Nucleic acid proteins

1. Which macromolecule is not abundantly found though being of critical importance for biological
mechanism?
a) Proteins
b) Lipids
c) Nucleic acids
d) Polysaccharides
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Though lipids is of essential use in the cell for the formation of cell wall it is a micro
molecule and is generally found in association with either phosphate or polysaccharide. In case of the
other three they are all macromolecules and are of essential use for the cell. For example: proteins such
as, enzymes regulates biological functions, nucleic acids carry genetic information and polysaccharides
functions as either storage of energy or acts as structural polymers.

2. Which of the following is wrongly paired?

a) Proteins – peptide bond
b) Nucleic acid – hydrogen bond
c) Polysaccharide – glycosidic bond
d) Phospholipids –phosphate linkage
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Nucleic acids, that is, DNA and RNA show phosphodiesterase linkage which is the major
type of linkage. Without the phosphodiester bonds between the phosphate and adjacent 3’OH sugar
molecule the backbone will not be formed. Therefore, the nucleotides would not be able to attach and
bond to form a nucleic acid.

3. With respect to nucleosides which of the following is paired correctly?

a) Purine – Adenosine, Thymidine
b) Purine – Guanosine, Thymidine
c) Pyrimidine – Uridine, Cytidine
d) Pyrimidine – Uridine, Adenosine
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As we know purines have a fused ring structure with 9 element backbones ring structure.
They are of two types Adenosine and Guanine. Again, the other three residues cytidine, Thymidine and
Uridine are pyrimidines having a ring structure of 6 elements in the core backbone. Thus the correct pair
among the above options is pyrimidine – uridine, cytidine.

4. Which of the following is not a component of the nucleic acid backbone?

a) Pentose sugar
b) Phosphate group
c) Nucleotide
d) Phosphodiesterase bond
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A nucleic acid backbone is mainly composed of a pentose-phosphate unit which acts as a
monomer. The repeat of this monomer is attached together by the phosphodiesterase linkage, thus,
giving rise to the backbone. The nucleotides attached to the sugar moieties forms the side chain which
gives rise to the hydrogen linkage with its complementary strand.

5. According to Chargaff’s rule the two strands of DNA has ___________

a) Same molecular weight
b) Same amount of A and G
c) Different amount of A and G
d) Different molecular weight
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: According to Chargaff’s rule the two strands have equal number of A and T residues and
equal number of G and C residues. Thus when in one strand A is more automatically in the other T is
more. Thus, A being a pyrimidine has a higher molecular weight than T, which is a purine, and so the two
strands have different molecular weight. The same happens in case of G and C also.

6. In one strand of a double stranded DNA the rate of occurrence of A is 3 times C in consecutive 10
bases. So how many G will be there in 100 base pairs of a DNA duplex?[Consider G=T in one strand].
a) 30
b) 20
c) 40
d) 60
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Let’s consider C = 1
Therefore, A = 3C = (3*1) = 3
Now, A+C = (3+1) = 4
Again G = T [given] And A+C+G+T = 10 [given] Now replacing T with G and putting the value of A+C
We get,
4 + 2G = 10
2G = 6
G = 3, T = 3, A = 3, C = 1
Thus in 100 bases in one strand there are (3*10 = 30) G residues
Now for the complementary strand G = C residues [Chargaff’s rule] Therefore, C = G = 1 residue in every
10 bases
That is, G = 1*10 = 10 in 100 bases
Therefore total number of G residues = 30 + 10 = 40 in 100 base pairs of a DNA duplex.

7. In a diploid organism with 30,000 bases haploid genome contains 23% A residues. What is the number
of G residues in the genome of this organism?
a) 16000
b) 16200
c) 16500
d) 14200
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: By Chargaff’s rule, A = T = 23%
Therefore, G + C = [100 – (A+T)] G + C = [100 – 46] G + C = 54
G = C = 27 [By Chargaff’s rule] Therefore, G = 27%
Now, each cell is diploid thus it contains (2*30,000 = 60,000) bases
So, G = 27% of 60,000
G = 16,200 bases.

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of nucleotide bases?

a) Planar
b) Heterocyclic
c) Aliphatic
d) Ubiquitous
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The nucleotide bases have a 6 member ring structure as one component which is common
for all five bases. Thus, they are considered as aromatic molecules due to the presence of a benzene ring
structure which provides the molecules with an aromatic property.

9. Which of the following factors do not provide to the separation of DNA fragments during
electrophoresis?
a) Chargaff’s rule
b) Matrix density
c) Ethidium bromide
d) Size
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ethidium bromide only helps in tagging the DNA molecules to make the visible under the
UV radiation due to its fluorescence property, but does not take any part in the separation of DNA
molecules during electrophoresis.

10. Which one of the following is not a function of a nucleotide?

a) Nucleic acid monomer
b) Ribozyme
c) Energy carrier molecules
d) Receptors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nucleotides do not form receptor molecules. Receptor molecules are generally
polysaccharide molecules or protein molecules which can have structural configurations. Energy carrying
nucleotide molecules such as ATP helps binding and unbinding of signal molecules to these receptors
thus facilitating different biological functions.

DNA replication
1. DNA replication is
a) Conservative
b) Non-conservative
c) Semi-conservative
d) None

Answer: c
Explanation: Each DNA strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand, producing two new
DNA molecules, each with one new strand and one old strand.

2. Semi-conservative DNA replication was first demonstrated in

a) Drosophila melanogaster
b) Escherichia coli
c) Streptococcus pneumonae
d) Drosophila melanogaster

Answer: a
Explanation: Semi-conservative DNA replication was first demonstrated in E. coli.

3. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanism of DNA replication due to

a) Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer
b) Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strand
c) Discontinuous rather than semi-discontinuous replication
d) Unidirectional rather than semi-discontinuous replication

Answer: c
Explanation: In eukaryotes one strand of DNA is synthesized continuously but the other one is made of
Okazaki fragments.

4. Which of the following is true about DNA polymerase?

a) It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction
b) It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
c) It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
d) It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction

Answer: a
Explanation: DNA pol can synthesize only a new DNA strand not m-RNA. It can do this in the 5’ to 3’
direction.
5. The reaction in DNA replication catalyzed by DNA ligase is
a) Addition of new nucleotides to the leading strand
b) Addition of new nucleotide to the lagging strand
c) Formation of a phosphodiester bond between the 3’-OH of one Okazaki fragment and the 5’-
phosphate of the next on the lagging strand
d) Base pairing of the template and the newly formed DNA strand

Answer: c
Explanation: DNA ligase catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester bond between 3’-OH of one
Okazaki fragment and 5’-phosphate of the next.

6. Which of the following reactions is required for proofreading during DNA replication by DNA
polymerase III?
a) 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
b) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity
c) 3’ to 5’ endonuclease activity
d) 5’ to 3’ endonuclease activity

Answer: b
Explanation: The 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity removes the mispaired nucleotide and the polymerase
begins again. This activity is known as proofreading.

7. Which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication fork?
a) DNA polymerases
b) Helicases
c) Primases
d) Topoisomerases
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Strand separation creates topological stress in the helical DNA structure which is relieved
by the action of topoisomerases.

8. DNA unwinding is done by

a) Ligase
b) Helicase
c) Topoisomerase
d) Hexonuclease

Answer: b
Explanation: These enzymes move along the DNA and separate the strands using chemical energy from
ATP.

9. Which of the following enzymes is the principal replication enzyme in E. coli?

a) DNA polymerase I
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) None of these
Answer: c
Explanation: Only DNA pol III is the principal replication enzyme in E. coli.

10. The enzyme used to join bits of DNA is

a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) Endonuclease
d) Primase

Answer: b
Explanation: DNA ligase can be used to join the nicked sites.

Translation takes place before transcription

1. Translation takes place before transcription.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: According to central dogma of molecular genetics, the first step is DNA replication, the
second is transcription and the last step is translation.

2. Which of the following bacteria can synthesize all of the amino acids required for protein synthesis?
a) E.coli
b) Lactobacillus bravis
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
d) Bacillus subtilis
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Microorganisms differ widely in their ability to synthesize amino acids like E.coli can
synthesize all of the amino acids required for protein synthesis, whereas lactic acid bacteria cannot.

3. RNAase is a single polypeptide chain of __________ amino acid residues.

a) 2
b) 350
c) 4
d) 124
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: RNAase is a single polypeptide chain of 124 amino acid residues; it is folded, bent and
twisted into a globular shape in its active form.

4 .Protein synthesis in bacteria takes place on which of the following organelles?

a) Endoplasmic Reticulum
b) Golgi body
c) Ribosomes
d) Mitochondria
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Protein synthesis in bacteria takes place on the ribosomes, which are larger RNA-protein
particles in the cytoplasm of the bacterial cell.

5. Which of the following RNA constitutes 90 percent of the total cellular RNA?
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
c) mRNA
d) hnRNA
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) constitutes about 90 percent of the total cellular RNA and this is
important from all other types of RNA.

6. The synthesis of polynucleotide chain of mRNA is catalyzed by the enzyme _____________

a) RNA helicase
b) RNA polymerase
c) DNA polymerase
d) DNA helicase
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The synthesis of polynucleotide chain of mRNA is catalyzed by the enzyme RNA
polymerase. The process in which a single-stranded mRNA is synthesized complementary to one DNA
strand is called transcription.

7. Which of the following is responsible for the initiation of RNA polymerase activity?
a) initiation site
b) promoter region
c) sigma factor
d) rho factor
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In bacteria, the initiation of RNA polymerase activity at the initiation site is due to an
initiation factor called the sigma factor, which is a component of the enzyme.
8. Rho factor is a dimeric protein factor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Rho factor is a tetrameric protein factor that binds to RNA polymerase and promotes its
termination.When transcription has been completed, rho dissociates from the RNA polymerase-DNA
complex.

9. The following code codes for which of the amino acid respectively?
AUG and GUG
a) Phenylalanine,tyrosine
b) Methionine,valine
c) Methionine,alanine
d) Lysine,valine
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Three base triplets form a codon which codes for an amino acid.Thus AUG codes for
methionine and GUG codes for Valine.AUG and GUG are both initiating codons for translation.

10. Which of the following are non-sense codons?

a) AUG
b) GUG
c) UAA
d) UCU
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: UAA, UAG and UGA are polypeptide-chain-terminating codons and are called non-sense
codons.

Control of gen express

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Bacteria possess only one type of RNA polymerase
b) Attenuation is a regulatory process used by bacteria to control the initiation of transcription
c) Repressor binds to operator
d) Bacterial genes are polycistronic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Attenuation results in premature termination of transcription.

2. Which of the following bacterial operon is not controlled by attenuation?

a) Arabinose
b) Tryptophan
c) Leucine
d) Histidine
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Arabinose is a carbohydrate.

3. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an operator?

a) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA polymerase
b) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor protein
c) A DNA-binding protein that regulates gene expression
d) A cluster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A repressor binds to operator.

4. To which class of transcription factor do nuclear receptors belong?

a) Zinc finger proteins
b) Leucine zipper proteins
c) Helix-turn-helix proteins
d) Helix-loop-helix proteins
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear receptors belong to zinc finger motif.

5. Which of the following statements about lac operon in e.coli is true?

a) Promoter is the binding site for the lac repressor
b) Operon is only switched on in the absence of lactose in the growth medium
c) β-galactosidase is only produced in large quantities when the lac repressor is bound to the operator
d) Lac operon mRNA is a polycistronic mRNA
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Bacterial genes are polycistronic and genes in eukaryotes are monocistronic.

6. Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of trp operon expression by attenuation is
correct?
a) Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of mRNA transcript
b) Rapid translation of the leader peptide allows completion of mRNA transcript
c) The leader peptide sequence encodes enzymes required for tryptophan synthesis
d) The leader peptide sequence contains no tryptophan residues
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Attenuation results in premature termination of transcription.
7. Which of the following increases gene expression as much as 200-fold?
a) TATA box
b) Insulator
c) Enhancer
d) CAAT box
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Only enhancers can increase gene expression as much as 200-fold.

8. The mechanism by which CBP activates transcription is

a) CBP has DNA methyl transferase activity
b) CBP has histone acetyl transferase activity
c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex
d) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and has histone acetyl transferase activity
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and activates transcription.

9. RNAi stands for

a) RNA inducer
b) RNA interference
c) RNA intron
d) RNA insertion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: RNAi stands for RNA interference.

10. Which of the following about mRNA stability is not correct?

a) Regulation of mRNA stability is a way of regulating gene expression
b) Prokaryotic mRNAs have a half-life of only a few minutes
c) Histone mRNAs have especially long poly-A tails and are stable
d) It is thought that poly-A tails stabilize eukaryotic mRNAs
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Histone mRNAs lack poly-A tails so they are unstable.