AIR NAVIGATION TEST NO.

Each question carries one mark, total no. of qst’s 100

MaxTime allowed 03:00 Hrs

01).When accelerations on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of
a direct reading magnetic compass will turn?
a. Anti – clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.
b. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.
c. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.
d. Anti – clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.

02) At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
a) Beginning of July b End of December
c Beginning of January d End of September

03) 030°00'W : 600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM
West. The final position of the aircraft is:
a) 04°00'N 029°58'W b) 04°00'N 030°02'W
c) 04°00'N 030°00'W d) 03°58'N 030°02'W

04) Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:

a) both Rhumb lines and Great circles b) Great circles
c) Rhumb lines d) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

05) Given: Great circle from P to Q measured at P=095° Southern hemisphere

Conversion angle P - Q =7° what is the rhumb line track P - Q?
a )081 b) 102 c) 088 d) 109

06) At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian?
equal to one NM (1852 m) correct?
a) 45° b) 0° c) 90° d) 30°

07) The distance between the parallels of latitude 17º23'S and 23º59'N is
a) 4122 NM b) 636 NM c) 2473 NM d) 2482 NM

08) What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W?

a) 093°53.1'W b) 093°54.0'W c) 093°48.5'W d) 094°12.0'W

09 Given
DOM 33,510kg,Traffic load 7,600kg,Trip fuel 2040kg,Final reserve 983kg,Alternative fuel
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1100kg,Contingency 5% of trip fuel.,Est. landing mass at destination
a)43,295kg b)43,110 kg c)42,925kgS

10) What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between
Meridians 015° E and 025° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
a) 1 HR 45 MIN b) 1 HR 15 MIN c) 2 HR 30 MIN d) 5 HR 00 MIN

11) Given: value for the Ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earth's semi-major axis, as
Measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of
the earth at the axis of the Poles?
a 6 356.9 b 6 378.4 c 6 367.0 d 6 399.9

12) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

a 12700 km (or) 127400000 M (or) 6860.5 NM
b 6 350SM (or) 6883.7 NM(or) 127400000M
c 6883.7NM (or) 12 700 km (or) 127400000 M
d)Very confusing qst, nd quitting this

13) The circumference of the earth is approximately:

a 21600 NM b 43200 NM
c 5400 NM d 10800 NM

14) The coordinates of the place are: N17°50' E002°16.5' The coordinates of the antipodes are :
a. S41°10' W177°43.5' b. S48°50' E177°43.5'
c. S17°50' W177°43.5' d. S41°10' E177°43.5'

15) The time it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit around the Sun is
a 360 days 45 hours, 5 minutes 48 seconds b 360 days 5 hours 45 minutes 48 seconds
c 365 days 45 hours 48 minutes 5 seconds d 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes 45 seconds

16) In international aviation the following units shall be used for horizontal distance:
a Meters, Statute miles and Nautical miles b Kilometers, Feet and Nautical miles
c Meters, Kilometers and Nautical miles d Kilometers, Statute miles and Nautical miles

17) When dealing with heights and altitudes in international aviation, we use the
Following units:
a Meter and Foot b Foot, Kilometer and decimals of Nautical mile
c Foot and Yard, d All 3 answers are correct

18) How long is 65 Kilometers at 60º00’N?

a 40,2 Statute miles b 46,3 Nautical mile
c 35.0Nautical mile d 27,0 Nautical mile

19) The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies:

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a inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
b directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
c inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field
d directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

20) The total Magnetic Force of the terrestrial magnetic field

a Is horizontal in all positions on the surface of the Earth
b Is vertical at the magnetic equator
c Is strongest at the magnetic poles
d Will be stronger at higher altitudes because the attenuation is less at high altitudes

21) T/0 weight 65000 lbs, landing weight 49750 lbs. climb fuel 4500 lbs Descent fuel 1950 lbs
Find the Mid cruise weight.
a.24500 kgs b.56100 kgs c.56500 lbs d.56100 lbs

22) Using the following data, determine the maximum allowable takeoff fuel?
MTOM 64400kg
MLM 56200kg
MZFM 53300kg
DOM 35500kg
Traffic load 14500kg
Trip fuel 4900kg
Minimum takeoff fuel 7400kg
a)11100 lbs b)10900 kgs c) 11100 kgs

23) An aircraft has a flight time of 2 hrs 30 mins, a contingency fuel of 30% is carried. What is
the total endurance?
a) 03:15 b) 0245 c) 03:45

24) During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance
of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is:
a)17286KHz b)123.9MHz c)5649KHz d) 1136 KHz

25) You are required to uplift 40 US gallons of AVGAS with Sp. Gravity of 0.72. How many
litres and kilograms is this?
a) 109 kg b) 450 kg c) 100 kg

26) Coefficient B, as used in aircraft magnetism, presents

a The resultant deviation from magnetism along the aircraft lateral axis
b A value representing the deviation registered on headings East and West
c The resultant deviation from magnetism along the aircraft vertical (normal) axis
d Deviation values caused by hard iron magnetism only

27) Deviation on MH 180 is -5 and on MH 000 it is +3. Calculate coefficient C:

a Coefficient C = -1 b Coefficient C = +4 c Coefficient C = -2 d Coefficient C = +8

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28) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the
right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading
magnetic compass should read:
a 060° b less than 060°
c more than 060° d more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension
used

29) On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north
or south poles?
a) Lambert's conformal b) Direct Mercator
c) Transverse Mercator d) Polar stereographic

30) A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:

a) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
b) shows all great circles as straight lines
c) the scale is only correct at parallel of origin
d) the scale is only correct along the standard parallels
.
31) On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately
represented at the:
a north and south limits of the chart b parallel of origin
c standard parallels d Equator

32) On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:

a straight line b small circle concave to the nearer pole
c spiral curve d curve convex to the nearer pole

33) On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:

a complex curve b curve concave to the equator
c curve convex to the equator d straight line

34) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance
of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at
latitude 10°N, a distance of :
a 122.3 NM b 117.7 NM c 124.2 NM d 118.2 NM

35) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a

distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the
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earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance of :
a 45 NM b 73.5 NM c 78 NM d 110 NM

36) The transponder code 7004

a)  Aerobatic and display code in some countries
b) Military intercept code
c) VFR standard squawk code when no other code has been assigned
d)none

37) The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm.
What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?
a 1 : 26 000 000 b 1 : 30 000 000 c 1 : 18 000 000 d 1 : 21 000 000

38) Given: Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° left Relative bearing of NDB 270°
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
a 211° b 208° c 221° d 180°

39) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
A) High gross mass and aft centre of gravity
B ) Low gross mass and forward centre of gravity
C) Low gross mass and aft centre of gravity
D ) High gross mass and forward centre of gravity

40) Given magnetic heading 075°, variation 4°W, drift angle 12°R, relative bearing to
the station 270°. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the station?
a 149° b 173° c 169° d 161°

41) For a conventional, nose tricycle gear aircraft configuration, the higher the take-off mass:
1) Manoeuvrability is reduced.
2) Range will decrease but endurance will increase.
3) Gliding range will reduce.
4) Stalling speed will increase.
A » All statements are correct
B » Statement 3 only is correct
C » Statements 1 and 4 are correct
D » Statement 4 only is correct

42) Fuel flow per HR is 25 US-GAL; total fuel on board is 90 IMP GAL. What is the
Endurance?

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a 4 HR 32 MIN b 3 HR 12 MIN c 3 HR 53 MIN d 4 HR 19 MIN

43) The tank capacity of an aircraft is 310 US GAL. Fuel specific gravity is 0,78 kg/litre.
The tanks are now 3/4 full. You want to refuel so that total fuel will be 850 kg. How
much fuel will you have to refuel? Answer in pounds.
a 164 LB b 360 LB c 320 LB d 410 LB

44) A fuel amount of 146 Imp Gal allows a endurance of 4 HR 26 Min. What is the
corresponding fuel flow ?
a) 34.3 Imp Gal /HR b) 32.9 US Gal / HR c) 39.5 US Gal / HR d) 39.5 Imp Gal / HR

45) A fuel amount of 160 US Gal allows a endurance of 3 HR 10 Min with a light twin
engine piston aircraft. What is the corresponding fuel flow per engine ?
a 25.3 US Gal / HR b 50.5 US Gal / HR
c 51.6 US Gal / HR d 25.8 US Gal / HR

46 Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim
sheet as
14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice that:
A » V1 will be reached sooner than expected
B » Speed at un-stick will be higher than expected
C » V1 will be increased
D » The aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected

47) Given: Magnetic heading = 255° VAR = 40°W GS = 375 kt W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt
Calculate the drift angle?
a 7° left b 7° right c 9° left d 16° right

48) An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind
velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are:
a 192 kt, 7° left b 200 kt, 3.5° right
c 192 kt, 7° right d 225 kt, 7° left

49) The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt,
True HDG 090°, Drift angle 5° right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature) -
51°C. The W/V being experienced is:
a 225° / 60 kt b 320° / 60 kt c 220° / 60 kt d 325° / 60 kt

50 In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

A » Decrease longitudinal static stability
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B » Increase longitudinal static stability
C » Does not influence longitudinal static stability
D » Not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

51) Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and
has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the
runway is 60°, Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds?
a 12 kt and 38 kt b 20 kt and 40 kt
c 15 kt and 43 kt d 18 kt and 50 kt

52) Given: TAS = 472 kt, True HDG = 005°, W/V = 110°(T)/50kt. Calculate the drift
angle and GS?
a 6°L - 487 kt b 7°R - 491 kt c 7°L - 491 kt d 7°R - 487 kt

53) Given: Runway direction 083°(M), Surface W/V 035/35kt. Calculate the effective
headwind component?
a 24 kt b 27 kt c 31 kt d 34 kt

54) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of Nanded (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE =
963 hPa, temperature = 32°C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the
Second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately:
a 6 800 FT b 6 400 FT c 6 000 FT d 4 000 FT

55) What is the distance to touchdown when you are 670 ft QFE on a 3.2° glide slope
Approach?
a 2.06 NM b 2.40 NM c 1.96 NM d 1.63 NM

56) Who establishes the limits of C of G?

A » The CAA
B » The JAA
C » The manufacturer
D » The insurers

57) You fly from C to D, a distance of 450 NM. The WC C - D is +30, and the WC D -
C is -40. TAS is 160 Kt and reduced TAS is 130 Kt. The Fuel Flow is 165 kg/hr,
and the Safe endurance when overhead C is 4 hours. Calculate PNR for return to
C. What is the distance from PNR to D?
58) One effect on an aircraft that is nose-heavy is:
A » A tendency for the nose to pitch up
B » An increase in range
C » A decrease in stability
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D » An increase in drag, due to excessive elevator trim

59) An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The
rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
a 650 FT/MIN b 6500 FT/MIN c 4500 FT/MIN d 3900 FT/MIN

60) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your ATC flight
plan,
you write:
A XXXX B ///////// C ZZZZ D XXX

61) What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with
constant CAS?
a Mach number decreases; TAS decreases b Mach number remains constant; TAS
increases
c Mach number increases; TAS increases d Mach number increases; TAS remains constant

62) You are required to descend from FL 230 to FL 50 over a distance of 32 NM in 7

Minutes. What will the glideslope be when you expect WC-25 during the descend?
a 4.07° b 5.29° c 6.25° d Out of syllabus

63) With the centre of gravity outside the forward limit:

A » Longitudinal stability would be reduced and stick forces in pitch increased
B » Longitudinal stability would be reduced and stick forces in pitch reduced
C » Longitudinal stability would be increased and stick force in pitch reduced
D » Longitudinal stability would be increased and stick forces in pitch increased

64) What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical information
stored in the FMC
a. 28 days b. one calendar month c. 3 calendar months d. 14 days

65) Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to
enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
a IDENT - RTE – DEPARTURE b POS INIT - RTE - IDENT
c IDENT - POS INIT – RTE d POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE

66) The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
a. the vertical and horizontal plane b. the vertical plane c. the horizontal plane

67) During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:
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a will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial longitude
b will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial longitude
c will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude
d will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude

68) A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few
moments later. Following this incident:
a everything returns to normal and is usable
b no useful information can be obtained from the INS
c it can only be used for attitude reference
d the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update

69) An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to
the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer:
WPT 1: 60°N 030°W WPT 2: 60°N 020°W When 025°W is passed the latitude
shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:
a 60°00.0'N b 60°05.7'N
c 59°49.0'N d 60°11.0'N

70) The sensors of an INS measure:

a. precession b. velocity c. the horizontal component of the earth's rotation d. acceleration

71) If there is a 17 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent by
changed in order to maintain a 3o glide slope?
a. It must be increased by 58 ft/min b.It must be decreased by 58 ft/min
c. It must be increased by 85 ft/min d.It must be decreased

72 In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. March and September. B. June and December.
c. November and February. D .January and July.

73) At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
a. Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice.
b. Spring (Vernal) Equinox and Autumn Equinox)
c. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice.
d. Spring (Vernal) Equinox and Summer Solstice.
74) The pressure altimeter is calibrated in accordance with
(a) the environmental lapse rate of temperature (b) the jet standard atmosphere
(c) The International Standard Atmosphere. (d) The Density altitude

75) An aircraft climbs away from the runway with static vents still sealed.
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If set to QFE, the altimeter will
(a) Continue to indicate zero feet
(b) Indicate correctly increasing altitude as the aircraft climbs
(c) Show a slower gain of altitude than correct
(d) Will indicate QNH for some time.

76) When using the Vertical Speed Indicator, the pilot

(a) can rely on its readings in all attitudes of flight
77) Can only rely on the readings when changing to horizontal flight
(c) Cannot rely on its readings, especially when a change of pitch
Attitude is occurring
(d) can rely throughout the flight

78) The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. The maximum take-off mass, landing
and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550 kg, and the taxi fuel mass
is 50 kg. The
available mass of pay load is:
A » 1 500 kg
B » 950 kg
C » 1 000 kg
D » 1 450 kg

79) Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg

Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 800 kg
Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
Contingency fuel: 900 kg
Alternate fuel: 700 kg
Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:
A » 74 000 kg
B » 69 600 kg
C » 72 000 kg
D » 70 400 kg

80) The limitations of a typical air driven Dl are

(a) 55° in roll and pitch (b) 110 in roll and 60° in pitch
(c) 60° in roll and 110° in pitch. (d) 85° in pitch & roll

81) . Express 100 kHz in m.

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(a) 3000 M (b) 3000 Cm (c) 300 M (d) 100 M

82) AWR equipment operation on the ground is:

(a) totally prohibited
(b) Unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
(c) only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard the health
of personnel and to protect equipment
(d) all the above are correct

83What is a “Stop way”

A) Can be used for T/O & landings
B) Means an area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway and centered
upon the extended centerline of the runway
C) It is not a portion of Runway Safety Area

84) 345 IMP-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.78)

a) 803 kg. b)1223 lbs. c) 1226 kgs. d) 1223 kgs

85) The duration of civil twilight is the time?

a) Between Sunset and when the centre of the un is 6° below the true horizon.
b) Between Sunset and when the top of the Sun is 6° below the visual horizon.
c) Between sunset and when the centre of the Sun is 6° below the visual horizon.
d) When the Sunset and Sunrise

86) CAS is?

a.EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.
b.IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
c.TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
d.IAS corrected for density error and position error

87) An A/c maintaining hdg 180 (M), TAS 150 kt, ADF 020(R), DME 10nm has been instructed
to intercept radial of 280 from the VOR for a STD. HOLD (VOR& NDB) Co-located what hdg a
pilot should steer to(A) intercept the radial & after intercept the radial (B) hdg to reach the st. &
ADF rdg (C) out bound hdg. Assume prevailing winds 260/25 kt in the holding area (correction
3D)

(A) (B) (C)

Hdg to Intercept the radial Hdg to reach the st./ADF Outbound Hdg
1 105 125/355 295
2 105 105/005 285
3 190 105/355 295
4 120 115/010 320

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88) A 10 deg brg change abeam, a VOR takes 5 mins 30 sec’s if you tuned & flew to the VOR,
What is the approx. distance, if the grd spd is 160 kts
1) 81 km 2) 88 nm 3) 13nm 4) none of the above
89) The BFO:
A) is used to make the ident from an A2A NDB audible.
B is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible.
)
C is used to determine the signal strength of an NDB.
)
D creates the audio ident for an NDB.
)

90) The radio altimeter indicates 1280 ft what is the minimum height that the aircraft could be?
a.1236 ft in the cruising attitude
b.1236 ft in the landing attitude
c.1323 ft in the cruising attitude
d.1323 ft in the landing attitude

91) An aircraft descends to an airport under the following conditions:-

. Cruising Altitude 10500 feet
. Airport elevation 1700 feet
. Descending to 1000 feet AGL
. Rate of descent 600 feet/Min
. Average CAS 119K
. Mean Temp +18 C
. Track 263°
. Average W/V 330/30
. Variation 7W
. Deviation -1
. Average Fuel consumption 11.5 Gal/Hr

Find the time, Hdg (C) & Distance & fuel used-during descend
a. 9 Min ,. 274, 26 nm, 2.8 Gal
b. 13 Min, 274, 2.8 nm, 2.5 Gal
c. 13 Min , 271, 26 nm, 2.5 Gal

92) Block fuel: 40 000 kg

Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 800 kg

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Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:

A » 40 400 kg
B » 32 900 kg
C » 18 900 kg
D » 32 100 kg

93) The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
1) Needle and ball right.
2) Needle and ball left.
3) Needle right and ball left.
4) Needle left and ball right

94) What is the Schuler period?

1) 48 minutes.
2) 84 seconds.
3) 48 seconds.
4) 84 minutes.

95) Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:

A) the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the
transmitter.
B the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
)
C the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
)
D both the electrical and magnetic components are parralel to the aerial.
)
.

96) A “resolution advisory” (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) by a?
a) Blue or white empty lozenge.
b) Red full circle.
c) Red full square.
d) Blue or white full lozenge.

97)What is the shortest distance between ROME (41º55’ N 011°10`E) and HONOLULU 21º17’
N168°50’W
(a)7008 nm (b) 6008 nm (c) 6900 nm d)8008 nm

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98) An ADF uses a sense aerial to:
A) determine the null position.
B) detect the receiver test signal.
C resolve ambiguous bearings.
)
D transmit the beacon ident.
)

99) An a/c A departs from a station at 900 and flies on a track of 0900 at G/S of 250 K. Another
a/c departs from the same station at 0930 and flies on a track of 090 with a G/S of 350 K. Find
time when ac B will overtake A, place of meeting from the station and dist. from station when ac
B will be 5 mts behind A.
a. 1045 Hrs, 408.7 nm, 437.5 nm. b. 1045 Hrs, 437.5 nm, 408.7 nm.
c. 1040 Hrs, 450 nm, 425 nm. d. 1040 Hrs, 425 nm, 450 nm.

100) A radio aid has a wavelength of 2.4 m. The frequency is:

A) 12.5 MHz
B) 72 MHz
C 720 MHz
)
D 125 MHz
)

“There are no secrets to success. It is the result of preparation, hard work learning from
failure.”

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