A. Universal logic module (ULM)
B. Demultiplexer
C. Tri-state
D. Logic array
ANSWER: A
174. Another name for universal logic module (ULM)
A. Multiplexer
B. Decoder
C. Coder
D. Shift register
ANSWER: A
175. A device/circuit used to separate two or more signals from one line.
A. Decoder
B. Demodulation
C. Demodifier
D. Demultiplexer
ANSWER: D
176. An electronic counter in which bistable units are cascaded to form a loop.
A. Ring counter
B. Twisted ring counter
C. UP/DOWN counter
D. Bistable counter
ANSWER: A
177. What is formed when the complemented output of the last stage of a shift register is fed
back to the input of the first stage?
A. Ring counter
B. Twisted ring counter
C. Decade counter
D. UP/DOWN counter
ANSWER: B
178. A digital circuit that produces logic 1 output pulse for every 10 input pulses.
A. Decade scaler
B. Divider
C. Chopper
D. Multiplexer
ANSWER: A
180. The technical term used when signals are converted from analog-to-digital.
A. Digitize
B. Quantize
C. Coded
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
181. ________________ is a sequence of instructions that tells the computer machine on
how available data shall be processed.
A. Program
B. RAM
C. Command
D. Flowchart
ANSWER: A
182. Diagram showing procedures that are followed, and actions taken is called
A. Functional block diagram
B. Circuit diagram
C. Flow chart
D. Schematic diagram
ANSWER: C
183. What is the medium of communication with a computer where programs are written in
mnemonics?
A. Assembly language
B. High level language
C. Machine language
D. Low-level language
ANSWER: C
184. A _________ a program which converts instruction written in a source language into
machine code, which can be read and acted upon by the computer.
A. Source code
B. Assembler
C. Application software
D. Compiler
ANSWER: B
185. A detailed step by step set of direction telling a computer exactly how to proceed to
solve a specific problem or process as specific task.
A. Sequence
B. Flow chart
C. Computer program
D. Process
ANSWER: C
186. What is a program that translated English-like word of high-level language into the
machine language of a computer?
A. Compiler
B. Assembler
C. Monitor program
D. Interpreter
ANSWER: A
187. ___________ is a software that converts a high level language program into machine or
assembly language program.
A. ALU
B. Cross-assembler
C. Compiler
D. CPU
ANSWER: C
189. _____________ refers to a program that translates and then immediately executes
statements in a high level language.
A. Interpreter
B. Synchronous
C. Interface
D. Operating system
ANSWER: A
191. A very high-dense and probably the most versatile integrated circuit used in digital
electronics. It is known to function as the central processing unit of most computer
applications.
A. Microcomputer
B. Micro-integrated
C. Macro-integrated
D. Microprocessor
ANSWER: D
193. A logic/digital circuit that generates an output code for every input signal.
A. Enhancer
B. Compressor
C. Encoder
D. Decoder
ANSWER: C
194. What code that gives each digit of a decimal number with a corresponding binary
equivalent?
A. Binary code
B. Gray code
C. ASCII
D. Binary coded decimal
ANSWER: D
199. An instruction that can move data from memory to the accumulator.
A. FETCH
B. MOVE
C. ACC
D. LOAD
ANSWER: D
203. Refers to a condition wherein the result of an arithmetic operation is more negative than
the capacity of the output register.
A. Error
B. Negative infinite
C. Overflow
D. Underflow
ANSWER: D
204. Refers to a condition wherein the result of an arithmetic operation is more than the
capacity of the output register.
A. Error
B. Infinite
C. Overflow
D. Underflow
ANSWER: C
206. The first generation language of instruction, and is considered as the most primitive
instruction that can be given to a computer.
A. Machine language
B. Assembly language
C. COBOL
D. 4GL
ANSWER: A
213. A source program can run in computer only after translation into a machine code by a
compiler. This machine code is referred as the
A. Source program
B. Object program
C. Interpreter
D. Mnemonic
ANSWER: B
214. A program that can read a source program in high-level language, translates, and
executes the statement in one operation.
A. Mnemonic
B. Object program
C. Interpreter
D. Assembler
ANSWER: C
215. A sequence of instructions or statements designed to tell the computer how to carry out
a particular processing task.
A. Software
B. Hardware
C. Assembler
D. Program
ANSWER: D
217. Refers to digital interface in which data characteristics are individually synchronized and
may be sent at a time.
A. Half-duplex
B. Asynchronous
C. Synchronous
D. Simplex
ANSWER: B
218. A network facility used to connect individual similar network segments forming a larger
extended network is called _________.
A. Routers
B. Relays
C. Repeaters
D. Bridges
ANSWER: C
219. What is the circuit that detects bit error in binary characters?
A. Decoder
B. Parity detector
C. Server
D. Comparator
ANSWER: B
220. A device that enables users to transmit computer data and fax messages along
telephone lines
A. Converter
B. Facsimile
C. Demodulator
D. Modem
ANSWER: D
221. What do you call the devices that allow computers to communicate with other computers
through telephone lines or radio frequency?
A. Modems
B. Disk
C. Mouse
D. Super computers
ANSWER: A
226. A network classification that is usually built and owned by a single company or
governmental organization.
A. Private data network
B. Public data network
C. Switched network
D. Node
ANSWER: A
229. A computer network configuration that makes the host computer manages a network of
dependent terminals.
A. Hierarchical network
B. Peer-to-peer network
C. Local Area Network
D. Wide Area Network
ANSWER: A
230. A network switching that creates a dedicated temporary connection between computers
in a network.
A. Circuit switching
B. Message switching
C. Packet switching
D. Virtual switching
ANSWER: A
231. The component that provides control or supporting services for other computers,
terminals, or devices in a network.
A. Host
B. Communications controller
C. Cluster controller
D. Interface equipment
ANSWER: A
232. It is a type of computer networking technology that is used to connect computers that are
located within the same room, building, or complex.
A. Internet
B. Intranet
C. Local area network
D. Wide area network
ANSWER: C
233. It is a fast computer with a large amount of secondary storage, to which all of the other
computers in a network have access for data storage and retrieval.
A. Mainframe
B. Maincomputer
C. File server
D. Workstation
ANSWER: C
234. It is also known as cooperative processing that involve using two or more networked
computers to perform an application task.
A. Client computing
B. Server computing
C. Distributed processing
D. Client/server computing
ANSWER: D
235. A type of server that allows multiple users to take advantage of a single printing device.
A. Printer server
B. Client server
C. Network server
D. File server
ANSWER: A
236. This topology is the most efficient centralized network for a small company
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Tree
D. Star
ANSWER: D
237. It is the other term that is used to refer to a central device into which each node of a star
network is directly connected.
A. Hub
B. Central pointer
C. Router
D. Repeater
ANSWER: A
238. It is simply the term that is used to refer to an I/O device that relies entirely on the host
computer for processing.
A. Keyboard
B. Terminal
C. Monitor
D. Mouse
ANSWER: B
239. Workstations in a star network that can operate without storage devices.
A. Diskless
B. Wireless
C. Disked
D. Wired
ANSWER: A
240. A ___________ network requires that message travel around the ring to nthe desired
destination.
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Tree
D. Ring
ANSWER: D
241. Networks that transmit data across town using electromagnetic signals are called
____________.
A. LANs
B. WANs
C. MANs
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
242. The process of choosing a terminal on a network to receive data is called _______.
A. Polling
B. Selection
C. Contention
D. Option
ANSWER: B
246. It is term that is used to describe the conventions of how network components
communicate with each other.
A. Network model
B. Network layer
C. Network topology
D. Network protocol
ANSWER: D
247. It is term that is used to describe the form or the shape of a network.
A. Network model
B. Network layer
C. Network topology
D. Network protocol
ANSWER: C
248. __________ is the process of asking each remote terminal, one at a time, if it has data
to send.
A. Polling
B. Selection
C. Contention
D. Option
ANSWER: A
249. __________ network topology has more than one level of host computer.
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Hierarchical
D. Ring
ANSWER: C
250. It describes its System Services Control Point (SSCP), Logical Units (LU), and Physical
Units (PU) as network addressable units.
A. Internetworking
B. Digital network architecture
C. Open system interconnection
D. Systems network architecture
ANSWER: D
253. Network topology, where stations are connected to a concentric ring through a ring
interface unit (RIU).
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Token Ring
D. Tree
ANSWER: C
254. A _________ will decide which route the message or messages should follow through
the network.
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
ANSWER: A
256. Similar to a bridge, which connects networks at different sites, it connects networks with
different protocols.
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Gateway
D. Repeater
ANSWER: C