Set No. 2 SET/17/20/XI(M)/(2) Test Booklet No. : 43971 SCHOOL ENTRANCE TEST, 2017 CLASS - XI (For Mathematics Group) [ To be filled up by the Candidate ] Roll No. {in figures)! Signature of the Candidate Roll No, {in words) ... Serial No. of Answer Sheet ...... SEAL Day and Date of the Test ... Signature of the Invigilator INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 1. The Question-booklet contains 100 objective type questions. The candidates must attempt all the questions. There is no negative marking, Ba astute 100 aryfre ey RA TB) path at ah wet a aca Bi TAT GUE AF OR tas aT BPP 2. No Second Question-bhooklet OR Answer Sheet will be given to the candidate under any circumstances whatsoever. Pt Pt ORRake % where wt zat mreagferer seat areeT wel fear onetary 3. The candidate within 10 minutes of the issue of Question-booklet, will check up and ensure that it contains all the pages and no page is missing. In case of missing page(s), the candidate should report to the Invigilator and get it changed other for a complete Question-bookiet. Ret-ghever Fret & 10 Pre a sae torent ome Bt Ter aM Re ae 3eL ST 3 wel oo di mY che aR ge wer El Bl af finch overt A oy Re Oa ete, TOR see Fehr at fer met aed she og Re gRReraT & wea Gh TPE sre sftcar fr MAG LAT ere10. i. 12. The candidate will write Roll Number only on the Cover Page and on the Answer Sheet of the Question-hooklet at the places provided for the purpose and nowhere else, otherwise the candidate will be disqualified in the Entrance Test. sel wv gitear & amcor ger ae ote ser 9a & Peer wary oe Gt aro opps fra, ser oe soem staf sey ate & afer we Re TET Do not write your Roll No. OR Name inside the Question-booklet. wer GR B SRT OTT ATT sea STRATE T Free There shall be no erasing or overwriting in the answers given on the Answer Sheet, in which case such answers shal! be deemed as incorrect. Sart oa ae fe a® Sees ae a fee a det fret ar sore aif wea are, Rafe teh feyia a afeiea sat al arene ArT rar sneer) Use of log tables or calculators is not permitted. “eprretta arth a aferst oad at oTgHih ver F1 No candidate will be permitted to enter the Examination Hall after the expiry of 30 minutes from the commencement of the Entrance Test. rar ore AB 30 five & are Peet fh wher at veer sor A meer St rgatet a & rh) No candidate wilt be permitted to leave the Examination Hail until the expiry of two hours from the commencement of the Entrance Test, clio sreesr at B a ever ace ad oe a vei are BP veer wer aE TF aT Tpit BPP Y Candidate will not bring any loose paper, whether written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card qherd! Go awe seca & offehert wher rr Fore fea A ace sr Ter aT serag ares oa A args adi 1 Candidates using any kind of unfair means OR attempting to cause disturbances in the Examination Hall shall be liable to be expelied from the Examijation and his/her performance in the Test will be cancelled 3 aarst Sane orafeer er ster oe ge near rhe wee, A TET aA GE TL ara, ae Ther Pret Fe & art Candidawes arc required to deposit the only OMR Answer Sheet at the close of the Examinauon. afer @ ater oat Pees & we TRL wT AH & BH A chen vers AAG Bae silo THe Sto SIE (2)SET/17/20/X1(M)/(2) SCHOOL ENTRANCE TEST, 2017 CLASS : XI opaiT : XI MATHEMATICS afer Time : Two Hours ] [ Maxtmum Marks : 100 wry: a we] Lye: 100 IMPORTANT Read carefully the ‘Instruction for Answering' given on the Answer Sheet and answer the questions as directed : Pore 1 fee me oat sitter aed B fire srgter’ arr FY 1. In which median sound travels fastest ? (1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) None of these Pea mer Fai at ere sft ae ? (1) Set (2) za (3) 4a (4) sa% a ag att 2. A sound wave has a frequency of 1 KHz and wavelength 0.8 m. The speed of sound will be : (1) 80 m/sec (2) 800 m/sec (3) 8000 m/sec (4) 80 cm/sec (3) P.T.0,SET/17/20/(ii} ee wah av at onaft 1 feit-eest cen cétet os We) cary ah ara seit : () 80/8 (2) 800 Aya (3) 8000 t/a (4) 380 aaa 3. A body of mass 5 kg falls from-rest from a height 10 m from earth's surface. The kinetic energy of the body on the earth's surface will be (if g = 9.8 m/scc’) : (1) 490 Joule (2) 50 Joule (3) Zero (4) 49 Joule 5 fan gama at cm sey, BH @ ye at wae F 10 A at Sas @ fret @ ag at aaa Gat geht | ase ge Mh (ae g - 9.8 Ha) (i) 490 3 (2) 50 8) I (4) 49 3 4. A force of 10 Newton causes a displacement of 2 uw in a body in its own direction. The work done by the force is : (1) 5 Joule (2) 20 Joule 1 (3) 2.5 Joule (4) = Joule ec &\ aq gre far ard B : (1) 5 aT QQ) 20 3 @Q) 25 TF (4) 5 (4)SET/17/20/ (ii) 5. A 500 gm packet having volume 300 cm} is placed in water (density of water = 1gm/cm?). The packet will : (1) float in water (2) sink in water (3) displace 500 gm water (4) displace 500 em3 water 500 amt ar om te Breer oraaq 300 & A, unt F var ora @ (ori ar eet = 1 are), We QQ) aFt F a1 2) ot 4 ga wer (3) 500 ar ort enita at (4) 500 ft? ot see 6. If the distance between two objects A and B is halved, the gravitational force between them : (1) is halved (2) . becomes 4 times (3) remains unchanged (4) becomes two times a & age A car B & dre at et oni ax a ona, at oe dra qerradr aa : (1) sirar @& sat & (2) are yar et ora & (3) argRafeier cea & 4) $y a omar 3 7. A body of mass 5 kg undergoes a change in speed from 30 m/s to 40 m/s. The change in its momentum is : (1) Skg m/s (2) 50 gm m/s (3) 50 kg m/s (4) 50 kg cm/s 5 Pam wert at oH weg Sart # ghady 90 A/a @ 40 Mya Gren & 1 sees Par H qhtady B : () 5 fear ye (2) SO nm Ae (3) 50 fem aya (4) 50 Par aia (5) P.T.0SET/17/20/ (ii) 8. An electron enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown below. The direction of force acting on the electron will be : magnetic, Geld direction of motion of electron (1) to the right (2) out of the page (3) into the page (4) to the left We Tar we gaia aa F aasag wast wear ® Set fh Peer a fearn mar 2) gaagh we a art ae Ht een eri : = getegit at afer at feat () cet sie (2) to & sex a aie (3) 1S sre a AT (4) aeii acm 9. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid, carrying a current : (1) is zero (2) is the same at all points (3} increase as we move towards its ends (4) decreases as we move towards its ends (6)10. SET/17/20/(ii) WH uri oo ont es eet evel aftenferan & onez, gery a1 (1) qa are Q) at ergs ae am stn & (3) SS eet fea at ote on & at awe 8 4) sae feet at atk oA ae azar A white light beam entering a glass prism splits into seven colour due to; (1) Reflection (2) Dispersion (3) Diffraction (4) Interference samt A us der Sor ste SF Bor A le eet are ant Git A Roa ane @ fasnira a anit 3 2 (1) Feet (2) faaaer (3) faactr (4) mater . A person with hypermetropia : (1) can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly (2) can see nearby objects clearly but can not see distant objects distinctly (3) finds it difficult to see nearby object comfortably and distinctly (4) cannot see nearby objects clearly and distinctly atafte @ after eae : Q) et age at arias Ber gear F eg we at aaqei ay sent wet ear ae (2) sorte at agsit a ere @a aac 8 veg ax at aol a APT Ae Bea Aa (3) We & agai a em @ cen sertsert hat A wea art 2 ‘ (4) oe Sl age a ae wen ae-oerr Sa aa B (7) P.T.O.SET/17/20/(ii) 12, 13, 14, 15. Voltmeter has high resistance so that : (1) It takes large current from the circuit (2) It takes a negligible current from the circuit (3) It can be connected in series (4) None of these atectret F Gea oferder orm een fora : (1) ae oPur & after ar der (2) 78 afeve & ges arr dar & (3) ae Spite # sist ar aa ze (4) st a ag vet At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit : (1) reduces sustantially (2) does not change (3) increases heavily (4) varies continuously ond atte & aay, vfua FH arr: (1) ane ae ont & (2) sald set Set & (3) sree as oR e (4) arare saat wedi & Which of the following terms does not represent clectrical power in a circuit > fers 9 Q av, feet Age ofa A ager eer we Pretter wea B ? v R Q) PR (2) IR? (3) Vl 4) The resistance of a wire of a given material of length ! and area of cross-section A is 4 ohm. if length of the wire is [/2 and area of cross-section 2A for the same material, then the resistance will be : 7 (I) 42 QQ) 22 (3) 19 4) qe (8)18. SET/17/20/ (ii) oe vert lag ae A orprer oftede B ce are wr fader 4 atte 81 aft set cer Sore st wag 1/2 cer orpres vitae 24 Bt, a afer errr : QQ) 4 34 (2) 2 ofa @) 1 ae (4) 3 oi . Current through a resistor is : (1) Inversely proportional to its resistance (2) Directly proportional to resistance (3) Independent of its resistance . (4) Directly proportional to the square of the resistance we fede & eax ySret ara arr ett B Q) 384% site & eqeearquett Q) sft & cargurdt (3) ae sfede oe Pre at azar (4) afer & at aargurtt dar & The work done in moving a charge of 2 coulomb in a potential difference of 12 volts region is : {1} GJoule — (2) 24 Joule (3) 48 Joule (4) z Joule 12 are % favaene aa 9 2 apie } onder A get A fear var arg 3: 64s) 28) sea Lae The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about : (1) 25m (2) 25cm (3) 25cm (4) 2.5m art gfe qa gar se at gene gfe dh fee pram git ett a: () 25 at Q2) 2.5 am (3) 25 @it 4) 2.579 (9) P.T.O,SET/17/20/(ii) 19. 20. 21. 22. Which color of light is used in the headlight of a car in a fogey day ? (1) Blue Q) Yellow (3) Black (a) Red qa} acre, Fare Ay aserge F Rea ST an oepy Par ora es () ater (2) der (3) Se (4) Set An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, The distance between its image and the pole is : (I) equal to f (2) between fand 2f (3) equal to 2f (4) greater than 2f uss ot, CR ady Banat Set ue edt om Bi see siafera ced yt & ara a ge () f ® aera (2) fa of ae (3) 2f % amaze (4) 2f & afar Neutron particle is heavier than which one of the following particle ? QQ) Proton (2) Electron {3} Nucleus (4) Positron. ragis ae Preiateis #2 fee aver B ore eter BF (Rett (2) see (3) AFR (ay wifes ‘The power of combination of a convex lens and concave lens of the same focal length is : (i) Zero Dioptre ‘ (2) Infinite (3) Inverse of focal length of convex lens (4) Inverse of focal length of concave lens (10)23. 24, 25. SET/17/20/ (ii) war Bee Hts saat wd ora Ta F agnit a array & (a saree (2) RT Q) sae aa & tea af or goer (4) sage te Gere cf ar ae Light enters from water into glass plate, the refractive index of glass is 2 with respect to water and speed of light in vacuum and glass are 3x10%m/s and 2x10°m/s respectively. The refractive index of water with respect to air is : wert, Ut @ aie at ae F ga aca 3, ort 4} wea ste a sian 28, gar set ot ant Pale od ata A nar 3x1084/8 wet 2x108 A/a Bi or ar wasn ag Barter Bs 3 4 4 8 a) 5 @ 5 @ 5 @ 5 Inside water, an air bubble hehaves like : (1) Flat glass plate (2) Concave lens (3) Convex lens (4) Plane mirror ont & orat ae ear ar gage Pra ae are He B ? Q) rae TART we (Q) staat Fa (3) sat ae (4) ret ator Which one of the following quantity remains unchanged in parallel combination ? (1) Voltage (2) Current (3) Resistance (4) None of these (41) P.T.O.SET/17/20/(ii) 26. 27. 28. Prafetaa ofr a area ofr afreet } aarray a FH shee az we weet B ? (1) fava Q) ant (3) afata 4) sat & ag wet A fraction becomes 3 when 1 is added to each of the numerator and denominator. However, if we subtract 5 from each then it becomes i, the fraction is : ar igh orore sire ee SH 1 aga ge ae Sam ore 8, Ta Seer oe ae Lam onan, a aie & : a 3 a > @ 2 a 3 If cos (a + B) = 0, then sin (a - ) + 4f& cos (a +B) = 0, TH sin (a ~ B) = (1) cos 28 2) cos 8 (Q) sin 20 (4) sina The cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the (1) mean (2) median (3) mode (4) all of these eh STORET AR eee Prema 4 ait air &1 (1) Her (2) ler (3) ager @) ea a at (12)29. 30. 3. 32, 33, SET/17/20/(ii) A student calculates that the probability of his winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has he bought ? ca Perel were ear & fe wae efett A seen see grea ote at sifipct 0.08 1 af 6000 Ree Set at dt way eet eae atl ? (1) 120 (2) 240 (3) 480 (4) 760 If mode of a series exceeds its mean by 12, then mode exceeds the median by sce. ate Ae sr age sah any 8 12 afte Baa age wad ne a. after 21 (i) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8 The number of solid spheres each of diameter 6 cm that can be made by melting a solid metal cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4m is: 45 Oh Sag oi 4 Sh ona B ce ag % da wa ais ae at frearat 6 Git are 4} ata Na sat ge wrath dear FB: a) 3 Q) 5 (3) 6 (4) 9 In decreasing the radius of a circle by 30%, its area is decreased by : am Te wi fase at 30% ey He qe See Aso aH a ona e : (1) 30% 2) 49% (3) 51% (4) 60% An aeroplane at an altitude of 200 m observes the angle of depression of opposite points on the two banks of a river to be 45° and 60°. The width of the river is : a (AL (1) 200{1+ J }m (2) 20/1 a)" (3) 200(1+V3)m (4) 200(1- 3) m (18) RTO,$B1/17/20/{ii) 35. 36. 200 A a Sag oe wag wert A Aet a Poaret oe fares frgot an errr are aie: 45° afre 60° 81 wah at ters B ay 200{ 1+.) aft (2 200 4) at a) OI 20011] (3) 200(1+ V3} #t (4) 200(1-¥3) In the given fig, AD is the bisector of ZBAC, If AB = 10 cm, AC = 6 cm and BC - 12 cm, then the value of DC is : fay mm fr #, aD ae) BAC aa anfaerrs &, af AB = 10 ai, AC= 6 Ht atx BC- 12 B41 &, aca a B= A 10 cm 6cm B D c «© i2em> Q) 4.5cm (2) 5.50m (3) 4cm (4) 5em If two vertices of AABC are A(-1, 4) and B(S, 2) and ils centroid is G{0, -3), then the coordinates of € are : aft AABCa & afrh AC-1, 4) alt BS, 2) oe Herat Fee GIO, -3) 8, wa C& frderas & : (1) (4, 15) (2) (+4, -15) (3) (15, 4) (4) (15, -4) If a point P divides the two points A(S, ~2) and B(9, 6) in the ratio 3:1, then coordinates of Pare: aie ca fay PAL Parssil a(S, -2) siz BIO, 6) #3: 1% aga 4 faafna aan &, wa ferg Ps freer & a) 47) (2) (4,8) @) 02.8) 4) 8&4) (14)38. 39. 40. 41. SET/17/20/(ii) The sum of n terms of the A. P. ¥2, V8, JIB, V32,...,. is: wa sara ae J2, v8, Vie, V32,..... 3 n a a ay ® 0) Lamy 2) YInn+y ve 1 (3) 3 ms lin+2) (4) v2in +1) +2) The perimeter of a rectangle is 82 m and its area is 400 m2, The breadth of the rectangle is : () 9m (2) 16m (3) 20m (4) 25m eh oat ar oftare 82 Ht @ six at 400 at A 8) ara at ate 2: (1) oof 2) 16 «ft (3) 20% 4) 25 If 7cos?0+3sin?@=4, then the value of cot 0 is : af 70s? 0+3sin?6=4, Ta cot 6 ar HMB : wz 2) @) 1 (4) 0 cote tan8 The value of oot8__,_tan@__;,, The value of coil * tano=tanae® cota tano . cot ~cst36 "tane—tan gy WTAE (1) 0 @) -1 (3) 1 @) 2 In a rhombus of side 10 cm, one of the diagonals is 12 cm long. The length of the second diagonal is : () 8cm (2) 120m (3) 16cm (4) 22cm 10 @h yer at eeragar A wm Reet at aad 12 Sh Bi gat frart at wag 2 : Q) 8a 2) 12 &f (3), 16 Sh (4) 22 Set (15) BT.SET/17/20/(ii) 42, In a triangle, the perpendicular from the vertex to the base bisects the base, then the triangle is : (1) right angled (2) isosceles (3) scalene (4) obtuse angled arene 9 era gene aT PnP aan eT (QQ) aAfeag, (3) farrrearg 4) afte ater 43. In an isosceles AABC, if AB= BC and AB? = 2AC*, then 20 = we anfaaiy, AABCH, ait AB = BC ai AR? =2AC? Ta eC = (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° 44, The graphs of the equation 5x - 15y = 8 and 3x 9y = lines which are (1) coincident (2) paraliel (3) intersecting cxactly at one point (4) perpendicular to each other aici 5x - sy = 8 he ax-9y= 2% ame at Yat & ot e () tort Q) FARR 3) Baa cH fag ue arcidarstes” (4) Gb gat oral (48)47. 48. 49. SET/17/20/{ii) 2 be x-1 y-2 0"? x-1 y-2 are atten xo y-2 “'x-1 y-2 Q) (4, -5) (2) (5, 4) (3) 4,5) 4) 6,4) Ifa + b= 5 and 3a + 2b = 20, then valuc of a+ bis: Weatb=5att3a+2b= 208, athe am’: () 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25 13, -1,- : are zeroes of a cubic polynomial p(x, then p(x) = aR Boater ages & ati 3-1, 2 8, cea poe = (1) 3x3-5x? 4110-3 (2) 3x3 5x2 -11x+3 (3) 3x3 -5x?-11x-3 (4) 3x9 45x? -t1x-3 Ifx+ 2 is a factor of x* +ax+2b and a+b=4, then: aft x? +ax42b a ye x+ 28 sheatb=4, aq: (I) a=-1,b=5 (2) a=5,b=- (3} @=1,b-3 (4) @-3,0=1 If 3 is the least prime factor of a positive number @ and 7 is the least prime factor of a positive number b, then the least prime factor of a+ bis: a In TET a a AT THT IH 3S ake ae Het 5 AEA ore 72, daa + aT TAT eae aH B Q) 2 2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 10 (17) P.T.0.SET/17/20/(ii) 50. 51. 52, 53. Largest number that divides 245 and 1029, leaving remainder 5 in cach case is : aaa ast dem Pra 245 sie 1029 at fear set ve uc fafa A aera 5 ae, ae ® : Qyp 15 (2) 16 QB) 9 5 When and where the first Metro train started in India ? (1) Mumbai in 1864 (2) Kolkata in 1984 (3) Rajasthan in 1870 (4) Assam in 1999 ana # cect ag 2a wa sie wel ge ee ? (1) We F 1864 (2) fear 7 1984 (3) (1) The Tables Turned (3) The Daffodils (2) (4) Lyrical Ballad Perfect Life A place for housing aeroplane is called : () (3) Haven (2) Harbors (4) Hangar Heath Which is the correct answer to fill in the blank ? “The principal ........... our requests’. (1) Turned down (2) Turned on (3) Turned at (4) Turned off Which one is correct ? (1) Pneumonia (2) Pnemonia (3) Pnehmonia * (4) Neumoniah Neither of them .... (1) have (2) were (3) was (4) has The correct one is : (1) Bring the book me that is lying on the table. (2) Bring the book that lying on the table to me. (3) Bring to me the book that is lying on the table. (4) Bring me the book that is lying on the table. (21) P.T.0,SET/17/20/ (ii) 72. 73, 74, 75. 76. Choose the correct preposition for the blank : Ihave been studying in this school .. the last five years’ (i) since (2) at (3) in (4) for What is the plural of the word OASIS ? () Oases (2) Oasises (3) Oisis (4) Oaesis Which of the following is a reflexive pronoun ? (1) Himself (2) His (3) Hers (4) Theirs The original inhabitants of a country are called : (i) residents (2) natives (3) aborigines (4) ancestors A gas decolourizes alkaline KMnO, solution but does not give precipitate with AgNO is : ae fre ot arta KMnO, faces a trem we & afr AgNO; S wry saa wet sHIa es (1) CH, (2) CoHs (3) CoH (4) CoH (22)77. 78. 79. SET/17/20/(ii) Correct order of reactivity of metal Zn, Cu, Fe & Ag is : Zn, Cu, Fe Ht Ag Ugstt Ht Bensiicer ar wt wre : {l) Fe>Zn> Ag> Cu (2) Cu>Ag> Zn> Fe (3) Zn> Ag> Fe> Cu (4) Zn> Fe> Cu> Ag The electronic configuration of A is 2, 8, 2 and that of B is 2, 8, 7. The formula for the compound formed between A and B will be : aa A ie Boar gtagies fara amar: 2, 8, 2 ole 2, 8, 7 Bi Asit BS atte ar ga cen: () A,B, 2) AB, (3) A,B, 4) A.B In laboratory, accidently a few drops of concentrated acid gets spill over the hand of a student. What should be done ? (1) Neutralize the acid with strong alkali (2) Wash the hand with saline solution (3) After washing the hand with plenty of water apply solution of sodium hydroxide on it (4) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate aire A arr at ex aa ora st as Fz cs Perdf B err o en ag, ce ome eat F fe sar Hen aed 7 (1) sha at ais ae aro sai eer aie (2) err ot aa Ser A ater afer (3) ee a agar sae oe A AW S are Asan eegieangs S He a eda ee afer 4) waa gia scart wh 8 GA A ae sem oss aie ar te oer afer (28) P.T.O.SET/17/20/{ii) 80. 81. 82. 83, ‘The volume of a gas at O°C is : orc am ay fait te ar area dh @ () <0 (2) =0 (3) >0 4) 20 The pair of elements both of which exhibit the property of catenation : (Ll) carbon and caleium (2) carbon and silicon (3) silicon and magnesium (4) silicon and chloride fre a ae ae oT Hoar oe siaery aati 2? (1) are six Sieqay Q) eR ait fafa (3) fatten ete Afr (4) fatter aie RiRIgS During galvanization iron is coated with another mctal. The other metal is : terse} dee ae at gat wR ag @ svenfer fea ora 8, 7s guy ag Bs (4) Cu (2) Cr (3) Sn (4) Zn Which of the following molecules possesses both single and double bonds ? (1) nitrogen (2) ethene (3) oxygen (4) ethyne fret & i 8 ory FH caer car gH ea suftes F 7 Ql) aReEm (2) esi (3) otter (4) weet (2a)84, 85. 86. 87. 88. SET/17/20/(ii) Which of the following electronic configuration corresporfds to that of a metal > fet 4 8 are adage fae og & faene S oer ® ? (1) 2,6 2) 2,8 (3) 2,8,1 (4 2,8,7 An acidic oxide is formed by the element ; srr SiRAMRS GHA aren cee B (l) H () x (3) Ca (4) ¢ On heating a hydrated salt to a temperature of 100°C Plaster of Paris is obtained. The salt is : CH OER Tay st 100°C aA Te aT GT ET ote Ue ort sar Fi ae wat B (1) Ca$04.2H,0 (2) CaS03.2H,0 (3) CaCO3.2H,0 (4) CaCly.2H,0 The acid present in the stomach of a healthy person is : (1) acetic acid (2) oxalie acid (3) hydrochloric acid (4) nitric acid vem ober } amrra A ayia ara & : Ql) wife ora (2) otfaafera sre (3) wRgrRIReR ore (4) aTRRg aT A white precipitate is obtained by adding common salt solution into a solution of : wera cat % Riera at fhe Reem 7 set oe whe vada ar Bin & ? (1) AgNO; (2) KNO3 (3) NH4NO; (4) Ba(NO;), (25) PTO,SET/17/20/{ii) 89. The reaction CH, - Cla i Hy »CH3~ CHy is an example of 91. (G} oxidation (2) dehydration (3) addition (4) substitution CH= CHy + ly > CH -CH3 sitafpar saree & (1) attrdlaser (2) Fasiest (3) Sater inert (4) afer The number of moles in 60 g of carbon is : (4) 4 Q) 5 (3) 4x Avegadro number (4) 5 x Avogadro number 60 amy ae A Rett a dear eri a) 4 Q) 5 (3) 4 « eahrey eat (4) Sx udbnst fe How many times an atom of sulphur is heavier than an atom of carbon ? (1) twice the Avogadaro number (2) 8/3 (3) 3/8 (4) None of these eae ar re wey aaetr B oe TTT a PT yr aT BF? (1) carrat dear ar SIAL (2) 8/3 (3) 3/8 (4) Sa aig vt (26)92. 93. SET/17/20/(ii) Which of the following has a liquid dispersed phase and a gaseous dispersion medium ? (1) cloud (2) gel (3) smoke (4) soap bubble fret A & feet oq fafeita (dispersed) sae A oem Fa gah mem & ort at 8? Q) weer , 2) Fa (3) gsit (4) ag gage Which of the following is a mixture ? (1) Vinegar (2) Ice (3) Copper Sulphate (4) Carbon fret & art ser & ? (1) fercer Q) am (3) afer (tee ave) (4) re An emulsion is a colloidal solution formed by mixing of : (1) two miscible liquids (2) two immiscible liquids (3) a soluble solid and a liquid (4) an insoluble solid and a liquid (27) PTO,SET/17/20/(ii) 95. 96. 97. ghee Ua Bearrsa fara Jar 2 si Prat awa oe aaa = (1) 2 factasiter xa (2) a afadasiear aa (3) GH yomefta Sta sit UH za (4) GH orprmefier dha sie cH zat Which of the following is a non-metal ? (1) Lead (2) Cadmium (3) Silicon (4) Calcium fr #8 att area act 2 ? (1) tear Q) Sefer = (3) fafeaty 4) Serer Which of the following undergoes sublimation ? (1) Camphor (2) Sodium Chloride (3) Chak (4) Sugar Fast 9 Bhaebt Geduiid €) aaa & ? Cl) FE Q) (3) ate (afsar) (4) det A gas can be liquified by : (1) increasing temperature and decreasing pressure (2) decreasing temperature and increasing pressure (3) increasing both, temperature and pressure (4) decreasing both, temperature and pressure (28)SET/17/20/(1i) ce fe at aa F aRafta Pear on eee B : Q) am agree cer aa at aerae (2) AY veree cen arr at Taree (3) am stk are ait a gerne (4) ae ott aa Shit St aerae At what temperature the thermometer readings in °C and °F are the same ? Roe ora oe °C cer eF Shit arrest oe ser afters fee ? a) -40 (2) 273 3) 0 (4) 100 Which of the following pairs will not-show diffusion ? (1) Chlorine and Oxygen (2) Chlorine and Bromine (3) Water and Oxygen (4) Salt and Sand Fra # @ asa gry Perc (diffusion) wef eaten ? (1) Fates ott attaetiort (2) ait sit aie (3) srt oie sitar (4) Ae sik ta (28) P.T.O.SET/17/20/ (ii) 400, Which of the following is not a general property of gases ? () high fluidity (2) high compressibility (3) large volume (4) high density feat ¥ 8 Se het ar aaa yr ae? BF? (1) afte azerar (2) after ddtecer (3) aft ona (4) oft sarr (30)SEAL