PMI - ACP Exam

Questions 120
1) How is the Retrospective meeting BEST conducted?

A. Set the stage, Gather data, Generate Insights, Decide on what to do, Close the Retrospective
B. Gather data, Generate Insights, Decide on what to do, Set the stage, Close the Retrospective
C. Set the stage, Gather data, Decide on what to do, Generate Insights, Close the Retrospective
D. Decide on what to do, Set the stage, Gather data, Generate Insights, Close the Retrospective

2) What do risk burn down graphs show?

A) The impacts of project risks on the project schedule

B) The impacts of project risks on the project budget
C) The cumulative risk severities over time
D) The cumulative risk probabilities over time
3) Which of the following techniques is considered most effective when used as a method for project
team members to generate ideas for solving problems or meeting open-ended challenges?

A) Brainstorming
B) Fist of Five
C) Free-For-All
D) Silent Idea Generation

4) What type of planning describes the technique of applying incremental delivery cycles to perform the
work on an Agile project?

A) Rolling Wave Planning

B) Adaptive Planning
C) Progressive Planning
D) Incremental Planning
5) Of the listed options, which BEST describes User Stories?

A. Support tools for analysis

B. IEEE 830
C. Use Cases
D. Interaction Design Scenarios

6) Having problems does not indicate a problem in itself, so welcome problems because they bring with
them the chance for the team to overcome, grow, and become stronger together." As an Agile Coach, which
are the multiple perspectives to analyse to detect the symptoms for the problem?

A. Process Level
B. Quality and Performance Level
C. Team dynamics dimension
D. All of the above
7) Feature X has a value of 12 and the total value of all features is 35. If the feature is estimated to
cost 56%, what is the priority of this feature using relative weighting?

A. 0.34
B. 0.61
C. 1.64
D. 0.625

8) A methodology that is based on solutions or sequences of steps that is known to work for the discipline
is known as,

A. Normative
B. Rational
C. Heuristic
D. Participative
9) Name the XP technique where two people pair; one person who codes is the driver and the other
person who thinks is the Navigator?

A. Pair Programming
B. Planning Poker
C. Planning Technique
D. Coding Technique

10) An Agile artifact that that describes the incremental nature of how a product will be built and delivered
over time, along with the important factors that drive each individual release is called?

SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

A) Product Vision Statement

B) Product Wireframe
C) Product Roadmap
D) Product Theme
11) An agile team is planning the tools they will use for the project. They are debating how they should
show what work is in progress. Of the following options, which tool are they most likely to select?

A) User story backlog

B) Product roadmap
C) Task board
D) Work breakdown structure

12) One of the major tools and techniques used in Lean Software Development is value stream mapping.
What is the primary purpose of value stream mapping?

A) To improve business processes

B) To identify and eliminate waste
C) To ensure product quality
D) To increase customer value
13) In Scrum, the definition of done is created by everyone EXCEPT:

A) Development team
B) Product owner
C) ScrumMaster
D) Process owner

14) Spike solutions are small standalone programs that demonstrate what you”ve learned. Which of the
following types of spike will you use if you need to test an approach to your production code?

A. Development Spike
B. Design Spike
C. Scheduling Spikes
D. Iteration Spikes
15) If we plan to work in a two-week iterations with thirteen iterations during the project and the
team”s velocity will be twenty story points or ideal days per iterations, what will the size of the total
project in story points be?

A. 13
B. 20
C. 260
D. 200

16) Which of the following BEST describes ROTI?

A. Measure of product backlogs remaining

B. Measure of quality of features delivered in an iteration
C. Measure of required effort to deliver in an iteration
D. Measure of effectiveness of the retrospective meeting
17) As part of stakeholder management and understanding, the team may undertake customer
persona modeling. Which of the following would a persona not represent in this context?

A) Stereotyped users
B) Real people
C) Archetypal description
D) Requirements

18) John and Joseph are working in the same room. John is programming and Joseph is having some
discussion with Kim. John gets to hear their conversation and gets enough information to know that Joseph
has talked about some idea with Kim. What kind of communication is this referred to as?

A. Push Communication
B. Osmotic Communication
C. Pull Communication
D. Active Listening
19) Which of the following is NOT a principle from the Agile Manifesto?

A. Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable
software.
B. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project.
C. Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design does not enhance agility.
D. Working software is the primary measure of progress.

20) The steps involved in value stream analysis include:

A) Create a value stream map to document delays and wasted time, such as meetings and coffee breaks.
B) Create a value stream map of the current process, identifying steps, queues, delays, and information
flows.
C) Review the value stream map of the current process and compare it to the goals set forth in the project
charter.
D) Review how to adjust the value stream charter to be more flexible.
21) Who is responsible for the creation and maintenance of the Product Roadmap?

A) Project Manager
B) Product Manager
C) Scrum Master
D) Product Owner

22) Emotional Intelligence is an extremely important interpersonal skill that each Agile team member
should possess. In terms of the social awareness aspects of Emotional Intelligence, which of the following
statements is true?

A) Social Awareness is characterized by the use of self-confidence

B) Social Awareness is characterized by the use of influence
C) Social Awareness is characterized by the use of self-control
D) Social Awareness is characterized by the use of empathy
23) Alistair Cockburn created the Crystal Family of Agile Methods, all of whose names contain colors
of quartz crystals taken from geology. What two characteristics of an Agile project are used to
determine the color of the Crystal method that should be implemented?

A) Size and complexity

B) Duration and complexity
C) Size and criticality
D) Duration and criticality

24) The Agile Manifesto value “customer collaboration over contract negotiation” means that:

A) Agile approaches encourage you not to focus too much on negotiating contracts, since most vendors
are just out for themselves anyway.
B) Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather than debating the details
of contract terms.
C) Agile approaches prefer not to use contracts, unless absolutely necessary, because they hamper our
ability to respond to change requests.
D) Agile approaches recommend that you only collaborate with vendors who are using agile processes
themselves.
25) Which of the following is NOT true about the Iteration Demos?

A. It is a concrete demonstration of the teams progress

B. The demos help the team be honest about its progress.
C. Iteration demos are a closed affair and are shown only to a selected set of stakeholders
D. The demo is an opportunity to solicit regular feedback from the customers

26) In what year was the Declaration of Interdependence published?

A) 2001
B) 2003
C) 2005
D) 2007
27) When managing an agile software team, engaging the business in prioritizing the backlog is an
example of:

A) Technical risk reduction

B) Incorporating stakeholder values
C) Vendor management
D) Stakeholder story mapping

28) Agile Teams use Planning Poker for estimation. Which of the following is NOT true about Planning
Poker?

A. It combines expert opinion, analogy, and disaggregation into an enjoyable approach to estimating that
results in quick but reliable estimates.
B. Participants include all of the developers on the team
C. The team for Planning Poker should not exceed more than 10 participants
D. The highest estimate is considered the final estimate
29) What is the process cycle efficiency of a 2-hour meeting if it took you 2 minutes to schedule the
meeting in the online calendar tool and 8 minutes to write the agenda and e-mail it to participants?

A) 90%
B) 8%
C) 92%
D) 96%

30) You are performing integrated testing on each of the different product increments developed during
each iteration so far to ensure that they work together as a whole. What type of iteration is this?

A) Hybrid Iteration
B) Hardening Iteration
C) Heuristic Iteration
D) Handoff Iteration
31) Self-organization implies a reliance on internal motivation of the team rather than external
motivation. This is referred to as.

A. Delegatory management
B. Measurement based management
C. Democratic management
D. Autocratic management

32) What is the successful response option at Conflict Level 1 : Problem to Solve ?

A. Collaboration
B. Consensus
C. Safety
D. A&B
33) Which of the following statements is not true with regard to user stories?

A) They are stored in the Product, Release and Sprint Backlogs.

B) They are the primary vehicles used in Agile to create project and product requirements.
C) They should be written by the customer or customer proxy.
D) They represent the smallest unit of work performed on an Agile project.

34) When can a plan be changed in Agile Management?

A. At the end of the Iteration

B. When we have learned something new
C. At the Daily Meeting
D. You cannot change once the plan is prepared
35) When using a Kanban board to manage work in progress, which of the following best
summarizes the philosophy behind the approach?

A) It is a sign of the work being done and should be maximized to boost performance.
B) It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance.
C) It is a sign of the work queued for quality assurance, which should not count toward
D) It is a sign of the work queued for user acceptance, which should not count toward velocity.

36) What is the Agile term for the technique of creating a group of rules that govern how team members
interact?

A) Standard Operating Procedures

B) Teaming Agreements
C) Working Agreements
D) Rules of Engagement
37) You are a Product Owner working on an agile software development project and you have
brought all the Scrum team members together for the first Iteration Planning meeting. You read the
user stories to the team, and they have provided estimates to complete these user stories. You have
promised to leave them alone during the iteration to get the work done and they have agreed to
complete the work 100% according to the definition of done. What is this an example of?

A) Two-way communication
B) Reciprocal commitment
C) Bi-partisan agreement
D) Emotional intelligence

38) In a Fixed Price contract, the risk is borne by,

A. Supplier
B. Customer
C. Product Owner
D. Project Team
39) Which are the three coach styles?

A. Teaching, Coaching and Advising

B. Coaching, Mentoring and Advising
C. Coaching, Information, Advising
D. Mentoring, Teaching and Advising

40) An agile team is beginning a new release. Things are progressing a little slower than they initially
estimated. The project manager is taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following actions is
the project manager most likely to do?

A) Create a high-level scope statement and estimates.

B) Intervene in nonproductive team arguments.
C) Do administrative activities for the team.
D) Demonstrate the system to senior executives.
41) Which of the following BEST describes Horizontal Market Software?

A. Developed for many organizations

B. Developed and used across many industries
C. Developed for a dedicated customer
D. Developed for one organization

42) Which of the following Agile meetings is used to synchronize an Agile project teams activities to ensure
they are all working toward a common iteration goal?

A) Daily Standup Meeting

B) Iteration Review Meeting
C) Iteration Planning Meeting
D) Iteration Retrospective Meeting
43) In terms of the decomposition of requirements on an Agile project, the artifact that contains
release plans as its first level of decomposition is referred to as a?

A) Product Backlog
B) Release Backlog
C) Product Roadmap
D) Release Roadmap

44) A story estimated at one story point actually took two days to complete. How much does it contribute to
velocity when calculated at the end of the iteration?

A. One Point
B. Three Points
C. Two Points
D. Cannot be calculated
45) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Agile project manager?

A. Manages daily tasks of the team members

B. Assumes different leadership styles for different stages of team formation
C. Allows team to self-manage
D. Facilitates collaboration

46) DSDM uses MoSCoW technique to create the prioritized requirements list. In MoSCoW technique, “M”
stands for :

A. Medium
B. Must Have
C. Must Not Have
D. Minimum Marketable Features
47) Which of the following BEST describes error-feedback ratio?

A. Time spend to fix the hard bugs

B. Number of defects corrected in a specific time
C. Number of errors predicted
D. Number of new defects injected when fixing existing defects

48) Who specifies Acceptance Tests in an Agile Project?

A. Customer
B. Programmer
C. Developer
D. Product Manager
49) Which of the following is a STORY?

A. "Full-screen demo option for job fair"

B. "Automate integration build"
C. "Deploy to staging server outside the firewall"
D. "Improve performance"

50) Which of the following defines Elapsed Time?

A. Is the same as Ideal Time

B. Is the amount of time that passes on a clock or perhaps a calendar
C. Is the amount of time that something takes when stripped of all peripheral activities
D. Is the amount of time the team spent on the iteration
51) Which of the following technique of Scrum requires that every slice of functionality created by the
developers be complete?

A. Team Collaboration
B. Sashimi
C. Scrum tool
D. Ability

52) Incremental delivery means that:

A) We deliver nonfunctional increments in the iteration retrospectives.

B) We release working software only after testing each increment.
C) We improve and elaborate our agile process with each increment delivered.
D) We deploy functional increments over the course of the project.
53) Which of the following items is not a benefit associated with product demonstrations?

A) Learn about feature suitability

B) Learn about feature usability
C) Learn about feature estimates
D) Learn about new requirements

54) What is MOST true about Participatory Decision Making?

A. It is a technique that involves all the affected parties

B. It is just a meeting with no outcomes
C. It only involves the customer and the Product Manager
D. It is a technique based on the wishes of the Scrum Master
55) Which of the following is not true of how burn up charts that also track total scope differ from burn
down charts?

A) Burn up charts separate out the rate of progress from the scope fluctuations
B) Burn up charts and burn down charts trend in opposite vertical directions
C) Burn up charts can be converted to cumulative flow diagrams by the addition of WIP
D) Burn down charts indicate whether rate of effort changes are due to changes in progress rates or
scope

56) Product defects reported by the customer that have escaped all software quality processes are called?

A) Primary Defects
B) Escaped Defects
C) Secondary Defects
D) Undetected Defects
57) When working with a globally distributed team, the most useful approach would be to:

A) Bring the entire team together for a diversity and sensitivity training day before starting the first
iteration.
B) Bring the entire group together for a big celebration at the end of the project
C) Bring the entire group together for a get-to-know-you session before starting the first iteration.
D) Gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for at least the first
iteration.

58) Wideband Delphi is a repeatable process that can be used :

A. To generate estimate
B. To create a story
C. For implementation purpose
D. To motivate the team
59) FDD/TDD - Which of the following is an Agile Modeling tool that can be used in conjunction with
different Agile methods?

A) Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM)

B) Feature Driven Development (FDD)
C) Adaptive Software Development (ASD)
D) Test Driven Development (TDD)

60) When implementing Agile Project Management, risk management that occurs simply by following Agile
best practices such as iterative planning and review activities is called?

A) Inherent risk management

B) Organic risk management
C) Overt risk management
D) Intrinsic risk management
61) In general, metrics can be defined as quantitative parameters or measures that can be used to
track performance or production. As “metrics” relate specifically to Agile project management, they
can only be considered “valuable” to the Agile team if they are used to “measure” the progress of the
delivered product, the efficiency of the project as a whole, and the efficiency of the Agile project team.
All of the following are metrics used in Agile except:

A) Real Time
B) Velocity
C) Escaped defects
D) Cycle time

62) Assuming one-week iterations and a team of four developers, how many iterations will it take the team
to complete a project with 27 story points if they have a velocity of 4?

A. 7
B. 4
C. 6
D. 24
63) The Value Stream Mapping process has four distinct steps. Which of the following is not a
recommended step in the Value Stream Mapping process?

A) Define the current state

B) Describe the opportunity
C) Identify the value stream target
D) Depict the desired future state

64) Technical debt is the gap between a product”s actual cost of change (CoC) and its optimal CoC.
Managing technical debt helps ensure reliable delivery today and ready adaptation to tomorrow”s customer
needs. When can Technical Debt occur?

A. During Initial Development

B. On-going Maintenance
C. During enhancement
D. During all the above mentioned times
65) Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a Good Story?

A. Testable
B. Large
C. Independent
D. Negotiable

66) When it comes to estimating the requirements on your Agile projects, there are three different “Sizing
Units” that can be used to determine the size (referring here specifically to “Level of Effort”) of your Agile
project requirements (referring here specifically to “user stories”), and the specific tasks to meet those
requirements. Which of the Following is not recognized as a “unit” that can be used for estimating the size
of the requirements on your Agile project?

A) Real time
B) Relative size
C) Ideal time
D) Ideal size
67) During what Agile meeting is a potentially shippable product increment shown to all interested
stakeholders?

A) Iteration Acceptance Meeting

B) Iteration Planning Meeting
C) Iteration Review Meeting
D) Iteration Retrospective Meeting

68) Which of the following charts shows the total number of story points completed through the end of
each iteration?

A. Iteration Burndown chart

B. Cumulative story point Burndown chart
C. Daily Burndown chart
D. Burn up chart
69) One of your stakeholder wants more detail than the vision statement provides, but not the
overwhelming detail of the release and iteration plans. Which of the following progress report will you
share with this stakeholder?

A. Roadmap
B. Status email
C. Iteration plan
D. Productivity chart

70) In terms of the decomposition of requirements on an Agile project the artifact that contains release
plans as its first level of decomposition is referred to as a?

A) Product Roadmap
B) Release Backlog
C) Product Backlog
D) Sprint Backlog
71) Extreme Programming (XP) defines four basic activities that are performed during the software
development process. These include designing, coding, testing ?

A) Collaborating
B) Leveling
C) Communicating
D) Listening

72) To detect problems at the process level, The team uses a questionnaire that lists required elements
and qualities that are the basic ingredients of agile. From this, we consider anew whether the team truly
adheres to their agile process. This questionnaire is referred to as,

A. Health Check
B. Form
C. Questionnaire
D. Checklist
73) In agile approaches, negotiation is viewed as:

A) A zero-sum game
B) A winner-takes-all challenge
C) A failproof win-win scenario
D) A healthy process of give and take

74) Which of the following BEST describes Task Board?

A. The task board is always a white board

B. It is a great tool to show the project trend
C. It serves the dual purpose of giving the team a convenient mechanism for organizing their work and a
way of seeing at a glance how much work is left.
D. Task Boards plot the Velocity
75) What Agile role is sometimes referred to as the voice of the customer ?

A) Scrum Master
B) Development Team Lead
C) Product Owner
D) Project Manager

76) Choose the correct combination of XP practice names from the following options:

A) Test-driven design, refactoring, pair programming

B) Test-driven development, reforecasting, peer programming
C) Test-driven development, refactoring, pair programming
D) Test-driven design, refactoring, peer programming
77) To ensure the success of our project, in what order should we execute the work, taking into
account the necessary dependencies and risk mitigation tasks?

A) The order specified by the project management office (PMO)

B) The order specified by the business representatives
C) The order specified by the project team
D) The order specified by the project architect

78) For a Retrospective meeting, the seating arrangement should be such that there is enough space for
people to move comfortably. Which of the following is a preferable seating arrangement for a retrospective
meeting?

A. Circle or semicircle of chairs

B. Theatre style arrangement
C. Tables arranged in U-shape
D. Meeting Room
79) Affinity Estimating is a technique many teams use to quickly and easily estimate a large number
of user stories. What should be the minimum size for the items in the Product Backlog?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 8
D. 5

The Affinity Estimating exercise is best conducted on Product Backlogs larger than 20
items. It is best when you have at least 40 items which allows for groupings to easily
become apparent.

80) When we practice active listening, what are the levels through which our listening skills progress?

A) 1) Global listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Intuitive listening

B) 1) Interested listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening
C) 1) Self-centered listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Intuitive listening
D) 1) Internal listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening
81) What is the normal time estimate for a research story?

A. 1 day
B. 1 hour
C. Half an hour
D. 1 iteration

82) Which of the following defines the splitting of a story or a feature into smaller, easier-to-estimate
pieces?

A. Decomposition
B. Disaggregation
C. Theme
D. Epic
83) Which of the following Agile meetings is process-oriented?

A) Iteration Planning
B) Iteration Review
C) Iteration Demonstration
D) Iteration Retrospective

84) Team 1 has been asked to complete work on Item 10 story and deliver it to Team 2 so that they can
initiate work on Item 12 story, which is dependent on completion of Item 10 story. The leader of Team 1
decides to insert a buffer that protects the start date on Item 12 story against delays in the completion of
Item 10 story. This buffer is known as,

A. Feeding Buffer
B. Iteration Buffer
C. Story Buffer
D. Release Buffer
85) You and your Agile project team are currently demonstrating a potentially shippable product
increment to you project stakeholders. What Agile meeting are you conducting?

A) Review Meeting
B) Daily Standup Meeting
C) Retrospective Meeting
D) Deliverables Meeting

86) The retrospective meeting on previous iteration should last not more than

A. 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 5 minutes
87) Variance and Trend Analysis is a technique used on Agile projects to reduce risk. What type of
Agile Risk Management is Variance and Trend Analysis considered?

A) Organic Risk Management

B) Organizational Risk Management
C) Optimal Risk Management
D) Overt Risk Management

88) Teams utilizing unfamiliar technology may need time for training prior to a projects launch and time to
establish a development environment. This training may be included

A. In Iteration 0
B. As a new story
C. Is out of project scope
D. None of the above
89) On your Agile project you have just completed the creation of a potentially shippable product
increment. The time it took to create this product increment is referred to as?

A) Actual Time
B) Cycle Time
C) Lead Time
D) Real Time

90) What financial return parameter will be BEST for comparing the values of two different cash flow
streams?

A. Internal Rate of Return

B. Payback Period
C. Discounted Payback Period
D. Compound Interest
91) All of the following are considered methods of receiving feedback from Agile project team
members except?

A) Team Evaluation
B) Prototyping
C) Individual Evaluation
D) Process Tailoring

92) What type of Agile contract allows the customer to terminate the contract at any time on the project if
they do not see any added value?

A) Agile Iteration Contract

B) Agile Time and Materials Contract
C) Agile Phased Development Contract
D) Agile Early Termination Contract
93) All of the following are considered Agile Methods except?

A) Adaptive Software Development

B) Feature Driven Development
C) Lean Software Development
D) Test Driven Development

94) At the second level of conflict, i.e. Disagreement, Team members distance themselves from one
another to ensure they come out OK in the end or to establish a position for compromise they assume will
come. They may talk offline with other team members to test strategies or seek advice and support. What
becomes as important as solving the problem?

A. Self protection
B. Satisfy self ego
C. Aim to win
D. None of the above
95) In the Agile Team Stages of Shu Ha Ri, what does “Ha” stand for?

A. Break the rule

B. Follow the rule
C. Be the rule
D. None of the above

96) You are currently on an Agile project team developing a new bar code scanning device for a major drug
store retailer and are currently creating user stories. One project team member is very strong-willed and is
constantly trying to exert his influence over others to sway them to his way of thinking. This is an example
of?

A) Dominating
B) Influencing
C) Dictating
D) Anchoring
97) Agile project management and product development uses several different types of documents
specific to each iteration, which are referred to as "artifacts". All of the following are Agile iteration
artifacts except:

A) Iteration Vision Statement

B) Iteration Backlog
C) Iteration Plan
D) Iteration Burnup Chart

98) Which of the following is NOT true about Retrospective?

A. It helps decide how team will work in the future

B. It helps to reflect and learn from the past
C. It allows the team to own and drive their development process
D. It decides who will work on the next project
99) According to DeMarco, Fragmented knowledge workers may look busy but a lot of their business
is just thrashing. The minimum cost penalty is :

A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. 25%

100) Which of the following is an example of a continuous process improvement ceremony on an Agile
Project?

A) Release Planning Meeting

B) Iteration Retrospective Meeting
C) Product Demonstration Meeting
D) Iteration Planning Meeting
101) At a Retrospective meeting, a few issues are highlighted by the team. Who is responsible for
solving these issues?

A. The Scrum Master

B. Product Owner
C. Stakeholders
D. Team

102) On your Agile projects there is sometimes undocumented knowledge or information that is only known
by certain project team members, and is usually kept to themselves. What is the name of this type of
knowledge?

A) Common Knowledge
B) Shared Knowledge
C) Tacit Knowledge
D) Tribal Knowledge
103) One of your stakeholder is interested in viewing the project progress but he is not interested in
details. Which of the following report can you share with this stakeholder?

A. Weekly demo
B. Vision Statement
C. Release plan
D. Burn up chart

104) Often when implementing an Agile project for the first time in an organization, there is no historical
data to determine the velocity of the first project iteration, so this velocity is really more of a guestimate than
an estimate . Which term describes this type of velocity?

A) Forecasted Velocity
B) Estimated Velocity
C) Terminal Velocity
D) Cycle Velocity
105) Frequently integrating new and updated software code on an Agile project is called?

A) Constant Integration
B) Contiguous Integration
C) Consistent Integration
D) Continuous Integration

106) Which of the following is an Agile Manifesto principle?

A) Welcome changing requirements, early in development. Agile processes handle changes for the
customer s competitive advantage.
B) Welcome changing priorities, early in development. Agile processes harness change for the customer s
competitive advantage.
C) Welcome changing priorities, even late in development. Agile processes handle changes for the
customer s competitive advantage.
D) Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness change for the
customer s competitive advantage.
107) What does acronym DRY stand for?

A. Do not Repeat Yourself

B. Do not Reject Yourself
C. Do Repeat Yourself
D. None of the above

108) The PMO has asked you to generate some financial information to summarize the business benefits
of your project. To best describe how much money you hope the project will return, you should show an
estimate of:

A) Internal rate of return (IRR)

B) Return on investment (ROI)
C) Gross domestic product (GDP)
D) Net present value (NPV)
109) How do you best describe the primary role of an Agile leader?

A. Manage WBS, schedule and cost of project

B. Manage stakeholders
C. Manage work allocation to team members
D. Manage teams without managing their tasks

110) Which of the following is not a value stated in the Agile Manifesto?

A) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

B) Working software over comprehensive documentation
C) Customer communication over contract negotiation
D) Responding to change over following a plan
111) Agile project teams often use a collection of values, principles and practices to aid in the Agile
software development process. What is the term used to describe this collection?

A) Agile Prototyping
B) Agile Analytics
C) Agile Modeling
D) Agile Diagnostics

112) Decision Framing focuses majorly on,

A. Identifying types of decisions that need to be made

B. Stakeholders involved in the decision making process
C. Delegating decision making process
D. Manager taking the decision
113) What does “R” stand for in ARCS, a criteria for evaluating Instructional designs by J.M. Keller?

A. Relevance
B. Repeatable
C. Recording
D. Right

114) When a team member approaches the Coach with a complaint about another team member, what
conflict resolution technique should the Coach use?

A. Two-step intervention path

B. Face to Face
C. Three-step intervention path
D. Confronting
115) Which of the following factor will not assist in improving the project velocity?

A. Pay down Technical Debt

B. Offload Programmer duties
C. Reduce customer involvement
D. Provide needed resources

116) Which of the following documents defines the functional and non-functional requirements that the
system should meet to deliver the vision, prioritized and estimated?

A. Prioritized Sprint
B. Vision Box
C. Product Backlog
D. Sprint Review Meet
117) Traditional Project Management uses a Work Breakdown structure to develop requirements in
terms of activities. What type of breakdown structure is used in Agile to for this purpose?

A) Feature Breakdown Structure

B) Product Breakdown Structure
C) Activity Breakdown Structure
D) Theme Breakdown Structure

118) Sometimes stories are too small. A good approach for tiny stories, common among Extreme
Programming teams, is to combine them into larger stories that represent from about a half-day to several
days of work. The combined story is given a name and is then scheduled and worked on just like any other
story. Which of the following are NOT examples of small stories?

A. Bug Reports
B. Bugs
C. User Interface Changes
D. A & C
119) What do you mean by Throughput?

A. Is the amount of production over time

B. Is the number of features the team can develop in a particular amount of time.
C. Is the number of features released during a Release
D. Is the number of defects rectified during a Release

120) Which of the following will NOT assist in Critical Problem solving during the project?

A. Ask probing questions

B. Use Active Listening
C. Use Reflective Listening
D. Injecting ideas