AIR NAVIGATION TESTNO.

0l).When accelerations on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of
a direct reading magnetic compass will turn ?33
a. Anti - clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.
b. Clockwise giving an apparent furn toward the north.
c. Clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north.
d. Anti .-. clockwise giving an apparent furn toward the north.

02). which of the following is correct when the variation is west?

o. True North is East ol'Magnetic North.
b. Magnetic North is West of Compass North.
C. True North is West of Magnetic North.
d. Compass North is west of Magnetic North.

03).When using a direct reading magnetic compass in the northern hemisphere ?

a. A longitudinal acceleration on a Westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the South.
b. A longitudinal acceleration on an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the North.
C. A longitudinal deceleration on a Westerly heading causes an apparent turn to the North.
d. A longitudinal acceleration on an Easterly heading causes an apparent turn to the South.

04).An aircraft using a direct reading magnetic compass in the Northern hemisphere starts a
Rate l turn to the right from 145 C. What will be the indicated heading fit rolls out of the furn
after 30 seconds ?
a. lt is not possible to answer this question using the information given.
b. Greater than 2350
c. Less than 235°
d.2350

05). What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the
direct reading magnetic compass ?
a. It is lighter.
b. lt is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate.
C. lt senses the earth 's magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
d. It is not affected by aircraft deviation.

06).The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the?

a. Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight down to the earth 's surface.
b. 8lue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight up from the earth 's surface.
C. Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight up from the earth 's surface [P.T.O]
d. 8lue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight down to the earth 's surface

08). An aircraft is on a heading ofl350 C using a direct reading magnetic compass in the
northern hemisphere. After carrying out a rate l turn for 30 seconds on what indicated heading
should it roll out of the turn ?
a. 225 b. More than 225 c. Less than 225
d. It is not possible to answer this question using the data provided.

09).Whaf is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

a. 0° b.64 o. C. 90 °. d. 1800

l0)At the magnetic equator?

a) Deviation is zero.
b) The isogonal is an agonic line.
c) Dip is zero.
d) Variation is zero.

II) Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass ?
V C
130 2W 128 -l 127
130 2E 128 -1 129.
130 2E 132 -1 133.
132 -1 133.

l2)The horizontal component of the earth 's magnetic field?

a) Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles.
b) Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole.
c) Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°.
d) Is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50°N and 50°S.

l3)What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial
magnetism?
a)45° d)l80°
14) Which of the following is correct when the variation is West?
 True North is East of Magnetic North.
Magnetic North is West of Compass North.
True North is West of Magnetic North.
Compass North is West of Magnetic North.

15) A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero
is called an ?
1.Agonic line. 2.Aclinic line. 3.lsogor1al. 4.lsotach.

16) How is the direct reading magnetic compass made Aperiodic or dead beat?
a) Using a pendulous suspension system for the magnetic assembly.
b) Using the lowest possible viscosity liquid in the compass.
c) Using short magnets.
d) Positioning the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping
wires.

l 7) lsogonals converge of the ?

a) Magnetic equator.
b) North magnetic pole only.
c) North and South magnetic poles only.
d) North and South geographic and magnetic poles.

18) Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time?
a) Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase.
b) Movements of the magnetic poles, cause it to increase or decrease.
c) Increases in the magnetic field, cause if to increase.
d) Reductions in the magnetic field cause it to decrease.

19) What is the compass heading if true track is 348°, drift is 17° left, variation is 32°W, and
deviation is 4°E?
a) 009°.
b) 033°.
c) 339°.
d) 337°.

20) The value of magnetic variation ?

a) Must be 0° at the magnetic equator.
b) Varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West.
c) Cannot exceed 90°.
d) Has a maximum of 180°.

21) At what point on the earth is a magnetic compass most effective ?

a) AT the geographic equator.
b) Close to the magnetic North Pole.
c) Close to the magnetic south pole.
 Approximately midway between the magnetic poles.

22) Which of the following is true of the value of magnetic variation ?

a) It is 0° at the magnetic equator.
b) It varies between 45° East and 45° west.
c) lt cannot exceed 90°.
d) It cannot exceed 180°.

23) What is the compass heading if true track is 358 drift is 17° left, variation is27°East, and
deviation is l9°W?
e) 009°. H)

24)An Air Data Computer (ADC) ?

a) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to
provide correct altitude reporting.
b) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in
instruments.
c) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source
is blocked.
d) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide
correct altitude and speed information.

25) In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from ?

a) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.
b) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT).
c) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and
back.
d) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.

26) In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an
ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?
a) Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.
b) Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c) Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as
possible.
d) Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting
the instruments

27) The QNH is by definition the value of the?

a) Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the
location for which it is provided.
b) Atmospheric pressure af the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
c) Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location
for which it is given.
d) Atmospheric pressure of the see level of the location for which if is given.

28) With a pilot probe blocked due to ice buildup, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a?
a) Increasing speed.
b) Fluctuating speed
c) Decreasing speed.
d) Constant speed.

29) After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure
probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the
indicated airspeed?
a) Increases steadily.
b) Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c) Decreases steadily
d) Increases abruptly towards VNE.

30) The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies
substantially with the?
a) Static temperature.
b) Mach number of the aircraft.
c) Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d) Aircraft altitude.

31) The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a) In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
b) In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing af this point.
c) In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d) In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

32) The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?
a) Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b) Bi-metallic strip.
c) Return spring.
d) Second calibrated port.

33) The density altitude is ?

a) The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual
density of the atmosphere.
b) The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and
standard temperature.
c) The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
d) The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.
34) The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the ?
a) Time passed at a given altitude.
b) Mach number of the aircraft
c) Aircraft altitude.
d) Static temperature.

35) When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
a) Under read.
b) Be just as correct as before.
c) Show the actual height above ground.
d) Over read.

36) At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not
exceed?
a) +/-60 feet.
b) +/-75 feet.
c) +/-30 feet.
d) +/-70 feet.

37) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere
layers below the aircraft are cold is ?
a) Equal to the standard altitude.
b) Lower than the real altitude.
c) The same as the real altitude.
d) Higher than the real altitude.

38) The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to ?

a) Allow damping of the measurement in the unit.
b) Reduce the hysteresis effect.
c) Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
d) InfOrm the crew of a lUilure of the instrument

39) From what is true altitude derived?

a) Pressure altitude.
b) Density altitude.
c) Temperature altitude.
d) Difference between total pressure and static pressure.

40) What is QNH?

a) Ambient pressure at the airfield.
b) Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure of the airfield.
c) Sea level pressure.
d) Sea level pressure in the ISA.
41) What is the true altitude oaf aircraft fits altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the ambient
temperature was -30° C?
a) 15200 ft.
b) 15400 ft.
c) 16200 ft.
d) 16400 ft.

42) What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warmer
air mass?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Not change.
d) Remain constant only if above the tropopause.

43) What is density altitude ?

a) Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.
b) True altitude.
c) Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
d) True altitude corrected for density changes.

44) Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters ?

a) Overcome friction.
b) Overcome inertia.
c) Overcome hysterisis.
d) Reduce lag.

45) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. this is an
indication of the true.
a) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
b) Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground af any time.
c) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. [PTO]
d) Altitude of the aircraft.

46) For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?
a) Height indication is removed.
b) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
c) DH lamp flashes red.
d) Audio warning signal sounds.

48) A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

a) Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
b) Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
c) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
 Self-contained on-board aid used FO measure the true altitude of the aircraft.

49) The data supplied by a radio altimeter?

a) Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
b) Concerns only the decision height.
c) Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
d) Is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

50) The operation of the radio altimeter of o modern aircraft is based on ?

a) Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
b) A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation,
c) Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d) Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

51) the aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of4400 MHZ is the ?
a) Weather radar.
b) Primary radar.
c) Radio altimeter.
d) High altitude radio altimeter.

52) Radio altimeters are based on the principle of?

b) Frequency modulated carrier wave.
c) Pulse modulated carrier wave.
d) Amplitude modulated carrier wave.
e) Continuous wave.

53) If the pilot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VS] indication will be too low when climbing.
b) The VS] will be too low when descending.
c) The VSI will not be affected.
d) The VS] will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

54) If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VS] indication will be too high when descending.
b) The VS] indication will be too high when accelerating.
c) The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
d) The VS] indication will be unaffected..

55) If the choke in the VS] becomes partly blocked?

a) The VS] indication will be too high when climbing.
b) The VS] indication will be too low when descending.
c) The VS] indication will be too high at all times.
d) The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.

56) If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a) The VS] indication will be too high with descending.
 The VS] indication will be too high when accelerating at constant descending.
The VS] indication will be too low at all times.
The VSI indication will be too low when descending.

57) The response rate of a VS] can be improved by fitting a?

a) Accelerometer system.
b) Choke system.
c) Bi-metallic compensator.
d) Return spring.

58) If the port static vent ofa large aircraft is blocked, what will happen to the VS] indications
when it is side slipping to the left in a descent?
a) Over indicate.
b) Under indicate.
c) Be unaffected.
d) Fluctuate.

60) What speed is Wo?

a. That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.
b. That which may never be exceeded
C. That which may be exceeded only in emergencies
d. The maximum at which fully control deflection is possible without overstressing the
aircraft structure

61) From what is \two calculated?

a. TAS.
b. EAS.
C. CAS.
d. RAS.

62) What do the upper and lower limits of the limits of the yellow arc on an ASI represent?
VNE and VNO.
VNo and VNE
Vivo and VNE.
Vwo and V.wo.

63) If the pilot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruse flight, how will the ASI
respond when descending ?
a. It will under read.
b. It will over read.
 It will read zero in all condition.
It will remain fixed at the reading at which it became blocked.

65) In an ASI system, what does the pilot probe measure?

Total pressure.
Dynamic pressure.
Static pressure.
Ambient pressure.

66) VFE is the ?

Maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly with its flaps extended.
Maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended or retracted.
The minimum speed for flaps up flight.
The maximum speed for flaps up flight.

67) What will be the effect on the AS] the pit of tube of an unpressurised aircraft is fractured and
the pilot drain is blocked.
It will over read.
It will under read.
It will give a constant reading.
lt will read zero at will speeds.

68) At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift offal the same?
CAS.
TAS.
Ground speed.
EAS.

EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.

IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
IAS corrected for density error and position error.

70) When descending from FL400 and attending to maintain maximum groundspeed,
airspeed will be limited by?
VNE then Mwo.
VNO then VNE.
MMO then VMO.
VMo then MMO.
7l)The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS) ?
a) A compressibility and density correction.
b) An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
c) An antenna and compressibility correction.
d) An instrument and density correction.

72) During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed
(CAS) ?
a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
d) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.

73) For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature
will result in a?
a) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
b) Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
c) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
d) Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.

74) When a climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will ?
a) Decrease.
b) Increase at a linear rate.
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase at an exponential rate.

75) How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL 270
when it experiences a reduction in OAT?
a) No change.
b) Increase.
c) Decrease.
d) Increase or decrease depending on TAT.
Q)

76) What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40° C?

a) 579 Kts.
b) 660 Kts.
c) 584 Kts.
d) 594 Kts.

77) A mach meter comprises of?

a) A combination ofASI and altimeter.
b) A combination of VS] and altimeter.
c) An ASI with its scale marked in mach numbers.
 An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.

78) what is the LSS at msl ISA?

a) 600 Kts.
b) 550 Kts.
c) 750 Kts.
d) 661 Kts.

79) How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when
flying at constant CAS and altitude ?
a) increase
b) Decrease.
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase or decrease depending. On altitude.

80) How will mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source becomes
blocked?
a) Increase.
b) Decrease
c) Remain constant.
d) Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.

81) The basis properties of a gyroscope are ?

The gyro 's weight.
The rigidity in space.
The inertia.
The high RPM.
The precession

82) The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilized compass system
are?
a) One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location
is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
b) Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference
direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c) Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is
maintained in this direction by an erecting system.
d) One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
83) When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot
observes the following on a classic artificial horizon ?
a) Too much nose-up and bank too high.
b) Too much nose-up and bank too low.
c) Attitude and bank correct.
d) Too much nose-up and bank correct.

85) At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the?
a) Angular velocity of the aircraft.
b) Yaw rate of the aircraft.
c) Pitch rate olathe aircraft.
d) Roll rate of he aircraft.

86) When, in flight, the needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the
aircraft is ?
a) Turning left with too much bank
b) Turning right with not enough bank
c) Turning right with too much bank
d) Turning left with not enough bank

87) How many degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?
a) Local earth vertical t*wo degrees of freedom.
b) Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom.
c) Aircraft horizontal axis one degree of freedom.
d) Aircraft longitudinal axis three degrees of freedom.

88How will a basic Al respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant bank angle
and ROT?
a) Nose up and bank B) Nose down and bank C)Nose level and bank D)Correct bank
and pitch.

89) Aircraft attitude is indicated on ?

A) EICAS/ECAM primary display. B) EFIS ND. C) EFIS PFD .D)All of the above.

89) When turning through 90° of constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial
horizon indicate?
A) Too much nose up and too little bank angle. B) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
C) Too little nose up and too little bank angle. D) Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
90) When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial
horizon indicate?
a) Too much nose up and too little bank angle. b) Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c)Too little nose up and too little bank angle. d) Too little nose up and too much bank angle.

91) The gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

a) prevent tilting of the gyro
b) Prevent precession of the gyro.
c) Erect the gyro.
d) Provide signals to the autopilot.

92) An artificial horizon has .

A) Two vertical. horizontal.
vertical. horizontal.
93) The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is . .and . indicate/s the state of
slip?
H) Held central Gravity Does not always.
b) Positioned Acceleration Does not always.
c) Held central Gravity Always.
d) Positioned Acceleration Always.

95) ROT indications are?

1) Proportional to TAS. 2) Proportional FO CAS. 3) Proportional to mass. 4) Proportional to
EAS.

96) When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the
aircraft is ?
A) Turning right with insufficient bank. B) Turning right with too much bank.
C) Turning left with too much bank. D) Turning leI with insufficient bank.

97) A rate l turn at 120 lets requires ?

A) 10°A013. B)20° AOB. C) 30° AOB.

98) The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
A) Needle and ball right. B) Needle and ball left.
C) Needle right and ball left. D) Needle left and ball right.

98) ROT indications depend on ?

l) Airspeed. 2) Mass. 3) AOB.
99) Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the
yaw, whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn
and slip indicator show in this condition.
a) Both needle and ball central. b) Both needle and ball right.
c) 8olh needle and ball left. d) Needle left and ball right.

100) in the displayed weather modes, the intensities of the returns in ascending order of intensity
are?
a) Yellow, Green, Blue and red. b) Yellow, Green, Red and Magenta.
c) Green, Yellow, Red and Magenta. d) Blue, Green, Yellow and Red.

101) Total Air Temperature is Than

P

a) Higher Static air temperature CAS. b) Higher Static Air temperature TAS.
c) Lower Dynamic air temperature CAS. d) Higher Static air temperature LSS.

102) Total air temperature is . P

A) SAT plus kinetic heating effect.
B) SAT plus the heating effect caused by shock waves at high mach numbers.
C) SAT plus skin friction heating effect.
D )Dynamic heating effect.

103) The formula for TAT is ?

A) TAT = SAT (1 + (0.2 x K x my).
C) TAT = SAT/(1 -0.2 M2).

104) What types of thermometer are used in modern aircraft?

1) Resistive. 2)Mercury.3) Capacitive. 4) lnductive.5)Thermocouple

105) a thermocouple system employs ?

a) Two dissimilar metals joined at one end and a Wheatstone bridge at the other.
b) Two dissimilar metal joined at one end and a ratio meter at the other.
c) Two dissimilar metals joined at both ends and a moving coil instrument.
d) Two dissimilar metals separated by a dielectric substance at one end and a capacitive
gauge at the other.

106) A Direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?

a) Soft iron.
 Hard iron.
Aluminum.
Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.

107) When landing on a northerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
a) A westerly turn.
b) An easterly turn.
c) No turn.
d) Rapidly increasing oscillations.

108) Magnetic heading can be calculated from true heading using ?

a) A compass and a map indicating isogonal lines.
b) A compass and calibration card.
c) A calculator and a deviation card
d) A compass and a deviation card.

109) A direct reading compass will not be affected by?

a) Ferrous metals.
b) Transformers.
c) Magnetic fields.
d) Non-ferrous metals.

110) The purpose ofa compass swing is to?

a) Align the lubber lines with true north.
b) Confirm the accuracy of the Schuler tuning.
c) Align compass north with magnetic north.
d) Align compass north with true north.

111) When landing in a southerly direction a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate ?
a) Easterly turn.
b) Westerly turn.
c) No turn.
d) Rapidly increasing oscillations.

112) A magnetic compass must be swung?

A) After long term changes in latitude. B) After long term changes in longitude.
C) Short term changes in longitude. D) Change of base airfield.

113) The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by ?

a) The H component of the earth' magnetic field.
b) The Z component of the Earth 's magnetic field.
c) Both of the above.
d) None of the above.

114) When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
a) Northerly turn.
 Southerly turn.
No turn.
Rapidly increasing oscillations.

116) between what heights in GPWS active ?

A) Zero and 500 ft. 8) Zero and 2500 ft.

117) A CVR records ?

A) Radio conversations. B) Cabin crew conversations.
C) Crew conversations on intercom. D) Public addresses announcements and cockpit
discussions.

118) GPWS must provide?

A) Visual warnings.
B) Aural and visual warnings.
C) Aural warnings which may be supplemented by visual warnings.
D) Visual and aural warnings, which may be supplemented by tactile warnings.

119) An altitude warning system ?

A) Automatically disengages auto trim at 500 ft.
B) Automatically engages auto trim at 500 ft.
C) Provides visual alerts when approaching a selected altitude.
D) Activates a warning light and bell when approaching a selected altitude.

120) GPWS modes include?

1) Stall.
2) Incorrect flap position.
3) High altitude descents.
4) High ROC.
5) Excessive glide slope deviations.
6) Loss of altitude after take-off and go-around.
7) Excessive sink rate
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

121) when fitted with mode 'C' transponders, a TCAS -2 system may provide ?
A) RA only B) TA only C) Horizontal plane TA & RA D) Vertical plane TA & RA

122) Depending upon the aircraft speeds, the Air Speed Indicator is color coded. The sequence
of the color code is-
l White, Green, Yellow, Red 2 White, Yellow, Green, Red
3 Green, Yellow, White, Red 4 Yellow, White, Green, Red.
123) Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch correction
requirements in level turning flight?
l Altimeter Air speed Indicator
3 Vertical Speed Indicator Attitude Indicator

124) Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank correction
requirements in o standard rate turn
l Artificial horizon Vertical Speed Indicator
3 Turn coordinator Heading Indicator

125) What is the correct sequence for recovery from a nose high, banked turn, reducing airspeed
and unusual attitude?
l Correct the bank attitude, lower the nose to a level attitude and lastly apply power
2 Lower the nose to a level attitude, correct the bank attitude and apply power
3 Apply power, lower the nose to a level attitude and lastly correct the bank attitude

126) For a rate one furn at 150 kt, the angle of Bank must be?
l. 22 deg 2. 25 deg 3. 30 deg

127) Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHZ) for a VOR;

1) 107.75 2) 109.90 3) 118.35 4) 112.20

128) If the pressure altitude is 30,000 feet at an elevation of26,000 feet, what is QNH ?
1) 859.7 hPa 2) 879.7 hPa 3) 887.7 hPa 4) 897.7 hPa

129) If the airplane is in an unusual [light attitude and the attitude indicator exceeded its limits,
which two instrument(s) should be reached upon to determine the pitch attitude before starting
recovery?
l ASI 8z Altimeter 2 Vertical speed indicator, turn coordinator
3 Altimeter 8z vertical speed indicator

130) If a standard rate of turn is maintained, if would take Seconds to turn left from Magnetic
Heading 050 to Magnetic Heading 120,
l . 23 seconds 2. 97 seconds 3. II seconds 30 seconds

131) What is the wave length of a signal with frequency of 600 KHZ,
l. 50 cm 2. 50 meter 3. 500 meter 4. 5000 meter

132) When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause through an inversion
layer
l The CAS end TAS will both increase 2 The CAS and TAS will both decrease
3 The CAS will decrease and TAS will increase 4 The CAS will increase and TAS will
decrease

133) In the IVSI, lag error,

1 Is eliminated by feeding a sample of static pressure to the case and delaying it FO the capsule
2 Is visually eliminated by using a special dashpot accelerometer assembly
3 Is eliminated by the use of logarithmic presentation
4 Is only eliminated when initiating a climb or descent

134) When flying from Low pressure to high pressure, the barometric error of an altimeter will
cause the instrument to:
l Read the true altitude provided a correction is made for temperature
2 Over read the true altitude of the aircraft
3 Indicate a higher altitude than the correct one
4 Under read the true altitude of the aircraft

135) DME radio waves follow ?

l.Great circle tracks 2. Rhumb line tracks 3. The radio wave is transmitted in all directions

136) What is the true direction and distance (in nm) from 48 deg 33'S, 57 deg 09 E) to (71
deg.23' S, 57 deg 09' E),
l 000 deg T 1378 nm
3 180 deg T 1370 nm

137) lf pressure altitude is 30,000 feet, indicated TAT is - 10 deg C, Mach number is 0.82, what
is the density altitude ?
1) 31000 feet 2) 30472 feet 3) 30573 feet 4)30674 feet

138) To improve the Horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:
l On the centre of the magnet 2 Below the centre of gravity
3 Above the centre of gravity 4 Varying with magnetic latitude

139) During climb from 1,000 ft PA FO 9000 PA, 50 air nm are covered in 20 minutes. Track 090
(t) W/V 270/30 kt. The rate of climb and distance covered are,
A)400 ft/minutes 8z 60 nm B) 400 ft/minutes & 40 nm
C)450 ft/minutes & 40 nm D)500 ft/minutes & 60 nm

140) An aircraft at 24,320 ft is 30 nm ground range from the station. What is its indicated
range?
A) 34 nm C)30.2 nm D)30.5 nm

142) ACARS stand for,

A) Aircrew automatic reporting system 8) Aircraft communication addressing and reporting
system C)Aflantic crossing automatic reporting system

143) In radio altimeter, the transmission frequency is,

A) Variable 8) Increases of a known rate C) Always constant

144) Maximum range of a pulse Radar is governed by,

A) Pulse recurrence frequency B) Pulse width
C) Pulse recurrence period D) Beam width

145) One Nano second is,

A) 0.000,000,001 ofa second
C) of a microsecond

146) Real wander is caused by;

A) incorrect drift B) topple due to earth rotation B) Transportation of the gyro
D)Latitude nut correction

147) An artificial horizon employs;

1) a rote gyro 2) An earth gyro

148) Compressibility is corrected for when obtaining,

(a) EAS from RAS and the correction is always subtractive
(b) RAS from (AS and the correction can be either additive or subtractive
(c) RAS from IAS and the correction is normally subtractive
(d) TAS from EAS will be over reading

149) The transponder code for Hijacking is,

1) 7600 2) 7700 3) 2000

150) Compared to the VSI, what errors are eliminated by the IVSI,
(a) Lag
(b) Turning
(c) Pressure
(d) Temperature