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PMP® 2018 Simulation Test Paper-02 (Answers) PDF
PMP® 2018 Simulation Test Paper-02 (Answers) PDF
1You are the project manager for a project, and your team members
have a dual reporting structure. In addition to reporting to you, they
also report to their functional manager. The team members are also
expected to do the project work along with their department work. In
which form of organization are you working?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Tight Matrix
D. Matrix
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
In a matrix organization, team members have a dual reporting structure and the
team works in their respective functional areas, along with project work. Option
(c) tight matrix has nothing to do with organization structure. It simply denotes
that the project team is kept in the same vicinity. Please refer to Influences of
Organizational Structures on Projects, page 47, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
According to the new examination content outline, approval from the customer
is removed. Only the sponsor's approval is required. Option (a), (b), and (c) are
not correct.
A. Project coordinator
B. Project expeditor
C. Project lead
D. Lead coordinator
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
A project coordinator's role is similar to a project expeditor's role, and they act
primarily as staff assistants and communication coordinators. However, unlike
project expeditors, project coordinators have some power to make decisions
and report to high-level managers.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The term Management by Objective was made popular by Peter Drucker in his
1954 book The Practice of Management." Management by Objective is a
systematic and organized approach that allows the management to focus on
achievable goals and to attain the best possible results from available resources.
The principle behind Management by Objectives (MBO) is to make sure that
everybody within the organization has a clear understanding of the aims
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
This is a project as this initiative fulfills all the characteristics of a project. A project
is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or
result. The temporary nature of a project indicates a definite beginning and end.
The end is achieved when project objectives are achieved (here an increase in
customer satisfaction index by 15%). Please refer to Introduction to Understand
the Difference in Approach of a Project, Program, or a Portfolio, PMBOK® Guide -
Sixth Edition, Glossary, page 542.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The projects supported by a PMO may not be related other than being
managed together. The specific form and structure of a PMO would purely
depend upon the needs of the organization it supports. For more information on
PMOs please refer to Introduction, page 48, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
ensures that all areas of the project come together to deliver the
project to a successful conclusion. This involves balancing the basic
aspects of scope, cost, and schedule, in addition to managing
quality, communication, and customer satisfaction. The role of a
project manager can be best described as:
A. Integrator
B. Leader
C. Communicator
D. Differentiator
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The role of a project manager is to combine all the above options. However, the
one that is most critical to project success is that of an integrator. A project
manager is expected to integrate the project management processes and
coordinate the process phases through the project management cycle to ensure
that all areas of the project come together to deliver a successful conclusion.
Integration involves not only pulling up all aspects of project management like
scope, cost, schedule, quality, and communication for your project needs, but
also working with other departments like legal, human resources, training,
contract administration, and information technology which are impacted by your
project.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The kick-off meeting is done in the beginning of the project and then again
before starting each new project phase. It has four main objectives: a) Publicly
state the beginning of the project; b) Outline the project goals, as well as the
individual roles and responsibilities of team members; c) Clarify the expectations
of all parties; and (d) Get a commitment from all those who influence the
project's outcome.
13You are a project manager in the early phase of estimating the cost
of the project. You use the analogous method of estimating and have
come up with a rough order of magnitude. While presenting it to your
sponsor and stakeholders, one of the stakeholders asks if you have
also done life cycle costing of the project. What is your BEST response
as a credible Project Manager?
A. Project cost estimating is primarily concerned with the cost of resources
needed to complete the project and need not consider any other costs
B. Since it is the initial stage of the project, cost details required for Life Cycle
costing of the project are not available and hence it is not relevant
C. Lifecycle costing provides the lowest long-term cost of ownership and should
be used as a management decision tool
D. Lifecycle costing should be done by the project sponsor as it impacts long-
term business decisions
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Life cycle costing provides the lowest long term cost of ownership and should be
used as a management decision tool. Project cost management is primarily
concerned with the cost of resources needed to complete the project. (Option
[a] is partly true.) Project cost management should also consider the effect of
project decisions on the subsequent recurring cost of using, maintaining, and
supporting the project. The lifecycle costing analysis can be used to assist
management in the decision-making process where there is a choice of options.
Lifecycle costing is looking at the cost of the whole life of the product, not just the
cost of the project.
D. Tight Matrix
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
C. Composite Organization
D. Balanced Matrix Organization
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The answer to this question can be reached by the process of elimination. Since
the project is already initiated and is in the planning stage, option (a) and (d)
can't be true. There is no evidence to believe option (b). The most probable
explanation could be failure to support the project by the sponsor. The term
sponsor, by definition, suggests financial responsibility. This sponsor is thought to
own the project and is considered responsible for ensuring its success. He is also
typically the one who proposes the project in the first place and whose business
unit reaps its benefits.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
This would be the best course of action to start with. There seems to have been
some issues with the management style and priorities of the previous project
manager. You need to determine the management strategy which will provide
the balance between activity and people. The other options may follow once
you have thought through the management strategy.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
There can be serious repercussions if the project charter isn't approved. It is best
to convey such repercussions and educate the management.
22A new project manager has just been assigned to a project that is
in progress. The project is two weeks behind schedule and the
members are about to be distributed to another project. Based on
original time estimates that are provided by the functional manager,
what is the initial step the project manager should take?
A. The project manager should first revise the Gantt chart with new timelines
B. The project manager should check the project plan for contingencies
concerning resources and talk to the functional manager
C. The project manager should initially contact the steering committee and work
with a new team
D. The project manager should first show sympathy with the current team and
delay decision making for another week
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
All the other options may further delay the project which is already late.
Therefore, (b) is the best option.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Your management skills are not yet proven. It is not clear what you have been
trained on. Responsibility charts may tell you your responsibility, but nothing
beyond that. It is best to rely on historical records to find out how similar projects
were done earlier.
24A project manager and his team have finished creating the Work
Breakdown Structure (WBS) and the Work Breakdown Structure
dictionary. The project manager then prepares a detailed and
itemized documentation of all the schedule activities that are part of
a particular project. What should the Project Manager do NEXT?
A. Create a network diagram for the project
B. Determine quality standards, processes, and metrics
C. Determine high-level project assumptions and constraints
D. Conduct a project progress meeting
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The project manager has created a WBS, a WBS dictionary, and an activity list in
the planning stage. The next step would be to create a network diagram for the
project. Quality standards and metrics can be identified once the project
schedule and budget are determined. Option (c) is done as part of project
initiation and is completed much earlier. Option (d) is done when the project
plan is executed.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
According to the new examination content outline, risk parameters are also
added to quality management plan and quality standards.
27A project team has just been provided a charter and has identified
the stakeholders for a project. It is about to start planning. Which
process is the most logical starting point for the planning activities?
A. Defining activities
B. Estimating costs
C. Determining budget
D. Planning scope management
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Scope is usually the starting point for planning. Without knowing what is needed,
it is hard to start with the other planning processes. So, the most logical starting
point is the scope management planning process.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The project manager is in the process of defining scope and all the above are
inputs to the process except requirements documentation. For more information,
refer to Project Scope Management, page 150, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The project manager is in the "develop schedule" process and has already
derived an approved project schedule. This implies option (a), (b), and (d) are
already completed as part of the processes estimate activity resources, develop
schedule, and sequence activities. The next step would be to treat this estimate
as a schedule baseline and start tracking the project as part of the control
schedule process.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
PERT allows the estimator to include three estimates: optimistic, pessimistic, and
most likely, given by the equation: Expected Duration = [P + 4(ML) + O]/6. Range
is +/- standard deviation = (P-O)/6, where P is the pessimistic estimate, ML is the
most likely estimate, and O is the optimistic estimate. Using this method, the
duration is 61.67 days and the range (+/-Standard Deviation) is 8.00.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The project manager is currently in the estimate activity resources process and
the options (a), (b), and (c) would have an impact on the process. However,
option (d) is not in the purview of the project manager and would not be part of
the activities in the estimate activity resources process.
33A project activity has values for the earliest and latest it can start,
along with the earliest and latest it can be completed. Activity A has
a Late Start (LS) of 5 days and a Late Finish (LF) of 10 days. It also has
an Early Start (ES) of 3 days and an Early Finish (EF) of 8 days. What is
the float of activity A?
0 days
4 days
2 days
-3 days
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Float for an activity can be calculated using one of the two formulas LS-ES and LF
- EF. In this case, float = 5-3 or 10- 8 or 2 days. Remember, float (or slack) is the
amount of time a task on a project can be delayed without causing a delay to
subsequent tasks (free float) or the project completion date (total float).
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The project team has completed activities of the define activities and sequence
activities processes. The next activity would be to estimate the types and
quantities of resources required to perform each activity as part of the estimate
activity resources process. For more information, please refer to Estimate Activity
Resources, PMBOK® Sixth Edition, page 320.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The Project Manager is in the schedule development process which is part of the
planning process group. For more information, please refer to Planning Process
Group, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition, page 565.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The critical path method calculates theoretical early start and finish dates along
with late start and finish dates for all activities without regard to any resource
limitations. In fact, the critical path method is a schedule network analysis
technique which modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
There are four possible paths on this network diagram. ADG (duration of 15 days)
is the critical path with the longest duration. The other three are AFG (duration of
13 days), ADE (duration of 14 days), and BCE (duration of 13 days). Subtracting
the length of ADE from the critical path (15-14) shows a difference of one day.
This is the slack of Activity E.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Float is calculated by subtracting either the early finish (EF) from the late finish (LF)
or the early start (ES) from the late start (LS). That is, Float for an activity = LS-ES or
LF-EF.
44As a project manager, you are working with your team to explore
alternatives to decrease the cost of a project without compromising
on performance or the scope of the project. Which technique are
you most probably using?
Benchmarking
Reverse engineering
Process analysis
Value analysis
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
45You are in the final stages of determining your cost baseline for the
project and funding requirements. Which process are you in?
Cost planning
Cost estimating
Cost budgeting
Cost control
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
46You are in the initial stages of a project and your sponsor asks for a
cost estimate. You find a similar project was done in the past by the
organization and compare it with your current project. You also get
the opinions of experts to derive the estimate. Which method was
used to derive the estimates?
Expert judgment
Analogous estimate
Parametric estimate
Bottom-Up estimate
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Analogous estimates are usually done in the initial stages of the project when
limited information is known. They use historical information and expert judgment.
Analogous cost estimating is generally less costly and time-consuming compared
to other methods, but it is also less accurate.
47Which of the following are the MOST important inputs to derive the
total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements of a
project?
Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve
Cost Baseline and Management Reserve
Funding Limit Reconciliation
Project Budget and Contingency Reserve
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The total funds required for the project are included in the cost baseline, along
with any management reserve. The cost baseline includes contingency reserves,
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
It is the most accurate technique for estimation. Bottom-up estimates give more
accurate estimates because they are done at a later phase of the project when
sufficient information is available. Analogous estimation is done in the initial
stages of the project. Since it works with limited available information, option (a)
also holds true. Also, analogous estimation is a form of expert judgment that relies
on past data, so it requires considerable experience to do well (option d).
Analogous estimation is quicker and requires less effort and cost.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Quality metrics are determined as an output to the plan quality process along
with tolerance limits for each of them. A metric would give the actual value or
the measurement of a project or product attribute, whereas a tolerance defines
the allowable variations in the metrics. The selection of the metrics on a project
would heavily depend on the type of project and the objective of collecting the
metrics.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
While option (b) describes how the project management team will implement
the quality policy of its organization, a process improvement plan is more focused
on enhancing the value of the process on a project. It includes determining
process boundaries, process metrics, and targets for improved performances.
Refer to Project Quality Management, page 271, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition for
more details.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
As per the new examination content outline, risk management plan should
consider opportunities as well.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
in the current situation. Specific bars are showing an overflow. This can be best
tackled using resource leveling.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
This is directly based on the formula n*(n-1 )/2. If n is the number of stakeholders in
the project, the total possible communication channels = n*(n-1)/2. The project
has 25 team members, 3 team leads, 3 support team members, and the project
manager (you). That makes 32 people and 496 possible communication
channels.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Someone who does not want to take risk is called risk averse and the project
manager seems to be part of such an organization. Option (c) risk neutral
describes a person or an organization which is indifferent to the risk. Option (a) risk
seeker suggests an aptitude to take risks with an opportunity for higher returns.
Option (d) risk mitigation is a risk response strategy and is an invalid choice. These
behaviors are best described by the utility function U(x), where x represents the
value that might be received in money or goods.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The project manager is in the identify risks process. Enterprise and environmental
factors can greatly influence the process. It will determine the organization
attitude towards risks, as well as policies and procedures for risk management.
Option (b) Stakeholder register contains information on the stakeholders which
would be helpful to get their inputs on risk identification. Option (c) and (d) are
specific to the project and would not have required information on organization
policies and procedures. Please refer to Project Risk Management, page 395,
PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition for more details.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
To calculate the Risk Priority Number (RPN) for the risks, probability, impact, and
timeframe are used. The formula for risk is Probability * Impact * Timeframe (P*I*T).
These three elements determine each risk's Risk Priority Number (RPN) by
multiplying attribute ratings for probability, impact, and timeframe. The timeframe
allows the project to readily assess prioritization. Prioritizing the risks relative to one
another assists the team in deciding how to allocate resources for mitigation,
especially when there are a large number of identified risks.
External dependency
Mandatory dependency
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
There is a lag of 15 days between the activities. If the second activity starts, when
the first activity is running, this situation is called Lead. After the first activity
completes, if there is a delay or wait period before the second activity starts, it is
called a lag.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Since the risk of increase in cost lies with the seller on a fixed priced project, the
final cost of the contract could be more than a cost reimbursable contract.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The executing process group involves coordinating people and resources, as well
as integrating and performing the activities of the project in accordance to the
project management plan.
68A key stakeholder from the quality department wants to know more
on how the process tailoring was done on the project by the project
team. Additionally, he would like to know the rationale for selecting
the process, its implementation-level details, and how it will be used to
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The results of the process tailoring by project team are captured in the project
management plan, along with all the other required information.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The first step for any project manager in the event of change is to assess the
impact of the change. The resource histogram is used to show the usage of
resources individually or by groups over time to analyze the impact of change on
a project, especially the triple constraints. Option (a) is a reactive approach and
would do nothing to solve the problem. Option(c) should come much later after
exploring all the alternatives. Option(d) is not recommended as a good project
manager is expected to use resource leveling during project planning for the
optimal use of resources. Any arbitrary reassignment would overload the existing
team members resulting in poor quality and a further delay in the schedule.
70A project manager realizes that a lot of time and effort are spent by
their team capturing the data during product testing. What is the best
option to address the issue?
Stop capturing the data as it doesn't add any value to the project activity
Allocate a time at the end of the day to update all the data together
Ask for an additional resource to capture project data
Automate the data capturing process
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The best alternative is the one which eliminates the root cause of the problem
and prevents subsequent changes. Here the main problem is the inefficient use
of team members' time in capturing the data. The best way to address this is to
automate the data capturing process, thus reducing both time and effort.
Option (b) could result in incorrect and incomplete data as it is not recorded at
the time of capture. Option (a) and (c) suggest the project manager evades her
responsibility to produce valid project data.
71A customer who is in the latter part of the project execution wants
to add scope to the project. The project manager discusses this
change with the customer and raises a written change request. He
then evaluates if this change can be addressed through project
reserves and explores alternatives. The project manager finds that this
addition would result in missing the next milestone delivery of the
project. What should the project manager do NEXT?
Evaluate the impact of the change on other factors of triple constraint-cost and time
Perform integrated change control
Get an approval from the Change Control Board
Update the project baseline and inform the customer
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Since the project affects the milestone deliverable, it is best to gain approval
from the Change Control Board. The board will have the responsibility to review
change requests to determine if additional analysis is warranted. They can also
approve or reject project changes. The change control board can include the
project sponsor, customer, experts, and others besides the project manager.
72You are a project manager for a project in the execution stage. The
current Schedule Performance Index (SPI) and Cost Performance
Index (CPI) for the project are 1.2 and 1.1. The project performance is
well within the baseline. The defects found during the internal testing
for the last deliverable were well below organization limits. However,
the customer does not seem to be happy with the project's progress.
What should be the FIRST thing the Project Manager does?
A. Start managing the project as you gain more insight into day-to-day
responsibilities
B. Meet with the project team to understand open issues in the project
C. Conduct a meeting with the customer to understand his concern over the
project's progress
D. Improve the project schedule and cost control measure so that SPI and CPI
reaches above 1.5
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
This task has been added in the latest examination content outline. Manage the
flow of information by following the communications plan to keep stakeholders
engaged and informed.
74You are a project manager who takes over a project midway. The
project is in the execution phase. You would like to know more about
project deliverables, the work required to complete those
deliverables, project constraints, and assumptions. Which of the
following documents would be MOST useful?
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Requirements Documentation
Activity List
Project Scope Statement
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The project manager should refer to the project scope statement as it captures
all the details related to the project scope including the product acceptance
criteria, scope description, project deliverables, constraints, and assumptions.
Option (a) and option (c) define project scope at smaller work packages and
activity levels. Option (b) Requirements Documentation is an incorrect choice
because it captures the requirements of the project related to quality, functional
and non-functional requirements, and support requirements to name a few.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
A WBS dictionary provides detailed descriptions of the work to be done for each
work package including acceptance criteria and quality requirements. It helps to
ensure the resulting work better matches with what is needed. Therefore, the
project manager can effectively use this tool to prevent scope creep.
76A project manager has some new members join in her team. She
wants to help them see their roles and provide the project team with
an understanding of where their work packages fit in the project
management plan. Which of the following would be the most suitable
document?
Requirements documentation
Requirements traceability matrix
Responsibility assignment matrix
Work breakdown structure
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
A Gantt chart is a bar chart that shows the activities of a project, when each
activity must take place and how long each will take. As the project progresses,
bars are shaded to show the activities have been completed. People assigned to
each task can also be represented. This is the most effective tool to show the
people assigned to the project where they are with respect to the original plan.
Option (b) Milestone Chart is a high-level summary of the project schedule and
more suitable for senior management. Option (c) the work breakdown structure
(WBS) is used to show the work that is in the project. Option (d) schedule baseline
denotes the standard by which project performance is measured.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
In this scenario, the new forecasts for Estimate to Complete (EAC) would be
based on new estimates to complete the remaining work or ETC. The most
common EAC forecasting approach is a manual, bottom-up summation by the
project team. Please refer to page 264, PMBOK® Guide Sixth edition for more
details.
0As a manager, you would like to get the status on funds for the
remaining work. Which of the following measurements will give you
this information?
To-Complete Performance Index
Earned Value Technique Performance
Variance Analysis
Trend Analysis
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Control charts are graphical displays of the results over time of a process. They
are used to determine if the process is "in control" or needs adjustment. Option (a)
Statistical sampling is the process of selecting elements of a population for either
descriptive or inferential purposes and is not a tool.
82You are a project manager and your team is preparing for the
internal quality audit cycle. You feel that the team is a little
apprehensive about the audit process, so you decide to give them an
overview of the process. Which of the following is INCORRECT about
quality audits?
A. Quality audits are used to identify all the best practices implemented in a
project
B. Quality audits help to share best practices in a project with other projects in
the organization
C. Quality audits aim to assess project team effectiveness and suggest
improvements
D. Quality audits help to improve process implementation
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
83Your project is going through an audit cycle when one of the senior
auditors points out the target value for the Schedule Performance
Index (SPI) is set too low and should be increased by at least five
percent. You try to tell him that the target value follows the
organization baseline and cannot be changed. Which of the
following is a CORRECT statement in this case?
A. The auditor is right; the project has a critical deadline to meet and hence
target SPI should be increased.
B. The auditor is right; the target value for SPI that is a benchmark for the project
should be kept high and thus increased.
C. The project manager is right; the schedule is not critical in the project and
hence target SPI value needn't be kept too high.
D. The project manager is right; target SPI is based on the organization baseline
derived from the process maturity level and should be followed by the
project.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
84You are a firm believer in process, and you want to follow the best
practices on your project right from the beginning. You understand
the importance of having a formal kick-off meeting to launch the
project with all your key stakeholders (including the customer).
However, you are worried about the behavior of some of your team
members. In the last internal meeting, there was utter chaos with the
speaker shouting to be heard while others kept talking amongst
themselves ignoring the speaker. What is the BEST strategy to use to
avoid this situation in the kick-off meeting?
A. Set objectives of the kick off meeting clearly, so that all the attendees are
aware of the meeting agenda
B. Ensure that only key stakeholders are invited to avoid inviting disinterested
people who wouldn't listen to the speaker
C. Communicate ground rules and ensure they are followed in all the meetings
D. Meet the troublemakers in the team and communicate to them the
importance of meetings for project success. Warn them of disciplinary action
if they don't oblige.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Ground rules are a set of rules governing how the team interact, make decisions,
and handle issues that must be resolved. They are the best option for a project
manager as they enable him to remove himself from the issue and address the
conflict or situation without unnecessary or harmful emotion. In essence, the
project manager becomes the facilitator of the ground rules document. This
would also help resolve conflicts inevitable in any project. Ground rules should be
established at the very start of the project, preferably at the kick-off meeting.
Options (a) and (b) are important for effective meetings, but they do not solve
the main problem of unruly behavior by a few team members. Option (d) may
solve the problem partly with some troublemakers from the last meeting. Option
(c) is best as it helps the project manager prevent future conflicts without any
harmful emotion to the team.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
This task has been added in the latest examination content outline. Maintain
stakeholder relationships by following the stakeholder management plan to
receive continued support and manage expectations.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Probable delay in the next delivery represents a project risk and not an issue as
the event is uncertain and may or may not happen in future.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
88A project manager likes to involve his team in all the decision-
making processes. Whenever there are issues which require an urgent
decision, he calls the team to work out a solution together. This
approach of the project manager is:
A. Correct, as it helps to get team buy- in as well as their commitment to the
change
B. Correct, as brainstorming technique helps to bring out creative ideas to solve
the problem
C. Incorrect, as lot of time and effort will be expended by the project team on
decisions which could be singularly made by the project manager
D. Incorrect, as all the solutions from a brainstorming session cannot be
implemented resulting in disappointment in the team
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The key words here are involve his team on all of the decision-making processes."
It is important for the project manager to involve his project team to work out
solutions to critical project issues; however
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
In the communication model, it's the sender's responsibility to make sure the
message is clear and concise, so the recipient can receive it. The sender must
also confirm that the recipient truly understands the message. In this scenario, the
project manager is at fault. For more information, refer to Communications
Model, page 371, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
93A key stakeholder expresses his concern over the lack of project
visibility and progress. He says that he has seen the project status
reports, but most of the time they lack information relevant to his
department. How should the project manager respond?
Review the Project Communication Management Plan to determine the
stakeholder's needs
Relook at Manage Communication Process to identify the gaps
Raise a change request to address the stakeholder's feedback
Relook at Control Communications Process to understand the problem
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
94In one of the project status reports, two senior team members get
into an argument regarding the introduction of a new tool that
automates the process of filling out time sheets. What would provide
you maximum insight into the conversation from the following?
The content and timing of the conversation
The content and timing of the conversation and the communication technology
used
Body Language and the words in the conversation
Body language and voice modulation including pitch and tone
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The option includes non-verbal and paralingual forms which are critical for
effective communication.
95A CEO from his Paris office wishes to communicate with the
technical officer in China. What would be the correct procedure?
The CEO will encode the message from French to Chinese, and the technical officer
will decode it from Chinese to French
The CEO will decode the message from French to Chinese, and the technical staff will
encode it from Chinese to French
The CEO will encode the message from Chinese to French, and the technical staff will
decode it from French to Chinese
The CEO will decode the message from French to Chinese, and the technical staff will
encode it from French to Chinese
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The CEO will encode the message from French to Chinese, and the technical
officer will decode it from Chinese to French. Each message is encoded by the
sender and decoded by the receiver based on the receiver's education,
language, experience, and culture. For more information, refer to
Communication models, page 373, PMBOK® Guide - Sixth Edition.
96As a project manager, you are worried about the continuous bad
performance of one of the team members. You have spoken to him
over coffee, but there seems to be no improvement. What is the
MOST suitable way to communicate your dissatisfaction?
Formal verbal
Formal written
Informal written
Informal verbal
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
This is the second notice to the team member for poor performance, and it
should be given in a formal written manner.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Negotiation skills are part of management skills. This technique is not used in the
process to manage stakeholder expectations.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Per Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, there are five different levels of human needs:
Physiological Needs, Security Needs, Social Needs, Esteem Needs, and Self-
actualizing Needs.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Revisit your project schedule and look at alternatives to reduce the impact of the
delay. This question can be tricky as it does not clearly state whether the project
manager received a formal communication of the delay from the vendor.
However, since a project manager should proactively look for any event that
may delay project schedule, option (c) is the best alternative. Option (b) is harsh,
especially in a situation which is beyond the vendor's control (political unrest in
the country).
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Since this preferential supplier is not selected through the conduct procurement
process, you would lose the value of competition. Assuming all the other factors
remain same, aggregated risks would be higher from preferential suppliers than
from the ones selected through competitive bidding. The reason is this seller
would never be asked to prove his expertise over others for this project.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Lying
Extreme demand
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The project manager is using the technique called fait accompli. The phrase is
French for an accomplished fact and refers to a deed that is already done and is
therefore irreversible. You employ this tactic when you do something without first
negotiating it. Then, when asked, you respond with an apology for any ensuing
problem.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The project manager should proceed with the contract change control system
on his end.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The best option is to first talk to your employer to discuss your findings and know
their perspective. It would also help you verify your observation.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
A project manager should take steps to minimize the impact of any change on
the project, especially one that can affect the triple constraints. Option (d) is
wrong, and it sets a bad example and increases project risk.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
This is a situation of conflict of interest. The best option for the project manager is
to discuss with his project sponsor and disassociate himself from the process.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The role of a project manager is also that of a leader. The question seems to
suggest improvement in the team's performance after training and that a more
focused approach gives much better results. Option (a) would be good if the
project manager suggests the members move to a project which matches their
skillset. Since this is not the case, the best option is (c).
114You are trying to partner with a firm in the Middle East. This is the
first time you will be doing a business partnership in the Middle East.
You want to know about the cultural aspects of the country and get
some guidelines on doing business as well. Which would be the best
document to refer to?
A. Project archives from earlier projects
B. Organization policies and procedures
C. Cultural overview from government website
D. PMI®
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
All the other documents would provide some insight; however, you are entering a
business liaison with a firm in a foreign country. It is important to first read and
understand your organizational policies on doing business in a foreign land. Many
organizations also have in-house departments that provide cultural training and
language support. Options (a) and (c) could also provide some useful
information, but they would be partial and unstructured. Option (d) provides
valuable guidelines to do ethical business, but it is generic information and not
specific to an organization.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
After signing the contract, the only way to change it is by following the contract
change control system.
Your company forbids you from accepting any form of gifts from your
customer, but you have a strong feeling that if you refuse to accept
and reciprocate the gesture, it can severely affect your relationship
with the customer. In this case, it is BEST to:
A. Politely refuse to accept any gifts explaining your company policy
B. Discuss this situation with your project sponsor or legal department
C. Accept the gift and keep it confidential so that there is no loss of face for your
organization
D. Take a break from the project work to go on a small vacation during local
New Year time
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Since the company policy forbids the project manager from accepting any form
of gifts, he should consult his project sponsor and legal department.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
This is a part of communication management. All the other options (a), (c), and
(d) are completed as part of Configuration Management System.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
As per the new examination content outline, this task has been added under
Monitoring and Controlling.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
This is done as a part of the process monitor and control project work. All the
other statements describe the configuration management process.
123A Project Manager has made a major release in the project. The
customer tells you a week after the release that he is not entirely
satisfied with the deliverable. What should the project manager do
NEXT?
A. Continue with the next deliverable to finish the project on time
B. Discuss the customer concern and resolution with the senior manager
C. Ensure that next deliverables have enough features, which the customer
would like to have, to exceed his expectations
D. Do a scope verification of this deliverable to see if it satisfies project objectives
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Verifying the project scope includes reviewing deliverables to ensure that each is
completed satisfactorily. If this is successful, it should provide customer
satisfaction. Option (c) is gold plating. Options (a) and (b) avoid addressing the
main problem directly.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The first step should be to determine why there is a dissatisfaction. Then, the
measures to restore confidence or the choice to ignore them can be taken.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The best option is to compress the project schedule because critical path
activities that are delayed can result in negative float on a project. In this case,
the project manager should use a schedule compression technique like fast
tracking or perform in parallel critical path tasks that were originally planned
sequentially. Crashing assigns additional resources to critical path tasks while
maintaining scope. For an interesting article on schedule compression techniques
visit http://www.projectsmart.co.uk/project-scheduling-and-resource-
levelling.html
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
A milestone chart depicts key events along a time scale. It is used for top-level
reporting, so management does not become bogged down in the minutia of the
projects. Milestones on a milestone chart can be shown in various colors or with
markings that indicate status. The chart can also contain other information
related to the projects.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
A project network diagram captures the project schedule and would be the best
document to reflect the impact of the delay of a deliverable on a project
schedule. A work breakdown structure shows what work is on the project but
does not focus on how long it should take. The risk register would show an
increase in project risk and would not help to determine the impact of delay on
the project schedule.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Milestone charts capture the major milestones on the project which represent the
beginning or completion of a deliverable, work package, phase, or project.
Milestones are zero duration activities and are commonly used to present project
status to the senior management or the customer.
significantly impact the schedule and cost of the project. What is your
BEST response to the stakeholder?
A. Refuse him as the projects is already nearing completion and it is not possible
to make any changes at this stage
B. Do a root cause analysis with the team to determine how this design flaw
could have been missed and if there could be more potential problems with
the design
C. Proceed with the change and communicate the impact on the project
schedule and cost to the customer
D. Use a schedule compression technique as part of Integrated Change Control
to investigate and minimize the adverse impact of the change
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Schedule compression technique is useful not only during project planning to see
if the desired completion date can be met but also during integrated change
control to look at the schedule impacts of changes to time, cost, scope, or risk.
Option (b) though seems to be in good faith, doesn't address the immediate
problem. Option(c) should be done once all the alternatives are explored to
minimize the adverse effect of the change on the project schedule and other
constraints.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
135As a Project Manager, you realize that the initial budget cost,
Budget at Completion (BAC), for your project is no longer viable. You
need to develop a new Estimate at Completion (EAC) forecast
assuming current variances will continue in the future. Which of the
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
This method assumes current variances are typical of the future. The remaining
work is assumed to be performed at the same cumulative cost performance
index (CPI) as that incurred by the project to date.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The earned value technique helps to measure project performance against the
project baseline. It is a better method than simply comparing the plan with the
actual as it integrates cost, time, and work completed. The earned value
technique can also be used to forecast future project performance. Option (c)
Work Performance Information is an output of control costs and not a technique.
Option (a) Variance Analysis can be used to assess the magnitude of variation to
the original baseline for just a single parameter.
137A project team with CPI of 0.78 is looking for options to reduce
cost. Which should be the BEST option to choose in this scenario?
Reduce a test cycle in the System Testing phase
Reduce scope by cutting down non-essential features
Add more resources to expedite the schedule
Revisit estimates and eliminate risks
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Option (c) would not reduce cost. Options (a) and (b) would always have a
negative effect as they compromise on quality or scope. Option (d) is the one
with the minimum negative effect.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
This is an example of gold plating as this requirement is not actually part of the
contract. Some other forms of gold plating are adding extra functionality, higher
quality component, and extra scope. Such additions are usually based on the
perceived notion of what the customer would like rather than a specific
requirement from the customer. Gold plating is defined in simple terms as adding
more to the system than is specified in the requirements. Gold plating can
increase operation and maintenance costs and reduce quality. Since only 34
percent of all projects succeed (per the observations from 2004), a project
manager should focus on successful conformance to requirements. PMI® does
not advocate adding extra functionality without benefits or gold plating.
140A project manager is going through the defect report for the bugs
reported during the testing cycle of a software project. The report has
information on the severity of the bugs, origin of the bugs, and
possible resolution. Now the project manager wants to prioritize the
bug fixing activity by evaluating the most frequent reasons for the
defects. Which tools should be used for this purpose?
Control chart
Fishbone diagram
Scatter diagram
Pareto chart
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
A Pareto chart works on the Pareto principal that states 80% of problems usually
stem from 20% of the causes. Pareto charts can be used for defect analysis by
arranging defects data so that the few vital factors that are causing most of the
problems reveal themselves. Focusing on improvement efforts of these few vital
factors will have a greater impact and be more cost-effective than undirected
efforts.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
It is important to analyze the impact of change on not only the triple constraints,
but also on the quality. The Project Manager needs to determine whether the
quality objectives and quality planning needs to be modified to address the
changes. Option (b) is already addressed as part of assessing the impact on the
triple constraints.
142A software project is in the testing phase and the project manager
has found a high number of defects in one particular module. He
decides to determine the root cause of this problem by analyzing all
the potential causes and grouping them into different categories.
Which technique is he using?
Fish Bone diagram
Pareto chart
Control charts
Checklists
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The rule of seven is a heuristic rule which refers to a group of seven non-random
data points in a series between the upper control limit and mean. It denotes the
presence of an assignable or special cause in the process and that the process is
out of a state of statistical control. Option (c) is true for a stable process, but it
does not relate to the question.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
A project sponsor is the one who designates the project manager in the project
charter and authorizes a project manager to use resources for the project.
Therefore, he is the one who needs to provide clarity to the team about the
project manager in case there is confusion.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
A trend report would capture this information. Option (a) Earned Value integrates
scope, cost, and schedule measures to assess current project performance.
Option (b) Status Reports describe where the project is currently based on the
performance measurement baseline. Option (c) Forecasting Report is used to
predict future project status and performance.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Cost Variance = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC). Positive cost variance
indicates the project is under budget. Since Schedule Variance = Earned Value
(EV) - Planned Value (PV), positive schedule variance indicates the project is
ahead of schedule.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
152A project team is in the process of tracking risks and control. The
risk control actions defined by the mitigation and contingency plans is
being implemented in accordance with the details of those plans.
Who is responsible for implementing these actions?
Project manager
Project team
Risk owner
Risk manager
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The risk owner for a particular risk is responsible for implementing the actions
defined by the mitigation and contingency plan in risk management. A risk owner
for a risk is identified during the planning stage of risk management, and he helps
to assess the risk, produce probability, and impact information. He also develops
risk mitigation and contingency plans, provides status data for respective risk
issues, and assists in evaluating risk control action effectiveness. The risk owner
also documents threshold criteria of high and medium risks and supports
identification of new risks.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
This is part of Monitoring and Controlling the procurements within a project. Refer
to PMBOK® Sixth Edition, page 629 for more information.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Cost variance = Earned Value (EV)- Actual Cost (AC). Here, Earned Value is
assumed to be uniformly spread over the entire project duration. So, earned
value at the 6th month = [(Total Cost)/ (Total Project months)] * Months
completed; i.e., ( $36,000/12)*6 = $18,000. Cost Variance = $18,000-$20,000 = -
$2,000.
155The difference between the maximum funding and the end of the
cost baseline is known as:
Funding Limit Reconciliation
Reserve Analysis
Project Budget
Management Reserve
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The difference between the maximum funding and the end of the cost baseline
is called Management reserve.
156A project team, during the project execution, has identified new
risks as an action item from the risk audit findings. Which part of the risk
management process are they in?
Identify Risks Process
Perform Qualitative Risks Analysis
Plan Risk Response Process
Control Risks Process
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
New risks can be identified during the risk identification and monitor and control
risk processes. Since these new risks are the result of a risk audit, the project is
using the monitor and control process rather than the planning process.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
A secondary risk can be defined as a risk created by the response to another risk.
In other words, the secondary risk is a consequence of dealing with the original
risk. In the current scenario, the risk in the delay of the final deliverable by an
external vendor is a response to the existing risk of inadequate in-house expertise
for board fabrication. It is important to understand the difference between option
(a) secondary risk and option (b) residual risk. Secondary risks are those which are
caused by the treatment or response to the risk, whereas residual risk is the risk
which remains even after you have treated or responded to the risk.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
There are strong reasons for the project manager to terminate the existing
contract and renegotiate the terms and conditions. The earlier contract was cost
reimbursable and the project manager had limited information on the contract
scope of work. It may not be true now since some work has been done and the
project manager would be in a better position to negotiate. Since there are too
many change requests with no clarity on how many of them would be approved,
it is difficult for a project manager to continue work. Hence, the best option for a
project manager in this case is (a).
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Target price = $15,000, Actual cost = $12,000, and Sharing ratio = 75/25. Actual
cost to buyer = $12000 + ($15,0000-$12,000)*25% = $12,750.
statement of work. In which stage of the project will you be doing this
review?
Before contract closure
Before awarding the contract
As part of the project status review
In case of non-conformance by seller
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
163A project manager has made the final delivery to the customer,
and the team is in the process of completing administrative and
contract closure. The team has also completed the final version of
lesson learned in the corporate database. Which of the following is a
critical activity that the project manager should complete before
formally closing the project?
Confirm that all the requirements in the project are met
Ensure that all project management processes are complete
Obtain formal sign-off for the project from the customer
Index and archive the project records
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The most important part of project closure is getting formal sign-off from the
customer. As it indicates, the customer considers the project completed and
accepts the completed project. Formal sign-off in a contracting situation
constitutes legal acceptance.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
As a part of the project closure activity, a project manager should first review all
prior information from the previous phase, closure, to ensure all work is completed
and the project has met its objectives. Since project scope is measured against
the project management plan, the project manager will review the document to
ensure completion before considering the project closed. Option (a) would
come next followed by option (b).
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
You should look at closing the contract and seeking help from the legal and
contracts departments of the company. You should also let the management
know of the repercussions.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
169You are a vendor and are discussing project closure with your
customer. All of the following would be outputs of closing a project
EXCEPT:
Correspondences
Contract changes
Enterprise environmental factor updates
Payment requests
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Enterprise environmental factor updates is the least suitable option. You would
probably look at enterprise environmental factor updates within your
organization and not involve the customer.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
You should request Lynda to be available for customer meetings as she may
have a better relationship with the customer.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Earned value analysis will help in monitoring and control, but not now. Firing the
subcontractor may not be correct. It is only procurement audit which will help
you show what has gone wrong. A procurement audit is a technique used to
close the contract and check the procurement process. Please refer to PMBOK®
Guide Sixth Edition, page 494 and 714.
Project archives
Project closure
Lessons learnt
Rework
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Rework is the least likely answer. Rework would happen throughout the project
whenever a defect is detected. The rest of the options are associated with
project closure.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
A risk log is the least likely thing on the checklist. All of the other options are
directly concerned with contract closure. A risk log will be of use during project
execution, but when you are closing the project, risks probably have no
significance for the project except lessons learned.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Closure for the current project does not involve looking at subsequent projects. All
other aspects are relevant. Performance measurements will show if there is any
variance. Product documentation needs to be handed over to the customer.
Project archives will show up if any necessary documents or activities are missing.
176Your project has faced some unforeseen issues that have caused
a delay in your project. However, the project is very critical for the
company, and it has to meet the scheduled deadline. To meet the
deadline, your team would have to work over the weekends for next
two weeks. You know that many of the team members will have some
personal commitments and it will be very difficult for them to work for
seven consecutive days. What is the BEST option for you?
A. Hire additional resources and brief them about the project
B. Inform the customer that this deadline can't be met
C. Discuss the situation with the team and give them the choice to willingly work
overtime
D. Send an official mail making it compulsory for the team to come and work
over the weekends
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The project manager should explore all the options to avoid delay in the project.
In this case, there might be some team members willing to work over the
weekends, and the manager can reschedule once their availability is confirmed
to minimize the schedule delay.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The project manager is sharing his lessons learned and best practices along with
contributing to the project management knowledge base.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The project with the highest NPV should be selected. The information on the
number of years to complete the project is irrelevant because it has already
been considered while calculating NPV. NPV is defined as the difference
between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash
outflows. NPV is used in capital budgeting to analyze the profitability of an
investment or project.
B. 18 to 22 days
C. 18 days
D. 22 to 24 days
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
The estimated duration for 5 testing cycles of 4 days duration is 20 days, and the
correct estimation range is 18 to 22 days.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
In the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM), the arrows are used to represent
activities.
182Which contract types would entail the MOST cost risk for the
buyer?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C. Cost plus percentage of cost
D. Cost Plus Award Fee
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Please refer to their definitions to understand what each of them mean. Cost plus
fixed fee contracts pay a predetermined fee that was agreed upon at the time
of contract formation. In a cost-plus-incentive fee contract, a larger fee is
awarded for contracts which meet or exceed performance targets including
cost savings. Cost plus award fee contracts pay a fee based upon the
contractor's work performance. In some contracts, the fee is determined
subjectively by an awards fee board, whereas in others, the fee is based upon
objective performance metrics. Cost plus percentage of cost contracts pay a
fee that rises as the contractor's costs rise. Since this contract type provides no
incentive for the contractor to control costs, it is rarely utilized and is most risky for
the buyer.
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Product scope includes the features and functions that characterize a product,
service, or result. It describes the service that will exist as a result of your project.
Product scope is different from project scope. Project scope is the work that
needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result with the
specified features and functions.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
The critical chain method is a schedule network analysis technique that modifies
the project schedule to account for limited resources. In the critical chain
method, the project schedule network diagram is built initially using duration
estimates and dependencies. Since the resources are a constraint, the resource
availability is entered next and the resource limited schedule result is determined.
Hence, the critical chain method is a network analysis technique used when
project resources are constrained. For more information, refer to Schedule
Network Analysis, page 209, PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Sunk costs are retrospective (past) costs that have already been incurred and
cannot be recovered. Examples of sunk costs are the cost of a seat on an
airplane to the airline. The cost of an airline seat is primarily fixed and sunk (as
long as one assumes the flight was going to take place regardless of whether the
seat was sold) with a small portion attributed to variable costs. It makes sense for
the airline to develop a pricing structure designed to maximize the revenue of the
aircraft during a flight.
C. Deming cycle
D. Total Quality Management
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
C. Sponsor
D. Customer
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
The stakeholder's influences are highest at the beginning of the project, since the
ability to influence the final characteristics of the project without significantly
impacting the cost is highest.
Correct Option: C
EXPLANATION
Here the question suggests that the project manager has involved all the relevant
stakeholders in the project and still the number of risks identified are low. One of
the most plausible reasons could be that the project manager has missed entire
categories of risk which could have been avoided using risk checklists, which
contains common risk categories. Risk categories are lists of common areas or
sources of risk experienced by similar projects in the company. These are
important aids to the risk identification process, and ensure all the risk categories
are identified and analyzed for each project. Option (b) is not recommended as
the project manager is expected to proactively identify and analyze risks in the
planning stage of the project. There is no data to believe option (a) and (d) are
true.
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: D
EXPLANATION
The work authorization system is used by the project manager to assign and
approve all project work during project execution. Most often this system for
authorizing work is a companywide system used on the project and not created
specifically for the project. The system is typically in the form of a list of formally
adopted and well-documented procedures. It details who may authorize work to
be completed and how those authorizations may be obtained.
Correct Option: B
EXPLANATION
Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS dictionary with the team. As a
project manager, you want the team to take ownership, as well as understand
how their individual project activities affect the overall project deliverable (the
big picture). Also, you want the team to develop bonding. All these objectives
are met when the team gets involved in creating the WBS and the WBS
dictionary. Option (a) may not always be possible due to physical constraints on
the project. Option (d) has limited utility but option (b) is the best choice as it
fulfills multiple project objectives as described.
C. Administrative procedures
D. Personality
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
Correct Option: A
EXPLANATION
As a project manager, you use risk avoidance or elimination by not doing the
activity. Other approaches are reduction by mitigating the risk, sharing by
outsourcing, or insuring and retention by accepting and budgeting for project
risks.