Question Bank4

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QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE

POST OF OFFICE SUPDT/Gr.II-G.P.Rs.4200/- ,
CS&WI-G.P.Rs.4600/- against 20% LDCE
Quota
and S&WI’s –G.P.Rs.4200/-
Syllabus:
I. Office Procedure:
a) Dak Handling b) Maintenance of files c)
Record Keeping
d) Maintenance of Statistics
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II. Writing Skills:

a) Letter/DO Writing b) Notifications c)
Note Writing d) Speaking Orders.
III. Award of works in Works Programme.
IV.Procedure for Stores Procurement.
V. Railway Organisational Structure.
VI.Railway Housing (Railway Quarters allotment)
Policy.
VII. Uniform Policy.
VIII. Booking of Running Staff and non-running
travelling staff.
IX.Discipline & Appeal Rules.
X. Recognition of Trade Unions. Facilities to
Office bearers of recognized
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unions/Associations. Dealing with

Unrecognised Unions/Associations.
XI.Medical Examination and facilities available to
Railway employees.
XII. Audit and Accounts Narrative Report. Draft
Paras and their disposal.
XIII. Canons of Financial Propriety.
XIV. Classification of demands for grants.
XV. Man-Power Planning.
 Vacancy Bank Register.
 Creation of Posts.
 Bench Marking.
 Supernumerary Posts.
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 Redeployment of surplus staff.

XVI. Pay and allowances.
XVII. Pass Rules.
XVIII. Leave Rules.
XIX. Railway Pension Rules.
XX. General Conditions of Service.
XXI.Hours of Employment Regulations.
XXII. Labour Laws (at least in their basic form)
1.Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
2.Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition)
Act
3.Payment of Wages Act, 1936
4.Minimum Wages Act, 1948
5.Workmen Compensation Act, 1923
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XXIII. Right to Information Act.

XXIV. Official Language Rules and Policy.
Note:Questions set in the paper will be normally
to assess the writing and analytical power of the
candidates w.r.t. various topics as above which
circumscribe various ministerial staff. Efforts
should be not to tilt the balance in favour of one
particular discipline.
****
I. Office Procedure:
(A) Objective:
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1. The receipt of dak, except ______, will be

acknowledged by the recipient signing his
name in full and in ink with date and
designation. (ordinary postal dak)
2. _______ dak will be separated from other dak
and dealt with first. (urgent)
3. All covers except those addressed to officers
by name or those bearing security grading will
be opened by the Central Registry. (say true
or false)
4. All opened dak, will be date stamped except
the covers of unopened classified dak. (say
true or false)
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5. All dak receipts submitted to officers will move

in pads conspicuously labeled as __________.
(Dak Pad).
6. The dealing hand will check the enclosures of
the dak receipts and if any is found missing,
initiate action to __________. (obtain/return it.
choose correct answer)
7. The two main parts of a file are _____ and
_____ (notes and correspondence)
8. Every page in each part of the file should be
consecutively numbered in separate series.
(say true or false)
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9. The notes or correspondence portion of the

file is said to have been become bulky, if it
exceeds __________ folios. (300)
10. In the notings, the verbatim reproduction of
the extracts from the paper under
consideration should not be attempted. (say
true or false)
11. Extracts of a rule or instruction will be
placed on the file and attention to it will be
drawn in the note, rather than producing the
relevant provisions.(say true or false)
12. The apparent errors or mis-statements in a
note can be pointed out in courteous and
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temperate language free from personal

remarks. (say true or false)
13. The dealing hand will append his full
signature with date on the _________ his note.
(left below).
14. An Officer will append his full signature on
________ side of the note with name,
designation and date. (right hand)
15. Pasting over a note or a portion of it is not
desirable. (say true or false)
16. File system is an arrangement of papers by
________. (subjects)
17. Before opening a new file, the dealing hand
will ascertain the __________ to which the
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paper under consideration relates. (standard

head)
18. As far as possible, there should be a
separate file for each _______. (distinct aspect
of the subject).
19. The movement of files shall be entered in
the ________ register. (file movement)
20. No current files will be issued to other
sections except against ________. (written
requisition).
21. Under classification of records class ‘A’
means _________ (keep and microfilm)
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22. The record classified as Class ‘A’ does not

qualify for permanent preservation for
administrative purposes. (say true or false)
23. The Class B record means ___________ .
(keep but do not microfilm)
24. The class C record means __________ (keep
for specified period only)
25. Ephemeral files are destroyed as soon as
they are ______ old. (one year)
(B) Descriptive:
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1. What is docketing? What is the procedure for

numbering of pages in a file?
2. What is the action of the dealing hand on the
receipts of the dak?
3. What procedure is to be followed for receipt,
registration and distribution of dak?
4. What general principles are to be observed in
regard to action on receipts of dak?
5. What are the constituents of a file? Explain
briefly.
6. What are the guidelines on writing of notes?
7. What are the provisions regarding
modifications to notes?
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8. What is a file? What are the guidelines for

movement of files?
9. What is part file? What are the guidelines
regarding part files?
10. Write briefly about the filing system.
11. What is the classification of records?
Explain briefly each class.
12. Write short notes on the following:
(a) Urgent Dak (b) Security grading (c) PUC

(d) File
(e) Docketing (f) Classified Dak (g) Part
file
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II. Writing Skills:
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are guidelines regarding addressing

communications to Officers by name?
2. Drafting of Demi-official letter on different
matters.
3. Drafting of notifications for calling applications
in connection with a selection.
4. Writing of notes on different issues.
5. Drafting of speaking orders.
6. What are your suggestions to effect economy
in staff expenditure?
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III. Award of works in Works Programme:
(A) Objective:
1. In case of open tenders, the minimum period

required from date of publication to the date
of opening the tender shall be _______.
(1month)
2. Copies of tender notices may be displayed in
the offices of field executives, HOD’s offices
for a period of not less than ________. (21
days)
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3. For limited tenders, _______ days’ notice shall

be given. (Fifteen)
4. In case of quotation tenders, ______ days’
notice shall be given. (seven)
5. The tender notice should be sent to CPRO’s
office _______ days in advance for publication
in Hind and other national dailies. (Fifty)
6. List of Approved works (LAW)
costing_____________. (more than 30 lakhs &
less than 50 lakhs)
7. Works for which budget grant was not
provided in the sanctioned budget are called
_________. (OOT)
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8. ________ is the nodal officer for preparation of

Works Programme and sending it to Railway
Board. (PCE)
9. SEMD accepted from the contractor borne on
approved list for works costing 20 lakhs and
50 lakhs shall be Rs. ____________-. (Rs.
50,000/-)
10. The security deposit to be paid by the
contractor for works costing more than 2 lakhs
and upto 2 crores shall be ____________. (Rs. 5
lakhs)
11. Earnest Money to be deposited along with
tenders for works above Rs. 50 lakhs is Rs.
___________. (Max. 1 lakh)
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12. Limited tenders are called through ________.

(contractors from approved list)
13. ___________ is an example for piece work
contract. (zonal works)
14. Deposit work means _____________. (Works
of other Government Department done by
Railways)
15. Urgency certificate is necessary in the case
of __________. (repairs to damages to line
caused by floods)
16. The powers of Divisional Officers to accord
administrative approval to Lumpsum works is
upto __________. (Nil)
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17. Powers of JAG Officers in granting technical

sanction for tack renewal works is upto
__________. (Rs. 1 crore)
18. What are the powers of JAG in calling open
tenders? (Full Powers)
19. The powers of DRMs in inviting single
tenders in case of accidents is upto __________
subject to annual ceiling of Rs. 50 lakhs. (10
lakhs)
20. The powers of JAG officers in accepting
open tenders is upto ________. (upto 30 lakhs)
21. Revenue/Bankers solvency certificate is not
required while calling tenders above 10 lakhs
upto one crore. (say true or false)
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22. Monetary value of Revenue/Banker’s

solvency certificate required while calling
open tenders above one crore is ______. (40%
of tender value of advertised work)
23. Limited tenders can be invited from
contractors borne on the approve list. (say
true or false)
24. Limited tenders can be called upto a
monetary ceiling of Rs. ______. (Rs. 1 crore)
25. The lowest authority competent to approve
calling of limited tenders upto Rs. 10 lakhs is
________. (SAG Officer)
26. Limited tenders in the range of more than
10 lakhs upto 25 lakhs can be invited with the
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approval of the authority of the rank of ______.

(DRM)
27. PHOD is competent to approve calling of
limited tenders of __________. (more than 25
lakhs and upto Rs. 50 lakhs)
28. CAOR is competent to approve calling of
limited tenders of _________. (more than Rs. 50
lakhs and upto Rs. 75 lakhs)
29. The monetary slab for Class D contractor is
________. (upto Rs. 10 lakhs)
30 The monetary slab for Class C contractor is
________. (more than 10 lakhs & upto Rs. 25
lakhs)
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31. The monetary slab for Class B contractor is

________. (more than 25 lakhs & up upto Rs. 50
lakhs)
32. The monetary slab for Class A contractor is
________. (more than 50 lakhs & upto Rs. 1
crore)
33. The number of monetary slabs fixed for
categorizing the contractors in the approved
list is __________. (four)
34. The validity of approved list of contractors
is __________. (three years)
35. There will be separate approve lists for
Open Line and Construction Organisations for
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each identified category of works. (say true or

false)
36. Approved list of Class A contractors in
constructions organization is maintained by
___________. (CAOR)
37. The accepting authority for enlistment in
the approved list of Class A contractors in
Open Line is _________. (PHOD)
38. The accepting authority for enlistment in
the approved list of Class D contractors in
Construction Organisation is _________. (Dy.
CE/C)
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39. The fee chargeable for registration in the

approved list of Class A contractors is Rs.
__________-. (Rs. 15,000/-)
approved list of Class B contractors is Rs.
__________-. (Rs. 10,000/-)
approved list of Class C contractors is Rs.
__________-. (Rs. 7,500/-)
approved list of Class D contractors is Rs.
__________-. (Rs. 5,000/-)
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43. The standing earnest money for works

costing upto Rs. 10 lakhs is Rs. _______. (Rs.
15,000/-)
costing between Rs. 10 lakhs & Rs. 25 lakhs is
Rs. _______. (Rs. 35,000/-)
costing between Rs. 25 lakhs & Rs. 50 lakhs is
Rs. _______. (Rs. 75,000/-)
costing between Rs. 50 lakhs & 1 crore is Rs.
_______. (Rs. 1,50,000/-)
47. The authority competent to approve for
works of urgent nature before calling special
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limited tenders under two pocket system of

tendering is _______. (GM)
48. The authority competent to approve for
works of special nature before calling special
limited tenders under two pocket system of
tendering is _______. (PHOD)
49. Minimum number of contractors/agencies
for calling quotations is ___. (three)
50. For calling single tender finance
concurrence is necessary. (say true or false)
51. Preliminary Works Progaramme is divided
into ______ volumes. (four)
52. Works Programme is prepared under
Demand No. ______. (16)
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53. LSWP works costing less than 30 lakhs shall

be approved by ________. (DRM)
54. List of works costing more than 15 lakhs
and below 30 lakhs require the administrative
approval of __________. (PHOD/HOD)
55. LsWP works costing less than 15 lakhs
require administrative approval of ____. (DRM)
56. Works having no budget grant and not
appearing in pink book/Green Book/LSWP is
called _____________. (Out of turn works)
57. Nodal officer for processing out of turn
works is __________. (CPDE/CGE)
58. Sanctioning authority for processing out of
turn works is _______. (GM)
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59. Power of GM to sanction safety related

works under out of turn works is ______. (upto
RS. 50 l;akhs)
60. Power of GM to sanction other than safety
related works under out of turn works is
_____________. (upto RS. 30 lakhs)
61. Safety related works have to be completed
from the date of sanction with in _______
months. (eight months)
62. Sponsoring authority for works under Plan
head of ‘Gauge Conversion’ is _______. (COM)
63. Sponsoring authority for works under plan
head of ‘Doubling’ is _________. (COM)
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head of ‘Rail Electrification Projects’ is
_________. (CEE)
head of ‘Staff Quarters’ is _________. (CPO/PCE)
head of ‘amenities of Staff’ is _________. (CPO)
head of ‘Other specified works’ is _________.
(PCE)
head of ‘Bridge Works’ is _________. (PCE)
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head of ‘Labour Welfare facilities’ is _________.
(CPO)
head of ‘Passenger amenities’ is _________.
(CCM)
head of ‘Tack Renewal Works’ is _________.
(PCE)
head of ‘Workshops including production
units’ is _________. (PCE, CME,CBE)
head of ‘New Line Works’ is _________. (COM)
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head of ‘Road Safety Works – ROB/RUB’ is
_________. (PCE)
head of ‘Medical Facilities’ is _________. (CMD,
CPO)
head of ‘Metropolitan Railway Projects’ is
_________. (COM,CCM)
77. List of approved works are the works
costing __________. (more than 30 lakhs and
below 50 lakhs)
78. Lumpsum work are the works costing
__________. (less than 30 lakhs)
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79. List of works pertaining to MP and Rolling

Stock are included under plan head
________________. (Other Specified works)
80. A profit center is the office responsible for
both _________. (Costs and Revenue)
(B) Descriptive:
1. Write briefly about Project abstract Estimate.

2. Write Short Notes on -
(i) Earnest Money Deposit (ii) Standard
Earnest Money Deposti
(iii) Security Deposit (iv) Limited Tenders (v)
Single Tenders
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(vi) Open Tenders (vii) Approved List of

Contactors (viii) Tender Notice
(ix) Tender Committee (x) Deposit Works
(xi) Price variation clause
3. Explain briefly about -
(i) Arbitration (ii) Urgency Certificate (iii)
material modification
(iv) material at site account (v) site order
book (vi) Works register
(vii) Two packet system of Contract. (viii)
SWP (ix) OOT
(x) SRSF (xi) LAW
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4. Write about Works Programme. Describe the

various stages involved in preparation of
Works Programme.
5. Differentiate:
(i) Pink Book and Green Book (ii) LSWP Works
and OOT Works
(iii) Single Tender and Limited Tender (iv)
Limited Tender & Open Tender
(v) Earnest Money Deposit & Security Deposit
6. What is meant by ‘briefing note’? What points
are to be noted in that note?
7. What salient features to be considered while
calling Open Tenders?
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8. What is meant by variations? What is the

procedure to process for sanction of variation
of quantities in a contract agreement?
IV. Procedure for Stores Procurement.
(A) Objective:
1. Procurement of safety items are done through

suppliers approved by ______ (RDSO)
2. Stock verification for T&P items is done once
in two years. (say true or false)
3. PAC items are purchased on ________ tender
basis. (single)
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4. In a rate contract, not only rate but also

quantity of item is fixed.(say true or false)
5. Sales Tax/VAT is applicable on packing
charges. (say true or false)
6. All payments towards security deposit should
be in favour of ___________ only.
(Chief Cashier)
7. In running contracts, quantity is fixed but rate
is not fixed. (Say true or false)
8. Full form of PAC is _____________. (Propriety
Articles Certificate)
9. The authority to finalise Rate
Contract/Running Contract is ___. (Railway
Board)
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10. The prescribed form for placing indents for

procurement of Non-stock items is _________.
(S.1313)
11. DGS&D stands for __________.
12. PO stands for _____________________.
13. CST stands for _________________.
14. MODVAT stands for ______________________.
15. FOR stand for ____________________.
(B) Descriptive:
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1. Explain briefly about Rate Contracts and

Running Contracts.
2. What is AAC? What is its relevance to the
procurement of stores?
3. Explain briefly about Tender Committees.
4. What is local purchase? When do items are
procured through local purchase? What are
the limitations in the powers for local
purchase?
5. Distinguish between:
(a) Rate Contract & Running Contract (b)
Local purchase & Spot purchase
(c) EMD & SD (d) Single Offer & Single
Tender
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6. What is stock verification? What action to be

taken on receipt of stock sheet?
7. Explain the system of disposal of scrap on
Railways.
8. Briefly explain about various types of tenders
while procuring materials.
9. What is spot purchase? When do items are
procured through spot purchase?
10. Write short notes on -
(i) Stock Sheets (ii) Piece Work contract (iii)
Purchase Order
(iv) Price preference (v) Reserve price
V. Railway Organisational Structure.

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(A) Objective:
1. There are _______ centralized training

institutions on Indian Railways (five)
2. Railway Staff College is situated at __________.
(Vadodara)
3. Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is
situated at ______. (Pune)
4. Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering
& Telecommunications is situated at
___________. (Secunderabad)
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5. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical &

Electrical Engineering is situated at
_____________. (Jamalpur)
6. Indian Railways Institute of Electrical
Engineering is situated at ________.(Nasik)
7. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical &
Electrical Engineering also provides
Apprenticeship training to the __________
Apprentices. (Special Class Railway)
8. RRT has no jurisdiction in respect of
classification of any commodity. (say true or
false)
9. RRT has jurisdiction in respect of fixation of
lump sum rates. (say true or false)
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10. RRT has no jurisdiction in respect of fixation

of wharfage and demurrage. (say true or
false)
11. RRT has been given the work in connection
with the exercise of revisionary powers of
General Manager in regard to dismissal,
removal and compulsory retirement from
service of Class III employees. (say true or
false)
12. RITES has been set up as a Limited
Company registered under Companies Act.
(say true or false)
13. RITES renders consultation and
management services. (say true or false)
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14. RITES renders consultation services both

abroad and in India only in respect of
Railways. (say true or false)
15. RITES renders consultation/management
services in respect of Roads, Ports and
Harbours also. (say true or false)
16. The headquarters of RRT is at _______.
(Chennai)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the objectives of Railway

Management?
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2. Write briefly about the organizational

structure of Indian Railways.
3. Write briefly about the field organizations,
attached and subordinate offices under the
Ministry of Railways.
4. What are the Centralised Training Institutions?
Write briefly about them.
5. Write about setting up of RRT and its role in
settling the complaints against Railway
administration.
6. Write Short Notes on:
(a) Metropolitan Transport Projects (b) RDSO
(c) RRT (d) RITES
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(e) IRCON (f) CAMTECH (g) CORE (h) RVNL

(i) IRCTC
7. How many zones are there on Indian
Railways? Where are their Headquarters
Offices? Explain the Organisational structure
of Zonal Railway.
8. Describe in brief the setting up &
development of S.C. Railway and its divisions.
9. The main business of Railways is to provide
service for transport of public and the goods –
If so, how can you justify setting up of
schools/colleges on Railways?
10. The main business of Railways is to provide
service for transport of public and the goods –
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If so, what is the justification for setting up

hospitals and dispensaries on Railways, when
facilities for medical treatment are available in
abundance?
11. What are your suggestions for privatization
of various activities of Railways?
VI. Railway Housing (Railway Quarters

allotment) Policy.
(A) Objective:
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1. Staff in pay range of _______ are eligible for

allotment of type IV quarters.
2. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____
on normal rent during leave. (four)
3. Railway quarters can be retained for a period
of _____ on normal rent during sick leave.
(indefinite period)
_____ on normal rent during suspension.
(without any time limit)
of _____ on normal rent on
resignation/removal/dismissal from service.
(one month)
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6. Quarter can be retained for ____ on normal

rent in the event of death. (24 months)
7. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____
on normal rent on retirement. (four)
8. In no case retention of accommodation
should exceed _________ from the date of
retirement or date of school season which
ever is earlier. (08 months)
9. Railway quarters can be retained during
entire period of leave ex India provided that it
is certified that he would be _____. (reposted
to his original place on expiry of his leave)
10. Quarter can be retained for _____ on normal
rent on transfer. (two months)
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11. Retention of Railway quarters in case of

death is permissible for ______ months.
12. Special license fee is _______ times the
normal license fees.
13. The staff rendered surplus and posted to
another station are permissible
14. When a Railway servant is transferred from
one station to another, retention of quarters is
permissible on account of sickness of his/her
widowed mother. (say true or false).
15. The occupier of Railway accommodation is
charged rent either at the rate of ____ of his
pay or the assessed rent whichever is less.
(10%)
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16. Water charges recoverable from a Group C

employee for Type IV quarter is Rs. ______
p.m. (Rs. 35/-)
employee for Type III quarter is Rs. ______ p.m.
(Rs. 25/-)
employee for Type II quarter is Rs. ______ p.m.
(Rs. 15/-)
19. The staff/officers who refused to accept
accommodation offered to him on the new
zone are eligible for retention of quarters at
the old station. (say true or false)
51
20. Retention of Railway accommodation on

medical grounds beyond the permissible
period as a special case requires the approval
of __________. (Railway Board)
21. Railway employees rendered surplus and
posted to new stations necessitating change
of residence may be permitted to retain
Railway accommodation at the previous place
of posting for a period of _______. (03 years)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the provisions regarding retention of

Railway Quarters –
52
(i) on transfer (ii) on deputation (iii) on

death of an employee
(iv) on retirement (v) on transfer to a newly
formed division
2. What are the instructions regarding allotment
of quarters? What do you mean by ‘out of
turn’ allotment of quarters? What are the
provisions regarding out of turn allotment?
3. Write short notes on:
(i) Penal rent. (ii) out of turn allotment of
quarters
(iii) Retention of quarters to staff transferred
to NF Railway.
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(iv) Retention of quarters on transfer to KRCL.
(v) Retention of quarters on posting to RCTs.

(vi) Retention of quarters on posting to newly
forms Divisions/Zones.
4. What is the procedure to be followed in
processing cases for grant of retention of
accommodation over and above the
permissible period?
5. What are the instructions regarding regulation
of allotment of quarters to wife and husband
working at the same station?
54
6. What steps are to be taken to discourage

Railway employees for unauthorized retention
of Railway accommodation?
7. Explain the provisions regarding retention of
quarters during -
(a) leave including extra ordinary leave, (b)
leave on medical grounds
(c) study leave.
8. Explain about policy of hiring of
accommodation in Railways for residential
use?
9. Write short notes on entitlement of various
types of house accommodation based on
55
revised scales recommended by Vth Central

Pay Commission?
VII. Uniform Policy:
(A) Objective:
1. Helmets may be issued as a T&P item to 10%

of strength of Gangmen working at Bridge
construction sites in tunnels. (say true or
false)
2. Railway employees in other than public image
categories should be given cloth instead of
stitched uniform. (say true or false)
56
3. Assistant Guards are included in the public

image categories for purpose of supply of
cloth for uniform. (say true or false)
4. Luminiscent vests may be issued as T&P items
to staff in the category of yard masters. (say
true or false).
5. Canteen staff are to be supplied woolen
pant/salwar once in ______ years. (two)
6. Gangmen should be supplied luminescent
vests once in _______ years. (two)
7. Loco Pilots are included in the public image
categories. (say true or false)
8. Waiters are included in the public image
categories. (say true or false)
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(B) Descriptive:
1. Write short notes on luminescent vests and

other items to maintenance staff working on
the track?
2. What are the provisions regarding supply of
cloth and payment of stitching charges to
public image categories?
3. What are the instructions regarding supply of
uniform to Gangmen, Keymen, Mates and
patrolmen?
4. What are the instructions for payment of
stitching charges for uniforms?
58
VIII. Booking of Running and non-running

railway staff:
(A) Objective:
1. The running duty of Loco and Traffic running

staff should not ordinarily exceed ______ hours
at a stretch. (ten)
2. Loco and Traffic running staff is entitled to
claim rest after performing ____ hours of duty
provided they have given 02 hours notice to
the controller. (twelve)
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3. The duty at a stretch should be computed

from ___________ for the purpose of computing
duty of ten hours. (actual departure of the
train)
4. For the purpose of overtime payment, the
hours of work shall be calculated from
__________ to ___________. (‘signing on’ to
‘singing off’)
5. Loco Running staff is entitled to engine
attendance allowance of ______ minutes
before the departure from engine shed and
______ minutes after arrival in the engine shed.
(45 minutes; 15 minutes)
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6. Traffic Running staff is entitled to train

attendance allowance of _______ minutes
before the departure of the passenger train
and _____ minutes after the arrival of the train.
7. Traffic Running staff is entitled to train
attendance allowance of ________ minutes
before the departure of the goods train and
______ minutes after the arrival of the train.
8. Running staff should not normally be away
from headquarters for more than ________
days at a stretch. (three or four days)
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9. Night duty should not normally be performed

by the running staff for more than _________
nights at a stretch. (six)
10. Loco and Traffic Running staff are allowed
______ hours rest at headquarters after a
running duty of less than 08 hours. (12 hours)
11. Loco and Traffic Running staff are allowed
______ hours rest at headquarters after a
running duty of 08 hours or more. (16 hours)
12. The running staff shall not be called upon
to go out before availing ______ hours rest
unless it is absolutely necessary in case of
accidents and breakdowns. (six)
62
13. The interval between the short trips shall

be treated as ______ if it is equal to or less
than one hour plus time allowed for
train/engine allowance. (duty)
14. Running staff shall be granted each month
a rest of at least four periods of not less than
_______ consecutive hours each or five periods
of not less than ____ consecutive hours each
including a full night. (30; 22)
15. Travelling Ticket Examiners are classified
as _______ workers under HOER.
16. The duty hours of other running staff like
traveling van clerks should be limited to
_______ hours a week on the average. (54)
63
17. Periodic rest to other running staff like

Travelling Ticket Examiners may be given on
the scale in the manner laid down for local
and traffic running staff. (say true or false)
18. When a worker not provided with crew rest
van travels on duty as passenger, all time
spent for traveling beyond a radius of 08 kms
from place of his duty shall be treated as
_______. (duty)
19. When a worker does not travel on any day
beyond a radius of 08 kms from the place of
duty, the time spent as passenger on duty will
not count at duty. (say true or false)
64
20. When a worker is provided with crew rest

van, the time spent as passenger on duty will
not count as duty. (say true or false)
21. In case Railway employees who have to
travel occasionally on duty outside their
jurisdiction, _______ of travel time shall be
credited towards duty hours. (50%)
22. Saloon attendants are classified as ______
under HOER. (essentially intermittent)
23. When saloon attendants are required to
move out on line with saloon, _______ period of
their traveling will be treated as duty. (whole)
24. Loco running staff deputed to accompany
dead engines may be allowed credit of
65
________ of the time spent during such

journey. (2/3)
25. In case of non-running staff, efforts should
be made to provide at least one break in
continuous night duty in ______ days in
addition to weekly rest. (10)
(B) Descriptive:

(i) Split shift (ii) Rest at out-station to loco
and traffic running staff
(iii) Periodic Rest to Running staff. (iv)
Tavelling spare on duty
66
(v) Engine & Train Attendance(vi) Breach of

Rest
2. What are the instructions regarding Duty
hours and Rest to Loco and Traffic Running
staff?
3. Explain briefly about the duty hours and
periodic rest to other running staff like
traveling ticket examiners.
4. What is the procedure for computation of duty
hours of Air-conditioned coach attendants and
incharges?
5. What principles should be borne in mind while
framing the duty rosters?
67
IX. Railway Servants (Discipline & Appeal)

Rules, 1968
(A) Objective:
1. The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal)

Rules came into force on ________.
2. _______ form is used for placing a Railway
employee under suspension.
3. Suspension is a penalty under D&A Rules,
1968. (say true or false)
4. ________form is used for revocation of
suspension.
68
5. ________ form is used for imposition of minor

penalty.
6. ________ form is used for imposition of major
penalty.
7. ________ form is used for nomination of Inquiry
Officer.
8. ________ form is used to appoint a presenting
officer.
9. Subsistence allowance is equal to leave
salary, which the employee would have drawn
had he been on _____________________.
10. In case the suspension period is prolonged
beyond three months for reasons not
attributable to the employee, the subsistence
69
allowance may be increased by an amount not

exceeding _______ % __________.
11. In case the suspension period is prolonged
beyond three months for reasons attributable
to the employee, the subsistence allowance
may be decreased by an amount not
exceeding _______ % __________.
12. A retired Railway servant can act as a
defense helper (say true or false)
13. Retired Railway servants cannot act as
defense helper in more than ______ cases at a
time.
70
14. The defense helper should be from the

same Railway as that of the delinquent
employee. (say true or false)
15. An official of a recognized trade union may
assist in more than three pending disciplinary
cases. (say true or false)
16. Termination of an employee on reduction of
establishment is a penalty under D&A Rules,
17. Withholding of increments for failure to
pass any departmental examination is not a
penalty under D& A Rules, 1968. (say true or
false).
71
18. Reversion of a Railway servant officiating in

higher service on the ground that he is
considered to be unsuitable for such higher
grade is a penalty under D&A Rules, 1968.
(say true or false)
19. No appeal lies against any order of an
_____________ nature or of the nature of
______________ of the final disposal of a
disciplinary proceedings.
20. Appeal lies against the order of suspension.
(say true or false)
21. Any order interlocutory in nature passed by
the inquiry can be appealed against. (say true
or false)
72
22. While disposing of an appeal, the appellate

authority can order re-appointment of the
delinquent employee. (say true or false).
23. No appeal shall be entertained unless
preferred within ______ days.
24. The period of 45 days for preferring an
appeal is reckoned from _______. (the date on
which a copy of the order appealed against is
delivered to the appellant)
25. The appeal against an order of the
disciplinary authority can be preferred by the
appellant in his own name. (say true or false)
73
26. The appeal shall be preferred to any higher

authority than the disciplinary authority. (say
true or false)
27. The appeal shall not contain any
______________________.
28. No order imposing/enhancing a penalty
shall be made by any revising authority unless
the Railway Servant concerned has been
given ________ against the penalty proposed.
29. No proceeding for revision shall be
commenced until after the expiry of the period
of limitation for __________.
74
30. No proceeding for revision shall be

commenced until after ________ of the appeal
preferred.
31. Rule 25.A of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with
_____________.
32. Every order or notice under RS (D&A)
Rules, 1968 shall be served in person on the
Railway servant concerned or communicated
to him by _____________.
33. An authority not lower than
___________________ shall impose the penalties
of dismissal/Removal/Compulsory retirement.
34. While putting up the case to revision
authority, the authority competent thereto
75
can suggest the specific penalty to be

imposed. (say true or false)
35. If DRM functions as Disciplinary/Appellate
authority, __________ shall be the
appellate/revision authority.
36. The disciplinary proceedings should be
closed immediately on the death of the
charged employee. (say true or false).
37. ____________ inquiry is ordered, if necessary,
to find out prima facie whether there is any
case under DAR.
38. Disciplinary Authority decides to conduct
inquiry either by ______ or by __________ or by
___________.
76
39. _________ authority fixes the date for inquiry

and advises the charged employee.
40. The inquiring authority may refuse the
request of the delinquent employee for
documents, if they are __________ to the case.
41. The inquiring authority may refuse the
request of the delinquent employee for
documents, if they would be against
__________ or ______________.
42. The inquiring authority, where it is not itself
the ___________, shall forward to the
disciplinary authority the records of inquiry.
43. Charges framed against a delinquent
employee should not be _______ . They should
77
be ______ and definite to convey exact nature

of the alleged misconduct.
44. The disciplinary authority cannot impose
major penalty without conducting enquiry
proceedings subject to the exceptions given
under Rule ________ of the RS(D&A) Rules,
1968.
45. If no presenting officer is appointed,
__________ authority will perform the functions
of the presenting officer in an inquiry.
46. A railway servant on leave preparatory to
retirement cannot be nominated as a defence
counsel. (say true or false).
78
47. The trade union official nominated as

defence counsel should be a member of the
recognized trade union for at least __________
(period) at the time of nomination.
48. If no presenting officer is nominated,
__________ will commence the proceedings by
reading out the articles of charge.
49. If no presenting officer is nominated,
_________ will examine and re-examine the
prosecution witnesses.
50. What is the time limit for submission of
written statement of defence by the
delinquent railway servant?
79
51. If the documents cited in the charge sheet

are not enclosed to it at the time of serving
the same, it shall lead to procedural lapse.
(say true or false).
52. What is the time limit allowed for the
delinquent employee for completion of
inspection of the documents?
53. Show cause notice is necessary before
imposing minor penalty after dropping the
major penalty proceedings. (say true or false)
54. Recognised trade union official can assist a
gazetted railway servant to present his case
before the inquiring authority. (say true or
false).
80
55. The trade union official who assists the

delinquent employee in an inquiry should take
nominal fees only. (say true or false)
56. A legal practitioner can act as a defence
assistant. (say true or false)
57. If _________ authority is a legal practitioner,
the defence assistant can also be a legal
practitioner.
58. The ten days time allowed for submission of
the written statement may be extended by
the __________ authority, if he satisfies that
there is enough justification to do so.
59. In case the alleged charge is assault,
___________ filed in the police station can be
81
one of the relevant documents to be attached

to the charge sheet.
60. In case the alleged charge is unauthorized
absence, _________ can be one of the listed
documents.
61. If the charge is unauthorized absence,
_________ can be one of the witnesses.
62. A railway servant under suspension can be
granted leave. (say true or false)
given _______ sets of privilege passes in a
calendar year at the discretion of the authority
not lower than DRM.
82

given one set of privilege pass in a calendar
year at the discretion of the authority not
lower than __________.
65. In case of removal/dismissal, the cost of
privilege passes given to a railway servant
under suspension should be recovered. (say
true or false)
66. Employees under suspension may be given
not more than ________ sets of PTOs per year
at the discretion of __________.
67. The discretion to issue PTOs to employees
under suspension may also be exercised by
__________________.
83
68. PF amount can be recovered from

Subsistence allowance. (say true or false)
69. Amount due to court attachment cannot be
recovered for subsistence allowance. (say true
or false).
70. Appeal shall be entertained unless
preferred within _________ days.
71. Rule No. ________ of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968
deals with communication of orders to Railway
servants.
72. Schedule III of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals
with ____________.
84
73. Special provisions to Group C and D are

contained in Rule ________ of RS(D&A) Rules,
1968.
74. The authority competent to reduce of
increase the subsistence allowance after a
period of three months of suspension is
_______________.
75. After a period of three months of
suspension, the subsistence allowance may be
increased or reduced by __________.
76. Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 apply
to casual labour. (say true or false)
85
77. Inquiry is not required to be held in case of

DAR proceedings for minor penalty. (say true
or false)
78. The disciplinary authority can never act as
an inquiry officer. (say true or false)
79. A typical charge sheet for major penalty
necessarily contains _____ annexures.
80. A trade union official can act as ___________
in a DAR Case.
81. Trade Union member can act as Defence
counsel in a DAR case against Gazetted
Officers. (say true or false)
82. Rule 13 of D&A Rules deals with common
proceedings. (say true or false)
86
83. No appeal shall lie against any order

passed by an Inquiry Officer in the course of
an inquiry under Rule 9 of RS (D&A) Rules,
84. Rule 25 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with
special provisions for Group C & D staff. (say
true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. To whom the Railway servants (Discipline &

Appeal) Rules, 1968 are not applicable and to
whom they are applicable?
87
2. When a Railway servant may be placed under

suspension?
3. What is meant by deemed suspension? What
are the provisions for deemed suspension?
4. What is meant by subsistence allowance?
What deductions are permissible from
subsistence allowance?
5. How does the period of suspension is treated
under different circumstances?
6. List out the minor penalties prescribed under
D&A Rules, 1968.
7. List out the major penalties prescribed under
D&A Rules, 1968.
88
8. What does not amount to penalty within the

meaning of Rule 6 of D&A Rules?
9. What is the procedure for imposition of minor
penalty under D&A Rules, 1968?
10. What documents shall be forwarded to
inquiry Officer by the disciplinary authority to
facilitate conduct of the inquiry?
11. Under what circumstances, an inquiry is not
required to impose a penalty on the
delinquent employee as an exception to Rule
9?
12. What are the orders against which no
appeal lies under R.17 of D&A Rules?
89
13. Indicate five types of orders against which

appeal lies under R.18 of D&A Rules.
14. Write briefly about the special provisions
available to non-gazetted staff under D&A
Rules, 1968?
15. Who are the revising authorities under the
RS (D&A) Rules, 1968?
submission of a petition to the President
envisaged under Appendix II of IREC, Vol.I?
(i) Appellate authority & Disciplinary authority,
(ii)Revision & Review (iii) Suspension &
Deemed Suspension,
90
(iv) Minor Penalty & Major Penalty (v)

Removal & Dismissal
(vi) Presenting Officer & Inquiry Officer
18. Write Short notes on:
(i) Defence counsel. (ii) Communication of
orders
(iii) Deemed suspension (iv) Common
proceedings
(v)Rule 14 of Railway Servants (Discipline &
Appeal) Rules, 1968.
(vi) preponderance of probability(vii)
Principles of natural justice
(viii) Review under RS (D&A) Rules.
91
19. Draft statement of articles of charge

framed against Shri Rao a Lab superintendent,
Railway Hospital, Lallaguda, who was found
pilfering medicines worth Rs. 200/- from the
hospital at about 17.30 hrs., on 21.05.2005..
20. Draft statement of imputations of
misconduct/misbehaviour in support of the
articles of charge framed against Shri Rao, a
lab superintendent, Railway Hospital,
Lallaguda, who was found pilfering medicines
worth Rs. 200/- from the hospital at about
17.30 Hrs., on 21.05.2005.
21. Draft statement of imputations of
misconduct/misbehaviour in support of the
92
articles of charge framed against Shri Chari, a

Sr. Clerk, CPO/O/SC who has misused II Class
Privilege Pass No. S 235466 by allowing non-
family members to travel under the guise of
his wife and widowed mother.
22. Draft statement of articles of charge
framed against Shri Singh, a Peon, COM/O/SC
that he has remained unauthorizedly absent
from duty for 200 days from 01.07.1998 to
16.01.99 without prior sanction of leave or
production of proper medical certificate from
authorised medical attendant.
23. Indicate the reasonable opportunities
available to defend oneself if one is taken up
93
for Major Penalty under Railway Servants

(D&A) Rules, 1968? What further avenues
available to him, if he is imposed with the
penalty and what procedure shall be followed?
X. Recognition of Trade Unions. Facilities to

Office bearers of recognized
unions/Associations. Dealing with
Unrecognised Unions/Associations.
(A) Objective:
94
1. One card pass in favour of _________ office

bearers shall be issued to each branch of a
trade union. (any four)
2. The card pass issued to the branches of trade
unions are available over the jurisdiction of
the branch and to the _________. (divisional
headquarters)
3. The authority competent to take a decision in
regard to the request for allotment of land for
construction of branch offices of a recognized
union is ______ . (GM)
4. In case of transfer of office bearer to another
office located at a distance in the same area
at the same station, there is no need to give
95
notice to the union before hand. (say true or

false)
5. In case of transfer of office bearers from one
section to another in the same office, there is
no need to give notice to the union before
hand. (say true or false)
6. The procedure laid down for transfer of office
bearers need to be followed even in the case
of employees to be transferred on
SPE/Vigilance cases.(say true or false)
7. In case employee is transferred on his own
request, there is no need to follow usual
procedure. (say true or false)
96
8. Prior permission of administration would be

needed for use of Railway premises for
holding meetings of recognized unions. (say
true or false)
9. The requests for use of railway premises for
holding meeting of recognized unions should
reach the administration ______ days before
the meeting. (three)
10. Political subjects can also be discussed at
the meetings of recognized unions in the
Railway premises for which permission is
granted. (say true or false)
97
11. Administration may insist on the copy of

agenda of the meetings of recognized unions
before granting permission. (say true or false)
12. A railway telephone may be provided to the
branch offices of the recognized unions also.
(say true or false)
13. General Secretary of a recognized union
may be provided with a railway telephone at
his residence only when the residential
accommodation is within Railway premises.
(say true or false)
14. Divisional Secretaries of reecognised
unions are not entitled to railway telephone at
residence. (say true or false)
98
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the recognized unions on Indian

Railways? What are the privileges extended
to the office bearers of the recognized unions?
2. What are un-recognised unions? What is the
Government’s policy regarding the un-
recognised union?
3. What is the Government’s policy regarding
the grievances put forth by the SC/ST staff
associations? What are the privileges
extended to the SC/ST staff associations?
99
4. What are the rules in connection with the

transfer of a trade union official in different
circumstances – (i) on administrative grounds,
(ii) on Periodical Transfer, (iii) on request.
5. What are the instructions regarding transfer of
Trade Union officials?
6. What are the instructions regarding grant of
permission/use of railway premises for union
meetings?
7. What are the instructions regarding provision
of telephone facility to the offices of
recognized unions and their residential
accommodation?
100
8. What are the instructions regarding

deputation of railway servant as full time paid
union worker?
XI. Medical Attendance & Medical

Examination:
(A) Objective:
1. Group A of the vision test is in the interest of

________ (public Safety)
2. Group A of the vision test is subdivided into
_______ classes. (three)
101
3. Foot Plate staff are medically tested for fitness

in ____ class of Vision Test. (A/1)
4. Station Masters are medically tested for
fitness in ____ class of Vision Test. (A/2)
5. Inspectorial staff of Loco, Traffic and Signal
Department are medically tested for fitness in
______ class of Vision Test. (A/3).
6. Group B of the vision test is in the interest of
_______ (employee himself and the fellow
workers)
7. Group B of the vision is subdivided into ____
classes. (two)
8. Give two examples of staff medically tested
for fitness in B/1 class: Gangmen, Gang
102
mates, Trains clerks, P Way Mistries, TXRs,

RPF staff.
9. TTEs are medically tested for fitness in _______
class. (B/2)
10. Group C of the vision test is in the interest
of ________ (administration)
11. Group C of the vision test is subdivided into
________ classes. (two)
12. Welfare Inspectors are medically tested for
fitness in ______ class. (C/1)
13. Clerical staff are medically tested for fitness
in ______ class. (C/2)
14. Periodical Medical Examination of vision
test in classes A/1, A/2 and A/3 is held after
103
every ________ years upto the age of 45 years.

(three)
test for footplate staff of high speed trains
should be held once in ______ years upto the
age of 40 years. (two)
test in classes A/1, A/2 and A/3 is held once in
________ years after the age of 45 years. (a
year)
test for footplate staff of high speed trains
should be held once in ______ years after the
age of 40 years. (a year)
104
18. Periodical Medical Examination in B/1 and

B/2 classes is held at the age of _____ years
and again at the age of ______ years. (45 and
55)
19. No periodical medical examination is held
for ____ and ___ classes.(C/1 and C/2)
20. The time spent in journey for PME is treated
as _____ (duty)
21. The time taken by an employee to equip
himself with spectacles etc., without which he
is not considered fit for duty should be treated
as _______. (leave due)
22. The amount payable for joining RELHS at
the time of retirement is __________.
105
23. Medical allowance is granted @ Rs. 100/-

p.m. to Railway Pensioner/Family Pensioner
residing beyond ______ away from Railway
Hospitals.
24. ____ qualifying service in the Railways is
necessary for joining RELH Scheme.
25. Supply of diet is free to employees whose
basic pay does not exceed Rs. ______.
(B) Descriptive:
1. Explain the different medical classifications

under which the non-gazetted staff are
106
divided for appointment in Railway service?

Give examples.
2. What is RELHS? Who is eligible to join the
scheme? What are the benefits under the
scheme?
3. What are the provisions regarding supply of
diet and the charges thereto?
4. What are the important provisions regarding
reimbursement of expenses of -
(a) medical treatment and (b) cost of
medicines
XII. Audit and Accounts Narrative Report.

Draft Paras and their disposal.
107
(A) Objective:
1. What does C&AG stand for?

2. What does PDA stand for?
3. What does PAC stand for?
4. In how many parts audit inspection reports are
issued?
5. Who is the head of audit office in zonal
railways?
6. Who is the head of audit office in Railway
Board?
(B) Descriptive:
108
1. What is special letter? When is special letter

issued?
2. Explain briefly on the role of audit?
3. When are Part-I and Part-II audit inspection
reports and Notes issued?
4. What is a draft para? When is it issued? How is
it dealt with by Railway administration?
5. Why inspection of any unit by Accounts is
essential?
6. Describe in brief about the communication
from Audit? How are they dealt with by
Railway administration?
109
XIII. Canons of Financial Propriety.
(A) Objective:
1. Under the standards of financial propriety, the

sanctioning authority must pay due regard to
the principle that expenditure should prima
facie be more or less than the occasion
demands. (say true or false)
2. No authority should exercise its powers of
sanctioning expenditure to pass an order
which will directly or indirectly be to its
advantage. (say true or false)
110
3. Normally, public money should not be utilized

for the benefit of a section of the community.
(say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. Write about the cannons of financial

propriety?
2. Write short notes on Schedule of Powers.
XIV. Classification of demands for grants.
(A) Objective:
111
1. The proposals of Government in respect of

sums required to meet expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India are to be
submitted in the form of __________. (Demands
for Grants)
2. The demands shall be for _______ expenditure.
(gross).
3. The Demands No. 1,2 & 3 are in the nature of
__________. (general on cost).
4. The Demands for Grants are to be presented
in ______ parts. (two)
5. Each part of the Demands for grants will have
3 sub-division called _______, ________ and
112
_________. (sub-heads, detailed heads and

primary units).
6. Sub-heads of the Demands represent
__________ (major functions/activities)
7. Detailed heads of the Demands represent
_________ (break up of the activity of
classification)
8. The expenditure under Repairs and
Maintenance of Plant & Equipment of all
Departments shall be charged to Demand No.
________. (7-Abstract E)
9. Operating Expenses of Rolling Stock &
Equipment shall be charged to ______.
(Demand No, 8)
113
10. Operating Expenses – Fuel shall be charged

to ________. (Demand No. 10)
11. Expenditure under Staff Welfare &
Amenities shall be charged to _____. (Demand
No. 11)
12. Charged expenditure required the sanction
of President. (say true or false)
13. Voted expenditure requires approval of
Parliament. (say true or false)
14. Vote on Account represents Grants
sanctioned by the Parliament in advance for
the short period. (say true or false)
15. Annexure-J indicates statement of mis-
classification. (say true or false)
114
16. Annexure-K indicates defects in budget.

(say true or false)
17. Demand 3-13 is known as ordinary working
expenses. (say true or false)
18. Repairs to staff quarters is booked to
Demand No. 11(say true or false)
19. Cost of training is booked to Demand No.
12 ( say true or false)
20. TA to PWI is booked to Demand No. 4 (say
true or false)
21. Payment of DCRG is booked to Demand No.
13 (say true or false)
22. Salary of CPO is booked to Demand No. 3
(say true or false)
115
23. Salary of GM is booked to Demand No. 3

( say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the demands for grants? Enumerate

them.
(a) Demands for grants (b) primary units of
expenditure
XV. Man-Power Planning.
(A) Objective:
116
1. Cadre means the strength of a service or a

part of a service sanctioned as a separate
unit. (say true or false)
2. Gazetted post is a post to which appointment
is made by ________________.
3. Lien means the _______ of a Railway servant to
hold a post to which he has been appointed on
regular basis.
4. A permanent post means a post carrying
definite rate of pay sanctioned without
________________.
117
5. A temporary post means a post carrying a

definite rate of pay sanctioned for
________________.
6. A Tenure post means
______________________________________.
7. A supernumerary post is a shadow post to
which no duties are attached. (say true or
false).
8. A supernumerary post should be created for
indefinite periods. (say true or false)
9. A supernumerary post, on vacation by the
incumbent, can be filled by another officer in
the order of seniority. (say true or false)
118
10. Work charged posts are charged to specific

sanctioned works (say true or false)
11. An employee who has acquired lien on a
post retains the lien on that post while under
suspension. (say true or false)
12. An employee who has acquired lien on a
post retains the lien on that post while
officiating in another post. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. Define and explain:

(i) Temporary Posts (ii) Tenure Posts (iii)
Supernumerary Posts
119
(iv) ex-cadre posts (v) work charged posts (vi)

Selection Post
(vii) Non-selection post (viii) Surplus staff
bank. (ix) matching surrenders
(x) Bench Marking (xi) Vacancy Bank Register.
(i) Permanent Posts & Temporary Posts (ii)
Tenure Posts & Temporary Posts
(iii) Tenure Posts & Ex-cadre Posts (iv)
Selection Post & Non-selection post.
(v) Ex-cadre posts & Supernumerary Posts.
3. What is meant by lien? What are the
provisions regarding retention, transfer and
termination of lien of a Railway employee?
120
4. Write a justification for creation of two

temporary posts of Stenographers in scale Rs.
4000-6000 in Engineering Department duly
indicating the matching surrender required for
creation.
5. What are the points to be checked before the
proposal for creation of additional pots being
processed for sanction of the competent
authority?
6. Man Power Planning needs urgent attention on
Indian Railways – substantiate the statement.
7. What is Manpower Planning? What are its
important objectives?
121
8. What is meant by surplus staff? What are the

rules governing absorption and seniority of
surplus staff in alternative posts?
9. What are the provisions regarding absorption
of medically decategorised staff in alternative
posts?
10. Under what circumstances the lien acquired
by an employee shall be retained and shall
not be retained?
11. What are the instructions for speedy re-
deployment of surplus staff? What are the
instructions regarding fixing their seniority in
the alternative posts?
122
12. What are the instructions for training and

redeployment of staff -
(i) working in surplus posts, (ii) in surplus
posts retiring shortly
(iii) working in intermediate grades.
XVI. Pay and allowances.
(A) Objective:
1. Waiting duty allowance is paid to

______________ staff.
2. Waiting duty allowance is paid to the
running staff due to detention at the station
123
on account of __________ or ____________ after

they have reported for duty.
3. Trip allowance is paid to the Running staff
working on ______________ and ____________
trains for completion of trips.
4. _________ % of the running allowance is
reckoned as ay for passes/PTOs.
5. _________ staff who are detained at any
station other than their HQrs., due to an
accident for a period exceeding 08 hours shall
be paid accident allowance.
6. ________ staff deputed to work temporarily
at stations outside their HQrs., either on
124
running duties or stationary duties shall be

entitled to outstation allowance.
7. Breach of Rest allowance is paid to ________
staff when the rest falls short of the
prescribed hours of rest as per HOER.
8. National Holiday Allowance is paid to staff
drawing pay upto Rs. ______.
9. NPA stands for __________ which is paid to
______________.
10. Employees joining training institutions as
faculty members are entitled to ______
allowance.
125
11. The staff who are paid nursing allowance

are not entitled to NDA for the duty performed
during nights. (say true or false)
12. The classification of cities for the purpose
of HRA are ___.(A1, A, B1, B2 and C)
13. The classification of cities for the purpose
of CCA are _____. (A1, A, B1 and B2)
14. Hyderabad is classified as __________ for
HRA and _________ for CCA.
15. The quantum of rent paid is linked to
payment of HRA (say true or false)
16. Dual charge allowance will be admissible
only if the additional charge is held for a
period exceeding _______ days. (45 days)
126
17. For the purpose of dual charge allowance,

the aggregate of the pay and additional pay
shall not exceed Rs. _____________ p.m.
(26,000/-)
18. Transport allowance shall not be included
for the purpose of computation of Overtime
allowance. (say true or false)
19. NPA is taken into account for determining
the TA entitlements (say true or false)
20. Leave availed by the officer looking after
full duties of another post shall be taken into
account for counting the period of dual charge
allowance. (say true or false)
127
21. Blind and orthopaedically handicapped

employees are not entitled to transport
allowance if they are availing I Class
residential Card pass. (say true or false)
22. A railway servant is not entitled to HRA if
his spouse is allotted with Government
accommodation at the same station. (say
true or false)
23. NPA is treated as ay for the purpose of
sanctioning advances. (say true or false)
24. The rate of washing allowance to Group D
employee is __________ per month.
25. Hyderabad city is classified as ________ for
the purpose of HRA.
128
26. Calcutta city is classified as ________ for the

purpose of CA.
27. The %age of DA payable as on 01.01.2006
is ______________.
28. Rate of transport allowance payable to the
employees drawing pay in scale RS. 6500-
10500 at a class city is RS. __________-.
29. Breach of rest allowance is paid to running
staff. (say true or false)
30. Night duty allowance is payable to all
Group C employees. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
129
1. What are the authorised deductions from the

Pay bill of a Railway servant?
2. What is consolidated TA? What are the rules
for payment of consolidated TA?
3. What are the occasions on which the
employees are entitled to TA for journeys?
4. What are the rules regarding payment of
conveyance charges for journeys (a) at or
near HQrs., and (b) outside Hqrs.?
5. What are the accompaniments to a wage
bill? What documents are to be verified
before claiming the salary of a temporary
Railway servant?
130
(i) Pay (ii) Personal Pay (iii) Presumptive

Pay (iv) Overseas Pay
(v) Special Pay (vi) Substantive Pay (vii)
Officiating Pay.
(viii) Conveyance allowance to handicapped
persons (ix) Trip Allowance
(x) Consolidated traveling allowance (xi)
Breach of rest allowance
(xii) Break down duty allowance (xiii)
Outstation allowance
(xiv) Teaching allowance(xv) Special
allowance to gatemen.
(xvi) Non-practicing allowance(xvii) Dual
charge allowance.
131
(i) Special Pay & Personal Pay (ii) Substantive
Pay & Officiating Pay
(iii) Presumptive Pay & Time scale Pay
XVII. Leave Rules.
1. What are the two categories of strikes?

2. Conversion of one kind of leave into another
shall be considered if received within _______
days.
132
3. Leave ordinarily begins on the day on which

_____________ is effected and ends on the day
preceding that in which _________.
4. CL shall not be combined with any other kind
of leave since it is not __________.
5. A railway servant on leave may not take any
service in India without previous sanction of
______________.
6. No railway servant shall be granted leave of
any kind for a continuous period exceeding
_________.
7. Leave shall not be granted to a railway whom
a competent authority has decided to
________, or _______ or ________ from service.
133
8. Permission of the leave sanctioning authority

is required to join duty canceling the leave
sanctioned to him. (say true or false)
9. A railway servant who has taken leave on
medical certificate may not return to duty
until he has produced a _____________ from
________________.
10. Willful absence from duty after expiry of
leave renders a railway servant liable to
disciplinary action. (say true or false)
11. A railway servant other than one who is
working in a railway school shall be entitled to
_______ days leave on average pay in a
calendar year.
134
12. The leave account of every railway servant

shall be credited with leave on average pay in
advance in ______ instaments of ______ each
on the first day of __________ and _______ every
calendar year.
13. The leave at the credit of a railway servant
at the close of every half year shall be carried
forward to next half year subject to the
condition that the closing balance does not
exceed ______ days.
14. Ordinarily the maximum leave on average
pay that may be granted at a time to a railway
servant shall be _______ days.
135
15. In the year of appointment, LAP shall be

credited to the leave account of an employee
at the rate of ____ days for each completed
calendar month of service.
16. In the year of retirement/resignation of a
railway employee, LAP shall be credited at the
rate of _____ days for each completed calendar
month of service.
17. In case of removal/dismissal/death of a
railway servant, credit of LAP shall be allowed
at the rate of ______ days per completed
calendar month upto the end of the month
preceding the month in which one is
removed/dismissed/deceased.
136
18. During extra ordinary leave, the credit of LAP

to be afforded to the leave account at the
commencement of next half year shall be
reduced by _______ of the period of such leave
subject to a maximum of ______ days.
19. During absence treated as dies non, the
credit of LAP to be afforded to the leave
account at the commencement of next half
year shall be reduced by _______ of the period
of such dies non subject to a maximum of
______ days.
20. A permanent/temporary railway servant shall
be entitled to leave on half average pay of
137
_______ days in respect of each completed

year of service.
21. The amount of leave on half average pay
that can be availed of in one spell shall be
limited to ________ .
22. The leave on half average pay shall be
credited to the leave account of a railway
servant on 1st of ______ and ________ at the
rate of 10 days each in advance.
23. In the year of appointment, LHAP shall be
credited to the leave account of an employee
at the rate of ____ days for each completed
calendar month of service.
138
24. In case of removal/dismissal/death of a

railway servant, credit of LHAP shall be
allowed at the rate of ______ days per
completed calendar month upto the end of the
month preceding the month in which one is
removed/dismissed/deceased.
25. In case of retirement/resignation, credit of
LHAP shall be allowed at the rate of ______
days per completed month upto the date of
retirement/resignation.
26. While calculating the completed months of
service, the month may be rounded off to the
next higher if it exceeds more than 15 days
(say true or false)
139
27. In case the period of absence is treated as

dies non, the credited to the LHAP account
shall be reduced by ______ of the period of
dies non subject to a maximum of 10 days.
28. There is no limit to the number of days of
commuted leave to be availed of during the
entire service.
29. Commuted leave may be granted at the
request of the employee even when leave on
average pay is due to him.(say true or false)
30. Grant of Leave not due shall be limited to the
leave on half average ay he is likely to earn
thereafter. (say true or false)
140
31. Leave not due during the entire service shall

be limited to ______ days on medical
certificate.
32. Leave not due is debited against the ________
leave he is likely to earn subsequently.
33. In case a railway servant who has been
granted leave not due resigns from service or
permitted to retire voluntarily, the
retirement/resignation takes effect from
____________.
34. If the retirement is ____________ on the
railway employee, no leave salary for the
period of leave not due availed shall be
recovered from the employee.
141
35. No temporary railway servant shall be

granted extra ordinary leave in excess of
three months without a medical certificate.
(say true or false)
36. A railway servant who proceeds on LAP is
entitled to leave salary equal to the pay drawn
before proceeding on leave on average pay.
(say true or false)
37. The increment due on a day during the leave
period shall not be drawn till the employee
resumes duty. (say true or false)
38. A railway servant on extraordinary leave is
not entitled to any leave salary. (say true or
false)
142
39. The payment of cash equivalent of leave

salary shall be limited to a maximum of
________ days of leave on average pay.
40. Entire leave on half average pay at the credit
of railway servant who retire on
superannuation, shall be allowed to be
encashed subject to the condition that
________________________.
41. A female Government servant with less than
_______ children may be granted maternity
leave.
42. Maximum of the maternity leave admissible
is _______ days.
143
43. Maternity Leave can be combined with any

other kind of leave (say true or false)
44. Total period of Maternity Leave on account
of miscarriage/abortion should be restricted to
______ days in entire career of a female
servant.
45. The maternity leave shall not be debited
from the leave account (say true or false).
46. A male Government servant with less than
______ children may be granted paternity
leave.
47. Maximum of the paternity leave is ______
days.
144
48. The paternity leave shall be availed of with

in ______ months.
49. The paternity leave shall be availed during
___________.
50. The paternity leave shall be availed during
confinement of his wife i.e., ______ days before
or upto _______ months from the date of
delivery of the child.
51. In case the paternity leave is not availed off
with in 6 months it shall be treated a lapsed.
52. Paternity leave is granted to a Casual Labour
who has been granted ___________.
145
53. _________ leave is granted to a Railway

servant who is disabled by injury inflicted or
caused in or in consequence of due
performance of his official duty or in
consequence of his official position.
54. Special disability leave shall be combined
with any other kind of leave (say true or
false).
55. Maximum period of Special Disability Leave
granted in consequence of any one disability
shall be __________ .
56. Leave salary payable during the first 120
days of Special Disability leave shall be equal
to leave salary while on _____________.
146
57. Leave salary payable beyond 120 days of

Special Disability leave shall be equal to leave
salary while on _____________.
58. Hospital Leave shall be granted to a railway
servant other than __________.
59. Total period of Hospital Leave, including
other kinds of leave combined with it, shall not
exceed __________.
60. Study Leave shall be granted to Railway
servants in accordance with the rules
prescribed in __________ to Indian Railway
Establishment Code, Vol.I.
61. Study leave shall count as service for
increment. (say true or false).
147

pension. (say true or false)
seniority. (say true or false)
promotion. (say true or false)
65. Study Leave for study out side India shall be
granted by ____________.
66. Apprentice Mechanics are entitled to leave
on full stipend for a period not exceeding
_______ days in any year of apprenticeship. (16
days).
67. Apprentice Mechanics are entitled to leave
on half stipend on medical certificate for a
148
period not exceeding _______ days in any year

of apprenticeship. (20 days).
68. Trade apprentices may be granted leave on
full stipend for a period not exceeding ______
days in any year of apprenticeship. (12 days).
69. Trade Apprentices may be granted leave on
half stipend on medical certificate for a period
not exceeding _______ days. (15 days).
70. Pro. ASMs and Commercial Clerks who are
trained for appointment and not put on the
time scale during the period of training may
be granted leave as applicable to
______________. (Apprentice Mechanics).
149
71. Workshop staff are allowed to take leave for

periods of not less than ________ (half a day).
72. Leave for half a day means authorised
absence from duty for over _______ (period)
before interval or the second period of any
day on which the workshop remains open for
both the periods. (half an hour)
73. The concession of granting half day leave to
workshop staff is limited to ____ occasions in a
year. (six)
74. Advance of leave salary is permissible if the
railway servants proceeds on leave for a
period not less than _______ days. (thirty)
150
75. The advance of leave salary granted shall be

adjusted in full from the __________ in respect
of the leave availed of. (leave salary bill)
76. In a year ______ days of CL is entitled to an
employee appointed in an administrative
office
77. Paternity leave came into effect from
_________________.
78. A Railway servant who resigns or quits
service shall be entitled to cash equivalent in
respect of LAP on the date of cessation of
service to the extent of ________ of such leave
at credit.
151
79. Extra Ordinary Leave on medical grounds

does not qualify for grant of increments. (say
true or false)
80. Casual leave can be combined with joining
time. (say true or false)
81. Trade apprentices may be granted leave on
full stipend for a period not exceeding 12 days
in a calendar year. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. To whom the Railway Servants (Liberalised

Leave) Rules, 1949 shall apply?
2. Write short notes on –
152
(i) Special Disability Leave, (ii) Hospital

Leave, (iii) Extraordinary Leave,
(iv) Leave not due, (v) Study Leave,
(vi) Maternity Leave,
(vii). Leave Encashment (viii) Paternity Leave
(ix). Commuted leave
3. What are the formulae for calculation of cash
payment for unutilized LAP and LHAP. What
are the provisions for payment of leave
encashment to the staff against whom
disciplinary proceedings for major penalty are
pending?
153
4. (a) Write the formula for calculation of cash

payment in lieu of unutilized Leave at Average
Pay.
(b) Calculate the cash equivalent of unutilized
leave of 285 days left to the credit of an
employee on retirement w.e.f. 31.12.2005.
The details of pay and allowances drawn by
him prior to retirement are given below:
Pay: Rs. 10000/-; DP: 5000; DA:21%;
HRA:15%; CCA: Rs. 300/-; Tansport allowance:
Rs. 800/-
5. (a) What are the provisions for granting leave
encashment to an employee resigned from
service?
154
(b) Calculate the cash equivalent of unutilized

leave of 280 days left to the credit of an
employee on resignation from service w.e.f.
31.12.2005. The details of pay and
allowances drawn by him prior to retirement
are given below:
Pay: Rs. 10000/-; DP: 5000; DA:21%;
HRA:15%; CCA: Rs. 300/-; Tansport allowance:
Rs. 800/-
6. Explain the procedure for crediting of leave to
the account of an employee. What are the
provisions regarding maintenance/ verification
of Leave Accounts?
155
7. What are the reasons for missing leave

accounts? Explain how to overcome. What is
the laid down procedure for re-construction of
a missing leave account?
XVIII. Railway Pension Rules.
(A) Objective:
1. Under Pension Rules, Child means son or

unmarried daughter of a railway servant
under __________ years of age.(25)
156
2. Under Pension Rules, minor means a person

who has not completed the age of _______
years. (18)
3. In case of a Railway servant who retires
voluntarily after completing 20 years of
qualifying service, the date of retirement shall
be treated as _________. (non-working day).
4. The day on which a railway servant retires
shall be treated as his last working day. (say
true or false)
5. A railway servant shall not earn two pensions
in the same service or post at the same time.
(say true or false)
157
6. Re-employed pensioners are entitled to a

separate pension or gratuity for the period of
his re-employment. (say true or false)
7. Future good conduct shall be an implied
condition of every grant of pension or its
continuance. (say true or false)
8. The ________ authority may, by order in
writing, withhold or withdraw a pension, if the
pensioner is convicted of a serious crime or is
found guilty of grave misconduct. (appointing)
9. Where the President orders recovery of
pecuniary loss from pension, the recovery
shall not ordinarily be made at a rate
158
exceeding _______ of the pension admissible

on the date of retirement. (1/3)
10. In respect of a retired railway servant
against whom departmental or judicial
proceeding are pending, the Accounts Officer
shall authorise provisional pension not
exceeding ____________. (the maximum
pension)
11. No gratuity shall be paid to the railway
servant until the conclusion of the
departmental or judicial proceedings. (say
true or false)
12. If the departmental proceedings are
initiated for imposing any of the penalties
159
specified in clauses ________________ of Rule 6

of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968, the payment of
gratuity shall be authorised to be paid.
(Clause i, ii, iii(a) and iv).
13. Payment of provisional pension made shall
be adjusted against __________ sanctioned.
(final retirement benefits)
14. No recovery shall be made if the pension
finally sanctioned is less than the provisional
pension. (say true or false)
15. A Group ‘A’ officer shall obtain previous
sanction of the Government to accept any
commercial employment before the expiry of
______ years from the date of retirement. (two)
160
16. All railway servants shall obtain previous

sanction of the Government to accept any
commercial employment after retirement.
(say true or false)
17. Where the Government does not
communicate the refusal to grant permission
to take up commercial employment to the
applicant within _____ days of receipt of the
application, the Government shall be deemed
to have granted permission. (60)
18. Period of service treated as dies-non shall
be treated as service for pensionary benefits.
(say true or false)
161
19. Period of unauthorized absence shall not be

treated as service for pensionary benefits.
(say true or false)
20. Unpaid holidays granted to railway
workshop staff shall be treated as qualifying
service. (say true or false)
21. Period of employment in a part-time
capacity shall also constitute service for
pensionary benefits. (say true or false)
22. In case where railway accommodation is
not vacated by a railway servant after
superannuation or after cessation of service,
full amount of retirement gratuity shall be
withheld. (say true or false)
162
23. A temporary railway servant who seeks

voluntary retirement after completion of
_______ years of service shall be eligible for
retirement pension. (20)
24. In the event of death in harness of a
temporary railway servant, his family shall be
eligible to family pension on the same scale as
admissible to family of permanent railway
servants. (say true or false)
25. Terminal gratuity shall be admissible in
case where the railway servant concerned
resigns his post. (say true or false)
163
26. Terminal gratuity shall not be admissible to

a probationer discharged for failure to pass
the prescribed test. (say true or false)
27. Service rendered as substitute shall be
counted for pensionary benefits if followed by
absorption in a regular post without any
break. (say true or false)
28. The period of suspension shall qualify for
pensionary benefits only if it had been treated
as ________ . (duty or leave due as the case
may be)
29. Period spent on training immediately before
appointment to service shal count as
qualifying service. (say true or false)
164
30. The period of interruption in service

between the date of removal and the date of
reinstatement shall not count at qualifying
service unless regularized as duty. (say true
or false)
31. Dismissal of a railway servant from service
shall not lead to forfeiture of his past service.
(say true or false)
32. Resignation of a railway servant from
service shall lead to forfeiture of his past
service. (say true or false)
33. Any deficiency in the qualifying service of a
railway servant shall not be condoned. (say
true or false)
165
34. A pension granted or awarded under the

Railway Services (Pension) Rules, 1993 shall
not be less than _____________ per month. (Rs.
1250/- + DP=Rs. 1875/-)
35. A railway servant who is dismissed or
removed from service shall forfeit his pension
and gratuity. (say true or false)
36. The authority competent to dismiss or
remove a railway servant from service
sanction compassionate allowance in case
deserving of special consideration. (say true
or false)
166
37. The compassionate allowance shall not

exceed ______ of pension or gratuity or both.
(2/3)
38. Compassionate allowance sanctioned shall
not be less than _______ per month. (Rs.
1250/-)
39. At any time after completion of _______
years of qualifying service, a railway servant
may retire from service voluntarily. (20)
40. The qualifying service on the date of
voluntary retirement of a railway servant shall
be increased by the period not exceeding
______ years. (5)
167
41. Added years of weightage to the qualifying

service of a railway servant retired voluntarily
does not in any case exceed ____ years. (33).
42. Weightage of 5 years shall also be
admissible in the case of those railway
servants who prematurely retired under Rules
1802 to 1804 of the Indian Railway
Establishment Code, Vol.II. (say true or false)
43. The amount of service gratuity shall be
calculated at the rate of ______ month’s
emoluments for every completed six-monthly
period of service. (half)
44. Maximum Pension is limited to ___________
per month.
168
45. Minimum service to get the eligibility for

pension is __________ years. (ten)
46. In calculating the length of qualifying
service fraction of a year equal to 3 months
and above shall be treated as a completed
one half year. (say true or false)
47. The amount of pension finally determined
shall be in whole rupees. (say true or false)
48. Where the pension contains a fraction of a
rupee it shall be rounded off to the next
higher rupee. (say true or false)
49. In the case of a railway servant retiring
after completing qualifying service of not less
than ________ years, the amount of pension
169
shall be calculated at _______ % of average

emoluments subject to a maximum of _______.
(33, 50% and )
50. Maximum of Death-cum-retirement gratuity
shall be ______. (3.5 lakhs)
51. If a railway servant dies while in service
after putting in 20 years or more qualifying
service, the death gratuity payable shall be
______ of emoluments for every completed six
monthly period of qualifying service subject to
a maximum of _____ times the emoluments
provided that the amount of gratuity payable
shall be limited to _________. (half, 33, 3.5
lakhs)
170
52. In case no nomination exists and if there

are one or more surviving members of the
family, the gratuity shall be paid to all such
members in _____ shares. (equal)
53. The minimum family pension payable shall
be _______ % of the minimum of the scale.
(30%).
54. The Pension Scheme was introduced in
Railway on ______________.
55. The Family Pension Scheme was introduced
in Railways on ____________.
56. The maximum amount of Pension that can
be commuted is __________.
171
57. Pensioners would be entitled to have

commuted portion of Pension restored to
them on expiry of ________ years from the date
of retirement.
58. DCRG payable on retirement to a Railway
servant who has put in 15 years of service is
________ times the emoluments.
59. An employee who had 34 years of
qualifying service dies while in service, his
widow is entitled to the Death Gratuity for
__________ months.
60. Minimum Family Pension is Rs.
______________.
172
61. The maximum amount of Deposit linked

insurance admissible is Rs. _________.
62. The minimum service required to sanction
of Pension is _________ years.
63. Formula for calculating monthly pension of
the employee on retirement is
______________________.
64. The qualifying service required for
pensionable staff to accept voluntary
retirement is ___________ years.
65. The minimum Pension is ________________.
66. _____% of pension can be commuted on
retirement.
173
67. The relief is payable on ___________________

pension.
68. The family pension shall not be less than
_________% of the minimum of the scale held
by the employee at the time of
retirement/death.
69. The pension shall not be less than ________
% of the minimum of the scale held by the
employee at the time of retirement.
70. The deposit linked insurance scheme is
linked to ________________ .
71. Maximum amount of gratuity payable to a
retired railway employees is _______.
174
72. DCRG payable depends on the rate of DA

admissible (say true or false)
73. Pay for the purpose of Gratuity is the last
pay drawn plus DP (say true or false)
74. Maximum amount of pension payable shall
be Rs. _____________.
75. Commuted value payable is linked to the
age of the employee retiring from service (say
true or false)
76. Minimum qualifying service for payment of
retirement gratuity is _____ years.
77. Minimum qualifying service required for
payment of pension is _______ years.
175
78. Minimum qualifying service for accepting

request for voluntary retirement is ________
years.
79. Maximum qualifying service reckoned for
fixing the pension is _________ years.
80. One may choose to receive monthly
pension by money order (say true or false)
81. The account for drawl of pension can a joint
account with wife. (say true or false)
82. An employee removed from service is
entitled for pension (say true or false)
83. An employee dismissed or removed from
service is entitled to draw compassionate
176
allowance at the discretion of the ___________

authority.
84. The pension becomes payable to the
retired employee from the last working day of
his service (say true or false)
85. The entire gratuity can be withheld if the
employee does not vacate the Railway quarter
(say true or false)
86. The widows and dependent children of
deceased CPF retires who had retired from
service prior to 01.01.1986 shall be granted
ex-gratia w.e.f._______. (01.01.1986)
177
87. The ex-gratia payment shall not be payable

to more than one member of the family at the
same time. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What is qualifying service? What periods are

not treated as service for pensionary benefits?
2. What are the rules regarding counting of
service in respect of -
(i) a substitute (ii) on probation (iii) under
suspension
(iv) Military service
178

emoluments and average emoluments for the
purpose of pensionary benefits?
(i) DCRG (ii) Commutation of Pension
(iii) Family Pension
(iv) Restoration of commuted portion of
pension (v) Qualifying service
(vi) Average emoluments (vii)
compassionate allowance
5. What are the rules for grant of Death cum
retirement gratuity?
6. Mr. A retired voluntarily w.e.f. 06.07.2000. He
was drawing pay of Rs. 6,000/- from 01.08.98
179
till retirement except two spells i.e., from

12.02.2000 to 29.02.2000 and 16.03.2000 to
31.03.2000 during which he drew higher rate
of pay of Rs. 6,125/-. He was on extra
ordinary leave for 11 days from 01.02.2000.
Calculate the average emoluments for the
purpose of pension.
7. Mr. A retired from service on attaining the age
of superannuation on 30.06.2001 AN after
putting in 33 years of service. He drew a pay
of Rs. 9.500/- from 01.03.2000 and Rs. 9750/-
from 01.03.2001 in scale Rs. 7500-250-12000.
Calculate the pension and family pension
admissible in his case.
180
8. The following are the details of emoluments

drawn by Mr.A during his service:
(i) Pay: Rs. 10,750/- (ii) Special Pay: Rs.
500/- (iii) Personal Pay: Rs. 275/-
(iv) Dearness Pay: Rs. 5,375/- (v) Dearness
allowance: 24%.
(vi) Qualifying service: 22 years 9 months 10
days.
Calculate the Retirement Gratuity admissible
in his case. Also calculate the death gratuity
admissible to his family members in case of
his death in harness.
9. A central Govt. servant drawing pay of Rs.
9,000/- in scale Rs. 7500-250-12000 from
181
01.11.1999. He died on 31.10.2000 while in

service. His date of birth is 6.6.42. Calculate
the Family Pension admissible to his wife.
10. Mr. X a Central Government employee
drawing pay of Rs. 10,475/- in scale Rs. 8000-
275-13000 from 01.11.1997 retired on
superannuation on 31.03.1998. His date of
birth is 01.04.1940. Calculate the pension
admissible to him and the family pension
admissible to his wife in case of death on
03.03.2001.
11. What are the provisions regarding ex-gratia
payment to (i) the families of CPF retirees and
(ii) to the CPF retirees?
182
12. Write about the salient features of the new

pension scheme, 2004.
XIX. General Conditions of Service.
2. Absorption of Medically decategorised

Staff.
(ii)Advances.
183
(iii) Casual Labour and Substitutes

(iv) Confidential Reports
(v)Compassionate Ground Appointment
(vi) Fixation of Pay & Drawl of increments.
(vii) Group Insurance Scheme
(viii) Joining Time Rules
(ix) Pass Rules
(x)Promotions
(xi) Provident Fund
(xii) Recruitment Rules
(xiii) Reservation Rules
(xiv) Selections
(xv) Seniority Rules.
184
(i) Absorption of medically decategorised

staff:
(A) Objective:
1. The committee to assess suitability of

medically decategorised staff for absorption in
alternative posts should include a medical
officer. (say true or false)
2. Absorption of medically incapacitated staff in
alternative posts in departments other than
the one in which he was working at the time
of incapacitation should be considered only if
185
it is not possible to absorb him in other wings

of the same department. (say true of false).
3. Absorption of medically decategorised staff in
alternative posts carrying lower grades is
contravention of the Disabilities Act. (say true
or false)
4. No option is available to a medically
decategorised employee to decline the
alternative employment if offered in equal
grade. (say true or false)
5. A Railway servant who fails in a vision test by
virtue of disability acquired during service
becomes physically incapable of performing
the duties of the post which he occupies shall
186
be discharged from service duly arranging

settlement dues. (say true or false)
6. The medically decategorised/incapacitated
staff should be shifted to some other post with
the same pay scale and service benefits. (say
true or false)
7. Modification of the scheme of absorption of
medically decategorised staff in alternative
employment is necessitated due to the
enactment of ________. [Persons with
Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of
Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995]
8. Consequent on enactment of the Persons with
Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of
187
Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995, the

then existing instructions on the subject of
absorption of medically decategorised staff
had ben amended vide Correction slip No.
_______. (77)
9. The rules in connection with absorption of
posts are contained in paragraphs ________ to
_______ of Chapter ______ of the Indian Railway
Establishment Manual, Vol.I (1989 edition).
(1301 to 1315 or Chapter XIII)
10. Railway servants declared medically unfit
are classified into ______ groups. (2)
188
11. The two groups of staff declared medically

unfit are (i) _______ and (ii) ______. [(i) those
who cannot be declared fit even in C medical
category and (ii) those disabled for further
service in the post they are holding but fit in a
lower medical category and eligible for
retention in service in posts corresponding to
the lower medical category]
12. No officer has the authority to permit the
Railway servant if he is declared medically
unfit for the post held by him. (say true or
false)
13. The Railway servants declared medically
unfit cease to perform the duties of the posts
189
held by them from _________. (the date they

are medically declared unfit)
14. If a medically decategorised Railway
servant cannot be immediately absorbed in
any suitable alternative post, he may be kept
on a ______________ post of equal grade.
(special supernumerary post)
15. The special supernumerary post created to
accommodate medically decategorised staff
shall stand abolished as soon as ___. (the
alternative employment is located)
16. While absorbing medically decategorised
staff in alternative posts, it shall be ensured
190
that ______. (interests of other staff in service

are not adversely affected)
17. The committee to adjudge the suitability of
the medically decategorised staff for
absorption in alternative post shall consist of
____________. (two or three officers)
18. If there is no immediate prospect of
employment in the unit/division concerned,
the details of the Railway servant shall be
circulated to ______ where suitable
employment is likely to be found. (all other
officers/establishments)
19. To determine the scale of pay for
absorption of medically decategorised running
191
staff in alternative posts, ____________ shall be

added to the maximum and minimum of the
scale of pay of running staff. (an amount
equal to such %age of pay in lieu of running
allowance)
20. The staff who get their cases recommended
for a change of category on medical grounds
are treated as transferred on own request.
(say true or false)
21. The medically decategorised employee who
is kept on special supernumerary post has a
right to decline the alternative employment of
equal grade to which he is posted. (say true or
false)
192
22. Absorption of medically decategorised staff

in a grade lower than the one held by them at
the time of decategorisation is in
contravention of the provision of Persons with
Disabilities Act, 1995. (say true or false)
24. The requests of medically decategorised
employees with less than 20 years of service
to quit Railways may be accepted and their
cases settled under Rule _______ of Manual of
Pension Rules. [R. 55 read with R.69(2)(b)]
25. Employees who are offered alternative
posts in the same grade but are unable to
perform duties attached to the posts owing to
physical condition may be referred for
193
____________ and _________ may be given.

(review, job counseling for adaptation to new
jobs)
26. Absorption of medically decategorised staff
in other departments be considered only when
it is not possible to absorb them in ___________
of the same department. (other wings)
27. The committee to assess suitability of the
medically decategorised staff for absorption in
alternative posts should include a medical
officer. (say true or false)
28. Employees declared medically
disabled/decategorised on or after _________
upto _________ and absorbed in lower grades
194
than the one held by them on regular basis

may be reviewed and decided at the level of
GM. (07.02.96, 28.4.99)
29. Drivers who are medically decategorised
upto Class A-3 are eligible to be considered for
the post of ____________. (Loco Inspectors)
30. The surplus staff who are superannuating
within the next three years who cannot be
redeployed at the same station for any reason
shall be placed against __________ posts
forthwith. (special supernumerary)
(B) Descriptive:
195
1. What are the instructions for absorption of

posts and fixing their seniority in the
alternative posts?
2. Explain the various steps to be taken for
finding alternative employment to absorb the
medically disabled staff.
(ii) Advances:
(A) Objective:
1. ______, ________ and __________ are called

advances for conveyance.
196
2. Rules regarding Conveyance advances are

contained in _______ chapter of the Indian
Railway Establishment Manual.
3. Cycle advance is admissible to non-
gazetted employees drawing Pay plus DP less
than ____________.
4. The amount of cycle advance payable shall
be ___ or ______ whichever is less.
5. The maximum instalments permissible for
recovery of cycle advance are ______.
6. Cycle advance at II time is permissible after
_________ years.
197
7. Scooter/Motor Cycle advance is admissible

to Railway employees drawing Pay plus DP of
Rs. ____________ or __________.
8. The amount of Scooter/Motor cycle
advance payable shall be ________ or _________
or __________whichever is less on the first
occasion.
9. Maximum instalments permissible for
recovery of Scooter/Motor cycle advance are
________.
10. Second or subsequent Scooter/Motor Cycle
advance is restricted to _________ or __________
or _________ whichever is less.
198
11. Second/subsequent Scooter/Motor Cycle

advance is not permissible unless _____.
12. The Railway servant who has availed the
advance of Scooter/Motor Cycle shall produce
the registration certificate of vehicle on his
own name with __________.
13. Rate of interest collected on Scooter/motor
Cycle is ___________.
14. Motor Car advance is admissible to
employees drawing Pay plus DP of Rs. ____.
15. The amount of Motor Car advance payable
shall be ________ or _________ whichever is less
on the first occasion.
199
16. Maximum instalments permissible for

recovery of Motor Car advance are _____.
17. Second or subsequent Motor car advance is
restricted to _________ or __________ or
_________ whichever is less.
18. Second or subsequent Motor car advance is
permissible only after ______ years from the
date of drawl of last advance.
19. Vehicle should be purchased within ________
from the date of drawl of advance.
20. Rate of interested collected on Motor Car
advance is ___________.
21. Table fan advance is admissible to
__________ staff only.
200
22. The table fan advance admissible is

_________ or _________ whichever is least.
23. The maximum instalments permissible for
recovery of fan advance is ___.
24. There is no provision of fan advance for
second time (say true or false)
25. Warm Clothing advance is admissible to
Group C & D staff posted to __ stations.
26. The staff posted to hill stations either on
first appointment or on transfer for a period of
not less than one year is entitled to
___________ advance.
27. The amount of warm clothing advance is
Rs. __________.
201
28. The warm clothing advance is payable once

in __________ years.
29. The warm clothing advance is recoverable
in _________ instalments.
30. PC advance is admissible to staff drawing
pay of Rs. __________ .
31. The maximum amount of PC advance
admissible on first occasion is _________ or
__________ whichever is less.
32. The amount of PC advance admissible on
second or subsequent occasion is __________ or
____________ which ever is less.
33. Maximum number of instalments
permissible for recovery of PC advance is ___.
202
34. Advance on transfer is admissible if the

transfer is in _______ interest.
35. The interest recovered on transfer advance
is __________.
36. The amount of transfer advance payable is
_________.
37. The pay for the purpose of transfer
advance is ____________.
38. The transfer advance is recoverable in
_________________.
39. Transfer advance can be drawn at the old
station or new station (say true or false)
40. The transfer advance is not admissible in
mutual transfers (say true or false).
203
41. The advance of TA payable shall be

_______________.
42. The advance of TA is adjusted through
_____________.
43. The flood advance is recoverable in
__________ instalments.
44. Flood advance is permissible on
certification about floods by _______
authorities.
45. Festival advance is payable to staff drawing
pay of RS. __________.
46. The amount of festival advance payable is
Rs. ___________.
204
47. The festival advance is recovered in

________ instalments.
48. The interest recovered on festival advance
is __________.
49. Festival advance is paid once in a
_____________.
50. Temporary employees have to produce
_____________ from permanent railway
employees for drawl of Festival advance.
51. A temporary Railway servant is entitled for
House Building advance after having put in
__________ years of continuous service.
52. Motor Car advance to SAG officers can be
sanctioned by _______________.
205
53. The amount of funeral advance payable to

the families of Railway servants is ________ or
____________ whichever is less.
54. The funeral advance is recoverable in
_________ instalment/s from __________.
55. Fan advance can be sanctioned to a Jr.
Clerk. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are interest bearing advances? Explain

the conditions of eligibility, maximum amount
admissible and recovery of any four such
types of advances.
206
2. What are interest free advances? Explain the

conditions of eligibility, maximum amount
admissible and recovery of any four such
types of advances.
3. A Railway servant was sanctioned an advance
of Rs. 70,000/- which was paid in two equal
instalments on 26th June, 1999 and 29th July,
1998. The advance was to be repaid in 100
instalments of Rs. 700/- each. The rate of
interest chargeable on the advance is 9% p.a.
Recovery of the principle amount commenced
from the pay of October, 1998. Calculate the
amount payable by the Railway servant if he
207
wishes to repay the advance with interest

on29th April, 2000.
4. Calculate the interest payable on an amount
of Rs. 3,80,000/- sanctioned to Mr. A towards
House Building Advance @ 12% p.a. If the
amount is drawn in two instalments each of
Rs. 1,90,000/- on 31.3.2001 and on
01.08.2001 and a recovery of Rs. 3,600/- p.m.,
commenced from November, 2001 and
cleared in 105 equal instalments and the
balance in 106th instalment. What shall be the
interest payable, if Mr. A adopted small family
norms and is very prompt in repayment of the
208
advance, insuring the house and submitting

the necessary documents/declarations in time.
5. Mr. X was sanctioned Rs. 30,000/- towards
Scooter advance in March, 2002 opted for
recovery of the advance in 60 equal monthly
instalments. The scooter was purchased in
April, 2002 and recovery commenced in April,
2002. During 2003, Mr. X was on EOL and the
recovery could not be effected for the period
from January, 2003 to October, 2003 and
there after the recovery continued as usual till
the entire amount of advance is repaid. If the
interest rate applicable is 11% p.a., calculate
the interest payable.
209
(iii) Appointment on compassionate

grounds:
(A) Objective:
1. Where an employee dies in harness leaving

behind only the widow, i.e., without any
children, appointment of a near relative is
permissible. (say true or false)
2. Wards of Gazetted officers are not entitled for
compassionate ground appointments. (say
true or false)
210
3. Wards of Group D staff are eligible for CG

appointment in Group D only. (say true or
false)
4. CG appointment is not permissible in case a
casual labour with temporary status dies while
in service. (say true or false)
5. The time limit to give appointment in priority
one cases is three months. (say true or false)
6. Divisional Railway Managers are competent to
consider the relaxation of minimum age limit
in deserving cases of compassionate
appointments. (say true or false)
211
7. JA Grade officers holding independent charge

of workshops are competent to give CG
appointments in Group D. (say true or false)
8. Upper age relaxation in the case of Group D
on compassionate grounds is with in the
powers of CPO only. (say true or false)
9. Widows upto the age of 35 years are only to
be considered for compassionate
appointments. (say true or false)
10. Cases of CG appointments of RPF staff are
to be considered in RPF department only. (say
true or false)
212
11. The minimum qualification for a Group C

post is SSC/Matriculation with 50% marks.
(say true or false)
12. CG appointment to dependents of an
employee died as bachelor is effective from
__________.
13. ___________ is competent to terminate the
service of a CG appointee without following
D&A Rules.
14. ___________ is competent to give third and
final change to a widow to appear for a Group
C suitability test.
213
15. DRM is competent to give _______ chances

to appear for Group C screening on merits to
the ward of a deceased employee.
16. CG appointee to a post of technician/Gr.III
with SSC should undergo _______ months of
training.
17. ______ Class pass is given to wards of
deceased employee when called for
screening.
18. ___________ is competent to consider the
requests received after two years of the first
son/first daughter attained the age of
majority.
214
19. Who is competent to relax the condition of

minimum educational qualification?
20. Is General Manager competent to
appointment in posts carrying pay scale of Rs.
5500-9000?
21. How many officers shall be there in
screening committee for CG appointments?
(B) Descriptive:
1. Who are eligible to be considered for

appointment on compassionate grounds?
How are the priority of the cases decided?
215
2. What is the role of Personnel Inspector in

processing cases for CG appointment?
3. Explain the circumstances under which the
Compassionate Appointments are considered
and prioritise these circumstances together
with time limit with in which the appointments
are given?
4. With the issuance of Railway Board’s letter
No. E(NG)I/96/RE/3/9(12) of 29.04.1999, the
existing procedure of compassionate ground
appointments has undergone changes?
Explain these changes commencing from
29.04.99.
216
5. An employee due to retire in next 20 months

was found missing. His wife has filed a report
with police & FIR was also registered. Her
request for appointment to herself is received
in the office. What action will you take on this
request?
6. The minimum educational qualifications for a
Group D post is a pass in 8th Class. But the
candidate for whom the appointment is
sought has no minimum educational
qualification on the date of event i.e., on
08.10.1999 but he acquired the same at a
later date i.e., within a period of five years
from the date of incident. Put up a note
217
keeping the Board’s instructions circulated

vide SC No. 62/2004 justifying the case for
Railway Board’s consideration.
7. There are numerous complaints from the
eligible family members of the deceased
employees that undue delays are taking place
in processing their requests for CG
appointment. What steps do you suggest to
eliminate the delay and improve the image of
Personnel Branch in the minds of the wards?
8. Explain the procedure followed to adjudge the
suitability of a candidates for appointment on
compassionate grounds in a Group C post?
218
9. Write short notes on ‘Appointment on

compassionate Grounds’.
(iv) Fixation of Pay & Drawl of increments:
(A) Objective:
1. Allowance in lieu of Kilometerage is admissible

to the medically decategorised drivers drafted
to perform the duties of Power
Controllers/Crew Controllers. (say true or
false)
2. The benefit of addition in basic pay for
computation of retirement benefits admissible
219
to running staff is admissible to the medically

decategorised drivers drafted to work as
Power Controllers/Crew Controllers. (say true
or false)
3. Grant of officiating pay to the incumbents of
the vacancies of short duration is admissible
subject to the condition that the vacancy lasts
over _______ days and is caused by factors
that could not be foreseen. (30)
4. Option for fixation of pay under R.1313, IREC.,
Vol.II is not admissible to Gp. B officers on
promotion to Gp. A Sr. Scale on ad hoc basis.
(say true or false)
220
5. Railway servants who were on sick leave on

01.01.1996 and whose services had been
terminated due to medical invalidation,
without resuming their duty are to be allowed
the benefits of revised scales of pay from
___________. (1.1.96)
6. The pay/stipend of Railway servants selected
against GDCE and undergoing training may be
regulated under the provisions of Rule
__________ of IREC, Vol.II. (R. 1315)
7. The date of effect of the instructions to allow
the minimum fixation benefit of Rs. 100/- on
promotion is __________. (01.01.1996)
221
8. The special pay of Rs. 70/- granted to Sr.

Clerks on or after 01.01.1996 would not be
counted for fixation of pay in the scale of Rs.
5000-8000. (say true or false)
9. The pay of an employee holding a post
substantively and seeking transfer to another
post in lower grade will be protected subject
to the condition that _______________________.
(maximum of pay of lower post is not
exceeded).
10. Fixation of pay in cases of appointment
from one ex-cadre pot to another ex-cadre
post should be made with reference to pay in
the ________ post only. (cadre)
222
11. In the cases where two scales have been

merged to a single grade in V PC, the
promotions taken place from a lower to a
higher scale during the period from 01.01.96
to 08.10.97 stand nullified. (say true or false).
12. Whenever a promotion order is issued to
any railway employee a clause should be
incorporated in the promotion order regarding
availability of option for fixation of pay. (say
true or false)
13. Group B officers who acquired the higher
qualifications on or after __________ are
governed by one time lumpsum incentive
scheme. (05.07.95)`
223
14. The minimum fixation benefit of

______________ on promotion is allowed w.e.f.
01.01.1996. (Rs. 100/-).
15. Advance increments granted to sports
persons are to be treated as pay for ________
purposes. (all).
16. Advance increments granted to sports
persons on medal winning performance would
take effect from _______________. (the first day
of the following month of the concluding day
of the championship).
17. Increments granted to stenos for acquiring
higher speed in shorthand on or after 1.1.96 in
224
revised scales shall be termed as __________.

(special allowance).
18. The increments granted to stenographers
for acquiring higher speed in shorthand on or
after 1.1.96 in the revised scales will not count
as pay for allowances. (say true or false)
19. The increments granted to stenographers
for acquiring higher speed in shorthand on or
after 1.1.96 in the revised scales will count as
emoluments for pension/ gratuity. (say true
or false)
20. The advance increments granted to
stenographers for acquiring higher speed in
shorthand shall be termed as special
225
allowance w.e.f. ____________. (the date on

which the employee draws pay in the revised
scale of pay).
21. The services of a substitute for allowing
annual increment shall be counted from the
date of _______________. (attaining temporary
status).
31. The nursing staff possessing b.Sc., degree
and enjoying the benefit of two advance
increments in IV PC Scales as on 1.1.96 shall
be fixed in the revised scale excluding the
quantum of tw advance increments. (say true
or false).
226
32. The two advance increments enjoyed by

nursing staff possessing B.Sc., degree are
allowed in V PC as additional increments at
the revised rates. (say true or false)
33. The additional increments allowed at the
revised rates in V PC to nursing staff
possessing B.Sc., degree are to be treated as
pay for the purposes of allowances. (say true
or false).
34. Stagnation increment is admissible only to
an employee stagnating at the maximum of
the scale for _________ years. (two)
227
35. Granting of stagnation increment will be

restricted to posts, maximum of which does
not exceed __________. (Rs. 22,400/-).
36. Stagnation increment is treated as Personal
Pay and will count for DA, HRA and CCA. (say
true or false)
37. Stagnation increment will not count as
emoluments for pensionary benefits. (say true
or false)
38. Stagnation increment is not taken into
account for fixation of pay on promotion. (say
true or false)
39. The stagnation increment shall be equal to
________. (increment last drawn).
228
40. Maximum __________ increments can be

granted on stagnation account. (three).
41. For granting stagnation increment, the
period of two years would count from
___________________ . (the date one reached
the maximum of the scale).
42. Annual increment accrues automatically on
the due date unless withheld y a specific
order. (say true or false)
43. Increment is granted from _________ in
which it falls. (first of the month).
44. When the increment is withheld with
cumulative effect, the postponement will have
229
effect of postponing future increment also.

(say true or false)
45. EOL on medical grounds shall be
considered as qualifying service for granting
increment. (say true or false)
46. Period of suspension shall be qualifying for
increments if _____________ is allowed for such
period. (full pay)
47. Unpaid holidays enjoyed by workshop staff
wil not count for increment unless
_______________________. (converted in to
LAP/LHAP at employee’s request)
48. ___________ increments will be granted by
General Manager for gold medal winning
230
performance during the National

Championships.
49. With effect from ________ training period
shall be counted for increments.
50. Family planning allowance granted under
small family norms shall be equal to the
_____________ in the revised scales of pay.
51. In technical departments for acquiring
higher qualifications of AMIE/BE lumpsum
incentive of ____________ will be paid to the
employee.
(B) Descriptive:
231
1. What are the principles governing fixation of

pay -
(a) on first appointment (b) on transfer from
higher to lower post
(c) on promotion to a post carrying higher
responsibilities
(d) on promotion to an ex-cadre post (e) on
repatriation from ex-cadre post.
(a) lumpsum incentive scheme for acquiring
higher qualifications
(b) Stagnation increments (c) Advance
increment
232
(d) Next Below Rule (e) Stepping up of

pay
(f) Rules for fixation of pay at a higher stage
than minimum to sports persons.
3. Explain about the rules governing lumpsum
incentive scheme for acquiring higher
qualifications in different departments.
4. What is meant by dual charge allowance?
What are the rules governing grant of dual
charge allowance? What are the principles for
reckoning the same for fixation on promotion
and settlement?
5. What is meant by non-practising allowance?
What are the principles for reckoning the
233
same for different purposes like fixation on

promotion, composite transfer grant and
settlement?
6. Fix the pay of a Driver on pay of Rs. 6050/-
w.e.f. 01.01.2005 in scale of Rs. 5000-150-
8000 on his posting as Fuel Inspector in scale
Rs. 5500-175-9000 w.e.f. 10.08.2005 involving
higher responsibilities (a) from the date of
promotion (b) from the date of next annual
increment.
7. Mr. George is a permanent Sr. Clerk, drawing
pay of Rs. 6250/- w.e.f. 28.02.2003 in scale
Rs. 4500-7000 is promoted to an ex-cadre
post. Fix his pay -
234
(a) on promotion to an ex-cadre post on

01.03.2003 in scale Rs. 5000-8000.
(b) on promotion to another ex-cadre post on
02.03.2005 in scale Rs.5500-9000.
8. Mr. Cruz on pay of Rs. 6200/- in scale Rs.
4500-7000 due for promotion on 05.08.2004
to 5000-8000 two months before accrual of
his annual increment. What shall be your
advise to him for exercising option for fixation
of pay on promotion when he has another 15
years of service to retire.
9. Mr. A while drawing pay of Rs. 6050/- w.e.f.
01.03.2005 in scale Rs. 5000-150-8000 was
imposed a penalty of with holding of his
235
annual increment for a period of 02 years (NR)

vide Memorandum dated 02.03.2005.
(a) Show how his pay is regulated during the
period of punishment and on restoration?
(b) In case, he became eligible for promotion
to the scale of Rs. 5500-9000 on 10.08.2005,
what action shall be taken for his promotion
and what shall be his pay during the period of
penalty and on restoration?
10. Mr. B while drawing pay of Rs. 6200/- w.e.f.
01.06.2003 in scale Rs. 5000-150-8000 was
imposed a penalty of with holding of his
annual increment for a period of 02 years with
cumulative effect vide memorandum dated
236
10.09.2003 and he became eligible for

promotion to the scale of Rs. 5500-175-9000
w.e.f. 01.10.2003.
(a) How his pay shall be regulated during the
penalty and on restoration?
(b) What action shall be taken regarding his
promotion and how his pay shall be regulated
on promotion?
11. The details of service rendered by Mr. A
whose date of increment is 1.4.2003 are as
follows:
a. EOL (not counting for increment) from
29.07.2003 to 31.07.2003,
237
b. Suspension treated as his own leave from

07.10.2003 to 02.01.2004.
c. EOL on medical grounds from 15.01.1974
to 05.02.2004.
What shall be the date of his next increment?
12. Mr. Ram working as a Keyman drawing pay
of Rs. 3875/- w.e.f. 01.03.2005 in scale Rs.
2750-70-3800-75-4400 was promoted as
Gangmate in scale Rs. 3050-75-3950-80-4590
w.e.f. 01.12.2005. Suggest the employee
whether he will be benefited on exercising
option for fixation of pay after the next annual
increment. Show the calculations.
238
13. What do you understand by postponement

of increment? What are the provisions of R.
1320 (FR 26) of IREC, Vol.II for reckoning
service for increments?
(v) Group Insurance Scheme:
(A) Objective:
1. The new Group Insurance scheme for regular

employees of Central Government
came into force w.e.f. __________. (01.01.1982)
239
2. The new Central Government Employees

Group Insurance scheme has become
compulsory for the employees who enter into
service already in service as on _________ and
optional to those in service as on _________.
(01.11.80)
3. The rates of subscription under the new Group
Insurance scheme are Rs. ____, Rs. ______, Rs.
______ and Rs. _______ in respect of Group D,
Group C, Group B and Group A staff
respectively.
4. The subscription for Group Insurance scheme
will be apportioned @ _____ % is Insurance
240
Fund and _____ % is Savings Fund. (30%,

70%).
5. Under the Group Insurance scheme, the
apportionment of savings/insurance fund @
30% and 70% respectively came into force
w.e.f. ____________. (01.01.1988)
6. The insurance coverage under the Group
Insurance scheme to the families of Group D,
Group C, Group B and Group A staff is Rs.
______, Rs. ________, Rs. _________ and Rs.
_________ respectively.
7. The Group Insurance scheme is based on
mortality rate of ______ per thousand per
annum. (3.60)
241
8. In case of regular promotion to a higher

group, the subscription under Group Insurance
scheme shall be increased from _________.
(first January of next year).
9. In case an employee was on EOL, during
which no subscription to the Group Insurance
could be recovered, the same shall be
recovered in arrears with interest. (say true or
false)
10. In the absence of a valid nomination under
the Group Insurance scheme, the nomination
made under ____________ may be accepted.
(PF Rules)
242
11. In case of no nomination under the scheme

of Group Insurance/PF Rules, the insurance
money shall be payable in equal shares to
__________________. (wife/wives, minor sons
and unmarried daughters).
12. A subscriber having a family can nominate
anybody to receive the insurance money
under Group Insurance scheme. (say true or
false)
13. In case an employee’s whereabouts are not
known, the accumulation from the savings
fund becomes payable under Group Insurance
scheme to the nominee/heirs after __________
period. (one year)
243
14. It is legally permissible to adjust the

Government dues against the payments due
to the employees/nominees under the Group
Insurance scheme. (say true or false)
15. Subscriptions under the Group Insurance
scheme shall not be recovered during the last
three months of service. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the provisions regarding exercising

of nomination by a subscriber under Group
Insurance Scheme? What are the provisions
244
for payment of amounts under the scheme in

case there is no valid nomination?
2. Explain about the scope, membership,
monthly subscription, amount of insurance
coverage and the insurance/savings fund of
the Group Insurance scheme, 1980 as
amended from time to time?
(vi) Joining Time Rules:
(A) Objective:
1. Joining Time Rules are contained in

___________. (Chapter 11 of IREC, Vol.I)
245
2. Joining Time shall be granted to a Railway

servant on transfer in public interest to enable
him to join the new post either _________ or
__________. (at the same station or a new
station)
3. In the case of temporary transfer not
exceeding 180 days the joining time allowed
is _____ days. (nil)
4. The joining time shall commence from the
date of _____________ if the charge is made
over on the forenoon. (relinquishment of
charge of the old post)
246
5. The joining time shall commence from the

following date if the charge is made over in
the ____________. (afternoon)
6. Not more than one day’s joining time shall be
allowed to a Railway servant to join a new
post within _________ or __________. (the same
station or which does not involve change of
residence from one station to another).
7. For the purpose of the term same station will
be interpreted to mean the area falling within
the jurisdiction of the _____ or _____.
(municipality or corporation)
8. If the distance between the old headquarters
and the new headquarters is 1,000 Kms., or
247
less, the joining time admissible is __________

days. (10 days).
9. If the distance between the old headquarters
and the new headquarters is more than 1,000
Kms., the joining time admissible is __________
days. (12 days).
10. If the distance between the old
headquarters and the new headquarters is
more than 2,000 Kms., the joining time
admissible is __________ days. (15 days).
11. If the distance between the old
headquarters and new headquarters is more
than 2,000 Kms., and the travel is permitted
248
by air, the joining time admissible is __________

days. (12 days).
12. Distance means the weighted mileage for
which fare is charged by the Railways in
certain ghat/hill sections. (say true or false)
13. Extension of Joining time beyond the limits
can be granted upto a maximum limit of
_______ days. (30 days).
can be granted upto a maximum limit of 30
days by _____________. (Head of the
Departments)
can be granted upto a maximum limit of 30
249
days by _____________ on the divisions.

(Divisional Railway Manager)
16. Extension of Joining time beyond 30 days
can be granted by ___________. (Ministry of
Railways)
17. Special Casual Leave can be granted in lieu
of joining time . (say true or false).
18. The credit of joining time to the leave
account will be subject to the usual restriction
on accumulation of _______________ in the
leave account. (LAP)
19. Joining time cannot be combined with
vacation. (say true or false)
250
20. Joining time can be combined with any

other kind of leave except ______. (CL)
21. Joining time cannot be combined with
Casual leave. (say true or false)
22. A railway servant on joining time shall be
regarded as on _______ (leave/duty/on
line/joining)
23. Joining time pay is equal to the pay which
was drawn before ______________ in the old
post. (relinquishment of charge)
24. During joining time, a railway servant shall
be entitled to CCA and HRA at the rates
applicable to the ________. (old station/new
station)
251
25. The quantum of joining time admissible for

transfer involving less than 1000 Kms is
__________.
26. Joining time is admissible to an employee
on temporary transfer (say true or false)
27. Sanction of special casual leave in lieu of
Joining Time is not admissible. (say true or
false)
28. Maternity Leave is admissible in case of still
born children. (say true or false)
29. Paternity Leave is admissible t temporary
status casual labour. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
252
1. Write short note on ‘Joining Time’.

2. What are the provisions regarding grant of
joining time, limits of admissibility,
commencement and extension of joining time.
(vii) Promotions:
(A) Objective:
1. All vacancies in Gp. B are filled by promotion

of Group C employees on the basis of ________
and _______ wherever the scheme is in force.
(selection and LDCE)
253
2. Where the scheme of LDCE is in force

selection is held to fill up ______% of vacancies
and LDCE is held to fill up _____% of vacancies.
(70 and 30)
3. Selection for appointment to Group B should
be held once in________ years (2)
4. Selection committee for selection to the Group
B posts shall be constituted with the orders of
_________. ( General Manager)
5. The selection committee for selection the
Group B posts shall consists of ____ HODs
including __________ and the __________. (3
HODs, CPO and the HOD of the department
concerned)
254
6. If none of the committee members for

selection to Group B posts belongs to SC/ST
communities, another officer belonging to
SC/ST community not below the rank of
___________ shall be nominated. (JA Grade)
7. In case of selection to a Group B post the
assessment of vacancies shall for ______ years.
(02)
8. ______ % of the cadre including construction
reserve shall be added while assessing
vacancies for selection to a Group B post.
(20%)
9. In Group B selections, if it is felt that inclusion
of 20% of cadre would lead to an inflation in
255
the size of the panel, ________ may restrict the

assessment. (GM)
10. Post based rosters shall be followed for
implementation of reservation policy in
selections to Group B posts. (say true or false)
11. Group C employees working in grade the
minimum of which is Rs. _________ in the
revised scale and in the higher Group C
grades on a regular basis who have rendered
not less than ______ years of non-fortuitous
service are eligible to appeal for the selection.
12. Notwithstanding the position that the
seniors do not fulfil the requisite minimum
service conditions, they are eligible to appear
256
for selection to a Group B post if _________ . ( a

junior is considered by virtue of satisfying the
relevant condition)
13. In a Group B selection for one vacancy, the
zone of consideration shall be _____. (05
employees)
14. In a Group B selection for two vacancies,
the zone of consideration shall be ____. (08
employees)
15. In a Group B selection for three vacancies,
the zone of consideration shall be ___.
16. The formula for deciding the zone of
consideration for filling up 04 or more Group B
257
vacancies by selection shall be ________. (3xV

– where V is the number of vacancies)
17. Where employees of different streams are
eligible to appear for Gp. B selections, their
__________ seniority list should be drawn and
circulated before selection.
18. The integrated seniority list of eligible staff
for selection to a Group B post is based on the
length of non-fortuitous service in scale Rs.
_______. (6500-10500)
19. If adequate number of SC/ST employees
are not available in the normal zone of
consideration against reserved points, the
field should be extended to _____ times the
258
vacancies to pick up the SC/ST candidates.

(five)
20. In case of selection to the post of APO, all
employees who are eligible and volunteer for
the selection should be considered without
__________. (limitation to the number)
21. The selection to the Group B posts is based
on _____ (a written test to adjudge the
professional ability, viva voce and assessment
of records by selection committee)
22. For selection to Group B posts other than
accounts Department, the maximum marks
and qualifying marks under the head
259
‘Professional ability’ are _______ and ______

respectively. (50, 30)
23. For selection to the Group B posts other
than accounts department, the maximum
marks and qualifying marks under the head
‘Personality, Leadership etc.,’ are ___ and ___
24. For selection to the Group B posts other
than Accounts Department, the maximum
marks and qualifying marks under the head
‘Record of Service’ are ______ and ______
25. In written test for selection to the Group B
posts, the questions on Official Language
260
Policy and Rules should not be compulsory.

(say true or false)
26. In a selection to the Group B posts, the
successful candidates securing 80% and
above shall be graded ________ and placed
___________ of the panel. (outstanding; on the
top)
27. In a selection to the Group B posts, the
successful candidates securing marks
between 60% and 79% shall be graded as
____________. (good)
28. In selections to the Group B posts, the
recommendations of the selection committee
261
should be put up to ______________ for

approval. (General Manager)
29. If the General Manager does not approve of
the recommendation of the selection
committee, he will record his reasons in
writing there for and order _________ (a fresh
selection)
30. Once a panel for Group B post is approved
by the General Manager, no amendment or
alteration in the panel should be made except
with the prior approval of ____________.
(Railway Board)
31. The Group B panels shall be current for a
period of ________. (02 years)
262
32. The panel for filling up the Group B posts

shall be current for a period of two years from
__________ or ___________ whichever is earlier.
(the date of approval of the competent
authority; till a fresh panel on the basis of
next selection becomes available)
33. In Group B selections, where provisional
panels are drawn the currency will count from
________. (the date of approval of the
provisional panel)
34. In Group B selections, if the operation of an
approved panel has been held in abeyance
either wholly or partly as a result of injunction
from the Court of Law, the currency of the
263
panel should be reckoned after excluding

____________ . (the period covered by the
Court’s directive)
35. After vacation of injunction/disposal by the
Court of Law, Operation of the Group B panel
should be with the personal approval of
________. (General Manager)
36. In exceptional circumstances, promotion to
Group B posts with relaxed medical standards,
should have the approval of ___________.
(Railway Board)
37. Promotion to Group B posts with relaxed
medical standards with the approval of
264
Railway Board will be purely on _________

basis.
38. In cases where employee eligible to take
the selection are abroad on deputation, the
selection may be finalized without waiting for
them. (say true or false)
39. Not more than _______ supplementary
selection/s should be held to cater to the
absentees. (one)
40. An employee empanelled for promotion to
Group B refusing promotion, should be
debarred for promotion for ____________
period. (one year)
265
41. If an employee refuses promotion when

considered after a lapse of one year after his
first refusal, his name should be deleted form
the panel. (say true or false)
42. The rules governing the promotion of Group
C staff are contained in Section ____ of
Chapter _____ IREM, Vol.I. (Section B of
Chapter II)
43. As per the definition of promotion under
para 211 of IREM, Vol. I, Promotion includes
promotion from a ______ to a ________, form
_______ to _________ from _______ to ________.
(lower grade to a higher grade, from one class
266
to another class, from one group to another

group)
44. ‘Non-selection posts’ are ______, ________ or
__________ which have not been declared as
‘selection posts’. (posts, grades or classes)
45. The posts are declared as selection or non-
selection for the purpose of promotion by
___________. (Railway Board)
46. Unless specifically provided otherwise, the
promotion shall be made without any regard
for _________ or _________ . (communal or racial
consideration)
267
47. Non-selection posts shall be filled by

promotion of the senior most suitable Railway
servant. (say true or false)
48. Suitability for non-selection post being
determined by _______ on the basis of the
record of service and/or departmental tests if
necessary. (the competent authority)
49. In a non-selection post, a senior Railway
servant may be passed over only if he has
been declared ________ for holding the post in
question. (unfit)
50. For promotion to non-selection post, staff in
the immediate lower grade with a minimum of
268
______ years of service in that grade will only

be eligible. (02 years)
51. The service for the purpose of minimum 02
years in lower grade includes service rendered
on ad hoc basis followed by ______ without
break.(regular service).
52. The condition of two years service should
stand fulfilled at the time of _________ and not
necessarily at the stage of consideration.
(actual promotion)
53. The number of eligible staff for
consideration for promotion to a non-selection
post shall be equal to _________-. (number of
vacancies assessed)
269
54. The assessment of vacancies for non-

selection post shall include existing vacancies
plus anticipated during the next _________
months. (six)
55. The anticipated vacancies are vacancies
that arose due to ___________ i.e.,
retirement/supernannuation.
56. An employee who has passed the suitability
test for promotion to a non-selection post
need not be called for the test again. (say true
or false)
57. A suitability test for non-selection post
should be held at the interval which should
not be less than _______ months. (six)
270
58. The period of six months for holding

suitability test for non-selection post is
reckoned from the date of ___________ of the
previous suitability test.
59. ACP scheme is made effective from
____________.
60. ACP scheme is not applicable to officers
belonging to _____ service and to ____.
61. No second ad hoc promotion shall be
allowed under any circumstances. (say true or
false)
62. A junior should not be promoted on ad hoc
basis ignoring a senior unless ______________.
271
(the competent authority considers him

unsuitable)
63. There shall be no ad hoc promotions in
__________ posts. (non-selection)
64. Ad hoc promotions may be made in
leave/short duration vacancies upto _____
months only. (04 months)
65. Beyond the permissible period of 04
months, personal approval of _______ is
required for continuance on ad hoc promotion.
(CPO)
66. The notification regarding ad hoc promotion
shall consist of protection clause that
_______________. (the promotion is ad hoc and
272
does not give him any prescriptive right to

hold the post on regular basis or for regular
promotion)
67. The ACP scheme became operational w.e.f.
___________. (01.10.1999)
68. The ACP scheme requires creation of new
posts for the purpose.(say true or false)
69. The posts above the pay scale of __________
shall be filled strictly on vacancy based
promotions. (Rs. 14300-18300)
70. The highest pay scale upto which the
financial upgradation shall be available is
__________. (Rs. 14300-18300)
273
71. The financial benefit under ACP scheme shall

be granted from ____ or _____ whichever is
later. (date of completion of eligibility period
or from 1.10.99)
72. The first financial upgradation under the ACP
scheme shall be followed after _______ years of
regular service. (12)
73. If any employee has already got one regular
promotion, he shall qualify for the second
financial upgradation only on completion of
______ years of regular service under the ACP
scheme. (24)
74. Financial upgradation under the ACP scheme
shall be given to the next higher grade in
274
accordance with the __________ in a cadre.

(existing hierarchy)
75. In the absence of defined hierarchical
grades, financial upgradation shall be given in
the ___________ standard pay scales.
(immediate next higher)
76. The financial upgradation under ACP scheme
shall be purely _______ to the employee and
has no relevance to his/her ________ position.
(personal, seniority)
77. A senior employee can claim for stepping up
of pay on the ground that the junior has got
higher pay scale under the ACP scheme. (say
true or false)
275
78. On upgradation under ACP scheme, pay of

an employee shall be fixed under normal
Rules under 1313(1)(a)(i) of IREC, Vol.II
subject to a minimum financial benefit of Rs.
______. (100)
79. Pay fixation benefit shall normally accrue at
the time of regular promotion against a
functional post in higher grade to an
employee granted upgradation under ACP
scheme. (say true or false)
80. The reservation orders/roster shall apply to
the upgradations under ACP scheme. (say true
or false)
276
(B) Descriptive:
1. What procedure is to be followed when an

employee placed on panel is issued -
(a) a major penalty charge sheet before
issuing promotional order and a penalty of
reduction to lower grade for a period of 03
years (NR) is imposed?
(b) a minor penalty charge sheet before
issuing promotional order and a penalty of
withholding of increment is issued to become
operative from a future date.
277
2. What is meant by erroneous promotions?

What action shall be taken when erroneous
promotion is identified?
3. Explain briefly about granting of adhoc
promotions to staff in Selection and non-
selection posts?
4. Explain briefly the extant instructions to be
borne in mind while setting up a selection
board for selection to the post of Ch. OS in
scale Rs. 7450-11500 in Personnel Branch?
5. What are the main features of ACP Scheme?
What procedures shall be followed while
granting the benefits under ACP Scheme?
278
6. What do you mean by automatic

empanelment of staff?
7. Issue an office order promoting Mr. George,
PI/Gr. II on ad hoc basis for the post of PI/Gr.I
as per extant rules in force.
(i) Ad hoc promotions (ii) Erroneous
Promotions
(iii) Refusal of promotion. (iv) In situ
promotions
(v) Promotion of staff against whom DAR
cases are pending
(vi) Pre-promotional Courses. (vii) Pre-
promotional training.
279
(viii) Provident Fund:
(A) Objective:
1. The State Railway Provident Fund Rules are

contained in _____________ of IREC., Vol.I.
(Rules 901 to 946 of Chapter IX)
2. The amount of subscription payable for any
month shall be _________% of the Subscriber’s
emoluments in case of SRPF(Contributory)
staff. (10%)
3. Arrears of subscription to Provident Fund shall
be recovered, if the Railway servant is
280
admitted to the fund with _____________ effect.

(retrospective)
4. Interest of PF balances shall be credited with
effect from __________ every year. (31st March)
5. The authority competent to sanction an
advance/withdrawl from PF in case of Group A
or Group B Officer upto JA Grade is
____________. (CPO)
6. The authority competent to sanction an
advance/withdrawl from PF in respect of
Group D staff is ____________. (APO or an
officer of equal rank)
281
7. Dearness Pay shall be treated as pay for grant

of advance/withdrawl from PF. (say true or
false)
8. PF Advance/Withdrawl is sanctioned even
after the incident as a special case subject to
fulfillment of certain conditions. (say true or
false)
9. On satisfying the conditions for grant of final
withdrawl from PF, the outstanding balance of
advance can be converted into final withdrawl.
(say true or false)
10. PF Advance can be sanctioned on more
than one account simultaneously. (say true or
false)
282
11. A new advance from PF shall not be

granted unless ____________ of the previous
advance has been repaid.
12. Normally Railway servants who have
completed _______ years of service may be
granted final withdrawl from Provident Fund.
13. Withdrawl from PF on marriage account
may be granted as a special case upto
________ months’ emoluments in the case of
marriage of a female.
14. The advance from PF granted for purchase
of motor car shall be refundable in not more
than __________ instalemnts. (36)
283
15. As a special case, advance from PF for

purchase of motor car/scooter etc., shall be
granted if the service falls short of _______
months to 15 years. (6 months)
16. To meet the cost of legal expenses,
advance from PF equal to ________ shall be
granted. (three months’ pay or half the
amount of PF balance whichever is less)
17. To purchase consumer durables like TV,
VCR etc., an advance from PF equal to
_____________ shall be granted. (three months’
pay or half the amount of PF balance
whichever is less)
284
18. An advance from PF for construction of a

house or flat will be granted only on
submission of __________. (a plan duly
approved by local municipal body)
19. In the case of marriage of a male
dependent family member of the subscriber,
the advance granted shall be limited to
____________. (three months’ pay)
20. In the case of marriage of a female
dependent family member of the subscriber,
the advance granted shall be limited to
________. (six months’ pay)
21. Confinement is not covered under the term
‘illness’ under PF Rules. (say true or false)
285
22. Advances from PF are permitted for

betrothal ceremonies also. (say true of false)
23. Withdrawls from PF for Educational
expenses are permitted once in ________
months. (six months)
24. Withdrwl from PF for meeting expenses in
connection with illness of subscriber shall be
limited to _________. (six moths’ pay of 50% of
the balance at credit)
25. The pay limit for grant of PF withdrawl for
purchase of motor car shall be _______ (Rs.
10,500/-)
286
26. The amount of withdrawl from PF for

purchase of motor case shall be limited to
______ (Rs. 1,10,000/-)
27. The amount of withdrawl from PF for
purchase of motor cycle shall be limited to
___________. (Rs. 20,000/-)
28. Final withdrawl for purchse of conveyance
is allowed on one occasion only. (say true of
false)
29. Final withdrawl for purchase of conveyance
is allowed on completion of _______ years of
service. (15 years)
30. The amount of subscription wit5h interest
standing to the credit of a subscriber in the
287
fund may be withdrawn to meet a payment

towards a policy of Life Insurance. (say true or
false)
31. The new deposit linked insurance scheme
came into force from ________ (1.1.89)
32. The additional amount payable under the
scheme shall not exceed ___________.
33. The subscriber should have put in _______
years of service at the time of his death to
become eligible for payment under the new
Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme. (05 years)
34. The average balance for the purpose of DLI
shall be worked out on the basis of the
balance at the credit at the end of each of the
288
______ months preceding the month in which

the death occurs. (36 months)
35. The PF scheme does not apply to persons
appointed on contract basis. (say true or false)
36. Part final withdrawl of ____ % of the balance
at credit of a subscriber is permitted if applied
within 12 months before retirement on
superannuation. (90)
37. Part final withdrawl of _____ % of balance at
the credit of a subscriber within 12 months
before retirement is permitted without
assigning any reason. (90)
38. The rate of interest on SRPF balances for
the year 2004-05 is ______% p.a. (8%)
289
39. The amount of Deposit linked insurance

payable to the successors even if the death of
the subscriber is by committing suicide. (say
true or false)
40. The amount of deposit linked insurance is
payable to successors in case of missing
employees whose whereabouts are not known
after a lapse of ____ years. (7)
41. The additional amount payable under DLI
scheme shall not exceed Rs. _______ . (Rs.
60,000/-)
42. The additional amount payable under DLI
scheme shall not exceed Rs. 60,000/- w.e.f.
___________. (25.04.1998)
290
43. The balance at the credit of a subscriber

holding a post in scale of pay maximum of
which is Rs. 12,000/- or more shall not have
fallen below Rs. _______ to make him eligible
for payment of additional amount. (Rs.
25,000/-)
which is Rs.9,000/- or more but less than
Rs.12,000/- shall not have fallen below ____ to
make him eligible for payment of additional
amount. (Rs. 15,000/-)
291
which is Rs.3,500/- or more but less than

Rs.9,000/- shall not have fallen below ____ to
make him eligible for payment of additional
amount. (Rs.10,000/-)
which is less than Rs. 3,500/- shall not have
fallen below Rs. _______ to make him eligible
for payment of additional amount. (Rs.
6,000/-)
(B) Descriptive:
292
1. To whom the State Railway Pension Rules

apply and to whom they do not?
2. Calculate the interest that can be credited to
the PF account of Mr. X on 31.12.2001 based
on the following data:
(i) Opening Balance as on 01.04.2000 ..
Rs. 38,600/-
(ii) Subscription towards PF through the year..
Rs. 1,800/- p.m.,
(iii)Advance from PF drawn during 11/2000..
Rs, 6,000/-
(iv) Recovery towards PF advance Rs.
500/- p.m.,
293
(v) PF advance recovery commenced

January, 2001
(vi) Rate of interest .. 11% p.a.
3. Mr. Y is transferred to another Railway and
was relieved in the month of September,
2000. His salary was drawn in the old unit
upto the month of August, 2000. Calculate
the amount required to be transferred to the
new unit based on the following data:
(i) Opening balance as on 01.04.2000: Rs.
40,504/-
(ii) Monthly subscription to PF account:
Rs. 1,000/-
294
(iii) Rate of interest applicable 11%

p..a.,
4. Explain in detail the provisions regarding
execution of nomination by a subscriber to the
Provident Fund.
5. What is Deposit Linked Insurance scheme?
What are the provisions regarding payment of
DLI to the beneficiaries in case of death of a
subscriber to the fund?
(ix) Recruitment Rules & Training:
(A) Objective:
295
1. GDCE stands for _____________________________.

2. Employees working in the lower post only
should be allowed to appear for GDCE. (say
true or false)
3. Cases of sports persons for recruitment and
for out of turn promotion from Group D to C if
other wise eligible, but does not possess the
minimum educational qualification should be
referred to __________. (Railway Board)
4. RPF staff are not debarred from appearing in
GDCE and other Departmental selections for
promotion in Departments other than
RPF/RPSF. (say true or false).
296
5. The prefix “Apprentice” should not be used in

the notifications published by RRBs for
recruitment from open market except in the
categories of Apprentices appointed in
___________ and _______ Departments. (Traffic
and Commercial)
6. GMs are empowered to re-engage retired
para-medical staff on daily rates basis upto
the age of _________ years. (62)
7. Replacement panel against shortfall from RRB
can be asked by the Railways within the
______________ in normal cases. (currency of
the panel)
297
8. Normally currency of the panels issued by RRB

shall be for ___ year/s. (one year)
9. The currency of the panels issued by RRB for
Group C can be extended beyond one year for
one more year with the approval of __________
(GM)
10. The operation of the replacement panel
should be ensured during the currency of the
panel or latest upto _____ months of the
expiry of the panel. (3 months)
11. The annual quota for recruitment of Sports
persons for Group C on S.C. Railway through
open advertisements is _______ (15).
298

persons for Group D on Zonal Hqrs., S.C.
Railway through open advertisements is
_______ (4).
persons for Group D on each division of S.C.
Railway through open advertisements is
_______ (3)
14. The vacancies under sports quota can be
carried forward. (say true or false).
15. The annual quota for S.C. Railway for
recruitment of sportspersons to Group C under
talent scouting is ______ (10)
299
16. The annual quota for recruitment of

sportspersons to Group D for each division
under talent scouting is ______ (2)
17. The annual quota for Zonal Hqrs., of S.C.
Railway for recruitment of sportspersons to
Group D under talent scouting is ______ (2)
18. The annual quota for recruitment against
Scouts & Guides in Group C for S.C. Railway is
________ (02).
Scouts & Guides in Group D for each division
of this Railway is ______ (02).
300

Cultural events in Group C for S.C. Railway is
________ (02).
Cultural events in Group D for each division of
this Railway is ______ (nil).
22. The examination fees for the examinations
conducted by RRB is _____________.
23. _____% of posts in Group C & D are
reserved for persons with disabilities.
24. The minimum age limit for recruitment in
Railways is ___________.
25. General Manager can relax the lower age
limit by ____________.
301
26. Upper age limit for CG appointment be

relaxed freely. (say true or false)
27. Upper age limit for appointment to Group C
services in the lowest scale in Railways is ____
for general , _____ for OBC and _____ for SC/ST
candidates.
28. During 2000, Railway Board have directed
that recruitment to Group D posts shall
henceforth be undertaken by
__________________ themselves.
29. General Managers are empowered to
engage Group D staff only as ___________.
30. Currency of panels issued by RRBs is ______
extendable by ________ by GM.
302
31. LDCE stands for ___________________________.

32. Railway Board have introduced LDCE in the
categories of OS/Gr.II and PI/Gr.I to an extent
of __________ of the posts.
33. The scheme of restructuring of the cadres
is effective from _____________.
34. During restructuring suitable number of
posts were required to be surrendered since
the scheme of restructuring is
__________________.
35. The new Pension scheme is effective from
______________.
303
36. A reservation of ________ % of vacancies

has been provided for recruitment of the
physically challenged person.
37. _____% of vacancies are reserved for
orthopaedically challenged.
38. ____% of vacancies of ASMs in scale
Rs.4500-7000 are filled by Direct Recruitment.
39. ________% of the vacancies of Sr. Clerks are
filled by promotion from amongst the Junior
Clerks in the order of seniority.
40. ________% of the vacancies of Sr. Clerks are
filled by LDCE from amongst graduates
working as Clerks in Scale Rs. 3050-4590. (13
1/3 %)
304
41. _____% of vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled

by Direct Recruitment.
42. Promotion through LDCE to an extent of
20% of the _________ (vacancies/posts) in the
category of Office Superintendent/Gr.II has
been introduced.
43. A matriculate recruited as Artisan (Skilled
III) has to undergo the period of training for
______ years.
44. In direct recruitment ______ vacancies of
Group D _____ vacancies of Group C ae
reserved for ex-servicemen.
305
45. In case of blind, deaf and orthopaedically

handicapped relaxation in age shall be
granted upto _______ years.
46. The educational qualification for direct
recruitment of skilled artisan is _______.
47. The maximum age limit for appointment of
Group C employees belonging to general
community is __________ years.
48. ______ no. of posts are filled in Group D
services against Scout Quota in a year.
49. ______ no. of posts are filled in Group D
services against Cultural Quota.
50. _________ no. of posts are filled in Group D
services against sports quota.
306
51. Recruitment against Scouts, Sports and

Cultural Quotas is to be completed by
_________ for every year.
52. Reservation to SC/ST/OBC is applicable in
sports quota. (say true or false)
53. General Manager is competent to
constitute the recruitment committee for
group C and D posts against sports quota at
Headquarters level. (say true or false)
54. The age limit for recruitment of sports
persons against Group D is between 18 to 33
years. (say true or false)
55. The upper age limit for sports persons
against sports quota for appointment in Group
307
C and D is relaxable by 5 years an d 2 years

against advertisement quota. (say true or
false)
56. General Manager may relax the upper age
limit in deserving and meritorious cases of
sports persons against talent scout quota.
(say true or false)
57. Outstanding sports persons can be
appointed in intermediary grades with the
approval of General Manager. (say true or
false)
58. Sports persons promoted on out of turn
basis can be allowed to count their seniority
308
only when they come up for promotion in their

turn. (say true or false)
59. The quota for each division against cultural
quota recruitment is two. (say true or false)
60. The cultural quota recruitment can be
carried forward to next year if not completed
by the end of each financial year. (say true or
false)
61. Rule of reservation for SC/ST/OBC is
applicable for appointments against cultural
quota. (say true or false)
62. Only the General Manager is competent to
make appointments against cultural quota.
(say true or false)
309
63. The quota against Cultural events for South

Central Railway in Group C is just 02 per
annum. (say true or false)
64. The recruitment in cultural quota will be
done in pay scale of Rs. 4500-7000 and
above. (say true or false)
65. The minimum educational qualification
required for cultural quota appointment
besides certificate course in music/dance etc.,
is a graduation. (say true or false)
66. Who is competent to declare a post as
suitable for appointment of physically
handicapped persons?
310
67. Post of SE/PW can be filled by physically

disabled person. (say true or false)
68. The quota meant for each group of
physically challenged, i.e., hearing impaired,
visually challenged and orthopedically
disabled can be exchanged at the end of three
years. (say true or false)
69. Can a candidate to be appointed on
compassionate grounds but found to be
orthopaedically disabled be charged against
the quota for physically handicapped? (say
true or false)
70. Candidate appointed on physically
handicapped quota should not be promoted to
311
next higher grade, as there is no reservation

for them in promotions. (say true or false)
71. The PH quota, if not filled will lapse at the
end of the recruitment year. (say true or false)
72. DRM/CWM is competent to appoint a
physically challenged candidate on
compassionate grounds. (say true or false)
73. The upper age limit for physically
challenged persons in recruitment of Group C
and D is set at 15 years above the normal
upper age limit. (say true or false)
74. There are __________ Railway Recruitment
Boards in the country.
312
75. The quota of reservation for recruitment of

ex-servicemen in Group C is _____.
76. _________ is competent to appoint a Group
D servant on compassionate grounds.
77. __________ is the competent authority to
relax or modify the age limits and educational
qualifications prescribed for recruitment to
non-gazetted posts.
78. __________ is the minimum educational
qualification for appoint to Group D posts in
Engineering Department.
79. The minimum educational qualification
prescribed for a Group D employee in TTM
Organisation is _________.
313
80. All the railway recruitment boards can

recruit ex-service men for Railway service.
(say true or false)
81. General Manager can appoint 4 persons
against Cultural Quota, every year in either
Group C or D categories. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the rules for recruitment of Group

C staff in Railways?
2. What is the procedure for recruitment of
Group D staff in Railways?
314
3. What are the rules of appointment on

compassionate grounds?
4. What are the rules for absorption of
medically decategorised staff?
5. What are the different modes of recruitment
in Railways to a Group C post?
6. Which is the agency that recruits Group C
staff to Railways? What are the rules for
placing an indent on that agency?
7. What are the General Rules regarding
Nationality of a candidate for appointment to
Railway Services as laid down in R. 218 of
IREC, Vol.I?
315
8. What is the laid down procedure for

publication of employment notices for
recruitment to Group C and D posts?
9. What are the various concessions extended
to SC/ST candidates?
10. What are the facilities extended to the SC/ST
Railway employees’ Associations?
12. What are the revised classifications of
Railway Service and the pay limits?
13. Describe the procedure for recruitment
against Group D services on Indian Railways?
14. How many Group C and Group D posts are
filled under Sports quota at Zonal/Divisional
316
level? What is the procedure to be followed

for filling up the Sports Quota vacancies?
15. Write a letter to the District authorities
requesting for verification of character and
antecedents of a newly recruited candidate
through RRB/SC for the post of Asst. Station
Master in scale Rs. 4500-7000 whose period of
residence in Prakasam District is for the last
05 years.
(x) Reservation Rules
(A) Objective:
317
1. ________________ is competent to issue caste

certificates in Andhra Pradesh.
2. Reservation for SC/ST in allotment of quarters
is ______________.
3. _____________% of reservation is provided to
OBCs in recruitment.
4. As a concession to SC/ST employees _________
% of vacant quarters should be earmarked in
allotment of quarters.
5. A single vacancy in a selection may be
reserved for SC only. (say true or false)
6. Single post in a __________ cadre may be filled
on regular basis without applying reservation.
(single post)
318
7. Instructions regarding post based roster for

promotion in Group C and D categories are
also apply for promotion from Group C to
______ and within _______ categories. (Group B,
Group B)
8. Any fresh creation of work charged or revenue
posts of Assistant Officers may be added to
the fixed cadre strength of _______ and rosters
expanded. (Group B)
9. The basic principle of post based reservation
is __________. (that the number of posts filled
by reservation by any category in a cadre
should be equal to the quota prescribed for
that category).
319
10. After introduction of post based

reservation, it is still permissible to fill up a
post reserved for ST by a SC candidate by
exchange. (say true or false)
11. There is a ban on dereservation of
vacancies reserved for SCs,ST and OBCs in
direct recruitment. (say true or false)
12. If the vacancies reserved for SCs/STs/OBCs
cannot be filled recruitment, they shall be
carried forward as backlog vacancies to the
subsequent recruitment years without any
limitation. (say true or false)
13. The income limit to exclude socially
advanced persons from the purview of
320
reservation for OBCs has been revised to

______ gross annual income. (2.5 laks)
14. Before appointing a person belonging to
OBC category, the appointing authority should
ensue that the person does not belong to
__________ on the crucial date. (creamy layer)
15. The %age reservation for SC/ST/OC for
each Railway in recruitment of all Group C and
will be _____, ______ and ______ respectively.
(15%, 7.5% and 27%)
16. As and when the Railway servants are
summoned by the National Commission to
attend any hearing, they may be spared as on
duty. (say true or false)
321
17. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-

reserved posts, the applications of candidates
with only _________ as postal charges may be
allowed. (Rs. 10/-)
reserved posts, age relaxation is not allowed.
(say true or false)
reserved posts, are they eligible for the free
pass facility? (Yes)
20. The ceiling of _______ % reservation for
SC/ST on total number of vacancies will apply
only on vacancies that arise in the ________
year. (50, current)
322
21. In respect of backlog/cary forward of

vacancies, the ceiling of 50% will not apply.
(say true or false)
22. The duration of pre-selection coaching for
SC/ST candidates for selection to Group B
posts should be for _________ weeks. (3 to 4
weeks)
23. SC/ST employees empanelled through
selection/LDCE without relaxation will be
treated as _________ vis a vis those SC/ST
employees empanelled with relaxed
standards. (senior)
323
24. Recognition to more than one SC/ST

association may be considered favourably.
(say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. What are the important features of the Post

Based Rosters? How many types of rosters are
there? What are the points to be kept in view
while preparing rosters?
2. What are the various concessions extended to
the employees belonging to SC/ST
communities in Railway right from recruitment
to superannuation?
324
3. What do you mean by the scheme of ‘best

among the failed’? What are the provisions
regarding imparting in-service training and
inclusion of the names in the panel after such
training?
4. What are the instructions regarding staff
belonging to SC/ST communities being
selected against general merit to selection
posts and non-selection posts?
5. Write a letter to the concerned revenue
authorities requesting for verification of the
caste certificate based on the following
details:
Name of the employee: Mr. X S/O. Mr. Y.
325
Caste as per the certificate: Yerukula –

ST
Certificate issuing authority: MRO/BZA
Place of birth/brought up of the employee:
Chennai.
Date of Appointment and Designation:
01.10.1995.
6. If sufficient number of SC/ST/OBC candidates
fit for appointment against reserved vacancies
are not available, what is the prescribed
procedure for filling up such reserved
vacancies in direct recruitment as well as in
case of promotion? (SC 46/2004)
326
(xi) Selections:
(A) Objective:
1. __________________ is competent to extend the

currency of the selection panel.
2. ________ % of marks are allotted for
Professional ability if there is no viva voce.
3. _________ % of marks are allotted for
Professional ability if there is viva voce.
4. The currency of the panel can be extended for
a period of ________ with the approval of
___________.
327
5. __________ is the competent authority to

permit second supplementary written test in a
selection post.
6. The candidates who secure __________ % of
marks or above in aggregate shall be
classified as outstanding in a selection.
7. For selection to the post in scale Rs. 5500-
9000, the selection board shall consist of
______________.
8. For selection to the post in scale Rs. 5000-
8000, the selection board shall consist of
______________.
9. The trade test shall be conducted by
_______________.
328
10. Selection posts are filled in on the basis of

the rule of seniority cum suitability. (say true
or false)
11. Filling up of a single post in single post
cadre without applying reservation on ad hoc
basis is permissible. (say true or false)
12. Selection posts shall be filled by a
__________ of selection made by selection
board from amongst the staff eligible for
selection. (positive act)
13. The positive act of selection shall consist of
only __________ to assess the professional
ability of the candidates. (written test)
329
14. In case of selection to the post of Teachers

the positive act of selection consist of both
________ and _________. (written test and viva
voce test)
15. A reasonable _________ notice should be
sent to the candidates before the date of
examination. (advance)
16. The staff in the immediate lower grade with
a minimum of _________ service in that grade
only will be eligible for promotion. (02 yars)
17. If a junior is eligible for promotion, his
senior also will be eligible for such promotion,
although ____________. (he might not have put
in a total service of two years or more)
330
18. The positive act of selection for promotion

to Loco Pilot (Passenger) will consist of
__________ only to assess the professional
ability of the candidates after passing the
prescribed promotional course. (viva voce)
19. Eligible staff upto _______ times the number
of staff to be empanelled will be called for the
selection. (three)
20. Persons who have expressed ____________
should not be reckoned in the zone of
consideration. (unwillingness)
21. The assessment of vacancies for a selection
post will include the existing vacancies and
331
those anticipated during the course of next

________ months. (15)
22. In case of selection to ex-cadre posts,
actual vacancies plus those anticipated in the
next ________ should be taken into account for
the purpose of assessment. (02 years)
23. The vacancies that arise due to likely
acceptance of voluntary
retirement/resignation shall be counted as
anticipated for assessment of vacancies. (say
true or false)
24. The vacancies that arise due to staff likely
to go on transfer to other Railways/Divisions
during the period under consideration shall be
332
counted as anticipated for assessment of

vacancies. (say true or false)
25. In regard to selection posts, it is essential
that all the selections are conducted ________
in a regular manner. (annually)
26. In case holding of next selection becomes
necessary, the same may be held after a
minimum gap of __________ from the date of
approval of the pervious panel. (six months)
27. In case of filling up of selection posts in
safety categories, if it becomes necessary to
hold the next selection within a gap of six
months, the same may be held with the
333
personal approval of ____________. (General

Manager)
28. Selection Board may be constituted under
the orders of _______ or _________ or _______ not
lower than a DRM/ADRM/CWM. (GM, HOD,
other competent authority)
29. Selection Boards shall consist of not less
than _________ officers. (three)
30. One of the selection board members shall
be a _________ and one of the members shall
be from a department other than ___________.
(Personnel Officer; that for which selection is
held)
334
31. For selection posts in scale Rs. 5500-9000

and above, the selection boards shall consist
of officers of ___________ . (JA Grade)
32. The answer books in a selection are
invariably evaluated by a member officer of
the department _____________. (for which
selection is being held)
33. In written test held as part of the selection
for promotion to the ___________ grade
selection post in a category, objective
questions should be set for ______% of the
total marks.
34. In the written test held as part of the
selection for promotion to other lower grade
335
selection posts, objective type questions

should be set to the extent of about _____% of
the total marks. (25%)
35. Grace marks may be allowed by the paper
evaluating officer in individual cases. (say true
or false)
36. Correction in the evaluation sheet for
selection, should be attested by at least one
of the committee members. (say true or false)
37. Maximum marks allotted in selections to
posts within Group C for professional ability
shall be __________ (50)
336

posts within Group C for record of service shall
be __________ (30)
posts within Group C for seniority shall be
__________ (20)
40. The qualifying marks for professional ability
in selections to posts within Group C shall be
________. (30)
41. Candidates must obtain a minimum of
_______% marks in professional ability and
_______% marks in of the aggregate for being
placed on the panel. (60, 60)
337
42. In cases where both written and viva voce

are part of selection, criteria for written test
should not be less than ______ marks and the
candidates must secure _____ % of marks in
written for being called for viva voce. (35, 60)
43. In cases of selections where both written
and viva voce tests are prescribed for
selection, notional seniority marks are added
to decide the eligibility for _______. (viva voce
only)
44. In case of selections to ex-cadre posts and
posts filed by calling for volunteers, __________
marks will not be added to decide the
eligibility for viva voce. (notional seniority)
338
45. The names of the candidates should be

arranged on the panel in the order of _____.
(seniority)
46. The candidates securing _______% or more
marks in a selection are graded as
outstanding. (80)
47. The candidates graded as outstanding and
are allowed to supersede not more than
_________ % of total field of eligibility. (50)
48. The panels drawn by Selection Boards and
approved by the competent authority shall be
current for _________ years. (02)
49. The selection panels are current for 02
years from __________ or ________ whichever is
339
earlier. (the date of approval by the

competent authority, till they are exhausted)
50. In case a senior person in a selection panel
does not officiate in the higher grade for
reasons of his own, it is implied that he has
refused the promotion (say true or false)
51. Removal of a Railway servant’s name from
the panel would require the approval of
____________. (the authority next above that
approved the panel initially)
52. For automatic empanelment, the original
Group C post, the intermediate Group C
selection post and the present post held by
340
the employee are all in the same __________.

(avenue of promotion)
53. For automatic empanelment, none of the
posts in question is a _______ post for which
several categories of staff are eligible.
(general post)
52. Not more than ________ supplementary
selection/s should normally be held to cater to
the needs of absentees. (one)
53. A second supplementary selection should
be held rarely with the personal approval of
___________ based on merits of each case.
(CPO)
341
54. The employee refusing promotion expressly

or otherwise is debarred for future promotion
for ________. (one year)
55. Promotion after one year will be subject to
continued validity of the panel in which he is
borne, otherwise he will have to appear again
in the selection. (say true or false)
56. At the end of one year if the employee
again refuses promotion at the outstation, his
name may be deleted from the panel. 9say
true or false)
57. Deletion of the name from the panel, due to
refusal of promotion at outstation at the end
of one year of refusal period, shall be
342
automatic and no approval is needed. (say

true or false)
58. The employee refused promotion will rank
junior to those promoted from the same panel
earlier to him. (say true or false)
59. The employee refused promotion will rank
junior to those promoted during the refusal
period from a panel as a result fresh selection
subsequently held during the refusal period.
(say true or false)
60. Refusal of promotion has no relevance to a
particular post at a particular station. (say
true or false)
343
61. Refusal to officiate on promotion at the

same station may be taken as ________.
(refusal to work)
62. Refusal to officiate on promotion at the
same station may be taken as refusal to work
and attracts disciplinary action. (say true or
false)
63. An employee may officiate in higher grade
on ad hoc basis for ______ weeks without
passing trade test. (six)
64. Trade Test may comprise of both oral and
practical to be held simultaneously. (say true
or false)
344
65. There shall be no separate oral test not

forming part of trade test for artisan
categories for the purpose of screening them.
(say true or false)
66. Exemption may be given from passing a
prescribed promotional course in deserving
cases. (say true or false)
67. In case promotional course has been
prescribed as a pre-requisite condition to
promotion, the employee may be allowed
_____ chances to pass the course at the cost of
administration. (3)
68. In case promotional course has been
prescribed as a pre-requisite condition to
345
promotion, any chances allowed beyond three

is at the cost of employee. (say true or false)
69. Staff promoted to rectify the administrative
error may be on ___ basis. (proforma)
70. In case of proforma promotion, the pay
may be allowed from ________. (the date of
actual promotion)
71. In case of proforma promotions, arrears are
not admissible since the employee concerned
shoulder ___________. (the duties and
responsibilities of higher post prospectively)
72. The question whether the
promotion/appointment of a particular Railway
servant to a post was erroneous or not should
346
be decided by an authority _________ than the

appointing authority. (next higher)
73. Whether the appointing authority is the
President or Railway Board, the decision
regarding erroneous promotion should rest
with _________. (the President)
74. In selection posts of a cadre, the marks
allotted under the head seniority is ________.
(20)
75. In selection posts of a cadre, the marks
allotted under the head record of service is
________. (30)
76. The head ‘personality, leadership etc.,’ for
assessment of the suitability of a candidate in
347
selections is done away with. (say true or

false)
(B) Descriptive:
1. Explain the process of filling up of the

vacancies in a selection post from the stage of
assessment of vacancies to empanelment.
2. Explain the process of filling up of the
vacancies in a non-selection post.
3. Explain the provisions regarding Trade Tests
for artisan categories.
348
4. What is erroneous promotion? What action is

suggested in the rules to deal with the
erroneous promotions?
5. Write Short notes on:
(i) concept of anticipated vacancies. (ii)
assessment of vacancies
(iii) selection to persons on deputation. (iv)
Currency of panels (v) Automatic
empanelment (vii) Supplementary
selections.
(xii) Seniority Rules.
(A) Objective:
349
1. The general principles that may be followed in

dertermining the senioirty of non-gazetted
Railway servants are enumerated in Chapter
______ of the IREM, Vol.I. (Chapter III)
2. The seniority among the incumbents of a post
in ;a grade is governed by the __________ . (the
date of appointment to the grade)
3. Grant of pay higher than initial pay shuld not
confer on a Railway servant seniority above
those who are already appointed regularly.
(say true or false)
350
4. The criterion for determination of seniority of

a direct recruit should be __________. (the date
of joining the working post after due process)
5. The criterion for determination of seniority of
a promotee should be __________. (the date of
regular promotion after due process)
6. When the dates of entry into a grade of the
promotees and direct recruits are the same,
they should be put in ________ positions, the
promotees being senior to the direct recruits.
(alternate)
7. In case training period is curtailed, the date of
joining the working post in case of direct
recruit shall be _____________. (the date he
351
would have normally come to a working post

after completion of the prescribed training)
8. The seniority of the candidates recruited
through RRB and sent for initial training is to
be fixed in the order of __________. (merit at
the examination held at the end of training)
9. In case no initial training is prescribed, the
seniority of the candidates recruited through
RRB is fixed in the order of ______. (merit
assigned by RRB)
10. When two or more candidates are declared
of the equal merit at one and the same
examination, their relative seniority is
determined by the _______. (date of birth)
352
11. In case date of birth becomes the criterion

for determining the seniority, the
________candidate becomes the senior. (older)
12. In case of mutual transfer to a different
seniority unit, their seniority is based on the
____________ of the railway servant with whom
they have exchanged, which ever of the two
may be lower. (date of promotion)
13. In case of transfer to a different seniority
unit in the interest of administration, the
seniority is regulated by ______ (date of
promotion/appointment to the grade as the
case may be)
353
14. The Railway servants transferred at their

own request from one seniority unit to another
shall be placed ________ the existing
confirmed, temporary and officiating Railway
servants in the __________ grade. (below,
relevant)
15. Transfer at own request to a different
seniority unit is permitted if there is ________ .
(element of direct recruitment)
16. Transfer on request shall not be allowed in
_________ grades in which all posts are filled
entirely by promotion of staff from lower
grades. (intermediate)
354
17. When dates of appointment to a grade is

the same, __________ shall determine the
seniority. (the dates of entry into grade next
below it)
18. In case the dates of entry into grade next
below that in which the seniority is being
determined also coincide, the dates of entry
into each of the _________ shall determine the
seniority. (lower grades in order down to the
lowest grade in the channel of promotion)
19. If the dates of entry in each of the lower
grades in the channel also are identical, then
the __________ shall determine the seniority.
(relative dates of birth)
355
20. The relative seniority of the Railway

servants passing the examination/test in their
due turn and on the same date shall be
determined with reference to their ______ .
(substantive or basic seniority)
21. When a post is filled by considering staff of
different seniority units, the total length of
continuous service in the ______ or ________
grade held by the employees shall be the
determining factor for assigning seniority.
(same, equivalent)
22. While deciding the relative seniority of
employee in an intermediate grade belonging
to different seniority units, _________ service
356
only should be taken into account. (non-

fortuitous)
23. Non fortuitous service means the service
rendered after the date of ________ after
_________. (regular promotion, due process)
24. Railway servants may be permitted to see
the seniority list in which their names are
placed. (say true or false)
25. In case the seniority lists cannot be
conveniently arranged for perusal by the
concerned Railway servants, they may be
informed of their position in the seniority list
on ________. (request)
357
26. Staff concerned may be allowed to

represent about the assignment of their
seniority position within a period of ________
after the publishing of the seniority list. (one
year)
27. No cases of revision in seniority lists should
be entertained beyond one year. (say true or
false)
28. Reduction in pay __________ affect a Railway
servant’s position on the seniority list.
(Choose correct answer – does or does not)
29. If the period of reduction to a lower service,
grade or post is not specified in the order
imposing the penalty, the person loses his
358
___________ in the higher service, grade or

post. (original seniority)
30. The seniority of a Railway servant, who is
reduced to a lower service, grade or post for
an unspecified period, should be determined
by ________ without regard to the service
rendered by him in such service, grade or
post. (the date of re-promotion)
31. Where staff is appointed to Railway service
below the prescribed minimum age limit, the
underage service will also count for the
purpose of seniority. (say true or false)
32. The seniority of the medically
decategorised staff will be fixed with
359
reference to the __________. (length of service

in equivalent grade prior to medical
decategorisation)
33. The staff who get their cases recommended
for change of category on medical grounds
will be treated as _____________. (transferred
on own request)
34. Sr. Clerks in scale Rs. 4500-7000 and
Stenos in scale Rs. 4000-6000 are treated on
par for the purpose of preparing integrated
seniority for Welfare Inspectors.(say true or
false)
(B) Descriptive:
360
1. How seniority of a Non-gazetted employee is

fixed:
a. on appointment through RRB where there is
no training.
b. On absorption after initial training.
c. Transfer on administrative grounds.
d. Transfer on request.
e. On transfer to another post on medical
decategorisation.
f. On transfer to another post on surplus
account.
g. On mutual exchange with another
employee in other unit.
361
2. What is the significance of a ‘Seniority List’?

What are the general rules for drawl and
circulation of seniority lists?
(i) inter se seniority (ii) integrated
seniority (iii) Fortuitous service
(xiii) Transfer/Transfer Grant:
(A) Objective:
1. Group D staff recruited prior to ________

without the condition of qualification will be
eligible to seek transfer on request in
362
recruitment grade on bottom seniority.

(04.12.1998)
2. Group D staff recruited after _________ with
relaxation of qualification will be eligible to
seek transfer on request in recruitment grade
on bottom seniority. (04.12.1998)
3. 50% of DA is taken into account as Dearness
Pay for arriving at the quantum of composite
transfer grant, in case of staff transferred prior
to 01.04.2004 but relieved after that date.
4. Staff transported their luggage at their own on
transfer without availing the facility of Kit Pass
are entitled to the Composite Transfer Grant
363
without any cut in the quantum. (say true or

false)
5. In case the Railway accommodation is
permitted to be retained by the family of the
deceased for a period of 02 years, the time
limit for availing the Composite transfer grant
is _________ . (30 months)
6. Claims for composite transfer grant can be
entertained and paid along with settlement
dues to the retiring staff. (say true or false)
7. Requests for transfer of sports persons
recruited against sports quota form one
Railway/unit/Division to another
Railway/Unit/Division may be considered if the
364
sports person has completed _______ years of

service. (10 years)
8. The requests of the sports persons for transfer
on mutual basis from one Zone/Division/Unit
to another provided both are __________.
(sports persons)
9. Cases involving inter Railway transfers of
sports persons shall be referred to __________
for approval. (Railway Board)
10. All communications regarding transfer
should be signed by ______ with his name and
designation appearing below the signature. (a
Gazetted Personnel Officer)
365
11. The memorandum/order sparing the

employee on transfer should have the
________, ________ and _________ of the
employee duly attested by the officer signing
the memorandum/order of relief. (photograph,
signature and LTI)
12. Staff qualified in GDCE and get posted to a
station of their choice are entitled to Transfer
Grant. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:

(i) Transfer in the interest of Administration
366
(ii) Transfer on request of the employee

(iii) Posting of Wife and husband
(iv) Periodical Transfers
(v) Composite Transfer Grant.
XX. Hours of Employment Regulations.
(A) Objective:
367
1. Staff of essentially intermittent category

must have a minimum of ______ consecutive
hours of rest in a week include a full night.
2. The staff whose daily hours of duty include
periods of inaction aggregating to _______
hours or more are declared as essentially
intermittent.
3. The intensive worker must have a minimum
of ______ hours of rest in a week.
4. The rostered hours of duty of an intensive
worker in a week shall be ____ hours.
5. Rostered hours of duty of essentially
intermittent worker in a week shall be ____ .
368
6. Railway servants employed in a confidential

capacity are classified as ______.
7. Asst. Surgeons, matrons, sisters-in-charge &
mid-wives are classified as _______.
8. Continuous staff are allowed a period of rest
of _______ hours each week.
9. Casual Labour are governed under HOER.
(say true or false)
10. In calculating the period of overtime, fraction
of an hour less than 30 minutes shall be
dropped. (say true or false).
11. Principles of averaging will not apply to
Running staff. (say true of false)
369
12. Principles of averaging will apply to shift

workers. (say true of false)
13. The period of averaging will be _________ in
case of EI workers other than C class
gatemen, caretakers of rest houses and
saloon attendants etc.,
14. In case of C class gatemen, Care takers of
rest houses & saloon attendants classified as
Essentially Intermittent, the period of
averaging shall be _________.
15. No leave reserve shall be provided for staff
in Railway schools. (say true of false).
16. In the category of Permanent Way Inspectors
the leave reserve shall be ___ %.
370
17. The weekly rest for essentially intermittent

staff shall be __________ continuous hours in a
week including one full night in bed.
18. When an employee work overtime beyond
statutory limits, the payment of OT wil be
made _________ times the ordinary rate of pay.
19. PR under HOER cannot be spread over two
calendar days. (say true or false)
20. The staff excluded are eligible for night
duty allowance. (say true or false)
(B) Descriptive:
371
1. Describe the provisions of Hours of

Employment regulations?
2. How are staff classified under HOER? What
procedure is adopted for change of
classification?
3. What notices are required to be displayed at
the site of work under HOER? What
are the registers required to be maintained?
4. What is job analysis? What are the mechanics
of Job Analysis?
5. Define & explain:
(i) Intensive (ii) Essentially intermittent (iii)
Long on
372
(iv) Short off (v) Split Shift (vi) Rest Givers

(vii) Single OT
(viii) OTA to Running Staff (ix) Road side and
other than road side stations
(x) sustained attention (xi) temporary
exemption (xii) Principles of averaging
6. Explain the need for HOER in Railways?
Define and explain different classifications
under HOER duly giving rostered/statutory
hours of work and rest?
7. How is overtime calculated for different
categories of staff under HOER? Explain with
examples.
373
(C) Practical Questions:
a) Draft a letter recommending the change of

classification of Asst. Station Masters of a way
side station from Essentially Intermittent to
Continuous.
b) What are the aspects to be covered in the
inspection of a station, a shed and a
subordinate office?
c) Put up a note to the competent authority
seeking approval for change of classification
from Continuous to Essentially intermittent
based on the proposal and report received
from the division.
374
XXII. Labour Laws 1) The Industrial

Disputes Act, 1947 A. Objective:
1. Casual workers who have attained

temporary status can be terminated for their
misbehaviour/misconduct by giving show
cause notice and DAR proceedings need not
be followed. (say true or false)
2. Railway schools and Railway training schools
are not covered under the provisions of
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. (say true or
false)
375
3. Dispute between workmen and workmen

which is connected with the employment or
non-employment is called industrial dispute.
(say true or false)
4. Casual labour in Railway Projects are
workmen in terms of Industrial Disputes Act,,
5. Break in service involves forfeiture of all
leave earned upto the day of strike. (say true
or false)
6. A workman shall be deemed to have
completed one year of continuous service in
the industry, if he has actually worked for not
376
less than ______ days during a period of 12

calendar months.
B. Descriptive:
1. What are the salient features of the Industrial

Disputes Act?
2. What do you mean by a strike? What are the
two types of strikes? What are the provisions
of the Industrial Disputes Act regarding
Strikes?
3. What is lock out? What are the differences
between strike and lock out?
377
4. What is meant illegal strikes? What are the

effects of illegal strikes?
5. What are the different machineries provided in
the Industrial Disputes Act for resolving the
disputes between workmen and employers?
6. What is meant by retrenchment under the ID
Act? What are the conditions precedent to
retrenchment?
(i) Strike (ii) Lock out (iii) Lay Off (iv)
Dies non
(v) Public Utility Service (viii) Conciliation
officers under ID Act, 1947
378
(vii) National Industrial Tribunal (v) Break

in service
2) Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act
3. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 A.

Objective:
1. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies to

the persons appointed through a Sub-
contractor by persons fulfilling a contract with
a Railway administration. (say true or false)
379
2. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 provides for

a remedy for wages earned but not paid. (say
true or false)
3. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 does not
provide for a remedy for investigation of a
dispute as to whether the employee should be
retained in one job. (say true or false)
4. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies to a
persons whose wages in respect of a wage
period average below Rs. __________ per
month.
5. The term wages under Payment of Wages Act,
1936 include any remuneration payable under
any award of a court. (say true or false)
380
6. The term wages under Payment of Wages Act,

1936 include any remuneration to which the
person employed is entitled to in respect of
any leave period. (say true or false)
7. Any Bonus, which does not form part of
remuneration payable under the terms of
employment, is not wages in terms of
Payment of Wages Act, 1936? (say true of
false)
8. Wages under Payment of Wages Act, 1936
does not include mileage allowance payable
to running staff. (say true or false)
9. Normally ________ is nominated a pay master
in the divisions.
381
10. No Wage period shall exceed _____________.

11. Wages hall be paid within ______ days of the
last day of the wage period in an
establishment where less than 1000 are
employed.
12. Wages hall be paid within ______ days of the
last day of the wage period in an
establishment where more than 1000 are
employed.
13. If the employment of any person is
terminated by the employer, the wages
earned by him shall be paid before
_______________ from the day on which his
employment is terminated.
382
14. All wages shall be paid in _______ or _______

or __________.
15. The employer may pay the wages by
cheque or credit the wages in a bank account
after ___________.
16. Fines imposed on an employee can not be
deducted from the wages. (say true or false).
17. The total amount of deduction from wages
in a wage period shall not exceed ______ % in
case whole or part of such deduction is made
for payment to Co-operative Societies.
B. Descriptive:
383
1. What are the salient features of the Payment

of Wages Act, 1936?
2. Write briefly about the applicability of the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
3. What do you mean by ‘wages’ under PW Act?
What are permissible deductions from the
wages of the employee governed under
Payment of wages Act, 1936?
4. What do you mean by Wage period? What are
different wage periods in operation on
Railways? What are the provisions regarding
wage periods under the Act?
5 List out different Acts and omissions
suggested under Payment of Wages Act?
384
What are the penalties prescribed under the

PW Act for breach of acts?
4. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 A.

Objective:
1. In fixing minimum wages ______________ is

always taken into consideration.
2. In Railways, minimum wages admissible to
workers in a particular locality are fixed by
__________________.
385
B. Descriptive:
1. What are the salient features of the Minimum

Wages Act, 1966?
2. What categories of staff of Railways come
under the purview of the Minimum Wages
Act? What special privileges do they enjoy as
regards wages?
3. What notices are required to be displayed
under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948? What
penalties are prescribed under the Act for
different offences?
386
5. The Workmen Compensation Act, 1923

A. Objective:
1. The Productivity Linked Bonus forms part of

wages within the meaning of Workmen’s
Compensation Act. (say true or false)
2. The cost of agreement, if any, so executed by
dependents of deceased railway servant
under Workmen’s Compensation Act shall be
borne by ___________________.
3. Cost of agreement, if any, executed by
surviving railway servant under Workmen’s
Compensation Act shall be borne by _____.
387
4. National Holiday Allowance is inclusive in the

term wages under the Workmen
Compensation Act, 1923. (say true of false)
5. Value of clothing supplied to the staff is not
wages for the purpose of compensation under
Workmen Compensation Act, 1923. (say true
or false) (false)
6. Casual Labour are governed under WC Act,
7. The category of pay clerk would not fall within
the definition of workman under the Workmen
Compensation Act, 1923. (say true of false)
8. Vendors/waiters employed in catering
department are not covered under the
388
definition of workman under WC Act, 1923.

(say true of false).
9. Disablement which reduces temporarily the
earning capacity of a workman in any
employment in which he was engaged at the
time of accident resulting in disablement is
called ______________.
10. Disablement which permanently
reduces the earning capacity of a workman in
every employment which he was capable of
undertaking at the time of accident resulting
in disablement is called ___________.
11. Disablement not only reduces earning
capacity of workman but incapacitates him
389
from all work which he was capable of

performing at the time of accident is called
_____________ .
12. Amount of compensation payable for
death resulting from the injury is equal to ____
% of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant
factor or an amount of Rs. ________ whichever
is more.
13. The amount of compensation payable
for permanent total disablement resulting
from the injury is equal to ________ % of
monthly wages multiplied by the relevant
factor or an amount of Rs. _____________
whichever is more.
390
14. Half monthly payments under WC Act

shall be payable on ______ day from the date
of disablement, if it lasts for a period of 28
days or more.
15. Half monthly payments under WC Act
shall be payable on __________ day from the
date of disablement, if it lasts for a period of
less than 28 days.
16. Any payment or allowance received
from employer for medical treatment is not
called payment towards compensation under
WC Act, 1923. (say true or false).
17. Employer is liable to pay
compensation to workman, if a personal injury
391
is caused to the workman by accident arising

_________ his employment.
18. The employer shall not be liable to
pay compensation in respect of an injury
caused by an accident which is directly
attributable to the workman under the
influence of drinks/drugs at the time of
accident. (say true or false).
19. The employer shall not be liable to
pay compensation in respect of an injury
caused by an accident which is directly
attributable to the workman under the
influence of drinks/drugs at the time of
392
accident even when such injury results in his

death. (say true or false).
20. Wilful disregard/removal of any safety
guard which leads to an accident in which the
workman is injured, no compensation shall be
payable by the employer when such injury
results in his death. (say true or false).
21. Payment of compensation shall be
made through _____________ in respect of a
workman whose injury has resulted in death.
22. Appeal against the orders of the
Commissioner for Workmen Compensation
shall lie to ____________ if a question of law is
involved.
393
B. Descriptive:
1. What are the salient features of Workmen

Compensation Act, 1923?
2. What are the circumstances under which
the employer is liable to pay compensation to
a workman under the Workmen Compensation
Act, 1923?
3. Are the daily rated Casual labour,
Apprentices or the substitutes are governed
under the provisions of Workmen
Compensation Act, 1923? What are the
relevant provisions of the Act?
394
4. How are monthly wages determined for the

purpose of calculation of compensation under
the provisions of Workmen Compensation Act,
1923?
5. What are the different kinds of
disablements and compensation payable for
each?
6. Define and explain:
(i) Permanent Partial disablement
(ii)Temporary partial disablement
(iii) Half monthly payments (iv) Workman
under WCA.
(v) Wages under WCA. (vi) Total
disablement.
395
XXIII. Right to Information Act
1) When the RTI Act came into force?

2) What are the main aims and objectives of
RTI Act?
3) Define the term ‘information’ under RTI Act.
4) What are the terms ‘Record’ and ‘Right to
Information’ meant under RTI Act?
396
5) What is the procedure to make a request for

information under RTI Act?
6) What is time limit prescribed where the
information sought for concerns the life or
liberty of a person?
7) Describe the circumstances under which
there shall be no obligation to give the
information to any citizen?
8) What is mant by ‘third party information’
under RTI Act?
9) Describe the constitution of Central
Information Commission under RTI Act.
10) What is the term of office of the Chief
Information Commissioner?
397
11) What is the minimum and maximum

penalty that can be imposed at the time of
deciding any complaint or offence for not
providing the information or refusal to
receive any application under RTI Act.
12) Which are the organizations the RTI Act do
not apply?
13) What is the procedure for collection of fee
for providing information under RTI Act?
14) Say True or False –
a) An applicant making request under RTI

Act shall require to give any reasons for the
request.
398
b) The Chief Information Commissioner is

eligible for re-appointment under the RTI
Act.
15) Who appoints the State Chief Information
Commissioner and State Information
Commissioner?
XXIV. Official Language Act and Rules:
(A) Objective:
1. In terms of Article 342 (1) of The Constitution

of India, __________ language in
399
_________ script shall be the official

language of the Union. (Hindi, Devanagari)
2. Article 343 (2) of the Constitution of India
empowers ______________________
to authorize use of Hindi in addition
English. (The President of India)
3. The Official Language Act was passed in
_______________. (1963)
4. According to Official Language Rules, India
is divided into ____ regions and they are
______, _______ and _________. (three, Region A,
Region B and Region C)
5. What are the States that come under
Region A? (Bihar, Haryana, Himachal
400
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar

Pradesh and Delhi).
6. What are the States that come under
Region B? (Gujarat, Maharastra, Punjab and
the Union territories of Andaman & Nicobar
Islands and Chandigarh).
7. Region C means the states _____________.
(other than those in Regions A & B)
8. Communications from Central Government
Offices to the States, Offices and persons in
_________ Region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in
English, a Hindi translation shall accompany.
(Region A)
401
9. Communications from Central Govt. Offices

to States or Offices in ______ region
shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, Hindi
translation shall accompany. (B)
10. Communications from Central Govt. Offices
to persons in Region B shall be
in____________. (Hindi or English)
11. Communications from Central Government
Offices to States or Persons in Region C shall
be in ____________. (English)
12. Communications between Central
Government Offices – between one Ministry or
Department and another may be in
__________________ . (Hindi or English)
402
13. Communications between Central

Government Offices – between one Ministry or
Department and attached/subordinate
offices in Region A may be in __ depending on
number of persons having another may be in
_________. (Hindi or English)
14. Communications between Central Govt.
Offices in Region A shall be in _. (Hindi)
15. Communications between Central Govt
Offices in Region B or C may be in
_________. (Hindi or English)
16. Translations of such communication shall
be provided along with the communication
403
where it is addressed to Offices in

_______________. (Region C)
17. Representations may be submitted by an
employee in _______. (Hindi or English)
18. Representations, when made/signed in
Hindi shall be replied to in _____. (Hindi)
19. Notings in Central Government Offices may
be made by an employee in _______ and he
____ be required to furnish a translation of it.
(Hindi or English, will not)
20. If an employee has working knowledge of
Hindi, he will not ask for English
translation of a Hindi Document, unless it is
of _________nature (legal/technical).
404
21. Manuals, Codes, Forms, Notices etc., shall

be printed or cyclostyled in
_____________________ form. (Hindi & English
Diglot)
22. The forms and heading on registers shall be
in ____________. (Hindi & English)
23. All name plates, sign boards, letter heads,
inscriptions on envelopes and other
stationery etc., shall be in
______________________. ( Hindi & English)
24. Responsibility to implement Official
Language Rules is of ____. (Head of Office)
(B) Descriptive:
405
1. When an employee is deemed to possess

proficiency in Hindi?
2. When an employee is deemed to have
acquired a working knowledge of Hindi?
3. What are different steps taken by Railways to
implement Hindi in official work?
4. What incentives are given for passing various
Hindi Examinations?
5 What are the incentives for use of
Rajabhasha?
6. Write salient Features of Official Language
Act, 1963 as amended in 1976.
*****

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1

QUESTION BANK FOR SELECTION TO THE

II. Writing Skills:

unions/Associations. Dealing with

 Redeployment of surplus staff.

XXIII. Right to Information Act.

1. The receipt of dak, except ______, will be

5. All dak receipts submitted to officers will move

9. The notes or correspondence portion of the

temperate language free from personal

paper under consideration relates. (standard

22. The record classified as Class ‘A’ does not

1. What is docketing? What is the procedure for

8. What is a file? What are the guidelines for

(a) Urgent Dak (b) Security grading (c) PUC

II. Writing Skills:

1. What are guidelines regarding addressing

III. Award of works in Works Programme:

1. In case of open tenders, the minimum period

3. For limited tenders, _______ days’ notice shall

8. ________ is the nodal officer for preparation of

12. Limited tenders are called through ________.

17. Powers of JAG Officers in granting technical

22. Monetary value of Revenue/Banker’s

approval of the authority of the rank of ______.

31. The monetary slab for Class B contractor is

each identified category of works. (say true or

39. The fee chargeable for registration in the

43. The standing earnest money for works

limited tenders under two pocket system of

53. LSWP works costing less than 30 lakhs shall

59. Power of GM to sanction safety related

64. Sponsoring authority for works under plan

69. Sponsoring authority for works under plan

74. Sponsoring authority for works under plan

79. List of works pertaining to MP and Rolling

1. Write briefly about Project abstract Estimate.

(vi) Open Tenders (vii) Approved List of

4. Write about Works Programme. Describe the

8. What is meant by variations? What is the

IV. Procedure for Stores Procurement.

1. Procurement of safety items are done through

4. In a rate contract, not only rate but also

10. The prescribed form for placing indents for

1. Explain briefly about Rate Contracts and

6. What is stock verification? What action to be

V. Railway Organisational Structure.

1. There are _______ centralized training

5. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical &

10. RRT has no jurisdiction in respect of fixation

14. RITES renders consultation services both

1. What are the objectives of Railway

2. Write briefly about the organizational

(e) IRCON (f) CAMTECH (g) CORE (h) RVNL

If so, what is the justification for setting up

VI. Railway Housing (Railway Quarters

1. Staff in pay range of _______ are eligible for

6. Quarter can be retained for ____ on normal

11. Retention of Railway quarters in case of

16. Water charges recoverable from a Group C

20. Retention of Railway accommodation on

1. What are the provisions regarding retention of