Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Sample Test Paper - Level 3
Sample Test Paper - Level 3
Annual Report
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
DIRECTIONS:
Each sentence below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Beneath the sentence are five lettered words or sets of words. Choose the word or set of words that,
when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
1. Florence Nightingale was ___ in the development of modern medicine, ___ such practices as
sanitization of hospital wards and isolation of actively infected patients.
A. a collaborator…rejecting
B. a maverick…protesting
C. an innovator…initiating
D. a pioneer…criticizing
E. an individualist…standardizing
2. As a journalist who works to overturn erroneous convictions, Griffin Nicholson was opposed to the
court ruling ___ appeals for inmates who might be ___ .
A. barring…culpable
B. curbing…exonerated
C. encouraging…innocent
D. scrutinizing…eligible
E. shielding…esteemed
3. Linda Greenhouse's articles for the New York Times are an outstanding example of ___, capsulizing
prose into a necessarily limited space.
A. Callousness
B. Brevity
C. Intuition
D. Propriety
E. Fortitude
4. Roberto Clement was seen as ___ during his life because of both his selflessness on the baseball field
and his humanitarian work in his native Nicaragua.
A. An individualist
B. a grandstander
C. a sybarite
D. an altruist
E. an opportunist
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5. His habit of spending more than he earned left him in a state of perpetual------but he------------hoping
to see a more affluent day.
A. indigence: persevered in
B. confusion: compromised by
C. enervation: retaliated by
D. motion: responded
6. Known for his commitment to numerous worthy causes, the philanthropist deserved------ for his------ .
A. recognition: folly
B. blame: hypocrisy
C. reward: modesty
D. credit: altruism
A. Delete, succinct
B. Enlarge, redundant
C. Remove, discursive
D. Revise, abstruse
A. Furtive: meticulous
B. Cursory: little
C. Cryptic: close
D. Keen: scanty
9. Surprisingly enough, it is more difficult to write about the--------than about the-------and strange.
A. specific, foreign
B. abstract, prosaic
C. commonplace, exotic
D. simple, routine
A. stupid, fear
B. speedy, alacrity
C. sure, slowness
D. harmful, grimaces
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12. It is widely believed that a nuclear war could ____ enough smoke and dust to block out the sun and
freeze the earth.
A. billow
B. extinguish
C. generate
D. duplicate
E. decimate
13. Consumption of red meat has ____ because its fat content has become a worrisome and ____
matter.
14. It takes ____ character to ____ the extremities of the arctic region.
15. Consumers refused to buy meat products from the company because of rumors that the water
supply at the meat processing plant was ______; the rumors, however, were quite ______, with no
hard evidence to back them up.
A. uninspected .. reckless
B. contaminated .. unsubstantiated
C. impure .. damaging
D. misdirected .. scandalous
E. unscrupulous .. vicious
16. Many kinds of harmful viruses are unhindered when passing through different parts of the host
organism; indeed, there are few organic substances which such viruses’ cannot______.
A. undermine
B. disseminate
C. aerate
D. exterminate
E. perforate
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17. Their conversation was unsettling, for the gravity of their topic contrasted so oddly with the ______
of their tone
A. uniqueness
B. rapidity
C. lightness
D. precision
E. reverence
18. Throughout the animal kingdom, ____ bigger than the elephant.
ANSWER KEY
1 C 10 B
2 C 11 A
3 B 12 C
4 B 13 E
5 A 14 C
6 D 15 B
7 A 16 D
8 B 17 C
9 C 18 B
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B- ANALOGY
DIRECTIONS:
Each question below consists of a related pair of words or phrases, followed by lettered pairs of words
or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the
original pair.
1. TIRADE: ABUSIVE
A. Diatribe: familial
B. Satire: pungent
C. Panegyric: laudatory
D. Eulogy: regretful
2. SOLDIER: REGIMENT
A. Colonel: martinet
B. Dancer: balletomane
C. Singer: chorus
D. Trooper: rifle
3. ASYLUM: SHELTER
A. Harbor: concealment
B. Palisade: display
C. Stronghold: defense
D. Cloister: storage
4. STATIC: MOVEMENT
A. Humdrum: excitement
B. Chronic: timeliness
C. Ecstatic: decay
D. Diligent: industry
5. INTEREST: FASCINATE
A. Vex: enrage
B. Vindicate: condemn
C. Regret: rue
D. Appall: bother
6. LAUREL: VICTOR
A. Chevrons: army
B. Oscar: movie star
C. Power: glory
D. blue ribbon: cooking
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7. PRECEDENT: JUSTIFICATION
A. Kindness: obedience
B. Authority: sanction
C. Usage: submission
D. Tradition: novelty
8. IMPLICATE: COMPLICATE
A. Vitality: inevitable
B. Empathy: sympathy
C. Importune: construct
D. Imply: simplify
9. PERMEATE: RUEFUL
A. Truculent: merciful
B. Sadden: pitiful
C. Evaporate: mournful
D. Penetrate: sorrowful
A. Aver: attribute
B. Divert: turn
C. Apprise: appraise
D. Stultify: enliven
A. dream : sleep
B. anger : madness
C. smile : amusement
D. face : expression
E. impatience : rebellion
A. construction : building
B. boy : girl
C. danger : red light
D. iceberg : titanic
E. arise : lay down
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A. performance : artist
B. exhibition : art
C. play : actor
D. operetta : singer
E. rock : role
A. felon : criminal
B. enemy : associate
C. pacifier : agitator
D. winner : loser
E. friend : foe
A. horse : farm
B. squirrel : tree
C. beaver : dam
D. cat : kitchen
E. book : library
A. spectator : cricket
B. deer : farm
C. professor : college
D. criminal : jail
E. Wheat : field
A. revolve : wheel
B. swim : fish
C. turn : car
D. spin : gyroscope
E. learn : student
A. Window : Frame
B. Door : Handle
C. Charcoal : Fire
D. River : Bridge
E. Wall : Height
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A. Forest : Clearing
B. Squadron : Rank
C. Hound : Pack
D. Wide : Trunk
E. Lion : Lair
A. Cloud : Thunder
B. Wish : Success
C. Declare : Bankruptcy
D. Algorithm : Structure
E. Mediate : Altercation
ANSWER KEY
1 D 11 C
2 C 12 C
3 C 13 B
4 A 14 E
5 A 15 C
6 B 16 C
7 B 17 A
8 B 18 D
9 D 19 C
10 D 20 E
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C- ANTNOYMS
1. DELETERIOUS
(A) Numerous
(B) Eradication
(C) Vibrating
(D) Spurious
(E) Curative
2. INVEIGLE
(A) Induce
(B) Encounter
(C) Beguile
(D) Persuade
(E) Wheedle
3. VICIOUS
(A) Depraved
(B) Moral
(C) Profligate
(D) Iniquitous
(E) Ferocious
4. SPURIOUS
(A) Poisonous
(B) Mock
(C) Feigned
(D) Authentic
(E) Peremptory
5. INTRANSIGENT
(A) Uncompromising
(B) Inflexible
(C) Cooperative
(D) Arrogant
(E) Willful
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6. HETEROGENEOUS
(A) Uniform
(B) Dispersed
(C) Abridged
(D) Mixture
(E) Simple
7. HILARITY
(A) Cheerfulness
(B) Sorrow
(C) Glee
(D) Visibility
(E) Mirthfulness
8. LEVITATE
(A) Wonder
(B) Defame
(C) Supernatural
(D) Rigorous
(E) Float in the air
9. INTROVERTED
(A) Shy
(B) Reserved
(C) Extrospective
(D) Interrogative
(E) Uncommunicative
10. INEXORABLE
(A) Repetitive
(B) Tractable
(C) Garish
(D) Brackish
(E) Mnemonics
11. ANATHEMA
(A) Differentiation
(B) Benediction
(C) Fortitude
(D) Extricate
(E) Rectitude
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12. UNCOUTH
(A) Urbane
(B) Exhort
(C) Sentient
(D) Prevaricate
(E) Paroxysm
13. SUNDRY
(A) Prolific
(B) Indescribable
(C) Numerous
(D) Identical
(E) Contiguous
14. DISPERSE
(A) Covetous
(B) Bugle
(C) Proliferation
(D) Muster
(E) Enumerate
15. VALIANT
(A) Adroit
(B) Turbulent
(C) Diminutive
(D) Modest
(E) Timorous
16. MENDACIOUS
(A) Honest
(B) Embrace
(C) Integrate
(D) Vituperative
(E) Harsh
17. PERPETUAL
(A) Immobile
(B) Deceased
(C) Versatile
(D) Canter
(E) Despicable
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18. MITIGATE
(A) Ghost
(B) Mimic
(C) Increase
(D) Remark
(E) Theological
19. UNTENABLE
(A) Occupied
(B) Competent
(C) Defensible
(D) Frangible
(E) Stable
20. DEPRECIATE
(A) Spoil
(B) Desperate
(C) Overrate
(D) Passive
(E) Despoil
ANSWER KEY
1 E 11 B
2 B 12 A
3 B 13 D
4 D 14 D
5 C 15 E
6 A 16 A
7 B 17 B
8 B 18 C
9 C 19 C
10 B 20 C
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D- COMPREHENSION PASSAGE
DIRECTIONS:
Read the passages and answer the questions given at the end:
Recent technological advances in manned undersea vehicles have overcome some of the limitations of
divers and diving equipment. Without vehicles, divers often become sluggish and their mental
concentration was limited. Because of undersea pressure that affected their speech organs,
communication among divers was difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers make
observations by the means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean or from samples taken from
the water direct observations of the ocean floor are made not only by divers of more than seven miles
and cruise at the depth of fifteen thousand feet. Radio equipment buoys can be operated by remote
control in order to transmit information back to land based laboratories, including data about water
temperature, current and weather. Some of mankind’s most serious problems, especially those
concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made by these undersea
vehicles.
A popular theory explaining the evolution of the universe is known as the Big Bang Model. According to
the model at some time between twenty billion years ago, all present matter and energy were
compressed into a small ball only a few kilometers in diameter. It was, in effect, an atom that contained
in the form of pure energy all of the components of the entire universe. Then, at a moment in time that
astronomers refer to as T = 0, the ball exploded, hurling the energy into space. Expansion occurred. As
the energy cooled most of it became matter in the form of protons, neutrons and electrons. These
original particles combined to form hydrogen and helium and continued to expand. Matter formed into
galaxies with stars and planets.
A. The big band theory does not account for the evolution of the universe
B. According to the Big Bang Model, an explosion caused the formation of the universe
C. The universe is made of hydrogen and helium
D. The universe is more than ten billion years old
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A. Excited
B. Balanced
C. Reduced
D. Controlled
A. Energy
B. Space
C. Expansion
D. Matter
8. The environment before the Big Bang is described as all the following EXCEPT
A. Compressed matter
B. Energy
C. All the components of the universe
D. Protons, electrons and neutrons
We are profoundly ignorant about the origins of language and have to content ourselves with more or
less plausible speculations. We do not even know for certain when language arose, but it seems likely
that it goes back to the earliest history of man, perhaps half a million years. We have no direct evidence,
but it seems probable that speech arose at the same time as tool making and the earliest forms of
specifically human cooperation. In the great Ice Ages of the Pleistocene period, our earliest human
ancestors established the Old Stone Age culture; they made flint tools and later tools of bone, ivory, and
antler; they made fire and cooked their food; they hunted big game, often by methods that called for
considerable cooperation and coordination. As their material culture gradually improved, they became
artists and made carvings and engravings on bones and pebbles, and wonderful paintings of animals on
the walls of caves. It is difficult to believe that the makers of these Paleolithic cultures lacked the power
of speech. It is a long step Admittedly, from the earliest flint weapons to the splendid art of the late Old
Stone Age: the first crude flints date back perhaps to 500,000 B.C., while the finest achievements of Old
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Stone Age man are later than 100,000 B.C.; and, in this period, we can envisage a corresponding
development of language, from the most primitive and limited language of the earliest human groups to
a fully developed language in the flowering time of Old Stone Age culture. How did language arise in the
first place? There are many theories about this, based on various types of indirect evidence, such as the
language of children, the language of primitive societies, the kinds of changes that have taken place in
languages in the course of recorded history, the behavior of higher animals like chimpanzees, and the
behavior of people suffering from speech defects. These types of evidence may provide us with useful
pointers, but they all suffer from limitations, and must be treated with caution. When we consider the
language of children, we have to remember that their situations are quite different from that of our
earliest human ancestors, because the child is growing up in an environment where there is already a
fully developed language, and are surrounded by adults who use that language and are teaching it to
him. For example, it has been shown that the earliest words used by children are mainly the names of
things and people (“Doll,” “Spoon,” “Mummy”): but, this does not prove that the earliest words of
primitive man were also the names of things and people. When the child learns the name of an object,
he may then use it to express his wishes or demands: “Doll!: often means “Give me my doll!” Or “I’ve
dropped my doll: pick it up for me!”; the child is using language to get things done, and it is almost an
accident of adult teaching that the words used to formulate the child’s demands are mainly nouns,
instead of words like “Bring!”’ “Pick up!”; and so on.
10. Theories of the origin of language include all of the following EXCEPT
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12. The implication of the author regarding the early elements of language is that
(A) There were specific real steps followed to develop our language.
(B) Care must be exercised when exhuming what we consider the roots of language.
(C) We owe a debt of gratitude to the chimpanzee contribution.
(D) Adults created language in order to instruct their children.
(E) Language was fully developed by primitive man.
13. If we accept that primitive man existed for a very long period of time without language, then we may
assume that
ANSWER KEY
1 D 10 D
2 A 11 C
3 B 12 B
4 C 13 B
5 C 14 E
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 A
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2. Dr. Subhans Extensive clinical trials of the new herbal drug Podine have demonstrated that Podine is
effective in slowing the rate of aging in men. Dr. Talib disagrees and cites a recent study suggesting
that Podine is also to chemotherapy or other cancer treatments. Dr. Talibs response suggests that
he has interpreted Dr. Subhans statement to mean that
3. In an examination Rizwana has more marks than Fauzia. Shugufta has fever marks than Zahid. Fauzia
and Abid have more marks than Shugufta. If the above is true which of the following must also be
true?
4. Many people do not read the books they purchase. For example seventeen percent of college
students in Pakistan have text books but only forty-five percent of them read more than once a year
and only seventeen percent read more than once a week. Which of the following if true casts doubt
on the claim that most people read the books they purchase?
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5. Asmat Chughtai is considered by many literacy critics to be one of the greatest Indo Pak writers of
the 20th century if not of all time. However her sexist attitude posturing have made her less popular
than some of her contemporaries among todays readers. If the statements above are true all of the
following must also be true EXCEPT.
(A) Chughtais more popular contemporaries do not exhibit her sexist attitudes
(B) Chughtais outdated attitudes are a mojor reason for her relative lack of popularity
(C) many modern readers find Chughtais sexist attitudes distasteful
(D) most of Chughtais contemporaries exhibited the same sexist attitudes
(E) most of the general reading public does not agree with the critics estimation of Chughtais work.
6. Although we may be exposed to all the various types of music - classical folk, jazz, rock and country
over the course of a lifetime the type of music we loved as adolescents will always be our favorite.
Which of the following if true would most seriously weaken the argument above?
(A) Some people who are exposed to folk music only late in life learn to enjoy it
(B) Some people who love rock as adolescents come to prefer classical music later in life.
(C) Those who are exposed to jazz only as children never learn to appreciate it.
(D) Those who enjoy country music as adolescents always favor if over other types of music
(E) Some people who are exposed to classical music as adolescents never learn to enjoy it
7. In his book Black Thief Mr. Kashif claimed that when fellow writer Mr. Salman remarked to him. The
rich are different from you and I Mr. Kashif responded by saying Yes they have more money. All of
the following conclusions can be reasonably drawn from the above EXCEPT.
(A) Mr. Salman believed that there was some fundamental difference between the rich and
everyone else.
(B) Mr. Kashif believed that the difference between those with and without money was simply
financial
(C) Mr. Kashif had a sardonic sense of humor
(D) Neither of the authors had as yet achieved significant commercial success
(E) Having at one time been wealthy Mr. Kashif knew first hand that Mr. Salman was wrong in his
estimation of the rich
8. Beginning at the end of 1965 war the enormous expenditure on arms that the Cold war forced on
both Pakistan and India while having no obvious effect on the quality of life in Pakistan resulted in a
considerable decrease in the quality of life in India. This in turn led to general dissatisfaction
disappointment in the Indian social system and ultimately the dismantling of Indian government.
Which of the following if true most seriously weakens the argument above
(A) Although it was not obvious the arms expenditures of the cold war did affect the quality of life in
Pakistan
(B) The quality of life in India was relatively poor even prior to the end of the war
(C) Overall the quality of life actually improved in Pakistan during the years after the conclusion of
the war.
(D) There was widespread political and economic dissatisfaction in India prior to the onset of the
war.
(E) Dissatisfaction with the quality of life was only one of many factors which contributed to the
Indian Peoples disillusionment with their social system
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9. The compulsory training for city wagon drivers resulted in a reduction in fatal accident rate over the
past two years. Compared to the five-year period prior to the compulsion of the training fatal
accident rate decreased by 25 percent. Which one of the following if true most substantially
strengthens the argument above?
(A) The accident rate of other traffic has remained steady over the past five years
(B) Traffic load has increased over the past five years.
(C) Government has implemented a speed control campaign last year
(D) Road conditions in the country are better than has been previously.
(E) Accident rate of woman drivers has decreased.
10. Although many alien sightings have been claimed by people of doubtful reliability there have been a
significant number of sightings by intelligent people. It is reasonable therefore to assume that aliens
exist and that they usually come to the earth. All of the following if true would severely weaken the
conclusion of the argument above EXCEPT.
(A) Even people who are normally honest may lie on occasion.
(B) There is no demonstrable correlation between intelligence and honesty.
(C) A good reputation is not assurance of accurate eyesight
(D) Highly intelligent people are often more imaginative than others.
(E) Those who believe in aliens are likely to interpret any ambiguous or inexplicable sight as an alien
sighting
11. Ali and Nadeem are brothers. Maria & Mariam are sisters. If Ali's son is Mariams brother then what
is the relation of Nadeem to Maria?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Niece
(D) Cousin
12. If the same quantity is added to both the numerator & denominator of a proper fraction the value of
new fraction is:
13. P the daughter of K is married to G. X and G are brothers on the basis of this information tell how P
is related to G.
(A) Daughter
(B) Wife
(C) Cousin
(D) Sister
(E) Niece
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14. There are some pigeons and hares in a zoo. If heads are counted these are 200. If legs are counted
they are 580. The number of hares in the zoo are:
(A) 50
(B) 150
(C) 90
(D) 120
15. If the day that rose on the day following day before yesterday was Tuesday then what day of the
week will rise day after tomorrow?
(A) Friday
(B) Saturday
(C) Sunday
(D) Monday
16. A and B are sister. C and D are brothers. A is the mother of D what is the relation of B to C.
(A) Mother
(B) Mother-in-law
(C) Aunt
(D) Sister-in-law
(E) None
17. Mr. Shahid starts a journey towards north. After covering a distance of 4 km he turns left and travels
3 km more. What is the least distance Mr. Shahid hat to travel to return to the starting point?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 2
18. A and B are married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related to B
(A) Brother
(B) Brother-in-law
(C) Father
(D) Father-in-law
19. In an examination Naheed scored more than Zeeshan Ussama scored as much as Dia Rukhsar scored
less than Muneer Zeeshan scored more than Ussama Muneer scored less than Dia. Who scored the
lowest?
(A) Naheed
(B) Muneer
(C) Rukhsar
(D) Ussama
(E) Dia
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20. A person travels 10 KM from North towards East. Then he moves 6 KM towards West. Finally he
covers 8 KM towards the starting point. How far is the person from the starting point?
(A) 5
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 0
21. A man pointing to Abdullah said I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son.
What is he to Abdullah?
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Brother
(D) Grand Father
22. A soldier drove eastward for 4 miles then drove North for 5 miles then turned to his left and drove
for 1 mile and again turned to his left. Which choice gives the direction in which he was driving now.
(A) South
(B) West
(C) North
(D) East
23. If a cloud is called white white is called rain. Rain is called green green is called air air is called blue
and blue is called water in what do the birds fly?
(A) Cloud
(B) Air
(C) Blue
(D) Rain
(E) Water
24. A mango tree is as tall as a coconut tree. A banana tree is shorter than a palm tree. A guava tree is
shorter than the banana tree but taller than mango tree which is the tallest?
(A) Mango
(B) Guava
(C) Coconut
(D) Palm
(E) None
25. My son Ali is three times as old as his sister, but in two-year times he will be only twice as old. How
old were the children
(A) 62
(B) 63
(C) 36
(D) 65
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26. A soldier travels 2 miles due East then 6 miles due South then 1 mile due East and finally 10 miles
due North. How far is he from starting point.
(A) 10 miles
(B) 08 miles
(C) 05 miles
(D) 02 miles
27. 11th of April falls two days after day after tomorrow that is Tuesday then on what day will the last
day of the month April occurs.
(A) Thursday
(B) Saturday
(C) Sunday
(D) Monday
28. A is without sons and brothers but the father of B is A fathers son. What is B to A?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Son
(D) Wife
29. Afzal went to attend a meeting on Thursday. On reaching the place he came to know that he was 3
days earlier than the scheduled day. If he had reached there on the coming Monday how many days
late he would have been?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
30. A child was accompanying a girl on being asked who the girl was the man said. His father was the
only son of my father. What was the girl to man?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Niece
31. Seen through a mirror the arms of a clock show 9:30 what is the actual time
(A) 3:30
(B) 6:30
(C) 6:10
(D) 2:30
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32. If 7th of the month falls two days after Wednesday. What day of the week will proceed the 18th of
month?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
33. A man begins climbing a Hill. Every minute he ascends 15 yards but slips 2 yards. How long will he
take to ascend a point 91 yards high?
(A) 6 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 9 minutes
34. The day that will come two days after tomorrow will be Thursday. What was the day that Dawned
two days before yesterday.
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Monday
(A) Cousin
(B) Nephew
(C) Uncle
(D) Brother
36. In a cage there are Rabbits and Pigeons. They have 20 heads and 48 feet. How many Rabbits are
there?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
37. A and B start walking in opposite directions. A walked 2 miles & B walked 3 miles. Then each turned
right & walked 4 miles. Then they turned right. A walked 3 & B walked 2 miles. How far distant apart
are they at the end?
(A) 5 miles
(B) 7 miles
(C) 8 miles
(D) 10 miles
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38. A man travels 7 miles eastwards. Then turns right & travels three miles & again turns right & travels
11 miles. How far is he from starting point?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
39. Think of a number double it and add 15. If the result is 81 find the number
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) None
40. Think of a number. Divide it by 4 and add 9 to it. If the result is 15 what is number
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 25
41. What member when multiplied by itself remains one short of half a century
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
42. Mr. and Mrs. Gill have seven daughters and each daughter has one brother. How many people are
there in the Gill family.
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 5
(D) 15
43. Five cars are parked bumper to bumper. How many bumpers are touching each other
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
44. The sum of two numbers is 84. If one of them exceeds the other by 12 find the numbers
(A) 42 40
(B) 36 48
(C) 30 52
(D) 32 50
45. I am sixth in the queue starting from either end. How many are there in the queue
(A) 11
(B) 9
(C) 13
(D) 12
46. If 3 cats can kill 3 rats in 3 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats?
(A) 3
(B) 100
(C) 50
(D) None of these
47. Mr. Zahid had some cows and some hens. One day he decided to count them. He counted 15 heads
and 50 legs. Can you figure out how many cows Mr. Zahid had?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
(A) 16 12
(B) 13 18
(C) 10 11
(D) None
50. If 1x2x3 = 231 (a) 2x3x4 = 342 (b) 3x4x5 = 453 (c) 4x5x6 = ?
(A) 345
(B) 564
(C) 456
(D) None
Page 26 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
ANSWER KEY
1 B 26 C
2 A 27 A
3 B 28 A
4 C 29 A
5 D 30 A
6 B 31 A
7 E 32 A
8 E 33 B
9 A 34 C
10 B 35 B
11 B 36 B
12 D 37 C
13 B 38 A
14 C 39 C
15 A 40 C
16 C 41 B
17 A 42 A
18 B 43 C
19 C 44 B
20 D 45 A
21 A 46 A
22 A 47 B
23 E 48 A
24 D 49 B
25 A 50 B
Page 27 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
A. 720 miles
B. 12 miles
C. 8-6/7 miles
D. 12-7/7 miles
E. None of these
3. In general, the sum of the squares of two numbers is greater than twice the product of the numbers.
The pair of numbers for which this generalization is not valid is
A. 8,9
B. 9,9
C. 9,10
D. 9,8
E. 8,10
4. If pencils are bought at 35 cents per dozen and sold at 3 for 10 cents the total profit on 5 1/2 dozen
is
A. 25 cents
B. 35 cents
C. 27 1/2 cents
D. 28 1/2 cents
E. 31 1/2 cents
5. A man bought a TV set that was listed at $160. He was given successive discounts of 20% and 10%.
The price he paid was
A. $129.60
B. $119.60
C. $118.20
D. $115.20
E. $112.00
Page 28 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
6. Mr. Jones' income for a year is $15,000. He pays 15% of this in federal taxes and 10% of the
remainder in state taxes. How much is left?
A. $12,750
B. $9,750
C. $14,125
D. $13,500
E. $11,475
A. 4 × 4 ÷ 4 + 4
B. 4 ÷ 4 × 4 + 4
C. 4 × 4 – 4 × 4
D. 4 ÷ 4 + 4 × 4
E. 2 ÷ 2 + 2 × 2
8. Two integers have a sum of 42 and a difference of 22. The greater of the two integers is
A. 22
B. 25
C. 28
D. 31
E. 32
9. The average of five numbers is 34. If three of the numbers are 28, 30 and 32, what is the average of
the other two?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
E. 80
10. The ratio of boys to girls in a certain classroom was 2 : 3. If boys represented five more than one
third of the class, how many people were there in the classroom?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 45
E. 75
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
11. If the postal charges for a package are 62 cents for the first five ounces and 8 cents for each
additional ounce, what is the weight of a package for which the charges are $1.66? (Assume there
are 16 ounces in one pound)
A. 1.05 pounds
B. 1.1 pounds
C. 1.125 pounds
D. 1.25 pounds
E. 1.5 pounds
12. The two numbers, whose sum is -13 and product -30, are
A. 2, 15
B. 2, -15
C. -3, 10
D. 3, 10
E. -3, -13
A. 2 and 3
B. 6 and 8
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 8 and 12
E. 3 and 9
A. 1.25
B. 75
C. 125
D. 133.333
E. 150
A. 11/9
B. 23/7
C. √3
D. 4 1/3
E. 2
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
16. A restaurant has a special whereby both parents can eat for $20 and each child can eat for $5.
Assuming a family group consists of both parents and at least one child, what is the maximum
number of family groups that could have attended given that the restaurant took $115?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2
17. Aslam is now 3 times as old as Javed, but 5 years ago, he was 5 times as Javed was. How old is Aslam
now?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 30
(E) 36
18. Mr. Kashif got an average of 50 in 6 tests. What should he get in the next test to attain the average
of 60?
(A) 120
(B) 60
(C) 100
(D) 70
19. The average income of a family of 6 members is Rs. 5000. The income of two of them is Rs. 12000.
What is income of the remaining 3 persons?
(A) 12000
(B) 90000
(C) 5000
(D) 18000
20. A clerk filed 73 forms on Monday, 85 forms on Tuesday, 54 on Wednesday, 92 on Thursday and 66
on Friday. What was the average number of forms filed per day?
(A) 50
(B) 95
(C) 84
(D) 74
(A) 13
(B) 23
(C) 27
(D) 05
Page 31 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
22. If the average of 5 and K is equal to the average of 2 6 and K. what is the value of K?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 4
23. How much the speed of a train be increased if the driver wishes to reduce the time to reach to a
certain station in 20% less time?
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 05%
(D) 20%
(E) 50%
24. A man spent 10% of his money. After spending 60% of the remainder he has Rs. 72 left. How much
had he in the start?
(A) 300
(B) 50
(C) 400
(D) 200
(E) 100
(A) -13
(B) -6
(C) 6
(D) 9
(E) 13
26. A boy scored 90 marks for his mathematics test. This was 20% more than what he had scored for the
geography test. How much did he score in geography?
(A) 100
(B) 75
(C) 50
(D) 180
(E) 72
Page 32 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
27. The average (arithmetic mean) of five numbers is 26. After one of the numbers is removed the
average (arithmetic mean) of the remaining number is 25. What number has been removed?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 32
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 5
29. If the average weight of boys who are Shans age and height is 120 lbs. and if Shan weights 110% of
the average then Shan weights?
30. If pencils are bought at Rs 48 per dozen and sold at 3 for Rs. 15 the total profit on 5 is?
(A) 200
(B) 66
(C) 50
(D) 40
(E) 5.5
31. During a half- price sale Mr. Kamran bought a notebook for the usual price and a second notebook
for one-half the usual price. If he paid 15.60 for the 2 notebooks what was the usual price of a
notebook?
(A) 7.5
(B) 20.8
(C) 8.6
(D) 5.2
(E) 10.4
Page 33 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
32. If it is now June what month will it be 100 months from now?
(A) January
(B) April
(C) June
(D) December
(E) October
ANSWER KEY
1 B 21 B
2 D 22 C
3 B 23 B
4 C 24 D
5 D 25 C
6 E 26 B
7 D 27 D
8 E 28 A
9 A 29 E
10 A 30 B
11 C 31 E
12 B 32 B
13 A
14 D
15 C
16 C
17 D
18 A
19 D
20 D
Page 34 of 35
SAMPLE TEST PAPER LEVEL - 3
Page 35 of 35