HR567

1.
Which of the following is true of statistical forecasting methods that capture historic
trends?
C. They provide predictions that are much more precise
2. How do the statistical forecasting methods differ from judgmental forecasting methods with
regard to the labor market?
B. Statistical methods are the best option for events that have no historical event
3. The goals that are set in the human resource planning process should come directly from:
B. the results of the previous year’s appraisal process
4. Due to a series of resignations from the organization, Zylon Inc., a large software firm is
facing an acute labor shortage. During which of the following human resources planning
steps would the firm contemplate several options to address the labor issue?
A. Goal setting and strategic planning
5. Which of the following options is considered a slow option for reducing an expected labor
surplus and has a low impact on human suffering?
C. Early retirement
6. Which of the following options is considered a fast option for reducing an expected labor
surplus but results in high human suffering?
B. Demotions
7. Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of
being a fast solution with high revocability?
A. Temporary employees
8. Which of the following is true of the several options available to reduce expected labor
surplus?
A. Early retirement causes relatively less human suffering
9. Which of the following is most likely to lead to a successful downsizing?

A. Avoiding indiscriminant reductions
10. Which of the following best explains why older people approaching retirement age have no
intention of retiring?
C. improved health of older people in general, in combination with the decreased
physical labor in many jobs has made working longer a viable option
11. Which of the following is NOT one of the forces that draw out an older worker’s career?
D. insufficient younger workers to replace the older workers
12. When a company faces a shortage of employees in the work force, and it predicts that
current demand for products or services may not extend to the future, it will:
A. try to garner more hours out of the existing labor force
13. A critical aspect of the program implementation step of human resource planning is:
B. making sure that some individual is held accountable for achieving the stated goals
14. Policies that state that either the party in an employment relationship can terminate that
relationship at any time, regardless of cause, are called
B. employment at will processes
15. The approach that pays employees higher wages than what competitors pay their
employeesin similar roles is called
D. lead the market approach
16. Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources?

B. it generates a sample of applicants who are well known to the firm
17. Is defined as the degree to which a measure is free from random error.
A. Reliability
18. Measure of the degree to which two sets of numbers are related
C. correlation coefficient
19. When assessing the reliability of a measure, one might be interested in knowing how
scores on the measure at one time relate to scores on the same measure of another time.
This Is called
B. test retest reliability
20. Which of the following steps can help an organization increase the reliability of its interview
process?
C. providing raters with standardized training
21. Which of the following statements is true regarding reliability and validity?
C. reliability of a measure is essential for it to have any validity
22. If there is substantial correlation between test scores and job-performances scores,
validity has been established
A. criterion related
23. A validity study that seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken
prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job
B. predictive
24. Which of the following is an example of experience based situational interview?

C. ron was asked to describe an event where his creativity led to effective problem
solving
25. Which of the following scenarios is an apt example of a future-oriented situational

interview?
B. Fernandez was asked about the steps he would take to change the work of
environment in his office
26. Which of the following is NOT tested in a physical ability test?
a. Balance
b. Flexibility
c. Muscular Tension
d. Cognitive Skills
27. _________ ability refers to a persons capacity to invent solutions to many diverse problems.
A. Quantitative
b. Reasoning
c. Technical
d. Comprehension
28. __________ categorize individuals by what they are like.
A. Personality tests
B. Minnesota manual dexterity test
C. Physical ability test
D. Likert scales
29. A person who is conscientious will be.
A. talkative, emotionally stable and unorganized
B. Dependable, organized, persevering, thorough and achievement oriented
C. sociable, content, and intolerant
D. gregarious, secure, and uncooperative
30. Which of the following aspects of emotional intelligence refers to the knowledge of ones
strengths and weaknesses?
A. Self-motivation
B. Empathy
C. Social skill
D. Self-Awareness
31. A(n) ________ test attempts to stimulate the job in a pre-hiring context to observed how the
applicant performs in the stimulated job.
a. work-sample
b. honesty test
c. personality
d. projective
32. The term _________ is used to describe a wide variety of specific selection programs that
employ multiple selection methods to either rate applicants or job incumbents on their
managerial potential.
a. optimal discriminant analysis
b. assessment center
c. test anchoring
d. work stimulation
33. In the context of training a needs assessment involves evaluating the organization,
individual employees, and employees:
a. tenure in the organization
b. position in the organization hierarchy
c. compensation and benefits
d. tasks
34. Which of the following is true of the comparison between training and development?
a. training has a failure orientation, while development has a current focus
b. use of work experiences is high in training, but low on development
c. participation in training is voluntary, but required in development
d. the goal of training is preparation for the current job while goal of development is
preparation for changes in the current job
35. Most employee development occurs through:
a. performance appraisals
b. job experiences
c. formal education
d. technical training
36. Today’s employees must be able to handle a variety of responsibilities, interact with
customers, and think creatively. To find such employees, must organizations are looking
for.
a. basic psychomotor skills
b. employees in competitors work locations
c. highly experienced employees
d. educational qualification
37. The hrm function during downsizing is to terminating the workers who:
a. are less valuable in their performance
b. have the list experience in the industry
c. have spent the least amount of time with the organization
d. are older than other employees
38. Which of the following may an application from include to gather information about suitable
candidates?
a. marital status
b. history of disabilities
c. number of children
d. educational background
39. __ Organizations typically use resumes
a. as substitute for interview
b. as a basis for deciding which candidate to investigate
c. to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job
d. since they can control the content of the information, as well as the way it is presented
40. Organizations are individual acting as a references for job applicants risk being sued for
defamation or misrepresentation. Which of the following is one the ways in which they can
minimize such risk?
a. by giving as much information as possible
b. by saying only god things about the candidates
c. by only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors
d. by giving only broad opinions
41. If you, as HR manager of an organization, where specifically looking for a person with the
personality trait of extroversion to fill a sales position, you would want someone who was.
a. sociable, gregarious, assertive, and expressive
b. emotionally stable, depressed, secure, and content
c. courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant, cooperative, and forgiving
d. curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, and broad-minded
42. Employers should ensure that their drug-testing program conforms to all of the following
guidelines EXCEPT that day:
a. routinely administered to all technical and managerial functions across the
organization
b. sends the report of the result to applicants along with information on how to appeal and retest
c. use drug-testing for jobs that involved safety hazards
d. be conducted in the environment that is not intrusive
43. Medical examination of job candidates are ideally conducted: BONUS
a. When they are called for an interview.
b. upon the receipt of the resume
c. before testing and reviewing of work-samples
d. right at the start of the selection process
44. planners need to combine statistical forecast of labor supply wih exepert judgements
because:
a. it would motivate the experts in the organization
b. subjective judgements are always more reliable than historical data
c. historical data may not always reliably indicate future trends
d. statistical method fails to account for historical trends
45. Why is hiring new employees for every labor shortage not preferable?
a. the process will lead to an artificial scarcity in the labor market
b. it would lead to reduced organizational control over the workers and process
c. selecting new employees attracts to many discrimination law suits
d. if the shortage become surplus, the organization may have to lay off employees
46. Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of
being a relatively fast solution with high revocability?
a. retrained transfer
b. turnover reductions
c. new external hires
d. overtime
47. A manufacturing company hit by a slump in demand is experiencing a labor surplus. The
company expects the market to improve in 6 months and it does not one to lay off any of
its employees. Which of the following strategies is an equitable way to handle this issue
that results in spreading the burden more fairly?
a. demotions
b. outsourcing
c. reduced workhours
d. overtime
48. The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are:
a. outsourcing work and work sharing
b. hiring temporary workers and outsourcing work
c. retrained transfers and turnover reduction
d. overtime and new external hires
49. Which of the following is the disadvantage of using temporary and contract workers?
a. revocability is lesser compared to other method of avoiding shortage
b. this kinds of workers cannot be source through agents
c. the methods are a relatively slow solution to the labor shortage
d. this workers will be less committed to the organization
50. Temporary employment is popular with employers because:

A. It gives them flexibility in operations.
B. it gives them more control over the workplace.
C. the quality of work is usually far superior.
D. it is most effective for key customers service jobs.
51. Hugh & Co., a manufacturer of widgets, has contracted several components of its supply
chain management to a third party. Hugh & Co. can be said to be engaging in:
A. offshoring
B. consolidation
C. outsourcing
D. merger
52. A small company in Binan Laguna, that manufactures special-order shoes and bags has
kept its employees busy on a 40-hour-a-week schedule for the past two years. The
company just received the largest contract in its history from a Saudi Arabian company,
opening offices in the area. The company does not expect repeat business. In order to
complete the contract in the required one month, additional skilled labor is needed at short
notice. Which of the following strategies is best suited to avoid this short-term labor
shortage?
A. Retrained transfers
B. overtime
C. technological innovation
D. new external hires
53. Companies that use “lead-the-market” pay strategy.

A. Would pay more than the current market wages for a job.
B. have a recruiting disadvantage
C. would recruit lesser number of employees than needed and depend on overtime.
D. provide relatively better working conditions to employees compared to competitors.
54. Which of the following is an employment principle which states that if there is no specific
employment contract saying otherwise, the employer or employee may end may end an
employment relationship at any time, regardless of cause?
A. Due process
B. employment flexibility
C. employment at will
D. psychological contract
55. Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources?

A. They are likely to promote diversity in terms of race and sex
B. They minimize the impact of political considerations in the hiring decisions.
C. They are generally cheaper and faster than other means
D. They expose the organization to a new ideas or new ways of doing business
56. Which of the following is a trend that is seen in today’s high-performance work systems?
A. Mismatches in technical system and social system
B. Employee empowerment in decision making
C. increase in individual assignments
D. Developing conflict resolution skills among employees
57. Which of the following is a challenge for HRM during mergers?

A. Scrutinizing balance sheets
B. Evaluating the financial worth of the new company
C. Developing competitively priced products
D. Developing conflict resolution skills among employees
58. The HRM function during downsizing is to terminating the workers who:
A. are less valuable in their performance
B. have the least experience in the industry
C. Have spent the least amount of time with the organization
D. are older than other employees
59. The process through which organizations make decisions about who will or will not be
allowed to join the organization is referred to as___________.
A. recruitment
B. Job analysis
C. career development
D. personal selection
60. For most companies the first step in the personnel selection process is:
A. verification of the applicants’ qualification through relevance and background checks.
B. determining the best recruitment source
C. screening the applications to see who meet the basic requirements for the job.
D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidate’s abilities
E. Inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews.
61. At which stage in the selection process are supervisors and team members often involved?
A. Administering tests
B. Receiving resumes from various sources
C. Screening application
D. interviewing candidates
62. The ________ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is free from
random error.
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. generalizability
D. Utility
63. ___________ validity is measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation

between test scores and job performance scores.
A. Criterion-related
B. Discriminant
C. Content
D. Convergent
64. Content validity

A. is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment
B. is measured statistically
C. is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities
D. is based on objective methods
65. Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews?
A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?
B. Are you a citizen of the United States?
C. What religious holidays do you observe?
D. will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process?
66. Employers use application forms for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:
A. they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants
B. they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information
C. they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standard
D. They allow the employer to keep up to date
67. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using resumes as a source of information about
suitable candidates?
A. Marital status
B. Educational background
C. Number of children
D. Applicant’s race
68. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using resumes as a source of information about
job applicants?
A. it is relatively expensive source of information
B. the information contained in it may not be accurate
C. it does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments
D. it is associated with an increased risk of defamation lawsuits
69. Organizations typically uses resumes:

A. as substitute for interviews
B. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further
C. to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job
D. because they are generally an unbiased source of information
70. ____________ refers to a process of systematically developing training to meet specified

needs
A. Instructional design
B. Curriculum planning
C. Educational design
D. Training design
71. What is learning management system?

A. a team of trainers and human resource professionals who are responsible for planning and
conducting the training programs in an organization
B. the process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees tasks to
determine what kind of training, if any, if necessary.
C. a computer application that automates the administration, development, and delivery of
training programs
D. a process for determining the appropriateness of training by evaluating the characteristics of
the organization
72. Organizational analysis look at training needs in light of the:

A. readiness of employees for training
B. performance deficiency
C. management support for training activities
D. task, knowledge, skills and behavior that training should emphasize
73. Identify the stage of training needs assessment that involves aking the following questions:
“do performance deficiencies result from a lack of knowledge, skills, or ability?” “who
needs training?” “Are these employees ready for training?”
A. person analysis
B. organization analysis
C. Task analysis
D. Strategy Analysis
74. Which of the following is NOT true about task analysis?

A. it identifies the task knowledge, skills and behaviors that the training should emphasize
B. it involves the assessment of conditions such as equipment and environment of the job, the
constraints and performance standards
C. it results in an assessment of employees’ readiness for training and selection of employees
for training
D. it involves the verification of task jobs via questionnaires
75. A lack of money for training, lack of time for training or practicing, and failure to provide
proper tools and materials for learning or applying the lessons of training, are all examples
of ________ that could impact readiness for training.
A. employee attitude
B. lack of social support
C. situational constraints
D. employee readiness characteristics
76. The major disadvantage of distance learning as a training method is:
A. The substandard teaching material
B. The failure to harness technology
C. Its inability to provide information about specific topics
D. The limited interaction between the instructor and students
77. A training program for improving interpersonal skills of line managers involve 15 four-hour
sessions, each focusing on one interpersonal skill, such as communicating or coaching. At
the beginning of each session, participants hear the reasons for using the key behaviours;
then they watch a video of a model performing the key behaviours. They practice through
role-playing and receive feedback about their performance. In addition, they evaluate the
performance of the model in the video and discuss how they can apply the behaviour on
the job. Identify the training method being used in this scenario.
Answer: D. Behavior Modelling
78. On-the-job use of knowledge, skills, and behaviours learned in training constitutes:
Answer: D. Action learning
79. Training conducted during employees’ first days on the job and designed to prepare
employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish
work relationships is known as:
Answer: A. Orientation
80. Organizations typically use resumes:
Answer: B. As a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further.
81. _____ refers to a process of systematically developing training to meet specified needs:
Answer: A. Instructional design
82. What is a learning management system?
Answer: C. A computer application that automates the administration, development, and

delivery of training programs.
83. Organizational analysis looks at training needs in a light of the:
Answer: C. Management’s support for training activities
84. Identify the stage of training needs assessment that involves asking the following
questions: “Do performance deficiencies result from a lack of knowledge, skill or ability?”
“Who needs training?” “Are these employees ready for training?”
Answer: A Person analysis
85. Which of the following is NOT true of task analysis?
Answer: C. It results in an assessment of employees’ readiness for training and

selection of employees for the training.
86. A lack of money for training, lack of time for training or practicing, and failure to provide
proper tools and materials for learning or applying the lessons of training, are all examples
of ___ that could impact readiness for training.
Answer: D. Employee readiness characteristics
87. The major disadvantage of distance learning as a training method is:
Answer: D. The limited interaction between the instructor and students
88. A training program for improving interpersonal skills of line managers involve 15 four-hour
sessions, each focusing on one interpersonal skill, such as communicating or coaching. At
the beginning of each session, participants hear the reasons for using the key behaviours;
then they watch a video of a model performing the key behaviours. They practice through
role-playing and receive feedback about their performance. In addition, they evaluate the
performance of the model in the video and discuss how they can apply the behaviour on
the job. Identify the training method being used in this scenario.
Answer: D. Behavior modelling
89. On-the-job use of knowledge, skills, and behaviours learned in training constitutes:
Answer: D. Action learning

90. Training conducted during employees’ first days on the job and designed to prepare
employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish
work relationships is known as:
Answer: A. Orientation
91. Federal Auto Corp. is looking for experienced ergonomic design engineers and wants to
keep training costs to a minimum. The upper management instructs its HR team to
develop a test that would test the design and ergonomic knowledge of the potential
engineering conditions. This test is a _____ valid test.
Answer: D. Content
92. Rollerbeam Inc. a provider of engineering services, is looking to hire several maintenance
engineers. Rollerbeam’s HR department checks with the company’s engineering
department to confirm that the scenarios mentioned in the test are plausible real world
scenarios maintenance engineers might face. Which of the following types of validation is
Rollerbeam’s HR team performing?
Answer: C. Content validation
93. Star Inc., an engineering firm, has come up with a new technical to assess the knowledge
of interviewees. To assess the validity of the test, it requests its present employees to take
the test and match it with their performance in the organization. Which of the following
types of validation has Star Inc. used to test the validity of its new technical test?
Answer: C. Concurrent validation
94. Phil, a management trainer at at Flint Inc, designs a training program that focuses on
capturing insights and information from knowledgeable employees. Through this program,
Phil is taking the strategic initiative to ____.
Answer: D. Enhance innovation and creativity
95. As a manager, John wants to find out the impact of his company’s behaviour-modeling
training program on his employees’ communication skills. The ____ evaluation design is
necessary for this purpose.
Answer: C. Pretest/posttest comparison group
96. Which of the following is the first step in a return on investment analysis?
Answer: B. Identifying the outcomes
97. Pairing up expatriates and their family with an employee from the host country is likely to
occur in the _____.
Answer: A. On site phase
98. Establishing a mentoring process is a part of the _____ component in an effective

managing diversity program.
Answer: B. Identifying and developing talent
99. A ____ is a dialogue initiated by one or more persons to gather information and evaluate
the qualifications of an applicant for employment.
Answer: A. Selection interview
100. In the context of factors that influence motivation to learn, which of the following
management actions is likely to increase employees’ self-efficacy?
Answer: D. Emphasizing that learning is under their personal control.
Chapter 06 Selection and Placement Answer Key

True / False Questions

1. Much of the work in personnel selection involves measuring characteristics of people

to determine who will be accepted for job openings.

TRUE
Much of the work in personnel selection involves measuring characteristics of people

to determine who will be accepted for job openings. For example, organizations might
be interested in applicants' physical characteristics (like strength or endurance), their
cognitive abilities (such as spatial memory or verbal reasoning), or aspects of their
personality (like their decisiveness or integrity).
AACSB: Analytic
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 06-01 Establish the basic scientific properties of personnel selection methods; including
reliability; validity; and generalizability.
Topic: Selection Method Standards

2. The degree to which a measure is free from random error refers to its reliability.

TRUE
Reliability is defined as the degree to which a measure is free from random error. If a
measure of some supposedly stable characteristic such as intelligence is reliable, then
the score a person receives based on that measure will be consistent over time and in
different contexts.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

3. Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself.

TRUE
Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself.
Reliability can be estimated in several different ways and most of these rely on
computing a correlation coefficient.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

4. The correlation coefficient is zero for a perfect positive relationship.

FALSE
A correlation coefficient expresses the strength of the relationship in numerical form.

A perfect positive relationship (as one set of numbers goes up, so does the other)
equals +1.0; a perfect negative relationship (as one goes up, the other goes down)
equals -1.0.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

5. Validity is the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance

on the job.

TRUE
Validity is the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance

on the job. A measure must be reliable if it is to have any validity.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

6. A measure can be valid without being reliable.

FALSE
A measure must be reliable if it is to have any validity. On the other hand, we can
reliably measure many characteristics (like height) that may have no relationship to
whether someone can perform a job.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

7. A concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people

already on the job and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each
person's performance.

TRUE
Concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people

person's performance. The logic behind this strategy is that if the best performers
currently on the job perform better on the test than those who are currently
struggling on the job, the test has validity.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

8. The size of the sample on which the correlation is based has no role in achieving
statistical significance.

FALSE
Although it is generally true that bigger correlations are better, the size of the sample
on which the correlation is based plays a large role as well.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

9. Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of expert judgment.

TRUE
Although criterion-related validity is established by empirical means, content validity

is achieved primarily through a process of expert judgment.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

10. The inability to use content validation in small sample settings makes it generally less
applicable than criterion-related validation.

FALSE
The ability to use content validation in small sample settings makes it generally more
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

11. Reliability is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method
established in one context extends to other contexts.

FALSE
Generalizability is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method

established in one context extends to other contexts. There are two primary
"contexts" over which we might like to generalize: different situations (jobs or
organizations) and different samples of people.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

12. Validity is necessary but not sufficient for generalizability.

TRUE
Just as reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity, validity is necessary but
not sufficient for generalizability.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

13. The more reliable, valid, and generalizable a selection method is, the more utility it
will have.

TRUE
Utility is the degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances
the bottom-line effectiveness of the organization. In general, the more reliable, valid,
and generalizable the selection method is, the more utility it will have.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 06-02 Discuss how the particular characteristics of a job; organization; or applicant affect the
utility of any test.

14. The utility of any given test generally increases as the selection ratio gets higher.

FALSE
The utility of any test generally increases as the selection ratio gets lower, so long as
the additional costs of recruiting and testing are not excessive.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

15. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 protects individuals from discrimination based on race,
sex, religion, and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation and
working conditions.

TRUE
The Civil Rights Act of 1991, an extension of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, protects
individuals from discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, and national origin
with respect to hiring as well as compensation and working conditions.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 06-03 Describe the government's role in personnel selection decisions; particularly in the areas
of constitutional law; federal laws; executive orders; and judicial precedent.

16. As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, the burden of proof always lies with
the person who faces discrimination.

FALSE
Court interpretations of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act also mirror those of
the Civil Rights Act, in the sense that if any neutral-appearing practice happens to
have adverse impact on those over 40, the burden of proof shifts to the employer,
who must show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict. The act does not protect
younger workers (thus there is never a case for "reverse discrimination" here).
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

17. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1991 protects individuals with physical
disabilities, but not those with mental disabilities.

FALSE
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991 protects individuals with physical
and mental disabilities (or with a history of the same), and requires that employers
make "reasonable accommodation" to disabled individuals whose handicaps may
prevent them from performing essential functions of the job as currently designed.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

18. Compliance of executive orders is monitored by the Office of Federal Contract
Compliance Programs.

TRUE
Executive orders are monitored by the Office of Federal Contract Compliance

Programs (OFCCP), which issues guidelines (like the Affirmative Action Program
Guidelines published by the Bureau of National Affairs in 1983) to help companies
comply.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

19. Experience-based items ask what the person is likely to do when confronting a certain
hypothetical situation in the future.

FALSE
"Experience-based" items require the applicant to reveal an actual experience he or

she had in the past when confronting the situation. "Future-oriented" items ask what
the person is likely to do when confronting a certain hypothetical situation in the
future.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 06-05 Describe the degree to which each of the common methods used in selecting human
resources meets the demands of reliability; validity; generalizability; utility; and legality.
Topic: Types of Selection Methods

20. A physical ability test measures balance but not coordination.

FALSE
Physical ability tests evaluate (1) muscular tension, (2) muscular power, (3) muscular
endurance, (4) cardiovascular endurance, (5) flexibility, (6) balance, and (7)
coordination.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

21. Employees with high conscientiousness tend to be lethargic and ill-disciplined.

FALSE
Conscientious employees are dependable, organized, persevering, thorough, and

achievement-oriented.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

22. Work-sample tests are not job-specific and their generalizability is high.

FALSE
One main drawback of work-sample tests is that because these tests are job-specific,
their generalizability is low.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

23. The Polygraph Act in 1988 permitted the use of polygraphs in employment screening.

FALSE
Many companies formerly employed polygraph tests, or lie detectors, to evaluate job
applicants, but this changed with the passage of the Polygraph Act in 1988. This act
banned the use of polygraphs in employment screening for most organizations.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

24. A large-scale independent review of validity studies suggests that paper-and-pencil

honesty tests cannot predict both theft and other disruptive behaviors.

FALSE
A large-scale independent review of validity studies suggests that paper-and-pencil

honesty tests can predict both theft and other disruptive behaviors.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

25. One of the concerns regarding the use of drug tests in a workplace is the undue
invasion of privacy.

TRUE
The major controversies surrounding drug tests involve not their reliability and
validity but whether they represent an invasion of privacy, an unreasonable search
and seizure, or a violation of due process. Urinalysis and blood tests are invasive
procedures, and accusing someone of drug use is a serious matter.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

Multiple Choice Questions

26. _____ is defined as the degree to which a measure is free from random error.

A. Reliabili
ty
B. Validit
y
C. Generalizabili
ty
D. Utilit
y
E. Correlati
on
One key standard for any measuring device is its reliability. Reliability is defined as
the degree to which a measure is free from random error.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

27. Which of the following statements is true of the reliability of a measurement?

A. A measurement is said to be reliable when only two iterations are involved in
measurement.
B. Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the

characteristic itself.
C. It is not dependent on the attributes of the measuring

instruments used.
D. Reliability indicates the degree to which two objects are related to
each other.
E. It indicates the extent to which performance on the measure is related to

performance on the job.
Reliability refers to the measuring instrument rather than to the characteristic itself.
Reliability can be estimated in several different ways and most of these rely on
computing a correlation coefficient.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium

28. The _____ is a measure of the degree to which two sets of numbers are related.

A. utility
score
B. standard
deviation
C. correlation
coefficient
D. validity
score
E. generalizability
coefficient
The correlation coefficient is a measure of the degree to which two sets of numbers
are related. The correlation coefficient expresses the strength of the relationship in
numerical form.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

29. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates a perfect positive
relationship?

A. +1.
0
B. -
1.0
C. 0
D. +1
0
E. -
6.67
The correlation coefficient expresses the strength of the relationship in numerical

form. A perfect positive relationship (as one set of numbers goes up, so does the
other) equals +1.0.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

30. Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates a perfect negative

relationship?

A. -
10
B. -
6.67
C. +1.
0
D. -
1.0
E. 0.
0
The correlation coefficient expresses the strength of the relationship in numerical

form. A perfect negative relationship (as one goes up, the other goes down) equals
-1.0.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

31. When assessing the reliability of a measure, one might be interested in knowing how
scores on the measure at one time relate to scores on the same measure at another
time. This is called:

A. test-
interdependency.
B. test-retest
reliability.
C. mutual
exclusivity.
D. test
utility.
E. test
generalizability.
When assessing the reliability of a measure, one might be interested in knowing how
scores on the measure at one time relate to scores on the same measure at another
time. If the characteristic being measured is supposedly stable (like intelligence or
integrity) and the time lapse is short, this relationship should be strong. If it were
weak, then the measure would be inconsistent—hence unreliable. This is called
assessing test-retest reliability.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

32. Which of the following steps can help an organization increase the reliability of its
interview process?

A. Using a single interviewer instead of multiple

interviewers
B. Basing tests on the people who are already

working
C. Providing raters with standardized

training
D. Avoiding the use of common formats to rate

candidates
E. Basing tests on people who were most successful in earlier

interviews
There are many steps one can take to increase the reliability of an interview process,
such as providing raters with standardized training and common formats for
translating observed behaviors into scores on dimensions.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

33. The extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance on the job
is called:

A. reliabilit
y.
B. validit
y.
C. generalizabili
ty.
D. utilit
y.
E. authentici
ty.
Validity is the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance

on the job. A measure must be reliable if it is to have any validity.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

34. Which of the following statements is true regarding reliability and validity?

A. Reliability and validity are directly proportional to

each other.
B. Reliability and validity are inversely proportional to

each other.
C. Reliability of a measure is essential for it to have any

validity.
D. Reliability and validity are independent of

each other.
E. Reliability is a necessary and sufficient condition for

validity.
A measure must be reliable if it is to have any validity. Reliability is a necessary but

insufficient condition for validity.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

35. If there is a substantial correlation between test scores and job-performance scores,
_____ validity has been established.

A. criterion-
related
B. conte
nt
C. constru
ct
D. procedur
al
E. subje
ct
One way of establishing the validity of a selection method is to show that there is an
empirical association between scores on the selection measure and scores for job
performance. If there is a substantial correlation between test scores and job-
performance scores, criterion-related validity has been established.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

36. _____ validation is a validity study that seeks to establish an empirical relationship
between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job.

A. Conte
nt
B. Predictiv
e
C. Concurre
nt
D. Subjectiv
e
E. Logic
al
Criterion-related validity studies come in two varieties: predictive validity and

concurrent validity. Predictive validation seeks to establish an empirical relationship
between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual performance on the job.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

37. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of concurrent validity?

A. It is an estimate of whether a validity test appears to measure a

certain criterion.
B. It is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems in a validity test

are representative of situations at work.
C. It assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job
and then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's
performance.
D. It seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to
being hired and eventual performance on the job.
E. It refers to the degree to which a measure is correlated with other measures that it
is theoretically predicted to correlate.
Criterion-related validity studies come in two varieties: predictive validity and

concurrent validity. Concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by
administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with
existing measures of each person's performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

38. Star Inc., an engineering firm, has come up with a new technical test to assess the
knowledge of interviewees. To assess the validity of the test, it requests its present
employees to take the test and match it with their performance in the organization.
Which of the following types of validation has Star Inc. used to test the validity of its
new technical test?

A. Predictive
validation
B. Content
validation
C. Concurrent
validation
D. Face
validation
E. Logical
validation
Concurrent validation assess the validity of a test by administering it to people

person's performance. In the above scenario, Star Inc. is using the concurrent method
to test the validity of its new technical test.
AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Blooms: Apply

39. Predictive validation is superior to concurrent validation because:

A. predictive valuation involves contribution from many

individuals.
B. job applicants often have no information about

organizational culture.
C. job applicants are more motivated than an organization's

employees.
D. the effort needed for predictive valuation is lesser than concurrent
valuation.
E. the time taken for predictive valuation is lesser than concurrent
valuation.
Job applicants (because they are seeking work) are typically more motivated to
perform well on the tests than are current employees (who already have jobs). This
makes predictive valuation superior to concurrent valuation.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

40. Which of the following validation strategies is most likely to be adversely affected by
the restriction of range problem that results due to current employees being
homogeneous?

A. Predictive
validation
B. Concurrent
validation
C. Content
validation
D. Secondary
validation
E. External
validation
Restriction of range problem affects concurrent validation. Current employees tend to

be homogeneous—that is, similar to each other on many characteristics. Thus, on
many of the characteristics needed for success on the job, most current employees
will show restriction in range. This restricted range makes it hard to detect a
relationship between test scores and job-performance scores because few of the
current employees will be very low on the characteristic that is being validated.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember

41. Which of the following forms of validation becomes relatively more attractive as the
sample available for validation becomes smaller?

A. Predictive
validation
B. Concurrent
validation
C. Content
validation
D. External
validation
E. Criterion-related
validation
When sample sizes are small, an alternative test validation strategy, content
validation, can be used. Content Validation is performed by demonstrating that the
questions or problems posed by a test are a representative sample of the kinds of
situations or problems that occur on the job.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

42. Content validation:

A. seeks to establish an empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to
being hired and eventual performance on the job.
B. refers to the degree to which a measure is free from internal defects of
standardization.
C. is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems posed by a test are
a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the
job.
D. is an estimate of whether a test appears to measure a certain

criterion.
E. assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people already on the job and
then correlating test scores with existing measures of each person's performance.
Content validation is performed by demonstrating that the questions or problems

posed by the test are a representative sample of the kinds of situations or problems
that occur on the job. A test that is content valid exposes the job applicant to
situations that are likely to occur on the job, and then tests whether the applicant
currently has sufficient knowledge, skill, or ability to handle such situations.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

43. A test that has _____ validity exposes the job applicant to situations that are likely to
occur on the job, and then tests whether the applicant currently has sufficient
knowledge, skill, or ability to handle such situations.

A. criterion-
related
B. probabilist
ic
C. predicti
ve
D. conte
nt
E. concurre
nt

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

44. Rollerbeam Inc., a provider of engineering services, is looking to hire several
maintenance engineers. Rollerbeam's HR department checks with the company's
engineering department to confirm that the scenarios mentioned in the test are
plausible real world scenarios maintenance engineers might face. Which of the
following types of validation is Rollerbeam's HR team performing?

A. Concurrent
validation
B. Predictive
validation
C. Content
validation
D. Criterion-related
validation
E. Subjective
validation


Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard

45. Federal Auto Corp. (FAC) is looking for experienced ergonomic design engineers and
wants to keep training costs to a minimum. The upper management instructs its HR
team to develop a test that would test the design and ergonomic knowledge of the
potential engineering candidates. This test is a _____ valid test.

A. predicti
ve
B. subjecti
ve
C. criterion-
related
D. conte
nt
E. concurre
nt


Blooms: Apply

46. Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of _____.

A. quantitative
analysis
B. empirical
study
C. statistical
analysis
D. procedural
study
E. expert
judgment
Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of expert judgment. The

ability to use content validation in small sample settings makes it generally more
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

47. In case of _____ validation, it is critical to minimize the amount of inference involved
on the part of the judges because their subjective judgment could bias the findings.

A. predicti
ve
B. concurre
nt
C. conte
nt
D. criterio
n
E. standar
d
As subjective judgment plays such a large role in content validation, it is critical to

minimize the amount of inference involved on the part of judges. Thus, the judges'
ratings need to be made with respect to relatively concrete and observable behaviors.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

48. _____ is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method established
in one context extends to other contexts.

A. Utilit
y
B. Generalizabili
ty
C. Reliabili
ty
D. Validit
y
E. Exclusivi
ty

established in one context extends to other contexts. There are two primary
"contexts" over which people like to generalize: different situations (jobs or
organizations) and different samples of people.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

49. When a company provides evidence from previous criterion-related validity studies
conducted in other situations to show that a specific test is a valid predictor for a
specific job performance, it is trying to prove the test's:

A. reliabilit
y.
B. utilit
y.
C. varianc
e.
D. generalizabili
ty.
E. legalit
y.
Validity generalization is a three-step process. In the first step, the company provides
evidence from previous criterion-related validity studies conducted in other situations
that shows that a specific test is a valid predictor for a specific job.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

50. The degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the
bottom-line effectiveness of the organization is known as the selection method's:

A. reliabilit
y.
B. validit
y.
C. generalizabili
ty.
D. utilit
y.
E. legalit
y.
the bottom-line effectiveness of the organization. In general, the more reliable, valid,
and generalizable the selection method is, the more utility it will have.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

51. The percentage of people chosen relative to the total number of people tested gives
the _____ ratio.

A. break-
even
B. furloug
h
C. retenti
on
D. turnov
er
E. selectio
n
The selection ratio refers to the percentage of people selected relative to the total
number of people tested.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

52. The utility of any test generally _____ as the selection ratio gets lower.

A. increase
s
B. decrease
s
C. remains the

same
D. becomes
zero
E. becomes
negative
The selection ratio refers to the percentage of people selected relative to the total
number of people tested. The utility of any test generally increases as the selection
ratio gets lower, so long as the additional costs of recruiting and testing are not
excessive.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

53. The _____ protects individuals from discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion,
and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation and working
conditions.

A. False Claims

Act
B. Civil Rights Act of

1991
C. Age Discrimination in

Employment Act
D. Americans with Disabilities

Act
E. Rehabilitation Act of

1973
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 protects individuals from discrimination based on race,
color, sex, religion, and national origin with respect to hiring as well as compensation
and working conditions. The act defines employers' explicit obligation to establish the
business necessity of any neutral-appearing selection method that has had adverse
impact on groups specified by the law.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

54. The _____ defines employers' explicit obligation to establish the business necessity of
any neutral-appearing selection method that has had adverse impact on groups
specified by the law.

A. Rehabilitation Act of

1973
B. Patriot
Act
C. Civil Rights Act of

1991
D. Volstead
Act
E. No-FEAR Act of

2002
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 defines employers' explicit obligation to establish the
business necessity of any neutral-appearing selection method that has had adverse
impact on groups specified by the law. This is typically done by showing that the test
has significant criterion-related or content validity.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

55. The _____ allows the individual filing the complaint to have a jury decide whether he or
she may recover punitive damages (in addition to lost wages and benefits) for
emotional injuries caused by the discrimination.

A. Civil Rights Act of

1871
B. Age Discrimination in

Employment Act
C. Americans with Disabilities

Act
D. Civil Rights Act of

1991
E. Civil Rights Act of

1964
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 act allows the individual filing the complaint to have a
jury decide whether he or she may recover punitive damages (in addition to lost
wages and benefits) for emotional injuries caused by the discrimination. This can
generate large financial settlements as well as poor public relations that can hinder
the organization's ability to compete.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

56. Which of the following acts explicitly prohibits the granting of preferential treatment
to minority groups?

A. The Civil Rights Act of

1964
B. The Tenure of Office Act of

1867
C. The Judiciary Act of

1801
D. The Third Liberty Bond Act of

1918
E. The Civil Rights Act of

1991
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 explicitly prohibits the granting of preferential treatment
to minority groups. Preferential treatment is often attractive because many of the
most valid methods for screening people, especially cognitive ability tests and work
sample tests, often are high in adverse impact.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

57. As per the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, if any neutral-appearing practice
happens to have adverse impact on those over 40, the employer must _____.

A. show business necessity to avoid a guilty

verdict
B. make accommodations despite facing

hardships
C. facilitate pre-mature retirement for the

employees
D. compensate the employee prior to

court trials
E. provide special incentives to the suffering

employees
Court interpretations of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act mirror those of the
Civil Rights Act, in the sense that if any neutral-appearing practice happens to have
adverse impact on those over 40, the burden of proof shifts to the employer, who
must show business necessity to avoid a guilty verdict. The act does not protect
younger workers (thus there is never a case for "reverse discrimination" here), and
like the most recent civil rights act, it allows for jury trials and punitive damages.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

58. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act does NOT:

A. permit business necessity as a ground to avoid a guilty

verdict.
B. protect younger
workers.
C. allow for jury

trials.
D. allow punitive

damages.
E. permit promotions based on

performance.
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act does not protect younger workers (thus
there is never a case for "reverse discrimination" here), and like the most recent civil
rights act, it allows for jury trials and punitive damages. This act outlaws almost all
"mandatory retirement" programs (company policies that dictate that everyone who
reaches a set age must retire).
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

59. The Americans with Disabilities Act _____.

A. protects individuals with physical disabilities but not mental

disabilities
B. does not require an organization to make accommodations that cause

undue hardship
C. demands affirmative action to increase representation of

minorities
D. does not require that employers make reasonable accommodation for disabled
individuals
E. requires organizations to make all accommodations necessary to ensure that

individuals with disabilities are represented in the company
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991 protects individuals with physical
and mental disabilities (or with a history of the same), and requires that employers
make "reasonable accommodation" to disabled individuals whose handicaps may
prevent them from performing essential functions of the job as currently designed.
The ADA does not require an organization to hire someone whose disability prevents
him or her from performing either critical or routine aspects of the job nor does it
require accommodations that would cause "undue hardship."
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

60. Which of the following legislations prohibit discrimination and mandates that
employers take affirmative actions to hire qualified minority applicants?

A. The Federal Tort Claims

Act
B. The Revenue Act of

1913
C. Executive order

11246
D. The Federal Reserve

Act
E. The Thirteenth Amendment of the United States

Constitution
Executive Order 11246 parallels the protections provided by the Civil Rights Act of
1964 but goes beyond the 1964 act in two important ways. Not only does this
executive order prohibit discrimination, it actually mandates that employers take
affirmative action to hire qualified minority applicants.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember

61. Executive order 11246 allows the government to:

A. deny payments to individual contractors based on the government's

availability of money.
B. eliminate affirmative action to prevent reverse discrimination in

governmental jobs.
C. form and implement laws that are not specified in the
constitution.
D. suspend all business with a contractor while an investigation is being

conducted.
E. undertake affirmative action to ensure representation of African Americans in

various jobs.
Executive Order 11246 parallels the protections provided by the Civil Rights Act of
1964 but goes beyond the 1964 act in two important ways. It also allows the
government to suspend all business with a contractor while an investigation is being
conducted (rather than waiting for an actual finding), which puts a great deal of
pressure on employers to comply with the order.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember

62. Executive orders are monitored by the:

A. Equal Employment Opportunity

Commission.
B. Employment Standards Administration of the Department

of Labor.
C. Employment and Training

Administration.
D. Department of
Commerce.
E. Office of Federal Contract Compliance

Programs.
Executive orders are monitored by the Office of Federal Contract Compliance

Programs (OFCCP), which issues guidelines (like the Affirmative Action Program
Guidelines published by the Bureau of National Affairs in 1983) to help companies
comply.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

63. A _____ is defined as a dialogue initiated by one or more persons to gather information
and evaluate the qualifications of an applicant for employment.

A. selection
interview
B. focused group

interview
C. physical ability

test
D. cognitive ability

test
E. brainstorming
session
A selection interview has been defined as a dialogue initiated by one or more persons
to gather information and evaluate the qualifications of an applicant for employment.
The selection interview is the most widespread selection method employed in
organizations, and there have been literally hundreds of studies examining their
effectiveness.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

64. Which of the following is an example of experience-based situational interview?

A. Ronald was asked how he would resolve a certain technical fault in his
workplace.
B. Peter was asked about his reaction if his co-workers indulged in racist
behavior.
C. Ron was asked to describe an event where his creativity led to effective
problem solving.
D. Jane was asked what steps she would take in case of a power failure in
the plant.
E. Harry was asked to describe how he would convince his boss about his new
marketing strategy.
Situational interview is an interview procedure where applicants are confronted with

specific issues, questions, or problems that are likely to arise on the job. Situational
judgment items come in two varieties: experience-based and future-oriented.
Experience-based items require the applicant to reveal an actual experience he or she
had in the past when confronting the situation.

Blooms: Apply

65. Which of the following scenarios is an apt example of a future-oriented situational
interview?

A. Ahmad was asked about the most painful decision he had made as a
manager.
B. Fernandez was asked about the steps he would take to change the work
environment in his office.
C. Emma was asked about the most annoying customer she had ever
dealt with.
D. Jacob was asked about the most hated aspect of his
previous job.
E. Mathew was asked whether his religious beliefs had ever influenced his decision-
making as a manger.
Situational interview is an interview procedure where applicants are confronted with

specific issues, questions, or problems that are likely to arise on the job. Situational
judgment items come in two varieties: experience-based and future-oriented. Future-
oriented items ask what the person is likely to do when confronting a certain
hypothetical situation in the future.

Blooms: Apply

66. Which of the following statements is true of situational interviews?

A. Future-oriented interviews are more valid than experience-based

interviews.
B. Future-oriented items reduce some forms of impression management such as

ingratiation better than experience-based items.
C. Situational interviews require the candidate to perform a piece of work or

accomplish a task.
D. These interviews are particularly effective when assessing sensitive issues dealing
with the honesty and integrity of candidates.
E. Using multiple interviewers in such interviews leads to more subjective errors than
using one interviewer.
Research suggests that experience-based items appear to reduce some forms of

impression management such as ingratiation better than future-oriented items.
Situational interviews can be particularly effective when assessing sensitive issues
dealing with the honesty and integrity of candidates.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

67. The "direct threat" clause is a part of the _____.

A. Civil Rights Act of

1871
B. Rehabilitation Act of

1973
C. No-FEAR
Act
D. Lloyd-La Follette

Act
E. American with Disabilities

Act
The "direct threat" clause of the American with Disabilities Act makes it clear that
adverse impact against those with disabilities is warranted under conditions where
there is a probability that failure to adequately perform the job would result in some
risk to the safety or health of the applicant, co-workers, or clients.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

68. Which of the following is NOT tested in a physical ability test?

A. Balanc
e
B. Flexibili
ty
C. Muscular
tension
D. Cognitive
skill
E. Muscular
power
Many jobs require certain physical abilities or psychomotor abilities. In these cases,
tests of physical abilities may be relevant not only to predicting performance but to
predicting occupational injuries and disabilities as well. There are seven classes of
tests in this area: ones that evaluate (1) muscular tension, (2) muscular power, (3)
muscular endurance, (4) cardiovascular endurance, (5) flexibility, (6) balance, and (7)
coordination.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

69. _____ assess main facets such as verbal comprehension, quantitative ability, and
reasoning ability.

A. Cognitive ability
tests
B. Thematic Apperception

tests
C. Personality
inventories
D. Raven' Progressive

Matrices
E. Rorschach Inkblot

tests
Cognitive ability tests differentiate individuals based on their mental rather than
physical capacities. The three main facets of cognitive ability tests are: verbal
comprehension, quantitative ability, and reasoning ability.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

70. _____ ability refers to a person's capacity to invent solutions to many diverse
problems.

A. Quantitati
ve
B. Reasonin
g
C. Technic
al
D. Comprehensi
on
E. Verb
al
The three main facets of cognitive ability tests are: verbal comprehension,
quantitative ability, and reasoning ability. Reasoning ability, a broader concept, refers
to a person's capacity to invent solutions to many diverse problems.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

71. _____ ability concerns the speed and accuracy with which one can solve arithmetic
problems of all kinds.

A. Reasonin
g
B. Technic
al
C. Quantitati
ve
D. Comprehensi
on
E. Conceptio
n
quantitative ability, and reasoning ability. Quantitative ability concerns the speed and
accuracy with which one can solve arithmetic problems of all kinds.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

72. Which of the following refers to a person's capacity to understand and use written and
spoken language?

A. Verbal
comprehension
B. Associative
ability
C. Reasoning
ability
D. Quantitative
ability
E. Interpersonal
knowledge
quantitative ability, and reasoning ability. Verbal comprehension refers to a person's
capacity to understand and use written and spoken language.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

73. The concept of _____ suggests that similar groups of people whose scores differ by
only a small amount all be treated as having the same score.

A. attribution
error
B. probability
distribution
C. standard
deviation
D. groupthi
nk
E. bandin
g
The concept of banding suggests that similar groups of people whose scores differ by
only a small amount all be treated as having the same score. Then, within any band,
preferential treatment is given to minorities.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

74. _____ categorize individuals by what they are like.

A. Personality
tests
B. Minnesota manual dexterity

tests
C. Physical ability

tests
D. Likert
Scales
E. Cognitive ability

tests
While ability tests attempt to categorize individuals relative to what they can do,
personality measures tend to categorize individuals by what they are like. Research
suggests that there are five major dimensions of personality, known as "the Big Five":
(1) extroversion, (2) adjustment, (3) agreeableness, (4) conscientiousness, and (5)
openness to experience.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

75. Which of the following personality dimensions is associated with sociable, gregarious,
assertive, and talkative individuals?

A. Adjustme
nt
B. Extroversi
on
C. Agreeablene
ss
D. Conscientiousne
ss
E. Openness to
experience
Research suggests that there are five major dimensions of personality, known as "the
Big Five": (1) extroversion, (2) adjustment, (3) agreeableness, (4) conscientiousness,
and (5) openness to experience.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

76. John is open to experiences if he is:

A. content and

happy.
B. talkative and

expressive.
C. curious and

imaginative.
D. dependable and

organized.
E. sociable and

assertive.
A person who is open to experiences is curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive,

broad-minded, and playful.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

77. A person who is agreeable in nature will be _____.

A. assertive and

gregarious
B. depressed and

secure
C. dependable and

unorganized
D. courteous and
trusting
E. narrow-minded and

imaginative
A person who is agreeable in nature will be courteous, trusting, good-natured,

tolerant, cooperative, and forgiving.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

78. Which of the following personality dimensions is typically associated with a person
being nondepressed, secure, and content?

A. Adjustme
nt
B. Extroversi
on
C. Agreeablene
ss
D. Conscientiousne
ss
E. Openness to
experience
An adjusted person is emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, and content.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

79. A person who is conscientious will be:

A. talkative, emotionally stable, and

unorganized.
B. dependable, organized, persevering, thorough, and

achievement-oriented.
C. sociable, content, and

intolerant.
D. gregarious, secure, and

uncooperative.
E. assertive, nondepressed, and

unforgiving.
A person who is conscientious will be dependable, organized, persevering, thorough,

and achievement-oriented.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

80. Which of the following concepts is used to describe people who are especially
effective in fluid and socially intensive contexts?

A. Crystallized
intelligence
B. Fluid
intelligence
C. Emotional
intelligence
D. Dispositional
affect
E. Intelligence
quotient
The concept of emotional intelligence is important in team contexts and has been
used to describe people who are especially effective in fluid and socially intensive
contexts. Emotional intelligence is traditionally conceived of having five aspects: (1)
self-awareness (2) self-regulation, (3) self-motivation, (4) empathy, and (5) social
skills.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

81. Which of the following aspects of emotional intelligence refers to the knowledge of
one's strengths and weaknesses?

A. Self-
motivation
B. Empath
y
C. Social
skill
D. Self-
awareness
E. Self-
regulation
Emotional intelligence is traditionally conceived of having five aspects: (1) self-

awareness (2) self-regulation, (3) self-motivation, (4) empathy, and (5) social skills.
Self-awareness refers to the knowledge of one's strengths and weaknesses.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

82. _____ is the ability to keep disruptive emotions in check.

A. Social
skills
B. Empath
y
C. Self-
motivation
D. Self-
awareness
E. Self-
regulation

Self-regulation is the ability to keep disruptive emotions in check.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

83. Self-motivation:

A. is the ability to sense and read emotions in

others.
B. is the ability to manage the emotions of other

people.
C. is the knowledge of one's strengths and

weaknesses.
D. describes an individual's ability to keep disruptive emotions

in check.
E. describes an individual's ability to

persevere.

Self-motivation is the ability to motivate oneself and persevere in the face of
obstacles.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

84. Emma is very good at reading the emotions of others and is can easily gauge whether
people are happy or sad. Emma has a high degree of _____.

A. empat
hy
B. social
skills
C. self-
motivation
D. self-
regulation
E. self-
awareness
Empathy is the ability to sense and read emotions in others.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember

85. Ron is a very gregarious person who, through his interactions, can effectively manage
the people working under him in the organization. Ron has a high degree of _____.

A. self-
awareness
B. social
skills
C. empat
hy
D. self-
motivation
E. self-
regulation

Social skill is the ability to manage the emotions of other people.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember

86. A(n) _____ test attempts to simulate the job in a prehiring context to observe how the
applicant performs in the simulated job.

A. work-
sample
B. honesty
test
C. personali
ty
D. projecti
ve
E. cognitive
ability
Work-sample tests attempt to simulate the job in a prehiring context to observe how
the applicant performs in the simulated job. The degree of fidelity in work samples
varies greatly.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

87. The term _____ is used to describe a wide variety of specific selection programs that
employ multiple selection methods to either rate applicants or job incumbents on
their managerial potential.

A. optimal discriminant

analysis
B. assessment
center
C. test
anchoring
D. work
simulation
E. factor
analysis
Generically, the term assessment center is used to describe a wide variety of specific
selection programs that employ multiple selection methods to either rate applicants
or job incumbents on their managerial potential. Someone attending an assessment
center would typically experience work-sample tests such as an in-basket test and
several tests of more general abilities and personality.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

88. Which of the following personnel selection methods has low reliability as compared to
others?

A. Personality
inventories
B. Cognitive ability

tests
C. Reference
checks
D. Drug
tests
E. Work sample

tests
Reference checks have low reliability especially when they are obtained from letters.
These also have low validity.
Refer: Table 6.4
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

89. Which of the following personnel selection methods has low generalizability for all job
types?

A. Drug
test
B. Biographical
information
C. Work sample

test
D. Cognitive ability

test
E. Reference
checks
Reference checks and interviews have low generalizability in all instances of

personnel selection, while drug tests, cognitive ability tests, have high
generalizability. Additionally, biographical information and work sample tests have
generalizability with regards to several job types but not all.
Refer To: Table 6.4
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 06-04 List the common methods used in selecting human resources.

90. Personality inventories tend to have:

A. moderate reliability, moderate criterion validity, and

moderate utility.
B. high validity, high generalizability, and

high utility.
C. high reliability, low-to-moderate criterion validity, and low

generalizability.
D. moderate utility, low generalizability and moderate

criterion validity.
E. low reliability, low validity, and low

generalizability.
Personality inventories have high reliability, low to moderate criterion-related validity

for most traits, low generalizability, low utility, and low legality.
Refer To: Table 6.4
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 06-04 List the common methods used in selecting human resources.

Essay Questions

91. Define reliability and validity and discuss the relationship between both.

Reliability is the degree to which a measure is free from random error. Validity is the
extent to which performance on the measure is associated with performance on the
job. A measure must be reliable if it is to have any validity. On the other hand, one
can reliably measure many characteristics (like height) that may have no relationship
to whether someone can perform a job. For this reason, reliability is a necessary but
insufficient condition for validity.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

92. Explain criterion-related validity and its two varieties.

Criterion-related validity is a method of establishing the validity of a personnel

selection method by showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job-
performance scores. Criterion-related validity studies come in two varieties: predictive
validation and concurrent validation. Predictive validation seeks to establish an
empirical relationship between test scores taken prior to being hired and eventual
performance on the job. Concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by
administering it to people already on the job and then correlating test scores with
existing measures of each person's performance.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember

93. Define content validation. What are its advantages and disadvantages?


The ability to use content validation in small sample settings makes it generally more
However, content validation has two limitations:
(1) One assumption behind content validation is that the person who is to be hired
must have the knowledge, skills, or abilities at the time she is hired.
(2) Because subjective judgment plays such a large role in content validation, it is
critical to minimize the amount of inference involved on the part of judges.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

94. Explain generalizability and the validity generalization process.


established in one context extends to other contexts.
Validity generalization is a three-step process:
(1) The company provides evidence from previous criterion-related validity studies
conducted in other situations that shows that a specific test is a valid predictor for a
specific job.
(2) The company provides evidence from job analysis to document that the job it is
trying to fill is similar in all major respects to the job validated elsewhere.
(3) If the company can show that it uses a test that is the same as or similar to that
used in the validated setting, then one can "generalize" the validity from the first
context to the new context.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

95. Define utility. How do factors such as reliability, validity, and generalizability affect
reliability?

the bottom-line effectiveness of the organization.
In general, the more reliable, valid, and generalizable the selection method is, the
more utility it will have. On the other hand, many characteristics of particular
selection contexts enhance or detract from the usefulness of given selection methods,
even when reliability, validity, and generalizability are held constant.
The utility of any test generally increases as the selection ratio gets lower, so long as
the additional costs of recruiting and testing are not excessive. Tests that are more
expensive will on average have less utility, unless they produce predictions that are
more valid.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

96. How does the Civil Rights Act of 1991 differ from the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

The Civil Rights Act of 1991 act differs from the Civil Rights Act of 1964 act in three
important areas:
(1) It defines employers' explicit obligation to establish the business necessity of any
neutral-appearing selection method that has had adverse impact on groups specified
by the law.
(2) It allows the individual filing the complaint to have a jury decide whether he or she
may recover punitive damages (in addition to lost wages and benefits) for emotional
injuries caused by the discrimination.
(3) It explicitly prohibits the granting of preferential treatment to minority groups.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 3 Hard

97. Explain situational interview. What are the two varieties of situational judgment
items?

Situational interviews are interviews where applicants are confronted with specific
issues, questions, or problems that are likely to arise on the job. Situational judgment
items come in two varieties: experience-based items and future-oriented items.
Experience-based items require the applicant to reveal an actual experience he or she
had in the past when confronting the situation. For example, "Think about an instance
when you had to motivate an employee to perform a task that he or she disliked, but
the task needed to be done. How did you handle that situation?"
Future-oriented items ask what the person is likely to do when confronting a certain
hypothetical situation in the future. For example, "Suppose you were working with an
employee who you knew greatly disliked performing a particular task. You needed to
get this task completed and this person was the only one available to do it. What
would you do to motivate that person?"
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

98. List the seven classes of physical ability tests.

The seven classes of physical ability tests are: ones that evaluate (1) muscular
tension, (2) muscular power, (3) muscular endurance, (4) cardiovascular endurance,
(5) flexibility, (6) balance, and (7) coordination.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy

99. Explain assessment center. Where do they stand in terms of their criterion-related
validity?

The term assessment center is used to describe a wide variety of specific selection
programs that employ multiple selection methods to either rate applicants or job
incumbents. Someone attending an assessment center would typically experience
work-sample tests such as an in-basket test and several tests of more general abilities
and personality. Because assessment centers employ multiple selection methods,
their criterion-related validity tends to be quite high.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

100. What are the major controversies surrounding drug tests? What can employers do to
overcome the problems associated with these tests?

The major controversies surrounding drug tests involve not their reliability and
validity but whether they represent an invasion of privacy, an unreasonable search
and seizure, or a violation of due process.
Employers considering the use of drug tests would be well advised to make sure that
their drug-testing programs conform to some general rules:
(1) These tests should be administered systematically to all applicants for the same
job.
(2) Testing seems more defensible for jobs that involve safety hazards associated with
failure to perform.
(3) Test results should be reported back to the applicant, who should be allowed an
avenue of appeal (and perhaps retesting).
(4) Tests should be conducted in an environment that is as unintrusive as possible,
and results from those tests should be held in strict confidence.
(5) Finally, when testing current employees, the program should be part of a wider
organizational program that provides rehabilitation counseling.
AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand

Human Resource Management, Global Edition, 13e (Mondy)
Chapter 5 Recruitment
5.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in sufficient numbers, and with
appropriate qualifications to apply for jobs with an organization is known as ________.
A) development
B) selection
C) recruitment
D) planning
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Recruitment is the process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in
sufficient numbers, and with appropriate qualifications to apply for jobs with an organization.
The firm may then select those applicants with qualifications most closely related to job
descriptions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
2) What does recruitment involve?

A) encouraging qualified people to apply for employment with a firm
B) selecting qualified people for employment at a firm
C) attracting and selecting employees for the firm
D) determining sources of employees
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Recruitment is the process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in
sufficient numbers, and with appropriate qualifications to apply for jobs with an organization.
The firm may then select those applicants with qualifications most closely related to job
descriptions.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
3) Pro-Cleaning Corporation needs additional employees, but the firm lacks the finances
involved in recruiting and selection. All of the following are alternatives to recruiting that would
help Pro-Cleaning EXCEPT ________.
A) outsourcing
B) hiring contingent workers
C) implementing e-learning processes
D) using a professional employer organization
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Recruitment and selection costs are significant when you consider all the related
expenses. Therefore, Pro-Cleaning should consider alternatives such as outsourcing, contingent
workers, professional employer organizations (employee leasing), and overtime carefully before
engaging in recruitment. E-learning is for training rather than recruiting.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 2
4) Ultra Cosmetics is in the process of hiring an external provider to handle all of the firm's
administrative tasks, which were once handled internally. Ultra Cosmetics is most likely
participating in ________.
A) broadbanding
B) outsourcing
C) employee leasing
D) recruiting
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Outsourcing is the process of hiring an external provider to do the work that
was previously done internally. Outsourcing has become a widespread and increasingly popular
alternative involving virtually every business area.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 2
5) Soundgear Electronics recently shifted all of its customer support services to a vendor in
India. Soundgear is most likely involved in the activity of ________.
A) telecommuting
B) offshoring
C) recruiting
D) staffing
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Offshoring refers to the migration of all or a significant part of the
development, maintenance and delivery of services to a vendor located in another country,
typically in developing countries like India and China. Offshoring is considered an alternative to
recruiting.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 2
6) When the Secretary of Labor referred to the disposable American workforce, the reference
was to ________.
A) contingent workers
B) offshored employees
C) retired workers
D) hourly employees
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Contingent workers, described as the "disposable American workforce" by a
former secretary of labor, have a nontraditional relationship with the worksite employer and
work as part-timers, temporaries, or independent contractors.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
7) Harold's Department Stores frequently use contingent workers. What is the most likely reason
that the firm uses contingency workers ?
A) implementing telecommuting
B) minimizing specialty training
C) having scheduling flexibility
D) experiencing exceptional work ethics
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Contingent workers permit distinct advantages: maximum flexibility for the
employer and lower labor costs. Firms want flexibility with their workforces because they want
to be able to ramp up or scale back based on business needs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 1
8) Which of the following would NOT be considered a contingent worker?
A) temporary worker
B) part-time employee
C) nonexempt employee
D) independent contractor
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Contingent workers work as part-timers, temporaries, or independent
contractors. Being exempt or nonexempt relates to receiving overtime pay.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
9) What is perhaps the most common approach to meeting short-term fluctuations in work
volume?
A) paying overtime
B) re-hiring retirees
C) leasing employees
D) hiring temporary employees
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Perhaps the most commonly used alternative to recruitment, especially in
meeting short-term fluctuations in work volume, is overtime. Overtime may help both employer
and employee. The employer benefits by avoiding recruitment, selection, and training costs. The
employees gain from increased income during the overtime period.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
10) All of the following are disadvantages associated with overtime EXCEPT ________.
A) employees become too accustomed to the added income
B) employees become too tired to work at a normal rate
C) employees pace themselves to ensure overtime
D) employees require additional training
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Employees may become fatigued and lack the energy to perform at a normal
rate. Consciously or not, employees may pace themselves to ensure overtime. They may also
become accustomed to the added income resulting from overtime pay and elevate their standard
of living. It is less likely that employees would require additional training because they are
working longer hours.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
11) Which one of the following is not typical of passive job seekers?
A) They are looking for a new challenge.
B) They are employed.
C) They are happy with their employer.
D) They are content in their current role.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Passive job seekers are potential job candidates who are typically employed,
satisfied with their employer, and content in their current role. But, if the right opportunity came
along, they might like to learn more. These individuals want to move slower and will ask a lot of
questions before making a job change. They are more hesitant to risk leaving a good job for a
new challenge and increased risk.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 3
12) A firm's recruitment process would most likely be easier if the unemployment rate in an
organization's labor market was ________.
A) low
B) high
C) average
D) fluctuating
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Of particular importance to recruiting efforts is the demand for and supply of
specific skills in the labor market. A firm's recruitment process may be simplified when the
unemployment rate in an organization's labor market is high as was the case in the recession
when it jumped to over 10 percent in 2009.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
13) Michael is presently employed as a loan officer at a local bank, but dislikes his job. Michael
has posted his résumé on Monster.com and CareerBuilder.com in hopes of landing a job at
another organization. Which of the following best describes Michael?
A) contingent worker
B) active job seeker
C) contract employee
D) passive candidate
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Active job seekers, whether presently employed or not, are committed to
finding another job. They place their résumés on job boards and contact friends, associates, or
companies to learn about job opportunities. Passive candidates, on the other hand, are typically
employed, satisfied with their employer, and content in their current role. However, if the right
opportunity came along, they might like to learn more.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 3
14) Erin is presently employed as a public relations specialist at a news organization. Erin enjoys
her job and the company. Recently, Erin learned of an available position at an advertising agency
that sounds interesting. Erin is gathering information about the position, although she is unsure
whether leaving her current job would be wise. Which of the following best describes Erin?
A) contingent worker
B) active job seeker
C) contract employee
D) passive candidate
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Passive candidates are typically employed, satisfied with their employer, and
content in their current role. However, if the right opportunity came along, they might like to
learn more. Active job seekers, whether presently employed or not, are committed to finding
another job. They place their résumés on job boards and contact friends, associates, or companies
to learn about job opportunities.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 3
15) Kelly and Associates employs 150 people. According to the EEOC guidelines, the firm
should keep recruitment records for a minimum of ________.
A) six months
B) one year
C) two years
D) five years
Answer: C
Explanation: C) EEOC guidelines suggest that companies with more than 100 employees keep
staffing records for a minimum of two years. The threshold coverage is 50 employees if dealing
with the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP).
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 3
16) The EEOC and OFCCP require firms to keep their staffing records in order to ________.
A) ensure that qualified individuals are filling positions
B) gather statistical information for federal tax purposes
C) assess whether a firm's hiring practices are discriminatory
D) create publication materials about firms in various industries
Answer: C
Explanation: C) EEOC and OFCCP guidelines suggest that companies keep staffing records for
a minimum of two years. This information enables a compilation of demographic data, including
age, race, and gender, based on that applicant pool. The EEOC uses these data to determine
whether a company's hiring practices are discriminatory.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
17) According to OFCCP guidelines, which of the following does NOT describe an Internet
applicant?
A) A job seeker applies for a position through a firm's Web site.
B) A job seeker sends an e-mail to the Webmaster of an organization.
C) A job seeker has not indicated that he or she is no longer interested in a position.
D) A job seeker indicates that he or she meets the position's basic qualifications.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) According to OCCP rules, there are four criteria to determine whether an
individual is an Internet applicant. 1. The job seeker has expressed interest through the Internet.
2. The employer considers the job seeker for employment in a particular open position. 3. The
job seeker has indicated he or she meets the position's basic qualifications. 4. The applicant has
not indicated he or she is no longer interested in the position.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
18) The policy of filling vacancies above the entry-level positions with present employees is
referred to as ________.
A) promotion from within
B) promotion by merit
C) performance promotion
D) seniority promotion
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Promotion from within (PFW) is the policy of filling vacancies above entry-
level positions with current employees. When an organization emphasizes promotion from
within, its workers have an incentive to strive for advancement.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
19) Firms are most likely using promotion from within more frequently because the policy
________.
A) meets EEOC requirements
B) eases the repatriation process
C) improves employee motivation
D) lessens the need for employee development
Answer: C
Explanation: C) When an organization emphasizes promotion from within, its workers have an
incentive to strive for advancement. Motivation provided by this practice often improves
employee morale. For this reason, managers appear to be using internal promotions more and
more.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
20) A strictly applied promotion from within policy eventually leads to ________.
A) morale deterioration
B) inbreeding
C) increased risk taking
D) gainsharing
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A strictly applied "PFW" policy eventually leads to inbreeding, a lack of cross-
fertilization, and a lack of creativity. Although seldom achieved, a good goal would be to fill 80
percent of openings above entry-level positions from within. Frequently, new blood provides
new ideas and innovation that must take place for firms to remain competitive.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
21) The recruitment process most likely begins when a manager ________.
A) initiates an employee requisition
B) administers employment tests
C) interviews candidates
D) trains a recruiter
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Frequently, recruitment begins when a manager initiates an employee
requisition, a document that specifies job title, department, the date the employee is needed for
work, and other details. With this information, managers can refer to the appropriate job
description to determine the qualifications the recruited person needs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
22) Which term refers to a document that specifies various details, including job title,
department, and the date the employee is needed for work?
A) job description
B) job specification
C) recruitment source
D) employee requisition
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Frequently, recruitment begins when a manager initiates an employee
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
23) Jeremy, an HR manager, has received an employee requisition for a data analyst job at his
firm. Which of the following would most likely help Jeremy determine the qualifications the
recruited person needs for the data analyst job?
A) job posting
B) job identifier
C) job description
D) job-knowledge test
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Frequently, recruitment begins when a manager initiates an employee
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 4
24) Which term refers to where qualified individuals are located?

A) job posts
B) job boards
C) recruitment sources
D) employee requisitions
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Recruitment sources are where qualified candidates are located, such as
colleges or competitors. Tapping productive sources of applicants and using suitable recruitment
methods are essential to maximizing recruiting efficiency and effectiveness.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
25) Which term refers to specific means through which potential employees are attracted to the
firm?
A) employment descriptions
B) recruitment methods
C) recruitment sources
D) job postings
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Recruitment methods are the specific means used to attract potential employees
to the firm, such as online recruiting. Tapping productive sources of applicants and using suitable
recruitment methods are essential to maximizing recruiting efficiency and effectiveness. When a
firm identifies the sources of candidates, it uses appropriate methods for either internal or
external recruitment to accomplish recruitment objectives.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
26) Job postings and job bidding procedures enable current employees of an organization to
________.
A) request promotions and salary raises
B) locate skilled subordinate workers
C) receive training for new positions
D) learn about current job openings
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The job posting and bidding procedures can help minimize the commonly heard
complaint that insiders never hear of a job opening until it is filled. Job posting is a procedure for
informing employees that job openings exist. Job bidding is a procedure that permits employees
who believe that they possess the required qualifications to apply for a posted job.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
27) Which of the following is NOT an internal recruitment method?

A) employment agency
B) employee referral
C) job bidding
D) job posting
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Employee referrals, job bidding procedures, and job postings are internal
recruiting methods. Employment agencies are external sources for job candidates.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
28) The procedure for communicating to employees the fact that job openings exist is known as
________.
A) job bidding
B) skills inventory
C) job posting
D) job analysis
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Job posting is a procedure for informing employees that job openings exist. Job
bidding is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they possess the required
qualifications to apply for a posted job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
29) Which of the following is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they possess
the required qualifications to apply for a posted position?
A) skills inventory
B) employee requisition
C) job enlargement
D) job bidding
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Job bidding is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they
possess the required qualifications to apply for a posted job. Job posting is a procedure for
informing employees that job openings exist.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
30) The complaint that employees never hear of a position until it is filled can best be handled
through a system of ________.
A) networking and onboarding
B) job analysis and staffing
C) job posting and bidding
D) recruiting and testing
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The job posting and bidding procedures can help minimize the commonly heard
complaint that insiders never hear of a job opening until it is filled. Job posting is a procedure for
informing employees that job openings exist. Job bidding is a procedure that permits employees
who believe that they possess the required qualifications to apply for a posted job.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
31) According to your text, what continues to be the way that top performers are primarily
identified?
A) employee referrals
B) headhunters
C) internships
D) job fairs
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Employee referrals continue to be the way that top performers are identified.
Organizations like Southwest Airlines, Microsoft, Disney, and Ritz Carlton reportedly get from
50 to 70 percent of their new hires exclusively through employee referrals. These organizations
have found that their employees can serve an important role in the recruitment process by
actively soliciting applications from among their friends and associates.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
32) Which of the following is the LEAST likely benefit of using employee referrals to identify
job candidates?
A) lower recruitment costs
B) better chance of diversity
C) lower employee turnover
D) better chance of organizational fit
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Costs can be 75 percent lower with employee referrals compared to the use of
ads and employment agencies. Using referrals also reduces turnover among both new and
existing employees because applicants come prescreened for culture fit. However using
employee referrals exclusively may generate applicant pools that do not reflect the diversity in
the labor market.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
33) Every employee at Raymond Consulting has been asked to include an e-mail footer that
states "Raymond Consulting is looking for amazing employees." Which recruitment method is
the firm using?
A) employee enlistment
B) job bidding
C) employee referrals
D) job posting
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Employee enlistment is a unique form of employee referral in which every
employee becomes a company recruiter by using e-mail footers or business cards to
communicate that the firm is hiring. Employee referrals involve employees referring friends and
associates for jobs. Job bidding is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they
possess the required qualifications to apply for a posted job. Job posting is a procedure for
informing employees that job openings exist.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 4
34) Universal Engineering provides employees with cards that state "We are always looking for
great engineers. For additional information, log on to our Web site." Which recruiting method is
Universal Engineering using?
A) job posting
B) job bidding
C) employee enlistment
D) online job board notifications
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Employee enlistment is a unique form of employee referral in which every
employee becomes a company recruiter. This is not the same as merely asking employees to
refer friends to the company. The technique can be accomplished by giving employees special
cards or having employees include e-mail footers regarding the firm's hiring needs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 4
35) External recruitment is LEAST likely required to ________.

A) fill entry-level jobs
B) acquire skills not possessed by current employees
C) obtain employees with different backgrounds and ideas
D) develop managers with an extensive understanding of the firm
Answer: D
Explanation: D) At times, a firm must look beyond its own borders to find employees,
particularly when expanding its workforce. External recruitment is needed to: (1) fill entry-level
jobs; (2) acquire skills not possessed by current employees; and (3) obtain employees with
different backgrounds to provide a diversity of ideas. Manager development would most likely
occur with internal rather than external candidates.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
36) Which of the following is NOT an external recruitment source?

A) universities
B) employee databases
C) military personnel
D) self-employed workers
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Universities, military personnel, and self-employed workers are all considered
sources for external recruitment. A firm's employee database would be a source for internal
recruitment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
37) O'Neal Engine Repair is a local business that services large and small engines and also does
auto body work. The business is growing, and the owner needs to hire three more mechanics.
Which of the following would most likely provide O'Neal's with the best source of entry-level
mechanics?
A) vocational school
B) state university
C) online job board
D) job bidding
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Organizations concerned with recruiting clerical and other entry-level
employees often depend on high schools and vocational schools. Many of these institutions have
outstanding training programs for specific occupational skills, such as home appliance repair and
small engine mechanics. Universities and job boards are less likely sources for mechanics.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Critical Thinking
LO: 5
38) What recruitment source has two-year programs designed for both a terminal education and
preparation for a four-year university degree program?
A) high schools
B) community colleges
C) private universities
D) virtual career fairs
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Many community colleges are sensitive to the specific employment needs in
their local labor markets and graduate highly-sought-after students with marketable skills.
Typically, community colleges have two-year programs designed for both a terminal education
and preparation for a four-year university degree program.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
39) Executive recruiting director Owen Williams regularly uses his smartphone and the mobile
version of LinkedIn to post job listings and connect to potential candidates. This is an example of
________ in action.
A) digital recruitment
B) leading edge recruiting
C) social media recruitment
D) mobile recruiting
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The world of recruiting via mobile technology is moving at lightning speed.
Recruiters use mobile apps to post jobs, run text message—based recruiting campaigns, create
online communities for potential new hires to learn about their companies, monitor social
networks for news about industries they hire for, and keep in touch with staff and outside
agencies. These tasks previously had to be done from a desktop or laptop computer.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 6
40) Potential professional, technical, and management employees are typically recruited from
what source?
A) competitors
B) universities
C) community colleges
D) local high schools
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Colleges and universities represent a major recruitment source for many
organizations. Organizations typically find potential professional, technical, and management
employees in these institutions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
41) Milton Marketing needs to hire two account managers, and the firm wants job candidates
who have recent experience in that position. Which of the following would be the best
recruitment source for Milton Marketing?
A) competitors in the labor market
B) colleges and universities
D) unemployed people
Answer: A
Explanation: A) When recent experience is required, competitors and other firms in the same
industry or geographic area may be the most important source of recruits. The most highly
qualified applicants often come directly from competitors in the same labor market, as people
typically do not enter the workforce loaded with experience and job skills.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 5
42) What is the process of actively recruiting employees from competitors called?
A) stealing
B) plundering
C) poaching
D) rustling
Answer: C
Explanation: C) When recent experience is required, competitors and other firms in the same
industry or geographic area may be the most important source of recruits. Another name for
actively recruiting employees from competitors is called poaching. In fact, the most highly
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
43) The most highly qualified experienced applicants often come from what source?
A) the unemployed
B) colleges and universities
D) industry competitors
Answer: D
Explanation: D) When recent experience is required, competitors and other firms in the same
industry or geographic area may be the most important source of recruits. Another name for
actively recruiting employees from competitors is called poaching. In fact, the most highly
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
44) During the recession of 2008/2010, many well-qualified employees at Advanced Control
were laid off when the firm struggled financially. The firm has actively stayed in touch with
these former employees in hopes of rehiring them when the economy improves. Which of the
following best supports the argument that Advanced Control should rehire these former
employees?
A) Advanced Control knows the strengths and weaknesses of the employees.
B) Advanced Control will avoid being sued for discriminatory hiring practices.
C) Advanced Control will prevent competitors from learning trade secrets.
D) Advanced Control has already established employee database information.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The advantage of tracking former employees is that the firm knows their
strengths and weaknesses and the ex-employees know the company. Tracking, recruiting, and
hiring a former employee can be a tremendous benefit and can encourage others to stay with the
firm.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 5
45) During the recession of 2008/2010, which of the following recruitment sources grew most
significantly?
A) former criminal offenders
B) former military personnel
C) self-employed individuals
D) unemployed workers
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Qualified applicants join the unemployment rolls every day for various reasons.
Companies may downsize their operations, go out of business, or merge with other firms, leaving
qualified workers without jobs, which was certainly the case in the recession of 2008/10. In
2010, over six million people had been out of work for six months or more.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
46) All of the following EXCEPT ________ are challenges involved in social media recruiting.
A) candidates might complain they were rejected for a job based on their social network
B) decision makers can become aware of race, ethnicity, or other protected information
C) employers can use social media to drive their brands to attract top talent
D) it can be ineffective or risky if the applicant pool is unfamiliar with social media
Answer: C
Explanation: C) There are some downsides to social media recruiting. If the applicant pool is
unfamiliar or uncomfortable with using social media, then employing social media can be
ineffective or even risky. Also, decision makers could become aware of an individual's race,
ethnicity, or other protected information. Then, candidates might complain that they were
rejected for a job based on content posted on their social networking site.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
47) If discouraged workers who gave up looking for jobs are counted, the total unemployment
rate in the USA for 2012 was about ________.
A) 16 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 12 percent
D) 13 percent
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In 2012, approximately 14 million Americans were unemployed creating an
unemployment rate of around 9 percent. However, if discouraged workers who have given up
looking for jobs are counted, the total unemployment rate was about 16 percent.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
48) According to a recent analysis by the National Employment Law Project, ________ has an
arrest or conviction that would appear in a routine criminal background check.
A) two out of three U.S. adults
B) more than one in four U.S. adults
C) nearly fifteen percent of U.S. adults
D) less than one in ten U.S. adults
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A recent analysis by the National Employment Law Project shows that more
than one in four U.S. adults has an arrest or conviction that would appear in a routine criminal
background check.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
49) Which of the following best explains why GE and Walmart hire former service members?
A) technologically skilled
B) proven work history
C) physically healthy
D) unique creativity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Hiring former service members may make sense to a lot of employers because
many of these individuals typically have a proven work history and are flexible, motivated, and
drug-free. Understanding technology, being healthy, and showing creativity are less likely to
explain the interest in former service members.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 5
50) Kevin recently resigned from the army and is searching for a civilian job. Which of the
following Web sites would most likely benefit Kevin?
A) servicejobs.com
B) armyjobs.com
C) hirepatriots.com
D) militaryjobs.com
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Service members nationwide looking for jobs can also go to HirePatriots.com.
"We help citizens and businesses to thank our current military, veterans, and their spouses by
posting their job opportunities on our free military job posting and search Web site," said Mark
Baird, president of Patriotic Hearts.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 5
AACSB: Use of IT
51) What has revolutionized the way companies recruit employees and job seekers search and
apply for jobs?
A) online recruitment methods
B) state employment agencies
C) local job fairs
D) headhunters
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Online recruiting has revolutionized the way companies recruit employees and
job seekers search and apply for jobs. Employment agencies, job fairs, and recruiters have been
in existence for some time, so they have not altered how firms and job seekers make connections.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
52) Alan works in the HR department at a manufacturing firm, and his primary responsibility is
to use the firm's Web site to monitor and coordinate recruitment activities. Which term most
likely describes Alan's position at the firm?
A) Webmaster
B) data analyst
C) Internet recruiter
D) technical recruiter
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The Internet recruiter, also called a "cyber recruiter," is a person whose primary
responsibility is to use the Internet in the recruitment process. Most companies currently post
jobs on their corporate career Web site. Individuals must be in place to monitor and coordinate
these activities.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
53) An employee whose primary task is to use the Internet in the recruitment process is best
known as a(n) ________.
A) online manager
B) IT recruiter
C) cyber recruiter
D) headhunter
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The Internet recruiter, also called a "cyber recruiter," is a person whose primary
these activities.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
54) An event at a local university allowed students to visit virtual employer booths and submit
their résumés online 24 hours a day, seven days a week. What is this recruitment method called?
A) mass recruiting
B) universal recruiting
C) virtual job fair
D) corporate job board
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A virtual job fair is an online recruiting method engaged in by a single
employer or group of employers to attract a large number of applicants.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
55) Heather is searching for a job as a software designer. She is currently reviewing available
positions on Cisco's Web site to determine if any openings at the firm match her qualifications.
Which of the following terms best describes the Web site that Heather is using to find a job?
A) human resources Web site
B) corporate career Web site
C) recruiting Web site
D) niche Web site
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Corporate career Web sites are job sites accessible from a company homepage
that list the company positions available and provide a way for applicants to apply for specific
jobs. They have become a major resource for both job seekers and companies seeking new
employees.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
56) Which term refers to a job site that is accessible from a company homepage that lists
available jobs at the company and provides a way for applicants to apply for jobs?
A) corporate career Web site
B) Internet niche job board
C) corporate Weblog
D) general purpose job board
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Corporate career Web sites are job sites accessible from a company homepage
that list the company positions available and provide a way for applicants to apply for specific
jobs. They have become a major resource for both job seekers and companies seeking new
employees.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
57) Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective corporate career Web site?
A) indicates appraisal methods
B) specifies health benefit plans
C) provides a brief job description
D) promotes the firm in a positive tone
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A career Web site should be upbeat and informative. It should be used as a
selling device that promotes the company to prospective job candidates. Writing effective
recruitment ads on the Internet is different from the short, one-inch-column ads in the Sunday
newspaper. The Internet provides enough space to fully describe the job, location, and company.
A good Web site should provide a feeling of the kind of corporate culture that exists within the
company.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
58) Employers and employment agencies are using Weblogs to ________.

A) share information about job applicants
B) discuss company policies and procedures
C) conduct background checks of applicants
D) hire contingent workers for short-term projects
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Weblogs, or blogs, have changed the ways in which individuals access
information. Some employers and employment agencies have discovered that blogging is a way
to do detailed and stealthy background checks.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
59) Natalie is using Monster.com and CareerBuilder.com in her job search. These sites are
examples of ________.
A) Weblogs
B) cyber recruiters
C) corporate career Web sites
D) general-purpose job boards
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Firms use general-purpose job boards, such as Monster.com and
CareerBuilder.com, by typing in key job criteria, skills, and experience, and indicating their
geographic location. Job seekers can search for jobs by category, experience, education, location,
or any combination of categories.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
60) Experts suggest that general-purpose job boards, such as Monster.com, are best for job
seekers in professions ________.
A) that require graduate level degrees
B) that require technological skills
C) within small industries
D) with high-turnover
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Many believe that the general-purpose big job boards are best for job seekers in
professions that experience high turnover like sales but often are less effective for highly
qualified applicants or those looking for work in smaller industries.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
61) Which of the following is a national recruiting network and suite of Web-based recruiting
and career services automation tools for colleges, employers, and job candidates?
A) CareerBuilder.com
B) Monster.com
C) NACElink Network
D) AllianceQ database
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The NACElink Network, the result of an alliance among the National
Association of Colleges and Employers, DirectEmployers Association, and Symplicity
Corporation, is a national recruiting network and suite of Web-based recruiting and career
services automation tools serving the needs of colleges, employers, and job candidates. The
system includes three components: job posting, résumé database, and interview scheduling.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
62) Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the NACElink Network?
A) job posting
B) résumé database
C) interview scheduling
D) virtual interviewing
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The NACElink Network, the result of an alliance among the National
Corporation, is a national recruiting network and suite of Web-based recruiting and career
services automation tools serving the needs of colleges, employers, and job candidates. The
system includes three components: job posting, résumé database, and interview scheduling.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
63) AllianceQ is best described as a(n) ________.
A) alliance of colleges and employers
B) shared pool of job candidates
C) general-purpose job board
D) international niche site
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In a potential blow to headhunters and a boost to managers seeking to slash
recruiting costs, certain large companies have begun pooling job candidates through a
consortium known as AllianceQ. Those passed over by one company are invited to submit their
résumés to the AllianceQ database.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
64) What are Web sites that cater to a specific profession called?
A) niche sites
B) Weblogs
C) Web links
D) contract sites
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Sites that specialize by industry and level of employment are becoming much
more common. Niche sites are Web sites that cater to highly specialized job markets such as a
particular profession, industry, education, location, or any combination of these specialties.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
65) Which of the following is NOT a niche site?

A) dice.com
B) monster.com
C) TVjobs.com
D) joyjobs.com
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Niche sites are Web sites that cater to highly specialized job markets such as a
particular profession, industry, education, location, or any combination of these specialties.
Monster.com is a general-purpose job board, while the other sites are for niche markets.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
66) Jeff wants to teach math in a high school overseas. Which niche site would be most
beneficial to Jeff?
A) cfo.com
B) joyjobs.com
C) dice.com
D) coolworks.com
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Joyjobs.com is a niche site with postings for international employment for
teachers. The other niche sites listed are not for teachers.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
67) Which of the following is the latest recruiting trend?

A) social network recruiting
B) niche site recruiting
C) Internet recruiting
D) job fair recruiting
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Some organizations are leaving general-purpose job boards and turning instead
to such avenues as social networking recruiting. Social networking is the business buzzword in
recruiting these days. As previously mentioned, it is well known that networking is one of the
best recruiting tools and numerous Web sites have been developed to utilize social network
recruiting. Sites such as Twitter, Facebook, and LinkedIn are used.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
68) What is a potential problem for firms that rely too heavily on social network sites for
recruiting?
A) high set-up costs
B) unreliable technology
C) corporate poaching
D) age and race discrimination
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Depending heavily on social networking sites for recruiting could lead to age
and race discrimination suits because the sites contain few minority and older people. Also,
candidates have sued companies because they believe they were rejected for a job based on
content posted on their profile on a social networking site.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
69) Professional social networks are considered good sources for recruiters searching for
________.
A) experienced managers
B) passive candidates
C) technical specialists
D) active candidates
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Giuseppe Rosati, founder of the restaurant jobs portal www.restogigs.com, said,
"When passive job seekers stumble upon your job postings on social media sites, it opens up a
whole new group of potential candidates, candidates that would not see the job on a traditional
job site because they're not actively looking.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
70) A Web site is most likely a job search scam if an applicant is required to provide any of the
following information online EXCEPT ________.
A) job history information
B) bank account information
C) credit card number
D) social security number
Answer: A
Explanation: A) After hiring an employee or meeting with applicants personally, account
information and social security numbers may be necessary. However, a site that requests this
personal information is most likely a job scam. Actual job sites would request an applicant's job
history.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
71) What traditional recruitment method communicates the firm's employment needs to the
public through media such as newspapers and industry publications?
A) internships
B) recruiters
C) job fairs
D) advertising
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Advertising communicates the firm's employment needs to the public through
media such as newspapers, trade journals, radio, television, and billboards. Although few
individuals base their decision to change jobs on advertising, ads create awareness, generate
interest, and encourage a prospect to seek more information about the firm and the job
opportunities that it provides.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
72) Maria, an HR manager at a software firm, wants a low cost method for generating broad
interest in her firm to attract job candidates. Which of the following would be the best method
for Maria to use?
A) TV ad
B) billboard
C) career fair
D) newspaper ad
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A traditional common form of advertising that provides broad coverage at a
relatively low cost is the newspaper ad. Radio, billboards, and television are likely to be more
expensive than newspapers or journals, but, in specific situations, they may prove successful.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 8
73) Jack, an HR manager at an electronics firm, has been informed that he needs to hire twenty
technicians immediately. Which of the following would most likely be the best method for
quickly attracting experienced technicians?
A) job fair
B) event recruiting
C) radio advertisement
D) newspaper advertisement
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In situations in which hiring needs are urgent, television and radio may provide
good results. Broadcast messages can let people know that an organization is seeking recruits.
Job fairs, event recruiting, and newspaper ads are less likely to recruit candidates quickly.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 8
74) Which of the following is primarily used to recruit white collar employees for specific niches
in the job market?
A) private employment agency
B) community job fair
C) radio advertising
D) special event
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Private employment agencies, often called "head hunters," are best known for
recruiting white collar employees and offer an important service in bringing qualified applicants
and open positions together. Today, private employment agencies often specialize in filling a
particular niche in the job market.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
75) Individuals are often turned off by private employment agencies because of their ________.
A) lack of technology
B) inconvenience
C) requirements
D) fees
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Private employment agencies' fees can range up to 35 percent of a person's first
year salary. The one-time fees that some agencies charge often turn off candidates, although
many private employment agencies deal primarily with firms that pay the fees.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
76) ________ are operated by each state but receive overall policy direction from the U.S.
Employment Service.
A) Newspapers
B) Special events agencies
C) Private recruitment agencies
D) Public employment agencies
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Public employment agencies are operated by each state but receive overall
policy direction from the U.S. Employment Service. Public employment agencies have become
increasingly involved in matching people with technical, professional, and managerial positions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
77) Which of the following would most likely operate a public employment agency located in
Albany, New York?
A) EEOC
B) City of Albany
C) State of New York
D) Department of Labor
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Public employment agencies are operated by each state but receive overall
policy direction from the U.S. Employment Service. Therefore, a public employment agency in
Albany, New York would be operated by the State of New York.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 8
78) Which of the following pays for the services provided by public employment agencies?
A) state governments that run the agencies
B) employees who are placed in jobs
C) individuals who apply for jobs
D) employers who hire workers
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Public employment agencies are operated by each state but receive overall
policy direction from the U.S. Employment Service. Public employment agencies have become
The government covers the costs of their services.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
79) Technical and vocational schools, community colleges, colleges, and universities are the
primary focus of ________.
A) public recruitment agencies
B) private employment agencies
C) executive search firms
D) recruiters
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Recruiters most commonly focus on technical and vocational schools,
community colleges, colleges, and universities. Some firms are using videoconferencing with
equipment at both corporate headquarters and on college campuses. Recruiters can communicate
with college career counselors and interview students through a videoconferencing system
without leaving the office.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
80) The student placement director at a university helps corporate recruiters in all of the
following ways EXCEPT ________.
A) negotiating salaries and benefits
B) identifying qualified candidates
C) providing interview rooms
D) scheduling interviews
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The key contact for recruiters on college and university campuses is often the
student placement director. Placement services identify qualified candidates, schedule
interviews, and provide suitable rooms for interviews, but they are not involved in negotiations.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
81) Which of the following is an effort on the part of a single employer or group of employers to
attract a large number of applicants to one location for interviews?
A) mass recruiting
B) event recruiting
C) job board
D) job fair
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A job fair is a recruiting method engaged in by a single employer or group of
employers to attract a large number of applicants to one location for interviews. From an
employer's viewpoint, a primary advantage of job fairs is the opportunity to meet a large number
of candidates in a short time. Conversely, applicants may have convenient access to a number of
employers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
82) Which method of external recruiting is designed primarily for students?

A) radio advertising
B) employment agencies
C) internships
D) employee referrals
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An internship is a special form of recruitment that involves placing a student in
a temporary job with no obligation either by the company to hire the student permanently or by
the student to accept a permanent position with the firm following graduation. An internship
typically involves a temporary job for the summer months or a part-time job during the school
year.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 8
83) Which recruitment method especially aids students in determining whether a given company
would be a desirable employer?
A) college recruiting
B) job analysis
C) event recruiting
D) internship
Answer: D
Explanation: D) An internship is a special form of recruitment that involves placing a student in
a temporary job with no obligation either by the company to hire the student permanently or by
the student to accept a permanent position with the firm following graduation. An internship
typically involves a temporary job for the summer months or a part-time job during the school
year and helps students and employers determine if the match is a good one.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
84) Organizations used by firms to locate experienced professionals when other sources prove
inadequate are referred to as ________.
A) employee leasing firms
B) executive search firms
C) private employment agencies
D) professional associations
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Executive search firms are organizations used by some firms to locate
experienced professionals and executives when other sources prove inadequate. The key benefit
of executive search firms is the targeting of ideal candidates. In addition, the search firm can find
those not actively looking for a job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
85) A representative from an executive search firm would most likely ________.
A) write a potential job candidate's résumé to match the client's needs
B) temporarily hire employees for a client to train and interview
C) interview a client's managers about the required job qualifications
D) create newspaper advertisements for a client's available positions
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An executive search firm's representatives often visit the client's offices and
interview the company's management. This enables them to gain a clear understanding of the
company's goals and the job qualifications required. After obtaining this information, they
contact and interview potential candidates, check references, and refer the best-qualified person
to the client for the selection decision.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
86) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be offered by a professional association?

A) job referral services
B) recruitment services
C) reduced headhunter fees
D) Web site job advertisements
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Virtually every professional group publishes a journal and has a Web site that is
widely used by its members. Many professional associations provide recruitment and placement
services for their members. Jobs advertised are placed in the journal in hard copy and also
advertised on the professional group's Web site. Professional associations are less likely to offer
reduced fees for executive recruiters.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
87) An organization that has a reputation of being a good place to work will most likely
________.
A) receive unsolicited applications
B) participate in college recruiting
C) sponsor local events
D) hold open houses
Answer: A
Explanation: A) If an organization has the reputation of being a good place to work, it may be
able to attract qualified prospects even without extensive recruitment efforts, such as college
recruiting, event recruiting, or open houses. Acting on their own initiative, well-qualified
workers may seek out a specific company to apply for a job. Unsolicited applicants who apply
because they are favorably impressed with the firm's reputation often prove to be valuable
employees.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
88) Which recruitment method pairs potential hires and managers in a warm, casual environment
that encourages on-the-spot job offers?
A) college internships
B) university recruiting
C) employee referrals
D) open houses
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Open houses are a valuable recruiting tool, especially during days of low
unemployment. Here, firms pair potential hires and recruiters in a warm, casual environment that
encourages on-the-spot job offers. Open houses are cheaper and faster than hiring through
recruitment agencies, and they are also more popular than job fairs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
89) Recruiters who go to marathons or bike races that are attended by individuals the company is
seeking are participating in ________.
A) event recruiting
B) special event
C) open houses
D) job fairs
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Event recruiting involves having recruiters go to events being attended by
individuals the company is seeking. Cisco Systems pioneered event recruiting as a recruitment
approach. In the case of programmers in the Silicon Valley, the choice spots have been
marathons and bike races. Companies that participate in these events become involved in some
way that promotes their name and cause.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
90) Which recruitment method gives a company the opportunity to reflect its image by
promoting its name and a specific cause?
A) open houses
B) event recruiting
C) virtual job fairs
D) internships
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Event recruiting involves having recruiters go to events being attended by
individuals the company is seeking. Companies that participate in events, such as bike races or
marathons, promote their name and cause and have a chance to reflect their image to potential
job candidates.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
91) In 2011, ________ of firms surveyed by Altura Consulting Group offered signing bonuses.
A) 15 percent
B) 54 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 30 percent
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Employers use sign-on bonuses to attract top talent, particularly in high-demand
fields such as health care, sales, marketing, and accounting. Overall, in 2011, 54 percent of firms
surveyed by Altura Consulting Group offered signing bonuses.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
92) What is the primary reason that employers use sign-on bonuses?
A) eliminate the need to offer costly stock-options
B) attract talented workers in high-demand fields
C) recruit young, energetic workers into sales jobs
D) encourage workers to apply for technical jobs
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Employers use sign-on bonuses to attract top talent, particularly within high-
demand fields such as health care, sales, marketing, accounting, and finance. Employers are not
necessarily trying to attract young workers, but those that exhibit skills.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
93) What recruitment method was Google using when it sponsored its Code Jam?
A) Internet recruiting
B) competitive games
C) event recruiting
D) open house
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Google uses competitive games to get individuals interested in applying for
technical positions. It sponsors an annual computer programming competition, Google Code
Jam, in which students from around the world enter and the winners of the competition are sure
to be noticed.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Application
LO: 8
94) Google uses competitive games as a means to ________.

A) earn advertising revenue
B) attract the general public to its search engine
C) market its Android operating system
D) identify top talent for potential employment
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Google has a unique way to get individuals interested in applying for technical
positions. Google Code Jam is an international programming competition hosted and
administered by Google. The competition began in 2003 as a means to identify top engineering
talent for potential employment.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
95) What would be the most likely external recruitment source for a firm that has an immediate
need for an experienced IT manager?
A) universities
B) competitors
C) vocational schools
D) self-employed individuals
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Firms with an immediate need for a skilled IT manager would most likely look
at a competitor's employees. Universities, vocational schools, and self-employed individuals are
less likely sources in this case.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 9
96) HealthCorp has an immediate need for an experienced IT manager. The firm's HR manager
has decided that the best external source for the position is the firm's competitors in the labor
market. Which of the following methods would most likely be LEAST effective for HealthCorp?
A) media advertising
B) competitive games
C) executive search firm
D) professional association
Answer: B
Explanation: B) It would most likely be appropriate for HealthCorp to advertise the job in the
newspaper or online. Alternatively, an executive search firm may serve as viable options. In
addition, the recruiter may attend meetings of professional information technology associations.
One or more of these methods will likely yield a pool of qualified applicants but using
competitive games would be less likely to fill the position quickly or attract experienced
individuals.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 9
97) What would be the most likely external recruitment source for a firm that needs 30 entry-
level machine operators?
A) vocational schools
C) state universities
D) former military soldiers
Answer: A
Explanation: A) For a firm that needs numerous entry-level machine operators, high schools and
vocational schools would be good recruitment sources. Methods of recruitment might include
newspaper ads, public employment agencies, recruiters, visiting vocational schools, and
employee referrals.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 9
98) U.S. Manufacturing needs to hire 30 entry-level machine operators, which the firm will train.
Which recruitment method would most likely be appropriate for the firm?
A) public employment agencies
B) professional associations
C) private employment agencies
D) executive search firms
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Public employment agencies would be the best source for finding appropriate
applicants for U.S. Manufacturing. Professional associations would not be the best source in this
case because the firm needs entry-level applicants. Private employment agencies and executive
search firms are best known for recruiting white-collar employees and managers rather than
entry-level workers.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 9
99) The trend in bringing offshored jobs back to the United States is known as ________.
A) recapturing
B) reshoring
C) regaining
D) reestablishing
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Reshoring is the reverse of offshoring and involves bringing work back to the
United States.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
100) Which of the following is not contributing to reshoring–bringing offshored work back to the
United States?
A) the decline in value of the U.S. dollar
B) decreasing labor costs in overseas countries
C) higher costs for packaging and inventory
D) rising costs for currency exchange
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Reshoring is the reverse of offshoring and involves bringing work back to the
United States. A number of factors are fueling the reshoring trend. Some of the reasons cited
included rising costs for currency exchange, transportation, and labor in countries that were once
much less expensive. There are often hidden expenses such as higher costs for travel, packaging,
shipping, and inventory. In addition, wages have been rising in countries where manufacturing
has been outsourced. Also, the decline of the U.S. dollar has provided a fiscal climate
advantageous to manufacturing machine tools in North America.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
5.2 True/False Questions
1) Contingent workers have a non-traditional relationship with worksite employers and work as
part-timers, temporaries, or independent contractors.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Contingent workers, described as the "disposable American workforce" by a
former secretary of labor, have a nontraditional relationship with the worksite employer and
work as part-timers, temporaries, or independent contractors.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
2) Recruitment is the process of attracting qualified individuals and encouraging them to apply
for jobs with an organization.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Recruitment is the process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in sufficient
numbers, and with appropriate qualifications to apply for jobs with an organization. The firm
may then select those applicants with qualifications most closely related to job descriptions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
3) Recruiting programs have little impact on a firm's financial status.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: It is estimated that just the cost of replacing an employee alone when a bad
decision is made is two to three times the employee's annual salary. Thus, a properly functioning
recruiting program can have a major impact on the bottom line of a company.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
4) The migration of all or a significant part of the development, maintenance, and delivery of
services to an overseas vendor is known as outsourcing.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Offshoring refers to the migration of all or a significant part of the development,
maintenance and delivery of services to a vendor located in another country, typically in
developing countries like India and China. Outsourcing is the process of hiring an external
provider to do the work that was previously done internally but not necessarily to an overseas
vendor.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
5) The offshoring trend is expected to decline in the near future because of the high
unemployment rate that remains from the 2008/2010 recession.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Some are quite concerned about the offshoring trend, citing lost wages of $135
billion, 3.3 million lost jobs, and reduced salaries for the jobs that remain. Even so, the trend is
not likely to reverse itself in the near future.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
6) Contingent workers include part-timers, temporaries, and independent contractors.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Contingent workers have a nontraditional relationship with the worksite employer
and work as part-timers, temporaries, or independent contractors. They are the human
equivalents of just-in-time inventory.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
7) Contingent workers offer employers flexibility, which is important in an unstable economy.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Contingent workers provide the flexibility that employers desire when cuts need to
be made. It is starting to become one of the most important initiatives and priorities as they look
to future planning and forecasting. Firms want to be able to ramp up or scale back based on
business needs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
8) Outsourcing is the process of hiring an external provider to do the work that was previously
done internally.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Outsourcing is the process of hiring an external provider to do the work that was
previously done internally. Outsourcing has become a widespread and increasingly popular
alternative involving virtually every business area.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
9) Onshoring involves moving jobs not to another country but to lower-cost American cities.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Onshoring involves moving jobs not to another country but to lower-cost
American cities. Some companies might like to offshore their jobs but the government may
require onshore handling of certain financial, health, and defense data.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
10) By using overtime, an employer avoids the costs and time associated with recruiting,
selecting, and training employees.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Perhaps the most commonly used alternative to recruitment, especially in meeting
short-term fluctuations in work volume, is overtime. Overtime may help both employer and
employee. The employer benefits by avoiding recruitment, selection, and training costs. The
employees gain from increased income during the overtime period.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
11) Active job seekers are always unemployed, while passive candidates are generally satisfied
with their current jobs.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Active job seekers, whether presently employed or not, are committed to finding
another job. These individuals are usually easier to identify because their names have been
placed in the job market. Passive candidates, on the other hand, are typically employed, satisfied
with their employer, and content in their current role.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
12) EEOC guidelines suggest that companies with more than 100 employees keep staffing
records for a minimum of four years.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) guidelines suggest that
companies with more than 100 employees keep staffing records for a minimum of two years. The
threshold coverage is 50 employees if dealing with the Office of Federal Contract Compliance
Programs (OFCCP).
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
13) By having companies maintain detailed staffing and recruitment records, the EEOC can
determine whether a firm's hiring practices are legal.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) guidelines suggest that
companies with more than 100 employees keep staffing records for a minimum of two years.
This information enables a compilation of demographic data, including age, race, and gender,
based on that applicant pool. The EEOC uses these data to determine whether a company's hiring
practices are discriminatory.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
14) Most modern firms strive for a rigid promotion from within policy to develop a strong
organizational culture and foster creativity.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Most firms do not adhere rigidly to a practice of promotion from within. A strictly
applied "PFW" policy eventually leads to inbreeding, a lack of cross-fertilization, and a lack of
creativity. Although seldom achieved, a good goal would be to fill 80 percent of openings above
entry-level positions from within.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
15) Recruitment usually begins when a manager initiates an employee requisition, a document
that specifies job title, department, the date the employee is needed for work, and other details.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Frequently, recruitment begins when a manager initiates an employee requisition, a
document that specifies job title, department, the date the employee is needed for work, and other
details. With this information, managers can refer to the appropriate job description to determine
the qualifications the recruited person needs.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
16) Colleges, universities, vocational schools, and competing firms are types of recruitment
sources.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Recruitment sources are where qualified candidates are located, such as colleges or
competitors. Recruitment methods are the specific means used to attract potential employees to
the firm, such as online recruiting.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
17) Management should be able to use employee databases to identify current employees who
are capable of filling available positions.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Management should be able to identify current employees who are capable of
filling positions as they become available. Helpful tools used for internal recruitment include
employee databases, job postings, and job bidding procedures. Databases can be valuable in
locating talent internally and supporting the concept of promotion from within.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
18) Job posting is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they possess the required
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Job posting is a procedure for informing employees that job openings exist. Job
bidding is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they possess the required
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
19) Organizations need to be sure to treat internal candidates properly so they will not be
prompted to leave if they do not get the job.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Organizations need to be sure to treat internal candidates properly so they will not
be discouraged or prompted to leave if they do not get the job. When bidders are unsuccessful,
someone must explain to them why they were not selected. Management must choose the most
qualified applicant or else the system will lack credibility.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
20) Online job boards are the most effective method used by employers such as Microsoft and
Southwest Airlines to identify top performers.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Employee referrals continue to be the way that top performers are identified.
Organizations like Southwest Airlines, Microsoft, Disney, and Ritz Carlton reportedly get many
of their new hires exclusively through employee referrals. It is just human nature that people do
not want to recommend a person unless they believe they are going to fit in and be productive.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
21) The 2006 EEOC Compliance Manual warns that relying on word-of-mouth recruiting may
generate applicant pools that do not reflect diversity in the labor market.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The EEOC Compliance Manual, issued in 2006, updates guidance on the
prohibition of discrimination under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. The manual
explicitly warns that recruiting only at select colleges or relying on word-of-mouth recruiting,
which includes employee referral programs, may generate applicant pools that do not reflect
diversity in the labor market.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
22) Job bidding is a unique form of employee referral where every employee becomes a
company recruiter.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Employee enlistment is a unique form of employee referral in which every
employee becomes a company recruiter by using business cards that mention the firm is hiring.
Job bidding is a procedure that permits employees who believe that they possess the required
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
23) Organizations who need to recruit clerical and other entry-level operative employees often
depend on high schools and vocational schools.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Organizations concerned with recruiting clerical and other entry-level employees
often depend on high schools and vocational schools. Many of these institutions have
outstanding training programs for specific occupational skills, such as home appliance repair and
small engine mechanics.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
24) Firms typically find potential management employees in colleges and universities.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Colleges and universities represent a major recruitment source for many
organizations. Organizations typically find potential professional, technical, and management
employees in these institutions.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
25) When recent experience is required, former employees or unemployed workers are the most
important source of recruits.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: When recent experience is required, competitors and other firms in the same
industry or geographic area may be the most important source of recruits. Former employees and
unemployed workers are less likely to have the most recent experience necessary.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
26) Tracking and recruiting former employees is more common now than it was in the past.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: At one time, when employees quit, their managers and peers tended to view them
as being disloyal, ungrateful, and they were "punished" with no-return policies. A common
attitude was that if you left your firm, you did not appreciate what the company had done for
you. Today's young workers are more likely to change jobs and later return to a former employer
than their counterparts who entered the workforce 20 or 30 years ago and smart employers try to
get their best ex-employees to come back.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
27) Former service members are recruited by many employers because many of these individuals
typically have a proven work history and are flexible, motivated, and drug free.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Hiring of former service members may make sense to a lot of employers because
many of these individuals typically have a proven work history and are flexible, motivated, and
drug-free. Another valuable characteristic of veterans is their goal and team orientation.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
28) Ex-offenders are a viable source of employees for restaurants and farms.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Ex-offenders are a viable labor pool for restaurants. Several restaurant chains have
programs to hire ex-offenders, for working third shift. In another example, supermarket retail
consultant and restaurateur Howard Solganik has launched a program that puts ex-offenders to
work helping area farmers increase the supply of local, seasonal produce accessible to
consumers.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
29) Mobile recruiting involves holding job fairs, offering internships, hosting open houses, and
visiting community colleges and vocational schools.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Mobile recruiting involves the use of mobile apps to post jobs, run text message-
based recruiting campaigns, create online communities for potential new hires to learn about
their companies, monitor social networks for news about industries they hire for, and keep in
touch with staff and outside agencies. These tasks previously had to be done from a desktop or
laptop computer.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
30) The cyber recruiter uses the Internet to monitor and coordinate a firm's recruitment activities.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The Internet recruiter, also called a "cyber recruiter," is a person whose primary
these activities.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
31) Virtual job fairs are accessible from a company homepage that lists the company positions
available and provides a way for applicants to apply for specific jobs.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A virtual job fair is an online recruiting method engaged in by a single employer or
group of employers to attract a large number of applicants. Corporate career Web sites are job
sites accessible from a company homepage that list the company positions available and provide
a way for applicants to apply for specific jobs.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
32) Recently, corporate career Web sites are becoming more accessible to job seekers through
handheld mobile devices.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Of late, another dimension has entered the equation with regard to making the
corporate career Web site accessible to job seekers. Now it is important that job boards and
recruitment sites are easy to use on handheld mobile devices.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
33) Employers and employment agencies use blogging to conduct background checks on job
applicants.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Weblogs, or blogs, have changed the ways in which individuals access
information. Some employers and employment agencies have discovered that blogging is a way
to do detailed and stealthy background checks.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
34) The NACElink Network is a general purpose job board.

Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The NACElink Network is the result of an alliance among the National
Corporation. It is a national recruiting network and suite of Web-based recruiting and career
services automation tools serving the needs of colleges, employers, and job candidates.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
35) Accountantsworld.com is an example of a general-purpose job board.

Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Accountantsworld.com is a niche site that caters to a highly specialized job market.
Monster.com is a general-purpose job board.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
36) Freelance.com and guru.com are Web sites for contract workers to advertise their skills.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Contract workers are part of the contingent workforce and an alternative to
recruitment. Sites such as freelance.com and guru.com assist these workers. These sites let
workers advertise their skills, set their price, and pick an employer.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
37) Public employment agencies are operated by the federal government and given policy
direction through the EEOC.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Public employment agencies are operated by each state but receive overall policy
direction from the U.S. Employment Service. Public employment agencies have become
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
38) An internship allows students to contribute to a firm and to observe business practices
firsthand.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: During the internship, the student gets to view business practices firsthand. At the
same time, the intern contributes to the firm by performing needed tasks. In addition to other
benefits, internships provide opportunities for students to bridge the gap from business theory to
practice.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
39) As a form of recruitment, internships involve placing a student in a permanent job to help
pay for his or her college tuition.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: An internship is a special form of recruitment that involves placing a student in a
temporary job with no obligation either by the company to hire the student permanently or by the
student to accept a permanent position with the firm following graduation.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
40) Reshoring is the reverse of offshoring and involves bringing work back to the United States.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Reshoring is the reverse of offshoring and involves bringing work back to the
United States. Advocates of reshoring believe that manufacturers should calculate the total
impact of offshoring because there are often hidden expenses such as higher costs for travel,
packaging, shipping, and inventory.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 5
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
5.3 Essay Questions
1) What is recruitment? How do labor market conditions affect recruitment?

Answer: Recruitment is the process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in sufficient
numbers, and with appropriate qualifications to apply for jobs with an organization. The firm
may then select those applicants with qualifications most closely related to job descriptions. Of
particular importance is the demand for and supply of specific skills in the labor market. A firm's
recruitment process may be simplified when the unemployment rate in an organization's labor
market is high as was the case in the recession when it jumped to over 10 percent in 2009.
However, even in a depressed economy, top quality workers are in demand and forward thinking
organizations are looking to entice these individuals to join their firms.The number of unsolicited
applicants is usually greater, and the increased size of the labor pool provides a better
opportunity for attracting qualified applicants. If demand for a particular skill is high relative to
supply, an extraordinary recruiting effort may be required.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 1, 3
2) Why would a firm look to competitors for recruits? How do sites such as LinkedIn and
Twitter assist firms with finding passive candidates at competing firms?
Answer: When recent experience is required, competitors and other firms in the same industry
or geographic area may be the most important source of recruits. The most highly qualified
applicants often come directly from competitors in the same labor market, as people typically do
not enter the workforce loaded with experience and job skills. Competitors and other firms serve
as external sources of recruitment for high-quality talent. Even organizations that have policies
of promotion from within occasionally look elsewhere to fill positions. Sites such as LinkedIn
and Facebook are excellent for searching for passive candidates. These sites house millions of
passive candidates and include tools that let would-be employers search for candidates by
geography, skills, interests, and numerous other criteria.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 3, 5
AACSB: Use of IT
3) What is the contingent workforce? What is the outlook for the contingent workforce going
forward?
Answer: Contingent workers, described as the "disposable American workforce" by a former
secretary of labor, have a nontraditional relationship with the worksite employer and work as
part-timers, temporaries, or independent contractors. The United States Government
Accountability Office has estimated that so-called contingent workers make up nearly a third of
the workforce. And forecasters believe that amount will rise.
Historically, contingent workers have been called the bookends of recessions. They are the first
to go when a recession begins and the last to be recalled when the economy gets better.
However, toward the end of the recent recession, many companies were reversing this trend and
following the strategy of holding off on the hiring of regular full-time employees and choosing
instead to use contingent workers. Companies are now using contingent workers as a continuing
strategy in both good and bad times. In fact, the Bureau of Labor Statistics data suggest that
between 2008 and 2018, staffing companies will add jobs at almost twice the rate of estimated
job growth overall. In fact, the pace of contingent job growth suggests a shift toward more use of
temporary labor at the expense of permanent jobs.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 1
AACSB: Use of IT
4) What are some alternatives to recruitment? What are the possible benefits of using such
alternatives?
Answer: Outsourcing, offshoring, contingent workers, PEOs, and overtime are alternatives to
recruitment. Even when HR planning indicates a need for additional employees, a firm may
decide against increasing the size of its workforce. Recruitment and selection costs are
significant when you consider all the related expenses. Contingent workers provide firms with a
high degree of flexibility, which is beneficial during financial ups and downs. Overtime
minimizes the need to select and train new employees. Therefore, a firm should consider these
alternatives before engaging in recruitment.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 2
5) What is a promotion from within policy? What are the advantages and disadvantages of such a
policy?
Answer: Promotion from within (PFW) is the policy of filling vacancies above entry-level
positions with current employees. When an organization emphasizes promotion from within, its
workers have an incentive to strive for advancement. When employees see co-workers promoted,
they become more aware of their own opportunities. Motivation provided by this practice often
improves employee morale. Another advantage of internal recruitment is that the organization is
usually well aware of its employees' capabilities. The employee has a track record, as opposed to
being an unknown entity. Also, the company's investment in the individual may yield a higher
return. Still another positive factor is the employee's knowledge of the firm, its policies, and its
people. However, a strictly applied "PFW" policy eventually leads to inbreeding, a lack of cross-
fertilization, and a lack of creativity. New blood provides new ideas and innovation that must
take place for firms to remain competitive.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 3
6) What are the steps involved in the recruitment process?

Answer: Recruitment is the process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in sufficient
numbers, and with appropriate qualifications, to apply for jobs with an organization. Frequently,
recruitment begins when a manager initiates an employee requisition, a document that specifies
job title, department, the date the employee is needed for work, and other details. With this
information, managers can refer to the appropriate job description to determine the qualifications
the recruited person needs. The next step in the recruitment process is to determine whether
qualified employees are available within the firm (the internal source) or if it is necessary to look
to external sources, such as colleges, universities, and other organizations. Because of the high
cost of recruitment, organizations need to use the most productive recruitment sources and
methods available. Tapping productive sources of applicants and using suitable recruitment
methods are essential to maximizing recruiting efficiency and effectiveness. When a firm
identifies the sources of candidates, it uses appropriate methods for either internal or external
recruitment to accomplish recruitment objectives. A candidate responds to the firm's recruitment
efforts by submitting professional and personal data on either an application for employment or a
résumé, depending on the company's policy.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 4
7) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using employee referrals for recruiting?
Answer: Employee referrals continue to be the way that top performers are identified. It is just
human nature that people do not want to recommend a person unless they believe they are going
to fit in and be productive. Thus, it is a powerful recruiting tool. Costs associated with employee
referrals are very low compared to advertising or agencies. Using referrals also reduces turnover
among both new and existing employees because applicants come prescreened for culture fit. A
note of caution should be observed with regard to the extensive use of employee referral. The
EEOC Compliance Manual, issued in 2006, updates guidance on the prohibition of
discrimination under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. The manual explicitly warns that
relying on word-of-mouth recruiting, which includes employee referral programs, may generate
applicant pools that do not reflect diversity in the labor market.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 4
8) What are the main reasons that firms use external recruitment sources? What are the benefits
of recruiting at vocational schools, community colleges, and universities?
Answer: At times, a firm must look beyond its own borders to find employees, particularly when
expanding its workforce. External recruitment is needed to: (1) fill entry-level jobs; (2) acquire
skills not possessed by current employees; and (3) obtain employees with different backgrounds
to provide a diversity of ideas. Organizations concerned with recruiting clerical and other entry-
level employees often depend on high schools and vocational schools. Many of these institutions
have outstanding training programs for specific occupational skills, such as home appliance
repair and small engine mechanics. Many community colleges are sensitive to the specific
employment needs in their local labor markets and graduate highly-sought-after students with
marketable skills. Many community colleges also have excellent mid-management programs
combined with training for specific trades. Colleges and universities represent a major
recruitment source for many organizations. Organizations typically find potential professional,
technical, and management employees in these institutions.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 5
9) What are the advantages and disadvantages of social media recruiting?
Answer: Many organizations are leaving newspapers and general-purpose job boards and
turning instead to such avenues as social media recruiting. Used properly, social media recruiting
can benefit nearly all phases of recruiting. Using social media as a strategy in the recruiting
process permits a firm to interact with potential hires on Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter. Jobs
can be posted daily on those sites. Such sites also permit talent groups to be developed by linking
professional groups and preserving contact with potential hires. Today many workers live out a
large portion of their lives online. Most of the new talent entering the job market these days is
quite comfortable with social media and firms are increasingly being led to use it in their
recruitment effort.
There are some downsides to social media recruiting. If the applicant pool is unfamiliar or
uncomfortable with using social media, then employing social media can be ineffective or even
risky. Also, decision makers could become aware of an individual's race, ethnicity, or other
protected information. Then, candidates might complain that they were rejected for a job based
on content posted on their social networking site.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 3
10) What is reshoring? Identify the trends that are compelling companies to consider it.
Answer: Reshoring is the reverse of offshoring and involves bringing work back to the United
States. Advocates of reshoring believe that manufacturers should calculate the total impact of
offshoring because there are often hidden expenses such as higher costs for travel, packaging,
shipping, and inventory. There are those who believe that reshoring is destined to happen as
wages in countries where the manufacturing has been outsourced increase. According to a study
by The Boston Consulting Group, net labor costs in the United States and China are expected to
converge by 2015, thereby making it more attractive to return to the United States. Also, the
decline of the U.S. dollar has provided a fiscal climate advantageous to manufacturing machine
tools in North America.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 5
LO: 10
Chapter 6 Selection
1) The HR manager at a manufacturing plant is required to use E-Verify to check the information
provided on each employee's ________.
A) I-9
B) W-2
C) W-4
D) 1099
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The Federal Acquisition Regulation requires government contractors and
subcontractors to use E-Verify to determine that all of their new hires and all existing employees
directly performing work on a federal contract are authorized to work in the United States. E-
Verify is a web-based system that lets employers check Social Security and visa numbers
submitted by workers against government databases. The program verifies information in the
worker's Employment Eligibility Verification Form (I-9).
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 1
AACSB: Use of IT
2) Members of Congress who claim that E-Verify fails to prevent employers from hiring illegal
immigrants advocate replacing the system with one based on ________.
A) nanotechnology
B) fingerprinting
C) graphology
D) biometrics
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A biometric identification card is the primary focus of immigration reform
legislation advocated by Schumer. It would be the primary tool in a national system for
identifying people. Biometrics deal with a variety of traits that are not subject to change,
including fingerprints, facial patterns, eye retinas and irises, venous patterns of the hands, and
hand and palm geometry.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
3) What is the primary criticism against a national identification system based on biometric data?
A) EEOC laws
B) political risks
C) immigration influxes
D) privacy and security risks
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A biometric identification card is the primary focus of immigration reform
legislation being debated in Congress. It would be the primary tool in a national system for
identifying people. To accomplish this, every U.S. worker would have to present a birth
certificate and other identification documents, then have his or her biometric, such as a
fingerprint, captured. Some say such databases would create privacy and security risk, while
others argue that the government already has considerable information on each of us.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
4) Which term refers to the process of choosing from a group of qualified applicants the
individual best suited for a particular position?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) HR planning
D) job bidding
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Selection is the process of choosing from a group of applicants the individual
best suited for a particular position and the organization. Properly matching people with jobs and
the organization is the goal of the selection process.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
5) Which of the following is the primary factor that determines the success or failure of a
company?
A) visionary business strategy
B) high-tech control systems
C) sound organizational structure
D) competent employees
Answer: D
Explanation: D) If a firm hires many bad apples, it cannot be successful for long even if it has
perfect plans, a sound organizational structure, and finely tuned control systems. Competent
people must be available to ensure the attainment of organizational goals. Today, with many
firms having access to the same technology, people make the real difference.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
6) Marshall Consulting needs to hire a new CEO in the next two months. As an HR manager at
Marshall Consulting, which of the following is your most important task when filling this
position?
A) conducting extensive background checks
B) devising new selection tests
C) creating application forms
D) gathering biometric data
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Organizations usually take different approaches to filling positions at varying
levels. When filling an executive position, HR needs to conduct extensive background checks
and schedule multiple interviews with the candidates. Creating new tests and forms are less
essential for such a high level position, and gathering biometric data is unlikely to be necessary.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 2
7) VRA Technologies needs to hire a data entry specialist. As an HR manager at the firm, which
of the following is your most important task when filling this position?
A) conducting multiple background checks
B) requiring a word processing test
C) checking medical histories
D) calling personal references
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Organizations usually take different approaches to filling positions at varying
levels. When filling a clerical position, HR would most likely focus on candidates taking word-
processing tests. Background checks and personal references are important, but less critical than
assessing a candidate's typing skills. Checking medical histories would be illegal.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 2
8) Which term refers to the number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job?
A) job pool
B) labor market
C) applicant pool
D) applicant market
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job makes up the
applicant pool. The expansion and contraction of the labor market affects the size of the
applicant pool.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
9) The selection ratio is the number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number
of qualified individuals in the ________.
A) workforce
B) population
C) applicant pool
D) labor market
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number of
qualified individuals in the applicant pool is often expressed as a selection ratio. The number of
qualified applicants recruited for a particular job makes up the applicant pool.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
10) If the selection ratio is 1.00, how many qualified applicants are there for one open position at
a firm?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 10
D) 100
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A selection ratio of 1.00 indicates that there was only one qualified applicant
for an open position. The lower the ratio falls below 1.00, the more alternatives the manager has
in making a selection decision. For example, a selection ratio of 0.10 indicates that there were 10
qualified applicants for an open position.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 2
11) What refers to management's perception of the degree to which the prospective employee
will fit in with the firm's culture or value system?
A) occupational fit
B) personality fit
C) co-worker fit
D) organizational fit
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Organizational fit refers to management's perception of the degree to which the
prospective employee will fit in with the firm's culture or value system. There are numerous
reasons that a hire does not work out but none is as important as cultural fit.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
12) Which of the following selection ratios indicates the highest number of qualified applicants
for a position?
A) 10.0
B) 1.00
C) 0.10
D) 0.01
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A selection ratio of 0.01 indicates that there were 100 qualified applicants for
one job. A selection ratio of 1.00 indicates that there was only one qualified applicant for an
open position. A selection ratio of 0.10 indicates that there were 10 qualified applicants for an
open position.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 2
13) Which of the following can serve as a substitute for certain selection tools and as a method of
determining an employee's suitability?
A) probationary period
B) stress interview
C) reference check
D) selection ratio
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Many firms use a probationary period that permits them to evaluate an
employee's ability based on established performance. The purpose of a probationary period is to
establish the suitability of a new employee for the role that has been offered to them and to
resolve any issues there might be in the new employee's performance over the first three months
or so. This practice may be either a substitute for certain phases of the selection process or a
check on the validity of the process.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
14) What is the length of the typical probationary period?

A) 30 to 60 days
B) 60 to 90 days
C) 90 to 180 days
D) one year
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Many firms use a probationary period that permits them to evaluate an
employee's ability based on established performance. This period is typically from 60 to 90 days.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
15) The selection process typically begins with the ________.

A) application review
B) employment interview
C) background check
D) preliminary interview
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The selection process varies by organization, but it typically begins with
preliminary screening. Next, applicants complete the firm's application for employment or
provide a résumé. Then they progress through a series of selection tests, one or more
employment interviews, and pre-employment screening, including background and reference
checks.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
16) Carlos, an HR manager, has reviewed the applications and résumés of five candidates for a
data analyst position at his firm. Which of the following is the most likely next step that Carlos
will take in the selection process?
A) interviewing applicants for prescreening
B) having applicants take physical exams
C) checking applicants' references
D) giving applicants selection tests
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The selection process varies by organization, but it typically begins with
preliminary screening. Next, applicants complete the firm's application for employment or
provide a résumé. Then they progress through a series of selection tests, one or more
employment interviews, and pre-employment screening, including background and reference
checks.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 3
17) What is a software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more
efficiently?
A) applicant tracking system
B) selection tracking process
C) cognitive aptitude test
D) job selection system
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An applicant tracking system (ATS) is a software application designed to help
an enterprise select employees more efficiently. Current ATSs permit human resource and line
managers to oversee the entire selection process. They often involve screening résumés and
spotting qualified candidates, conducting personality and skills tests, and handling background
checks.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
18) Applicant tracking systems are being redesigned to include ________.

A) automated résumé ranking tools
B) background check capabilities
C) customized input forms
D) quality-of-hire metrics
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Current ATS features include individual applicant tracking, requisition
tracking, automated résumé ranking, background and reference checking, and input form
customizing. Developers of applicant tracking systems are now focusing efforts on developing
quality-of-hire metrics.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
19) Applicant tracking systems are primarily used for ________.
A) generating legally appropriate interview questions
B) sorting résumés from online job boards
C) measuring the quality of applicants
D) tracking HR manager requisitions
Answer: B
Explanation: B) ATSs are used extensively to help ease the labor-intensive process of sorting
résumés from online job boards. In most cases, the goal is not merely to reduce costs but also to
speed up the hiring process and find people who fit an organization's success profile. ATSs can
develop prescreening questions and track requisitions, and in the future may be able to measure
applicant quality; however, sorting résumés is the primary use of ATSs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
20) The primary purpose of the preliminary interview is ________.

A) gathering a detailed work history from applicants
B) measuring the likelihood of an applicant's success
C) eliminating unqualified applicants
D) determining applicant interest
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The basic purpose of the preliminary screening is to eliminate those who
obviously do not meet the position's requirements. The preliminary screening may take the form
of reviewing for obviously unqualified applicants with a brief interview, test, or only a review of
the application or résumé for obvious mismatches. Later in the selection process, HR may gather
a detailed work history and test and interview candidates.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
21) Which of the following would LEAST likely appear as a preprinted statement on most job
application forms?
A) statement that the applicant's former employers will not be contacted
B) statement that the applicant certifies everything on the form is true
C) statement that the company is an employment at will organization
D) statement that the applicant gives permission to have his or her references checked
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Several preprinted statements are usually included on the application form.
First, by signing the form, the applicant certifies that information provided on the form is
accurate and true. Employers will likely reject candidates who make false claims for major
issues. Second, when not prohibited by state law, the form should also state that the position is
employment at will and that either the employer or the employee can terminate employment at
any time for any reason. Finally, the form should contain a statement whereby the candidate
gives permission to have his or her background and references checked.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
22) The purpose of ________ is to help a company manage potential and actual applicants in an
organized manner.
A) applicant tracking
B) candidate relationship management
C) human capital metrics
D) work-sample validity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The purpose of candidate relationship management (CRM) is to help manage
potential and actual applicants in an organized manner. It is useful in managing the relationship
between the company and prospective applicants.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 3
23) Tyra, an HR manager at an automotive parts facility, received 500 online applications for 30
job openings in the production department. To determine if an applicant is qualified, Tyra will
most likely compare the information provided in each application to a ________.
A) job description
B) job-knowledge test
C) merit pay program
D) gainsharing assessment
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Managers compare the information contained in a completed application to the
job description to determine whether a potential match exists between the firm's requirements
and the applicant's qualifications.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 3
24) Which of the following should NOT be requested on a job application form?
A) experience
B) education
C) birthplace
D) skills
Answer: C
Explanation: C) An employment application form must reflect not only the firm's informational
needs but also Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) requirements. Potentially
discriminatory questions inquiring about such factors as gender, race, age, convictions, national
origin, citizenship, birthplace, dependents, disabilities, religion, color, and marital status should
not be used. Asking candidates about their experience, education, and skills is acceptable.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
25) A goal-directed summary of a person's experience, education, and training developed for use
in the selection process is known as a(n) ________.
A) résumé
B) application form
C) job requisition
D) work sample test
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A résumé is a goal-directed summary of a person's experience, education, and
training developed for use in the selection process. Professional and managerial applicants often
begin the selection process by submitting a résumé.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
26) Which term refers to words or phrases that are used to search databases for résumés that
match?
A) application match
B) job objective
C) résumé hit
D) keyword
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Keywords refer to those words or phrases that are used to search databases for
résumés that match. A keyword résumé contains an adequate description of the job seeker's
characteristics and industry-specific experience presented in keyword terms in order to
accommodate the computer search process.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
27) What type of résumé presents the job seeker's characteristics and experience in terms that
accommodate the computer search process?
A) cyber résumé
B) hard hit résumé
C) electronic résumé
D) keyword résumé
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A keyword résumé contains an adequate description of the job seeker's
accommodate the computer search process. Keywords refer to those words or phrases that are
used to search databases for résumés that match.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
28) Robert, a recent college graduate, is applying to accounting firms for an entry-level position.
Since most large firms use applicant-tracking systems, which of the following words or phrases
would be LEAST beneficial?
A) problem solving
B) PowerPoint 2010
C) organized
D) bilingual
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Applicant-tracking systems look for keywords, which tend to be more of the
noun or noun-phrase type (Word 2007, UNIX, Biochemist) as opposed to power action verbs
often found in traditional résumés (developed, coordinated, organized). Another way to look at
keyword phrases is to think in terms of job duties. According to CareerBuilder.com, the terms
employers search for most often are: problem solving and decision making, oral and written
communication, leadership, and bilingual.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 5
29) Which of the following factors would most likely be rated in a selection test?
A) habits
B) family life
C) motivation
D) financial equity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Recognizing the shortcomings of other selection tools, many firms have added
selection tests to their hiring process. These tests rate factors such as aptitude, personality,
abilities, and motivation of potential employees, allowing managers to choose candidates
according to how they will fit into the open positions and corporate culture. Selection tests are
less likely to measure a candidate's habits, family life, or financial equity.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
30) Selection tests may accurately predict an applicant's ability to perform the job, but they are
less successful in indicating the extent to which the individual has the necessary ________.
A) experience
B) education
C) motivation
D) qualifications
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Job performance depends on an individual's ability and motivation to do the
work. Selection tests may accurately predict an applicant's ability to perform the job, the "can
do," but they are less successful in indicating the extent to which the individual will be motivated
to perform it, the "will do."
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
31) Experts suggest that a slight amount of test anxiety is ________.

A) abnormal
B) beneficial
C) detrimental
D) unprofessional
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Test anxiety can be a problem. Applicants often become quite anxious when
confronting yet another hurdle that might eliminate them from consideration. Although a great
deal of anxiety is detrimental to test performance, a slight degree is helpful.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
32) The uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to administering tests is referred to
as ________.
A) objectivity
B) norms
C) standardization
D) reliability
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Standardization is the uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to
administering tests. In order to compare the performance of several applicants on the same test, it
is necessary for all to take the test under conditions that are as identical as possible.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
33) Which of the following relates most closely to test conditions?
A) objectivity
B) norms
C) standardization
D) reliability
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Standardization is the uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
34) When everyone scoring a test obtains the same results, the test is said to be ________.
A) reliable
B) objective
C) valid
D) consistent
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Objectivity in testing occurs when everyone scoring a test obtains the same
results. Multiple choice and true–false tests are objective. The person taking the test either
chooses the correct answer or does not.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
35) What provides a frame of reference for comparing an applicant's performance with the
performance of similar individuals?
A) norms
B) keywords
C) objectivity
D) reliability
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A norm is a frame of reference for comparing an applicant's performance with
that of others. Specifically, a norm reflects the distribution of many scores obtained by people
similar to the applicant being tested.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
36) A selection tool that provides consistent results is said to be ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) objective
D) standardized
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Reliability is the extent to which a selection test provides consistent results.
Reliability data reveal the degree of confidence placed in a test. Validity is the extent to which a
test measures what it claims to measure.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
37) A student takes an IQ test one week and scores 140. The student retakes the test one week
later and scores 90. Which of the following best describes the test?
A) unreliable
B) abnormal
C) subjective
D) objective
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Reliability is the extent to which a selection test provides consistent results.
Reliability data reveal the degree of confidence placed in a test. If a person scores 140 on a
certain intelligence test this week and retakes the test next week and scores 90, the test reliability
would likely be low.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
38) The basic requirement for a selection test is that it be ________.

A) valid
B) reliable
C) objective
D) standardized
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The basic requirement for a selection test is that it be valid. Validity is the
extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure. If a test cannot indicate ability to
perform the job, it has no value. And, if used, it will result in poor hiring decisions and a
potential legal liability for the employer.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
39) The extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure is known as ________.
A) reliability
B) subjectivity
C) validity
D) objectivity
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The basic requirement for a selection test is that it be valid. Validity is the
extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure. If a test cannot indicate ability to
perform the job, it has no value.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
40) Validity is commonly reported as a ________.

A) standard deviation
B) standard error
C) selection procedure
D) correlation coefficient
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Validity, commonly reported as a correlation coefficient, summarizes the
relationship between two variables. Naturally, no test will be 100 percent accurate, yet
organizations strive for the highest feasible coefficient. If a job performance test has a high
positive correlation coefficient, most prospective employees who score high on the test will
probably later prove to be high performers.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
41) When are employers required to validate their selection tests?

A) There is no such requirement.
B) All selection tests are validated automatically.
C) when an employment discrimination lawsuit has been filed
D) when the selection process results in an adverse impact on a protected group
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Title VII requires the test to work without having an adverse impact on
minorities, females, and individuals with backgrounds or characteristics protected under the law.
If using the test results in an adverse impact on certain members of protected groups, the firm
must validate the test. Employers are not required to validate their selection tests automatically.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
42) When criterion-related validity is used, the scores on the selection test are compared to
________.
A) scores on the pre-test
B) job performance factors
C) scores on the post-test
D) a national norm
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Criterion-related validity is a test validation method that compares the scores on
selection tests to some aspect of job performance determined, for example, by performance
appraisal. Performance measures might include quantity and quality of work, turnover, and
absenteeism. A close relationship between the score on the test and job performance suggests
that the test is valid.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
43) Comparing the scores on selection tests to some aspect of job performance is referred to as
________.
A) objective-related validity
B) standardized-related validity
C) normality-related validity
D) criterion-related validity
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Criterion-related validity is a test validation method that compares the scores on
absenteeism.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
44) Which of the following is determined when a firm obtains test scores and criterion data at
approximately the same time?
A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
C) construct validity
D) content validity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Concurrent validity is determined when the firm obtains test scores and the
criterion data at essentially the same time. For instance, it administers the test to all currently
employed telemarketers and compares the results with company records that contain current
information about each employee's job performance. If the test is able to identify productive and
less productive workers, one could say that it is valid.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
45) Which of the following involves administering a test and later obtaining criterion
information?
A) predictive validity
B) concurrent validity
D) content validity
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Predictive validity involves administering a test and later obtaining the criterion
information. For instance, all applicants take the test but the firm uses other selection criteria, not
the test results, to make the selection decision. Concurrent validity is determined when the firm
obtains test scores and the criterion data at essentially the same time.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
46) As an HR manager, why would you most likely NOT use predictive validity to validate a
selection test?
A) lack of technical soundness
B) stressful for job applicants
C) associated time and cost
D) poor motivation test
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Predictive validity involves administering a test and later obtaining the criterion
information. Predictive validity is a technically sound procedure. Because of the time and cost
involved, however, its use is often not feasible.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
47) A test validation method whereby a person performs certain tasks that are actually required
by the job is referred to as ________.
A) concurrent validity
B) content validity
D) predictive validity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Content validity is a test validation method whereby a person performs certain
tasks that are actually required by the job or completes a paper-and-pencil test that measures
relevant job knowledge. Predictive validity involves administering a test and later obtaining the
criterion information.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
48) Kyla is applying for a job at a telecommunications company as a terminal operator, which
primarily involves word processing tasks. Kyla has been asked to take a word processing test, so
the firm is most likely using ________ in the selection process.
A) construct validity
B) content validity
C) concurrent validity
D) predictive validity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Content validity is a test validation method whereby a person performs certain
tasks that are actually required by the job, such as word processing in this example. This form of
validation requires thorough job analysis and carefully prepared job descriptions. Predictive
validity involves administering a test and later obtaining the criterion information.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
49) A test validation method that determines whether a test measures certain traits that job
analysis finds to be important in performing a job is referred to as ________ validity.
A) construct
B) content
C) concurrent
D) predictive
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Construct validity is a test validation method that determines whether a test
measures certain constructs, or traits, that job analysis finds to be important in performing a job.
For instance, a job may require a high degree of creativity or reasoning ability. Content validity
is a test validation method whereby a person performs certain tasks that are actually required by
the job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
50) During the selection process for an IT position, Jeff was required to take a test that measured
his memory and vocabulary. Which type of test did Jeff most likely take?
A) work-sample
B) psychomotor abilities
C) job knowledge
D) cognitive aptitude
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Cognitive aptitude tests are tests that determine general reasoning ability,
memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Cognitive aptitude tests are a form of
IQ tests.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
51) Hannah is applying for a job as a technician at a manufacturing facility. The job requires
employees to use magnifying lenses when assembling products, so Hannah's psychomotor
abilities were tested. Which type of test did Hannah most likely take?
A) cognitive aptitude
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Psychomotor abilities tests measure strength, coordination, and dexterity.
Cognitive aptitude tests determine general reasoning ability, memory, vocabulary, verbal
fluency, and numerical ability.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
52) During the selection process for a telemarketing position, Alex was given a test to measure
his awareness of the job's duties. Which type of test did Alex most likely take?
A) psychomotor abilities
B) cognitive aptitude
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Job-knowledge tests are tests that measure a candidate's knowledge of the duties
of the job for which he or she is applying. Psychomotor abilities tests are tests that measure
strength, coordination, and dexterity. Cognitive aptitude tests are tests that determine general
reasoning ability, memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
53) Kim is applying for a job as an accounts specialist, which will require extensive use of Excel.
During the selection process, the employer provides Kim with data and asks her to compile an
Excel spreadsheet with the information. Which type of test did Kim most likely take?
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Work-sample tests are tests that require an applicant to perform a task or set of
tasks representative of the job, such as compiling a spreadsheet. Cognitive aptitude tests are tests
that determine general reasoning ability, memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical
ability. Psychomotor abilities tests are tests that measure strength, coordination, and dexterity.
Job-knowledge tests are tests that measure a candidate's knowledge of the duties of the job for
which he or she is applying.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
54) Brian is seeking a sales position after scoring high on a test that compared his individual
interests with those of successful sales managers. What type of test did Brian most likely take?
B) vocational interest
C) job knowledge
D) work-sample
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Vocational interest tests are tests that indicate the occupation a person is most
interested in and the one likely to provide satisfaction. These tests compare the individual's
interests with those of successful employees in a specific job. Job-knowledge tests are tests that
measure a candidate's knowledge of the duties of the job for which he or she is applying.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
55) Craig is applying for a sales position at a commercial real estate firm. The HR manager gave
Craig the Myers-Briggs test during the selection process. Which of the following is most likely
being measured by the firm?
A) personality traits
B) cognitive abilities
C) vocational interest
D) psychomotor skills
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Personality tests are self-reported measures of traits, temperaments, or
dispositions. More and more companies are using specially designed personality tests such as
Myers-Briggs to identify top sales recruits. Vocational interest tests are tests that indicate the
occupation a person is most interested in and the one likely to provide satisfaction.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
56) Kara took a test that indicated she has a predisposition for breast cancer. What type of test
did Kara most likely take?
A) blood
B) genetic
C) urine
D) skin
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Genetic testing is performed to identify predisposition to inherited diseases,
including cancer, heart disease, neurological disorders, and congenital diseases. DNA-testing
companies can tell us our potential risk for breast cancer, cystic fibrosis, and Alzheimer's disease
and other common chronic conditions.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
57) Which law protects healthy individuals who have a genetic predisposition for a disease?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) Family and Medical Leave Act
C) Davis-Bacon Act
D) Equal Pay Act
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The EEOC has issued guidelines stating that healthy individuals with a genetic
predisposition to a disease, and thus perceived as disabled, are protected by the Americans with
Disabilities Act.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
58) The ________ is designed to prohibit the improper use of genetic information in health
insurance and employment.
A) Freedom of Information Act
B) Federal Genealogy Act
C) Americans with Disabilities Act
D) Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA) is designed to
prohibit the improper use of genetic information in health insurance and employment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
59) Which Act limited the use of polygraph tests in the private sector?
A) Lie Detector Protection Act of 2001
B) Federal Polygraph Protection Act of 1999
C) Polygraph Confirmation Act of 1990
D) Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 severely limited the use of
polygraph tests in the private sector. It made unlawful the use of a polygraph test by any
employer engaged in interstate commerce. However, the Act does not apply to governmental
employers, and there are other limited exceptions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
60) Persons who take polygraph tests have all of the following rights EXCEPT the ________.
A) right to refuse or discontinue a test
B) right to a written notice before testing
C) right to review results prior to distribution
D) right not to have test results disclosed to unauthorized persons
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 severely limited the use of
polygraph tests in the private sector. Persons who take polygraph tests have a number of specific
rights. For example, they have the right to a written notice before testing, the right to refuse or
discontinue a test, and the right not to have test results disclosed to unauthorized persons.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
61) What selection technique requires individuals to perform activities similar to those they
might encounter in an actual job?
A) psychomotor abilities test
B) assessment center
C) vocational interest test
D) job-related center
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An assessment center is a selection approach that requires individuals to
perform activities similar to those they might encounter in an actual job. The assessment center is
one of the most powerful tools for assessing managerial talent because it is designed to
determine if they will be effective in performing a specific job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
62) Firms most likely use assessment centers during the selection process to ________.
A) compare applicants with current employees
B) predict the job performance of applicants
C) assess an applicant's job motivation
D) ensure applicants are healthy
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An assessment center is a selection approach that requires individuals to
perform activities similar to those they might encounter in an actual job. Research has
established the validity of the assessment center approach to predicting performance.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
63) Kelly is applying for a position with Citibank and will be participating in an assessment
center. Which of the following activities is Kelly LEAST likely to do in the assessment center?
A) in-basket exercises
B) management games
C) psychomotor abilities tests
D) leaderless discussion groups
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In an assessment center, candidates perform a number of exercises that simulate
the tasks they will carry out in the job they seek. Among the typical assessment center tests, the
applicants may complete in-basket exercises and perform in management games, leaderless
discussion groups, mock interviews, and other simulation. Psychomotor abilities tests are
selection tests that are not part of assessment centers.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 6
64) What is a goal-oriented conversation in which the interviewer and applicant exchange
information called?
A) recruitment interview
B) training interview
C) development interview
D) employment interview
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The employment interview is a goal-oriented conversation in which the
interviewer and applicant exchange information. Interviews are not always valid predictors of
job success.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
65) What selection method continues to be the primary method companies use to evaluate
applicants?
A) background checks
B) cognitive ability tests
C) employment interviews
D) assessment centers
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Interviews continue to be the primary method companies use to evaluate
applicants. The employment interview is especially important because the applicants who reach
this stage are the survivors. They have endured preliminary screening, had their applications
reviewed, and scored satisfactorily on selection tests.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 7
66) Robert, an HR manager, is preparing to interview candidates for a software engineer

position. Which of the following is LEAST likely to appear on Robert's interview planning
checklist?
A) developing questions related to the qualities sought
B) prescreening additional applicants with behavioral selection tests
C) comparing an applicant's application and résumé with job requirements
D) preparing a step-by-step plan to present the position, company, division, and department
Answer: B
Explanation: B) After listing job requirements, it is helpful to have an interview checklist that
includes: compare an applicant's application and résumé with job description; develop questions
related to the qualities sought; prepare a step-by-step plan to present the position, company,
division, and department; and determine how to ask for examples of past job-related applicant
behavior. Prescreening occurs earlier in the selection process and is unlikely to occur in
preparation for interviews.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 7
67) Which of the following issues is LEAST relevant during an employment interview?
A) occupational experience
B) interpersonal skills
C) personal likes and dislikes
D) academic achievement
Answer: C
Explanation: C) During an interview, an interviewer will most likely assess the candidate's
occupational experience, interpersonal skills, and academic record. The candidate's likes and
dislikes are less relevant during a job interview.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
68) A ________ refers to a tendency of an interviewer to form a generalized positive impression

of an applicant, and rate that person highly on all rating criteria even if the applicant really
doesn't deserve a high rating for every one of them.
A) contrast bias
B) stereotyping bias
C) premature judgment bias
D) halo error bias
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A halo error bias occurs when the interviewer generalizes one positive first
impression feature of the candidate. Such might be the case with discovering that you have
something in common with the applicant. The opposite could occur with horn error bias where
the interviewer's first impression of the candidate creates a negative first impression that exists
throughout the interview.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
69) A(n) ________ occurs when an interviewer assumes that an applicant has certain traits
because he or she is a member of a certain class.
A) contrast bias
B) stereotyping bias
C) premature judgment bias
D) interview illusion bias
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Stereotyping bias occurs when the interviewer assumes that the applicant has
certain traits because he or she is a member of a certain class. The classic case of stereotyping
bias is when an interviewer assumes that a women applicant cannot meet a certain physical
requirement such as being able to lift 50 pounds.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
70) The concept of ________ suggests that interviewers often make a judgment about a
candidate during the first few minutes of the interview.
A) stereotyping bias
B) contrast bias
C) interview illusion bias
D) premature judgment bias
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Premature judgment bias suggests that interviewers often make a judgment
about candidates in the first few minutes of the interview. Apparently, these interviewers believe
that they have the ability to determine immediately whether a candidate will be successful or not.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
AACSB: Use of IT
71) What does the unstructured interview involve?

A) asking candidates probing, open-ended questions
B) using novice interviewers to assess candidates
C) validating candidate test scores against norms
D) asking identical questions to all candidates
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An unstructured interview is one in which the interviewer asks probing, open-
ended questions. This type of interview is comprehensive, and the interviewer encourages the
applicant to do much of the talking. Structured interviews involve asking the same questions to
all candidates.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
72) What type of interview is comprehensive and involves the applicant talking more than the
interviewer?
A) unstructured
B) structured
C) stress
D) directive
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An unstructured interview is one in which the interviewer asks probing, open-
applicant to do much of the talking. Structured interviews involve asking the same questions to
all candidates.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
73) What type of interview has potential legal problems because of the likelihood of discussing
potentially discriminatory information?
A) structured
B) unstructured
C) stress
D) directive
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The unstructured interview is often more time consuming than the structured
interview and results in obtaining different information from different candidates. This adds to
the potential legal woes of organizations using this approach. Compounding the problem is the
likelihood of discussing ill-advised, potentially discriminatory information. The applicant who is
being encouraged to pour his heart out may volunteer facts that the interviewer does not need or
want to know.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
74) A structured interview usually contains all of the following questions EXCEPT ________.
A) situational questions
B) job knowledge questions
C) job sample simulation questions
D) family and medical history questions
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Structured interviews typically include situational, job knowledge, job sample
simulation, and worker requirement questions. Asking an applicant questions regarding family
and medical history may be deemed discriminatory.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
75) Behavioral interviews are primarily intended to determine all of the following qualities about
an applicant EXCEPT the applicant's ability to ________.
A) work under pressure
B) quantify task results
C) work with other people
D) resolve difficult problems
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Behavioral interviews ask applicants about specific events as opposed to just
having them tell about themselves. They are designed to test applicants' abilities to work under
pressure and to work with others and to determine whether they can resolve conflicts. The
behavioral interview assists in determining if a person is functionally sound and if the applicant
will be a good fit in the organization.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
76) A structured interview where applicants are asked to relate actual incidents from their past
relevant to the target job is referred to as a ________.
A) stress interview
B) career related preview
C) behavioral interview
D) realistic interview
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The behavioral interview is a structured interview in which applicants are asked
to relate actual incidents from their past relevant to the target job. Once used exclusively for
senior executive positions, behavioral interviewing is now a popular technique for lower-level
positions also. The assumption is that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
77) During a job interview, Sara is asked to describe a time when she was responsible for
motivating others. Which of the following most likely describes this type of interview?
A) group interview
B) stress interview
C) board interview
D) behavioral interview
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Behavioral interviewers look for three main things: a description of a
challenging situation, what the candidate did about it, and measurable results. In the behavioral
interview, the situational behaviors are selected for their relevance to job success. Questions are
formed from the behaviors by asking applicants how they performed in the described situation,
such as when Sara was responsible for motivating a group.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 7
78) Several applicants interacting in the presence of one or more interviewers is typical of what
type of interview?
A) stress
B) board
C) group
D) role-play
Answer: C
Explanation: C) In a group interview, several applicants interact in the presence of one or more
company representatives. This approach, although not mutually exclusive of other interview
types, may provide useful insights into the candidates' interpersonal competence as they engage
in a group discussion.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
79) Several of the firm's representatives interviewing a candidate at the same time is typical of
what type of interview?
A) group
B) board
C) stress
D) role-play
Answer: B
Explanation: B) In a board interview, several of the firm's representatives interview a candidate
at the same time. Companies use the board interview to gain multiple viewpoints because there
are many cross-functional workplace relationships in business these days. In a group interview,
several applicants interact in the presence of one or more company representatives.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
80) What type of interview is most likely being conducted when an interviewer says, "I think
your answer is totally inadequate: it doesn't deal with my concerns at all, can't you do better than
that?"
A) stress
B) board
C) group
D) behavioral
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The question provides an example of a stress interview question. In stress
interviews, the interviewer purposely creates anxiety.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Application
LO: 7
81) Purposely making the candidate uncomfortable by asking blunt and often discourteous
questions would most likely occur during a ________ interview.
A) nondirective
B) stress
C) board
D) group
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Most interviewers strive to minimize stress for the candidate. However, in the
stress interview, the interviewer deliberately makes the candidate uncomfortable by asking blunt
and often discourteous questions. The purpose is to determine the applicant's tolerance for stress
that may accompany the job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
82) What concept is based on the idea that a group of people is smarter than a single expert?
A) broadbanding
B) reverse mentoring
C) crowd sourcing
D) reengineering
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Crowd sourcing is based on the premise that any given group of people is
always smarter than any given expert. Crowd sourcing is based on the management concept of
synergism, the cooperative action of two or more persons working together to accomplish more
than they could working separately. This management concept recognizes that greater effect may
be achieved when two workers are placed together.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
83) What process conveys positive and negative job information to the applicant in an unbiased
manner?
A) advancement related preview
B) career related preview
C) job-related preview
D) realistic job preview
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A realistic job preview (RJP) conveys both positive and negative job
information to the applicant in an unbiased manner. An RJP conveys information about tasks the
person would perform and the behavior required to fit into the culture of the organization. This
approach helps applicants develop a more accurate perception of the job and the firm.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
84) When should a realistic job preview be given to applicants?

A) after a job offer is made
B) early in the selection process
C) during a performance appraisal
D) during employee orientation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) An RJP conveys information about tasks the person would perform and the
behavior required to fit into the culture of the organization. This approach helps applicants
develop a more accurate perception of the job and the firm and should be done early in the
selection process and before a job offer is made.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
85) The most basic interviewing rule is to ________.

A) dominate every aspect of the interview
B) never let a job applicant see you sweat
C) ask only job-related questions
D) save the realistic job preview until after the candidate has been hired
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Although no questions are illegal, many are clearly hiring standards to avoid.
When they are asked, the responses generated create a legal liability for the employer. The most
basic interviewing rule is this: "Ask only job-related questions."
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 12
86) The primary reason for conducting background investigations is to ________.

A) hire better workers
B) check personal references
C) verify educational credentials
D) prevent employment discrimination
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The principal reason for conducting background investigations is to hire better
workers. On the surface an applicant may look qualified, but a background investigation is
needed to determine the accuracy of the information. Background investigations involve
obtaining data from various sources, including previous employers, business associates, credit
bureaus, government agencies, and academic institutions, and the purpose is to ensure that
qualified workers are hired.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
87) Which term refers to validations from those who know the applicant that provide additional
insight into the information furnished by the applicant?
A) background tests
B) employer referrals
C) polygraph tests
D) reference checks
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Reference checks are validations from those who know the applicant that
provide additional insight into the information furnished by the applicant and allow verification
of its accuracy. They are a valuable source of information to supplement the background
investigation.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
88) Which term refers to the liability a company incurs when it fails to conduct a reasonable
investigation of an applicant's background, and then assigns a potentially dangerous person to a
position in which he or she can inflict harm?
A) negligent retention
B) negligent supervision
C) negligent hiring
D) negligent referral
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Negligent hiring is the liability an employer incurs when it fails to conduct a
reasonable investigation of an applicant's background, and then assigns a potentially dangerous
person to a position in which he or she can inflict harm. The typical negligent hiring case
involves a deliberate inflicting of harm committed by an employee including fraud, assault,
battery, or interference with contractual relations.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
89) Which of the following jobs would put an employer particularly at risk for a charge of
negligent hiring?
A) grocery store manager
B) machine operator
C) home health attendant
D) college professor
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Employers who operate home-service businesses, day-care centers, and home
health care operations are particularly at risk of negligent hiring because employees could
potentially be alone with clients. The primary consideration in negligent hiring is whether the
risk of harm from a dangerous employee was reasonably foreseeable.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
90) Which federal law states that all medical exams must be directly relevant to the job
requirements and that a firm cannot order a medical exam until the applicant is offered
employment?
A) Occupational Safety and Health Act
B) Americans with Disabilities Act
C) Uniform Guidelines Act
D) Fair Labor Standards Act
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) does not prohibit pre-employment
medical examinations. However, it does determine the point at which they may be administered
during the selection process. The ADA explicitly states that all exams must be directly relevant
to the job requirements and that a firm cannot order a medical exam until the applicant is offered
employment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
91) HR performance at a firm is measured with ________.

A) bar graphs
B) HR scorecards
C) employee yield rates
D) human capital metrics
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Human capital metrics are measures of HR performance. Even though
employees account for as much as 80 percent of the worth of a corporation, the task of measuring
and understanding how they contribute to the bottom line is often difficult. Therefore, human
capital metrics must be closely tied to whether company strategic goals are being achieved.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
92) The term "False Starts" refers to which of the following?

A) job candidates who are from competing firms
B) job candidates who fail employee selection tests
C) employees who fail to meet performance goals
D) employees who quit within 120 days of being hired
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Employees who are hired and then quit within 120 days are called "False
Starts" and considered to be especially expensive, since the company spends money on their hire
but then quickly must spend even more to replace them.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
93) What recruitment/selection metric focuses on the number of applicants who accepted the job
divided by the number who were offered the job?
A) recruiting costs
B) selection rate
C) acceptance rate
D) turnover rate
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Once an offer has been extended, the firm has said that this applicant meets the
requirements for the position. The acceptance rate is the number of applicants who accepted the
job divided by the number who were offered the job. If this rate is unusually low, it would be
wise to determine the reason that jobs are being turned down.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
94) What is the main problem of having a low acceptance rate?
A) increasing training needs
B) increasing recruiting costs
C) limited number of available positions
D) limited number of qualified candidates
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The acceptance rate is the number of applicants who accepted the job divided
by the number who were offered the job. If this rate is unusually low, it would be wise to
determine the reason that jobs are being turned down. Low acceptance rates mean high recruiting
costs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
95) Which metric focuses on the number of applicants hired from a group of candidates
expressed as a percentage?
A) recruiting costs
B) selection rate
C) acceptance rate
D) turnover rate
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The number of applicants hired from a group of candidates expressed as a
percentage is the selection rate. Certainly, the selection rate is affected by the condition of the
economy. Also, the validity of the selection process will impact the selection rate.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
96) Which metric focuses on the percentage of applicants from a particular source that advance
to the next stage of the selection process?
A) yield rate
B) turnover rate
C) acceptance rate
D) selection rate
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A yield rate is the percentage of applicants from a particular source and method
that make it to the next stage of the selection process. For example, if 100 applicants submitted
their résumés through the firm's corporate career Web site and 25 were asked in for an interview,
the yield rate for the corporate career Web site would be 25 percent.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
97) Many recruiters believe that ________ is the most important metric to use in the selection
process.
A) quality of hire
B) acceptance rate
C) return on recruiting revenue
D) turnover yield
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Many recruiters believe that quality of hire is the most important metric to use
in the selection process. Some possible measures to determine the quality of hire might be
communication effectiveness, ability to motivate others, leadership ability, and cultural fit.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
98) A company's ________ is the number of times on average that employees have to be
replaced during a year.
A) retention percentage
B) quantity of hire
C) turnover rate
D) cost per hire
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Turnover rate is the number of times on average that employees have to be
replaced during a year.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
99) Comparing the decision-making styles of U.S. executives and Asian executives reveals that
________.
A) American business leaders often put strategic decisions up for a vote
B) Japanese business leaders tend to make decisions by consensus
C) Japanese CEOs prefer to make decisions alone
D) American CEOs have little leeway when making large, strategic decisions
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Think of global business styles as a continuum with U.S. executives at one end
and their Asian counterparts at the other. America and Japan provide an excellent example for
studying cross-cultural leadership interaction due to the cultural differences between the
countries. American CEOs differ in styles, but most have a common denominator; they have
more leeway to make large, strategic decisions themselves. Japanese leaders tend to make
decisions by consensus.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
LO: 10
100) When determining which leadership style will be more appropriate for a company,
________ plays a major role in determining whether an executive will be successful or not.
A) a company's product line
B) a manager's educational background
C) a country's culture
D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: C) When determining which leadership style will be more appropriate for a
company, a country's culture plays a major role in determining whether an executive will be
successful or not. Since the vast majority of firms are deeply rooted in the culture of their home
countries, leaders who adhere to the cultural norms have a better chance of success.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
1) Biometrics can be used in any situation requiring accurate identification of an individual.

Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Biometrics deal with a variety of traits that are not subject to change, including
fingerprints, palm prints, facial features, DNA, retinas, irises, odors, rhythm, gait, and voice.
Biometrics can be used in any situation requiring accurate identification of an individual.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
2) Selection is the process of choosing from a group of applicants the individual best suited for a
particular position and organization.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Selection is the process of choosing from a group of applicants the individual best
suited for a particular position and the organization. Properly matching people with jobs and the
organization is the goal of the selection process.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
3) Hiring the wrong person is time consuming but has little monetary or emotional impact on the
firm and its employees.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A firm that selects high-quality employees reaps substantial benefits, which recur
every year the employee is on the payroll. On the other hand, poor selection decisions can cause
irreparable damage. A bad hire can negatively affect the morale of the entire staff, especially in a
position where teamwork is critical.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
4) The selection process affects, and is affected by, virtually every other HR function.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The selection process affects, and is affected by, virtually every other HR function.
If the compensation package is inferior to those provided by competitors, hiring the best-
qualified applicants will be difficult or impossible.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
5) The manner in which an organization fills a position is always the same for every job within
the organization.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Organizations usually take different approaches to filling positions at varying
levels. For instance, consider the differences in hiring a chief executive officer versus filling a
clerical position. Extensive background checks and multiple interviews would most likely apply
for the executive position. On the other hand, an applicant for a clerical position would probably
take a word-processing test and perhaps have a short employment interview.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
6) The number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job makes up the applicant pool.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job makes up the
applicant pool. The process can be truly selective only if there are several qualified applicants.
The expansion and contraction of the labor market affects the size of the applicant pool.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
7) Organizational fit refers to management's perception of the degree to which the prospective
employee will fit in with the firm's culture or value system.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: A hiring criterion that historically is not prominently mentioned in the literature is
organizational fit. Organizational fit refers to management's perception of the degree to which
the prospective employee will fit in with the firm's culture or value system. There are numerous
reasons that a hire does not work out but none is as important as cultural fit.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
8) A selection ratio of .10 indicates that there is only one qualified applicant for an open position.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A selection ratio of 1.00 indicates that there was only one qualified applicant for an
open position. The lower the ratio falls below 1.00, the more alternatives the manager has in
making a selection decision. A selection ratio of 0.10 indicates that there were 10 qualified
applicants for an open position.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
9) During probationary periods, which typically last from 30 to 60 days, firms evaluate
employees for suitability and skill.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Many firms use a probationary period that permits them to evaluate an employee's
ability based on established performance. The purpose of a probationary period is to establish the
suitability of a new employee for the role that has been offered to them. However, the period
typically lasts from 60 to 90 days.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
10) The selection process usually begins with the preliminary screening interview.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The selection process typically begins with preliminary screening. Next, applicants
complete the firm's application for employment or provide a résumé. Then they progress through
a series of selection tests, one or more employment interviews, and pre-employment screening,
including background and reference checks.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
11) Applicant tracking systems are primarily used by firms to contact former employees about
available positions.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: An applicant tracking system (ATS) is a software application designed to help an
enterprise select employees more efficiently. ATSs are used extensively to help ease the labor-
intensive process of sorting résumés from online job boards. ATSs are not necessarily used to
contact former employees unless those employees have applied for jobs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
AACSB: Use of IT
12) Preliminary screening attempts to eliminate unqualified candidates quickly.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The basic purpose of the preliminary screening is to eliminate those who obviously
do not meet the position's requirements. The preliminary screening may take the form of
reviewing for obviously unqualified applicants with a brief interview, test, or only a review of
the application or résumé for obvious mismatches.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
13) Federal employment laws prohibit application forms from indicating a position is
employment at will.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: When not prohibited by state law, an application form should state that the position
is employment at will and that either the employer or the employee can terminate employment at
any time for any reason. Federal laws do not prohibit these statements.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
14) An application form is a goal directed outline of a person's experience, education, and
training developed for use in the selection process.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A résumé is a goal-directed summary of a person's experience, education, and
training developed for use in the selection process. Application forms indicate the information a
firm needs from an applicant and EEOC requirements.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
15) Most large companies use applicant-tracking systems to sort résumés, but these systems lack
the capability of flagging suspicious résumés, which is problematic for HR departments.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: When sending a résumé via the Internet, applicants should realize that most large
companies now use applicant-tracking systems. Some systems flag résumés that appear to
misrepresent the truth, present misleading information, or are in other ways suspicious.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
AACSB: Use of IT
16) In today's workplace, you can assume that managers and HR employees will review your
résumé.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The use of applicant-tracking systems coupled with the downsizing of human
resource departments, has resulted in a situation where many résumés are never seen by human
eyes once they enter the system. Therefore, a job applicant should use keywords in his or her
résumé to make it as computer/scanner friendly as possible so that its life in a database will be
extended.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
17) Modern job seekers should use keywords to ensure that their résumés are not immediately
discarded by a firm's applicant-tracking system.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The use of applicant-tracking systems coupled with the downsizing of human
resource departments, has resulted in a situation where many résumés are never seen by human
eyes once they enter the system. Therefore, a job applicant should make his or her résumé as
computer/scanner friendly with keywords as possible so that its life in a database will be
extended. Keywords refer to those words or phrases that are used to search databases for résumés
that match.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
AACSB: Use of IT
18) The keyword résumé uses keyword terms to describe an applicant's characteristics and
industry-specific experience to accommodate the computer search process.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: A keyword résumé contains an adequate description of the job seeker's
accommodate the computer search process. The keywords are often job titles, skills, or areas of
expertise related to the position.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
19) Studies indicate that selection tests accurately predict the extent to which an individual will
be motivated to perform a specific job.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Job performance depends on an individual's ability and motivation to do the work.
Selection tests may accurately predict an applicant's ability to perform the job, the "can do," but
they are less successful in indicating the extent to which the individual will be motivated to
perform it, the "will do."
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
20) The problems of hiring unqualified or less qualified candidates and rejecting qualified
candidates have been eliminated since firms began using selection tests.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The problems of hiring unqualified or less-qualified candidates and rejecting
qualified candidates will continue regardless of the procedures followed. Well-developed tests
administered by competent professionals help organizations minimize such consequences.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
21) Objectivity refers to the uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to administering
tests.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Standardization is the uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
22) Validity in testing occurs when everyone scoring a test obtains the same results.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Objectivity in testing occurs when everyone scoring a test obtains the same results.
Multiple choice and true–false tests are objective. Validity is the extent to which a test measures
what it claims to measure.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
23) Valence is the extent to which a selection test provides consistent results.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Reliability is the extent to which a selection test provides consistent results.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
24) Title VII requires the test to work without having an adverse impact on minorities, females,
and individuals with backgrounds or characteristics protected under the law.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Title VII requires the test to work without having an adverse impact on minorities,
females, and individuals with backgrounds or characteristics protected under the law. If using the
test results in an adverse impact on certain members of protected groups, the firm must have a
compelling reason why it is used; that is, it must validate the test.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
25) Criterion-related validity is determined by comparing the scores on selection tests to an

aspect of job performance, such as quality of work.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Criterion-related validity is a test validation method that compares the scores on
absenteeism.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
26) Construct validity is a test validation method that determines whether a test measures
personal traits that are important in performing a job.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Construct validity is a test validation method that determines whether a test
measures certain constructs, or traits, that job analysis finds to be important in performing a job.
For instance, a job may require a high degree of creativity or reasoning ability.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
27) Predictive validity is considered an inexpensive and quick method for establishing the
validity of a selection test.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Predictive validity involves administering a test and later obtaining the criterion
information. For instance, all applicants take the test but the firm uses other selection criteria, not
the test results, to make the selection decision. Predictive validity is a technically sound
procedure. Because of the time and cost involved, however, its use is often not feasible.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
28) An IQ test is a type of cognitive aptitude test.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Cognitive aptitude tests are tests that determine general reasoning ability, memory,
vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Cognitive aptitude tests are a form of IQ tests.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
29) Psychomotor abilities tests measure a candidate's knowledge of the duties of the job for
which he or she is applying.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Psychomotor abilities tests are tests that measure strength, coordination, and
dexterity. Job-knowledge tests are tests that measure a candidate's knowledge of the duties of the
job for which he or she is applying.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
30) Job-knowledge tests require an applicant to perform a task or set of tasks representative of
the job.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Work-sample tests require an applicant to perform a task or set of tasks
representative of the job. Job-knowledge tests measure a candidate's knowledge of the duties of
the job for which he or she is applying.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
31) Personality tests assess an applicant's traits and temperaments and help firms determine an
individual's leadership and teamwork skills.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Personality tests are self-reported measures of traits, temperaments, or dispositions.
Personality tests, unlike ability tests, are not time constrained and do not measure specific
problem-solving skills. These questionnaires tap into softer areas, such as leadership, teamwork,
and personal assertiveness.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
32) An assessment center is a selection approach that requires individuals to perform activities
similar to those they might encounter in an actual job.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: An assessment center is a selection approach that requires individuals to perform
activities similar to those they might encounter in an actual job. The assessment center is one of
the most powerful tools for assessing managerial talent because it is designed to determine if
they will be effective in performing a specific job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
33) Situational interviews focus on how an individual handled job-related circumstances in the
past.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The situational interview creates hypothetical situations candidates would be likely
to encounter on the job and asks how they would handle them.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
34) Interviews are valid predictors of success on the job, which is why they are commonly used
to evaluate applicants.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Traditionally, interviews have not been valid predictors of success on the job. In
fact, courts are often suspicious of hiring decisions based primarily on interview results because
of their inherently subjective nature. Nevertheless, interviews continue to be the primary method
companies use to evaluate applicants.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
35) In the board interview, the interviewer deliberately makes the candidate uncomfortable by
asking blunt and often discourteous questions.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Most interviewers strive to minimize stress for the candidate. However, in the
stress interview, the interviewer deliberately makes the candidate uncomfortable by asking blunt
and often discourteous questions. The purpose is to determine the applicant's tolerance for stress
that may accompany the job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
36) During an unstructured interview, an interviewer will most likely ask open-ended questions
to encourage the applicant to talk.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: An unstructured interview is one in which the interviewer asks probing, open-
applicant to do much of the talking.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
37) Unstructured interviews are often time-consuming and result in obtaining different
information from different candidates.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The unstructured interview is often more time consuming than the structured
interview and results in obtaining different information from different candidates. This adds to
the potential legal woes of organizations using this approach.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
38) Failure to validate is the liability an employer incurs when it does not conduct a reasonable
investigation of an applicant's background, and then assigns a potentially dangerous person to a
position in which he or she can inflict harm.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Negligent hiring is the liability an employer incurs when it does not conduct a
reasonable investigation of an applicant's background, and then assigns a potentially dangerous
person to a position in which he or she can inflict harm.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
39) A growing number of firms use social networking sites, such as Facebook and LinkedIn, to
investigate the backgrounds of potential employees.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: An increasing number of employers are using social networking Web sites to
conduct background investigations on potential employees. Employers use an applicant's
personal Web site, LinkedIn profile, and postings made on an industry blog to find out about
individuals they are considering hiring.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
AACSB: Use of IT
40) HR professionals use metrics to evaluate recruitment and selection effectiveness by

determining the turnover rate, selection rate, and acceptance rate.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Human capital metrics are measures of HR performance. Turnover rate,
recruitment costs, selection rate, and acceptance rate are some of the factors taken into
consideration.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 6
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
6.3 Essay Questions
1) Why is employee selection important? How can applicant tracking systems improve the
selection process?
Answer: Selection is the process of choosing from a group of applicants the individual best
suited for a particular position and the organization. Properly matching people with jobs and the
organization is the goal of the selection process. If individuals are overqualified, underqualified,
or for any reason do not fit either the job or the organization's culture, they will be ineffective
and probably leave the firm, voluntarily or otherwise. There are many ways to improve
productivity, but none is more powerful than making the right hiring decision. A firm that selects
high-quality employees reaps substantial benefits, which recur every year the employee is on the
payroll. On the other hand, poor selection decisions can cause irreparable damage. A bad hire
can negatively affect the morale of the entire staff, especially in a position where teamwork is
critical. An applicant tracking system (ATS) is a software application designed to help an
enterprise select employees more efficiently. They often involve screening résumés and spotting
qualified candidates, conducting personality and skills tests, and handling background checks. In
most cases, the goal is not merely to reduce costs but also to speed up the hiring process and find
people who fit an organization's success profile.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 1, 3
AACSB: Use of IT
2) What is the general purpose of the selection process? What steps are involved in the selection
process?
Answer: The general purpose of the selection process is to determine if the applicant is
qualified, to educate the candidate, and to assess his or her cultural fit. The selection process
typically begins with preliminary screening. Next, applicants complete the firm's application for
employment or provide a résumé. Then they progress through a series of selection tests, one or
more employment interviews, and pre-employment screening, including background and
reference checks. The hiring manager then offers the successful applicant a job, subject to
successful completion of a medical examination. An applicant may be rejected at any time
during the selection process. To a point, the more screening tools used to assess a good fit, the
greater the chance of making a good selection decision.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 3
3) What type of information should be included in a résumé? How have applicant-tracking

systems altered the way résumés are written?
Answer: A résumé is a goal-directed summary of a person's experience, education, and training
developed for use in the selection process. Most résumés include an objective for the specific
position the applicant is seeking. The rest of the résumé should be directed toward showing how
a person has the necessary skills and competencies necessary to accomplish the position
identified in the career objective statement. Only information necessary to show a relationship to
the objective should be included. The résumé should be designed to present the applicant in a
positive light but care should be taken to not exaggerate excessively. The applicant should use a
résumé to show that he or she has an understanding of the job, as well as how his or her job
history can assist in accomplishing the job.
Because of applicant-tracking systems and the downsizing of human resource departments,

human eyes never see many résumés once they enter the system. Therefore, a job applicant
should make his or her résumé as computer or scanner friendly as possible, so that its life in a
database will be extended. To do that, the résumé should be built upon a keyword style–using job
titles, skills, or areas of expertise, and job duties related to the position.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 4
AACSB: Use of IT
4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using selection tests? What are some of the
characteristics of well-designed selection tests?
Answer: Research indicates that customized tests can be a reliable and accurate means to predict
on-the-job performance. Organizations use tests to identify attitudes and job-related skills that
interviews cannot recognize. Also, the cost of employment testing is small in comparison to
ultimate hiring costs. They are a more efficient way to get at that type of information and may
result in better-qualified people being hired. Selection tests do not assess a person's motivation,
which is important for a successful hire. Selection tests may also be unintentionally
discriminatory. Properly designed selection tests are standardized, objective, based on sound
norms, reliable, and, of utmost importance, valid.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 6
5) How are companies using LinkedIn in their recruitment efforts?

Answer: LinkedIn is very useful for companies in their recruitment efforts. In fact, the largest
and fastest-growing part of LinkedIn's business is "hiring solutions," which include a variety of
services for in-house and external recruiters. These services include online job postings and ways
to organize job searches. A major benefit is the ability to quickly identify and contact passive
candidates, those who seem to have the necessary background, education, and skills but are not
actively seeking work. Since companies value passive candidates for more senior positions,
LinkedIn has become an even more valuable source for hiring to fill these positions.
More and more companies are looking to cut costs and are shifting recruiting money to LinkedIn.
Filling senior positions once meant paying executive search firms thousands of dollars for each
job. But with social networks like LinkedIn, in-house recruiters now have another way to reach
such talent.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 5
AACSB: Use of IT
6) As an HR manager, how would you prepare to conduct an employment interview? What is the
difference between structured, unstructured, and behavioral interviews?
Answer: Interview planning is essential to effective employment interviews. A primary
consideration should be the speed in which the process occurs. The physical location of the
interview should be both pleasant and private, providing for a minimum of interruptions. The
interviewer should become familiar with the applicant's qualifications by reviewing the data
collected from other selection tools. As preparation for the interview, the interviewer should
develop a job profile based on the job description/specification. After listing job requirements, it
is helpful to have an interview checklist that includes: (1) comparing a candidate's application
and résumé with job description; (2) developing questions related to the qualities sought; (3)
preparing a step-by-step plan to present the position, company, division, and department; and (4)
determining how to ask for examples of past job-related applicant behavior.
An unstructured interview is one in which the interviewer asks probing, open-ended questions.
This type of interview is comprehensive, and the interviewer encourages the applicant to do most
of the talking. In the structured interview, the interviewer asks each applicant for a particular job
the same series of job-related questions. The behavioral interview is a structured interview in
which applicants are asked to relate actual incidents from their past relevant to the target job.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 7
7) What is the difference between group interviews, board (or panel) interviews, and stress
interviews? What are the typical areas that are assessed and discussed during an employment
interview?
Answer: In a group interview, several applicants interact in the presence of one or more
company representatives. This approach may provide useful insights into the candidates'
interpersonal competence as they engage in a group discussion. In a board interview, several of
the firm's representatives interview a candidate at the same time. Companies use the board
interview to gain multiple viewpoints because there are many cross-functional workplace
relationships in business these days. In the stress interview, the interviewer deliberately makes
the candidate uncomfortable by asking blunt and often discourteous questions. The purpose is to
determine the applicant's tolerance for stress that may accompany the job. During an interview,
the interviewer seeks additional job-related information to complement data provided by other
selection tools. The interview permits clarification of certain points, the uncovering of additional
information, and the elaboration of data needed to make a sound selection decision. The
interviewer should provide information about the company, the job, and expectations of the
candidate. Other areas typically included in the interview are occupational experience, academic
achievement, interpersonal skills, personal qualities, and organizational fit.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 7
8) What are background investigations? Why are they an important part of the hiring process?
Answer: Background investigation is more important than ever due to the rise in negligent
hiring lawsuits, recent corporate scandals, and national security concerns. At this stage of the
selection process, the candidate looks qualified on the surface. It is now time to determine the
accuracy of the information submitted or to determine whether vital information was not
submitted.
Background investigations involve obtaining data from various sources, including previous
employers, business associates, credit bureaus, government agencies, and academic institutions.
For example, criminal background investigations are used to ensure a safe work environment, to
reduce legal liability for negligent hiring, and to eliminate or reduce criminal activity in the
workplace. In addition, credit checks are used to reduce theft and measure an applicant's
financial responsibility. The intensity of background investigations depends on the nature of the
open position's tasks and its relationship to customers or clients. To be legally safe, employers
should ask applicants to sign a liability waiver permitting a background investigation.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
LO: 8
9) In a brief essay, discuss the uses for cognitive aptitude tests, psychomotor abilities tests, and
work-sample tests. Provide specific examples to illustrate your response.
Answer: Cognitive aptitude tests are tests that determine general reasoning ability, memory,
vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. They may be helpful in identifying job
candidates who have extensive knowledge bases. As the content of jobs becomes broader and
more fluid, employees must be able to adapt quickly to job changes and rapid technological
advances. The National Football League uses the Wonderlic Personnel Test which is designed as
a way to measure cognitive ability, the applicant's natural aptitude for learning new information.
Psychomotor abilities tests are tests that measure strength, coordination, and dexterity.
Miniaturization in assembly operations has accelerated the development of tests to determine
these abilities. Much of this work is so delicate that magnifying lenses are necessary, and the
psychomotor abilities required to perform the tasks are critical. Work-sample tests are tests that
require an applicant to perform a task or set of tasks representative of the job. For positions that
require heavy use of spreadsheets, having the applicant sit at a computer and construct a sample
spreadsheet, with data the firm provides, will be useful in assessing a required ability.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
LO: 6
10) What role does culture play in determining business leadership styles?
Answer: When determining which leadership style will be more appropriate for a company, a
country's culture plays a major role in determining whether an executive will be successful or
not. Regardless of how far-flung their markets and operations, multinational leaders typically
retain and reflect the cultural mores of their home countries. Since the vast majority of firms are
deeply rooted in the culture of their home countries, leaders who adhere to the cultural norms
have a better chance of success.
Think of global business styles as a continuum with U.S. executives at one end and their Asian
counterparts at the other. America and Japan provide an excellent example for studying cross-
cultural leadership interaction due to the cultural differences between the countries.
American CEOs differ in styles, but most have a common denominator; they have more leeway
to make large, strategic decisions themselves. Japanese leaders tend to make decisions by
consensus. Some wonder if it is possible for the various styles of executives to ever come
together. It is too early to tell.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 6
LO: 10
Chapter 7 Training and Development
1) What percentage of externally hired executives in the private sector fail within the first 18
months?
A) less than 15%
B) over 50%
C) nearly 25%
D) up to 40%
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Although considerable time, effort, and money are spent recruiting top talent,
companies often do a poor job of onboarding new executives. As a result, up to 40 percent of
externally hired executives in the private sector fail within the first 18 months and many others
who are recruited from outside the firm leave within five years.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
2) When an "outsider" CEO is unsuccessful, usually it is because he or she __________.

A) did not understand the company's products
B) did not understand how to operate in the new culture
C) did not understand the company's customers
D) did not understand how to respond to government regulators
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Although impossible to calculate precisely, the costs resulting from a failed
CEO are usually significant, particularly for an "outsider." When executives are unsuccessful,
usually it is because they did not understand how to operate in the new culture.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
3) The heart of a continuous effort designed to improve employee competency and
organizational performance is referred to as ________.
A) succession planning
B) organizational planning
C) training and development
D) communicating and integrating
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Training and development (T&D) is the heart of a continuous effort designed to
improve employee competency and organizational performance. Succession planning is the
process of ensuring that qualified people are being trained for top positions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
4) The primary purpose of training is to ________.

A) modify inappropriate behaviors
B) offer feedback about job performance
C) provide job-related knowledge and skills
D) supplement high school and college courses
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Training provides learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their
present jobs. Showing a worker how to operate a lathe is an example of training.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
5) Showing a worker how to operate a bulldozer or an administrative assistant how to schedule

appointments are examples of ________.
A) training
B) development
C) morale improvement
D) behavioral development
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Training provides learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their
present jobs. On the other hand, development involves learning that goes beyond today's job and
prepares employees to keep pace with the organization as it changes and grows.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
6) Learning that looks beyond today's job and has a more long-term focus is referred to as
________.
A) training
B) instruction
C) development
D) orientation
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Development involves learning that goes beyond today's job and prepares
employees to keep pace with the organization as it changes and grows. Training provides
learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their present jobs.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
7) All of the following are most likely strategic benefits of training and development EXCEPT
________.
A) increased morale
B) higher retention rate
C) more employee satisfaction
D) improved orientation programs
Answer: D
Explanation: D) T&D activities have the potential to align a firm's employees with its corporate
strategies. Some possible strategic benefits of T&D include employee satisfaction, improved
morale, higher retention, lower turnover, improved hiring, a better bottom line, and the fact that
satisfied employees produce satisfied customers. Orientation programs are less likely to be
directly affected by T&D.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
8) What is the primary goal of training and development?

A) improved performance
B) federal compliance
C) efficient orientation
D) behavioral modification
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Improved performance, the bottom-line purpose of T&D, is a strategic goal for
organizations. Legal compliance, orientation, and behavioral changes are less directly related to
T&D.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
9) Firms that recognize the critical importance of continuous performance-related training and
development and take appropriate action are known as ________ organizations.
A) international
B) profitable
C) strategic
D) learning
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A learning organization is a firm that recognizes the critical importance of
continuous performance-related T&D and takes appropriate action. A learning organization has
three basic characteristics: 1) it provides a supportive learning environment, 2) it provides
specific learning processes and practices, and 3) the leadership behavior in the organization
supports and reinforces learning.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
10) Which of the following is LEAST likely to characterize a learning organization?

A) providing a supportive learning environment
B) offering specific learning processes and practices
C) supporting and reinforcing learning through leadership
D) requiring frequent examinations to ensure quick and accurate learning
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A learning organization has three basic characteristics: 1) it provides a
supportive learning environment, 2) it provides specific learning processes and practices, and 3)
the leadership behavior in the organization supports and reinforces learning. Although occasional
exams may be necessary, quick learning is not.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
11) Firms listed in the "100 Best Companies to Work for in America" typically emphasize
________.
A) training and development
B) stock options
C) bonuses and benefits
D) piecework
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In the competition to become listed in the "100 Best Companies to Work for in
America," learning and growth opportunities were a high priority. On nearly every survey,
training and development ranks in the top three benefits that employees want from their
employers, and they search for firms that will give them the tools to advance in their profession.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
12) According to experts, which of the following has had the most significant impact on how
training is conducted?
A) globalization
B) outsourcing
C) internships
D) technology
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Perhaps no factor has influenced T&D more than technology. The computer,
Internet, cell phones, and e-mail are dramatically affecting how training is conducted.
Globalization has influenced the use of technology in training programs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
AACSB: Use of IT
13) Dan works for a U.S. accounting firm in its Singapore office. Over the weekend, Dan plans
to complete one of the firm's training courses using his home computer. Which of the following
most likely describes the type of training in which Dan is participating?
A) dynamic training
B) static training
C) just-in-time training
D) reinforcement training
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Just-in-time training is training provided anytime, anywhere in the world when
it is needed. Computer technology, the Internet, and intranets have made these approaches
economically feasible to a degree never before possible.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 2
14) Chelsea Paper Products is a large manufacturer that employs nearly 800 workers. Executives
at the company are interested in implementing a training and development program in order to
improve employee competencies and enhance the firm's overall performance. Which of the
following most likely supports the plan to establish a training and development program at
Chelsea?
A) Firms of similar size typically provide mentors to new employees.
B) The firm has consistently had a high turnover rate in all departments.
C) The firm's new CEO established a T&D program at a previous firm.
D) Other firms in the paper industry are implementing T&D programs.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Benefits of T&D programs include lower turnover, improved morale, and a
better bottom line. In today's highly competitive business environment, undertaking a program
because other firms are doing it is asking for trouble. A systematic approach to addressing bona
fide needs must be undertaken.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
LO: 2
15) What is the first step in the training and development process?
A) determine specific T&D needs
B) establish specific T&D objectives
C) select training methods
D) select appropriate media
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Determining specific T&D needs is the first step in the process. Establishing
objectives, selecting methods, implementing programs, and evaluating programs are the next
steps in the T&D process.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
16) In order to be successful, a T&D program needs ________.

A) specialization and standardization
B) top management support
C) pre-recorded lectures
D) input from local colleges and universities
Answer: B
Explanation: B) For T&D programs to be successful, top management support is required;
without it, a T&D program will not succeed. The most effective way to achieve success is for
executives to provide the needed resources to support the T&D effort.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 2
17) Which of the following is a primary reason for the problem in finding qualified people for
manufacturing jobs?
A) The skills of reading, writing, and arithmetic are still sufficient.
B) There are few opportunities for learning in-demand technical skills.
C) Outsourcing has caused a generation of young people to doubt the long-term future in
manufacturing jobs.
D) Today's companies are not interested in hiring workers with technical skills.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Part of the problem in finding qualified people for manufacturing jobs is that
there is a generation of young people for which manufacturing has not been an attractive job
prospect because they have seen many jobs outsourced and they question the long-term future in
these jobs.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 7
18) All of the following are analyses used to determine training and development needs
EXCEPT a(n) ________.
A) organizational analysis
B) consumer analysis
C) person analysis
D) task analysis
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Organizational, person, and task analyses are conducted to determine the
training and development needs of employees. Such analyses are performed as the first step in
the T&D process.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
19) Suzanne, an HR specialist, is assessing training and development needs at her firm by
reviewing job descriptions. Which type of analysis is Suzanne most likely conducting?
A) task analysis
B) person analysis
C) performance analysis
D) organizational analysis
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Job descriptions are important data sources for a task analysis. Organizational
analyses review the firm's strategic goals and plans. Performance appraisals are used when
conducting a person analysis.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 2
20) Medco Pharmaceuticals uses a number of methods for accommodating differing styles to its
workforce. Which of the following terms best describes Medco's training program?
A) blended training
B) combined training
C) traditional training
D) outsourced training
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Blended training refers to the use of multiple methods for imparting knowledge
and skills to the workforce. It involves using a combination of training methods that are
strategically combined to best achieve a training program's objectives.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 2
21) What is the T&D delivery system for online instruction?

A) e-learning
B) internships
C) role playing
D) programmed instruction
Answer: A
Explanation: A) E-learning is the T&D method for online instruction. It takes advantage of the
speed, memory, and data-manipulation capabilities of the computer for greater flexibility of
instruction.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
22) Any learning that takes place via cell phones, personal digital assistants, media players, and
e-readers is called ________.
A) cyber learning (C-learning)
B) mobile learning (M-learning)
C) electronic learning (E-learning)
D) offsite learning (O-learning)
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Mobile learning (M-learning) is any learning that takes place via mobile or
portable devices such as cell phones, personal digital assistants, tablets, media players, and e-
readers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
23) Which of the following is NOT true as it regards on-site, instructor-led training?
A) The classroom setting is easily replicated online.
B) The instructor may deliver a great deal of information in a relatively short time.
C) A charismatic instructor may excite the students to want to learn.
D) The classroom setting allows for real-time discussion.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The instructor-led method, where the instructor physically stands in front of
students, continues to be effective for many types of training. One advantage of instructor-led
training is that the instructor may convey a great deal of information in a relatively short time.
Also, the charisma or personality that the instructor brings to class may excite the students to
want to learn. The classroom setting allows for real-time discussion that is not easily replicated,
even with the most advanced technology.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
24) A takeoff on e-learning is the ________ that uses a web-based platform to deliver live,
instructor-led training to geographically dispersed learners.
A) computer based training
B) virtual instructions
C) live virtual classroom
D) programmed instruction
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A takeoff on e-learning is the live virtual classroom, often referred to as virtual
instructor led, that uses a Web-based platform to deliver live, instructor-led training to
geographically dispersed learners. Organizations can bring together entire teams for just an hour
or two per week. They can also bring content specialists into the classroom for only the
necessary time required.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
25) What is the primary reason that firms use e-learning?
A) employee requests
B) cost savings
C) recruitment
D) ease of use
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The advantages of using e-learning are numerous; however, the biggest
advantage is cost savings. Although employees may prefer e-learning to other methods, low
costs are the main reason firms offer online courses.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
26) Which T&D method requires trainees to review information about either an actual or a
fictional firm and make business decisions based on the information?
A) virtual reality
B) on-the-job training
C) vestibule training
D) case study
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The case study is a T&D method in which trainees study the information
provided in the case and make decisions based on it. If an actual company is involved, the
student would be expected to research the firm to gain a better appreciation of its financial
condition and environment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
27) With the case study method of training and development, students would most likely be
expected to ________.
A) research the finances of firms
B) twitter about hiring decisions
C) interview organizational leaders
D) provide computer assisted instruction
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The case study is a T&D method in which trainees study the information
provided in the case and make decisions based on it. If an actual company is involved, the
student would be expected to research the firm to gain a better appreciation of its financial
condition and environment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
28) A T&D method which permits a person to learn by copying or replicating behaviors of others
to show managers how to handle various situations is called ________.
A) sensitivity training
B) role playing
C) behavior modeling
D) computer assisted instruction
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Behavior modeling is a T&D method that permits a person to learn by copying
or replicating behaviors of others. Behavior modeling has been used to train supervisors in such
tasks as conducting performance reviews, correcting unacceptable performance, delegating work,
improving safety habits, handling discrimination complaints, overcoming resistance to change,
orienting new employees, and mediating individuals or groups in conflict.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
29) Which of the following is a social networking learning tool associated with behavior
modeling?
A) role playing
B) e-learning
C) blogging
D) spamming
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Social networking has been used as a learning tool involving behavior
modeling. "In a corporation, micro-blogging can be a way to augment behavior modeling," says
Sarah Millstein, author of the O'Reilly Radar Report. This works by having a person who excels
at a task send out frequent updates about what he or she is doing.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
30) At ABC Manufacturing, which of the following tasks is LEAST likely to be taught through
the behavior modeling method?
A) conducting performance appraisal reviews
B) handling discrimination complaints
C) improving safety habits
D) writing memos
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In-basket training would most likely be used to train employees how to handle
memos and reports. Behavior modeling has been used to train supervisors in such tasks as
conducting performance reviews, correcting unacceptable performance, delegating work,
improving safety habits, and handling discrimination complaints.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
31) Employees at Maxwell Enterprises are participating in a training and development program.
Participants are required to respond to specific problems they may encounter in their jobs by
acting out real-world situations. Which type of T&D method is the firm most likely using?
A) coaching
B) job enlarging
C) role playing
D) job rotating
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Role playing is a T&D method in which participants are required to respond to
specific problems they may encounter in their jobs by acting out real-world situations. Rather
than hearing an instructor talk about how to handle a problem or discussing it, they learn by
doing.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
32) Ben is a mid-level manager at a glass manufacturing company, and he has difficulty
interviewing job candidates. Which T&D method would most likely be used to help Ben
improve his interviewing skills?
A) case study
B) role playing
C) business games
D) in-basket training
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Role playing is a T&D method in which participants are required to respond to
specific problems they may encounter in their jobs by acting out real-world situations, such as
interviewing, communicating, and handling grievances. Case study, business games, and in-
basket training are T&D methods that would be less appropriate for improving interviewing
skills.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
33) Which T&D method is frequently used by restaurant chains to train servers in handling
difficult situations, such as angry customers?
A) role playing
B) internships
C) business games
D) vestibule training
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Role playing is a T&D method in which participants are required to respond to
specific problems they may encounter in their jobs by acting out real-world situations, such as
handling customer complaints. Some restaurant chains use role playing to train servers how to
deal with difficult situations such as a couple having an argument at the dinner table.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
34) What T&D method permits participants to assume roles such as president, controller, or
marketing vice president of two or more similar hypothetical organizations and compete against
each other by manipulating selected factors in a particular business situation?
A) business games
B) programmed instructions
C) vestibule training
D) on-the-job training
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Business games is a T&D method that permits participants to assume roles such
as president, controller, or marketing vice president of two or more similar hypothetical
organizations and compete against each other by manipulating selected factors in a particular
business situation. Participants make decisions affecting such factors as price levels, production
volumes, and inventory levels.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
35) What T&D method asks participants to manage e-mail messages, memoranda, reports, and
telephone messages?
A) in-basket training
B) role playing
C) behavior modeling
D) case study
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In-basket training is a T&D method in which the participant is asked to
establish priorities for and then handle a number of business papers, e-mails, texts, memoranda,
reports, and telephone messages that would typically cross a manager's desk. This form of
training has been quite beneficial to help predict performance success in management jobs.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
36) Which informal T&D method involves transferring knowledge from an experienced worker
to a new employee?
A) business games
B) role playing
C) on-the-job training
D) classroom lecture
Answer: C
Explanation: C) On-the-job-training is an informal T&D method that permits an employee to
learn job tasks by actually performing them. The key to this training is to transfer knowledge
from a highly skilled and experienced worker to a new employee, while maintaining the
productivity of both workers. OJT is used to pass on critical "how to" information to the trainee.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
37) As an informal T&D method, ________ permits an employee to learn job tasks by actually
performing them.
A) coaching
B) on-the-job training
C) mentoring
D) in-basket training
Answer: B
Explanation: B) On-the-job training (OJT) is an informal T&D method that permits an employee
to learn job tasks by actually performing them. Often OJT will also have a significant impact on
personal development.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
38) Which training method combines classroom instruction with on-the-job training?
A) apprenticeship training
B) vestibule training
C) role playing
D) job rotation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Apprenticeship training is a training method that combines classroom
instruction with on-the-job training. Such training is common with craft jobs, such as those of
plumbers, carpenters, machinists, welders, fabricators, laser operators, electricians, and press
brake operators. While in training, the employee earns less than the master craftsperson who is
the instructor.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
39) Joseph has recently been hired by a plumbing company. Which training method will most
likely be used to train Joseph?
A) apprenticeship training
C) role playing
D) internship
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Apprenticeship training is a training method that combines classroom
instruction with on-the-job training. Such training is common with craft jobs, such as those of
plumbers, carpenters, machinists, welders, fabricators, laser operators, electricians, and press
brake operators. While in training, the employee earns less than the master craftsperson who is
the instructor.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
40) Which of the following refers to a T&D delivery system provided under the umbrella of a
firm?
A) training cooperative
B) universal training
C) corporate university
D) learning organization
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A T&D delivery system provided under the umbrella of the organization is
referred to as a corporate university. The corporate T&D institution focus is on creating
organizational change that involves areas such as company training, employee development, and
adult learning. Learning organizations may have corporate universities, but not necessarily.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
41) The example of Hamburger University was used in your text as an example of what type of
T&D delivery system?
A) corporate university
C) online higher education
D) vestibule system
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A T&D delivery system provided under the umbrella of the organization is
referred to as a corporate university. Hamburger University is the corporate university offered by
McDonald's.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
42) For most firms, what is the primary reason for establishing corporate universities?
A) aligning with educational institutions
B) creating organizational change
C) providing e-learning for expatriates
D) offering degrees to employees
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The corporate T&D institution focus is on creating organizational change that
involves areas such as company training, employee development, and adult learning. It aims to
achieve its goals by conducting activities that foster individual and organizational learning and
knowledge.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
43) A key element of success in online higher education is ________.

A) a high score on the Graduate Record Exam
B) government scholarships
C) a brand new computer
D) discipline
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Online higher education is not for everyone and the key to success is discipline.
Jeff Seaman of Babson Survey Research Group said, "You need discipline. Otherwise, the
'anytime, anywhere' aspect frees you to put off the work."
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
44) Historically, what has been the primary delivery system for training professional, technical,
and management employees?
A) community colleges
B) corporate universities
C) universities and colleges
D) vestibule systems
Answer: C
Explanation: C) For decades, colleges and universities have been the primary delivery system
for training professional, technical, and management employees. Many public and private
colleges and universities are taking similar approaches to training and education as have the
corporate universities.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
45) All of the following are characteristics of community colleges EXCEPT ________.
A) offering associate-degree programs
B) requiring corporate scholarships
C) providing vocational training
D) receiving public funding
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Community colleges are publicly funded higher education establishments that
deliver vocational training and associate-degree programs. Some employers have discovered that
community colleges can provide certain types of training better and more cost effectively than
the company can. Community colleges are fairly inexpensive and do not require scholarships.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
46) Ramon is enrolled in a formal degree program that is delivered entirely through the Internet.
Which term best describes Ramon's degree program?
A) webinar
B) simulator
C) network career site
D) online higher education
Answer: D
Explanation: D) A form of online e-learning that has increased substantially in recent years, is
the use of online higher education. Online higher education, such as through the University of
Phoenix, provides formal educational opportunities including degree and training programs that
are delivered, either entirely or partially, via the Internet.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
47) Janice, a supervisor in a major department store, is considering enrolling at the University of
Phoenix to earn an MBA after researching other online higher education programs. Which of the
following is Janice LEAST likely to experience if she enrolls at the University of Phoenix?
A) variety of learning opportunities
B) simplified coursework
C) cost and time savings
D) flexible scheduling
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Online higher education allows employees to attend class at lunchtime, during
the day, or in the evening. It also saves employees time because it reduces their need to commute
to school. It increases the range of learning opportunities for employees and increases employee
satisfaction. Although online degrees were once suspected of lacking the academic rigor
provided in a traditional classroom, many say that online courses are now more difficult than
traditional lecture courses.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
48) Regarding online higher education, all of the following EXCEPT ________ are true.
A) skepticism regarding the quality of online degrees is at an all-time high
B) employees can attend class at lunchtime, during the day, or in the evening
C) it saves employees time because they don't have to commute to school
D) it increases the range of learning opportunities for employees
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Skepticism regarding the quality of online degrees appears to be fading. John
Challenger, chief executive of outplacement firm Challenger, Gray & Christmas, agrees. "We
did once have a clear line between online and brick-and-mortar degrees, but that's changing," he
says. "Hiring managers are catching up."
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
49) Lizzie is enrolled in an online higher education program. She may take some classes online
and some in a traditional university setting. In which type of program is Lizzie most likely
enrolled?
A) virtual instruction program
B) online synchronized study
C) asynchronous learning
D) hybrid program
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Hybrid programs permit students to take some classes online and some in a
traditional university setting. Online synchronized study offers students the choice of studying
through an online portal system; however, the student is expected to appear for most classes on a
real-time schedule. With asynchronous learning, students have a series of assignments that need
to be completed in a certain time frame.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
50) Steve is enrolled in an online higher education program. Steve must appear for most classes
on a real-time schedule, but he may study through an online portal system. In which type of
program is Steve most likely enrolled?
A) hybrid programs
B) cyber programs
C) online synchronized study
D) asynchronous learning
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Online synchronized study offers students the choice of studying through an
online portal system; however, the student is expected to appear for most classes on a real-time
schedule. Hybrid programs permit students to take some classes online and some in a traditional
university setting. With asynchronous learning, students have a series of assignments that need to
be completed in a certain time frame.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
51) Traci is enrolled in an online higher education program. Traci receives a series of
assignments that need to be completed in a fixed time frame. A system exists that allows Traci to
communicate with her professor and classmates. Traci is most likely enrolled in a(n) ________.
A) hybrid program
B) asynchronous learning program
C) online synchronized study program
D) cyber program
Answer: B
Explanation: B) With asynchronous learning, students have a series of assignments that need to
be completed in a certain time frame. Online synchronized study offers students the choice of
studying through an online portal system; however, the student is expected to appear for most
classes on a real-time schedule. Hybrid programs permit students to take some classes online and
some in a traditional university setting.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
52) A T&D delivery system that takes place away from the production area on equipment that
closely resembles equipment actually used on the job is called the ________.
A) vestibule system
B) role playing method
C) succession planning system
D) behavior modeling program
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Vestibule system is a T&D delivery system that takes place away from the
production area on equipment that closely resembles equipment actually used on the job. For
example, a group of lathes may be located in a training center where the trainees receive
instruction in their use.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
53) When the vestibule delivery system is used, where does it typically take place?
A) at a video media center
B) on the manufacturing line
C) outside of the production area
D) at a university science laboratory
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Vestibule system is a T&D delivery system that takes place away from the
production area on equipment that closely resembles equipment actually used on the job. For
example, a group of lathes may be located in a training center where the trainees receive
instruction in their use.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
54) What is the main advantage of using the vestibule system for training and development?
A) models employee behavior
B) reduces employee pressure
C) builds employee teamwork skills
D) allows employees scheduling flexibility
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A primary advantage of the vestibule system is that it removes the employee
from the pressure of having to produce while learning. The emphasis is focused on learning the
skills required by the job.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
55) Which T&D delivery system utilizes devices or programs to replicate actual job demands?
A) in-basket training centers
B) corporate universities
C) vestibule systems
D) simulators
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Simulators are a T&D delivery system comprised of devices or programs that
replicate actual job demands. A vestibule system trains workers away from the production site on
equipment that closely resembles equipment actually used on the job rather than on software
programs or computerized devices.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
56) The Small Business Administration sponsors ________, which provides free and confidential
counseling, mentoring, and advice to small business owners nationwide via its network of retired
business executives, leaders, and volunteers.
A) SCORE
B) SBCA
C) SBDC
D) ASTD
Answer: A
Explanation: A) SCORE is sponsored by the SBA. It provides free and confidential counseling,
mentoring and advice to small business owners nationwide via its network of more than 12,400
retired business executives, leaders and volunteers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
AACSB: Use of IT
57) What concept consists of all learning experiences resulting in an upgrading of skills and
knowledge required in current and future managerial positions?
A) reinforcement development
B) management development
C) organizational development
D) behavioral development
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Management development consists of all learning experiences provided by an
organization resulting in upgrading skills and knowledge required in current and future
managerial. In today's rapidly changing business environment, it is extremely important to
provide development opportunities for a firm's management group.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
58) As managers reach higher levels in the organization, it is not so much their ________ skills
that that they need, but their ________ skills and their business knowledge.
A) interpersonal; technical
B) communication; financial
C) organizational; observation
D) technical; interpersonal
Answer: D
Explanation: D) In higher levels of the organization, managers need to hone their interpersonal
skills and business knowledge more than their technical skills. A firm's future lies largely in the
hands of its managers. Therefore, it is imperative that managers keep up with the latest
developments in their respective fields and, at the same time, manage an ever-changing
workforce operating in a dynamic environment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
59) According to recent studies, all of the following are skills that top leaders in organizations
need to improve EXCEPT ________.
A) developing strategic plans
B) encouraging individuality
C) motivating employees
D) thinking creatively
Answer: B
Explanation: B) A recent study found that almost 70 percent of companies believe that senior
executives need to improve their leadership skills. More than half of companies reported their
top leaders needing to also improve their strategic planning skills. Several other skills that
leaders need are encouraging teamwork, motivating people, and creativity.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
60) Which of the following is an approach to advising, coaching, and nurturing, for creating a
practical relationship to enhance individual career, personal, and professional growth and
development?
A) succession planning
B) strategic planning
C) mentoring
D) training
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Mentoring is an approach to advising, coaching, and nurturing, for creating a
development. Mentors may be anywhere in the organization or even in another firm. For years,
mentoring has repeatedly been shown to be the most important factor influencing careers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
61) Which of the following has historically been the most significant factor to influence careers?
A) mentoring
B) coaching
C) training
D) recruiting
Answer: A
Explanation: A) For years, mentoring has repeatedly been shown to be the most important factor
influencing careers. Most Fortune 500 companies have a mentoring program. Mentors equip
protégés to learn for themselves by sharing experiences, asking demanding questions,
challenging decision-making and expanding problem-solving skills.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
62) Many mentees use ________ to keep in touch with their mentors via e-mail, Facebook, and
Twitter.
A) proctoring
B) e-mentoring
C) virtual classrooms
D) closed-loop communication
Answer: B
Explanation: B) E-mentoring, or open mentoring, is being used more and more today as opposed
to face-to-face interaction with positive results. Many keep in touch with their mentors via e-
mail, Facebook, and Twitter, but they may get together for lunch if they happen to be in the same
location.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
63) What development method is often considered a responsibility of the immediate boss and
provides assistance much like a mentor?
A) coaching
C) development
D) behavior modeling
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Coaching is often considered a responsibility of the immediate boss, who
provides assistance, much like a mentor, but the primary focus is about performance. Coaching
involves helping workers see why they have been selected to perform the task or why they have
been selected for the team.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
64) Some believe that having a ________ is essential to make it to the top, and the lack of one
may explain the difficulty women and minorities have encountered with the glass ceiling.
A) coach
B) mentor
C) development program
D) succession training program
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Since women and minorities are not equally represented at the firm's top levels,
they may be left without a mentor. Studies show that women, who are mentored, particularly by
other women, are more likely to enhance and expand career skills, advance in their careers,
receive higher salaries, and enjoy their work more. Women want and need to have advantages
provided by mentors to effectively use their talents and realize their potential, not only for their
personal benefit but to assist their firms.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity
65) Gaming Laboratories periodically assigns coaches to its employees. The firm most likely
provides coaches to enhance ________.
A) long-term planning
B) team building skills
C) task performance
D) career growth
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Coaching is often considered a responsibility of the immediate boss, who
provides assistance, much like a mentor, but the primary focus is about performance. Coaching
involves helping workers see why they have been selected to perform the task or why they have
been selected for the team.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
66) A process in which older workers learn from younger workers is known as reverse
________.
A) coaching
B) development
C) training
D) mentoring
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Reverse mentoring is a process in which older employees learn from younger
ones. There are people in organizations who are approaching retirement who do not want to
retire, and who have tremendous knowledge that should not go to waste. There are young people
who know things others do not know and who are anxious to expand their horizons. The
existence of these two diverse, but potentially mutually helpful, populations has led to reverse
mentoring.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
67) Jason has worked for Allstate Insurance as an IT specialist since graduating from college two
years ago. George is an upper level manager who has worked for Allstate for twenty years. Jason
and George have been paired so that George can learn more about social networking and text
messaging from Jason. Which of the following best describes this program?
A) job sharing
B) strategic planning
C) reverse mentoring
D) succession planning
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Reverse mentoring is a process in which older employees learn from younger
ones. There are people in organizations who are approaching retirement who do not want to
retire, and who have tremendous knowledge that should not go to waste. There are young people
who know things others do not know and who are anxious to expand their horizons. The
existence of these two diverse, but potentially mutually helpful, populations has led to reverse
mentoring.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 4
68) Firms most likely implement reverse mentoring programs to ________.

A) discourage the retirement of experienced managers
B) provide job rotation opportunities for minorities
C) understand the needs of young customers
D) address federal hiring requirements
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Reverse mentoring is a process in which older employees learn from younger
ones. Firms use such programs to help them understand the changing needs of the younger
generation. Reverse mentoring helps executives remain current in vision and strategy.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 4
69) What is the initial T&D effort for employees that strive to inform new employees about the
company, the job, and the workgroup?
A) role playing
B) case study
C) orientation
D) videoconferencing
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Orientation is the initial T&D effort for new employees that inform them about
the company, the job, and the work group. A good orientation program is quite important
because first impressions are often the most lasting. In fact, new employees usually decide
whether or not to stay at a company within their first six months of employment.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
70) Shelley has been hired as a marketing specialist at a large, international firm. On Shelley's
first day of work, she attends an orientation session. Which of the following is LEAST likely to
be addressed during Shelley's orientation program?
A) organizational structure
B) company policies and rules
C) compensation and reward system
D) daily and weekly task requirements
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Orientation is the initial T&D effort for new employees that inform them about
the company, the job, and the work group. Organizational structure, corporate policies, and
compensation are common topics during orientation. An employee's specific tasks would be
addressed during training rather than orientation.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 5
71) What is the primary purpose of including a socialization program during orientation?
A) explaining employee benefits options
B) reducing anxiety of new employees
C) providing management training
D) initiating team projects
Answer: B
Explanation: B) To reduce the anxiety that new employees may experience, the firm should take
steps to integrate them into the informal organization through socialization programs. Some
organizations have found that employees subjected to socialization programs, including the
topics of politics and career management, perform better than those who have not undergone
such training.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
72) All of the following are reasons for the use of peers during orientation EXCEPT for their
________.
A) accessibility
B) empathy
C) experience
D) benchmarking
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Peers tend to be more accessible and empathic than managers, and they have
organizational experience and technical expertise as well. Benchmarking involves monitoring
and comparing a firm's processes, which is irrelevant to orientation.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
73) Which of the following LEAST likely explains why it is difficult to implement training and
development programs at many organizations?
A) Managers are typically action-oriented.
B) Qualified trainers are not available.
C) Scheduling poses problems.
D) Records are unavailable.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Implementing T&D programs is often difficult because managers are typically
action-oriented and feel that they are too busy for T&D. Another difficulty in program
implementation is that qualified trainers must be available. It may also be difficult to schedule
the training around present work requirements. Another difficulty in implementing T&D
programs is record keeping. It is important to maintain training records, including how well
employees perform during training and later on the job.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
74) Which of the following enables firms to measure the effectiveness of training and
development programs?
A) record keeping
B) broadbanding
C) recruiting
D) onboarding
Answer: A
Explanation: A) It is important to maintain training records during T&D programs, including
how well employees perform during training and later on the job. This information is important
in terms of measuring program effectiveness and charting the employees' progress in the
company.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
75) What form of training and development evaluation is a good way to obtain feedback quickly
and inexpensively?
A) benchmarking
B) extent of learning
C) participant's opinion
D) behavioral change
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Evaluating a T&D program by asking the participants' opinions of it is an
approach that provides a response and suggestions for improvements, essentially a level of
customer satisfaction. Although responses are not always reliable, the method is a good way to
obtain feedback and to get it quickly and inexpensively.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
76) Which of the following aspects of training and development is most likely measured with a
pretest-posttest control group?
A) changes in learner behavior
B) objective accomplishment
C) return on investment
D) extent of learning
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Some organizations administer tests, such as the pretest-posttest, to determine
what the participants in a T&D program have learned. Behavior changes, objectives, and returns
on investment are less likely to be measured with pretests-posttests.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
77) What is the best indicator that a training and development program was worth the
investment?
A) effective recruiting and onboarding
B) long-term behavioral change
C) attentive participants
D) perfect test scores
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The best demonstration of value occurs when learning translates into lasting
behavioral change. Tests may accurately indicate what trainees learn, but they give little insight
into whether the training leads participants to change their behavior.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
78) At Lone Star Construction, accident rates have been high over the last six months, so the
owners are providing a training program to employees. The objective of the accident prevention
program is to reduce the number and severity of accidents by 15 percent. The firm will compare
accident rates before and after training in order to measure the success of the program. This is
most likely an example of what level of T&D evaluation?
A) sales commissions
B) mission alignment
C) participant's opinion
D) accomplishment of T&D objectives
Answer: D
Explanation: D) One approach to evaluating T&D programs involves determining the extent to
which T&D objectives were accomplished. Here metrics address the business's bottom line, such
as productivity data, rather than numbers of training sessions completed or the satisfaction
employees gained from a training session. For instance, if the objective of an accident-prevention
program is to reduce the number and severity of accidents by 15 percent, comparing accident
rates before and after training provides a useful metric of success.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 6
79) When they are considering investments in training programs in today's global competitive
environment, business executives want to see ________.
A) opinions of employees who participate in training
B) the business effects of learning
C) training metrics compiled by the Bureau of Statistical Research
D) opinions of training experts in the blogosphere
Answer: B
Explanation: B) CEOs want to see training in terms that they can appreciate such as business
impact, business alignment, and return on investment (ROI). In today's global competitive
environment, training will not be rewarded with continued investment unless training results in
improved performance that impacts the bottom line.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
80) Which T&D evaluation method involves monitoring and measuring a firm's internal
processes, such as operations, and then comparing the data with information from companies that
excel in those areas?
A) return on investment
B) benchmarking
C) onboarding
D) behavioral change
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Benchmarking is the process of monitoring and measuring a firm's internal
processes, such as operations, and then comparing the data with information from companies that
excel in those areas. Common benchmarking questions focus on metrics such as training costs,
the ratio of training staff to employees, and whether new or more traditional delivery systems are
used.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
81) Which of the following states: "Employees should receive the training and have the
knowledge necessary to do their jobs"?
A) Workforce Investment Act
B) Job Training Partnership Act
C) International Training Partnership Directive
D) ISO 9001 Quality Assurance Training Standards
Answer: D
Explanation: D) One ISO 9001 quality assurance standard states: "Employees should receive the
training and have the knowledge necessary to do their jobs." In order to comply with the
standard, companies must maintain written records of their employee training to show that
employees have been properly trained.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
82) Which law replaced the Job Training Partnership Act?
A) Workforce Investment Act
B) School to Work Opportunities Act
C) Employee Assistance Act
D) Work Life Opportunities Act
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The Workforce Investment Act (WIA) replaced the problem-riddled Job
Training Partnership Act (JTPA) and consolidated more than 70 federal job-training programs. It
provides states with the flexibility to develop streamlined systems in partnership with local
governments.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
83) All of the following groups are the intended recipients of programs funded by the Workforce
Investment Act EXCEPT ________.
A) employers
B) headhunters
C) low-income youth
D) dislocated workers
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The WIA provides states with the flexibility to develop streamlined systems in
partnership with local governments. It provides employment and training services designed to
benefit employers, dislocated workers, and low-income youth.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
84) Which current law is designed to meet the needs of business for skilled workers and to
satisfy the training, education, and employment needs of individuals?
A) Job Training Partnership Act
B) School to Work Opportunities Act
C) Workforce Investment Act
D) Work Life Opportunities Act
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The WIA provides employment and training services designed to benefit
employers, dislocated workers, and low-income youth. A primary focus of WIA is to meet the
needs of business for skilled workers and to satisfy the training, education, and employment
needs of individuals.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
85) The Workforce Investment Act primarily established one-stop service centers to ________.
A) negotiate with labor unions
B) recruit federal employees
C) provide legal representation
D) offer career counseling
Answer: D
Explanation: D) One-stop service centers are at the heart of the WIA system. These centers
provide job seekers with a range of services, including career counseling, skill assessments,
training, job search assistance, and referrals to programs and services, depending on need.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 6
86) The planned and systematic attempt to change the organization, typically to a more
behavioral environment is referred to as ________.
A) management development
B) vestibule system training
C) organization development
D) on-demand training
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Organization development involves planned and systematic attempts to change
the organization, typically to a more behavioral environment. OD education and training
strategies are designed to develop a more open, productive, and compatible workplace despite
differences in personalities, culture, or technologies.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
87) Organization development is primarily a planned and systematic attempt to ________.

A) strengthen industry standards
B) change the corporate culture
C) diversify management
D) train new recruits
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Organization development involves planned and systematic attempts to change
the organization and the corporate culture. OD education and training strategies are designed to
develop a more open, productive, and compatible workplace despite differences in personalities,
culture, or technologies.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
88) Organization development is implemented to change which of the following?
A) individual employees
B) an entire company
C) a single department
D) quality circles
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Organization development applies to an entire system, such as a company or a
plant. Organization development is a major means of achieving change in the corporate culture.
Team building and quality circles may be used in organization development, but the main focus
is changing an entire firm.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
89) Which of the following is NOT an organization development intervention?

A) quality circles
B) survey feedback
C) team building
D) job enlargement
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Numerous OD interventions are available, such as survey feedback, a technique
often combined with other interventions; quality circles; team building; and sensitivity training.
Job enlargement helps develop individual workers rather than an organization.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
90) Collecting data from an organization unit through the use of questionnaires and interviews is
known as ________.
A) team building
B) quality circles
C) job enrichment
D) survey feedback
Answer: D
Explanation: D) The organization development method of basing change efforts on the
systematic collection and measurement of subordinate's attitudes through anonymous
questionnaires is survey feedback. It enables management teams to help organizations create
working environments that lead to better working relationships, greater productivity, and
increased profitability.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
91) Groups of employees who voluntarily meet regularly with their supervisors to identify
production problems and recommend solutions are referred to as ________.
A) free agents
B) quality circles
C) niche sites
D) work groups
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Quality circles are groups of employees who voluntarily meet regularly with
their supervisors to discuss their problems, investigate causes, recommend solutions, and take
corrective action when authorized to do so. The team's recommendations are presented to higher-
level management for review, and the approved actions are implemented with employee
participation.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
92) Which term refers to a conscious effort to develop effective workgroups throughout the
organization?
A) benchmarking
B) behavior modeling
C) succession planning
D) team building
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Team building is a conscious effort to develop effective work groups and
cooperative skills throughout the organization. It helps members diagnose group processes and
devise solutions to problems. Effective team building can be the most efficient way to boost
morale, employee retention, and company profitability.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
93) All of the following are likely outcomes of team building EXCEPT ________.
A) improving employee morale
B) providing survey feedback
C) increasing profitability
D) retaining employees
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Effective team building can be the most efficient way to boost morale, company
profitability, and employee retention. Team building and survey feedback are two different
organization development methods, but team building does not necessarily provide feedback.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
94) Obtaining ________ requires developing marketable skills and expertise that help ensure
employment within a range of careers.
A) job security
B) transitional security
C) career security
D) personal security
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Career security requires developing marketable skills and expertise that help
ensure employment within a range of careers. Career security results from the ability to perform
within a broad range of careers well enough to be marketable in more than one job and to more
than one organization.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
95) As an ongoing process, ________ requires an individual to set career goals and identify the
means to achieve them.
A) life-long learning
B) career planning
C) behavioral modeling
D) just-in-time training
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Career planning is an ongoing process whereby an individual sets career goals
and identifies the means to achieve them. Individuals in today's job market must truly manage
their careers.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
96) A ________ is a flexible line of movement through which a person may travel during his or
her work life.
A) career path
B) series of ups and downs
C) work-life balancing act
D) journey of discovery
Answer: A
Explanation: A) A career path is a flexible line of movement through which a person may travel
during his or her work life. From a worker's perspective, following a career path may involve
weaving from company to company and from position to position as he or she obtains greater
knowledge and experience.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
LO: 10
97) As a formal approach used by an organization, ________ ensures that people with the proper
qualifications and experiences are available when needed.
A) career planning
B) workforce stabilization
C) career development
D) organizational development
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Career development is a formal approach used by the organization to ensure
that people with the proper qualifications and experiences are available when needed. With
career development, the organization identifies paths and activities for individual employees as
they develop.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
98) The network career path is a method of career progression that ________.
A) contains both a vertical sequence of jobs and a series of horizontal opportunities
B) allows for rectilinear moves in pursuit of new challenges
C) allows technically trained employees to be rewarded without moving into management
D) moves workers to a lower level of duties and responsibilities
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The network career path contains both a vertical sequence of jobs and a series
of horizontal opportunities. This path recognizes the interchangeability of experience at certain
levels and the need to broaden experience at one level before promotion to a higher level. Often,
this approach provides more realistic opportunities for employee development in an organization
than does the traditional career path.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
99) The ________ recognizes that technical specialists can and should be allowed to contribute
their expertise to a company without having to become managers.
A) alternative career path
B) technical choice
C) dual-career path
D) self-actualization track
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The dual-career path recognizes that technical specialists can and should be
allowed to contribute their expertise to a company without having to become managers. A dual-
career approach is used to encourage and motivate professionals in fields such as engineering,
sales, marketing, finance, and human resources. Individuals in these fields can increase their
specialized knowledge, contribute to their firms, and be rewarded without entering management.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
100) Horton Consulting is considering investing in a telepresence system. How would the firm
primarily benefit from such a system?
A) saving time and money traveling to meetings
B) eliminating the need for costly software upgrades
C) minimizing the time it takes to train employees
D) providing variety to employees through job rotation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Team building is a conscious effort to develop effective work groups and
devise solutions to problems. Job descriptions, production needs, and employee training methods
are less relevant to the decision to use team building exercises.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 10
1) The onboarding process for a new CEO is a one-time event, occurring in the first few days
after the CEO comes on board.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The onboarding process for a new CEO should provide a guide to the new
corporate culture and its people and personalities. It is not a one-time event that occurs only in
the first few days after the CEO comes on board. It is a continuous process that lasts until the
new CEO is ready to succeed in the new environment.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
2) Training and development (T&D) is the heart of a continuous effort designed to improve
employee competency and organizational performance.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Training and development (T&D) is the heart of a continuous effort designed to
improve employee competency and organizational performance. Training provides learners with
the knowledge and skills needed for their present jobs. On the other hand, development involves
learning that goes beyond today's job and has a more long-term focus.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
3) Development provides learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their present jobs.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Training provides learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their present
jobs. On the other hand, development involves learning that goes beyond today's job and has a
more long-term focus.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
4) Showing a worker how to operate a lathe or a supervisor how to schedule daily production are
examples of development.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Training provides learners with the knowledge and skills needed for their present
jobs, such as explaining how to use a lathe. Development involves learning that goes beyond
today's job and has a more long-term focus.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 1
5) Although training and development has been shown to improve employee morale and job
satisfaction, training and development has no effect on recruitment.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Being recognized as a company that encourages its employees to continue to grow
and learn can be a major asset in recruiting. Organizations with a reputation for having a culture
of being a learning leader tend to attract more and better-qualified employees.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
6) For T&D programs to be successful, top management support is required.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: For T&D programs to be successful, top management support is required; without
it, a T&D program will not succeed. The most effective way to achieve success is for executives
to provide the needed resources to support the T&D effort.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 1
7) Learning organizations reward employees with enriching jobs, promotions, and compensation,
and they typically attract high-quality workers who seek training and development programs.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: In a learning organization employees are rewarded for learning and are provided
enriched jobs, promotions, and compensation. Organizations with a reputation for having a
culture of being a learning leader tend to attract more and better-qualified employees. On nearly
every survey, training and development ranks in the top three benefits that employees want from
their employers, and they search for firms that will give them the tools to advance in their
profession.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
8) Rapidly changing technology plays a significant role in how training and development
programs are delivered to employees.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Perhaps no factor has influenced T&D more than technology. The Internet,
computers, smartphones, text messaging, and e-mail have dramatically affected how training is
conducted. Informal instructional delivery methods such as blogs, wikis, and social networks are
being used. Even Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter can assist in training.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
9) Just-in-time training is training provided anytime, anywhere in the world when it is needed.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Just-in-time training (on-demand training) is training provided anytime, anywhere
in the world when it is needed. Computer technology, the Internet, intranets, smartphones, and
similar devices have made these approaches economically feasible to a degree never before
possible.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 2
10) When determining specific training and development needs for individual employees, a firm
will most likely conduct a task analysis with data gathered from job descriptions and
performance reviews.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A person analysis is implemented to determine individual training needs, and this
type of analysis is based on performance appraisals and interviews. A task analysis uses job
descriptions to assess the tasks required to achieve the firm's goals and purposes.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
11) The case study is a T&D method that permits a person to learn by copying or replicating
behaviors of others to show managers how to handle various situations.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Behavior modeling is a T&D method that permits a person to learn by copying or
replicating behaviors of others. The case study is a T&D method in which trainees study the
information provided in the case and make decisions based on it.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
12) In role playing, participants respond to specific problems they may encounter in their jobs by
acting out real-world situations.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Role playing is a T&D method in which participants are required to respond to
specific problems they may encounter in their jobs by acting out real-world situations. Rather
than hearing an instructor talk about how to handle a problem or discussing it, they learn by
doing.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
13) When participating in role playing activities for training and development purposes,
employees act as top executives, compete with other groups, and manipulate factors such as price
levels and production volume.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Business games is a T&D method that permits participants to assume roles such as
president, controller, or marketing vice president of two or more similar hypothetical
organizations and compete against each other by manipulating selected factors in a particular
business situation. Participants make decisions affecting such factors as price levels, production
volumes, and inventory levels.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
14) On-the-job training (OJT) is an informal approach to training that permits an employee to
learn job tasks by actually performing them.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: On-the-job training (OJT) is an informal T&D method that permits an employee to
learn job tasks by actually performing them. The key to this training is to transfer knowledge
from a highly skilled and experienced worker to a new employee, while maintaining the
productivity of both workers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
15) The key to on-the-job training is to transfer knowledge from a highly skilled and experienced
worker to a new employee, while maintaining the productivity of both workers.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The key to OJT is to transfer knowledge from a highly skilled and experienced
worker to a new employee, while maintaining the productivity of both workers. OJT is used to
pass on critical "how to" information to the trainee. Individuals may also be more highly
motivated to learn because it is clear to them that they are acquiring the knowledge needed to
perform the job.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
16) In-basket training is primarily used to train administrative assistants how to use office
equipment.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: In-basket training is a T&D method in which the participant is asked to establish
priorities for and then handle a number of business papers, e-mails, texts, memoranda, reports,
and telephone messages that would typically cross a manager's desk. The messages, presented in
no particular order, call for anything from urgent action to routine handling by a manager rather
than an administrative assistant.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
17) Improving performance is the primary focus of mentoring.

Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Mentoring is an approach to advising, coaching, and nurturing for creating a
development.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
18) E-learning is the T&D method for online instruction using technology based methods such as
the Internet, intranet, and CD-ROM.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: E-learning is the T&D method for online instruction using technology based
methods such as the Internet, intranet, and CD-ROM. The benefits of e-learning are numerous
and include decreased costs, greater convenience and flexibility, improved retention rates, and a
positive environmental impact.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
19) Although apprenticeships were once used to train workers in craft jobs, advancements in
technology have virtually eliminated the need for apprenticeships today.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The National Association of Manufacturers projects that by 2020 some 10 million
skilled workers will be needed, and apprenticeships remain one of the most vital sources for new
talent in manufacturing despite changes in technology. Such training is common with craft jobs,
such as those of plumbers, carpenters, machinists, welders, fabricators, laser operators,
electricians, and press brake operators.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
20) A T&D delivery system provided under the umbrella of the organization is referred to as
online higher education.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A T&D delivery system provided under the umbrella of the organization is referred
to as a corporate university. The corporate T&D institution focus is on creating organizational
change that involves areas such as company training, employee development, and adult learning.
Online higher education is defined as formal educational opportunities including degree and
training programs that are delivered, either entirely or partially, via the Internet.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
21) The use of a corporate university is proactive and strategic rather than reactive and tactical
and can be closely aligned to corporate goals.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: A corporate university is focused on creating organizational change in areas such
as company training, employee development, and adult learning. It aims to achieve its goals by
conducting activities that foster individual and organizational learning and knowledge. It is
proactive and strategic rather than reactive and tactical and can be closely aligned to corporate
goals.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
22) Interest in online higher education has sharply declined in recent years due to the lack of
academic rigor associated with most programs.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A form of online e-learning that has increased substantially in recent years, is the
use of online higher education. One reason for the growth of online higher education is that it
allows employees to attend class at lunchtime, during the day, or in the evening. The days are
gone when online degrees were suspected of lacking the academic rigor provided in a traditional
classroom. Many say that online courses are more difficult than traditional lecture courses.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
23) Degree plans offered by online universities, such as the University of Phoenix, are limited to
associate's degrees because of the lack of certification.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The University of Phoenix has the largest student body in North America with an
enrollment of 420,700 undergraduate students and 78,000 graduate students. The university has
more than 200 campuses worldwide and confers degrees in over 100 degree programs.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
24) Hybrid programs permit students to take some classes online and some in a traditional
university setting.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Hybrid programs permit students to take some classes online and some in a
traditional university setting. Online synchronized study offers students the choice of studying
through an online portal system; however, the student is expected to appear for most classes on a
real-time schedule.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
25) With online synchronized study, students have a series of assignments that need to be
completed in a certain time frame.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: With asynchronous learning, students have a series of assignments that need to be
completed in a certain time frame. A system is available that allows students to communicate
with professor and classmates. Key to succeeding in an asynchronous learning environment is
that the student must be motivated to learn.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
26) The main advantage of the vestibule system is that employees can focus on learning the skills
needed for the job without the pressure of having to maintain a specific production level.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Vestibule system is a T&D delivery system that takes place away from the
production area on equipment that closely resembles equipment actually used on the job. A
primary advantage of the vestibule system is that it removes the employee from the pressure of
having to produce while learning. The emphasis is focused on learning the skills required by the
job.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
27) Using DVDs to train employees is uncommon because so many inexpensive and
technologically advanced training delivery systems are available to businesses.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The use of video media such as DVDs, videotapes, and film clips continues to be a
popular T&D delivery system. These media are especially appealing to small businesses that
cannot afford more expensive training methods and are often incorporated in e-learning and
instructor-led instruction.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
28) Simulators are training and delivery systems commonly used for training airline pilots.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Simulators are a T&D delivery system comprised of devices or programs that
replicate actual job demands. A prime example is the use of simulators to train airline pilots;
simulated crashes do not cost lives or deplete the firm's fleet of jets.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
29) The traditional lecture model of learning is the premise behind the educational success of
social networking.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The premise behind the educational success of social networking is the learning
approach referred to as constructivism. A constructivist learning environment differs from the
traditional model. In this setting, the teacher guides the learner toward multiple learning sources,
rather than acting as the sole source of knowledge.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 3
30) Organizational development consists of all learning experiences provided by an organization

resulting in an upgrading of skills and knowledge required in current and future managerial
positions.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Organization development is the planned and systematic attempt to change the
organization, typically to a more behavioral environment. Management development consists of
all learning experiences provided by an organization resulting in upgrading skills and knowledge
required in current and future managerial positions.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
31) Mentoring is an approach to advising, coaching, and nurturing, for creating a practical
relationship to enhance individual career, personal, and professional growth and development.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Mentoring is an approach to advising, coaching, and nurturing, for creating a
development. Mentors may be anywhere in the organization or even in another firm. For years,
mentoring has repeatedly been shown to be the most important factor influencing careers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
32) Since e-mentoring fails to yield positive outcomes, most firms choose to continue using the
traditional mentoring techniques.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: E-mentoring is being used more often as opposed to face-to-face interaction and is
yielding positive outcomes.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
AACSB: Use of IT
33) Reverse mentoring is a process in which the older employees learn from the younger ones.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Reverse mentoring is a process in which older employees learn from younger ones,
primarily in the area of technology. Numerous firms have implemented reverse mentoring
programs so that the two populations can share knowledge.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 4
34) During orientation, employees typically learn about the firm and how their job fits into the
firm's organizational structure and goals.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Orientation is the initial T&D effort for new employees that inform them about the
company, the job, and the work group. At an early point in time, it is helpful for the new
employee to know how his or her job fits into the firm's organizational structure and goals.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 5
35) Quality circles are groups of employees who voluntarily meet regularly with their
supervisors to discuss their problems, investigate causes, recommend solutions, and take
corrective action when authorized to do so.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Quality circles are groups of employees who voluntarily meet regularly with their
supervisors to discuss their problems, investigate causes, recommend solutions, and take
corrective action when authorized to do so. The team's recommendations are presented to higher-
level management for review, and the approved actions are implemented with employee
participation.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
36) Career planning is a general course that a person chooses to pursue throughout his or her
working life.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A career is a general course that a person chooses to pursue throughout his or her
working life. Career planning is an ongoing process whereby an individual sets career goals and
identifies the means to achieve them.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
37) Career security implies security in one job, often with one company.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Job security implies security in one job, often with one company. Career security is
distinctly different from job security; it requires developing marketable skills and expertise that
help ensure employment within a range of careers.
Diff: 1
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 8
38) Orientation is the organization development method of basing change efforts on the
systematic collection and measurement of subordinate's attitudes through anonymous
questionnaires.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Survey feedback is the organization development method of basing change efforts
on the systematic collection and measurement of subordinate's attitudes through anonymous
questionnaires.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 7
39) Team building is a conscious effort to develop effective work groups and cooperative skills
throughout the organization.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Team building is a conscious effort to develop effective work groups and
devise solutions to problems.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 7
40) The lateral skill path allows for lateral moves within the firm, taken to permit an employee to
become revitalized and find new challenges.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The lateral skill path allows for lateral moves within the firm, taken to permit an
employee to become revitalized and find new challenges. Neither pay nor promotion may be
involved, but by learning a different job, an employee can increase his or her value to the
organization and also become rejuvenated and reenergized.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 10
7.3 Essay Questions
1) Consider the following: Up to 40 percent of externally hired private sector executives fail
within the first 18 months and many others that are recruited from the outside leave within five
years. Discuss how inadequate onboarding of new executives can contribute to these outcomes.
Answer: Although impossible to calculate precisely, the costs resulting from a failed CEO are
usually significant, particularly for an "outsider." Considerable time, effort, and money are spent
recruiting top talent; however, companies often do a poor job of onboarding new executives. In
fact, few companies take the time to familiarize new executives about the workings of the
corporate culture beyond the standard, one-size-fits-all orientation session. However, what new
executives need to know in order to be effective differs significantly from the focus of most
general employee orientation programs. If an executive is coming in from another company, a
great deal of attention needs to be paid to explaining how things really work in the new
environment. For example, to succeed, new executives must understand the unwritten rules,
processes, and networks that influence how things get done in the organization. Too often, they
are just given the key to the executive suite and are expected to sink or swim. That approach will
not work if an organization is searching for ways to help these new executives succeed.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
LO: 1
2) What is strategic training and development? What impact has technology had on training and
development programs?
Answer: Training and development (T&D) is the heart of a continuous effort designed to
improve employee competency and organizational performance. Training provides learners with
the knowledge and skills needed for their present jobs. On the other hand, development involves
learning that goes beyond today's job and has a more long-term focus. The computer, Internet,
BlackBerrys, cell phones, text messaging, and e-mail are dramatically affecting how training is
conducted. Technology has played a huge role in changing the way knowledge is delivered to
employees, and this change is constantly being extended. For example, just-in-time training (on-
demand training) is training provided anytime, anywhere in the world when it is needed.
Computer technology, the Internet, and intranets have made these approaches economically
feasible to a degree never before possible. The ability to deliver knowledge to employees on an
as-needed basis, anywhere on the globe, and at a pace consistent with their learning styles,
greatly enhances the value of T&D. Online higher education is defined as formal educational
opportunities including degree and training programs that are delivered, either entirely or
partially, via the Internet. One reason for the growth of online higher education is that it allows
employees to attend class at lunchtime, during the day, or in the evening.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 1, 2, 3
3) What are the steps in the training and development process? Why is implementing a training
and development program frequently difficult?
Answer: The first step in the T&D is to determine a firm's specific training needs. Then specific
objectives need to be established. After setting the T&D objectives, management can determine
the appropriate methods and the delivery system to be used. Implementing and evaluating the
T&D program occurs next in the process. Naturally, management must continuously evaluate
T&D to ensure its value in achieving organizational objective. Implementing training programs
presents unique problems. Training implies change, which employees may vigorously resist. It
may also be difficult to schedule the training around present work requirements. Unless the
employee is new to the firm, he or she undoubtedly has specific full-time duties to perform.
Another difficulty in implementing T&D programs is record keeping. It is important to maintain
training records, including how well employees perform during training and later on the job.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 3, 5
4) What is behavior modeling? What tools and delivery systems are available to firms that use
behavior modeling for training and development purposes?
Answer: Behavior modeling is a T&D method that permits a person to learn by copying or
replicating behaviors of others. Behavior modeling has been used to train supervisors in such
tasks as conducting performance reviews, correcting unacceptable performance, delegating work,
improving safety habits, handling discrimination complaints, overcoming resistance to change,
orienting new employees, and mediating individuals or groups in conflict.
Social networking has been used as a learning tool involving behavior modeling. A person who
excels at a task sends out frequent updates about what he or she is doing. The company might
formalize the process to the extent that it would select exemplary performers to post regularly,
and pick those who should follow their posts. Behavior modeling has also long been a successful
training method that uses video media.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 3
5) What is the purpose of a corporate university?

Answer: A T&D delivery system provided under the umbrella of the organization is referred to
as a corporate university. The corporate T&D institution focus is on creating organizational
change that involves areas such as company training, employee development, and adult learning.
It aims to achieve its goals by conducting activities that foster individual and organizational
learning and knowledge. It is proactive and strategic rather than reactive and tactical and can be
closely aligned to corporate goals.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 3
6) In a brief essay, contrast the goals of training and development with those of organization
development.
Answer: Training and development is the heart of a continuous effort designed to improve
employee competency and organizational performance. Training provides learners with the
knowledge and skills needed for their present jobs, while development involves learning that
goes beyond today's job and has a more long-term focus. T&D activities have the potential to
align a firm's employees with its corporate strategies. Some possible strategic benefits of T&D
include employee satisfaction, improved morale, higher retention, lower turnover, improved
hiring, a better bottom line, and the fact that satisfied employees produce satisfied customers.
Individuals and groups receive the bulk of T&D effort. However, some firms believe that to
achieve needed change, they must move the entire organization in a different direction. Efforts to
achieve this are the focus of organization development, which is the planned and systematic
attempt to change the organization. OD education and training strategies are designed to develop
a more open, productive, and compatible workplace despite differences in personalities, culture,
or technologies.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 7
7) What is a career? What is career planning?

Answer: A career is a general course that a person chooses to pursue throughout his or her
working life. Historically, a career was a sequence of work-related positions an individual
occupied during a lifetime, although not always with the same company. However, today there
are few relatively static jobs.
Career planning is an ongoing process whereby an individual sets career goals and identifies the
means to achieve them. Individuals in today's job market must truly manage their careers. Career
planning should not concentrate only on advancement opportunities, since the present work
environment has reduced many of these opportunities. At some point, career planning should
focus on achieving successes that do not necessarily entail promotions.
Historically, it was thought that career planning was logical, linear, and indeed, planned. Today,
a new job assignment often is thought of as being paid to learn a new task and increase your
experience level in case you must leave your job. Because of the many changes that are
occurring, career planning is essential for survival for individuals and organizations. Individuals
should have a strategy or plan for unexpected career events that begins while they are still
employed.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Concept
LO: 9
8) In a brief essay, discuss the importance of orientation and mentoring for new employees.
Answer: Orientation is the initial T&D effort for new employees that inform them about the
company, the job, and the work group. A good orientation program is quite important because
first impressions are often the most lasting. In fact, new employees usually decide whether or not
to stay at a company within their first six months of employment. Orientation programs give
organizations an opportunity to get the relationship off to a good start. Mentoring is an approach
to advising, coaching, and nurturing, for creating a practical relationship to enhance individual
career, personal, and professional growth and development. Mentors may be anywhere in the
organization or even in another firm. Mentoring focuses on skills to develop protégés to perform
to their highest potential, leading to career advancement. Mentors have the potential to help
mentees discover their strengths and weaknesses, formulate a career path, set goals, manage
stress, and balance work and personal obligations.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Synthesis
LO: 4, 5
9) How is role playing used as a training and development method? What particular skills can be
taught through role playing?
Answer: Role playing is a T&D method in which participants are required to respond to specific
problems they may encounter in their jobs by acting out real-world situations. Role playing is
often used to teach such skills as disciplinary action, interviewing, grievance handling,
conducting performance-appraisal reviews, team problem solving, effective communication, and
leadership-style analysis. It has also been used successfully to teach workers how to deal with
individuals who are angry, irate, or out of control.
Diff: 3
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 3
10) Compare and discuss the terms "job security" and "career security."
Answer: In the past, most people remained with one company and career for the majority of
their adult years. The term job security implies security in one job, often with one company.
Historically, this type of security depended on an employee doing a good job and keeping out of
trouble. But, for most workers today, this assumption is not valid. Today, there is no such thing
as job security even if you worked at your job for many years. Today's employees will work for
approximately nine companies during their careers, and on average, individuals will change
careers (not merely "jobs") three times in their life. The old social contract between employers
and employees no longer exists. The country has largely become a free-agent nation, in which
employees are no more loyal to companies than companies are to employees.
Career security is distinctly different from job security; it requires developing marketable skills
and expertise that help ensure employment within a range of careers. Career security results from
the ability to perform within a broad range of careers well enough to be marketable in more than
one job and to more than one organization. With career security, workers are given opportunities
to improve their skills, and thus their employability in an ever-changing work environment.
Employees owe the company their commitment while employed and the company owes its
workers the opportunity to learn new skills, but that is as far as the commitment goes. Loyalty in
either direction is not expected. Security comes from employability rather than paternal
protection.
Diff: 2
Chapter: 7
Skill: Application
LO: 8

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1.

9. Which of the following is most likely to lead to a successful downsizing?

16. Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources?

24. Which of the following is an example of experience based situational interview?

25. Which of the following scenarios is an apt example of a future-oriented situational

50. Temporary employment is popular with employers because:

53. Companies that use “lead-the-market” pay strategy.

55. Which of the following is an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources?

57. Which of the following is a challenge for HRM during mergers?

63. ___________ validity is measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation

64. Content validity

69. Organizations typically uses resumes:

70. ____________ refers to a process of systematically developing training to meet specified

71. What is learning management system?

72. Organizational analysis look at training needs in light of the:

74. Which of the following is NOT true about task analysis?

76. The major disadvantage of distance learning as a training method is:

A. The substandard teaching material

B. The failure to harness technology

C. Its inability to provide information about specific topics

D. The limited interaction between the instructor and students

Answer: D. Behavior Modelling

Answer: D. Action learning

80. Organizations typically use resumes:

Answer: B. As a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further.

Answer: A. Instructional design

82. What is a learning management system?

Answer: C. A computer application that automates the administration, development, and

83. Organizational analysis looks at training needs in a light of the:

Answer: C. Management’s support for training activities

Answer: A Person analysis

85. Which of the following is NOT true of task analysis?

Answer: C. It results in an assessment of employees’ readiness for training and

Answer: D. Employee readiness characteristics

87. The major disadvantage of distance learning as a training method is:

Answer: D. The limited interaction between the instructor and students

Answer: D. Behavior modelling

Answer: D. Action learning

Answer: C. Content validation

Answer: C. Concurrent validation

Answer: D. Enhance innovation and creativity

Answer: C. Pretest/posttest comparison group

Answer: B. Identifying the outcomes

Answer: A. On site phase

98. Establishing a mentoring process is a part of the _____ component in an effective

Answer: B. Identifying and developing talent

Answer: A. Selection interview

Answer: D. Emphasizing that learning is under their personal control.

Chapter 06 Selection and Placement Answer Key

1. Much of the work in personnel selection involves measuring characteristics of people

Much of the work in personnel selection involves measuring characteristics of people

A correlation coefficient expresses the strength of the relationship in numerical form.

5. Validity is the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance

Validity is the extent to which performance on the measure is related to performance

6. A measure can be valid without being reliable.

7. A concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people

Concurrent validation assesses the validity of a test by administering it to people

9. Content validity is achieved primarily through a process of expert judgment.

Although criterion-related validity is established by empirical means, content validity

Generalizability is defined as the degree to which the validity of a selection method

12. Validity is necessary but not sufficient for generalizability.

Executive orders are monitored by the Office of Federal Contract Compliance

"Experience-based" items require the applicant to reveal an actual experience he or