Test Date Code-A

22-04-2020

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

Max. Marks : 720 TEST - 23 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (1) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (1)
2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (4) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (2)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (1) 43. (4) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (4) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (1) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (3) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (1) 129. (2) 165. (4)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (1)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (2) 96. (4) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (4) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (4) 180. (3)
(1)
Test-23 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020

Test Date Code-A

22-04-2020

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

Max. Marks : 720 TEST - 23 Time : 3 Hrs.

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) AB is wall

Pitch  x
∵ L.C.  ∵ y  x tan  1  
C.S.D  R 
Zero error = 3 × L.C. = 0.06 mm
At the postion of wall
Reading (R) = M.S.D. × Pitch + n × L.C. – Zero error.
Option (4) is correct.+,in x = x1, y = h and R = x1 + x2

2. Answer (3)
 x1 
 h  x1 tan  1  
  x1  x2  
10 m/s
B 30 m/s A 2
2 8 m/s
4 m/s
x1x2 tan 
100 m h
 x1  x2 
Motion of B is observed w.r.t. A:-
uB/A = 30 – 10 = 20 m/s ∵ h = 6 m, x1 = 6 m, x2 = 18 m
aB/A = 4 – 8 = –4 m/s2
4
If final relative  tan  
3
Velocity of B w.r.t. A is zero at a distance (S0)
= 53°
VB2/ A  uB2 / A  2aB / A .S0
4. Answer (2)
2
0  (20)  2  4  S0 
 
v  2t 2 iˆ  4tjˆ m/s
S0  50 m .

 dv
∵ Initial separation is (S) = 100 m.
a
dt

 4tiˆ  4 jˆ m/s2 
Minimum separation Smin  S  S0
= 100  50 at t = 1 s

Smin  50 m .  
a  2iˆ  4 jˆ m/s
3. Answer (4)

A  
a  4iˆ  4 jˆ m/s2


h Tangential acceleration (at) is a component of a
 B

X along v .

x1 x2 ∵ a.v  av cos 
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
 aA = at (Tangential acceleration)
a.v
 a cos   at
v aA = gsin …(i)
  At B net acceleration
angle between a & v .
aB = a. (centripetal acceleration)
24 = at
20 v B2
aB  (ii)
l
12
at  By conservation of energy
5
At A and B
5. Answer (3)
EB  E A
For first case:
m 2
F1 v  mg  l  l cos 
2
m


v 2  2g  l  l cos   (iii)
s in fL
mg
 ∵ aB  aA

 from (i), (ii) and (iii)

F1  mg sin   fL (i)

For second case: 2g 1  cos    g sin 

FL 2
∵ cos   1  2sin  
2

m
F2   2      
 2 1  1  2 sin  2    2sin  2  cos  2 
        

si n
mg 
  
2sin2    sin   cos  
2 2 2
F2  mg sin   fL (ii)  1
 tan   
∵ FL = mg cos 2 2

from equation (i) and (ii)   1

 tan1  
2 2
tan  1
   1
2 2 3   2 tan1   .
2
6. Answer (2) 7. Answer (1)
If constant power is P0
 Fv = P0

dv
m v  P0 (i)
l v= 0 dt
A

 h = l – lcos After solving equation (i)

v
B
at
g 2P0
v t .
At A net acceleration m

(3)
Test-23 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
8. Answer (1) 11. Answer (2)
It velocity is interchanged between identical mass By the conservation of angular momentum
then collision is perfectly elastic.
LB = LA
e=1
mv B OB   mv A OA 
9. Answer (4)
l/3 l/6 v B OA
C.M  x
v A OB

O 12. Answer (1)

At the centre of earth gravitational potential
mg
3GM
(V ) 
Torque about point O 2R
U (Potential energy) = mV
l
0  mg
6 3GMm
U
mgl 2R
I0  
6 By conservation of energy
 ml 2 2
l   mgl 3GMm mv 2
  m     0
 12  6   6 2R 2

3GM
3g  V 
 R
2l
2GM
l  3g  ∵ Ve 
at  r   R
6  2l 
g V 3
at   .
4 Ve 2

If normal (N) is in upward direction then for 13. Answer (2)

translational motion :-
 V
∵ Fractional change in density 
mg  N  mat  V

3mg P
 N . B and P = gh
4  / 

10. Answer (3) P  Pressure difference.

Angular momentum about centre due to rotational 14. Answer (4)
motion is
By the Bernoulli’s Principle between B and C
v VC2 r 
2
(L) = I = I …(i) PC  PB    1 
r 2  2 
∵ At the bottom velocity
r1  BC  7m
2gh
v   I
Similarly between B and A
1 …(ii)
VA2   r2  
2
mr 2
PA  PB  
from (i) and (ii) 2 2
r2  BA  3 m
mr 4gh
LC.M  .  PA – PC = –80 ×103 N/m2
2 3
(4)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
15. Answer (4) for B

2T T2 400
∵ P  Pin  P0  2  1   1
r T1 T

T  Surface tension ∵ 2  1
r  Radius of meniscus T = 600 K.
2T 20. Answer (1)
Pin  P0 
r Because point (P) as a particle oscillate along
16. Answer (3) y-axis according to S.H.M. So, its velocity is given
by
PV–1 = constant and Polytropic process
PVN = constant v P   A2  Y 2 (i)
N = –1 
∵ v  f 
T
nR T
∵ w A = 10 cm and y = 5 cm
1 N
 from (i)
 Q  U  W
v P  2 3 m/s
nR T  3R  ∵ vP = –v (slope) …(ii)
Q  nCV T  CV  2 
1 N  
If slope is negative then direction of vP is in positive
17. Answer (1) y axis
When piston is free, process is isobaric 21. Answer (2)
 Q1 = nCPT1 T Tl Tl
∵ v  
When piston is fixed, process is isochoric.  m Al
Q2 = nCV T2
1 T
V (i)
CP 7 r 
∵ Q2  Q1 and C  5 .
V  density
r  radius
18. Answer (1)
T  Tension
PV PV From (i)
∵ n1  1 1 & n2  2 2
RT1 RT2
T
V
PV P V r
 n  n1  n2  1 1  2 2
RT1 RT2 v1 r2 T1

n = 3 moles. v 2 r1 T2

m = n × molecular weight. 22. Answer (3)

m = 84 g The given frequencies are multiples of 30 Hz which
is highest common factor and also known as
19. Answer (1)
fundamental frequency.
T 400 K
 f0  30 Hz
A B
900 K Q1 Q2
v
∵ f0 
For A 2l
v  2f0 l
T2 T
1  1   1
T1 900 v  48 m/s
(5)
Test-23 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
23. Answer (1) From AB segment
For closed organ pipe 20 V = I(10)

v I=2A
f0  and
4l
∵ I 100
for open pipe 100R
100  R
v
f0  .
2l R = 100 
24. Answer (4) 27. Answer (1)
Potential energy (self energy) of each water drop In potentiometer for internal resistance
is given as
l 
kq 2  r   R  1  1
U (i)  l2 
2r

r  radius of one drop. R  Resistance of shunt across the cell.

q  charge of one drop l1  balancing length in first case.

When n drops coalesce to form single drop of l2  balancing length in second case.
radius (R). 28. Answer (3)

k  nq 
2 ∵ Rated power (P0)
 U´ (ii)
2R
V02
∵ (volume) V2 = V1
P0  (i)
R

4 4 V0  Rated voltage
R 3  n r 3
3 3 R  Maximum resistance of hot filament.
R = n1/3r
R
 from equation (i) and (ii) But R   (ii)
10
U= n5/3U.
R´ Resistance when it is not in use
25. Answer (3)
from equation (i) and (ii)
2
CV R´ = 40 .
∵ (Work) W 
2
29. Answer (2)
V Potential
∵ 2r = L and M = IA
If Vi  Initial potential
M Magnetic moment
Vf  Final potential
A Area of loop
C
 W  Vf2  Vi 2  . 30. Answer (1)
2
For tan A position :-
26. Answer (1)
B = BHtan
A I 10  B D
B  Magnetic field due to short magnet.
20 V
R 100 V
120 V 100 
  Angle of deflection
BH  Horizontal magnetic field
C E
(6)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
34. Answer (1)
 0 2M
B  BH tan 
4 d 3 VL

1
 tan  
d3

VR
3 3
tan 2  d1   r 
   
tan 1  d 2   r  3  
1/3 VL X L
∵ tan   V  R
R

tan 2 1 35. Answer (1)

 tan   3
1 Average energy density of electric field is given as

o E 2
tan 1 UE 
tan 2  2
3
31. Answer (1) ∵ E  E0 sin  t  kx 

∵ H = 4 × 103 A/m  Average value (UE)m

H Coercivity or intensity of magnetic field.
0  E2 
U E m   0 
B 2  2 
∵H=  …(i)
0
 0 E 02
and B = 0nl …(ii) U E  m 
4
N Similarly for magnetic field
n  [number of turns]
l
B02
32. Answer (2) U B m 
4 0
Ein
B02
∵ 0E02 
0
r
 Net energy density of E.M.W. is Um

U m  U E m  U B m
d B
∵  Eindl 
dt
0 E02
Um  .
2
dB
Ein  2r   A
dt 36. Answer (3)

f
rx ∵ m(magnification)  for virtual image m is
 Ein  u f
2
positive
33. Answer (2)  u = 90 cm
(Power) P = VrmsIrmscos
v I 1
∵  m
cos Power factor. u o 2

R u
cos   and Vrms  Irms Z v   45 cm
Z 2

 P = I2rmsR u  v  45 cm .

(7)
Test-23 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
37. Answer (1) 39. Answer (1)
According to Brewster law :-
1 1 1 d
∵ F  f f ff …(i) tan i P  
1 2 12

[d is separation between line] i P  Angle of incidence

d  2d and F  2F   Refractive index

40. Answer (3)
1 1 1 2d
    …(ii) For neutron de-Braglie wavelength
2F f1 f2 f1f2
h

from (i) – (ii) 3mKT
T Temperature
1 d
 1
2F f1f2  
T
If d  4d
2 T1

1 T2 .
1 1 1 4d  1 1 d  3d
       41. Answer (4)
FNet f1 f2 f1f2  f1 f2 f1f2  f1f2
Because According to Moseley’s law :-
1 1  1  1 f  Z 1
  3   
FNet F  2F  2F
∵ E Energy   f  1

 FNet  2F  FNet  2F
1
  Z 1
38. Answer (1) 
Z  Atomic number for isotopes
In a medium for bright fringe
Z1  Z2  Z3
nD
yn   1   2  3
d
 2  13
10D m
y10  42. Answer (3)
d
For Impact parameters (b)
m  wavelength in liquid.
+2 e 
In a vacuum for dark fringe
b

yn 
 2n  1 D Ze
2d

11D0 
y6  Ze2 cot  
2d ∵ b 2
40E
 0  In vacuum.
EKinetic energy  is scattering angle.

0 
∵ y10  y 6 and  m  (refractive index) If b = 0  cot    0
 2

 90
20 2
  1.8 .
11  = 180°.
(8)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
43. Answer (4) 44. Answer (2)
For simuttoneous emission of two particles from A For C.E emitter
radioactive material decay
power gain (PG)
effective = 1 + 2
1and 2are decay constants for paralleldecay
Rout
PG  2
ln 2 2
ln ln 2 Rin
 
Teffective T1 T2
 Current gain
TT 1620  810
 Teff .  1 2   540 yrs Rout  Load resistance
T1  T2 1620  810

n
t Rin  Input Resistance
 1  1 T
 N  N0    N0   45. Answer (2)
2
  2

2
t ∵ Minimum wavelength
 1 1  1  540
    
2 4 2
12420
 m   Å
 t  2  540  1080 E  ev 

CHEMISTRY

46. Answer (4) 48. Answer (2)

According Faraday’s 2nd law of electrolysis :
dN2O5  1 dNO2  d O2 
  2 Wdeposited  Eq.wt of metal
dt 2 dt dt
Atomic weight
and Eq. wt 
NO2   2  dN2O5   Valency
Rate of formation of NO2 = dt

dt

 
Using given data:
= 2(2.4 × 10–4) x : y : z is 1 : 3 : 2
= 4.8 × 10–4 mol lit–1 min–1
49. Answer (2)

d  O2  1  d N2O5   Using Nernst equation:

Rate of formation of O2 =   
dt 2  dt  Ni2  
0.059
Ecell  o
Ecell  log  
2
n  Ag 
=
1
2

2.4  10 4   

 1.05 
0.059
log
 0.16 
= 1.2 × 10 mol lit –4 –1
min –1 n  0.2 2
47. Answer (2) = 1.03 V
ZnS has Zn2+
ions in fcc arrangement and S–2 in 50. Answer (2)
half of tetrahedral voids.
Cu+1 3d10
Body diagonal Mn2+ 3d5
So, =  rZn2  rS2– 
4 Fe2+ 3d6

3a Ce3+ 4f1
xy
4 Spin only magnetic moment

4x  y = n n  2
a .
3 where n is the number of unpaired eledctrons.
(9)
Test-23 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
51. Answer (2) 59. Answer (3)

523 K 1700 K
XeO 2 F 2 is see-saw in shape having sp 3 d
Ti  I2   TiI4   Ti  2I2 hybridisation.
 X
F
O
|| |
25C
I2  CI2   ICI3 I2Cl6  Xe :
( X) Excess 
O |
F
ICl3 has sp3d (trigonal bipyramidal geometry). 60. Answer (2)
52. Answer (3) Co2+ : 3d7 4s0 4p0

MnO2  2KOH  KNO3  K 2MnO 4  KNO2  H2O Each electron in eg orbitals will be increased in
Pyrolusite Dark green solid energy by (+0.6 0) and each in t2g will be
decreased in energy by (0.40)
4FeO.Cr2O3  8Na2CO3  7O2  61. Answer (1)
Chromite ore
Fe(OH)2 is positively charged sol and As2S3 is –
8Na2CrO4  2Fe2O3  8CO2 vely charged sol. Mixing of two oppositely charged
Yellow
sols lead to flocculation or precipitation.
In K2MnO4 (MnO42–), Mn+6 is present. 62. Answer (2)
E.C. of Mn6+ is 3d1 so 1 unpaired electron.
1  1 1
53. Answer (3)  RH  2  2 
 2 4 
R R
| Polymerisation |  = 486 nm 500 nm.
HO – Si – OH – O – Si – O –
 63. Answer (3)
| |
R R
Silicones meqacid = meqKOH
where repeating
Unit is (R2 SiO
) = 0.8 × 1 × 20
54. Answer (2) = 16
55. Answer (3) 16 = 0.3 × 3 × V
Na2B4O7  H2SO4  5H2O  Na2 .SO4  4H3BO3 V = 17.77 ml.
( X) (Y)
64. Answer (3)

 I.E : B > Tl > Ga

65. Answer (2)
NaBO2 + B 2O3 SH
Borax bead
Which gives coloured metaborates with transition
metal oxides.
SH
56. Answer (2)
is polar molecule as dipoles are not cancelled out
Solid  – SO3 is with –SH groups.
66. Answer (2)
Check the molecular orbital diagrams for given
species.
67. Answer (3)
Gas a in atm L2 mol–2
57. Answer (2) SO2 6.7
58. Answer (2) NH3 4.0
 CO2 3.6
2Ca2  Na2 Na4 PO3 6   Na2 Ca2 PO3 6   4Na
Hardness Calgon Ar 1.35

(10)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
68. Answer (2) 74. Answer (2)
Using Dalton’s law of Partial pressures: P  n COOH

Initially PA = P is most acidic having highest Ka because

When ‘B’ was added Ptotal = 4 P

NO2
PB = 3P
NO2 gp is strong withdrawing group due to R
(∵ PA + PB = PTotal) / M effect.
75. Answer (2)
PA n A w A MB
  
PB nB MA w B CH2 – CH = CH2

P 3,2 MB
 
3P MA 4
Is most reactive towards free radical substitution
MB 4 40 5 as free radical intermediate formed is stable
   (Benzylic and allylic in nature)
MA 3  3.2 3  32 12
76. Answer (4)
V.DB 5 It is the case of aldol condensation

V.B A 12 (∵ M = 2 × V.D) O
||
69. Answer (3) CH3CH – CH – H + CH – CH2CH2CH3
| –
70. Answer (4) CHO OH (Aldol condensation
Mechanism)
Ksp of AgCl = [Ag+] [Cl–]
OH
= S2 [∵ S is solubility]

So, S  K sp = 10–5 mol L–1 CHO

77. Answer (3)
= 10–5 × 143.5 g L–1
+ –
NH2 NH 2 N 2 Cl
Volume required to dissolve 1.435 g of AgCl = 106 ml Br Br Br Br
Br2 NaNO2/HCl
71. Answer (4) 0°C
H2O
(Electrophilic (Diazotisation)
W = –Pext (V2 – V1) substitution)
Br Br
= –3 atm(1L – 10L) (A) (B)
= 27 L atm H2PO2 / H2O
Br Br
= 27 × 101.3 J
HCl + H3PO 3 +
= 2735.1 J
= 2.7351 kJ. Br
(C)
For isothermal process, enthalpy change is zero.
78. Answer (2)
72. Answer (3)
CN CN
This is graph for
Br 2/FeBr 3
+ HBr
2C(s) + O2(g)  2CO(g)
Br
73. Answer (4) Cyanobenzene dil H 2SO 4
(Complete
MeqKMnO4 = Meq.given solution hydrolysis)
COOH
20×0.3×5 = 60×0.5×1 (Here nf =5
KMnO4

(KMnO4) (FeSO4) nf = 1) Br
FeSO4 (Final product)

(11)
Test-23 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2020
79. Answer (2) 85. Answer (1)
Vinylic and bridged halides are less reactive 86. Answer (2)
towards nucleophilic substitution.
87. Answer (4)
So, I is most reactive. (Iodide is more
reactive) Cl +

80. Answer (1)

–
O O en Cr en
|| | will not show
–
CH3 – C – O CH3 – C = O
Cl
gives equivalent resonating structures which
contribute more towards stability.
optical isomerism due to its symmetrical nature.
81. Answer (2)
88. Answer (3)
Can not show geometrical isomerism.

82. Answer (1) N is least basic as lone pair is highly
|
H

CH 3 CH 3 delocalized due to aromatic character and is not

| H
+ | + available for basic character.
H3C – C – CH = CH 2 CH3 – C – CH – CH 3
| (HCl) | 89. Answer (4)
CH 3 CH 3
Hinsberg’s test says 1° amine is soluble in both
–CH3 Shift Hinsberg’s reagent as well as KOH to form water
soluble salt.
CH 3
Cl CH 3
| | – |
Cl +
CH3 – C – CH – CH 3 CH 3 – C – CH – CH 3
| HCl
|
CH 3 O
(A) CH 3
(3° Stable carbonation) R–NH 2 ||
NaNH2 Liq. NH3 SO 2Cl S – NH – R
1°amine
||
CH 3 O3 CH3 O
CH 3
2 C=O
Zn, H2O
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 KOH
(B) Acetone O
(C) || +
S–N–R K
||
O
Acetone (C) does not react with tollen’s reagent
[Ag(NH3)2]+
NH 2
83. Answer (1)
CH 2 CH 3 is electron releasing due to Here 1° amine is
hyperconjugation and increases reactivity of
CH2 CH3

towards electrophilic substitution (i.e. 90. Answer (2)

sulphonation). PTotal = PB + PC (at equilibrium)

84. Answer (2) 6 = p + 2p

p = 2 atm
  CRT (Where C is molarity of solution)
(O.P) Kp = PB (PC)2

0.2 1000 = (2) (4)2

0.024 =   0.08  300 (R = 0.08 L atm K–1 mol–1)
m 100 = 32 atm3
M = 2000 g mol–1. = 32 atm3
(12)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020
BOTANY
91. Answer (4)
(a) In human beings, the membrane of the
erythrocyte has approximately 52 percent
protein and 40 percent lipids.
(b) The ratio of protein and lipid varies
considerably in different cell types.
(c) Biochemical investigation clearly revealed that
the cell membranes also possess protein and
carbohydrate.
92. Answer (4)
(a) ETS is present on the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
(b) The matrix of the mitochondria is the site of
Kreb’s cycle.
(c) Apart from single circular DNA, the matrix of
the mitochondria also possesses a few RNA
molecules, ribosomes (70S) and components
required for the synthesis of proteins.
93. Answer (1)
(a) The sub-metacentric chromosome has
centromere slightly away from the middle of the
chromosome.
(b) In acrocentric it is close to its end forming one
extremely short and one very long arm.
(c) Telocentric chromosome has a terminal
centromere.
94. Answer (4)
(a) The axonemal microtubules is referred to as
the 9 + 2 array in the cilium or flagellum of the
eukaryotes.
(b) Bacterial flagella are structurally different from
that of the enkaryotic flagella.
(c) The electron microscopic study of a cilium or
the flagellum show that they are covered with
plasma membrane.
95. Answer (3)
(a) In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport
of a number of ions and other materials against
concentration gradients into the vacuole.
(b) ln plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to
90% of the volume of the cell.
(c) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the
food particles in protists.
96. Answer (4)
(a) DNA replication takes place during the S-phase
of the interphase.
(b) During this phase the amount of DNA per cell
doubles.
(13)
Test-23 (Code-A)
(c) And remains double during G2, Telophase etc.
till the cell divides during cytokinesis.
97. Answer (2)
(a) During Leptotene stage the chromosomes
become gradually visible under the light
microscope.
(b) The compaction of chromosomes continues
throughout Leptotene.
(c) Pachytene is characterised by the appearance
of recombination nodules.
98. Answer (3)
(a) Indigofera belongs to the family Fabaceae.
(b) It is the source of the dye - Indigo.
(c) Indigofera is a large genus of over 750 species.
99. Answer (3)
(a) Ciliated protozoans have a cavity called gullet
that opens to the outside of the cell surface.
(b) The co-ordinated movement of rows of cilia
causes the water laden with food to be steered
into the gullet, i.e, in Paramoecium.
100. Answer (3)
(a) Neurospora is an ascomycete fungus.
(b) Neurospora crassa is called pink bread mould.
(c) It is used extensively in biochemical and
genetic work.
101. Answer (3)
(a) Life cycle of a sexually reproducing plant is
called alternation of generations.
(b) It is also called as metagenesis or
heterogenesis.
(c) In plants, both haploid and diploid cells can
divide by mitosis.
(d) This ability leads to the formation of different
plant bodies - haploid gamete producing plant
(gametophyte) and diploid spore producing
plant (sporophyte).
102. Answer (4)
(a) Lichens are dual (composite) organisms.
(b) They are entities which contain a permanent
association of a fungus partner and an algae
partner called mycobiont and phycobiont
respectively.
(c) They are a perfect example of symbiosis.
(d) Lichens cannot tolerate air pollution, especially
due to SO2, so are considered SO2 pollution
indicators.
Test-23 (Code-A)
103. Answer (2)
(a) Lily is epiphyllous. (Epitepalous)
(b) Citrus is polyadelphous.
(c) Rose has perigynous flowers.
(d) Mustard has superior ovary, i.e, hypogynous
flower.
104. Answer (2)
(a) The given floral formula is of Fabaceae family.
(b) Gram, Moong and sem belong to Fabaceae.
family.
(c) Potato belongs to Solanaceae.
(d) Lily is of Liliaceae family.
105. Answer (4)
(a) Apple is Pyrus malus, a pome.
(b) Its edible part is fleshy thalamus.
(c) It is a false fruit, i.e., a pseudocarp.
106. Answer (3)
(a) ln grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells
along the veins modify themselves into
Bulliform cells.
(b) They are large, empty, colourless cells.
(c) They make the leaves curl inwards to minimise
water loss.
(d) They are also called motor cells.
107. Answer (4)
(a) ln Bryophytes, the mosses have an elaborate
mechanism of spore dispersal.
(b) The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate
than that in Liverworts.
(c) The Capsule contains spores, which are formed
by meiosis.
(d) Common examples of mosses are Funaria,
Polytrichum and Sphagnum.
108. Answer (3)
(a) In gymnosperms the endosperm is a pre-
fertilisation product.
(b) So, it is haploid, as it represents the female
gametophypte.
(c) So, if leaf cell has 40 chromosomes, the
endosperm (n) will have 20 chromosomes.
109. Answer (3)
(a) The cohesive force or tensile strength of water
is very high.
(b) The water molecules have a strong mutual
attraction, i.e, they tend to stick to each other.
(14)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020
(c) The magnitude of tensile strength of water is
10-30 MPa.
(d) So, water forms a continuous column from the
leaves to the roots.
110. Answer (3)
(a) Manganese is involved in the activation of
many enzymes involved in photosynthesis.
(b) The best defined function of manganese is in
the splitting of water to liberate oxygen during
photosynthesis.
(c) Manganese is absorbed in the form of
manganous ions (Mn2+).
111. Answer (2)
(a) Mango is a C3-plant and maize is a C4-plant.
(b) In a C3-plant, 6 molecules of CO2,18 ATP and
12 NADPH + H+ are needed to produce one
molecule of glucose.
(c) So, for six glucose molecule it will need 36
molecules of CO2, 108 ATP and 72 NADPH +
H+.
(d) In a C4-plant, 6 molecules of CO2, 30 ATP and
12 NADPH + H+ are needed for one glucose
molecule.
(e) So, for six glucose molecules it will be 36
CO2, 180 ATP and 72 NADPH + H+.
112. Answer (1)
(a) One molecule of fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate
will produce 4 ATP, 2 NADH + H + and two
molecules of Pyruvic acid in glycolysis.
(b) Five molecules of fructose 1, 6, bisphosphate
will produce 20 ATP, 10 NADPH + H+ and
10 molecules of pyuvic acid in glycolysis.
113. Answer (4)
(a) When the respiratory substrate is protein it is
called protoplasmic respiration.
(b) Protoplasmic respiration cannot be continued
for long as it depletes protoplasm of structural
and functional protein as well as liberates toxic
ammonia.
(c) It is a rare mode of respiration.
(d) It kills the cells ultimately.
114. Answer (3)
(a) Short day plants (SDP) are actually long night
plants.
(b) The dark period is critical for them.
(c) Flowering is induced in SDP by dark periods
longer than a critical length.
(d) Common examples are Xanthium, rice,
Chrysanthemum.
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
115. Answer (3) XX
C
X Y
C
×
(a) The Eye of potato is an axillary bud. Normal carrier Colourblind
women man
(b) Small plants emerge from the buds (called
eyes) of the potato tuber.
(c) This ability is fully exploited by farmers for X X
C
X
C
Y
commercial propagation of the plant.
116. Answer (4)
C C C C
XX X Y X X XY
(a) It will produce tetraploid endosperm.
Normal Colourblind Colourblind Normal
(b) As the female plant is diploid, the secondary carrier
nucleus in the central cell of embryosac of 122. Answer (3)
mulberry plant will be (n + n = 2n) diploid. (a) If a dihybrid pea plant with tall and round
(c) As the male plant is tetraploid, the male phenotype is selfed, 9 different genotypes will
gamete will be (2n). be produced in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 :
(d) So, triple fusion (2n + 2n) will form 4n 2 : 1 : 2 : 1.
endosperm. (b) So, out of a total of 16 combinations, 4 will be
of Tt Rr genotype.
117. Answer (2)
(c) Then out of 800 plants produced 200 will be of
(a) A total of five nuclei are involved in double
Tt Rr genotype.
fertilisation.
(b) 2 male gametes, 1 egg nucleus and two polar 4
 800 = 200
nuclei. 16
(c) But only 3 gametes are involved. 123. Answer (3)

118. Answer (2) (a) Thymine, cytosine and uracil are pyrimidines

(a) The shield-shaped cotyledon, scutellum is a
feature of monocot seed, e.g, maize.
(b) Testa is the outer seed coat.
(c) The point of attachment of the funicle with the
main body of the ovule is called hilum.
(d) The outer protective covering of the seed is
called seed coat, which develops from
integuments of ovule.
119. Answer (1)
(a) It is a dihybrid test cross.
(b) Five different types of gametes ABCD, AbCD,
ABcD, AbcD and abcD are formed.
(c) Four different phenotypes and four different
genotypes are formed.
120. Answer (3)
(a) Down’s syndrome is 21-trisomy.
(b) So, T G A C T A A C G has four pyrimidines.
124. Answer (4)
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA are the three stop
codons in the universal genetic code.
(b) They are involved in the process of chain
termination.
(c) UUU was the first codon to be discovered.
(d) It codes for phenylalanine.
125. Answer (1)
(a) In the DNA double-helix, the amount of purine
is equal to the amount of pyrimidine
(b) And A = T and C = G.
(c) This is called as base pairing rule or the
Chargaff’s rule.
(d) So, if the amount of G and C is 45% , the
amount of A and T will be 55%.

(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome is 2A + XXY, i.e, males (e) And amount of Adenine will be 27.5% and so
will be Thymine.
with B-arr-body.
126. Answer (3)
(c) 2A + XYY is Jacob’s syndrome.
(a) A polycistronic mRNA is synthesised in the
(d) 2n + 1 + 1 is double trisomy.
Lac Operon system.
121. Answer (2)
(b) The structural gene in a transcription unit could
(a) If father is colourblind, then the daughter will be be monocistronic mostly in Eukaryotes.
a carrier for colourblindness.
(c) In bacteria or prokaryotes it is mostly
(b) So, 50% of the offsprings will be colourblind. polycistronic.
(15)
Test-23 (Code-A)
127. Answer (2)
(a) IR-8 is a dwarf rice variety developed by IRRI,
Philippines.
(b) Pusa A-4 , is a variety of okra (Bhindi),
developed for resistance against shoot and fruit
borer.
(c) Pusa Gaurav is a variety of Brassica for
resistance against aphids.
(d) Pusa Komal is a variety of cow pea for
resistance to bacterial blight.
128. Answer (3)
(a) Anoxic condition will cause the death of
aerobic microbes and breakdown of flocs.
(b) This happens when the activated sludge is
taken to anaerobic sludge digesters.
(c) Where anaerobic microbes then act on organic
matter.
129. Answer (2)
(a) Keystone species is a species which though
having a small population has a major influence
on the composition of the community.
(b) It has a key role in maintaining the community
structure through regulation of trophic level in
routine or during adverse conditions.
130. Answer (1)
Nn
(a) = Birth rate or Natality.
N t
(b) Where, Nn = New individuals produced
N = Initial population
t = Change in time.
(c) The per individual change in a population due
to Natality can be estimated by using it.
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3)
This sudden change in gene pool due to natural
clamity is bottle neck effect (genetic drift).
137. Answer (2)
Genetic drift can occur in all types of populations
but its effect is more prominent in small
population.
138. Answer (2)
Sting of honeybee is modified ovipositor whereas
that of scorpion is last abdominal segment. Their
basic function is same i.e, protection from
enemies/meant for self defence.
(16)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020
131. Answer (4)
(a) Decomposers are also called as reducers.
They are capable of degrading the dead
organisms.
(b) Autotrophs are called transducers, as they
change radiant energy into chemical energy.
132. Answer (3)
(a) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(b) Because the flow of energy is unidirectional
from producer to consumer.
(c) The energy content is maximum in producers.
(d) Energy decreases at each trophic level of food
chain. (10% law of Lindeman)
133. Answer (2)
(a) MAB is Man and Biosphere Programme.
(b) It is an Inter Governmental Scientific
Programme Launched in 1971 by UNESCO.
(c) It aims to establish a scientific basis for the
improvement of relationship between people
and their environment.
134. Answer (3)
(a) Decomposers are not included in the food
chain, as they act on all trophic levels of the
food chain.
(b) This is one of the limitations of Ecological
pyramid as well.
135. Answer (4)
(a) Nitrogen is not a greenhouse gas.
(b) Relative contribution of different greenhouse
gases to global warming are CO2 (60%), CH4
(20%), CFC (14%) & N2O (6%)
(c) CFC is one of the most effective GHG
(effectiveness is 14,000 times more than CO2).
139. Answer (3)
140. Answer (4)
In animal kingdom, only echinoderms,
hemichordate and chordates are enterocoelomates;
Echinoderms and vertebrates have endoskeleton of
mesodermal origin.
141. Answer (3)
Renal portal system is a characteristic of
vertebrates except lamprey, Hagfish, birds and
mammals.
142. Answer (3)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)
143. Answer (3) 155. Answer (3)
Intercalated disc have gap junctions and Rate and depth of respiration is controlled by
desmosomes that make these muscles to contract pneumotaxic center present in pons.
as a unit.
156. Answer (2)
144. Answer (4)
Shortening of sarcomeres brings z-lines close to
Ecdysone, a molting hormone is produced by each other.
prothoracic gland.
157. Answer (4)
145. Answer (1)
Total number of tarsals in humans are 14.
ELISA is used to detect virus/virus particle in the
158. Answer (3)
blood of a HIV infected patient as they appear
earlier than antibodies in them. 159. Answer (3)
146. Answer (3) Adrenalin is a water soluble hormone so its
Hexokinase requires Mg+2 as cofactor; Only few receptors are present on cell membrane. It activate
enzymes like ribonuclease P and telomerase are cAMP (secondary messenger) to regulate cellular
ribozymes and rest all are proteinaceous in nature; metabolism.
Cofactors which are loosely attached to 160. Answer (3)
apoenzymes are called coenzymes. Decreased resistance in afferent arterioles
147. Answer (4) decrease the blood pressure in them.
148. Answer (2) 161. Answer (4)
Cellulose is a polymer of -D glucose units. During repolarisation:
149. Answer (2) Na+, K+ leakage channels – Work
Blue baby syndrome can be due to structural K+ gates – Open
abnormality in the heart, methemoglobinemia and
Na+/K+ pump – On
low surfactant in the lungs at the time of birth. This
leads to less amount of oxygen in baby’s blood so 162. Answer (3)
its skin turns blue. Insert capacity of plasmids is approximately
150. Answer (3) 0.1-10 Kb.
Alkaline phosphatase prevent self ligation of 163. Answer (4)
plasmid by removing phosphate group.
Taq polymerase is thermophilic DNA polymerase
151. Answer (2) obtained from bacteria, Thermus aquaticus.
Glyphosate is most potent and effective herbicide 164. Answer (3)
and is marketed as ‘Round up’ produced by
RNAi work by interfering translation process.
Monsonto American company. It affects the
shikimate pathway of all plants. Since it kill all the 165. Answer (4)
crops (except weeds) so they are genetically 166. Answer (1)
modified to withstand its effect.
Widal test – Typhoid;
152. Answer (3)
Torniquet test – Dengue;
Angiotensin converting enzyme is produced by
lungs. Schicks test – Diptheria

153. Answer (4) 167. Answer (4)

Vomiting is basically a loss of gastric secretions Opsonisation is the method to make the antigen
rich in HCl. Since, more H+ ions are released so attractive and less slippery. This enhances
blood has too much of bicarbonates. This metabolic phagocytosis. Antibody IgG and IgM commonly by
condition is termed as alkalosis. work by this method.

154. Answer (1) 168. Answer (3)

Our lungs remove approximately 18 lt. of CO2 per Alcoholic cirrhosis occurs when degenerated
day. hepatocytes get replaced by fibrous tissue.

(17)
Test-23 (Code-A)
169. Answer (2)
Antibiotics generally works by interfering the ability
of bacteria to cross link the peptide units that hold
the carbohydrate chain of wall together.
170. Answer (2)
171. Answer (3)
Sertoli cells produce enzyme aromatase that
convert some amount of androgens into estrogens.
172. Answer (2)
Saheli is a non steroidal contraceptive pill. It is
selective estrogen receptor modulator that prevent
implantation.
173. Answer (3)
Human milk has poor amount of iron and contain
traces of vitamin C; Secondary follicle containing
primary oocyte is surrounded by granulosa and
theca layer; Umbilical cord contains 2 arteries and
1 vein wrapped in a connective tissue.
174. Answer (2)
Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart rate
5.25 liter = A × 75 beats/min.
Stroke volume (A) = 5250/75
 70 ml/min.
‰‰‰
(18)
Intensive Program for NEET-2020
175. Answer (2)
176. Answer (2)
Emphysema is degenerative and fatal pulmonary
disease where lungs lose elasticity and results in
increase in physiological dead space.
177. Answer (3)
Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin occur close to
tissue i.e, their dissociation curve shifts towards
right when pCO2 is high, temperature high and pH
is acidic.
178. Answer (3)
Lacerta saxicola (caucasian rock lizard) reproduce
exclusively by parthenogenesis i.e, show obligatory
parthenogenesis.
179. Answer (4)
Ammonium ions are highly toxic so aquatic
organisms excrete them in surrounding water
before they can build up toxic concentration in their
tissues. Uric acid is almost non toxic so is
important water conserving adaptation in insects,
certain reptiles and birds.
180. Answer (3)
Chilled ethanol is used to precipatise DNA.