Department of Anatomy & Histology

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

86. The greater part of the anterior surface of the heart is formed by:
A. Right atrium C. Right ventricle and right atrium
B. Left ventricle and left atrium D. Left atrium and right atrium

1. The transverse colon is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Appendices epiploicae C. Taenia coli
B. Haustrations D. Plicae circularis

2. Which of the following organs is supplied by the celiac artery:

A. Spleen C. Jejunum
B. Ascending colon D.Rectum

3. What is the only tarsal bone of the feet that articulates with the tibia and the fibula at the ankle
joint:
A. Cuboid C. Talus
B. Navicular D. Calcaneus

4. Post-thyroidectomy aphonia signifies injury to which nerve:

A. Inferior laryngeal nerve C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve D. Superior laryngeal nerve

5. Pain in sciatica is experienced along:

A. Medial aspect of the knee
B. Medial aspect of the thigh
C. Anterior aspect of the thigh
D. Posterior and lateral aspect of the legs

6. The dorsalis pedis artery pulsation can be felt at:

A. Between the lateral malleolus and the heel
B. Between the tendons of the tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus
C. Between the tendons of the extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum
D. Between the tendons of the peroneus brevis and longus

7. The fibrous bands that keeps or holds the breast in the place is the:
A. Ligament of Montgomery C. Ligament of Hienrick
B. Ligament of Cooper D. Ligament of Spence

8. The structure that marks to identify the duodenojejunal junction:

A. Ligamentum teres
B. Ligamentum of Treitz
C. Falcifirm ligament
D. Prepyloric vein of Mayo
9. Which is an incorrect statement about an intervertebral disc ?
A. During aging, fluid within the nucleus pulposus is replaced by fibrocartilage
B. Atlanto – axial joint possesses no disc
C. Nucleus pulposus is most likely to herniate in an anterolateral direction
D. Disc are thickest in the lumbar region

10. Which of the following is the main venous drainage of the urinary bladder ?
A. External iliac vein C. Common iliac vein
B. Inferior vena cava D. Internal iliac vein

11. The following are some atonomical facts about the clavicle, except:
A. Articulates with the aeronium process of scapula laterally
B. Is subcutaneous throughout its length
C. Medial two – thirds are concova forwards and the lateral third convex forwards
D. Lies horizontally and articulates with the sternum and first costal cartilage medially

12. The position, shape and size of which of the following carpal bones should be known since
it is commonly fractured ?
A. Hamate C. Trapezium
B. Scaphoid D. Pisiform

13. What ligament prevents the dislocation of the femur backwards at the knee joint ?
A. Anterior cruciate
B. Ischiofemoral
C. Lateral collateral ligament of knee joint
D. Posterior cruciate

14. An incorrect statement regarding intercostals nerves ?

A. Provides sensory innervation to costal parietal pleura
B. Provide motor innervation to intercostals muscles
C. Provide motor innervation to peripheral parts of the diaphragm
D. Contain sympathetic fibers to innervate vascular smooth muscles

15. Which is an incorrect statement about injuries of the tibia and fibula ?
A. Fractures of the tibial condyles are common in the middle – aged and elderly
B. Fractures of shaft of tibia are often compound
C. Forced abduction of the knee joint can rupture the medial collateral ligament
D. Fractures of distal third of shaft of the tibia are prone to delayed union or non –
union

16. Which muscle flexes the thigh on the trunk if thigh is fixed flexes the trunk on the thigh as
in sitting up from lying down ?
A. Pectineus C. Sartorius
B. Quadriceps femoris D. Psoas

17. Not a true statement about fractures of the pelvis:

A. Fractures of true pelvis are commonly associated with damage of pelvic viscera and
the rectum is often damaged
B. Upper part of ilium is seldom displaced
C. Occasionally occurs in false pelvis due to direct trauma
D. Fractures of true pelvis is usually caused by a severe crushing injury as when one is
run over by a car

18. Which is not correct regarding the tributaries of the vena cava ?
A. Two anterior visceral tributaries
B. Three lateral visceral tributaries
C. Three tributaries of origin
D. Three lateral abdominal wall tributaries

19. Which of the following is the most common form of hernia ?

A. Indirect inguinal C. Aponeurosis
B. Fibrous septa D. Subaponeurotic

20. Which of the following layers of the scalp becomes continuous with the periosteum on the
inner surface of the skull bones ?
A. Pericranium C. Aponeurosis
B. Fibrous septa D. Subaponeurotic

21. The penis is located in the male urogenital triangle and is described accurately by the
following statements, except:
 A. Laterally its roots are formed by the orura
B. Glands penis is a distal expansion of the fused corpora cavernosa
C. Root formed in midline by the bulb of the penis
D. Penile urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum

22. The tip of the appendix is subject to considerate range of movement and may be found in
the following positions, except:
A. Hanging down into pelvis against right pelvic wall
B. Infront of or behind terminal part of ileum
C. Coiled up behind cecum in retrocecal fossa
D. Projecting downwards along medial side of cecum

23. What is the classification of the epithelium of the oral surface of the soft palate ?
A. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
B. Simple cuboidal
C. Noncornified stratified squamous
D. Simple squamous

24. The deep perineal pouch in the female contains the following except:
A. Sphincter urathrae
B. Superficial transverse perineal muscles
C. Part of the vagina
D. Part of the urethra

25. Which anatomical description of the scapula is not correct ?

A. Anterior surface is convex forming the shallow subscapular fossa
B. Superolateral angle forms the glenoid fossa which articulates with head of humerus
C. Inferior angle can be palpated easily in the living subject marking the level of the 7 th
rib
D. Free lateral end of the spine forms the acromion which articulates with the clavicle

26. Which of the following arteries is the chief artery supplying the mucous membrane of the
rectum ?
A. Inferior mesenteric C. Middle rectal
B. Superior rectal D. Inferior rectal

27. Which of the following structures support the vagina ?

A. All of the three
B. Levatoris ani muscles and the transverse cervical, pubocervical and sacrocervical
ligaments on upper part
C. Urogenital diaphragm on middle part
D. Perineal body on lower part especially posterior wall

28. The tunical vasculosa (uvea) of the eye comprises the following, except:
A. Iridial stroma C. Schlera
B. Ciliary body D. Choroid

29. On rectal examination of the male, one can palpate the following structures, except:
A. Anterior surface of sacrum C. Bulb of the penis
B. Ureter D. Urogenital diaphragm

30. Which of the following is the largest muscle of the body ?

A. Pectoralis major C. Gluteus maximus
B. Teres major D. Quadratus femoris

31. Which part of the male urethra is the widest and most dilatable ?
A. External orifice at the glans penis C. Membranous part
B. Fossa terminalis D. Prostatic part

32. Incorrect about the pituitary gland:

A. Deeply placed within sella turcica of skull
B. Arterial supply is from external carotid artery
C. Spenoid sinus lies inferior to it
D. Seperated from optic chiasma by the diaphragm .......

33. Which is/are a true statement/s about the kidney ?

A. Right kidney lies at a slightly lower level than left
B. Normal left kidney is palpable
C. All of the three
 D. On the back, kidney extends from the 12th thoracic spine to 3rd lumbar spine with hill
nd
opposite 2 lumbar vertebra

34. Regarding the pancreas, which is true ?

A. Receives part of arterial supply from splenic artery
B. Uncinate process projects from body of pancreas
C. Common bile duct lies anterior to the head of the pancreas
D. Main pancreatic duct opens into the third part of the duodenum

35. The hypothenar eminence is formed by the following muscles, except:

A. Abductor digiti minimi C. Abductor pollicis
B. Flexor digiti minimi brevis D. Opponena digiti minimi

35. The blood supply of the trachea in the neck is derived from the:
A. External carotid artery C. Inferior thyroid arteries
B. Superior thyroid arteries D. Thyroidea ima

37. The parietal cell is diagnostic for the:

A. Ileum C. Jejunum
B. Duodenum D. Stomach

38. Which of the following specialized areas of the peritoneum is a two layered fold that
attaches part of the intestines to the posterior abdominal wall and permits mobility ?
A. Peritoneal ligament C. Lesser omentum
B. Mesentery D. Greater omentum

39. The optic canal is located in which bone ?

A. Occipital C. Temporal
B. Sphenoid D. Frontal

40. When a normal adult is standing straight, the most prominent spine that may be easily
recognized is the spine of which vertebra ?
A. Third thoracic C. First thoracic
B. Seventh cervical D. Fourth lumbar

41. The vagus exits from the cranial cavity through:

A. Foramen rotundum C. Jugular foramen
B. Foramen ovale D. Superior orbital fissure

42. Rectus sheath does not contain which important structure:

A. Terminal branches of lower intercostals nerves
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Lymph vessels
D. Inferior epigastric artery

43. The spinal cord in the adult ends inferiorly at what level of vertebra ?
A. L -5 C. T -12
B. S -2 and 3 D. L -1

44. Which of the following nerves supply the external anal sphincter ?
A. Perineal branch of the pudendal nerve
B. Perineal branch of the fourth sacral nerve
C. Inferior rectal nerve
D. Both perineal branches of the fourth sacral and pudendal nerves

45. Damage to which of the following nerved can result to “wrist drop” ?
A. Ulnar C. Radial
B. Axillary D. Median

46. When asking a patient to clench the jaw firmly, what muscle can be seen as a sheet of
muscle?
A. Sternothyroid C. Trapezine
B. Platysma D. Sternocleidomastoid

47. Which of the following muscles of the head moves the scalp on the skull and raises the eyebrows?
A. Orbicularies oculi C. Procerus
B. Corrugator supercilii D. Occipitofrontalis
48. The spinous process of which vertebra is most easily palpated and serves as a landmark:
A. C1 C. T4
B. C7 D. L1

49. With the patient in the standing position, fluid in the left pleural cavity tends to gravitate down to
the:
A. Oblique Fissure C. Costomediastinal recess
B. Cardiac notch D. Costodiaphargmatic recess

50. The main blood supply of the lungs are the:

A. Bronchial arteries C. Mediastinal arteries
B. Pulmonary arteries D. Pericardial arteries