AIR NAVIGATION TEST NO.

3ُ

01. For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis
on at least:

A) 30
occasions
B 10
) occasions
C) 50
occasions
D) 20
occasions 02. From the options given below select those flights which require
flight plan notification:

1. Any Public Transport flight

2. Any IFR flight
3. Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the
provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue
4. Any cross-border flights
5. Any flight which involves overflying water

A 2+4
)
B) 3 + 4 +
5
C) 1 + 5
D) 1 + 2 +
3

03. A CURRENT flight plan is a:

A filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included

)

B) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between
aeroplane and ATC

C) flight plan with the correct time of departure

D) filed flight plan

04. For which flights are Flight Plans required?

i. IFR flights
ii. IFR and VFR flights
iii. Flights crossing national boundaries
iv. Flights over water
v. Public transport flights

A i, iii
)
B) i, iii, v
C) ii, iii, iv, v
D) ii, iii, iv

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05. In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a
serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is:

A) A
B) P
C C
)
D) B
06. On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as H for HEAVY:

A) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

B is of the highest wake turbulence category
)
C) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off
mass
D) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg

07. For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight the time used in Item 13 is:

A) The time of requesting the flight plan

B The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the
) flight plan applies
C) Actual time of departure
D) EOBT

08. The navigation plan reads:

Trip fuel: 100 kg
Flight time: 1h35min
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
Block fuel: 181 kg

The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

A) 2h 52min
B 2h 49min
)
C) 1h 35min
D) 2h 04min

9) An aircraft flies 120 nm and is 12 nm off track, if the distance to go is 90 nm,

the closing angel is;
1) 12 deg 2) 8 deg 3) 9 deg

10. The scheduled landing distance required is the distance:

A From a screen of a designated height to the point at which the aircraft

) has come to a complete stop
B) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has decelerated to a speed of
20kts
C) From the point at which the aircraft is 50 metres above the runway to the point at
which the aircraft has come to a complete stop
D) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop

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11. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Gross landing distance is greater than net landing

distance
B) Gross acceleration is net acceleration minus 9.81m/s2
C Gross take-off distance is less than net take-off
) distance
D) Gross gradient is less than net gradient

12. VLO is defined as:

A) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the
ground
B The maximum speed for landing gear operation
)
C) The long range cruise speed
D) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground

13. The speed VS is defined as

A stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is

) controllable
B) design stress speed
C) speed for best specific range
D) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway

14.The rate of climb:

A) Is angle of climb times true airspeed

B Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided
) by 100
C) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
D) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed

15) 4mm of rain is covering a runway. The runway is:

A) Wet
B) Flooded
C Contaminate
) d
D) Damp

16. Density altitude is the:

A) Altitude reference to the standard datum plane

B) Altitude read directly from the altimeter
C Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard'
) temperature
D) Height above the surface

17. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A) When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg

B) When the altimeter setting is 1013" Hg
C) When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter
D At standard temperature
)

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18. Pressure altitude is:

A) The altitude above sea level

B) The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale
C The altimeter indication when 1013.25 Hpa is set on the
) sub-scale
D) The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the sub-scale

19. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane
is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as

A) VS1
B) VMC
C VSO
)
D) VS

20. The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by

A increasing the angle of attack

)
B) increasing the TAS
C) increasing the CAS
D) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim
setting

21. The absolute ceiling is defined as:

A) The outer boundary of our galaxy

B) The altitude where a certain maximum rate of climb (e.g. 100 ft/min) is
attained
C) The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum
D The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/minute
)

22. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

A) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is
assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
B) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off
surface
C) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
D Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have
) made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off

23. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:

A not
) applicable
B) 1.5Vs
C) 1.15Vs
D) 1.2Vs

24. The C of G is:

A) The point on the aircraft where the datum is located

B) The point on the aircraft from where the dihedral angle is
measured
C) The point on the aircraft where the lift acts through

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 D The point on the aircraft through which gravity appears
) to act

25. Take-off distance available is:

A) the distance from brake release point to 35ft screen

height
B TORA plus clearway
)
C) TORA
D) TORA plus stopway

26. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:

A) the true airspeed and the bank angle

B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C) the radius of the turn and the weight of the
aeroplane
D the bank angle only
)

27. The gross take off distance required for a single engine Class B aircraft is the
distance:

A from the start of the run to a screen height of 50 feet

)
B) from the start of the run to the point at which the wheels are just clear of the
ground
C) from the start of the run to the point at which the wheels are just clear of the
ground multiplied by a factor of 1.25
D) from the start of the run to a screen height of 35 feet

28. For a piston engine aircraft the Critical Altitude is:

A The maximum altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible

) to maintain a specified power or a specified manifold pressure
B) The maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain a specified manifold
pressure
C) The maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain a specified power
D) The minimum altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible to
maintain a specified power or a specified manifold pressure

29. An upward runway slope:

A) decreases the take-off distance required

B) increases the accelerated-stop-distance
available
C increases the take-off distance required
)
D) decreases the accelerated-stop-distance
available

30. Which of the following combinations will produce the best take-off performance in
a normal atmosphere?

A) Low altitude, high ambient

temperature
B) High altitude, low ambient temperature
C) High altitude, high ambient

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 temperature
D Low altitude, low ambient
) temperature

31. If a runway is wet, the landing distance required for a dry runway (single engine
class B):

A) must be increased by 5 percent

B) may be used un-factored
C) must be increased by 50
percent
D must be increased by 15
) percent

32. What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy?

A) Vx increases and Vy decreases

B Vx decreases and Vy
) decreases
C) Vx increases and Vy increases
D) Vx decreases and Vy increases

33. How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run? The thrust

A) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up

B) varies with mass changes only
C) has no change during take-off and climb
D decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed
) builds up

34. When a stopway and/or a clearway is available the take-off distance must:

A) not exceed TORA

B) when multiplied by 1.3, not exceed ASDA
C) when multiplied by 1.15, not exceed TODA
D not exceed TORA and when multiplied by 1.3 not exceed ASDA and when
) multiplied by 1.15 not exceed TODA

36. Which statement is correct?

A) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine

failure
B VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated
)
C) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure
D) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted

37. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during
climb after takeoff?

A) Va
B) Vcl
C Vx
)
D) Vy

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38. For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

A) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean

configuration
B) that which gives the maximum lift to drag
ratio
C that which gives the minimum value of
) drag
D) that which gives the maximum value of lift

39. V2 has to be equal to or higher than:

A VMCA
)
B) VSO
C) 1.15 VR
D) 1.15 VMCG

40. V1 has to be:

A equal to or higher than

) VMCG
B) equal to or higher than VMCA
C) equal to or higher than V2
D) higher than VR

41. Reference zero is a point 35ft vertically beneath the aircraft at the end of:

A TODR
)
B) TODA
C) TORA
D) ASDA

42. The rotation speed (Vr):

A) is the airspeed at which the aeroplane lifts off the

ground
B must not be less than 1.05 Vmca
)
C) must not be more than 1.05 Vmca
D) is always equal to V1 for aeroplanes with 2 engines

43. With which conditions would one expect Vmc to be the lowest?

A) Cold temp, high altitude, low humidity

B) Cold temp, low altitude, low humidity
C) Hot temp, low-pressure altitude, high humidity
D Hot temp, high-pressure altitude, high
) humidity

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44. The airspeed at which the main wheels of an aircraft leave the ground during
take-off is called:

A) VR
B VLOF
)
C) V2
D) Vmc

45. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:

A) lift off speed

B) critical engine failure speed
C take-off climb speed or speed at
) 35 ft
D) take-off decision speed

46. Given that:

VEF = Critical engine failure speed

VMCG = Ground minimum control speed
VMCA = Air minimum control speed
VMU = Minimum unstick speed
V1= Take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min. = Minimum take-off safety speed

47. The correct formula is:

A) 1.05 VMCG < VEF < = VR

B) 1.05 VMCA < = VEF < = V1
C VMCG < = VEF < V1
)
D) V2 min < = VEF < = VMU

48. The take-off decision speed V1 is:

A a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the

) take-off must be aborted
B) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off
must be aborted
C) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed
D) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR

49. ASDA is defined as:

A TORA plus
) stopway
B) TODA plus stopway
C) TORA plus clearway
D) the same as TODA

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50. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

A the accelerate-stop distance

) available
B) the take-off distance available
C) the take-off run available
D) the landing distance available

51. The speed at the 50 ft screen (VRef ) should be (Class B multi engine):

A) not less than the greater of 1.1 VMC or 1.2

VSO
B) not less than the lower of VMC or 1.3 VSO
C) not greater than VMC or 1.3 VSO
D not less than the greater of VMC or 1.3 52. A clearway:
) VSO
A) Need not have the same weight bearing qualities as the runway with which it is
associated
B All are correct
)
C) May be water
D) Provides an area over which an aeroplane can safely transit from lift off to the
required height

53. A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt
tailwind. What is the still air distance?

A)406 Nm B) 510 Nm C) 550 Nm d) 495 Nm

54. An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kg Trip fuel= 4 300 kg
Contingency fuel= 215 kg Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kg
Block fuel= 7 115 kg Before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000
kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: .
a) 4300 kg b) 9000 kg c) 4700 kg d) none

55. Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg

Load= 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel=983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :?

A. 42312 kg. B. 42093 kg. C .42210 kg. D 42195 kg

56. During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a
distance of 750 NM from the ground station and at flight level 350. The frequency to be
used is:
a) 5649 kHz. b) 17286 KHz c) 123.9 MHz d) 1136 KHz

57. During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan.
The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-
RAC, are

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a) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes b) TAS 9% and time 5 minutes

58. Find the distance to the point of safe return (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel
15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component
20 kt, Fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 30 kt, Fuel flow 2150
kg
a) 1152 NM b) 1090nm c 1511 nm

59. Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg

Load= 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel= 983
kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at destination should be :
A) 43295 kg B) 43193 KG C) 42210 KG

60. Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg,

Maximum landing mass 56200 kg,
Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg,
Dry operating mass 35500 kg,
Traffic load 14500 kg,
Trip fuel 4900 kg,
Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kg.
Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel: 
  a)  11100 kg b 11500 kg c) 10700 kg

61. Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg

Load= 7600 kg
Trip fuel (TF)= 2040kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?

a.Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.

b.Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg.
C Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.
D Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.

62. Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg

Load= 7600 kg
Trip fuel (TF)= 2040kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
a.Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.
b.Estimated landing mass at ALTERNATE= 42195 kg.
C Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.
D Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.

63. For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft
with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg  is :
A unclassified "U"
B heavy"H"
C light "L"
D Medium “M”

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64. When completing an ATS flight plan clock times are tobe expressed in :
a.Central European Time
b.Local mean time
c.local standard time
d.UTC

65. In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters could
be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) :
a.N
b.N/S
c.G
d.X

66. In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of
cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as :
A 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
B 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
C 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
D 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more

67. In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard
departure(SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :
A both should be  entered in  the ATS  plan where appropriate
B SIDs should be entered but not STARs
C STARS should be entered but not SIDs
D neither SID nor STAR should be entered

68. When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
A) X
B) N/S
C) G
D) Y

69. In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is notknown
when the plan is ready for filing :
a the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank
b"TBN" (to  be notified) may be entered in the relevant box
c an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded
d the plan may not be filed until the information is available

70. An ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and
distancefrom a VOR, the group of figures should consist of :
a VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres
b VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres
c VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
d full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres

71) Convert 1000 litres of fuel in lmp Gal. U.S. Gal and Kg (Sp. Gr. 0.8);
Imp Gal US Gal Kg
1 220 264 800
2 264 220 800
3 125 150 800

72) Climb time 40 minutes and fuel flow 3000 lbs/hr, cruise time 130 minutes & fuel flow
2000 lbs/hr descent time 30 minutes & fuel flow 1000 lbs/hr the trip fuel is;
1 7500 lbs
2 6500 lbs
3 6833 lbs

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 4 6000 lbs

73) Route distance 600 nm, the aircraft climbs at a ground speed of 160 kt for 30
minutes during cruise ground speed 250 kt, during descent 20 minutes at G/S 180 kt.
The total flight for the route is;
1 2 hrs 40 minutes 2)2 hrs 30 minutes 3) 2 hrs 24 minutes 4) 2 hrs 50
minutes

74) One Nano second is;

1 0.000,000,001 of a second
2 0.000,000,0001 of a second
3 of a microsecond
4 of a second

75) Outside terminal airspace, the range for TCAS operation is normally;
1 20 nm 2) 10 km 3) 12 nm 4) 50 km

76) The colur arcs of an ASI are in ascending speed order?

1 Green, yellow & red
2 White yellow & red
3 Yellow and red
4 White & red

77) The transponder code for Hijacking is;

1 7000 2) 7700 3) 1100 4) 7500

78) The shape of a typical holding pattern is a;

1 Radio track 2 Rectangle 3. Elipse 4.Circle

79) The DME in an aircraft flying at FL 390 indicates 15 nm. The approximate horizontal
distance of the aircraft from the DME station is;
1 12.5 nm 2) 13.5 nm 3) 14.5 nm 4) 11.5 nm

80) While on a cross country from VIR’ A’ to VOR ‘B’ the aircraft is flying a magnetic
heading 120 to follow a track 120 M, Aircraft VOR is tuned to ‘A’ with OBS reading 120.
CDI needle show 3 dot to the left, Half way down, you switch over to VOR ‘B’ frequency.
What change would you expect in A/C VOR indications;
1 The VOR CDI needle remains to 3 dot to the left and OBS change to 300 with
TO/FROM flag will change to ‘TO
2 The VOR CDI needle remains to 3 dot to the left OBS 120 change, and TO/FROM
flag will change to ‘TO’
3 The VOR CDI needle shows 3 dot to the right OBS 120 and TO/FROM flag will
change to ‘FROM’
4 The VOR CDI needle indicate 3 dot to the right, OBS 120 and TO/FROM flag will
change to ‘FROM’

80. An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at1215
UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with :
A EDDM 1215
B EDDM 1415
C EDDM  0215
D EDDM 2H15

81. In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a
significantpoint at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as :
A N04135E0415
B 41°35' N 04°15'E
C 4135N00415E

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D N4135 E00415

82. In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feetwould
be entered as :
A FL320
B F320
C S3200
D 32000

83. In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as :
A N470
B KN470
C 0470K
D N0470

84.In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure,
thedeparture time entered is the :
A estimated off-block time
B estimated time over the first point en route
C estimated take-off time
D allocated slot time

85.In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a
Machnumber, cruising speed is expressed as :
A IAS
B TAS
C CAS
D Groundspeed

86. For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regularbasis
on at least :
A 20 occasions
B 10 occasions
C 30 occasions
D 50 occasions

87. Which combination of weight and CG position will produce the highest stalling speed?

A) Heavy weight and aft CG

B) Low weight and aft CG
C) Low weight and forward CG
D Heavy weight and forward
) CG

88. The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by:

A structural considerations
)
B) tyre speed and temperature limitations
C) bearing strength of the taxiway
pavement
D) taxi distance to take - off point

89. What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane?

A The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the

) neutral point
B) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect
C) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag
D) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim

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 tab

90. The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kgBlock
fuel: 181 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
A 1h 35min
B 2h  49min
C 2h 04min
D 2h 52min

91) You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following
conditions : - dry operating mass : 2800 kg - trip fuel : 300 kg - payload : 400 kg -
maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg - maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
a 1000 kg b 800 kg c 700 kg d 500 kg

92) When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes,
points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than :
a 20 minutes flying time or 150 km
b 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
c 15 minutes flying time or 100 km
d 1 hour flying time or 500 km

93) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight
plan, you write:
a ////
b AAAA
c XXXX
d ZZZZ

94) In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be
used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes
transponder with altitude reporting capability is :
aS bP cC dA

95) The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30
minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
a 188 NM b 203 NM c 174 NM d 193 NM

96) The operational details of an aircraft are, Maximum take off weight 72,000 kg,
Maximum landing weight 63,000 kg and Maximum Zero Fuel weight 60,000 kg, burn off
fuel 6.5 Tons. Reserve fuel 3.5 Tons, Operational weight of Aircraft 42,000 kg Calculate
the maximum payload that can be carried for this flight;
1) 20,000 kg 2) 18,000 kg 3) 17,500 kg

97) A 10 deg bearing change abeam, a VOR takes 4 minutes 30 seconds If you turned
and flew to the VOR, what is the approximate distance, if the ground speed is 180 kt;
1 81 nm .
2 133 nm
3 13.5nm

98) Route distance 600 nm, the aircraft climbs at a ground speed of 160 kt for 30
minutes during cruise ground speed 250 kt, during descent 20 minutes at G/S 180 kt.
The total flight for the route is;
(a) 2 hrs 40 minutes
(b) 2 hrs 30 minutes
(c) 2 hrs 24 minutes
(d) 2 hrs 50 minutes

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99) During climb from 1,000 ft PA to 9000 PA, 50 air nm are covered in 20 minutes. Track
090 (t) W/V 270/30 kt. The rate of climb and distance covered are;
1) 400 ft/minutes & 60 nm
2) 400 ft/minutes & 40 nm
3) 450 ft/minutes & 40 nm
4) 500 ft/minutes & 60 nm

100) The length of a nautical mile;

1 Increases with latitude
2 Decreases with altitude
3 Remains constant with altitude

Here’s some common V Speed relationships:

 V1 must always be >VMCG,

 VR must always be ≥V1, >VMCA
 VLO must always be ≥VR, >VMCA, >VS, >VMU
 V2 must always be >VMCA, >VS, >VR

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