DIVERSITY in the living

NEET MOCK
world TEST 7
1. The opening of spermathecae in earthworm are
found on

a) 4,6,7, segment dorsally

b) 6,7,8,9 segment ventrolaterally
c) 4,5,6,7, segment laterally
d) 10,11,12,13 segment dorsally
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Spermathecae are also called seminal receptacles as
they store spermatozoa from another worm during
copulation. Each spermathecae is flask shaped
consisting pear-shaped ampulla, short narrow neck
and a short narrow elongated diverticulum. There are
4 pairs in each of 6th, 7th, 8th, 9th segment situated
ventro laterally.
2. Frogs differ from human in possesing

a) paired cerebral hemisphere

b) hepatic portal system
c) nucleated red blood cells
d) thyroid as well as parathyroid
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
In fish, amphibians, reptiles and birds red blood
corpuscles (RBCs) are usually nucleated, oval and
biconvex. RBCs of all adult mammals are enucleated
(non - nucleated ). Matured mammalian RBCs do not
have cell organelles including nucleus, mitochondria,
ribosomes, centrioles and endoplasmic reticulum.
3. Which one of the following groups of
structure/organs have similar function?

a) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in rat and

contractile vacuole in Amoeba
b) Nephridia in earthworm, malpighian tubules in
cockroach and urinary tubules in rat.
c) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog and
clitellum of earthworm
d) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of
cockroach and tube feet of starfish.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The nephridium (plural nephridia) is an invertebrate
organ which occurs in pairs and performs a function
similar to the vertebrate kidney. Nephridia remove
metabolic wastes from an animal's body. The excretory
organ of cockroach is the malpighian tubules. It is
found at the junction of the midgut and hind gut and are
about 150 in number. They are fine, yellow coloured
and branched threads present in bundles.
4. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms
are correctly assigned to their named taxonomic
group?

a) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same

kingdom as that of Penicillium
b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the
symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan
c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
d) Nostoc and Anabaena are example of protista
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Yeast is a group of unicellular fungi of the phylum
ascomycota. They occur as single cell or as group or
chain of cells .Yeast of the genus Saccharomyces
ferments sugar and are used to make bread and beer.
5. Which of the following animals has a tetramorphic
colony?

a) porpita
b) obelia
c) velella
d) physalia
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Physalia is a genus of the order Siphonophorae,
colonies of four specialized polyps and medusoids
that drift on the surface of the Atlantic, Indian and
Pacific oceans. Although these organisms look like a
single multicellular organism, each specimen is
actually a colony of minute organisms called zooids
that have to work together for survival.
6. In contrast to annelids the platyhelminthes show

a) absence of body cavity

b) bilateral symmetry
c) radial symmetry
d) presence of pseudocoel
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Platyhelminthes do not have body cavity so they are
acoelomates. In annelids the body cavity is true and
schizocoelous. Both annelids and platyhelminthes
have bilateral symmertry.
7. The book 'Genera Plantarum' was written by

a) Engler & Prantl

b) Bentham & Hooker
c) Bessey
d) Hutchinson
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Bentham and Hooker in their monumental work
Genera Plantarum (1862-1883) have provided
elaborate keys for the easy identification of 202
natural orders and genera. Engler and Prantl wrote
Die naturlichen pflanzen familien. Huchinson wrote a
book titled “The families of flowering plants”.
8. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by

a) Bentham and Hooker

b) Linnaeus
c) Julian Huxley
d) A.P. de Candolle
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The term “New systematics” was given by julian
Huxley (1940). This classification takes into account
the cytoloical, morphological, genetical, anatomical,
palynological and physiological characters.
9. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and
slime moulds are included in the kingdom

a) Animalia
b) Monera
c) Protista
d) Fungi
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The Protista, or Protoctista, are a kingdom of simple
eukaryotic organisms, usually composed of a single
cell or a colony of similar cells.
10. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
Column 2
Column 1
i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants
A. Herbarium
and animals
ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species
B. Key found in an area with brief description aiding
identification
iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens
C. Museum
mounted on sheets are kept
iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their
D. Catalogue alternates which are helpful in identification of various
taxa.

a) A → (i), B → (iv), C → (iii), D → (ii)

b) A → (iii), B → (ii), C → (i), D → (iv)
c) A → (iii), B → (iv), C → (i), D → (ii)
d) A → (ii), B → (iv), C → (iii), D → (i)
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Herbarium - Dried and Pressed plant specimen.
. Key - Identification of various taxa.
. Museum - Plant and animal specimen are preserved.
. Catalogue - Alphabetical listing of species.
11. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and
fruits belong to

a) pteridophytes
b) mosses
c) ferns
d) gymnosperms
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits
belongs to gymnosperms.Gymnosperms are vascular
land plants and bear seeds which are naked i.e ovules
not enclosed in the ovary. Hence flowers are absent.
12. Artificial system of classification was first used
by

a) Linnaeus
b) de Candolle
c) Pliny the Edler
d) Bentham and Hooker
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Artificial system of classification was first used by
linnaeus. The cryptogams were included in flowering
plants.Linnaeus system is known as sexual system of
classification. He classified on the basis of number,
size and union of sex organs.
13. Which one of the following plants is monoecious?

a) Pinus
b) Cycas
c) Papaya
d) Marchantia
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Pinus is heterosporous, monoecious plant i.e both
male and female cones are present in same plant but
on different branches. Pinus produces micro and
megaspores in micro and megasporangium
respectively.
14. One very special feature in the earthworm
Pheretima is that

a) fertilization of eggs occur inside the body

b) the typhosole greatly increases the effective
absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
c) the S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are
the defensive weapons used against the enemies
d) it has a long dorsal tubular heart
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Second or middle part of the intestine lies between
27th segment upto 23-25 segments in front of anus.
This is characterized by the presence of a highly
glandular and vascular longitudinal ridge arising as a
median in growth of the dorsal aspect of the intestinal
cavity. This is called the typhlosole. The typhlosole
greatly increases the effective absorption area of the
digested food in the intestine.
15. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are

a) single stranded RNA

b) double stranded DNA
c) proteinaceous
d) double stranded RNA
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is a positive-sense
single stranded RNA virus that infects a wide range
of plants, especially tobacco and other members of
the family Solanaceae. The infection causes
characteristic patterns, such as "mosaic"-like mottling
and discoloration on the leaves (hence the name).
TMV was the first virus ever to be discovered.
16. Which one of the following is incorrectly
matched?

a) Root pressure -guttation

b) Puccinia -smut
c) Root -exarch protoxylem
d) Cassia – imbricate aestivation
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Rust is a group of parasitic fungi of the phylum
Basidiomycota. Many of these species attack the
leaves and stem of cereal crops. Pathogens of rust are
Puccinia, Uromyces, Melampsora, Hemileia.
17. Which of the following is also called “amphibians
of plant kingdom” ?

a) pteridophyta
b) Thallophyta
c) Tracheophyta
d) Bryophyta
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant
kingdom because these plants can live in soil but are
dependent on water for sexual reproduction. The plant
body is commonly differentiated to form stem and
leaf-like structures. Bryophytes include the various
mosses (funaria), marchantia and liverworts that are
found commonly growing in damp, humid and shaded
localities.
18. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size

a) 300 × 10 nm
b) 300 × 5 nm
c) 300 × 20 nm
d) 700 × 30 nm
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
TMV is rod shaped measuring 300 × 20 nm. It is
made of RNA and protein.
19. Which one belongs to monera?

a) Amoeba
b) Escherichia
c) Gelidium
d) Spirogyra
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Monera was a kingdom that included all organisms
composed of a prokaryotic cell. E. Coli is a
prokaryotic cell.
20. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by

a) algae
b) Fungi
c) bryophyta
d) phaeophyta
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
It is obtained by digesting organic compounds.
Animals, fungi, and protoctists are unable to
synthesize organic compounds to use as food. They
are known as heterotrophs. Heterotrophic organisms
have to acquire and take in all the organic substances
they need to survive.
21. Which one of the following pairs of animal are
similar to each other pertaining to the features stated
against them?

a) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus -viviparity

b) Garden lizard and crocodile – three chambered
heart
c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma -Metameric segmentation
d) Sea horse and flying fish -cold blooded
(poikilothermal)
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Sea horse (Hippocampus) and flying fish (Exocoetus)
belong to class osteichthyes of super class pisces.
They have two chambered heart (one auricle and one
ventricle ) and are cold blooded animals.
22. Which one is the most advanced from
evolutionary view point?

a) Selaginella
b) Funaria
c) Chlamydomonas
d) Pinus
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Pinus is more advanced from the evolutionary point
of view. It is a gymnosperms (of phanerogams)
having well developed vascular conducting system
and bears seeds. While others Selaginella, Funaria
and Chlamydomonas do not bear seeds.
23. Mehli's gland in tapeworm is associated with

a) reproduction
b) circulation
c) respiration
d) excretion
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Mehlis' gland is a cluster of unicellular glands
surrounding the first part of the uterus in nearly all
trematodes and cestodes. The gland cells each open
into the uterus by a fine duct, just proximal to the
region where the egg shell is formed.
24. In arthropoda head and thorax are often used to
form cephalothorax. In which one of the following
classes is the body divided into head thorax and
abdomen?

a) Insecta
b) Myriapoda
c) Crustacea
d) Arachnida and Crustacea
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Body in arthropoda is segmented. Segments are
grouped into 3 forms – head, thorax and abdomen.
When head and thorax are fused then they are
referred to as cephalothorax. Class insecta of
arthropoda phylum have body dividend into head,
thorax and abdomen.
25. Which of the following animals have scattered
cells with cell-tissue grade organization?

a) Sponge
b) Hydra
c) Liver fluke
d) Ascaris
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The body wall consists of two cellular layers, an outer
epidermis derived from ectoderm and an inner gastro
dermis derived from endoderm. In between the outer
epidermis and inner gastro dermis, a thin non-cellular
layer of jelly-like substance called mesogloea is
present. There are a few small interstitial cells
scattered among the bases of nutritive cells. They may
transform into other types of cells when the need
arises.
 Morphology of
NEET MOCK TEST
flowering plants 7
26. Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms
identification because

a) flowers can be safely pressed

b) reproductive parts are more stable and
conservative than vegetative parts.
c) flowers are nice to work with
d) flowers are of various colours.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Floral features are used to identify because
reproductive parts are more stable and conservative
than vegetative parts.
27. Botanical name of cauliflower is

a) Brassica oleracea var. Capitata

b) Brassica compesteris
c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Botanical name of cauliflower is Brassica oleracea.
Family of cauliflower is Cruciferae. It belongs to
variety capitata.
28. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior
ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in

a) guava
b) cucumber
c) pomegranate
d) orange
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
In pomegranate, the whole fruit is covered by a hard
rind made up of exocarp and a part of mesocarp. It
develops from multilocular syncarpous inferior ovary.
Mesocarp forms plate like infolding (i.e., chambered)
and the seeds are covered by endocarp and contains
bright red succulent testa.
29. Edible part of banana is

a) epicarp
b) mesocarp and less developed endocarp
c) endocarp and less developed mesocarp
d) epicarp and mesocarp
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Banana is a berry. It develops from monocarpellary or
multicarpellary syncarpous ovary. Epicarp makes the
rind of the fruit, mesocarp is fleshy and endocarp is
thin and membranous. The edible portion of banana is
endocarp and less developed mesocarp.
30. Pentamerous actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary
ovary with oblique septa, and fruit capsula or berry,
are characteristic features of

a) Liliaceae
b) Asteraceae
c) Brassicaceae
d) Solanaceae
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
A pentamerous actinomorphic flower is one where the
floral parts are in multiples of five and the flower can
be divided into two equals halves in more than one
plane. Gynoecium is bicarpellary, syncarpous, forming
a superior bilocular ovary. Each locule has many ovule
on oxile placentation. Members of Solanaceae are
characterised by the presence of an obliquely placed
septum in the ovary and highly swollen placentae .
31. Sweet potato is homologous to

a) potato
b) colocasia
c) ginger
d) turnip
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Sweet potato is homologous to turnip as both are
having same origin, i.e., both are root but modified
for different functions. Sweet potato is a modified
root for storage and vegetative propagation while
turnip is modified for storage only.
32. Which is expressing right appropriate pairing?

a) Brassicaceae – sunflower
b) Malvaceae – cotton
c) Papilionaceae – catechu
d) Liliaceae – Wheat
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Malvaceae is known as cotton family or mallow
family. The plants of this family are cosmopolitan in
distribution, although more common in tropical
(warm) regions. Gossypium (cotton) is an important
genera of this family. Sunflower belongs to family
Compositae. Wheat belong to family Poaceae.
Catechu belongs to Family Mimosaceae.
33. The technical term used for the androecium in a
flower of china rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is

a) monodelphous
b) diadelphous
c) polyandrous
d) polyadelphous
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
China rose of Family Malvaceae possess numerous
stamens. The filaments of stamens are united in one
group thus forming a staminal tube around the style.
Such stamens are called monodelphous.
34. Axile placentation is present in

a) pea
b) Argemone
c) Dianthus
d) lemon
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Axile placentation occurs in syncarpous pistils. The
ovary is partitioned into two or more chambers.
Placentae occur in the central region where the septa
meet so that, an axile column bearing ovules is
formed, e.g., shoe flower (Pentalocular), lemon
(multilocular), etc.
35. An example of edible underground stem is

a) carrot
b) groundnut
c) sweet potato
d) potato
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Potato is an edible underground stem. Carrot and
sweet potato are root modification while edible part
of groundnut is seed.
36. In china rose the flowers are

a) zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate

aestivation
b) zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
c) actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted
aestivation
d) actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation.
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
In china rose the flowers are actinomorphic, i.e, it can
be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial
plane passing through the center; they are
hypogynous, i.e, the gynoecium occupies the highest
position, while the other parts are situated below it;
they have twisted aestivation, i.e., one margin of petal
overlaps that of the next one and so on.
37. Placentation in tomato and lemon is

a) Parietal
b) free central
c) marginal
d) axile
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Placentation is the arrangement of ovules within the
ovary. It is of different types namely, marginal (pea),
parietal (mustard, Argemone), axile (china rose,
tomato, lemon) and free central (Dianthus, Primrose).
38. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of
a young cob of maize are

a) hairs
b) anthers
c) styles
d) ovaries
SOLUTION: c)
Explanation :
In maize the male inflorescence occupies the terminal
position on the main axis, whereas the female
inflorescence (ear or cob) is borne on modified lateral
branches in the axis of leaves. The ear producing
branch has short internodes and bears a female spike
at its apex. Each spikelet has a pair of small
membranous glumes and two florets. Th feathery
styles of the female florets are long and emerge out of
the cobs to expose stigma for wind pollination.
39. Tegmen develops from

a) funiculus
b) chalaza
c) inner integument
d) outer integument
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Outer protective covering of seed is called seed coat
which develops from integuments of ovules. The
seeds developing from bitegmic ovule have two
layers. The outer layer is called testa and inner layer
is called tegmen which develops from inner
integuments.
40. Hair found in the inflorescence of Zea mays are
the modification of

a) style
b) stigma
c) spathe
d) filaments
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
In maize (zea mays) style is very long. It comes out
of the cob to expose stigma for wind pollination.
These are collectively known as silk.
41. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin,
china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunhemp, gram, guava,
bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania,
potato, onion, Aloe and tulip how many plants have
hypogynous flower?

a) 15
b) 18
c) 6
d) 10
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
In the hypogynous flower the gynoecium occupies
the highest position while the other parts are situated
below it. The ovary in such flowers is said to be
superior, e.g., mustard, China rose and brinjal. All the
given plants except bitter gourd, pumpkin, cucumber,
guava, plum and rose have hypogynous flower.
42. Edible part of mango is

a) endocarp
b) receptacle
c) epicarp
d) mesocarp
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Mango (Mangifera indica) of family Anacardiaceae is
a drupe. The edible part in mango is mesocarp.
43. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, sesbania,
Asparagus, Colchicum, sweet pea, Petunia,
indigofera, mustard, soybean, tobacco and groundnut,
how many plants have corolla with valvate
aestivation?

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The mode of arrangement of the sepals or petals with
respect to one another in the floral bud is termed as
aestivation. In valvate aestivation, sepals or petals or
tepals just touch each other without any overlapping.
Calotropis, tulip, Asparagus, Colchicum, petunia,
mustard and tobacco have valvate aestivation.
44. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the
placentation is

a) marginal
b) basal
c) free central
d) axile
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
In basal type of placentation the ovary is unilocular
and ovules are generally reduced to one borne at the
base of the ovary, e.g., compositae.
45. A drupe develops in

a) mango
b) wheat
c) pea
d) tomato
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Drupe is a fleshy fruit that develops from either one
or several fused carpels and contains one or many
seeds. The seeds are enclosed by the hard protective
endocarp (pericarp) of the fruit, e.g., mango. In
mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer
thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an
inner stony hard endocarp
46. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in
flowers of

a) Aloe
b) tomato
c) Papaver
d) Michelia
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Gynoecium is the female reproductive organ of a
flower. It may be apocarpous (pistils separated), e.g.,
Michelia or syncarpous (fused), e.g., tomato.
47. Velamen is found in

a) roots of screwpine
b) aerial and terrestrial roots of orchids
c) leaves of Ficus elastica
d) aerial roots of orchids.
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Velamen is found in aerial roots of orchids. In many
epiphytic orchids, the aerial roots are covered by a
hygroscopic velamen tissue. They absorb water from
the atmosphere.
48. Which one of the following is xerophytic plant in
which the stem is modified into the flat green and
succulent structure?

a) opuntia
b) Casuarina
c) Hydrilla
d) Acacia
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Opuntia is a xerophytic plant which lives in dry
habitat. The plant has fleshy organs where water and
mucilage are stored. The steam is modified into flat
green structure, therefore, Opuntia is also called as
phylloclades.
49. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of

a) peach
b) cucumber
c) cotton
d) guava
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
If gynoecium is situated in the center and other parts
of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus
almost at the same level, it is called perigynous. The
ovary here is said to be half inferior, e.g., plum, rose,
peach.
50. Which plant will lose its economic value, if its
fruits are produced by induced parthenocarpy?

a) Orange
b) banana
c) Grape
d) Pomegranate
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Development of fruits without fertilisation is called
parthenocarpy and such fruits are called
parthenocarpic fruits.
Since in pomegranate juicy testa is the edible part and
parthenocarpy will make the fruit seedless and hence
they will be useless.
ANATOMY of flowering
NEET MOCK
plants TEST 7
51. Transport of food material in higher plants takes
place through

a) Companion cells
b) transfusion tissue
c) tracheids
d) sieve elements
SOLUTION: d)
52. Tunica corpus theory is connected with

a) root apex
b) root cap
c) shoot apex
d) secondary growth
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The tunica corpus concept was given by Schmidt
(1924) which was based on plane of divisions of
cells. According to this concept there are two portions
in shoot apex-tunica and corpus. The tunica show
only anticlinical divisions and thus it is responsible
for surface growth. The corpus shows divisions in all
plane and thus responsible for volume growth.
53. Function of companion cells is

a) providing energy to seive elements for active

transport
b) providing water to phloem
c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive
transport
d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements.
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Companion cells move sugar and amino acids into
and out of the sieve elements. In “source” tissue such
as leaf companion cells use transmembrane proteins
to take up sugar and amino acids by activa transport.
Movement of sugars in the phloem begins at the
source, where sugars are loaded (actively transported)
into a seive tube. Loading sets up a water potential
gradient that facilitates movement of sugar.
54. Meristematic tissue responsible for increases in
girth of tree trunk is

a) intercalary meristem
b) lateral meristem
c) phellogen
d) apical meristem
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Lateral meristems are the meristems which are present
along the lateral sides of stem and roots. They divide
only in radial direction. Intrastelar or vascular
cambium ring formed by intra-fascicular (also called
fascicular) and inter-fascicular cambium; and cork
cambium (phellogen) are examples of this type of
meristem. These meristems are responsible for
increase in girth of stem and roots.
55. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of

a) mustard
b) soybean
c) gram
d) Sorughum
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of sorghum.
It is a monocot plant where the parenchyma tissues of
the leaves are not differentiated into palisade and
spongy.
56. Periderm is produced by

a) vascular cambium
b) fascicular cambium
c) phellogen
d) intrafascicular cambium.
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Periderm is produced by phellogen. The phellogen
forms phellem on the outer face and phelloderm on
the inner. The three layers i.e., phellem, phellogen
and phelloderm jointly constitute the periderm.
57. In plants insulin and pectin are

a) reserved material
b) Wastes
c) excretory material
d) insect attracting material
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Inulin is a water soluble fructosan. It is a common
reserve food in members of family compositae. Pectin
is a mucopolysaccharides and occur in plant cell
walls. At the time of fruit ripening wall of pectins
hydrolyse to give constituent sugars.
58. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plants
growing in

a) alpine region
b) cold winter regions
c) temperature climate
d) tropics
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plants
growing in tropics.
59. Which of the statements given below is not true
about formation of annual rings in trees?

a) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate

region.
b) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and
autumn wood produced in a year.
c) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark
bands of tissue – early and late wood respectively.
d) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in
climate.
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Growth rings are formed by the seasonal activity of
cambium. In plants of temperate regions, cambium is
more active in spring (less lignin deposition in xylem)
and less active in autumn (more lignin deposition in
xylem) seasons. In temperate regions climatic
conditions are not uniform throughout the year.
However in tropics climatic conditions are uniform
throughout the year.
60. The common bottle cork is a product of

a) dermatogen
b) phellogen
c) xylem
d) vascular cambium
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Cork cambium or phellogen is a type of cambium
arising within the outer layer of the stems of woody
plants, usually as a complete ring surrounding the
inner tissues. The cells of the cork cambium divide to
produce an outer corky tissue (cork or phellem) and
an inner secondary cortex (phelloderm). The common
bottle cork produced from Quercus suber is a product
of phellogen.
61. Vascular cambium produces

a) primary xylem and primary phloem

b) secondary xylem and secondary phloem
c) primary xylem and secondary phloem
d) secondary xylem and primary phloem
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Vascular cambium produces secondary xylem and
secondary phloem. It is developed from the
procambium which is an embryonic tissue, hence it is
primary in origin. It is secondary in function because
it forms the secondary tissues like secondary xylem,
secondary phloem and secondary medullary rays. The
cambium is a radially one cell thick zone of
meristematic cells.
62. A major characteristic of monocot root is the
presence of

a) vasculature without cambium

b) cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem
along the radius
c) open vascular bundles
d) scattered vascular bundles
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
In monocot root, a large number of vascular bundles
are arranged in the form of a ring around the central
pith. Vascular bundles are closed because there is no
cambium present between the xylem and phloem.
63. In barley stem vascular bundles are

a) closed and scattered

b) open and in a ring
c) closed and radial
d) open and scattered
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Barley is a monocotyledonous plant. The vascular
bundle of stem is conjoint, collateral, exarch and
closed (because cambium is absent). It is also
scattered throughout the ground tissue.
64. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are
collectively called

a) phelloderm
b) phellogen
c) periderm
d) phellem
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
In hypodermis or outer cortical cells, a layer becomes
meristematic which is known as cork cambium or
phellogen. This phellogen also cuts off cells both on
its outer side and inner side. The cells cut off on outer
side are phellem or cork cells and cells cut off on
inner side are phelloderm or secondary cortex.
Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm collectively
constitute periderm.
65. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in
gymnosperms are

a) vessels
b) fibres
c) Transfusion tissue
d) tracheids
SOLUTION: d)
Explanation :
The chief water conducting elements of xylem in
gymnosperms are tracheids. These are elongated cells
with tapering ends and are dead because of deposition
of lignin. These show scalariform, annular, reticulate
or bordered pitted thickening. These are the only
water conducting xylem elements in both
gymnosperm and pteridophytes. Generally vessels are
absent in gymnosperm with exceptions like Gnetum,
Welwitschia, Ephedra.
66. Which of the following plant cell will show
totipotency?

a) Sieve tubes
b) Xylem vessels
c) Meristem
d) Cork cells
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Meristems shows the totipotency because xylem
vessels and cork cells are dead while sieve tube cells
do not possess nuclei.
67. Cork is formed from

a) cork cambium
b) vascular cambium
c) phloem
d) xylem
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
In hypodermis or outer cortical cells, a layer becomes meristematic
which is known as cork cambium or phellogen. This phellogen also
cuts off cell both on its outer side and inner side. The cells cut off on
outer side are phellem or cork cells and cells cut off on inner side are
phelloderm or secondary cortex.
The phellem or cork cells are dead and have deposition of a fatty
substance called suberin (i.e., cork cells are suberized). Suberin is
impervious to water and thus cork cells are buoyant (i.e., float on
water).
Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm collectively constitute periderm.
68. Pith and cortex do not differentiate in

a) monocot stem
b) dicot stem
c) monocot root
d) dicot root
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Pith and cortex do not differentiate in monocot stem.
Since numerous vascular bundles lie scattered, the
ground tissue system in a monocot stem is
distinguishable into hypodermis and ground
parenchyma.
69. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants,
which one of the following pairs is suitable?

a) Teak and pine

b) Deodar and fern
c) Wheat and maiden hair fern
d) Sugarcane and sunflower
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Secondary growth is observed in dicots and
gymnosperm. It is not observed in pteridophytes and
rarely observed in monocots. Secondary growth
results in increase in girth or diameter of the stem by
formation of secondary tissue by the activity of lateral
meristem. So for study of secondary growth, teak
(angiosperm) and pine (gymnosperm) are best suited.
70. Grass leaves curl inward during very dry weather.
Select the most appropriate reason from the following
:

a) Tyloses in vessels
b) Closure of stomata
c) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
d) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Bulliform cells are large, bubble-shaped epidermal
cells that occur in groups on the upper surface of the
leaves of many grasses. These cells become flaccid
due to water loss. Loss of turgor pressure in these
cells causes leaves to “roll up” during water stress.
71. Axillary bud and terminal bud derived from the
activity of

a) lateral meristem
b) intercalary meristem
c) apical meristem
d) parenchyma
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Apical meristems are situated at the tips of the root
and shoot. They take part in initial growth. Plants
elongate and increases in height as a result of
divisions in this meristem. Promeristem and primary
meristem (root and shoot apices) are included in this
type of meristem.
72. Angular collenchyma occurs in

a) Cucurbita
b) Helianthus
c) Althaea
d) Salvia
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Angular collenchyma occurs in Cucurbita. It has
thickening at the angles and there are no intercellular
spaces. It is generally found in leaf petioles.
73. Casparian strips are found in

a) epidermis
b) hypodermis
c) periderm
d) endodermis
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Endoderms is single layered structure which separates
cortex from stele. The cells of endodermis are barrel-
shaped without intercellular spaces, living and
containing starch. The radial and tangential walls of
endodermal cells possess thickenings of lignin, suberin
and cutin in the form of strips or bands, which are
known as casparian bands or casparian strips.
74. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between
phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is

a) cork cambium
b) vascular cambium
c) endodermis
d) pericycle.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between
phloem/bark and wood of dicot is vascular cambium.
Vascular cambium present inside a vascular bundle is
called as intrafascicular cambium or fascicular
cambium. The vascular cambium is a meristematic
tissue.
75. Organisation of stem apex into corpus and tunica
is determined mainly by

a) planes of cell division

b) regions of meristematic activity
c) rate of cell growth
d) rate of shoot tip growth
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
The tunica corpus concept was given by Schmidt
(1924) which was based on plane of divisions of
cells. According to this concept there are two portions
in shoot apex-tunica and corpus. The tunica show
only anticlinical divisions and thus it is responsible
for surface growth. The corpus shows divisions in all
plane and thus responsible for volume growth.
Structural organization
NEET in
MOCK
animalsTEST 7
76. The function of the gap junction is to

a) separate two cells from each other

b) stop substance from leaking across a tissue
c) performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells
together
d) facilitate communication between adjoining cells
by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of
ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Most cells in animal tissues (with the exception of a few
terminally differentiated cells such as skeletal muscle cells and
blood cells) are in communication with their adjoining cells via
gap junctions. At the place where gap junction is present,
membranes of two adjacent cells are separated by a uniform
narrow gap of about 2 – 4 nm. The gap is spanned by channel
forming proteins called connexins, which allow inorganic ions
and other small water soluble molecules to pass directly from
cytoplasm of one cell to cytoplasm of other cell.
77. The supportive skeletal structures in the human
external ears and in the nose tips are examples of

a) ligament
b) areolar tissue
c) bone
d) cartilage
SOLUTION: d)
Explanation :
Cartilage is a semi-rigid supportive or skeletal connective
tissue in which matrix is solid and made of mucoprotein
or proteoglycan called chondrin. It is of four types –
hyaline, fibrous, calcified and elastic. Yellow elastic
fibrocartilage is found in pinna and external auditory canal
of the ear, Eustachian tubes, epiglottis and tip of the nose.
Its matrix contains numerous yellow fibres which form a
network by uniting with one another. Due to the presence
of yellow fibres, the cartilage becomes more flexible and
hence provide flexibility to these organs.
78. Which of the following is correct pairing of a
body part and the kind of muscles tissues that move
it?

a) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres

b) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
c) Iris – voluntary smooth muscle
d) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Smooth muscles are called as involuntary muscles as
action of these muscles is controlled by autonomic
nervous system i.e., not under the control of animal's
will. Iris of eyes consists of smooth involuntary
muscles. Biceps of upper arm is made of skeletal
muscles while heart wall consists of cardiac muscles.
79. Which pair is correct?

a) Sweat – Temperature regulation

b) Saliva - Sense of food taste
c) Sebum – Sexual attraction
d) Humerus – Hindleg
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Sweat is secreted by sweat glands of skin and helps in
regulating body temperature.
Saliva is secreted by salivary glands and help in digestion.
Sebum is the waxy secretion secreted by sebaceous glands.
Sebum is a fatty mildly antiseptic material that protects,
lubricates, and waterproofs the skin and hair and prevent
desiccation.
Humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. It articulates with
the scapula at the glenoid cavity and with the ulna and radius
at the elbow.
80. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in

a) nails
b) ear ossicles
c) tip of the nose
d) vertebrae
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Yellow elastic fibrocartilage, a type of skeletal tissue,
is found in the pinna, Eustachian tubes, epiglottis and
tip of the nose. It is a type of cartilage and due to
presence of yellow fibres, it becomes more flexible.
81. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap
junctions are found in

a) connective tissue
b) epithelial tissue
c) neural tissue
d) muscular tissue.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Epithelial tissues consist of variously shaped cells
closely arranged in one or more layers. The cells are
held together by intercellular junctions like tight,
adhering and gap junctions.
82. Ureters act as urinogential ducts in

a) human males
b) human females
c) both male and female frogs
d) male frog
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
In male frogs, two ureters act as urinogential duct
which open into the cloaca. They run backwards from
the kidneys and open into the cloaca. In females
ureters carry urine alone, while in male both sperms
and urine are carried. Hence, are called urinogential
ducts.
83. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans
are known to occur in

a) Eustachian tube and stomach lining

b) Bronchioles and Fallopian tube
c) bile duct and oesophagus
d) Fallopian tube and urethra.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are
present in the nasal passages, oviducts (Fallopian
tubes) terminal bronchioles, ventricles of the brain
and central canal of the spinal cord of the embryo.
Columnar ciliated epithelium consists of columnar
cells, which bear cilia on the free surface.
84. Formation of cartilage bones involves

a) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts and

resorption by chondroclasts
b) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts
c) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts only
d) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts only.
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Bone is an unusual tissue in that it is continually being
reconstructed. The osteoblasts secrete bone matrix,
whereas the large, much branched, motile, lysosome-
rich, multinucleate cells, called osteoclasts, destroy
bone matrix. The twin process of resorption and
reconstruction enables a particular bone to remodel its
structure to meet any change in the mechanical
requirements of the animal during its development.
85. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged and
for its recovery which cartilage is preferred?

a) Elastic cartilage
b) Hyaline cartilage
c) Calcified cartilage
d) Fibrous cartilage
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Nasal septum consists of hyaline cartilage. It is
bluish-green and translucent in appearance. It has
fewer very fine white fibres in the matrix. This type
of cartilage gives flexibility and support at the joints.
Elastic, calcified and fibrous cartilages occur in the
other parts of body.
86. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and acts
as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to

a) gut peristalsis
b) setae
c) coelomic fluid
d) blood
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Hydraulic skeleton is the system of support found in
soft bodied invertebrates, which relies on the
incompressibility of fluids contained within the body
cavity. In earthworms the coelomic fluid s under
pressure within the coelom and therefore provides
support for internal organs. Due to hydraulic skeleton,
during burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid
and aids in relaxation of longitudinal muscles.
87. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the
category of

a) smooth muscles tissue

b) squamous epithelium
c) columnar epithelium
d) connective tissue
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Simple squamous epithelium is composed of large flat
cells whose edges fit closely together like the tiles in a
floor, hence it is also called pavement epithelium. The
nuclei of the cells are flattened and often lie at the center
of the cells and cause bulging of cells surface. The
epithelium lines the blood vessels, lymph vessels, heart,
terminal bronchioles, alveoli of the lungs, walls of the
Bowman's capsules, descending limbs of loop of Henle. In
the blood vessel and heart it is called endothelium.
88. The body cells in cockroach discharge their
nitrogenous waste in the heamolymph mainly in the
form of

a) Urea
b) calcium carbonate
c) ammonia
d) potassium urate
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
In cockroach, Malpighian tubules extract metabolic wastes
like potassium and sodium urate, water and carbon dioxide
from the blood. In the Malpighian tubules bicarbonates of
potassium and sodium, water and uric acid are formed. A
large amount of water and bicarbonates of potassium and
sodium are reabsorbed by the cells of Malpighian tubules
and then transferred to the blood (haemolymph). Uric acid
is carried to the alimentary canal of the insect and is finally
passed out through anus.
89. Mast cells of connective tissue contain

a) vasopressin and relaxin

b) heparin and histamine
c) heparin and calcitonin
d) serotonin and melanin
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Mast cells are the large cells with densely granular cytoplasm
that is found in connective tissues. Their granules contain
histamine which is a vasodilator, heparin which is an
anticoagulant and serotonin which acts as a mediator of
inflammation and allergic reactions. Vasopressin is a hormone
secreted by posterior pituitary gland. Calcitonin is a hormone
secreted by thyroid gland. Melanin is a pigment produced by
specialized epidermal cells called melanocytes. Relaxin is a
hormone produced by the corpus luteum and placenta during the
terminal stages of pregnancy.
90. Which one of the following correctly describes
the location of some body parts in the earthworm
Pheretima?

a) Four pair of spermathecae in 4th - 7th segment

b) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental
septum of 14th and 15th segments
c) Two pairs of tests in 10th and 11th segments
d) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16th - 18th
segments
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
In pheretima, two pairs of testis sac are situated in the
tenth and eleventh segments. Each testis sac of the
tenth segment encloses a testis and a seminal funnel.
Each testis sac of the eleventh segment encloses a
testis, a seminal vesicle and a seminal funnel.
91. The kidney of an adult frog is

a) metanephros
b) opisthonephros
c) pronephros
d) mesonephros
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Mesonephros kidney is present in both adult as well
as embryo of frog. A mesonephros develops from the
middle part of intermediate mesoderm, posterior to
each pronephros soon after its degeneration.
92. In mammals, histamine is secreted by

a) lymphocytes
b) mast cells
c) fibroblasts
d) histiocytes
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Mast cells are found in the matrix of areolar connective
tissue and secrete histamine (vasodilator), serotonin
(vasoconstrictor) and heparin (anticoagulant). These take
part in allergic reactions and also help in body defence.
Fibroblasts secrete ground substances while histiocytes
engulf the microbes, foreign particles and damaged
cells.
Lymphocytes are the type of leukocytes present in blood
and secrete antibodies.
93. Collagen is

a) fibrous protein
b) globular protein
c) lipid
d) carbohydrates
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Collagen is an insoluble fibrous protein found extensively
in the connective tissue of skin, tendons and bone.
Collagen accounts for over 30% of the total body protein
of mammals. Globular proteins have compact rounded
molecules and are usually water soluble. Lipid is a diverse
group of organic compounds, that are insoluble in water
but soluble in organic solvents. Carbohydrates are
compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
94. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body
are joined by

a) arthrodial membrane
b) cartilage
c) cementing glue
d) muscular tissue.
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Arthrodial membrane is a tough, flexible cuticle that
joins the skeletal elements of cockroach and other
arthropods. It connects terga, pleura and sterna of
cockroach body.
95. Areolar connective tissue joins

a) bones with bones

b) fat body with muscles
c) integument with muscles
d) bones with muscles
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue comprised
of a semifluid ground substance containing several
kinds of loosely arranged fibres. Its function is to
attach the skin to the underlying tissues, to fill the
spaces between various organs and thus holds them in
place, and surrounds and supports the blood vessels.
Tendons connect muscles with bone while ligaments
connect bone with bone.
96. Mineral found in red pigment of vertebrate blood
is

a) magnesium
b) iron
c) calcium
d) copper
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Red pigment of vertebrate blood is haemoglobin.
Haemoglobin is a conjugated protein. It consists of a
basic protein globin joined protein. It consists of a
basic protein globin joined to a nonprotein group
heme, hence the name haemoglobin. Heme is an iron-
porphyrin ring. A mammalian haemoglobin molecule
is a complex of 4 heme molecules joined with 4
globin molecules.
97. Which one of the following contains the largest
quantity of extracellular material?

a) Striated muscle
b) Areolar tissue
c) Stratified epithelium
d) Myelinated nerve fibres
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
In areolar tissue, there is more intercellular space, so
largest quantity of extracellular material is present in
this tissues. It contains all cell types and fibres of
connective tissues. There is a thin layer of
extracellular fluid in stratified epithelium whereas
striated muscle is attached with tendons and there is
very less amount of extracellular fluid in myelinated
nerve fibre.
98. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are

a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, nonstriated,

uninucleate and involuntary
b) spindle - shapped, unbranched, unstriped,
multinucleate and involuntary
c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, multinucleate
and involuntary
d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and
voluntary
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
The smooth muscle consists of long, narrow
unbranched spindle-shaped fibres. Each fibre
contains a single oval nucleus in its thick middle part.
The cross-striations are absent so that the fibres look
smooth, hence the name nonstriated. Its contraction is
not under the control of the animal, therefore, also
called involuntary muscle.
99. Which one of the following pairs of structures
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?

a) Vacuoles and fribres

b) Flagellum and medullary sheath
c) Nucleus and mitochondria
d) Perikaryon and dendrites
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Neuron (nerve cell) is one of the basic functional units of the
nervous system. Neuron is a cell specialized to transmit electrical
nerve impulses and so carry information from one part of the
body to another. Each neuron has an enlarged portion, the cell
body (perikaryon), containing the nucleus; from the body extend
several processes (dendrites) through which impulses enter from
their branches. A longer process, the nerve fibre, extends outward
and carries impulses away from the cell body. This is normally
unbranched except at the nerve ending. The point of contact of
one neuron with another is known as a synapse.
100. Melanin protects from

a) UV rays
b) visible rays
c) infrared rays
d) X-rays
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Melanin is produced by specialized epidermal cells
called melanophores (or melanocytes). Their dispersion
in these cells is controlled by melanocyte – stimulating
hormone and melatonin. Melanin, a pigment present in
skin, protects it from harmful effects of UV rays. People
living in tropics have more melanin in their skin which
is an adaptation to protect themselves from harmful UV
rays. Melanin cannot protect from infrared rays and X-
rays.
NEET MOCK
Transport TEST 7
in plants
101. Ascent of SAP is

a) upward movement of water in plants

b) downward movement of water in plant
c) upward and downward movement of water in
plants
d) None of the above
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
The ascent of sap in the xylem tissue of plants is the
upward movement of water and minerals from the
root to the crown.
102. When a cell is fully turgid, which one of the
following is zero?

a) Diffusion pressure deficit

b) Wall pressure
c) Turgor pressure
d) Osmotic pressure
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
The difference between diffusion pressure of pure water
and solution is called diffusion pressure deficit.
When the plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, it
takes up water by osmosis and starts to swell. The plant
cell is said to have become "turgid" i.e. swollen and hard.
As the cell absorbs more and more water its Total Pressure
increases and Osmotic Pressure decreases. When a cell is
fully turgid, its Osmotic Pressure is equal to Total Pressure
and diffusion pressure deficit is zero.
103. When a cell is fully turgid, which of the
following will be zero?

a) Turgor pressure
b) Water potential
c) Wall pressure
d) Osmotic pressure
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
In a full turgid cell, DPD = 0 because it has T.P. =
O.P. It means that the cell has no further capacity to
absorb any water. Water potential is equal but
opposite in sign to DPD. So in a fully turgid cell the
water potential is zero.
104. The water column in vessels can be broken

a) in the presence of lignified walls

b) in the presence of air bubbles
c) in the presence of very high absorption
d) None of the above
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The water column in vessels can be broken in the
presence of air bubbles.
105. Active transport involves

a) Expenditure of energy
b) Uphill transport
c) Downhill transport
d) Both (a) and (b)
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Active transport is the process of transport that
requires involvement of energy (ATP). It allows
movement of substances, molecules or ions across a
membrane from a region of their low concentration to
a region of high concentration i.e uphill transport.
106. The phloem SAP mainly consists of

a) Potassium ions
b) Glucose
c) Sucrose
d) Starch
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Phloem sap consists primarily of sugars (sucrose),
hormones, and mineral elements dissolved in water.
107. The most widely accepted theory for ascent of
sap in trees is

a) Capillarity
b) role of atmospheric pressure
c) pulsating action of living cell
d) transpiration pull and cohesion theory of Dixon
and Jolly
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Transpiration pull cohesion theory for ascent of sap in
trees is most widely accepted. This concept was
proposed by Dixon and Jolly, 1884. It is based up on
three basic assumptions which are cohesion in
between water molecules, continuity of water column
and transpiration pull.
108. Osmosis involves

a) flow of water without a membrane

b) flow of solute from a semipermeable membrane
c) flow of solvent(H2O) through a semipermeable
membrane
d) None of the above
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Osmosis is the spontaneous net movement of solvent
molecules through a semipermeable membrane into a
region of higher solute concentration, in the direction
that tends to equalize the solute concentrations on the
two sides.
109. At constant temperature, the rate of transpiration
will be higher at

a) sea level
b) 1 km below sea level
c) 1 km above sea level
d) 1.5 km above sea level.
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
At constant temperature, the rate of transpiration will
be higher at 1.5 km above the sea level. At lower
atmospheric pressure there is increase in the rate of
evaporation.
110. Which of the following pathway is particularly
through cell wall?

a) Apoplast pathway
b) Vacuolar pathway
c) Symplast pathway
d) Both (a) and (c)
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Apoplast pathway : Transport, of water and minerals
through cell wall.
Vacuolar pathway : Movement of water molecules
in plant cells via the vacuoles located in the
cytoplasm of the cell.
Symplast pathway : Movement of water molecules
in plant cells through cytoplasm.
111. Plasmolysis is due to

a) Exosmosis
b) Endosmosis
c) Imbibition
d) Facilitated diffusion
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
When cell is placed in a hypertonic solution water
moves out of the cell. Cell membrane shrinks away
from cell wall, it is known as plasmolysis.
Movement of water molecules out of the cell when it
is placed in hypertonic solution is called exosmosis.
112. At the endodermis, water movement via apoplast
is interrupted because of

a) casparian strip
b) plasma membrane
c) low water potential
d) low turgor pressure
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Inside a plant, the apoplast is the space outside the
plasma membrane within which material can diffuse
freely. It is interrupted by the Casparian strip in roots,
by air spaces between plant cells and by the plant
cuticle.
113. Osmotic potential is always

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Both (a) and (b)
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Water potential is the potential energy of water per unit
volume relative to pure water.
Total water potential (Ψ) = osmotic potential (Ψs) + pressure
potential (Ψp) + matric potential (Ψm) + gravitational
potential (Ψg)
Osmotic potential results from dissolved solutes and is
proportional to solute concentration and inversely
proportional to cell water volume. Osmotic potential in plants
is always negative and decreases as solutes concentrate
during plant dehydration.
114. Water potential is used to measure

a) water stress
b) water deficit
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Water potential is used to measure water stress and
water deficit.
115. The transport of sugars and other organic
molecules within a plant is called

a) Transpiration pull
b) Guttation
c) Translocation
d) Assimilation
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The transport of sugars and other organic molecules
within a plant is called translocation.
116. Root pressure develops due to

a) passive absorption
b) active absorption
c) increase in transpiration
d) low osmotic potential in soil
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Root pressure is positive pressure that develops in the
xylem sap of the root of some plants. It is a
manifestation of active water absorption.
117. The movement of ions against the concentration
gradient will be

a) active transport
b) osmosis
c) diffusion
d) all of the above
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Active transport involves movement of materials
across the membrane against the concentration
gradient of the solute particles. It requires energy in
the form of ATP and carrier molecules.
118. Which is correct about transport of conduction
of substances?

a) Organic food moves up through phloem

b) Organic food moves up through xylem
c) Inorganic food moves upwardly and downwardly
through xylem
d) Organic food moves upwardly and downwardly
through phloem
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Phloem is the food conducting tissue of plants. The
sieve tubes are food conducting elements of the
plants. It is proposed that food is translocated by mass
flow or by streaming currents of protoplasm.
119. The process of absorption of water by the solid
particles is known as

a) Plasmolysis
b) Imbibition
c) Deplasmolysis
d) Endosmosis
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Correct answer is Imbibition.
Imbibition is the process of adsorption of water by
substances without forming a solution. Swelling of
seeds when immersed in water is an example of
imbibition. Imbibition is the temporary increase in the
volume of the cell.
120. The specialised tissues involved in
transportation of water and organic solutes are

a) Xylem
b) Endodermis
c) Phloem
d) Both (a) and (c)
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Xylem tissue is used mostly for transporting water
from roots to stems and leaves but also transports
other dissolved compounds.
Phloem is responsible for transporting food produced
from photosynthesis from leaves to non-
photosynthesizing parts of a plant such as roots and
stems
So the correct answer is option (d)
121. The principal pathway of water translocation in
angiosperms is

a) sieve cells
b) sieve tube elements
c) xylem vessel system
d) xylem and phloem.
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The primary pathway of water translocation in
angiosperm is xylem vessel system. The sap (i.e,
water with dissolved minerals) is absorbed mainly by
roots and is moved upward to all the parts of plant via
stem. It occurs mainly through xylem.
122. The pathway of water movement, involving
living part of a cell is

a) apoplast pathway
b) symplast pathway
c) transmembrane pathway
d) lateral conduction
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Symplast pathway of water movement, involves
living part of a cell.
123. Which of the following psychological process in
plants is a necessary evil?

a) Transpiration
b) Water absorption
c) Photosynthesis
d) Translocation
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Transpiration is the process of water movement
through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts,
such as leaves, stems and flowers. Water is necessary
for plants but only a small amount of water taken up
by the roots is used for growth and metabolism. The
remaining 97–99% is lost by transpiration and
guttation.
124. Actual pathway of ascent of SAP is through

a) Cambium
b) Phloem
c) Xylem
d) Epidermis
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The ascent of sap in the xylem tissue of plants is the
upward movement of water and minerals from the
root to the crown.
125. Main function of lenticel is

a) transpiration
b) guttation
c) gaseous exchange
d) bleeding
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Lenticles generally appear under stomata. The lenticel
of phellogen itself also has intercellular spaces.
Because of this relatively open arrangement of cells,
the lenticles are regarded as structures permitting the
entry of air through the periderm. Lenticels are
characteristics of woody stem but they are also found
in roots of trees and other perennials for entry of
oxygen through them.
NEET MOCK
Mineral TEST 7
nutrition
126. Which one of the following elements in plants is
not remobilised?

a) Phosphorus
b) calcium
c) Potassium
d) Sulphu
SOLUTION: b)
127. Minerals are absorbed by plants in

a) colloidal form
b) ionic form
c) precipitated form
d) none of these
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Plants absorb minerals as ions.
128. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium
are visible first in

a) senescent leaves
b) young leaves
c) roots
d) buds.
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Deficiency symptoms appear first in young leaves
and young tissues in case of elements which are
relatively immobile inside the plant, e.g., Ca, S. For
mobile elements like N and K, deficiency symptoms
first appear in old and senescent leaves as the
elements are mobilised from senescing regions for
supply to young tissues.
129. Major role of minor elements inside living
organisms is to act as

a) Binder of cell structure

b) constituent of hormones
c) building blocks of important amino acids
d) cofactor of enzymes
SOLUTION: d)
130. Plants deficient in zinc, show reduced
biosynthesis of growth hormone

a) cytokinin
b) auxin
c) ethylene
d) abscisic acid
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Auxin is a growth regulator that has multiple roles in
plant growth. Plants deficient in zinc, show reduced
biosynthesis of auxin.
131. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root
nodules of legumes is

a) inhibition of nitrogenase activity

b) oxygen removal
c) nodule differentiation
d) expression of nif gene
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The root nodule of legume contains enzyme nitrogenase
and leghaemoglobin. Nitrogenase catalyses the conversion
of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia. It is highly sensitive
to the molecular oxygen and requires anaerobic
conditions. The nodules have adaptations to ensure that
the enzyme is protected from oxygen. To protect these
enzymes, the nodule contains an oxygen scavenger called
leghaemoglobin.
132. A plant requires magnesium for

a) protein synthesis
b) chlorophyll synthesis
c) cell wall development
d) holding cells together.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Magnesium is an important constituent of
chlorophyll, found in all green plants and essential for
photosynthesis. The chlorophyll molecule has a
tetrapyrolic or porphyrin head and a phytol tail. Mg
atom is present in the center of porphyrin head.
133. When water moves out of the plant cell and the
cell membrane of a plant shrinks away from its cell
wall then this condition is known as

a) Plasmolysis
b) Exosmosis
c) Hydrolysis
d) Endosmosis
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Plasmolysis is the phenomenon which takes place
when water from a plant cell moves out and makes
the cell mambrane of a plant to shrink. It occurs when
a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution due to which
water is first lost from the cytoplasm and then from
vacuole.
134. Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation

a) nitrogenase
b) nitroreductase
c) transferase
d) transaminase
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Nitrogen fixation involves conversion of atmospheric
nitrogen to ammonia. It is done with the help of
nitrogenase enzyme which occurs inside thick walled
heterocysts of the blue green algae. These provide
suitable anaerobic environment for nitrogenase
activity even in aerobic conditions
135. Nitrifying bacteria

a) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds

b) convert proteins into ammonia
c) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
d) oxidize ammonia to nitrates
SOLUTION: a)
136. Nitrifying bacteria

a) oxidise amonia to nitrates

b) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
c) convert proteins into ammonia
d) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Nitrifying bacteria involves the oxidation of ammonia
to nitrates through nitrites called nitrification. Nitrite
bacteria (Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus) convert
ammonia to nitrites whereas, nitrate bacteria
(Nitrobacter and Nitrocystis) convert nitrite to soluble
nitrates.
137. The deficiency of molybdenum causes

a) wilting of plant
b) increase in growth of plant
c) mottled chlorosis
d) chlorosis and necrosis in plant
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Molybdenum (Mo) deficiency occurs when plant
growth is limited because the plant cannot take up
sufficient quantities of this essential micronutrient
from its growing medium. Molybdenum deficiency
symptoms include chlorosis (yellowing) and necrosis
(scald) in plants.
138. Which one of the following is wrong statement?

a) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing

nitrogen in free-living state also.
b) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as
aerobes under free-living conditions.
c) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes,
certain nucleic acids and all proteins
d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemo-
autotrophs.
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Phosphorus is present in plasma membrane in the
form of phospholipid bilayer. It is an essential
component of all nucleic acids not 'certain' nucleic
acids. Moreover, phosphorus is never found in
proteins.
139. Plant take zinc in the form of

a) ZnSO₄
b) Zn⁺⁺
c) ZnO
d) Zn.
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Zinc is available to the plants for absorption in the
divalent form. The availability of zinc in soil
decreases when the pH of soil shifts towards alkaline
side. Zinc may form zinc phosphate in the soil which
is insoluble and in that case, it is not available to the
plants.
140. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen fixation?

a) Azolla
b) Nostoc
c) Salvia
d) Salvinia
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Azolla is an aquatic fern which is inoculated in the
rice field to increase the yield. Azolla contains Nostoc
and Anabaena (BGA) in its leaf cavities which
perform nitrogen fixation.
141. Which one of the following microbes forms
symbiotic association with plants and help them in
their nutrition?

a) Azotobacter
b) Aspergillus
c) Glomus
d) Trichoderma
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Glomus is the microbe that forms symbiotic
association with plants and help them in their
nutrition
142. What is true for cyanobacteria?

a) oxygenic with nitrogenase

b) oxygenic without nitrogenase
c) neon oxygenic with nitrogenase
d) non oxygenic without nitrogenase
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Cyanobacteria are gram negative prokaryotes which are popularly known as
blue-green algae. Although cyanobacteria are true prokaryotes, but their
photosynthetic system closely resembles with that of eukaryotes because they
have chlorophyll and photosystem II and they carry out oxygenic
photosynthesis. Like the red algae, cyanobacteria use phycobiliproteins as
accessory pigments. Photosynthetic pigments and electron transport chain
components are located in thylakoid membranes lined with particles called
phycobilisomes, which contain phycobilin pigments, particularly phycocyanin
and transfer energy to photosystem II. They contain nitrogenase enzyme for
nitrogen fixation. This enzyme become inactive in the presence of oxygen but
the thick walled heterocyst provide suitable anaerobic environment for
nitrogenase activity even in aerobic conditions.
143. Transpiration is manifestation of

a) turgor pressure
b) wall pressure
c) root pressure
d) none of these
SOLUTION: a)
144. Manganese is required in

a) plant cell wall formation

b) photolysis of water during photosynthesis
c) chlorophyll synthesis
d) nucleic acid synthesis
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Manganese (Mn²⁺) is used for photolysis of water to
produce oxygen and electrons during light reaction of
photosynthesis. It is the phenomenon of breaking up
of water into hydrogen and oxygen in the illuminated
chloroplast. It acts as an essential cofactor.
145. Which of the following elements is a constituent
of biotin?

a) Magnesium
b) calcium
c) phosphorus
d) sulphur
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Sulphur is present in two vitamins of B complex,
thiamine and biotin. Biotin is important to hair. It is
normally found in protein foods, such as eggs,
lettuce, sprouts, etc.
146. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in
carrying out :

a) Denitrification
b) Nitrogen Fixation
c) Chemoautotrophic fixation
d) Nitrification
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification i.e.,
conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free N2
147. The dieback of Citrus and reclamation disease of
cereals and leguminuous plants is due to the
deficiency of

a) Zinc
b) Molybdenum
c) Chlorine
d) Copper
SOLUTION: d)
148. Which of the following is a flowering plant with
nodules containing filamentous nitrogen fixing
microorganism?

a) crotalaria juncea
b) cycas revoluta
c) cicer arietinum
d) casuarine equisetifolia
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Casuarinaceae is the family of dicotyledonous
flowering plants placed in the order Fageles.
Casuarina is a member of the family, characterised by
drooping equisteoid twigs, are evergreen, and
monoecious or dioecious. The roots have nitrogen
fixing nodules that contain the soil actinomycetes
called Frankia which is filamentous bacteria.
149. Which of the following is the only monovalent
cation essential for plant growth?

a) Zn
b) Mn
c) K
d) Mg
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Pottasium is essential for activating enzymes
concerned in the synthesis of polypeptides. It is a
monovalent cation.
150. Hydroponics is

a) growing of aquatic plants

b) growing of floating aquatic plants
c) soilless cultivation of plants
d) growing of plants inside water
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Hydroponics is a subset of hydroculture, which is a
method of growing plants without soil by using
mineral nutrient solutions in a water solvent.
Photosynthesis in higher
NEET MOCK
plants TEST 7
151. If percentage of oxygen in atmosphere increases,
the rate of photosynthesis

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Either increases or decreases
d) Remain constant
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Photosynthesis depends on sunlight, carbon dioxide
and water. Thus it remains constant if oxygen is
increased in atmosphere.
152. Photophosphorylation means

a) CO₂ is reduced to carbohydrates

b) Light energy is converted into biological form of
chemical energy
c) Chemical energy is used to produce ATP
d) Formation of NADP
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
In the process of photosynthesis, the phosphorylation
of ADP to form ATP using the energy of sunlight is
called photophosphorylation.
153. In chloroplast quantasomes are present in

a) Stroma lamellae
b) Stroma
c) Grana lamellae
d) Periplastidial space
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Quantasomes helps in trapping of light energy and to
convert it into chemical energy. These are subunits
founds is granal lamellae.
154. Guttation occurs through__________

a) roots
b) hydathode
c) trichome
d) stomata
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Hydathodes are specialized structures and they are
mainly responsible for secreting water in liquid form.
They are generally restricted to the apex or the
serrated edges of the margins of leaves.
155. Most of the plants are unable to carry out
photosynthesis in hot and dry environments because

a) CO₂ build up in the leaves, blocking carbon

fixation
b) Due to close stomata, CO₂ cannot enter and O₂
cannot be released from the plants
c) Very intense light overpowers pigment molecules
d) None of these
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
In hot and dry environments stomata are closed
which is an unfavorable condition for photosynthesis.
156. In which of the following plants dimorphism is
seen?

a) Opuntia
b) Ground nut
c) Ocimum
d) Jowar
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Jowar is a C₄ plant. The leaf anatomy shows
dimorphic chloroplast i.e. Mesophyll chloroplast and
bundle sheath chloroplast.
157. Photosynthesis is considered as an oxidation
reaction because __________

a) CO₂ is oxidised
b) H₂O is oxidised
c) O₂ is released
d) CH₂O is oxidised
SOLUTION: b)
158. Which of the following is not a limiting factor
for photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen
b) CO₂
c) Light
d) Chlorophyll
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Oxygen is the by-product since it is not needed for
photosynthesis.
159. Agranal chloroplast is a characteristic feature of
which one of the following plant?

a) Mesophyll of groundnut
b) Bundle sheath of mango leaves
c) Mesophyll of maize leaves
d) Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Sugarcane plant shows Kranz anatomy. It is a C₄
plant which shows dimorphic chloroplast in leaves.
160. Photosynthesis is considered as redox reaction
because

a) H₂O is oxidized and CO₂ is reduced

b) NAD is oxidized and H₂O is reduced
c) H₂O is oxidized and NAD is reduced
d) CO₂ and H₂O both are oxidizedc
SOLUTION: a)
161. Which of the following store proteins ?

a) Chromoplasts
b) Aleuroplasts
c) Amyloplasts
d) Elaioplasts
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Aleuroplasts ia a semi autonomous organelle (plastid)
within a plant cell that stores protein.
162. Amount of CO₂ required for formation of 180
gm of glucose during photosynthesis is

a) 108 gm
b) 264 gm
c) 190 gm
d) 310 gm
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
264 gm of CO₂ and 216 gm of water give rise to 108
gm of water, 192 gm of O₂ and 180 gm of glucose.
163. The sulphur bacteria studied by Van Neil is

a) Chemosynthetic
b) Chemolithotrophs
c) Photosynthetic
d) Oxygenic photosynthetic
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
The sulphur bacteria studied by Van Neil is
chemosynthetic. All chemosynthetic organisms use
the energy released by chemical reactions to make a
sugar, but different species use different pathways.
164. The arrangement of vascular tissue in had
rocentric vascular bundle is_________

a) concentric
b) radial
c) collateral
d) bicollateral
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Sometimes, the either xylem surrounds the phloem
tissue or vice versa. Such vascular bundles are called
concentric vascular bundles
165. How many quanta are required for liberation of
one molecule of oxygen?

a) 4
b) 2
c) 8
d) 6
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The number of quanta required to release one
molecule of oxygen in photosynthesis is called
quantum requirement. Emerson showed that
reduction of one molecule of CO₂ to carbohydrates
and liberation of one molecule of oxygen required a
minimum of 8 quanta of light.
166. The membrane of chloroplast is called

a) Lipoprotein membrane
b) Thylakoid membrane
c) Peristromium
d) Perichloroplast membrane
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Chloroplast contain several important membranes,
vital for their function. Like mitochondria,
chloroplasts have a double-membrane envelope,
called the chloroplast envelope, but unlike
mitochondria, chloroplasts also have internal
membrane structures called thylakoids.
167. Chlorophyll is present

a) In the grana of chloroplasts

b) In the stroma of chloroplasts
c) On the outer membrane of chloroplasts
d) Throughout the chloroplasts
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Chlorophylls are the most important photosynthetic
pigment in all higher plants. Chlorophyll a and
chlorophyll b are present in the grana of chloroplast.
168. During photosynthesis the oxygen in glucose
comes from

a) H₂O
b) CO₂
c) Both form H₂O and CO₂
d) Oxygen in air
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
6CO₂ + 6H₂O + (sunlight) → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂
169. During light reaction of photosynthesis

a) Water molecule splits

b) PGAL is synthesized
c) CO₂ reacts with H₂
d) O₂ reacts with CO₂
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Light reactions need light to produce organic energy
molecules (ATP and NADPH). They are initiated by
colored pigments, mainly green colored chlorophylls.
170. The photosynthetic rate is independent of

a) Temperature
b) Intensity of light
c) Respiration
d) Duration of light
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Respiration plays no role in the rate of
photosynthesis. The photosynthetic rate is higher than
the respiration rate.
171. The time taken from the fixation of
carbondioxide to the formation of one glucose
molecule is about _________ seconds.

a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 90
SOLUTION: d)
172. Assimilatory power produced in light reaction is used for reducing

a) PGAL
b) PGA
c) RUBP
d) All of the above
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Light reaction is the first stage of photosynthesis
where water is broken in the chlorophyll molecule
into H⁺ and OH⁻ ions in the presence of light,
resulting in the formation of assimilatory powers such
as NADPH₂ and ATP.
173. How many photons are required to expel one
electron from chlorophyll?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
2 photons are required to expel one electron from
chlorophyll.
174. Which one of the following pigment functions as
a reaction center in photosynthesis ?

a) Chlorophyll-a
b) Xanthophyll
c) Carotenoid
d) Anthocyanin
SOLUTION: a)
175. The visible portion of light spectrum useful in
photosynthesis is referred to as

a) RFLP
b) PAR
c) VAM
d) VNTR
SOLUTION: b)
NEET MOCK
RESPIRATION TEST 7
IN PLANTS
176. Mitochondria marker enzyme is

a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Aldolase
c) amylase
d) Succinic dehydrogenease
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Succinic dehydrogenase is an enzyme found in the
mitochondria (the part of the cell responsible for
cellular respiration).
177. Which is the ratio of ATP in aerobic and
anaerobic respiration?

a) 1:8
b) 19:1
c) 36:3
d) 9:1
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
Aerobic respiration is one in which molecular oxygen
is used for the complete oxidation of glucose to yield
CO₂, H₂O and 38 ATP molecules. Anaerobic
respiration is one in which glucose is partially
oxidized without using oxygen to yield lactic acid or
ethyl alcohol and 2 ATP molecules .
178. During substrate level phosphorylation, from
one molecule of glucose total ATP molecules formed
are

a) 6 ATP
b) 8 ATP
c) 4 ATP
d) 2 ATP
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
During substrate level phosphorylation, from one
molecule of glucose 6ATP molecules are formed.
179. The first reaction in photorespiration is

a) Carboxylation
b) Oxygenation
c) Decarboxylation
d) Phosphorylation
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
The first reaction in photorespiration is oxygenation.
180. Which one of the following is formed as a result
of cyclic photophosphorylation?

a) NADPH₂
b) O₂
c) ATP
d) H₂O
SOLUTION: c)
181. Oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotes occurs
during …...

a) Photosynthesis
b) Protein synthesis
c) Lipid synthesis
d) Respiration
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Oxidative phosphorylation is the synthesis of energy
rich ATP molecules by utilising energy released
during oxidation of reduced coenzymes (NADH,
FADH₂) during respiration.
182. The net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic
breakdown of one glucose molecule is ….....

a) 40
b) 38
c) 36
d) 30
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Total ATP yield during aerobic cellular respiration can be calculated
as,
By the Electron Transport Chain
⇒ 10 × 3 = 30 ATPs, By NADH₂
⇒ 2 × 2 = 4 ATPs by FADH₂
By substrate level phosphorylation = 4 ATPs.
Thus, 34 + 4 = 38 ATPs are produced.
However, from these 38 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules are
consumed in transfer of NADH + HH from cytoplasm to
mitochondria if the route of electron transfer is via malate aspartate
shuttle.
183. If the rate of respiration becomes more than
photosynthesis, plants will

a) Show luxuriant growth

b) Continue to live without any deficiency
c) Show retardation in life activities
d) Grow better because more energy will be available
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
If the rate of respiration becomes more than
photosynthesis, plants will show retardation in life
activities.
184. Which of the following is the main product in
the photo respiration of C₃ plants?

a) Glycorate
b) Glycolate
c) Phosphoglycerate
d) Phosphoglycolate
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Phosphoglycolate is the main product in the
photorespiration of C₃ plants.
185. Which of the following respiratory substrate
yields maximum ATP molecules?

a) Glucose
b) Ketogenic amino acids
c) Amylase
d) Glycogen
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide can produce
about 30 molecules of ATP from a single molecule of
glucose.
186. Which of the following groups contain all
respiratory substrates?

a) Glucose and ATP

b) ATP, ADP, NADPH₂, FADH₂, FAD
c) Carbohydrates, fats, organic acids and proteins
d) Carbohydrates, organic acids and mineral ions
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
The compounds that are oxidized during this process
are known as respiratory substrates. Usually
carbohydrates are oxidized to release energy, but
proteins, fats and even organic acids can be used as
respiratory substances in some plants, under certain
conditions.
187. During anaerobic respiration the conversion of
pyruvate into acetaldehyde, along with co-enzyme
TPP, the cofactor required is

a) Mg⁺⁺
b) Mn⁺⁺
c) Fe⁺⁺
d) Zn⁺⁺
SOLUTION: d)
188. Which of the following generates maximum ATP
energy during its oxidation?

a) Fats
b) Proteins
c) Starch
d) Vitamins
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Energy present in one gm of fat is 9.8 kcal which is
more than proteins and carbohydrates.
189. Life without air will be

a) Reductional
b) Impossible
c) Anaerobic
d) Free from oxidative damage
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Anaerobic literally means "living without air", as
opposed to aerobic which means "living in the
presence of air".
190. Which of the following doesn't respire?

a) Seed
b) Flower buds
c) Ripe fruits
d) Wood
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Respiration is common feature of living cells while
wood possesses dead cells.
191. Acetylation of Pyruvate takes place in the
_________

a) perimitochondrial space
b) mitochondrial matrix
c) cristae
d) F1 particles
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Pyruvte decarboxylation or acetylation of puruvate is
a biochemical process that uses pyruvate to form
acetyle- co-A releasing NADH and carbondioxide. I
eukaryotes it takes place inside the perimitochondrial
space of the mitochondria.
192. Which of the following is not formed when
yeast produces wine ?

a) Acetyl Co-A
b) Acetaldehyde
c) CO₂
d) Malic acid
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Yeast respire anaerobically. Acetyl Co-A is one of the
component of aerobic respiration i.e. Krebs cycle
hence acetyl Co-A is not used in production of wine
from yeast.
193. Which one of the following electron acceptor is
present in respiratory chain?

a) Cytochrome f
b) Cytochrome a₃
c) Plastocyanin
d) Ferredoxin
SOLUTION: b)
194. Which one of the following is true about
respiration in green plants? Respiration takes place …

a) Only when stomata are open

b) Only when photosynthesis stops
c) Only when photosynthesis is in progress
d) throughout the life
SOLUTION: d)

Explanation :
Respiration is an important process in living
organisms.
It involves oxidation of respiratory substrates and
release of energy in the form of ATP. This energy is
utilised in various functions carried out in all living
organism.
195. During respiration in plants 180 gm glucose and
192 gm of oxygen produce

a) 264 gm CO₂, 108 gm water, 686 cal energy

b) Large amount of CO₂ and no water and no energy
c) CO₂ 528 gm, water 216 gm energy 1372 cal
d) CO₂ 132 gm, water 54 gm, energy 343 cal
SOLUTION: a)

Explanation :
Molecular weight of glucose is 180
6 molecule of oxygen are 192 gm.
6 molecules of CO₂ are 264 gm.
6 molecules of water are 102 gm.
196. In which part of the mitochondria are malate
dehydrogenase and fumarase present?

a) Outer membrane
b) Inner membrane
c) Mitochondrial matrix
d) Sub units of Fernandez and Moran
SOLUTION: c)

Explanation :
Malate dehydrogenase and fumarase enzymes are
present in mitochondrial matrix.
197. How much of the energy released during aerobic
respiration is approximately conserved in the form
of ATP ?

a) 20 percentage
b) 40 percentage
c) 60 percentage
d) 100 percentage
SOLUTION: b)
198. How many ATP molecules are produced by ETS
from Krebs cycle intermediates in single terms ?

a) 12
b) 11
c) 14
d) 16
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
11 ATP molecules are produced by ETS from Krebs
cycle intermediates in single terms.
199. From the following, what is true for each turn of
Krebs cycle?

a) Three molecules of water are used up and two

molecules of CO₂ are released
b) Three molecules of water are used up and three
molecules of CO₂ are released
c) Formation of two ATP molecules occurs through
substrate level phosphorylation
d) Formation of two NaDH₂ and one FADH₂ takes
place
SOLUTION: a)
200. NADP, NAD and FAD are acceptors of

a) Phosphate
b) Hydrogen
c) Electrons
d) Oxygen
SOLUTION: b)

Explanation :
All these acts as hydrogen acceptors.
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