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1. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
1161, 1164, 1168, 1173, 1179, ?
A. 1186 B. 1196
C. 1185 D. 1197
Ans. A
Sol. 1161 + 3 = 1164
1164 + 4 = 1168
1168 + 5 = 1173
1173 + 6 = 1179
1179 + 7 = 1186
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
2. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Punjab : Bhangra : : Gujarat : ?
A. Bihu B. Garba
C. Ghumar D. Kathak
Ans. B
Sol. Bhangra is the traditional dance of Punjab. Similarly, Garba is the traditional dance of
Gujarat. Thus Gujarat is related to Garba.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
3. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1) Philosopher 2) Pharmacy
3) Piercing 4) Salesman
5) Saleswoman
A. 21345 B. 53214
C. 34215 D. 24513
Ans. A
Sol. Arranging the words in the order they appear in the dictionary:
2) Pharmacy
1) Philosopher
3) Piercing
4) Salesman
5) Saleswoman
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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4. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
42 : 14 : : 56 : ?
A. 18 B. 41
C. 48 D. 65
Ans. B
Sol. As in the 1st pair:
4 × 2 + (4 + 2) ⇒ 8 + 6 = 14
Therefore, 2nd pair will be like:
5 × 6 + (5 + 6) ⇒ 30 + 11 = 41
Hence, option B is the correct response.
5. In the following question, select the odd letter group from the given alternatives.
A. JQ B. HS
C. BX D. GT
Ans. C
Sol.

J + Q = 27
H + S = 27
B + X = 26
G + T = 27
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
6. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
CD, GH, KL,?
A. PN B. NO
C. NP D. OP
Ans. D
Sol. There are 26 alphabets in English and if we give assign to each and every alphabet
starting from ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C', etc. , it will appear to be:
A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4……. likewise, till Z=26

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

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7. The following Venn Diagram shows information about the total number of the person who
has a different profession.

What is the ratio of Singer and Comedian but not Actor to all actor, singer and comedian?
A. 4/5 B. 13/8
C. 15/11 D. 5/4
Ans. D
Sol.

The ratio of the Singer and Comedian but not Actor to all actor, singer and comedian =
15/12
On solving we get = 5/4
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
8. How many triangles are in the given figure?

A. 14 B. 25
C. 16 D. 23
Ans. C
Sol.

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16 triangles in all; BPN, PNE, ABM, EFG, QRO, RSO, STO , QTO , BPE, TQR, QRS, RST ,

STQ,MPO, GPO and MPG.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

9. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

DOG : KENNEL :: BEE : ?

A. HIVE B. NEST

C. HOLE D. BARN

Ans. A

Sol. Dog lives in a kennel. Similarly, bee lives in a hive.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

10. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. B.

C. D.

Ans. D

Sol. After carefully observing the figures given in the question, it is very clear that the question

figure is embedded in the answer figure (D). It is shown as given below:

Hence, Option D is the correct answer.

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11. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given responses indicate

how it will appear when opened.

A. B.

C. D.

Ans. C

Sol. After Unfolded the paper we get:

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

12. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given

ones that will complete the series.

AC, EG, ?, MO

A. IK B. IJ

C. IL D. IM

Ans. A

Sol. There are 26 alphabets in English and if we assign numbers to each and every alphabet

starting from ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C, etc., it will appear to be:

A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4……. likewise, till Z=26

And, the series is written with only odd position alphabets i.e.

AC, EG, IK, MO

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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13. From the given words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given
word.
SELECTIVENESS
A. SUSTAIN B. VEST
C. CANCEL D. SELLES
Ans. B
Sol. Clearly, the word ‘VEST’ can be formed by using the letters of given
word.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
14. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.

A. 104 B. 130
C. 120 D. 224
Ans. A
Sol. Logic-
Row 1:
(150+225)/5=75
Row 2:
(400+120)/5=104
Row 3:
(80+140)/5=44
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
15. A statement is given followed by two course of action. Candidate is required to grasp the
statement and analyses the problem or policy it mentions and then decide which course of
action logically follows.
Statement:
Google parent company Alphabet has moved its Jigsaw technology incubator under Google
management.
Course of action:
I. Jigsaw was focused on online security issues like harassment and misinformation.
II. Google management should have the best policy to control Jigsaw technology incubator.
A. Only I follows B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow D. Either I or II follows
Ans. B

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Sol. Course of action: I. Jigsaw was focused on online security issues like harassment and
misinformation. (It does not follow as its just a statement, not action.)
II. Google management should have the best policy to control Jigsaw technology incubator.
(It follows.)
So, Only II follows.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
A. 2437 B. 9118
C. 8548 D. 7649
Ans. A
Sol. If we consider the last two digits as one number, then that number is given by:
9118 → 18 = 9 × (1 + 1) → i.e. first number multiplied by succession of 2nd number.
8548 → 48 = 8 × (5 + 1)
7649 → 49 = 7 × (6 + 1)
But it’s not applicable with 2437.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
17. 12 * 18 * 3 * 4 = 2 * 5 * 4
Which set of symbols can replace *?
A. +, x, / ,x, + B. +, /, - ,x, -
C. +, /, - , x, + D. +, x, - , /, x
Ans. C
Sol. option A 12+18x3/4 = 25.5 and RHS 2x5+4 = 14 so LHS not equal to RHS.
option B 12+18/3-4 = 14 and RHS 2x5-4 = 6, LHS not equal to RHS.
option C 12+18/3-4 gives 14 and RHS 2x5+4 gives 14 so RHS=LHS
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
18. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
A. Oscar Award B. Arjuna Award
C. Dhyan Chand Award D. Dronacharya Award
Ans. A
Sol. In this question, we show that –
Option A (Oscar Award) is the award in the field of the film industry and rest Option B
(Arjuna Award), option C (Dhyan Chand Award), and Option D (Dronacharya Award) are
the awards in the field of sports.
So, Oscar Award is different from others.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

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19. If 9 x 0 x 4 x 1 = 5 and 1 x 7 x 3 x 2 = 12 then what will be the value of 0 x 2 x 3 x 4 = ?

A. 11 B. 10

C. 7 D. None of these.

Ans. C

Sol. Here, the logic used in the given equations is as follows:

(First Number x Second Number) + Third Number + Fourth Number = Result.

Equation I: 9 x 0 x 4 x 1 = 5 ⇒ (9 x 0) + 4 + 1 = 5

Equation II: 1 x 7 x 3 x 2 = 5 ⇒ (1 x 7) + 3 + 2 = 12

Similarly for equation III we get,

⇒ (0 x 2) + 3 + 4 = 7

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

20. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones

that will complete the series.

6, 13, 33.5, 101.5, 356.25, ?

A. 1526 B. 1426

C. 1326 D. 1725

Ans. B

Sol. Given series follows the pattern given below:

6×2+1=13

13×2.5+1=33.5

33.5×3+1=101.5

101.5×3.5+1=356.25

356.25×4+1=1426

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

21. Ramesh goes 8m in the west direction and turns to his left and goes 10m, again he took a

left turn and moves 18m. Now he turned right and moved 10m and finally he turns 45

degree clockwise and goes 5m. Now he is in which direction from his starting point?

A. north-east B. south-east

C. north-west D. south-west

Ans. B

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Sol.

So, he is in south-east direction from his starting point.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.
22. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1) Jumbo 2) Juggling
3) Justice 4) Jewel
5) Jealous
A. 54213 B. 23415
C. 12345 D. 42315
Ans. A
Sol. Arranging the words in the order they appear in the dictionary:
5) Jealous
4) Jewel
2) Juggling
1) Jumbo Jet
3) Justice
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
23. Lata is in the north of Jaya at a distance of 50m who is in the west of Abhay at a distance
of 80m. Abhay is in the east of Lalit at a distance of 40m who is in the north of Deepa at a
distance of 30m. Deepa is in the south of Prakash at a distance of 20m who is in the east
of Gopi at a distance of 100m. Abhay is in which direction with respect to Lata?
A. south-east B. north-east
C. east D. west
Ans. A

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Sol. According to question:-

So, Abhay is in south-east direction with respect to Lata.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
24. A is five ranks ahead of B who ranks 20th in a class of forty students. What is A’s rank from
the last?
A. 23 B. 22
C. 26 D. 27
Ans. C
Sol. B = 20th from top
A is five rank ahead = 20-5 = 15th from top
So A rank from bottom = total number of students – A rank from top + 1
= 40 – 15 + 1
= 25 + 1
= 26
A's rank from last/bottom is 26.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
25. Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming
the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements :
Some drive are cassettes.
All cassettes are memory.
Conclusions :
I. All memory are cassettes.
II. All drive are cassettes.
III. Some memory are drive.
A. Only conclusion III follows B. Only conclusion I and II follow
C. None of the conclusions follows. D. Ether conclusion II or III follows.
Ans. A

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Sol. Minimum Possible diagram is-

Conclusions :

I. All memory are cassettes. (It does not follow as its just a possibility, not surety.)

II. All drive are cassettes.(It also does not follow independently as its just a possibility, not

surety.)

III. Some memory are drive. (It follows as its obvious from the above diagram.)

So, Only conclusion III follows.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

26. Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming

the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts,

decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements :

No Lines are Tables.

All Tables are Radar.

Conclusions :

I. Some lines are radar.

II. All radar are tables.

III. No lines are radar.

A. Ether conclusion I or III follows.

B. Only conclusion I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I and III follow

D. All the conclusions I, II and III follow

Ans. A

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Sol. Minimum Possible diagram is-

Conclusions :

I. Some lines are radar. (It does not follow independently as it is just a possibility, not

surety.)

II. All radar are tables. (It also does not follow independently as it is just a possibility, not

surety.)

III. No lines are radar. (It also does not follow independently as it is just a possibility, not

surety.)

Here, Either conclusion I or III follows because some + no makes either or situation.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

27. Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

A. B.

C. D.

Ans. A

Sol. After carefully observing the figures given in the question, it is very clear that the answer
figure(a) will be the next figure.

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Logic- Circle gets whitened and darken alternately. % and ! interchange its places in each
step. ! is increasing by +1 in each step.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

28. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
A. Hudhud B. Trami
C. Beetle D. Vardah
Ans. C
Sol. Except for Beetle, all are the name of Cyclone. The beetle is an insect.
Hence, option C is different from others.
29. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Fox, carnivorous and
toads?
A. B.

C. D.

Ans. C
Sol. Toad and Fox are carnivorous animals.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

30. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol *?

A. @ B. $
C. 8 D. +
Ans. C
Sol. The symbol of the adjacent faces to face with symbol * are @, -, + and $. Hence the
required symbol is 8.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

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31. In the following question, select the related group of letters from the given alternatives.
EHJ : KNP :: SVX : ?
A. XZZ B. YBD
C. BDF D. ZBD
Ans. B
Sol.

Similarly,

Thus, SVX is related to YBD.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.
32. In the following question, select the odd letter group from the given alternatives.
A. CEF B. GIJ
C. LNO D. STW
Ans. D
Sol.

C + 2 = E, E + 1 = F
G + 2 = I, I + 1 =J
L + 2 = N, N + 1 = O
S + 1 = T, T + 3 = W
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
33. Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the
two numbers of the following number-pair.
50 : 99
A. 63 : 77 B. 41 : 66
C. 65 : 88 D. 59 : 99
Ans. C

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Sol. As,
50 : 99 = 10 × 5, 9 × 11
Similarly,
65 : 88 = 13 × 5, 8 × 11
Hence, option C is the correct response.
34. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of
the figure.

A. B.

C. D.

Ans. B
Sol. In a plane mirror, a mirror image is a reflected duplication of an object that appears almost
identical, but it is reversed in the direction perpendicular to the mirror surface. As an optical
effect, it results from the reflection of substances such as a mirror or water.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

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35. In the following question, select the odd letter group from the given alternatives.
A. DAH B. IFM
C. ROV D. FHA
Ans. D
Sol.

D – 3 = A, D + 4 = H
I – 3 = F, I + 4 = M
R – 3 = O, R + 4 =V
F + 2 = H, F – 5 = A
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
36. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 14 – 48
B. 12 – 72
C. 11 – 88
D. 8 – 24
Ans. A
Sol. Here 48 is not a multiple of 14 In rest, all pairs 2 nd number is multiple of the first number.
12 x 6 = 72
11 x 8 = 88
8 x 3 = 24
Thus 14 – 48 is the odd number pair.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
37. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
A. 11 – 15 B. 13 – 17
C. 12 – 16 D. 14 – 16
Ans. D
Sol. From the given options,
11 + 4 = 15
13 + 4 = 17
12 + 4 = 16
14 + 4 ≠ 16
Clearly, option D is not following the rule like others.
Hence, the correct option is D.

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38. In a certain code language, BOOKS is written as ROOKA and DRONS is written as RRONC.
How would MANAGE be written in that code language?
A. MMAZGE B. GEMMAZ
C. MMGEAZ D. AZMMGE
Ans. C
Sol. All the letters are written alphabetically from right to the left and then the first and the last
letters are moved one place backward in the English alphabet.
So, MANAGE = MMGEAZ
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
39. In the following question, select the related group of letters from the given alternatives.
LKJ : MNO :: EDC : ?
A. FGI B. FHG
C. FGH D. FGJ
Ans. C
Sol. Let us first write down the alphabets and their corresponding positions in the English
alphabetic series.

Here, LKJ : MNO may be written as follows:

Similarly,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

40. Four words are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different.
Which is different from the rest?
A. Fox B. Wolf
C. Jackal D. Deer
Ans. D

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Sol. Except deer, all other animal eats meat, while deer eat grass.
Hence, option D is different from the rest.
41. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Question figure:

Answer figure:

A. Figure A B. Figure B
C. Figure C D. Figure D
Ans. C
Sol. After observing the given diagram carefully, option figure C will complete the given question
figure.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

42. In a certain code language, "CLAT-UG" is written as "8". How is "NEET-PG" written in that
code language?
A. 21 B. 27
C. 19 D. 17
Ans. A
Sol.

Considering the place value of letters we get,

CLAT-UG ⇒ (3 + 12 + 1 + 20 =36) – (21 + 7 = 28) → 36 – 28 = 8

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Similarly,
NEET-PG ⇒ (14 + 5 + 5 + 20 = 44) – (16 + 7 = 23) →44 – 23 = 21
Thus code for NEET-PG = 21
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
43. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
12 : 18 :: 80 : ?
A. 125 B. 100
C. 120 D. 122
Ans. C
Sol. 6 × 2 = 12 and 6 × 3 = 18
Similarly,
40 × 2 = 80 and 40 × 3 = 120
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
44. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.
ART, DTU, ?, JXW, MZX, PBY
A. MMT B. KUU
C. FBB D. GVV
Ans. D
Sol. Given series follows the pattern given below:

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

45. Arrange the given words in sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
i. Treadmill ii. Treason
iii. Treacherous iv. Tread
A. ii, iii, iv, i B. iii, iv, ii, i
C. iii, iv, i, ii D. i, ii, iii, iv
Ans. C
Sol. Arranging words in the order which they appear in the dictionary:
iii. Treacherous
iv. Tread
i. Treadmill
ii. Treason
Hence, option C is the correct response.

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46. Nikhil is the father-in-law of Tara. Tara is the wife of Rahul. How is Rahul's brother related
to Nikhil?
A. Brother B. Father
C. Son D. Father-in-law
Ans. C
Sol.

Rahul’s brother will be the son of his father, who is Nikhil.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
47. In the following question, select the related group of letters from the given alternatives.
WD : TF :: TG : ?
A. QR B. IQ
C. QI D. IP
Ans. C
Sol. There are 26 alphabets in English and if we assign numbers to each and every alphabet
starting from ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C', etc., it will appear to be:
A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4……. likewise, till Z=26
And, if we observe the difference between the respective alphabet in the series given above:
W–3=T
D+2=F
Likewise,
T–3=Q
G+2=I
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
48. Read the following information and answer the questions given below it:
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
In the expression G + H – I ÷ J = K, how is H related to K.
A. Aunt B. Mother
C. Nephew D. Can’t be determined
Ans. A

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Sol.

K is the child of J who is I’s brother which means I is the uncle of K.

Since H is the wife of I. therefore, H is the aunt of K.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
49. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Hardware : Mouse :: Software : ?
A. Stylus B. Unix
C. Mother Board D. CPU
Ans. B
Sol. A Mouse is hardware in the computer system. Similarly, Unix is the software in the computer
system and others are hardware.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
50. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
17, 32, 60, 114, 220, ?
A. 598 B. 490
C. 430 D. 394
Ans. C
Sol. Given series follows the pattern given below:
17*2-2=32
32*2-4=60
60*2-6=114
114*2-8=220
220*2-10=430
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
51. What is value of 1 light year?
A. 1.46 × 1015 m B. 9.46 × 1015 m
C. 5.50 × 1015 m D. 9:50 × 1015 m
Ans. B
Sol. • A light-year is a unit of distance.
• The value of 1 light year is 9.46 × 1015 m.
• A light-year is the distance that light travels in vacuum in one Julian year.
52. What is the tenure of Judge in the International Court of Justice?
A. 5 B. 6
C. 8 D. 9

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Ans. D
Sol. ● The tenure of Judge in the International Court of Justice is 9 years.
● The 15 judges are selected by the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council from
a list of people nominated by the national groups in the Permanent Court of Arbitration.
● The International Court of Justice was established in 1945 & headquartered in Hague.
53. Xenon is an element of which group in periodic table?
A. 12 B. 15
C. 18 D. 20
Ans. C
Sol. • Xenon is an element of Group 18 of Periodic Table.
• It has atomic number 54 & placed in Fifth Period. 132
Xe is its major isotope.
• It was discovered by Sir William Ramsay and Morris Travers in 1898.
• Xenon is used in flash lamps and arc lamps and as a general anaesthetic.
54. Who started the newspaper ‘Somprakash’?
A. Raja Rammohan Rai B. Dadabhai Naroji
C. WC Banerjee D. Ishwarchandra Vidhyasagar
Ans. D
Sol. The Bengali newspaper ‘Somprakash’ was started by Ishwarchandra Vidhyasagar.
• Dwarkanath Vidyabhushan was the editor of this newspaper.
• The focus of his social reform was women especially on widow remarriage and child
marriage, due to his efforts The Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act was enacted in 1856.
• Other books authored by IC Vidhyasagar are – Bodhadoy, Borno Porichoy, Kotha mala,
etc.
55. The number of protons and neutrons in protium is respectively _____ & _____.
A. 1,1 B. 1,2
C. 1,0 D. 0,1
Ans. C
Sol. * The number of protons and neutrons in protium is one and zero respectively. In it one
electron is also present.
* It is because it contains only one proton and no neutron in nucleus it is named as
Protium. Protium is the most abundant form of hydrogen.
* Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are three most general isotopes of Hydrogen.
56. Which of the following government entity will launch a digital payments index (DPI) by July
2020?
A. SEBI B. Income Tax Department
C. RBI D. Finance Ministry
Ans. C

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Sol. • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will launch a digital payments index (DPI) by July 2020.
• This index will indicate the level of digitalization prevailing in the country.
• Digital Payments Index (DPI) will help the regulator and government to understand the
adoption of digital payments in the country.
57. Which of the following determines the nature of an enzyme?
A. Lipid B. Vitamin
C. Protein D. Carbohydrate
Ans. C
Sol. • All known Enzymes are proteins molecule.
• Enzymes are biological molecules that significantly speed up the rate of the chemical
reactions that take place within cells.
• They are vital for life and serve a wide range of important functions in the body, such as
aiding in digestion and metabolism.
58. What is the starter of a flourescent tubelight?
A. Transformer B. Transistor
C. Capacitor D. None
Ans. C
Sol. • Capacitor is the starter of a fluorescent tubelight.
• Capacitor and bimetallic contact inside the starter along with choke coil generate the
high voltage across tube light to ionise the gas inside the tube and make it ON.
59. Which is the lower-most layer of the atmosphere?
A. Exosphere B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere D. Troposphere
Ans. D
Sol. Troposphere is the lower most layer of earth’s atmosphere.
• It extends to 18km at Equator and 8kms at Poles.
• The temperature decreases as we go upward in Troposphere.
• The temperature decreases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for every 165 m of height.
This is called Normal Lapse Rate.
60. When is World Hypertension Day celebrated?
A. 23rd January B. 17th May
C. 16th February D. 14th April
Ans. B
Sol. • World Hypertension day is celebrated annually on the 17th May.
• It is celebrated to promote the public awareness of the importance of monitoring blood
pressure with being aware of its natural levels.
• World Hypertension Day 2019 was celebrated with the theme 'Know Your Number'.

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61. Musoorie hill station is located in which hill range?

A. Aravalli Range B. Himalayan Range
C. Vindhya Range D. Satpura Range
Ans. B
Sol.
• Mussorie hill station is situated in Uttrakhand.
• The hill station is in the foothills of the Garhwal Himalayan range.
• Mussoorie is popularly known as the Queen of the Hills.
62. The 'Instrument of Accession' of Jammu and Kashmir State into the Union of India was
signed by _______.
A. Sheikh Abdullah B. Farooq Abdullah
C. Hari Singh D. Hanumant Singh
Ans. C
Sol. • The 'Instrument of Accession' of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) state into the Union of India
was signed by the Maharaja of J&K, Hari Singh.
• Pakistan entered into the standstill agreement but invaded Kashmir from north with an
army of soldiers and tribesmen carrying weapons. In the early hours of 24 th October, 1947,
thousands of tribal pathans invaded Kashmir.
• On the very next day, Maharaja Hari Singh fled from Srinagar and arrived Jammu, where
he signed the Instrument of Accession of J&K.
63. Which of the following element is not present in Gun Metal Alloy?
A. Copper B. Zinc
C. Tin D. Iron
Ans. D
Sol. 1. Iron is not present in Gun Metal Alloy. Gun Metal contains -88% copper, 8–10% tin, 2–
4% zinc and 1% Lead.
2. It has applications in making statues, making of valves, pumps, pipes etc and in making
of bearings.
3. It can withstand atmospheric, steam, and seawater corrosion and due to which it has
diverse applications.
64. Vienna is located on the banks of which river?
A. Thaya river B. Mur river
C. Gurk river D. Danube river
Ans. D
Sol. • Vienna is the capital city of Austria.
• It is situated on the banks of the Danube river.
• Vienna is also described as Europe's cultural capital.
• The Danube river is the second-longest river in Europe.
• It begins in the Black Forest in Germany and flows east to the Danube Delta on the
western coast of the Black Sea.

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65. Who became the first Indian woman footballer to play professionally in the world?
A. Aditi Chauhan B. Anju Tamang
C. Bala Devi D. Sanju Yadav
Ans. C
Sol.
• In January 2020, Bala Devi from Manipur Police becomes the first Indian woman to
become a professional footballer in the world.
• She has signed an 18-month deal with Scottish club Rangers Women’s FC on 29th
January 2020.
• She has the top scorer in the Indian Women's League for the past two seasons.
• She has also been named as All India Football Federation (AIFF) Women's Player of the
Year twice, in 2015 and 2016.
66. Which of the following country is the largest producer of aluminum in the World?
A. China B. Italy
C. India D. Russia
Ans. A
Sol. • China is the world’s largest aluminum producing country in the world.
• China’s production of aluminum has surged from around 16 million metric tonnes in 2010
to a whopping 32 million metric tonnes 2017.
• Russia ranks second, Canada third and India fourth in the world in terms of aluminum
production.
67. Vernacular press act was passed during the time of _____.
A. Lord Ripon B. Lord Lytton
C. Lord Dufferin D. Lord Curzon
Ans. B
Sol. • Vernacular press act was passed during the time of Lord Lytton.
• This act targeted the vernacular newspapers and had provisions related to restriction of
news to be printed in newspapers, prior permission of British Administration for news
publishing etc.
68. The 2024 Olympic Games logo unveiled in which city?
A. Paris B. Berlin
C. Tokyo D. Delhi
Ans. A
Sol. * 2024 Olympic Games logo unveiled in Paris.
* The 2024 Olympic is scheduled to take place from 26 July to 11 August 2024 in Paris,
France.
* Paris will become second city after London to host Olympics three times.
* These will be the sixth Olympic Games hosted by France including three summer and
three winter Olympic games.

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69. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about financial emergency?
A. 360 B. 350
C. 340 D. 330
Ans. A
Sol.
• Article 360: Provisions as to financial emergency.
• If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or
credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a
Proclamation make a declaration to that effect.
70. On February 6, 2020, The President of India Ram Nath Kovind presented the International
Gandhi Awards for Leprosy to__________.
A. Dr. Ravi Sen B. Surendra Bhargava
C. Dr. N.S. Dharmashaktu D. Dr. M.V. Subramanian
Ans. C
Sol. • The President of India Ram Nath Kovind presented the International Gandhi Awards for
Leprosy to Dr. N.S. Dharmashaktu.
• President awarded him under the Individual category and The Leprosy Mission Trust
under the institutional category on 6 February 2020.
• Followed by Brazil and Indonesia, India has the highest number of new leprosy cases in
the world.
71. What is the focal length of a lens if its power is -4:
A. 4 m B. -0.25 m
C. -40 m D. -25 m
Ans. B
Sol. • Power of a lens is the reciprocal of focal length that is expressed in metres
i.e. P= 1/f, where P=Power and f= Focal length
-> f= 1/P
-> f=1/(-4)= -0.25 m
72. What is full form of FRBMA?
A. Financial Responsibility and Budget Management Act
B. Financial Reinforcement and Budget Management Act
C. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
D. Financial Responsibility and Budget Monitoring Act
Ans. C
Sol. •FRBMA stands fo rFiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
•The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA) was passed in 2003
with an aim to reduce India's fiscal deficit, institutionalize financial discipline, improve
macroeconomic management of budget and strengthen fiscal prudence.

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73. The formation of Ammonia is known as _____________.

A. Contact Process B. Haber Process
C. Mitchell Process D. Hydrogenation
Ans. B
Sol. • The formation of Ammonia is known as Haber Process. In this Process ammonia is
produced from Hydrogen and Nitrogen.
• Potassium hydroxide is added to it as a promoter which is basically a substance to
increases its efficiency.
• Ammonia is used in fertilizers, pharmaceuticals, fermentation & as a cleaner.
74. In January 2020, the Indian states namely Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura celebrated
their Statehood Day on_______.
A. 26 January B. 21 January
C. 18 January D. 12 January
Ans. B
Sol. ● Indian states namely Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura celebrated their Statehood Day
on 21 January.
● On 21 January 1972, all three states became full-fledged states under the North Eastern
Region (Reorganization) Act, 1971.
75. Who won nobel prize for peace in 2019?
A. Peter Handke B. Abiy Ahmed
C. Kazuo Ishiguro D. Rainer Weiss
Ans. B
Sol. * Abiy Ahmed won nobel prize for peace in 2019.
* Abiy Ahmed is Prime Minister of Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia since 2018.
* Abiy was awarded the 2019 Nobel Peace Prize for his work in ending the 20-year post-
war territorial stalemate between Ethiopia and Eritrea.
76. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by _______.
A. All members of Legislative assembly
B. All members of Legislative assembly and legislative council
C. Elected members of the legislative assembly
D. Elected members of the legislative council
Ans. C
Sol.
• Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Assemblies of
States and Union territories in accordance with the system of proportional representation
by means of the single transferable vote.

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77. Tawa project is a river project, located in which state of India?

A. Tamil Nadu B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Telangana D. Madhya Pradesh

Ans. D

Sol. • Tawa Reservoir is a reservoir on the Tawa River in central India.

• It is located in Itarsi of Hoshangabad District of Madhya Pradesh.

• The reservoir was formed by the construction of the Tawa Dam.

• Its construction was started in 1958 and was completed in 1978.

• Tawa Reservoir forms the western boundary of Satpura National Park and Bori Wildlife

Sanctuary.

78. Pravasi Bhartiya Kendra to be renamed as________.

A. Arun Jaitley Bhartiya Pravasi Kendra

B. Sardar Patel Pravasi Kendra

C. Sushma Swaraj Bhawan

D. Swaraj Kendra

Ans. C

Sol. • In February 2020, the Government of India renamed Pravasi Bhartiya Kendra in New

Delhi as Sushma Swaraj Bhawan.

• Government has also renamed the Foreign Service Institute to Sushma Swaraj Institute

of Foreign Service.

• After Indira Gandhi, Sushma Swaraj was the second woman to hold the External Affairs

Ministry. She was popularly known as the People’s Minister.

79. Who was the First woman union minister?

A. Vijayalakshmi Pandit B. Amrit Kaur

C. Gayatri Devi D. Indira Gandhi

Ans. B

Sol. • Amrit Kaur was the First Woman Union Minister.

• She was the first health minister of India and served for ten years in the capacity.

• She was a part of Constituent Assembly and a member of Sub-Committee on Fundamental

Rights and Sub-Committee on Minorities.

• In 1950, she was elected the president of the World Health Assembly.

80. Kunwar Singh led the revolt of 1857 in which state?

A. Maharashtra B. Bengal

C. Bihar D. Punjab

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Ans. C
Sol. * Kunwar Singh led the Indian Rebellion of 1857 in Bihar.
* He led a select band of armed soldiers against the troops under the command of the
British East India Company.
* He was the chief organiser of the fight against the British in Bihar.
81. Knot is a unit of which of the following quantity?
A. Distance B. Velocity
C. Force D. Torque
Ans. B
Sol. Knot is a unit of speed which is equal to nautical mile per hour.
• The knot is a non-SI unit.
• The ISO standard symbol for the knot is kn.
• Nautical miles and knots are convenient units to use when navigating an aircraft or ship.
82. Who married the Lichchhavi princess Kumara Devi?
A. Srigupta B. Samudragupta
C. Chandragupta I D. Chandragupta II
Ans. C
Sol. Chandragupta I (AD 319-335) married the Lichchhavi princess Kumara Devi.
• He issued the coins in the joint names of himself, his queen Kumara Devi and the
Lichchhavi nation which was known as 'Dinaras'.
• He also issued gold coins in his period.
• He was the first Gupta king to adopt the title of Maharajadhiraj.
• He was the first important king of Gupta dynasty.
83. Rh factor of blood groups was dicovered by ______.
A. Weiner and Treviranus B. Landsteiner and Demock
C. Landsteiner and Johnson D. Landsteiner and Wiener
Ans. D
Sol. • Rh factor of blood groups was dicovered by Landsteiner and Wiener in 1937.
• The term "Rh" was originally an abbreviation of "Rhesus factor."
•Since that time a number of distinct Rh antigens have been identified, but the first and
most common one, called RhD, causes the most severe immune reaction and is the primary
determinant of the Rh trait.
84. The recent Defence Expo,2020 held at which place?
A. Chennai B. Pune
C. Bhopal D. Lucknow
Ans. D

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Sol. Recently the 11th edition of Defence Expo was held at Lucknow, from 5th to 9th February,

2020.

● The 10th edition of Def Expo was held in Chennai in 2018.

● The Defence Expo is a presentation and exhibition of new technologies, technological

solutions, and it is attended by international dignitaries.

● One of the two Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) of India is planned in Uttar Pradesh.

The other DIC is proposed in Tamil Nadu.

● The fifth India Russia Military Industry Conference was held on the sidelines of the

event.

85. In Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award, the cash incentive awarded in ........... lakh?

A. 5 B. 7

C. 7.5 D. 9.5

Ans. C

Sol. In Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan award a cash incentive of 7.5 lakh rupees is awarded.

• Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan award is the highest sports honour in country.

• It was started in 1991-92, and in 2019 Bajrang punia and Deepa Malik was given the

award.

• It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

• The first recipient of the award was Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand.

86. In January 2020, which of the following state government launched the Amma Vodi

scheme?

A. Tamil Nadu B. Karnataka

C. Odisha D. Andhra Pradesh

Ans. D

Sol. • On 9th January 2020, the Andhra Pradesh State government launched the Amma Vodi

scheme.

• Amma Vodi can be translated as 'mother's lap' in Telugu.

• The scheme will be implemented on 26 January 2020.

• Under the scheme, mothers and guardians of school-going children from lower-income

groups will receive financial assistance of Rs.15,000 annually.

87. The Shanghai Cooperation Organization has how many members?

A. 5 B. 6

C. 7 D. 8

Ans. D

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Sol. The Shanghai Cooperation Organization has 8 members.

• The current members of SCO are given below as follows:
Kazakhstan
Kyrgyzstan
Tajikistan
Uzbekistan
Russia
China
India
Pakistan
• SCI was established in 2003 and its headquarters are located at Beijing.
• India and Pakistan joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit in Astana,
Kazakhstan.
88. Saga Dawa festival is celebrated in which state?
A. Nagaland B. Sikkim
C. Uttrakhand D. Tamil Nadu
Ans. B
Sol. Saga Dawa festival is celebrated in Sikkim.
• It is celebrated on full moon day of Saga Dawa month of Tibetan Calendar.
• The Saga Dawa month falls between May and June and is known as ‘Month of Merits’.
• The festival is celebrated to commemorate the birth, life and death of Buddha.
• The communities who celebrate this festival have to follow three teachings during the
month- Generosity, Morality and Meditation.
89. What is the chemical name of slaked lime?
A. Calcium Nitrate B. Sodium Chloride
C. Calcium Oxide D. Calcium Hydroxide
Ans. D
Sol. • Calcium hydroxide is also called slaked lime. Its chemical formula is Ca(OH)2.
• It is a colorless crystal or white powder, and produced when quicklime is mixed, or slaked
with water.
90. ‘British India Society’ was founded by _______.
A. William Jones B. William Adam
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy D. Dwarkanath Tagore
Ans. B
Sol. British India Society was founded in 1839 by William Adam.
• In 1841, the society started printing a newspaper ‘British Indian Advocate’.
• With Efforts of George Thomson, Bengal British India Society was founded in 1843.
• The idea was to secure the welfare, and advance the interests of all classes.

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91. The new coronavirus is officially named as ______ by World Health Organization (WHO).
A. Covid-19 B. Virus-2020
C. DFH-88 D. Corona-18
Ans. A
Sol. • The World Health Organization (WHO) has officially named the new coronavirus as
Covid-19.
• It is the shortened version of coronavirus disease 2019.
• Coronavirus was first identified in the 1960s.
• This virus can infect both humans and animals.
92. Human Development Index is released by?
A. UNDP B. WB
C. IMF D. WEF
Ans. A
Sol. The Human Development Index is developed by United Nations Development Programme.
• It is a part of Human Development Report published by UNDP.
• The focus of the 2019 Report is on ‘Inequality in Human Development’.
• Human development index is measured on the basis of three basic dimensions, which
are-
A long and healthy life,
Access to knowledge, and
A decent standard of living.
93. Which of the following state government will issue a separate identity card for the
transgender community?
A. Rajasthan B. Kerala
C. Maharashtra D. Uttar Pradesh
Ans. A
Sol. • Rajasthan state government will issue a separate identity card for the transgender
community.
• The move aims to support the transgender community to get the benefit of government
jobs and all government schemes.
• The announcement was made by the Social Justice and Empowerment Minister Master
Bhanwarlal Meghwal in February 2020.
94. Which of the following city is the capital of Hungary?
A. Berlin B. Riga
C. Budhapest D. Prague
Ans. C

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Sol. * The capital of Hungary is Budapest.

* Hungary is a European country. Budapest is the most populous city of Hungary,
* The Great Hungarian Plain lies in it and it includes 56% of the country’s total land.
* It is an Alpha − global city with strengths in commerce, finance, media, art, fashion,
research, technology, education, and entertainment.
95. The 43rd session of the governing council of the International Fund for Agricultural
Development (IFAD) was held in ______.
A. New Delhi B. Tokyo
C. Rome D. Dhaka
Ans. C
Sol. • The 43rd session of the governing council of the International Fund for Agricultural
Development (IFAD) was held in Rome, Italy.
• It was held from 11-12 February 2020.
• The theme of the session is "Investing in sustainable food systems to end hunger by
2030".
• IFAD was established in 1974 at the World Food Conference.
96. What is the full form of HTTP?
A. Hardware Transfer Protocol B. Hypertext Transfer Printer
C. Hyper tool Transfer Protocol D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Ans. D
Sol. • The full form of HTTPS is Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure.
• HTTP is used for secure communication over a computer network. The protocol is also
referred as TLS. Netscape Communications created HTTPS in 1994 for its Netscape
Navigator web browser.
• HTTPS connections were primarily used for payment transactions on the World Wide Web,
e-mail and for sensitive transactions in corporate information systems.
97. What is the rank of India in Democracy Index 2019?
A. 41st B. 42nd
C. 58th D. 51st
Ans. D
Sol. ● India ranked 51st in the Democracy Index 2019.
● The index is based on the functioning of government, electoral process and pluralism,
civil liberties, political participation, and political culture.
● Norway topped EIU's index with a score of 9.87.
● The Democracy Index is prepared by a UK-based company Economist Intelligence Unit
(EIU).

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98. Which of the following was NOT a part of the 'Navratna' at Vikram Aditya's court?
A. Surdas B. Vararuchi
C. Kshapandka D. Kalidasa
Ans. A
Sol. * The Navratans of Vikramaditya’s court are nine novel courtiers representing different
fields of excellence. Mughal emperor Akbar also had nine jewels or navaratan in his court.
* The Navratans present in Vikramaditya's were -Amarasimha, Dhanvantari, Ghatakarpara,
Kalidasa, Kshapanaka, Shanku, Varahamihira, Vararuchi and Vetala-Bhatta.
* Kalidas was eminent classical Sanskrit scholar. Malavikagnimitram and
Abhijnanasakuntalam are two of his best works.
* Kālidāsa is the author of two epic poems, Raghuvaṃsa and Kumārasambhava.
99. Who is known as the father of Modern Hindi Literature?
A. Premchand B. Hazari Prasad Dwivedi
C. Ramdhari Singh Dinkar D. Bhartendu Harishchandra
Ans. D
Sol. Bhartendu Harishchandra is known as the father of modern Hindi Literature.
• His major poetry creations are- Bhakta Sarvagya, Prem Malika, Madhumukul, Varsha
Vinod, Vinay prem Pachasa etc.
• The period from 1857 to 1900 is known as the Bharatendu era due to the vast literary
contribution of Bharatendu.
• He wrote: “Andher Nagari, Chaupat Raja, taka ser bhaaji, take ser khaja”.
100. Which is the smallest cell in human body?
A. Sperm cell B. Ovum cell
C. Nerve cell D. Blood cell
Ans. A
Sol. • Sperm cell is the smallest cell in human body. Sperm cells are gametes that are produced
in the testicular organ of male human being.
• Sperm cells carry a total of 23 chromosomes that are a result of a process known as
meiosis. The general morphology of sperm cells consists of the following parts:
a) Distinctive head
b) Midpiece (body)
c) Tail
101. The steel beam of light section placed in plain cement concrete are called
A. filler joists B. concrete joists
C. simple joists D. joists
Ans. B

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Sol. Concrete joist construction consists of a monolithic combination of cast in place, uniformly
spaced ribs. The joist is to attach an outside wall. Then span to an inside wall. The concrete
and joist combined.
102. Which of the below is not a preliminary consideration for building a foundation?
A. bearing capacity of soil B. ground water condition
C. settlement control D. soil organisms
Ans. D
Sol. Bearing capacity of soil, ground water conditions and settlement control all are very
important parameters to be considered while selecting the right foundation. Every soil
contains organisms, foundation should be able to withstand their activities.
103. A sample of cement is said to be sound when it does not contain free
A. lime B. silica
C. iron oxide D. alumina
Ans. A
Sol. Soundness of cement is the ability of a hardened paste to retain its volume after setting.
Unsoundness of cement is due to presence of excessive amount of hard-burned free lime
or magnesia.
The test used for determining soundness of cement is known as “Le chatelier apparatus
test.”
104. Which of the following compounds of Portland cement reacts immediately with the water
and set early?
A. Dicalcium silicate B. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
C. Tricalcium aluminate D. Tricalcium silicate
Ans. C
Sol. Tricalcium Aluminate reacts most strongly with water of all the calcium aluminates. Its
hydration leads to the phenomenon of "flash set" (instantaneous set), and a large amount
of heat is generated. To avoid this flash set gypsum is added to maintain required setting
times.
105. What is the unit of measurement for steel reinforcement?
A. Number B. Kilograms
C. Running meter D. Quintal
Ans. D
Sol. Minimum quantity of steel to be ordered is in terms of quintals. However, for large units
this may extend upto metric tons.
106. PSC stands for:
A. Post-Stressed Concrete B. Post-Strained Concrete
C. Pre-Stressed Concrete D. Pre-strained Concrete

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Ans. C
Sol. Prestressed concrete is a structural material that allows for predetermined, stresses to
be placed in members to counteract the stresses that occur when they are subject to
loading. It combines the high strength compressive properties of concrete with the high
tensile strength of steel.
107. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick, is known as
A. Kneading B. Pugging
C. Moulding D. Tempering
Ans. A
Sol. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick, is known as
Kneading.
108. The minimum quantity of cement content that is needed in 1 m 3 of a reinforced concrete
which is not directly exposed to weather is about (in kg) ______.
A. 200 B. 250
C. 300 D. 350
Ans. C
Sol. As per IS 456:2000
The minimum quantity of cement content that is needed in 1 m 3 of a reinforced concrete
which is not directly exposed to weather is about (in kg)= 300

109. The modular ratio of M20 concrete having permissible compressive stress as is
A. 31.11 B. 13.33
C. 10.98 D. 0.075
Ans. B

Sol. Modular ratio,

where is the permissible compressive stress.

For M20,

110. As per IS 456 : 2000, for sea water garde of concrete lower than which of the following
shall not be used in reinforced concrete:
A. M20 B. M30
C. M35 D. M40
Ans. B
Sol. For sea water grade of concrete Iover than M30 shall not be used in reinforced concrete.
111. Durability of concrete is proportional to ______.
A. sand content B. water-cement ratio
C. aggregate ratio D. cement-aggregate ratio

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Ans. D
Sol. Durability of concrete is proportional to cement-aggregate ratio
While water cement ratio inversely proportional to strength.
112. ______ is the top most part of building which provides covering to the entire assembly and
the occupants.
A. Roof B. Ceiling
C. Coping D. Parapet wall
Ans. A
Sol. Roof is one of the most important building structures which provides safety and protect
occupants from sun light, storms and rain. Basic types of a room designs are Flat roof, Shed
roof, Gable roof, Hip roof, etc.
113. The unbroken series of steps between landing is called _______
A. Flight B. Going
C. Head room D. Baluster
Ans. A
Sol. Going is the horizontal projection between the first and the last riser of an inclined flight.
Flight is the unbroken series of steps between landing. head room is measured vertically
from the sloped line adjoining the tread nosing or from the floor surface of the landing.
Baluster is a short decorative pillar forming part of a series supporting a rail or coping.
114. Window sills in residential houses are normally kept at
A. 83 to 90 cm above the floor level B. 80 to 90 cm above the floor level
C. 78 to 88 cm above the floor level D. 75 to 85 cm above the floor level
Ans. B
Sol. Window sills in residential houses are normally kept at 80 to 90 cm above the floor level.
115. Out of the following which may be termed as an unstratified Rock ?
A. Sandstone B. Limestone
C. Marble D. Slate
Ans. C
Sol. Sandstone, limestone and slate are examples of stratified rocks while granite, marble, trap
are examples of unstratified rocks.
116. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. The percentage of voids in the aggregate after proper compaction is called the
angularity number
B. Angular aggregate are superior to rounded aggregate
C. The surface texture depends upon the hardness, grain size, free structure and the
structure of the rock
D. All options are correct

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Ans. D
Sol. Angularity number of an aggregate is the amount (to the higher whole number) by which
the percentage of voids in it after compacting in a prescribed manner exceeds 33. The value
of angularity number generally lies between 0 & 11. In road construction angularity number
of 7 – 10 is generally preferred.
117. Sensitivity analysis is a study of
A. Comparison of profit and loss
B. Comparison of assets and liabilities
C. Changes in output due to change in input
D. Economics of costs and benefits of the project
Ans. A
118. Consider the following statements:
Resource levelling means
1) Economical utilization of resources
2) Gradual increase in resources
3) Adjustment of resources to have the least variations
4) Complete revamping of resources to suit the requirements
5) Validating network depending on resource constraints
Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 3 and 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. C
119. A simply supported beam of length L is applied with a varying load of where L is

the length of the span and x is the distance from the free end, then the value of
maximum bending moment is

A. sagging B. hogging

C. sagging D. hogging

Ans. D

Sol.

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120. If the maximum deflection of the following beam is 2 mm, then find out the size of the
square beam which is loaded as shown in figure. Take E = 25000 N/mm 2.

A. 235 mm B. 125 mm
C. 90 mm D. 295 mm
Ans. A
Sol. Standard maximum deflection for a beam hinged at both ends and moment applied at
one end,

121. According to the parallel axis theorem, moment of inertia w.r.t. any axis parallel to the
centroidal axis is equal to
A. Sum of moment of inertia w.r.t. the Centroidal axis and product of area and square of
distance between two axes
B. Moment of inertia w.r.t. the centroidal axis
C. Polar moment of inertia
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Sol. It is the statement of the parallel axis theorem.
122. Pedestal is a compression member, the effective length of which does not exceed
A. two times the least lateral dimension
B. three times the least lateral dimension
C. 2.5 times the least lateral dimension
D. 1.5 times the least lateral dimension
Ans. B
Sol. Pedestal is a compression member, the effective length of which does not exceed three
times the least lateral dimension

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123. To prevent failure of ductile material the maximum shear stress is : ( fu is ultimate
strength):
fu
A. B. 2fu
3

C. 3fu D. 3fu

Ans. A
Sol. From shear strain energy theory, the Maximum shear stress to prevent ductile failure is
fu
given by,
3

Hint: Check the distortion energy per unit volume and apply the pure shear
condition.(refer any standard textbook)
124. The effective width bf of flange of a continuous T — beam in a floor system is given by
Lo
bf = + bw + 6Df where Lo represents the
6

A. Distance between points of contraflexure in a span

B. Effective span of beam
C. Clear span of beam
D. Spacing between beams
Ans. A
Sol. For continuous T — beams,
Lo
bf = + bw + 6Df Where,, = effective width of the flange bf
6

Lo = Distance between points of zero

moments in the beam
bw = breadth of the web
Df = thickness of flange.
125. Flexural shear failure occurs under:
A. large shear force and less bending moment
B. large bending moment and less shear force
C. crushing of concrete
D. sudden application of load
Ans. B
Sol. Flexural shear failure occurs under large bending moment and less shear force, which
occurs normally at closer to 90 °with horizontal. When flexural crack occurs in
combination with a diagonal tension crack, the crack is sometimes called flexural shear
crack.

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126. Material following Hooke’s Law have:-

A. Linear Stress-Strain Curve B. Curvi-Linear Stress-Strain Curve

C. Parabolic Stress-Strain Curve D. (a) & (b) Both

Ans. A

Sol. Hooke’s law states that within elastic limit stress for most of the materials is proportional

to the strain.

127. A cantilever of span ‘l’ has a load P acting at the free end. The bending moment at free end

will be

A. 0 B. Pl

C. –Pl D. Pl/2

Ans. A

Sol.

128. The shear force is usually associated with:

A. Bending moment B. Torsional moment

C. Normal thrust D. Both A & B

Ans. D

Sol. Shear force can be obtained by differentiating the bending moment and it also developed

due to torsion.

129. The bending moment (M) is constant over a length segment (I) of a beam. The shearing

force will also be constant over this length and is given by

A. M/I B. M/2I

C. M/4I D. none of these

Ans. D

Sol.

As, Shear Force at any point in the beam is equal to dM/dx at that point.

So, here SF should be zero as slope of BMD is zero.

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130. Column or strut is a compression member, the effective length of which exceeds
A. Three time the least lateral dimension.
B. Two time the least lateral dimension.
C. Four time the least lateral dimension.
D. 2.5 time the least lateral dimension.
Ans. A
Sol. Column or strut is a compression member, the effective length of which exceeds three times
the least lateral dimension.
131. The elements of flexibility matrix of a structure
A. Are independent on the choice of co-ordinates.
B. Are always dimensionally homogeneous.
C. Are independent of the choice of co-ordinates.
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. A
Sol. The elements of flexibility matrix are not necessarily dimensionally homogeneous as they
represent either translation or rotation.
132. Which of the following is correct statement?
A. If there is decrease in temperature, there will be corresponding increase in cable
length.
B. Cable length is independent of temperature.
C. If there is increase in temperature, there will be corresponding increase in cable
length.
D. Cable length is proportional to square of temperature.
Ans. C
133. If a two hinged parabolic arch carries a UDL over the left half of the span than the horizontal
thrust at each support will be

A. B.

C. D.

Ans. C
Sol. If a two hinged parabolic arch carries a point load at crown than the horizontal thrust at

each support will be

134. Purlins which carries dead and wind loads over roof trusses is assumed to be:
A. Continuous beam B. Overhanging beam
C. Fixed beam D. Simply supported beam
Ans. A

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Sol. Purlins is like a beam which is kept over roof truss to give support where it acts as
continuous beam when there are two roof truss.

135. Select the correct option for single and multiple cable structure?
A. The use of cable truss with cross web allows reduction in maximum vertical
displacements up to 32%
B. In non uniform distributed load, pre stressing is used by stabilization cable.
C. Maximum vertical displacement can be reduced to 16%, if pre stressing is applied.
D. All of these
Ans. D
Sol. As seen, cable trusses having vertical and inclined suspensions, cross web and single cable
can analyzed as main load bearing structures of suspension bridge, so all above options are
correct.
136. Fixed end of continuous beam is changed by extra span beam in three moment’s equation
using:
A. zero length B. infinite length
C. zero moment of inertia D. none of these
Ans. A
Sol. In case of three moment’s equation, fixed end of continuous beam is changed by additional
span of beam with zero length
137. The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder
A. always occurs at center of span B. always occurs under a wheel load
C. never occurs under a wheel load D. none of the above
Ans. B
Sol. The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder
always occurs under a wheel load.
Because BM is always maximum under the load on a simply supported beam.
138. Flexibility matrix is always a
A. Diagonal matrix B. Square matrix
C. Scalar matrix D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans. B
139. For M 150 mix concrete, according to I.S. specifications, local bond stress is
A. 5 kg/cm2 B. 10 kg/cm2
C. 15 kg/cm2 D. 20 kg/cm2

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Ans. B
Sol. Option D should be correct.
The design bond stress for M50 and above grade concrete is 1.9N/mm 2
That equals to 19.36kg/cm2
140. keeping concrete wet to enable it to attain full strength is known as
A. curing B. wetting
C. drenching D. quenching
Ans. A
Sol. Curing of concrete is defined as the process of maintaining the moisture and temperature
conditions of concrete for hydration reaction to normally so that concrete develops
hardened properties over time. The main components which needs to be taken care are
moisture, heat and time during curing process.
141. The transmission length depends mainly on
A. Diameter and surface characteristic of wire
B. Elastic properties of steel and concrete
C. Coefficient of friction between steel and concrete.
D. All of above.
Ans. D
142. Load factor against cracking is

A.

B.

C. Total BM actually acting × Total BM required to cause cracking

D. 1
Ans. B
143. The phenomena of drying process of contraction concrete refer to:
A. Moisture loss B. Shrinkage of concrete
C. Creep D. Weight loss
Ans. B
Sol. Shrinkage of concrete is due to moisture loss resulting in difference in volume, results in
contraction of concrete on drying and it is based on relative humidity, exposure time,
quantity and type of aggregate.
144. The necessity of high strength concrete in prestressed concrete is due to :
A. Shear and Bonding B. Loading and Unloading
C. Cracking D. Bending
Ans. A

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Sol. High strength concrete is necessary in PSC, as the material offers high resistance in tension,

shear, bond and bearing while loading and unloading, cracking, bending actions are

occuring at the time of transfer of concrete.

145. The purpose of reinforcement in PSC is-

A. To provide adequate bond stress

B. To resist compressive stresses

C. To impart initial tensile stress in concrete

D. None of these

Ans. A

Sol. The purpose of reinforcement in prestressed concrete is to impart initial compressive stress

in concrete and to provide adequate bond stress.

146. For a 600 fillet, the ratio of throat thickness to size of fillet is-

A. 1:√2 B. √3:2

C. 1:2 D. 2:1

Ans. C

Sol. Cos α = throat thickness / size of fillet = t /S

t /S = Cos 600 = 1 /2 = 1:2

147. A propped cantilever beam of span l and constant plastic moment capacity M p carries a

concentrated load at mid-span. The load at collapse will be

A. 2 Mp /l B. 4 Mp /l

C. 6 Mp /l D. 8 Mp /l

Ans. C

Sol. Due to plastic mechanism,

P (L/2) θ = Mp θ + 2 Mp θ

P = 6 Mp /l

148. Which of the following assumptions are correct for ideal beam behaviour?

1) The compression flange of the beam is not restrained from moving laterally

2) The tension flange of the beam is restrained from moving laterally

A. 1 only B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

Sol. Two important assumptions are made for ideal beam behaviour:

1. Compression flange of beam is restrained laterally.

2. Local buckling of elements is prevented.

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149. A beam column for non-sway column in a building frame is subjected to a factored axial
load of 40 kN, factored moment at bottom of column of 35kNm. For ISHB 200, the values
are A = 4750 mm2, yy = 45.1, h = 200 mm, b = 200 mm, bf = 9 mm and the effective
length is 0.7 L. Its buckling load will be
A. 390 kN B. 380 kN
C. 360 kN D. 400 kN
Ans. A
Sol. Equivalent axial load (buckling load), Pe = P + 2Mz /d
= 40 + 2 ×35 /0.2 = 390 kN
150. An increase in compaction effort will lead to which of the following?
A. Decrease in both the optimum moisture content (OMC) and maximum dry density.
B. Decrease in the optimum moisture content (OMC) and increase in the maximum dry
density.
C. Increase in the optimum moisture content (OMC) and decrease in the maximum dry
density.
D. Increase in both the optimum moisture content (OMC) and maximum dry density
Ans. B
Sol. For a given type of compaction, the higher the compactive effort, the higher the maximum
dry unit weight and lower the optimum moisture content.
151. In laboratory compaction tests the optimum moisture contact of soil decreases
A. With increase of compaction energy and with decrease of coarse grains in the soil.
B. With decrease of compaction energy and with increase of coarse grains in the soil.
C. With increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil.
D. With decrease of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil.
Ans. C
Sol.

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As the compaction effort increases we can observe that the MDD increases and OMC decreases

As the coarse particles increases, the MDD is obtained at a lower moisture content.

Moreover If the soil is well graded, it will definitely form a denser matter and if it is gap

graded it will form a less dense mix.

152. Dessication of soil leads to

A. dry soil and increase in swelling properties

B. saturated soil and decrease in swelling properties

C. saturated soil and increase in swelling properties

D. dry soil and decrease in swelling properties

Ans. A

Sol. Dessication of soil means to become free of moisture or dehydrate. So a small amount of

addition of water will lead to increased swelling properties.

153. An isobar is a line which connects all points below the ground surface at which

A. The local ground elevation is same B. The settlement is same

C. The vertical stress is the same D. The ground elevation is varying

Ans. C

Sol. An isobar is a line which connects all points below the ground surface at which the vertical

stress is the same.

154. When a structural load is applied on a soil stratum, which of the following soil types will

have the minimum settlement?

A. Over-consolidated clay stratum B. Clayey site stratum

C. Normally consolidated clay stratum D. Sandy clay stratum

Ans. A

Sol. over consolidated soils have already been stressed upto the present effective stress in the

past whereas the normally consolidated soils are first time stressed upto such effective

stress. Hence settlement in OC soils is less.

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155. Stresses obtained from Bussinesq’s theory are considered reasonably satisfactory in
foundation engineering because
A. They represent stress distribution in inhomogeneous soils below loaded area.
B. They account for anisotropy of soil property
C. They give due regard to plastic behaviour of soils, particularly for settlement analysis
D. They consider elastic soil medium, and the foundations in most cases are quite small
and justify elastic solutions
Ans. D
Sol. Assumptions of Boussinesq theory:
• For soil, the soil mass is elastic, isotropic, homogeneous and semi-infinite.
• The soil is weightless.
• For load, the load is vertical, concentrated acting on the surface.
• Hook’s Low Applied, it is mean that the constant ratio between stress and strain.
156. What does the confining pressure used in tri-axial compression tests on an undisturbed soil
sample represent?
A. The in-situ total normal stress
B. The in-situ total lateral stress
C. The in-situ total effective principal stress
D. The in-situ total shear stress
Ans. B
Sol. As it is horizontal in nature so simulates the actual effect of lateral pressure in the field.
157. Consider the following statements:
The coefficient of permeability k depends upon
1). Void ratio of the soil.
2). duration of flow.
3). Equivalent diameter of the soil grains.
4). Shape of the particle
Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only
Ans. C
Sol. Since permeability is the property governing the ease with which a fluid flows through the
soil it depends on the characteristics of the fluid or permeant as well as those of the soil.
Also,

w e3
K = Cd2e 
 1+e

Note: It doesn't depend on the duration of flow

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158. Compression index developed by Casagrande is

A. Cc = 0.0009(LL+10%) B. Cc = 0.009(LL-10%)
C. Cc = 0.00009(LL+10%) D. Cc = 0.009(LL-9%)
Ans. B
Sol. Cc = 0.009(WL -10%) for undisturbed soil of medium senstivity.
WL is liquid limit.
159. A clay sample has a void ratio 0.54 in dry state. The specific gravity of soil solids is 2.7.
What is the shrinkage limit of the soil?
A. 8.5% B. 10.0%
C. 17.0% D. 20.0%
Ans. D
Sol. At shrinkage limit the soil remains fully saturated,
emin
Ws =  100
G

0.54
=  100 = 20%
2.7

160. In a consolidation test void ratio decreased from 0.80 to 0.70 when the effective stress was
changed form 40 kN/m2 to 80 kN/m2. What is the compression index?
A. 0.14 B. 0.16
C. 0.33 D. 0.66
Ans. C
Sol. Compression Index
e0 – ef
CC =
log ( f / 0 )

0.80 – 0.70
= = 0.33
log (80 / 40 )

161. Which of the following represents the percentage limit of porosity of the compacted sand?
A. 5% to 15% B. 15% to 30%
C. 30% to 40% D. 40% to 50%
Ans. C
Sol.

Description Porosity
Sand; Coarse 0.26-0.43
Sand; Fine 0.29-0.46
Sand/Gravelly Sand; Well Graded; Little to No Fines 0.22-0.42
Sand/Gravelly Sand; Poorly Graded; Little to No Fines 0.23-0.43
Silty Sands 0.25-0.49

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Clayey sands 0.15-0.37

Inorganic Silt/Silty Sand; Slight Plasticity 0.21-0.56
Gravel 0.23-0.38
Gravel/Sand Gravel; Well Graded; Little to No Fines 0.21-0.32
Gravel/Sandy Gravel; Poorly Graded; Little to No Fines 0.21-0.32
Gravel/Silty Sandy Gravel 0.15-0.22
Clayey Gravel/Clayey Sandy Gravel 0.17-0.27
Inorganic Silt; Uniform 0.29-0.52
Clay/Silty Clay/Sandy Clay; Low Plasticity 0.29-0.41
Organic Silt/Silty Clay; Low Plasticity 0.42-0.68
Silty Clay/Sandy Clay 0.2-0.64
Inorganic Silt; High Plasticity 0.53-0.68
Inorganic Clay; High Plasticity 0.39-0.59
Organic Clay; High Plasticity 0.5-0.75

162. Which one of the following is taken as standard load or pressure on crushed stone while
computing CBR values of subgrade soil 2.5 mm penetration?
A. 195.7 kg or 10 kg/cm2 B. 1370.0 kg or 70 kg/cm2
C. 1957.0 kg or 100 kg/cm2 D. 2055.0 kg or 105 kg/cm2
Ans. B
Sol. Standard loads for CBR test are:-

163. The shape of vertical curve used in Indian Railways is

A. Cubic parabola B. Circular curve
C. Spiral D. Lemniscates of Bernoulli
Ans. B
Sol. Shape of transition curve used in Indian Railways is cubic parabola.
Shape of vertical curve used in Indian Railways is circular curve.
164. Pick up the correct option related to transition curve:
A. Deflection angle = 3 x spiral angle
B. Deflection angle = 2 x spiral angle

C. Deflection angle = x spiral angle

D. Deflection angle = x spiral angle

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Ans. C

Sol. Spiral angle =

Deflection =

So, deflection angle = x spiral angle

165. Which of the following is not a hill road classification as per The Border Roads Organisation?
A. Class 6 B. Class 5
C. Class 3 D. National highway
Ans. A
Sol. The border roads organization has classified hill roads as below:
a. National highways
b. Class 9
c. Class 5
d. Class 3
166. In highway construction on super elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from
A. Sides towards the centre
B. Centre towards the sides
C. Lower edge towards the upper edge
D. Upper edge towards the lower edge
Ans. C
Sol. Rolling shall commence at edges and progress towards the centre longitudinally except in
case of super elevated and unidirectional cambered section where rolling shall be done from
lower edge towards higher edge parallel to the centre line of the road.
167. For dense bituminous macadam, bitumen content should be
A. < 4% B. ≤ 4%
C. > 4.5% D. ≥ 4.5%
Ans. B
Sol. For dense bituminous macadam, bitumen content should be ≤ 4%
For bituminous mastic, bitumen content should be ≥ 4.5 %
168. To provide a cant in rails, wooden sleepers are cut to a slope at rail seat, which is known
as:
A. Coning B. Cutting
C. Boxing D. Adzing
Ans. D
Sol. When the rails are tilted then the base plate or sleeper is not placed horizontal. It is laid at
a slope of 1 in 20 towards the inner side, this is known as adzing of sleepers.

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169. Calculate the number of sleepers required for 2 km railway track, if sleeper density is
(n + 2) for broad gauge and the length of one rail for a broad gauge is 13 m.
A. 2200 B. 2310
C. 2430 D. 2050
Ans. B
Sol. No. of sleepers in 2 km rail = (2000 /13) ×2 = 308
No. of sleepers for 13 m rail length = n + 2 = 13 + 2 = 15
So, no. of sleepers in 308 rails = 15 ×308 /2 = 2310
170. The section of the tunnel adopted perfectly in lieu of construction and maintenance in hard
rock tunnels, where the risk of roof failure or collapse caused by external pressure from
water, or from loose or unstable soil conditions on tunnel lining is perfectly non-existent is
A. Circular section B. Segmental roof section
C. Horse-shoe section D. Egg-shaped section
Ans. A
Sol. According to IRC : SP-91, circular sections are structurally best and are commonly used for
underwater tunnels, tunnels through soft ground and for tunnels excavated with TBM.
171. Calculate the capacity (vehicle per hour) of the road when reaction time of the driver is 2
seconds. The design speed is 60 kmph and average length of the vehicle is 6.5 m. Take
coefficient of friction as 0.30
A. 600 B. 653
C. 688 D. 724
Ans. C
Sol. SSD = 0.278 v. t + v2 /254f = 0.278 ×60 ×2 + 602 /254 ×0.30
SSD = 80.6 m, S = 80.6 + 6.5 = 87.1 m
Capacity, C = 1000 V /S = 1000 ×60 /87.1 = 688.16
172. If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon In Southern hemisphere is 163 °, the
magnetic declination at that place is
A. 13 °E B. 13 °W
C. 77 °N D. 17 °E
Ans. D
Sol. Declination = 180o – 163o towards east
Declination = 17o E
173. In the prismatic compass, the graduations start from zero, marked at the _______ end of
the needle and run_______
A. North, clockwise B. South, anticlockwise
C. South, clockwise D. North, anticlockwise
Ans. C

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Sol. Prismatic compass has whole circle bearing system in which reading increases in clockwise
direction from 0 at south end to 90 at west end, 180 at north end and 270 at east end.
174. The construction of optical square is based on the principal of optical
A. Reflection of B. Refraction
C. Double refraction D. Double reflection
Ans. D
Sol. The construction of optical square is based on the principal of double reflection.
175. The plan of a map was photocopied to a reduced size such that a line originally 100mm.
measures 90 mm. The original scale of the plan was 1: 1000. The revised scale is
A. 1 : 900 B. 1 : 1111
C. 1 : 1121 D. 1 : 1221
Ans. B

Sol. Shrinkage factor =

Shrunk Scale = Original scale x Shrinkage factor

Shrunk scale = x =

Shrunk scale = 1:1111

176. Determine duty of water if base period is 150 days and Δ is 1000 mm
A. 1296 ha/cumec B. 129.6 ha/cumec
C. 1.296 ha/cumec D. 12960 ha/cumec
Ans. A

Sol.

When D in ha/cumec
B in days
Δ in m

= 1296 ha/cumec
177. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
A. shorted duration from longer duration
B. longer duration from shorter duration
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Ans. C
Sol. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of shorter duration from longer duration
from longer duration and vice-versa.

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178. The optimum capacity of an irrigation tube well is

A. 0.07 cumec B. 0.08 cumec
C. 0.05 cumec D. 0.10 cumec
Ans. A
Sol. The optimum capacity of an irrigation tube well is 0.07 cumec.
179. The water bearing strata is called
A. An acquifer B. An aquiclude
C. An aquifuge D. Zone of saturations
Ans. A
Sol. A confined aquifer is a water-bearing stratum that is confined or overlain by a rock layer
that does not transmit water in any appreciable amount or that is impermeable.
180. An isochrone is a line on the basin map:-
A. Joining points of having equal reduced levels (R.L)
B. Joining points having equal time of travel of surface-runoff to the catchment outlet
C. Joining points having equal rainfall depth in a given internal
D. Joining points which are at equal distance from the catchment outlet
Ans. B
Sol. An isochrone is a line joining points having equal time of travel of surface-runoff to the
catchment outlet.
181. For consistency of Rainfall Records, which method is used
A. mass curve B. double mass curve
C. Instantaneous rainfall curve D. None of the above
Ans. B
Sol. double mass curve is used for consistency of Rainfall Records
182. The loss of head in a pipe carrying turbulent flow varies:
A. Inversely as the square of the velocity of flow
B. Inversely as the square of the diameter of pipe
C. Directly as the square of the velocity of flow
D. Directly as the velocity of flow
Ans. C
Sol. In turbulent flow, losses are proportional to the square of the fluid velocity, V 2
Three sub-domains pertain to turbulent flow:
In the smooth pipe domain, friction loss is relatively insensitive to roughness.
In the rough pipe domain, friction loss is dominated by the relative roughness and is
insensitive to Reynolds number.
In the transition domain, friction loss is sensitive to both.
fLV2
hf =  hf  V2
2gD

The value of 'f' is different for laminar and turbulent flow.

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183. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. For water at 100 ° Celsius at sea level, the vapour pressure is equal to atmospheric
pressure.
B. Surface energy (or tension) is caused by the force of adhesion between liquid
molecules.
C. Viscosity of a fluid is the property exhibited by it both in static and in dynamic
conditions.
D. Air is 50, 000 times more compressible than water.
Ans. A
Sol. At boiling point the vapour pressure of a fluid becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure.
Water boils at 100oDC therefore at 100oDC at sea level the vapour pressure, is equal to the
atmospheric pressure.
Surface tension is caused by the force of cohesion between liquid molecules. Viscosity is
exhibited by only fluid under dynamic conditions. Air is about 20000 times more
compressible than water.
184. In a pipe network:
A. The algebraic sum of discharges round each elementary circuit must be zero
B. The head at each node must be the same
C. The algebraic sum of the drop in Piezometric head around each elementary circuit is
zero
D. The Piezometric head loss in each line of each circuit is the same
Ans. C
Sol. To maintain continuity at junction,
Total Qin = Total Qout
In a network, algebraic sum of the drop in Piezometric head is zero
185. In model similarity, if gravitational and inertial forces are the only important forces, then
what is the discharge ratio?
Where Lr = ratio of length dimension.

A. L3/2
r B. L1/2
r

C. L5/2
r D. L1/3
r

Ans. C
Sol. If gravitational and inertial forces are the only important forces, then the Froude number
must be the same in the model and prototype. Thus
Vm Vp
=
gLm gLp

But g is same for both model and prototype

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Vm Lm
 =
Vp Lp

 Vr = Lr

Now, Discharge = Area × Velocity

⇒ Qr = Ar × Vr
1/2
 Qr = L2r  (Lr ) = L5/2
r

186. The pressure gradient in the direction of flow is equal to the

A. shear gradient parallel to the direction of flow
B. shear gradient normal to the direction of flow
C. velocity gradient parallel to the direction of flow
D. velocity gradient normal to the direction of the flow
Ans. B
dp d
Sol. =
dx dy

This is Navier-Stokes’ equation for steady incompressible flow.

187. A centrifugal pump will start delivering the liquid only when
A. manometer head is greater than total head
B. head developed tends to exceed the manometric head
C. head developed in a centrifugal pump is due to pressure head only
D. head developed is negligible
Ans. B
Sol. A centrifugal pump will start delivering the liquid only when head developed tends to exceed
the manometric head.
188. The function of an air vessel in a reciprocating pump is to obtain
A. Reduction of suction head
B. Rise in delivery head
C. Continuous supply of water at uniform rate
D. Increase in supply of water
Ans. C
Sol. Air vessel ensures continuous supply of water at a uniform rate in a reciprocating pump. It
results in saving of work against friction
Percentage of work saved during stroke in
(i) single acting pump is 84.8%
(ii) double acting pump is 39.2%
The air vessels change the indicator diagram of the reciprocating pump.

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189. Consider the following statements:

1) Shear stress is maximum at the centre line.

2) Maximum velocity is 3/2 times the average velocity.

3) Discharge varies inversely with the coefficient of viscosity.

4) Slope of hydraulic gradient line increases linearly with the velocity of flow.

Which of the above statements are correct in connection with a steady laminar flow

through a circular pipe?

A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 4

Ans. B

Sol. In a steady laminar flow through circular pipe, the shear stress is maximum at the walls

of the pipe.

Its magnitude is given by

8µV
o =
D

The maximum velocity in such a case is two times the average velocity.

190. The movement of air mass in the case of Tornado can be described as

A. Forced vortex throughout

B. Free vortex throughout

C. Forced vortex at the core and free Vortex Outside

D. Free vortex at the core and forced Vortex outside

Ans. C

Sol. For zero rotation of fluid particles about their respective mass centres, the flow is

irrotational and the vortex is known as irrotational or free vortex. If on the other hand, the

circulatory flow is such that the fluid particles under go rotation about their mass centres,

the flow is rotational and the resulting vortex is known as the forced vortex.

Forced vortex is also known as fly wheel vortex. Free vortex is also known as potential

vortex. A combination of free and forced vortex is known as compound vortex or Rankine

vortex. In a tornado inner core region experiences forced vortex while outer core region

experiences free vortex.

191. What is the depth of waterseal in the traps?

A. < 2.5 cm B. 2.5 – 7.5 cm

C. 7.5 – 12.5 cm D. Not less than 15 cm

Ans. B

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Sol. Traps are the fittings placed at the ends of the soil pipes or the sullage pipes to prevent the
passage of foul gases from the pipes to the outside. This is possible because traps do
enclose or maintain water seal between the pipe and outside. This water depth not allow
gases to escape to the outside of pipe. The efficiency and effectiveness of a trap will depend
upon the depth of water seal. Greater is this depth more effective the trap will be. This
water seal generally varies from 25 mm to 75 mm; 50 mm being quite common is most of
the traps.

192. As recommended by Sichardt, the radius of influence is

A. Inversely proportional to drawdown
B. Linearly proportional to drawdown
C. Independent of drawdown
D. proportional to square root of drawdown
Ans. B
Sol. The radius of influence (R) is commonly known as radius of drawdown, is the radius
measured from the centre of the wall to the point at which drawdown is measured.

It is given by R = 3000S k
Where
R = radius of drawdown
S = drawdown
k = permeability of aquifer soil
193. At the same mean velocity of flow, the ratio of head loss per unit length for sewer pipe
running full to that for the same pipe flowing half-full is:
A. 2.0 B. 1.67
C. 1.0 D. 0.67
Ans. C
194. After which of the following treatment units, the turbidity is maximum?
A. Chlorination B. Primary Sedimentation
C. Flocculation basin D. Secondary Sedimentation
Ans. C

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Sol. Flocculation basin is used for formation of flocs through coagulation. After this process
turbidity is highest. Primary sedimentation causes setting of particles and turbidity reduces.
195. The concentration of OH- ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25oC. what is
the pH of the water sample?
A. 10 B. 11
C. 12 D. 13
Ans. B
Sol. Moles of OH- = (17/17) x 10-3 = 0.001 moles
pOH =-log[OH-] =-log[0.001] = 3
pH+pOH = 14
Hence pH = 14-3 =11
196. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?
A. 300 mg/L B. 320 mg/L
C. 350 mg/L D. 400 mg/L
Ans. B
Sol. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
Molecular weight of glucose=12*6+12*1+16*6=180g
Molecular Weight of Oxygen molecule = 32g
180g glucose requires 6*32 = 192g oxygen
so, 300mg requires 192/180 * 300 = 320mg oxygen
197. In context of water polluted with sewage, what does BOD Signify?
A. Biological oxygen demand B. Bacteriological oxygen demand
C. Biochemical oxygen demand D. Biology of degradation
Ans. C
198. Deep ponds, in which oxygen is absent except perhaps, across a relatively thin surface
layer are called
A. Aerobic ponds B. Anaerobic ponds
C. Facultative lagoons D. Polishing ponds
Ans. B
Sol. Deep ponds are essentially anaerobic.
199. Which one of the following parameters is not included in the routine characterization of
solid waste for its physical composition?
A. Moisture content B. Density
C. particle size analysis D. Energy value
Ans. D

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Sol. The parameters which are included in the routine characterization of solid waste for its
physical composition are particle size analysis, moisture content and density.
Energy content, chemical content are the parameters used in chemical composition
200. For water supply to a medium town, what is the peak factor?
A. 1.5 B. 2.5
C. 3 D. 3.5
Ans. B
Sol. The GOl manual on water supply has recommended the following values of peak factor
depending upon the population.

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